070-Operational Procedures

Examination Center DGAC
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1 The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed rules and regulations in the
interest of safety. When such a departure has been made, the pilot must report it to
the:
(1.00 P.)
[A] nearest police station
[B] Director General: KCAA
[C] Nearest town
[D] nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit
2 A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: (1.00 P.)
[A] 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
[B] 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
[C] 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
[D] 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
3 Requirements for a commercial pilots licence include:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 20 hours pilot in command
[B] 30 hours of cross country time
[C] 100 hours pilot in command
[D] 150 hours pilot in command
4 A category I precision approach (CAT I) has: (1.00 P.)

[A] a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
[B] a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
[C] a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
[D] no decision height.
5 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

with a runway visual range of at least: (1.00 P.)
[A] 800 m
[B] 500 m
[C] 350 m
[D] 550 m
6 Any permanent change of address should be notified to KCAA-
(1.00 P.)
[A] within the 14 days before such a change
[B] within a minimum of 21 days after such a change
[C] within the 14 days after such a change
[D] Within one day

7 Load sheets must be retained for:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 30 days
[B] 90 days
[C] 500 days

[D] 180 days
8 To establish the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular
operation, an operator must take full account of:
1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas
5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 1,2,4,5
[B] 2,3,5
[C] 2,4,5
[D] 1,2,3,4,5
9 When two aircraft are converging track:
(1.00 P.)
[A] Both shall maintain heading and speed
[B] the one which has the other on its right shall give way and must avoid
passing ahead of the other, unless well clear of it
[C] the one which has the other on its left shall give way and must avoid passing
ahead of the other, unless well clear of it
[D] both aircraft should alter heading to the left and maintain so until the
possibility of collision is well avoided
10 The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: (1.00 P.)

[A] amount of the lift off speed.
[B] strength of the headwind.
[C] depth of the standing water on the runway.
[D] aircraft's weight.
11 A category I precision approach (CAT I) has: (1.00 P.)

[A] a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
[B] no decision height.
[C] a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
[D] a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
12 The semi-circular rule must be complied with and flight levels used for all flights
above:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 2000ft agl
[B] 100ft agl
[C] 1000ft agl
[D] 50 ft agl
13 During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred

to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway
threshold is at more than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
[B] 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
[C] 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
[D] 4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
14 If the engine fails in the hover, at 3 ft skid height in still air, in a single engine
helicopter, the recommended action is: (1.00 P.)
[A] counteract yaw with pedals, use cyclic to raise tail rotor, lower collective
slightly to maintain rotor RPM
[B] use rudder to prevent yaw, push cyclic forward for touchdown, use
collective to cushion landing
[C] use rudder to prevent yaw, hold cyclic steady, lower collective briefly then
raise to cushion landing
[D] counteract yaw with pedals, maintain position with cyclic, cushion
touchdown with collective
15 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

with a runway visual range of at least: (1.00 P.)
[A] 500 m
[B] 550 m
[C] 800 m
[D] 350 m
16 A flight plan which has been activated shall be cancelled:

(1.00 P.)
[A] 1 hour after stated or revised ETD
[B] 30 minutes after stated or revised ETD
[C] 45 minutes after stated or revised ETD
[D] 15 minutes after stated or revised ETD
17 Blade sailing, with the attendant possibility of a blade strike on the tail boom or
rear fuselage, is most likely to occur: (1.00 P.)
[A] when carrying out extreme manoeuvres involving or approaching zero "g"
[B] during an autorotative descent
[C] whilst hovering in strong winds
[D] during very low rotor RPM conditions, particularly whilst starting or
stopping the rotor in gusty conditions
18 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be

carried out with a runway visual range of at least: (1.00 P.)
[A] 250 m
[B] 50 m
[C] 100 m
[D] 200 m
19 Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or

materials in question are defined as such by: (1.00 P.)
[A] The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".
[B] The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of
dangerous goods by air".
[C] The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport
of dangerous goods by air".
[D] The directives of the Community Union.
20 Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 1000 feet
[B] 3000 feet
[C] 1500 feet

[D] Not permitted
21 A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be

[A] 250 m
[B] 75 m
[C] 200 m
[D] 150 m
22 Ground resonance occurring when RPM is within operating limits can be

alleviated by: (1.00 P.)
[A] applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible
[B] applying collective pitch and lifting off
[C] avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased
[D] compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control
23 To establish the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular
operation, an operator must take full account of:
1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas
5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions
[A] 2,4,5
[B] 2,3,5
[C] 1,2,3,4,5
[D] 1,2,4,5
24 The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots.
The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR
readings for threshold mid and end of runway.
The approach minimums for runway 06 are:
DH = 300 feet,
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.
The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200
feet.
Is take-off possible? (1.00 P.)

[A] No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
[B] No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
[C] Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach
procedure.
[D] Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.
25 At an airfield without an ATSU, an aircraft taking off on runway 35 on a cross

country flight shall turn: (1.00 P.)
[A] left
[B] right
[C] Either left or right
[D] it will depend on whether there is a left or right hand circuit on RW 35 after
take-off to set course.
26 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories

according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
mass multiplied by a factor of: (1.00 P.)
[A] 1.45
[B] 1.5
[C] 1.15
[D] 1.3
27 A met report must be obtained for all flights:
(1.00 P.)
[A] less than 10 nm
[B] of more than 30- nm
[C] irrespective of the distance
[D] of more than 20 nm
28 If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed
to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device
which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by
the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a: (1.00 P.)
[A] curve of some type or other.
[B] great circle.
[C] rhumb line.
[D] spherical flight segment.
29 For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be

used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
[B] 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
[C] 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
[D] 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
30 An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the
gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On
the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] 328°.
[B] 345°.
[C] 334°.
[D] 003°.
31 Before carrying passengers the pilot-in-command of an aircraft must have

completed, on the aircraft type in which he intends carrying passengers:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 3 take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days
[B] 10 take offs and landings
[C] 5 take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days
[D] 5 take-offs and landings in the preceding 6 months
32 An instrument rating is valid for:

(1.00 P.)
[A] 6 months
[B] 3 months
[C] 20 months
[D] 12 months
33 The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:
1 - RVR/Visibility
2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H)
4 - the decision altitude/height (DA/H)
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? (1.00
P.)
[A] 1 - 3
[B] 1-4
[C] 1-2-4
[D] 1 - 2 - 3
34 A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace or advisory

airspace, must be submitted at least:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 30 minutes before departure
[B] 60 minutes before departure
[C] 45 minutes before departure
[D] 20 minutes before departure
35 A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: (1.00 P.)
[A] 3600 m
[B] 1500 m
[C] 1600 m
[D] 2400 m
36 A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero
meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6
microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the
compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.
The compass deviation at this heading is: (1.00 P.)
[A] -15°.
[B] +5°.
[C] +15°.
[D] -5°.
37 For a flight from Wilson Airport (controlled) to Makindu (uncontrolled) a flight

plan:
(1.00 P.)
[A] must be filed if the flight is at night
[B] must be filed
[C] May not be filled as it is not important
[D] can be filed for SAR
38 During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate

services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's
operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be
continued is: (1.00 P.)
[A] the middle marker.
[B] the outer marker (OM).
[C] the FAF.
[D] the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
39 001
On the diagram where:
Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E,
the correct arrangement of the different north is: (1.00 P.)
Siehe Anlage 1
[A] 2
[B] 1
[C] 4
[D] 3
40 The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity
centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot
crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-
off is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 200 m.
[B] 300 m.
[C] 150 m.
[D] 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
41 In Item 10 of a flight plan form, the letters S, D and Z appear; this means that the
following equipment is carried:
(1.00 P.)
[A] VHF, ADF, ILS, DME and Omega
[B] VHF, ADF, DME and Transponder
[C] VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, DME, and other
[D] VOR,DME Only
42 An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima
are: MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres:
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres:
The pilot may start the final approach... (1.00 P.)

[A] regardless the ceiling given by ATC.
[B] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.
[C] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
360 feet.
[D] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
240 feet.
43 A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

[A] 3600 m
[B] 2400 m
[C] 1500 m
[D] 1600 m
44 In the event of an engine failure in a single engine helicopter in the cruise, the
recommended sequence of immediate actions is: (1.00 P.)
[A] lower collective, adjust yaw pedals, select airspeed, transmit mayday,
autorotate to open ground, adjust speed for landing
[B] lower collective, counteract yaw with pedals, select attitude with cyclic,
select landing site, transmit mayday, position helicopter for an into wind
landing
[C] flare with cyclic, counteract yaw with pedals, establish descent with
collective, select landing site, adjust collective for range, land into wind,
transmit mayday
[D] correct yaw with pedals, lower collective, transmit mayday, select landing
site, use cyclic and collective to position for landing
45 A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

[A] 2400 m
[B] 1600 m
[C] 1500 m
[D] 3600 m
46 A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to: (1.00 P.)
[A] 3600 m
[B] 2400 m
[C] 1500 m
[D] 1600 m
47 The enroute safe altitude must provide for obstacle clearance:

(1.00 P.)
[A] 5 km of the route centerline
[B] 5 nm of the route centerline
[C] 10nm of the Centre line
[D] 20 nm of the route centerline
48 During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred

to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway
threshold is at more than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
[B] 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude
[C] 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
[D] 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude
49 If the rotor is overpitched, the corrective action is to: (1.00 P.)

[A] reduce both engine power and collective pitch
[B] increase engine power and collective pitch
[C] reduce engine power and leave collective pitch constant
[D] reduce collective pitch and leave engine power constant
50 If ground resonance is encountered in a helicopter, the correct recovery action is::

(1.00 P.)
[A] To shut down immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
[B] To take-off if rotor RPM sufficient, to shut down and apply rotor brake if
rotor RPM insufficient
[C] To increase rotor RPM to take-off power and get airborne
[D] To apply pitch for take-off immediately, regardless of rotor RPM
51 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be

[A] 250 m
[B] 100 m
[C] 50 m
[D] 200 m
52 You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no
rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the
flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to: (1.00 P.)
[A] 076°.
[B] 080°.
[C] 066°.
[D] 085°.
53 A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be

[A] 75 m
[B] 250 m
[C] 150 m
[D] 200 m
54 A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the
meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] 136°.
[B] 276°.
[C] 164°.
[D] 316°.
55 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories

according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
mass multiplied by a factor of: (1.00 P.)
[A] 1.45
[B] 1.3
[C] 1.15
[D] 1.5
56 To minimise the dangers of blade sailing: (1.00 P.)

[A] the start-up and shut-down should be carried out facing directly into wind
[B] the start-up and shut-down should be carried out with the helicopter facing
slightly out of wind
[C] ensure that rotor RPM during start-up or shut-down are increased or
decreased as slowly as possible
[D] flapping restrictors, if fitted, should be withdrawn before start-up or shut-
down
57 The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots.
The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR
readings for threshold mid and end of runway.
The approach minimums for runway 06 are:
DH = 300 feet,
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.
The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200
feet.
Is take-off possible? (1.00 P.)

[A] No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.
[B] Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach
procedure.
[C] No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
[D] Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.
58 Whilst on an IFR flight complete radio communication failure is experienced and

the subsequent procedure is:
(1.00 P.)
[A] Avoid alternate aerodrome
[B] continue flying in VMC if possible and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
[C] proceed to an alternate aerodrome with a known cloud base of at least 1000
feet
[D] although flight is possible in VMC the flight may continue to the aerodrome
of original destination
59 The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity
centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot
crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-
off is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 200 m.
[B] 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
[C] 150 m.
[D] 300 m.
60 Should a helicopter suffer from retreating blade stall in flight, to reduce the
effects: (1.00 P.)
[A] the cyclic control should be pulled back to decrease speed in a flare
manoeuvre
[B] power should be reduced and collective pitch increased at once to reduce
speed
[C] the collective pitch should be lowered to decrease pitch
[D] the cyclic control should be pushed forward to increase speed
61 The minimum height to fly above a proclaimed game reserve- (1.00 P.)
[A] 20000 feet
[B] 11000 feet
[C] 1500 feet
[D] 2000 feet
62 The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:
1 - RVR/Visibility
2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H)
4 - the decision altitude/height (DA/H)
P.)
[A] 1 - 2 - 3
[B] 1-3
[C] 1-4
[D] 1 - 2 - 4
63 At normal operating rotor RPM ground resonance can be prevented from

developing to a critical point, if action is taken early enough, by: (1.00 P.)
[A] avoiding any control input until all vibration has ceased
[B] compensating for helicopter movement with cyclic control
[C] applying the rotor brake as rapidly as possible
[D] applying collective pitch control and lifting off
64 For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be

used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
[B] 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
[C] 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
[D] 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
65 Blade sailing, with the attendant possibility of a blade strike on the tail boom or
rear fuselage, is most likely to occur: (1.00 P.)
[A] during very low rotor RPM conditions, particularly whilst starting or
stopping the rotor in gusty conditions
[B] when carrying out extreme manoeuvres involving or approaching zero "g"
[C] during an autorotative descent
[D] whilst hovering in strong winds
66 For a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: (1.00 P.)
[A] used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
[B] required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
[C] therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers
[D] available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons
67 During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate

services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's
operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be
continued is: (1.00 P.)
[A] the FAF.
[B] the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
[C] the outer marker (OM).
[D] the middle marker.
68 A helicopter commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in
flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to a heliport where a safe
landing can be made with: (1.00 P.)
[A] final reserve fuel remaining
[B] 15 minutes of remaining fuel
[C] fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
[D] fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the heliport
69 An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima
are: MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres:
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres:
The pilot may start the final approach... (1.00 P.)

[A] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.
[B] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
240 feet.
[C] if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than
360 feet.
[D] regardless the ceiling given by ATC.
70 On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian
in the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the
starting point of this great circle is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 298°.
[B] 295°.
[C] 292°.
[D] 301°.
71 In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft: (1.00 P.)

[A] The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
[B] The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
[C] The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
[D] The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
72 The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list
which shall be approved by the authority of: (1.00 P.)
[A] The country where the aircraft is operated.
[B] The country of the operator.
[C] The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
[D] None, no approval is required.
73 During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by KCAR'sOPS is:
(1.00 P.)
[A] 2.500 meters
[B] 1.500 meters or more
[C] 5.000 meters
[D] 3.000 meters
74 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a

runway, under the following circumstances:
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
[A] 1,2.
[B] 1,2,3.
[C] 1,3.
[D] 2,3.
75 In accordance with KCARs, (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is

established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.
The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by
Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the
stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is: (1.00 P.)
[A] D
[B] C
[C] B
[D] E
76 If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the commander

of a helicopter must: (1.00 P.)
[A] not take-off until getting meteorological forecast
[B] select two destination alternatives
[C] take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate
heliport
[D] take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed
77 An applicant for an Instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class

rating shall inter alia: (1.00 P.)
[A] have completed not less than 30 hours of Instrument time, of which not
more than 10 hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the
Director for Civil Aviation
[B] have completed not less than 40 hours of Instrument time, of which not
[C] have completed not less than 30 hours of Instrument time, of which not
[D] None of these answers

78 If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to: (1.00 P.)
[A] Begin an emergency descent.
[B] Determine which system is causing the smoke.
[C] Put on the mask and goggles.
[D] Cut off all air conditioning units.
79 Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film
of water and: (1.00 P.)
[A] the runway has a rough surface.
[B] the runway is very smooth and dirty.
[C] the runway is very smooth and clean.
[D] the tyre treads show minor cuts.
80 The amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter for IFR flight, when no alternate
is required, should include a final reserve fuel of quantity to fly : (1.00 P.)
[A] 30 minutes at best range speed
[B] 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard
conditions
[C] 20 minutes at best range speed
[D] 20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination, in standard
conditions
81 Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as
dangerous goods is not prohibited? (1.00 P.)
[A] The operator.
[B] It is not specified.
[C] The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
[D] The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.
82 The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the
appearance of: (1.00 P.)
[A] rubber steaming hydroplaning.
[B] dynamic hydroplaning.
[C] viscous hydroplaning.
[D] rubber reversion hydroplaning.
83 The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the
zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The
gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at
59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North
being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical
problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession
is zero, was not reset prior to take off.
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] +32.5°.
[B] -32.5°.
[C] +73.5°.
[D] +13°.
84 The amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight navigating by

day with reference to visual landmarks should include a final reserve fuel of
quantity to fly : (1.00 P.)
[A] 20 minutes at best range speed
[B] 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport
[C] 20 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination heliport
[D] 30 minutes at best range speed
85 The wake turbulence is most severe when the aircraft is:
1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is: (1.00 P.)

[A] 2, 3, 4
[B] 1, 4
[C] 1, 2, 3, 4
[D] 1, 2, 3
86 If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed
to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device
which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by
the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a: (1.00 P.)
[A] rhumb line.
[B] curve of some type or other.
[C] great circle.
[D] spherical flight segment.
87 The amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight in a non-hostile

environment should include contingency fuel of: (1.00 P.)
[A] 5% of the planned trip fuel
[B] quantity to fly 30 minutes at best range speed
[C] 10% of the planned trip fuel
[D] quantity to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
88 The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is produced by: (1.00 P.)

[A] the operator
[B] the manufacturer
[C] the state of the operator
[D] the aircraft state of registry
89 On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points

located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 4.0 NM.
[B] 4.0 NM.
[C] 30 NM.
[D] 9.2 NM.
90 The pre-flight fuel calculation, for a helicopter on an IFR flight should include
contingency fuel quantity: (1.00 P.)
[A] to fly 30 minutes at best range speed
[B] of 5% of the planned trip fuel
[C] to fly 20 minutes at best range speed
[D] of 10% of the planned trip fuel
91 The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by: (1.00
P.)
[A] the shipper.
[B] the operator.
[C] the captain.
[D] the handling agent.
92 In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose
printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction
of geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this
moment is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 340°.
[B] 110°.
[C] 060°.
[D] 240°.
93 A helicopter with a Maximum take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg conducting

Helicopter Emergency Medical Service shall be operated in accordance with:
(1.00 P.)
[A] performance class 1 at night, 1 or 2 by daylight
[B] performance class 1
[C] any class of performance due to the emergency situation
[D] performance class 1 or 2
94 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an

increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1- flies above the glide path

2- flies below the glide path
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
The combination of correct statements is: (1.00 P.)

[A] 2,3.
[B] 1,4.
[C] 1,3.
[D] 2,4.
95 To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: (1.00 P.)
[A] useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
[B] possible and recommended.
[C] useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
[D] useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:


[A] 2,3.
[B] 2,4.
[C] 1,4.
[D] 1,3.
97 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a

decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed

[A] 2,3
[B] 1,4
[C] 1,3
[D] 2,4
98 An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the
gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On
the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] 328°.
[B] 334°.
[C] 345°.
[D] 003°.
99 Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with: (1.00 P.)

[A] all available extinguishers in sequence.
[B] only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
[C] all available extinguishers simultaneously.
[D] all available liquids.

decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

the combination of correct statements is: (1.00 P.)

[A] 1,3.
[B] 2,3.
[C] 2,4.
[D] 1,4.
101 After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind.
In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1- flies above the climb-out path

2- flies below the climb-out path

[A] 1,4.
[B] 2,3.
[C] 1,3.
[D] 2,4.
102 After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: (1.00
P.)
[A] only from front or rear side.
[B] only from left or right side.
[C] under no circumstances.
[D] from any side.
103 The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an

aircraft by an operator must not be less than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or
approved simulator
[B] 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or
approved simulator in the preceding 90 days
[C] 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
[D] 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
104 The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a
coverage angle of: (1.00 P.)
[A] 110°.
[B] 220°.
[C] 70°.
[D] 140°.
105 Each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses
provided
1 - during taxying
2 - during take-off
3 - during landing
4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety
5 - during other phases of the flight, while at their station.
[A] 1, 2, 3, 4
[B] 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
[C] 2, 3, 4
[D] 1, 2, 3, 5
106 Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

(1.00 P.)
[A] flight manual.
[B] journey logbook.
[C] operational flight plan.
[D] operations manual.
107 A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:
(1.00 P.)
[A] Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention.
[B] Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.
[C] the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
[D] the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
108 In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft: (1.00 P.)
[A] The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
[B] The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
[C] The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
[D] The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
109 A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero
meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.
In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6
microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the
compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.
The compass deviation at this heading is: (1.00 P.)
[A] -15°.
[B] +15°.
[C] -5°.
[D] +5°.
110 To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot
should manoeuvre: (1.00 P.)
[A] Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
[B] Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
[C] Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
[D] Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
111 The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, located to
the rear of the aircraft, is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 70°
[B] 140°
[C] 220°
[D] 110°
112 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: (1.00 P.)
[A] red light
[B] white light
[C] red and white flashing light
[D] green light
113 Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight
can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and
secured? (1.00 P.)
[A] The operator.
[B] The commander.
[C] The airline's dispatcher.
[D] The flight engineer.
114 For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall
be located (in still air conditions) within: (1.00 P.)
[A] two hours of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
[B] one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
[C] one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
[D] two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
115 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: (1.00 P.)
[A] red steady light
[B] green steady light
[C] green and white flashing light
[D] white steady light
116 On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 12 000 ft
[B] 13 000 ft
[C] 10 000 ft
[D] 11 000 ft
117 On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with
oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude
greater than: (1.00 P.)
[A] 11 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
[B] 11 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft
[C] 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft
[D] 10 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft
118 The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 110°
[B] 220°
[C] 140°
[D] 70°
119 The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can
be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this
allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by: (1.00 P.)
[A] the operator and approved by the certification authority
[B] the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
[C] the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
[D] the operations manual
120 A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available
indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required
alternate aerodrome(s) are: (1.00 P.)
[A] At the estimated time of arrival, at or above the planning minima.
[B] during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima.
[C] At the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required
for aerodrome use.
[D] At the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after
such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions
required for aerodrome use.
121 The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

(1.00 P.)
[A] a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to
the occupants
[B] a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect
the aircraft and its occupants
[C] an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect
no injuries on board or on the surface
[D] an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect
no injuries on board
122 When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or

disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is: (1.00 P.)
[A] The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and
slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
[B] The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
[C] All flight crew shall remain at their station.
[D] Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
123 The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be
inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which
this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by: (1.00 P.)
[A] the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum
Equipment List (MMEL)
[B] the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum
equipment List (MMEL)
[C] the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum
Equipment List (MMEL)
[D] the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum
equipment List (MMEL)
124 Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established: (1.00 P.)
[A] spin up
[B] lift
[C] drag
[D] lift destruction
125 One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it: (1.00 P.)
[A] occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
[B] occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
[C] can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
[D] can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
126 Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ?
(1.00 P.)
[A] Pitch angle.
[B] Indicated airspeed.
[C] Groundspeed.
[D] Vertical speed.
127 If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] Greater than the actual.
[B] Equal to the actual.
[C] Not available.
[D] Less than the actual.
128 070-001.jpg
On the diagram where:
Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E,
the correct arrangement of the different north is: (1.00 P.)
Siehe Anlage 2
[A] 4
[B] 1
[C] 3
[D] 2
129 Wake turbulence risk is highest: (1.00 P.)

[A] if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway
with heavy crosswind.
[B] when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take
off.
[C] following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
[D] when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated
parallel runway with a light crosswind.
130 The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is: (1.00 P.)
[A] Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
[B] Water may only be used for minor fires.
[C] A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
[D] Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon
dioxide.
131 What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is
subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) ?: (1.00 P.)
[A] A 7800
[B] A 7700
[C] A 7500
[D] A 7600
132 The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in: (1.00 P.)
[A] ICAO Appendix 8
[B] the Washington Convention
[C] ICAO Annex 18
[D] ICAO Annex 17
133 Unintentional over-pitching is likely to occur: (1.00 P.)

[A] when commencing a flare
[B] as a result of excessive cyclic movement
[C] at low airspeed in a transition to or from the hover
[D] after attaining effective translational lift
134 Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing ?
(1.00 P.)
[A] These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
[B] These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.
[C] These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
[D] There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.
135 Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with
icing conditions: (1.00 P.)
[A] The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
[B] The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be
initiated rapidly
[C] The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
[D] A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without
ice-protection systems
136 You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no
rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the
flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to: (1.00 P.)
[A] 066°.
[B] 080°.
[C] 085°.
[D] 076°.
137 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
runway, under the following circumstances:
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry.
[A] 2,3.
[B] 1,2,3.
[C] 1,3.
[D] 1,2.
138 Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead.
The initial indications will be:
1 - an increase in head wind

2 - an increase in tail wind
3 - better climb performance
4 - a decrease in climb gradient
[A] 1, 4
[B] 1, 3
[C] 2, 3
[D] 2, 4
139 If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to: (1.00 P.)
[A] Put on the mask and goggles.
[B] Determine which system is causing the smoke.
[C] Cut off all air conditioning units.
[D] Begin an emergency descent.
140 The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will
provide a: (1.00 P.)
[A] protection time up to 24 hours.
[B] limited holdover time.
[C] limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature.
[D] protection against icing for the duration of the flight.
141 In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to
inflate their life jackets: (1.00 P.)
[A] immediately on ditching.
[B] immediately on the opening of the exits.
[C] as soon as ditching is prepared.
[D] when exiting the aircraft.
142 Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by:
1. a change in environmental sounds.

2. the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb.
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft
decreases.
[A] 1, 2, 3.
[B] 1, 2.
[C] 1, 3.
[D] 2, 3.
143 An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be

equipped with: (1.00 P.)
[A] three hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.
[B] one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and one hand fire-
extinguisher in the passengers compartment.
[C] one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-
extinguishers in the passengers compartment.
[D] two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-
extinguishers in the passengers compartment.
144 ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document

dealing with: (1.00 P.)
[A] the noise pollution of aircraft
[B] the technical operational use of aircraft
[C] the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods
[D] the air transport of live animals
145 Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as
dangerous goods is not prohibited? (1.00 P.)
[A] The operator.
[B] It is not specified.
[C] The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.
[D] The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.
146 The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. the type and intensity of the showers

2. the ambient temperature
3. the relative humidity
4. the direction and speed of the wind
5. the temperature of the aircraft skin
6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature
[A] 2, 3, 4, 5
[B] 1, 2, 4, 6
[C] 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
[D] 1, 3, 5, 6
147 When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right
side, you adopt, whenever possible: (1.00 P.)
[A] an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.
[B] a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right
of and above its path.
[C] a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of
and under its path.
[D] a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it
and under its path.
148 When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air
isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone
a vector which is equal to: (1.00 P.)
[A] wind at K.
[B] mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
[C] wind at K'.
[D] mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
149 A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:
1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage
[A] 1, 2, 3
[B] 1, 2
[C] 2, 3
[D] 1
150 For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a:
(1.00 P.)
[A] low mass and high airspeed
[B] low mass and low airspeed
[C] high mass and low airspeed
[D] high mass and high airspeed
151 A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is

fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks
(dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
[B] 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
[C] 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
[D] 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
152 As a result of an in-flight fuel check, the expected fuel remaining on arrival is less
than the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel.
The commander may permit alternate fuel to be used before landing at the
destination, provided that, at on shore destination: (1.00 P.)
[A] separate touchdown and lift-off areas are available and weather conditions
are above the planning minima
[B] latest forecast indicates that, at the expected time of arrival, the weather
conditions are above the planning minima
[C] the appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicates that, during a period
commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival, the weather conditions are above the planning minima
[D] two independent runways are available and expected weather conditions are
such that ceiling is 500 ft above MDA and above 1500 ft above airport
elevation
153 After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must
keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: (1.00 P.)
[A] 60 days.
[B] 45 days.
[C] 90 days.
[D] 30 days.
154 For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to: (1.00 P.)
[A] protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
[B] protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious
gases.
[C] provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following
a cabin depressurisation.
[D] provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft
after 30 minutes.
155 The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He
(1.00 P.)
[A] shall do so, within a reasonable period of time.
[B] can refuse to present them.
[C] shall do so if authorised by the operator.
[D] can request a delay of 48 hours.
156 The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature,
will be longest in weather conditions of: (1.00 P.)
[A] freezing fog
[B] frost
[C] rain on a cold soaked wing
[D] steady snow
157 A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the

following characteristics:
Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin
compartment should be: (1.00 P.)
[A] 200.
[B] 220.
[C] 180.
[D] 230.
158 At any ambient temperature up to + 30° C and with a relative humidity as low as
40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing: (1.00 P.)
[A] cannot occur
[B] can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
[C] can occur at any setting
[D] can occur, but only at a low power setting
159 Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of
oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? (1.00 P.)
[A] FL 100.
[B] FL 250.
[C] FL 300.
[D] FL 390.
160 Which of the following weather conditions will give the shortest holdover time for
a given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid? (1.00 P.)
[A] Freezing fog
[B] Steady snow
[C] Light freezing rain
[D] Frost
161 Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of
birds ? (1.00 P.)
[A] short gang-mown grass
[B] long grass
[C] edible rubbish
[D] an area liable to flooding
162 An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 NM away from an

aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising
speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt, and it is capable to join the
diversion aerodrome. (1.00 P.)
[A] Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
[B] Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
[C] The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in
this particular case.
[D] Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
163 Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an
aerodrome ? (1.00 P.)
[A] modern and close sewage treatment centre in close proximity
[B] the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
[C] maintaining the grass on the airfield
[D] a opened refuse tip in close vicinity
164 Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander

should submit a report to: (1.00 P.)
[A] the local authority only
[B] both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
[C] the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time
of the unlawful interference
[D] the Authority of the State of the operator only
165 An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder which starts to record automatically: (1.00 P.)
[A] when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the
parking brake is set.
[B] when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the
aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.
[C] prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of
the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own
power.
[D] prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of
flight when the parking brake is set.
166 What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
is being subjected to unlawful interference: (1.00 P.)
[A] code A 7600
[B] code A 7700
[C] code A 2000
[D] code A 7500
167 In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure
is to: (1.00 P.)
[A] operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems.
[B] de-ice the aircraft.
[C] de-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid.
[D] apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing
procedures.
168 A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the
meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be: (1.00 P.)
[A] 164°.
[B] 136°.
[C] 316°.
[D] 276°.
169 The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:
1. slow
2. heavy
3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
The combination of correct statement is: (1.00 P.)

[A] 1, 2, 3
[B] 2, 3, 4
[C] 1, 2, 3, 4
[D] 1, 4
170 Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly
outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport
document in addition to any other language ? (1.00 P.)
[A] French
[B] English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese
[C] Spanish
[D] English
171 In compliance with KCARs and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous
goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a: (1.00
P.)
[A] specialized handling employee.
[B] transport document for dangerous goods.
[C] system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in
temperature.
[D] representative of the company owning the goods.
172 The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of

dangerous goods are specified in the: (1.00 P.)
[A] AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
[B] air operator certificate.
[C] operations manual.
[D] flight manual.
173 The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends

vertically between flight levels: (1.00 P.)
[A] 280 and 400.
[B] 280 and 390.
[C] 275 and 400.
[D] 285 and 420.
174 The commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions: (1.00 P.)
[A] even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and
balance limits.
[B] unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the
aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than
moderate icing.
[C] unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as
permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual.
[D] unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than
5 mm.
175 After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence
of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to: (1.00 P.)
[A] switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until
clear of icing conditions when airborne
[B] carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure
[C] complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover
(protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not
been exceeded
[D] complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further
contamination
176 In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation

Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must: (1.00 P.)
[A] continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received
and acknowledged.
[B] return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance
received and acknowledged.
[C] join one of the so-called "special" routes.
[D] change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.
177 According to the KCARs, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is

equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
(1.00 P.)
[A] a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
[B] a sealing system which, in case of depressurisation in the compartment area
allows the maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible.
[C] a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.
[D] distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in
case of a blocked door).
178 When a commander of an aircraft notices, after take-off, a flock of birds

presenting a bird strike hazard, he/she shall: (1.00 P.)
[A] submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within at most 48
hours.
[B] inform the other aircraft by radio.
[C] immediately inform the local ground station/ATS unit.
[D] inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.
179 The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the: (1.00
P.)
[A] insurance certificate.
[B] airworthiness certificate.
[C] registration certificate.
[D] air operator certificate.
180 070-004.jpg
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is: (1.00 P.)
Siehe Anlage 3
[A] a corpse
[B] an infectious substance
[C] a toxic material
[D] an explosive substance
181 Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of
dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: (1.00 P.)
[A] no passenger is carried on the same flight
[B] the airline is approver to and complies with the technical instructions (ICAO
DOC 9284)
[C] national aviation administration permission has been granted
[D] government permission has been granted and compliance with the technical
instructions
182 In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is: (1.00 P.)

[A] A 7600
[B] A 7700
[C] A 2000
[D] A 7500
183 A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:
1- class A fires
2- class B fires
3- electrical source fires
4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
P.)
[A] 1 - 2 - 3
[B] 3-4
[C] 2-4
[D] 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
184 The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halon
P.)
[A] 2 - 3 - 4
[B] 3-4
[C] 1-2-3-4
[D] 1
185 If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
(1.00 P.)
[A] the manufacturer / the type certificate holder.
[B] the aircraft manufacturer's list.
[C] the aircraft state of registry.
[D] the operator.
186 The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halon
P.)
[A] 3 - 4
[B] 1-2-3-4
[C] 2-3-4
[D] 2
187 On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian
in the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the
starting point of this great circle is: (1.00 P.)
[A] 295°.
[B] 298°.
[C] 301°.
[D] 292°.
188 H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: (1.00 P.)

[A] Class A fires
[B] electrical source fires
[C] special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
[D] Class B fires
189 The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by: (1.00
P.)
[A] the operator.
[B] the shipper.
[C] the handling agent.
[D] the captain.
190 CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight:

1 - class A fires
2 - class B fires
3 - fires with an electrical origin
4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements: (1.00 P.)
[A] 2 - 3 - 4
[B] 1-3-4
[C] 1-2-3
[D] 1 - 2 - 4

decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:
1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
4. has a decreasing true airspeed

[A] 2,4
[B] 1,3
[C] 2,3
[D] 1,4
192 A class B fire is a fire of: (1.00 P.)

[A] electrical source fire
[B] liquid or liquefiable solid
[C] special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
[D] solid material usually of organic nature
193 The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) if this exists is established by: (1.00
P.)
[A] the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
[B] the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
[C] the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
[D] the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:


[A] 2,4.
[B] 1,3.
[C] 1,4.
[D] 2,3.
195 The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be
inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be
observed accordingly. This list is prepared by: (1.00 P.)
[A] the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
[B] the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
[C] the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
[D] the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
196 A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is: (1.00 P.)
[A] the minimum equipment list.
[B] the operations manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".
[C] the KCARs.
[D] the flight record.
197 Wind shear is:

(1.00 P.)
[A] a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large
distance
[B] a variation in vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
[C] a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
[D] a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
over a short distance
198 A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
(1.00 P.)
[A] the KCARs.
[B] the operations manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".
[C] the flight manual.
[D] the minimum equipment list.

increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:


[A] 1,3.
[B] 2,3.
[C] 2,4.
[D] 1,4.
200 The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:
(1.00 P.)
[A] KCARs.
[B] flight record.
[C] operations manual.
[D] flight manual.
Anlagen zu den Aufgaben
Anlage 1 zu Aufgabe 39
Titel: Anlage 1
Titel: Anlage 1
Titel: Anlage 1
Anlagen zu den Aufgaben
Vom Teilnehmer auszufüllen
Name: Prüf.-Nr.:
Prüfungsdatum: Unterschrift
1. A B C D 2. A B C D 3. A B C D
4. A B C D 5. A B C D 6. A B C D
7. A B C D 8. A B C D 9. A B C D
10. A B C D 11. A B C D 12. A B C D
13. A B C D 14. A B C D 15. A B C D
16. A B C D 17. A B C D 18. A B C D
19. A B C D 20. A B C D 21. A B C D
22. A B C D 23. A B C D 24. A B C D
25. A B C D 26. A B C D 27. A B C D
28. A B C D 29. A B C D 30. A B C D
31. A B C D 32. A B C D 33. A B C D
34. A B C D 35. A B C D 36. A B C D
37. A B C D 38. A B C D 39. A B C D
40. A B C D 41. A B C D 42. A B C D
43. A B C D 44. A B C D 45. A B C D
46. A B C D 47. A B C D 48. A B C D
49. A B C D 50. A B C D 51. A B C D
52. A B C D 53. A B C D 54. A B C D
55. A B C D 56. A B C D 57. A B C D
58. A B C D 59. A B C D 60. A B C D
61. A B C D 62. A B C D 63. A B C D
64. A B C D 65. A B C D 66. A B C D

Name: Prüf.-Nr.:
67. A B C D 68. A B C D 69. A B C D
70. A B C D 71. A B C D 72. A B C D
73. A B C D 74. A B C D 75. A B C D
76. A B C D 77. A B C D 78. A B C D
79. A B C D 80. A B C D 81. A B C D
82. A B C D 83. A B C D 84. A B C D
85. A B C D 86. A B C D 87. A B C D
88. A B C D 89. A B C D 90. A B C D
91. A B C D 92. A B C D 93. A B C D
94. A B C D 95. A B C D 96. A B C D
97. A B C D 98. A B C D 99. A B C D
100 101 102

A B C D A B C D A B C D
. . .
103 104 105
. . .
106 107 108
. . .
109 110 111
. . .
112 113 114
. . .
115 116 117
. . .
118 119 120
. . .
121 122 123
. . .
124 125 126
. . .
127 128 129
. . .
130 131 132
. . .
Name: Prüf.-Nr.:
133 134 135

. . .
136 137 138
. . .
139 140 141
. . .
142 143 144
. . .
145 146 147
. . .
148 149 150
. . .
151 152 153
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154 155 156
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157 158 159
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160 161 162
. . .
163 164 165
. . .
166 167 168
. . .
169 170 171
. . .
172 173 174
. . .
175 176 177
. . .
178 179 180
. . .
181 182 183
. . .
184 185 186
. . .
187 188 189
. . .
190 191 192
. . .
193 194 195
. . .
196 197 198
. . .
Name: Prüf.-Nr.:
199 200
A B C D A B C D
. .
Nur für den internen Gebrauch
LÖSUNGSBOGEN Prüf.-Nr.:
Prüfungsdatum:
1. B 2. C 3. C
4. A 5. D 6. C
7. D 8. D 9. B
10. C 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. D 15. B
16. A 17. D 18. D
19. C 20. B 21. B
22. B 23. C 24. D
25. D 26. D 27. C
28. B 29. B 30. A
31. A 32. D 33. A
34. A 35. A 36. D
37. D 38. B 39. D
40. C 41. C 42. A
43. B 44. B 45. B
46. C 47. B 48. C
49. D 50. B 51. D
52. A 53. A 54. A
55. B 56. B 57. D
58. D 59. C 60. C
61. C 62. B 63. D
64. D 65. A 66. B

Prüfungsdatum:
67. C 68. A 69. D
70. B 71. C 72. B
73. B 74. B 75. A
76. B 77. B 78. C
79. B 80. B 81. C
82. C 83. A 84. A
85. D 86. C 87. A
88. A 89. C 90. D
91. A 92. D 93. B
94. D 95. C 96. D
97. D 98. A 99. C
100 101 102

A D A
. . .
103 104 105
B A B
. . .
106 107 108
D D B
. . .
109 110 111
C D B
. . .
112 113 114
D B B
. . .
115 116 117
A B C
. . .
118 119 120
A B B
. . .
121 122 123
C A C
. . .
124 125 126
B D B
. . .
127 128 129
A C D
. . .
130 131 132
A C C
. . .
Prüfungsdatum:
133 134 135

C C C
. . .
136 137 138
D B B
. . .
139 140 141
A B D
. . .
142 143 144
A B C
. . .
145 146 147
C C B
. . .
148 149 150
B D C
. . .
151 152 153
A A A
. . .
154 155 156
C A B
. . .
157 158 159
B D B
. . .
160 161 162
C B A
. . .
163 164 165
D B C
. . .
166 167 168
D C B
. . .
169 170 171
A D B
. . .
172 173 174
C D C
. . .
175 176 177
B A A
. . .
178 179 180
C D C
. . .
181 182 183
B D D
. . .
184 185 186
C A C
. . .
187 188 189
A A B
. . .
190 191 192
C A B
. . .
193 194 195
C A A
. . .
196 197 198
B D D
. . .
Prüfungsdatum:
199 200
A C
. .

070-Operational Procedures

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Examination Center DGAC

3 Requirements for a commercial pilots licence include:

4 A category I precision approach (CAT I) has: (1.00 P.)

5 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

6 Any permanent change of address should be notified to KCAA-

[D] Within one day

7 Load sheets must be retained for:

[C] 500 days

1. equipment available for navigation

9 When two aircraft are converging track:

10 The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: (1.00 P.)

11 A category I precision approach (CAT I) has: (1.00 P.)

13 During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred

15 A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out

16 A flight plan which has been activated shall be cancelled:

18 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be

19 Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or

20 Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is:

[C] 1500 feet

21 A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be

22 Ground resonance occurring when RPM is within operating limits can be

1. equipment available for navigation

Is take-off possible? (1.00 P.)

25 At an airfield without an ATSU, an aircraft taking off on runway 35 on a cross

26 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories

27 A met report must be obtained for all flights:

29 For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be

31 Before carrying passengers the pilot-in-command of an aircraft must have

32 An instrument rating is valid for:

33 The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:

34 A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace or advisory

35 A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

37 For a flight from Wilson Airport (controlled) to Makindu (uncontrolled) a flight

38 During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate

The pilot may start the final approach... (1.00 P.)

43 A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

45 A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the

46 A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

47 The enroute safe altitude must provide for obstacle clearance:

48 During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred

49 If the rotor is overpitched, the corrective action is to: (1.00 P.)

50 If ground resonance is encountered in a helicopter, the correct recovery action is::

51 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be

53 A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be

55 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories

56 To minimise the dangers of blade sailing: (1.00 P.)

Is take-off possible? (1.00 P.)

58 Whilst on an IFR flight complete radio communication failure is experienced and

62 The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is:

63 At normal operating rotor RPM ground resonance can be prevented from

64 For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be

67 During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate

The pilot may start the final approach... (1.00 P.)

71 In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft: (1.00 P.)

74 Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a

1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.

75 In accordance with KCARs, (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is

76 If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the commander

77 An applicant for an Instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class

[D] None of these answers

84 The amount of fuel to be carried by a helicopter on a VFR flight navigating by

85 The wake turbulence is most severe when the aircraft is:

The combination of correct statement is: (1.00 P.)