CLUSTER 5:

RADIOLOGIC SCIENCES
RRT 2019
1. Horseshoe kidneys may be confused sonographically with which of 25. In a computed tomography examination, if the patient has a
the following diseases or conditions? confirmed vasovagal reaction, which drug should be administered to
- HYPERNEPHROMA increase heart rate?
2. When scanning a neonate, the transducers should be cleaned - ATROPINE
between usage with ________________? 26. What standard magnetic resonance imaging pulse sequence can
- ALCOHOL provide T1, T2 or proton density weighted images?
3. Which of the following statements is indicative of splenomegaly? - SPIN ECHO
- INCREASED ECHOGENICITY 27. Which is one of the two imaging procedure of choice used to
4. What is the standard Mo-99 contamination in the Tc-99m eluate? evaluate brain abscesses?
- LESS THAN 0.15 uCi of Mo-99 per mCi of Tc-99m - COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
5. What radiopharmaceuticals are used for dual trace gastric emptying 28. As a means of signal dynamic range reduction, gray-scale system
study? typically use _____________________.
- Tc-99m DTPA in water and Tc-99m sulfur colloid labeled eggs - COMPRESSION
6. PET imaging is especially useful to evaluate? 29. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is suitable for blood
- PRE and POST EVALUATION OF CHEMOTHERAPHY pool scanning?
7. Which of the following organs is applicable with the Sanford - TECHNETIUM 99m ( Tc99m ) TAGGED RED BLOOD CELL
Technique? 30. Which of the following is the part of brain stem that appears heart
- TOTAL SKIN IRRADIATION shaped or circular-shaped structure on axial computed tomography
8. Which terms refer to a benign lesion commonly found as an scan of the brain?
incidental finding in the metaphysis of long bones in children? - MIDBRAIN
- FIBROUS CORTICAL DEFECTS 31. The gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen -1 is ____________ MHz/T?
9. Which of the following are among the main management protocols - 42.6
for lung cancer. 32. Which fast pulse sequence will create magnetic resonance image
i. RADIATION THERAPY within a few second?
ii. SURGICAL RESECTION - ECHO PLANAR IMAGING (Fast Spin Echo/ Turbo Spin Echo)
- I and II
10. Which type of hyperparathyroidism is often detected in parathyroid
33. The technique that uses optical system to produce a visible image
imaging?
- PARATHYROID NEOPLASM of an ultrasonic beam?
11. Ultrasonographically, four (4) weeks gestational age is equivalent - KINETIC SCANNING
to ______ weeks menstrual age.
- SIX (6) 34. Type of computed tomography to reduce patient dose and
12. Which of the following is the primary reason why the use of enhanced image contrast.
betatrons in radiation therapy becomes unpopular? - COLLIMATOR ASSEMBLY
- TOO LARGE 35. What is the gray matter appearance of computed tomography?
13. Which of the following radiographic position will clearly - HYPER DENSE (Hypodense)
demonstrate the epiglottitis? 36. What routine head CT protocol is the acquisition of scout for
- NECK POSTERO-ANTERIOR (Lateral) determining the appropriate angle
14. The distinction of subdural form subarachnoid hemorrhage can - LATERAL
best be made with which of the following imaging modalities? 37. What is isocenter?
- COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY - POINT AROUND WHICH THE SOURCE OF BEAM ROTATES
15. The relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of a voxel tissue to an - THE POINT OF CENTRAL AXIS WHERE THE MAXIMUM DOSE
equal volume of water is referred to as _______? OCCURS
- HOUNSFIELD UNIT 38. Increase primary reason of the use of betatron radiation therapy
16. Which of the following are reasons why Sodium Iodide ( Thallium became unpopular.
Iodide ) is used as scintillation crystal? - PRODUCE LOW DOSE RATE AND LIMITED FIELD SIZES
ii. INEXPENSIVE 39. What radioactive isotopes are used in tandems and oviods?
iii. TRANSPARENT TO OWN RADIATION - IRIDIUM 192
- II and III 40. The reason of Tc99m Pertechnetate is taken to the thyroid gland?
17. A Lucite tray inserted in the path of the beam can be considered a - SAME ION SIZE WITH IODINE
________________. 41. The mechanism of radiopharmaceuticals qualification in lung
-BEAM SPOILER scanning.
18. In which of the following will Technecium 99m methylene - CAPILLARY BLOCKAGE
diphosphonate (Tc99m MDP) binds in bone scintigraphy? 42. What is the term used for the role of sound attenuation tissue?
- HYDROXYAPATITE CRYSTAL - HALF VALUE LAYER
19. In magnetic resonance imaging which of the following coils 43. Characteristic of 1st generation in CT Scan imaging.
completely surrounds the patient and acts as antennas to produce and - 5 MINUTE IMAGING TIME
44.The percentage depth dose depends on
detect radiowaves?
- FIELD SIZE, DISTANCE, ENERGY
- RADIOFREQUENCY (Radiofrequency Coils) 45. Instrument used to detect frequency shift
- DOPPLER
20. What property most influences image appearance in magnetic 46. In a computed tomography imaging what component of collimator
resonance imaging? controls patient dose profile
- RELAXATION - PRE PATIENT
47. In CT, what is the most common matrix size used?
21. Which of the following is a circumscribed collection of pus - 512 x 512
occurring in an acute or chronic infection in the brain tissue? 48. In the scanning system, what is the major component of magnetic
resonance imaging?
- ABSCESS
- MAGNET
49. What is the common cystitis/ UTI?
22. Which of the following is the time between the inverting 180
- ASCENDING INFECTION FROM THE URETHRA
degree radiofrequency pulse, and the 90 degree excitation pulse?
50. What is non- malignant tumor?
- INVERSION TIME
- ADENOMA
23. Super voltage x-ray units usually operate in the range of
51. What is the penumbra of a linear accelerator beam?
__________________ kVp.
- SMALLER THAN THAT OF COBALT60 MACHINE
- 500 – 1000
52. What will provide a visual representation of the dose the values
24. Treatment of cancer using 10-15 kVp best described which type of
- ISODOSE CURVE
therapy machine?
53. What is likely condition indicate a non- shadowing, non-motile
- GRENZ-RAY
pathogenic foci seen with in the gallbladder?
 CLUSTER 5:
RADIOLOGIC SCIENCES
RRT 2019
- POLYPS 90. What urinary bladder segment is ultrasonographically observable
54. The coil which is directly place to the patient in MRI imaging to the cystic duct
- SURFACE COIL - HARTMANN’S POUCH
55. The most specific non-invasive method of diagnosing mitral 91. What will define the brightness in MRI
stenosis - MRI SIGNAL STRENGTH
- ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY 94. What sonographic demonstration in diagnosing obstructive
56. A radiopharmaceutical used for “hot spot” myocardial imaging jaundice
- Tc99m PYP ( PYRO PHOSPHATE ) - MASS IN PANCREAS WITH DILATED COMMON BILE DUCT
57. Most common long term observed in administration of I-131 NAL 95. What technology may spiral CT has
therapy dose treatment of Grave’s diseases - SLIP RINGS
- HYPOTHYROIDISM 96. What is Lefort’s method fracture involving cranial facial bones
58. What is the concern of cardiac toxicity from breast - TYPE 3
- SOMETIMES A SERIOUS PROBLEM 98. What low Z material used for patient couch
59. What is the ratio of pressure to particle velocity as a given point - CARBON FIBER
within the ultrasonic field. 100. Medical diagnosis for patient who is experiencing sign and
- IMPEDANCE symptoms of bronchiectasis due to mucus plug
60. What is the unit used to expressing the ratio of electrical signal or - CYSTIC FIBROSIS
sound energy 101. What is the best sonographic window to the left hemi diaphragm
- DECIBEL - SPLEEN
61. What increases scanning time 102. The portal vein sagittal scan which is seen circular echoic
- INCREASE IN NUMBER OF EXCITATION structure
62. What could be confused for pancreas in scanning the tail of the - ANTERIOR TO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA
pancreas, from prone position 103. What is the proper sequence producing a CT image
- SPLENIC FLEXURE - DATA ACQUISITION
63. What decreases motion artifacts - IMAGE RECONSTRUCTION
- DECREASE IN REPETITION TIME - IMAGE POST PROCESSING
64. The characteristics of this condition is an esophagus that ends in 104. What hyperparathyroidism is often detected in thyroid imaging
blind pouch - PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
- ESOPHAGEAL ATRESIA 105. What CT scan generation characterize by a Ring Artifact
65. What determines the amount of reflection to interphase material - THIRD
- SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE 106. What position is best to visualize a transplant kidney in
66. What is equal to the ratio, operating frequency and frequency NUCLEAR MEDICINE
bandwidth - LATERALLY
- TRANSDUCER QUALITY FACTOR 107. What is the basis for the formula computing the value of CT
67. In dose calibrator quality control, when is the linearity checked number
- QUARTERLY - LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT FOR WATER
70. What is the primary purpose of a testicular shield 109. What will be confused as a horseshoe kidney sonographically
- SHIELD THE TESTES FROM THE PRIMARY BEAM - LYMPHADENOPATHY
71. What is the main goal of radiation therapy in patient with bone 111. What is the major factor determining the acoustic power output of
metastasis the transducer
- PREVENTS FRACTURE AND REDUCE PAIN - MAGNITUDE OF THE VOLTAGE SPIKE
72. What scan parameter is chosen for field echo sequence to 112. Which of the following least obstacle of the transmission of the
satisfied a unique contrast appearance of resultant image ultrasound
- FLIP ANGLE - BLOOD
73. What is the necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma with a dense 114. These are the hall mark of the radiographic appearance of the
center and hazy, poorly defined periphery with a typical air fluid level emphysema
with in the structures - PULMONARY OVER INFLATION WITH FLATTENING OF DOMES
- CAVITARY LUNG ABSCESS OF THE DIAPHRAGM
75. Gastric emptying study in NUCLEAR MEDICINE imaging 115. Aspiration Pneumonia is due to
- DETERMINE THE TIME TAKEN FOR FOOD DIGESTIVE TO - VOMITING
STOMACH 117. A radiographic landmark of laryngotracheobronchitis is
76. What is the well-defined structure which increased echogenicity - HOUR GLASS SIGN
- SOLID TUMOR 118. The following are true statement about in emphysema
77. The treatment of patient undergoing nuclear medicine therapy - APPEARANCE OF RETROSTERNAL IS RADIOLUCENT WITH
polycythemia DIRTY CHEST APPEARANCE
- P-32 SODIUM PHOSPHATE - THE CHEST IS BARREL SHAPE
78. The radiographic appearance of this condition will show a rounded 119.If the frontal radiograph of the lower neck shows a characteristic
thickening shadow with a configuration of an adult’s thumb in a lateral of smooth, fusiform, tapered narrowing subglottic airways cause by
radiography of the neck. edema, this must be the hall mark of
- EPIGLOTTITIS - SPASMODIC CROUP
79. What is medically considered a symptom 120. Fracture involving craniofacial bone is classified as
- VERTIGO - TYPE 3
80. What is observed during ultrasonography 121. Because of this condition this is considered as a medical
- LACTIFEROUS DUCT emergency
82. Main pathologic condition brought about by embolism? - EPIGLOTTITIS
- OBSTRUCTION 122. Pathophysiologically, the effect of emphysema in the lungs
83. Which of the following is a hospital acquired infection and involve the following
inflammation of alveoli? i. DYSPNEA AND DECREASED IN RESPIRATORY RATE
- NOSOCOMIAL PNEUMONIA ii. AIR IS TRAPPED IN THE ALVEOLI
86. Round thickening wall with a configuration of adult's thumb? iii. DECREASE AREA FOR GAS EXCHANGE
- EPIGLOTITIS - I, II AND III
87. Best demonstrate rupture of spleen and intra-abdominal? 124. The hall mark manifestation in pathologic conditions is the
- COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY involvement of the pleura and pleural thickening in a plaque
88. What sonographic study may be visualized to detect irregularities opacification along the lower chest due to disposition of calcification
of blood flow - ASBESTOSIS
- DOPPLER 125. Main management of the lung cancer are the following
89. What would most likely be seen in acoustic enhancement - CHEMOTHERAPY
- FLUID FILLED MASS - RADIOTHERAPY
- SURGICAL RESECTION
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RADIOLOGIC SCIENCES
RRT 2019
126. This is the major type of lung cancer 159. Ingestion of type of solution is more severe than the other type of
- SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA substances
127. Aspiration pneumonia otherwise known as - ALKALINE INGESTION
- CHEMICAL PNEUMONITIS 160. Radiographic appearance of this condition is seen in GI series
128. The presence of filling defect in the pulmonary artery complete having numerus thicker folds of the stomach above the diaphragm
obstruction of the pulmonary vessel is the manifestation of - HIATAL HERNIA
- PULMONARY EMBOLISM 161. Pathophysiologically Achalasia is
129. Medically which of the following is considered a sign - FUNCTIONAL OBSTRUCTION
- ABDOMINAL TENDERNESS TO PALPATION 162. Presence of Jelly stool with a palpable shape mass and
130. This is an infection or inflammation of the alveoli acquired in the radiographic string stair case are classic signs of this condition
hospital - INTUSSUSCEPTION
- PNEUMONIA NOSOCOMIAL 163. What is the modern way of crushing a stone with in a urinary
131. The radiographic appearance of tuberculoma presence in bladder in the urethra
- SINGLE MULTI NODULES 1-3 CM DIAMETER COMMONLY THE - LITHOTRIPSY
PERIPHERY OF UPPER LOBES OF THE LUNGS 164. The client with chronic renal failure complains a filling nauseated
132. The main pathologic problem brought above embolism at least part of everyday. The RT on duty knows that
- OBSTRUCTION - ACCUMULATION OF WASTE PRODUCT OF BLOOD
135. If a radiographic diagnosis in septic embolism, the radiographic 165. A client is schedule for IVP. The RT on duty should
technologist knows that the management is - CHECKED FOR ALLERGIES TO SHELLFISH
- HIGH DOSE OF ANTIBIOTIC 167. Usually what is the causative agent that could cause UTI
136. Intra bronchial foreign body usually manifested as - ESCHERICHIA COLI
- AFFECTING THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE LUNGS WITH 168. A 54-year-old client comes to an ambulatory clinic in moderate
ATELECTASIS stress, and considered as a bladder cancer. Which of the following
137. This is the single most affective non-invasive technique in symptoms medical personnel most likely to expect the client to report
evaluating lung cancer and its metastasis during assessment?
- CT SCAN - PAINLESS HEMATURIA (Pain or burning sensation during
138. This treatment is effective in locally advance lung cancer, the urination)
common side effect skin irritation, skin peeling, fatigue and taste 169. A RT is with a client that has been diagnosed as having a kidney
changes mass. The patient ask him the reason of renal biopsy is to
- RADIOTHERAPY - GIVES SPECIFIC CYTOLOGICAL INFORMATION ABOUT THE
139. Patient with PTB is brought to the X-ray room for radiographic LESION
evaluation. The RT on duty must follow this type of precaution 170. The RT on duty expect that after an intravenous pyelogram
- STANDARD AIRBORNE PRE-CAUTION - ENCOURAGING INCREASE INTAKE PLEURAL FLUIDS
140. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus 171. Local dilation of vessel wall
- SARS - ANEURYSM
141. This are the radiographic appearance of asthma 172. The single elongated cytoplasmic extension carrying impulses
- HYPER LUCENT LUNG INCREASE RETROSTERNAL SPACE away the cell bodies
142. This condition appears initially in radiograph as normal in the - AXON
early stage but in progressive stage. This is considered as a typical 173. Suffix word which is tapering or puncture
pneumonia - SYNTHESIS (centesis)
- SARS 174. Subarachnoid space is located between in the
144. This is an abnormal permanent enlargement of an air spaces - PIA MATER AND ARACHNOID
distal to the terminal bronchioles 175. The Genus non motile fast aerobic bacteria that include a
- EMPHYSEMA causative agent in the lungs is termed as
146. Best position for taking an adult patient with pleural effusion are - MYCOBACTERIUM
- PA VIEW AND LATERAL DECUBITUS IN THE AFFECTED SIDE 177. What is vertigo?
147. The following are the radiographic appearance emphysema - DIZZINESS
- PULMONARY HYPERINFLATION 180. Which of the following is the very serious infection of the brain
- REDUCTION IN THE NUMBER IN SIZE OF PERIPHERAL - ENCEPHALITIS
ARTERIES 182. Which of the following combining means to be numb or analgesic
- CHEST BARREL - Narc/o
- CHEST VASCULAR MARKING IS PROMINENT THAN USUAL 183. Anatomically, most common cause of back pain in a 55 years old
148. A septic embolism is brought about by men is a
- MICROORGANISM - LUMBOSACRAL (Degenerative changes in discs and joints )
149. The presence of Fibro Purulent fluid in the pleural space 184. In the practice of fundamentals transfer of patient in the radiology
indicates this condition room in order to avoid back pain, least principle
- EMPYEMA - MUST BE OBSERVED A USED OF PROPER BODY MECHANICS
150. The following cause of pulmonary edema 185. Tetraplegia known as
- RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE - PARALYSIS OF NECK DOWN
- LEFT SIDED HEART FAILURE 186. When a person falls from the 3rd floor of the building the
- SEVERE BRONCHOPNEUMONIA mechanism of injury is
151. According to the classification of the fracture in Lefort’s method - AXIAL LOADING (axial loading injury)
involving naso-frontal suture 187. Patient from vehicle accident needs to be assist immediately
- TYPE 2 except
152. This is the main function of esophagus - ASSESSMENT OF GAGS REFLUX
- FOR PASSAGE OF BOLUS 188. Autonomic dysreflexia is associated with
153. Characteristic of this conditions esophagus of tracheobronchial - NEUROGENIC BLADDER
tree is seen 189. Main management of cervical, lumbar, and sacral injuries fracture
- FISTULA is
154. Demonstration of connection between esophagus - IMMOBILIZATION
- FISTULA 190. Diagnosis and knowledgement of multiple sclerosis EXCEPT
156. Physiologically, choking and cyanosis are all present in - INTENSION TREMOR DECREASE MOTOR COORDINATION
- TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA 191. A 23 years old patient was admitted due to paralysis in the ICU,
157. Radiographic appearance of deeper ulceration obstruction of the an emergency tracheostomy due to the development of decreasing
esophagus condition are the following respiratory. The RT on duty must prepare an MRI equipment and
- INGESTION OF CORROSIVE AGENT procedure and understand that the pathology was
158. The most definitive test for esophageal tumor is - IMMUNE STARTS TO DESTROY MYELIN SHEATH THAT
- ESOPHAGOGASTRODUODENOSCOPY SURROUNDS THE AXON RESULTING TO SEGMENTAL
DYMYELATION
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RADIOLOGIC SCIENCES
RRT 2019
- (NODES OF RANVIER) lung field but there are several lucenses noted in the vertebral bodies.
192. Radiographic assessment of the brain in the cerebral blood The sternal bone marrow aspirate performed yields a dark red jelly like
vessels material in the syringe. Which of the following cell type most likely to
- COMPUTED ANGIOGRAPHY have a numerous microscopic examination of this aspirate?
194. The client with myasthenia Gravis in Gillian Barrie syndrome or - GIANT CELL
amyotrophic internal sclerosis to experience 219. An 11 years old boy has a pain in his left leg that has persisted
- INCREASE RISK OF RESPIRATORY COMPLICATIONS for 3 weeks. On physical examination, his temperature was 37. 9-
195. The client with myasthenia gravis while undergoing radiographic degree C. A radiograph of his leg reveals a mass interdiaphyseal
procedure region and the left femur overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue
- DECREASE THE NUMBER OF FUNCTION ACETYLCHOLINE extension. A bone biopsy performed and microscopic examination
RECEPTOR shows a numerous small round cell. Which of the following neoplasm
196. Following spinal cord injury that the physician indicates client’s most likely to have?
paraplegic. The family ask the RT what does it means and he explain - EWING’S SARCOMA
that the 220. A 14 years’ old west African man has a history of multiple
- LOWER EXTREMITY ARE PARALYZE episodes’ sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and back pain for
197. A client with spinal cord injury has a paraplegia. The RT hours. He now has a painful right hip that is tender to palpation. A
recognized that one major early problem will be radiograph reveals irregular bony destruction of the femoral head.
- BLADDER CONTROL Which of the infections agent most likely responsible for his findings?
198. This are the parts of central nervous system - SALMONELLA ENTERICA
- BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD 221. A 69 years old man has noted increasing back and leg pain for 3
199. Which is not part of autonomic nervous system yrs. He has greater difficulty of healing in the left leg. On physical
- SKELETAL MUSCLE examination he has a decrease range in motion of the hips. A
200. The following increases transmission of impulses in the nervous radiograph bony sclerosis of the sacroiliac and upper tibial regions.
system Which of the following conditions most likely to have?
- NODES OF RANVIER AND MYELIN SHEATHS - PAGET’S DISEASE OF THE BONE
201. A laborer fell from the 3rd floor of the building where he is 222. An 18 years old woman, was noted pain and swelling of her right
employed as a Mason. Upon through neurological examination, he distal thigh associated activity for the past years. She has no history of
was found to have a deficit cerebellum. The RT on duty knows that the trauma, on examination after performing exercise tenderness of the
function of cerebellum palpation of the right knee. A radiograph shows expansive eccentric
- COORDINATE VOLUNTARY MOVEMENT AND MAINTAINS lytic lesion located in the metaphysis of the distal femur that is
TRUNK STABILITY AND EQUILIBRIUM surrounded by rim of reactive new bone. Which of the following bone
202.Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are tested together for disease is she most likely to have?
- CONSTRICTION, CONVERGING, AND ACCOMMODATION -ANEURYSMAL BONE CYST
203.The test for cerebellum are the following EXCEPT 223. A 16 years old boy has noted a pain in his left knee after each
- PROPRIOCEPTION TEST, LIGHT TOUCH, FINGER TO NOSE hockey practice session for the past months. On examination there is
204. A patient who is a victim of mauling and stoning is admitted to ER tenderness to palpation of his left knee, with reduced range of motion.
and has neurologic manifestations. He has an abnormal injury and A plain radiograph of the left leg reveals a mass of the proximal tibial
eyes that reacts only when response to pain. The Glass glow scale is metaphysis that erodes bone cortex, lifting up into the periosteum
- 7 INCHES reacted new bone is apparent. The mass due to not extend of the
206. Hemorrhagic stroke epiphyseal region. A bone biopsy is performed and microscopic
- ANEURYSM examination shows atypical elongated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei
207. All statements are true regarding dementia EXCEPT in a osteoid stroma. Which of the following neoplasm is he most likely
- DEBILITATING DECREASE AFFECTING ABILITY AND IS to have?
CHARACTERIZE TREMOR AND ACHALASIA - OSTEOSARCOMA
208. While waiting to transfer the patient, the RT expect that this area 224. A 15 years old girl is noted to be developing odd, twisted
should be appearance to her back for the past 3 years. On examination she is
- ASSIST EITHER THE LEVEL OF UNCONSCIOUSNESS tall and thin. A radiograph reveals an abnormal lateral bowing of the
209. Which of the following have a personal expect to assist most spine with 20 degree lateral curvature in the mid-thoracic region.
commonly possible increase in intracranial pressure - ASYMMETRICAL CARTILAGE GROWTH OF THE VERTEBRAL
- HEADACHE AND VOMITING BODY END PLATES
210. Hydrocephalus can be most accurate. Defined as 225. A 23 years old man notes some minor discomfort over the lateral
- PROGRESSIVE ENLARGEMENT OF HEAD DUE TO EXCESSIVE of his right knee after a day working in a cramped (because the IT put
ACCUMULATION OF CEREBROSPINAL FLUID the desktop work station on the floor). On the physical examination he
212. The earliest sonographic findings seen by a normal pregnancy has a palpable “bump” in this region. A radiograph of the knee lateral
- INTRADECIDUAL SAC SIGN bony projection from the lower femoral metaphysis there is no
213. Which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first adjacent soft tissue swelling compose of 3 cm of bony cortex. Which
trimester of pregnancy of the following is most likely diagnosis?
- AN EMBRYO WITH A HEART RATE OF 70 BPM - OSTEOCHONDROMA
214. Which one of the following combinations of measurement are 226. A 45 years old woman has had a worse breathing for 9 years.
routinely obtained to determine gestational age She has known to sleep in sitting of 2 pillows. She has had a difficulty
- BICIPITAL DIAMETER, HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE, ABDOMINAL for the past years. She has now a history. A month ago she had a
CIRCUMFERENCE AND FEMUR LENGTH stroke with resultant ability to move her left arm she is fibril. A chest
215. Three minimum structures of fetal brain are radiograph reveals normal ventricular with a prominent left atrial
- CAVUUM SEPTI PELLUCIDI, CISTERNA MAGNA, AND border. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for
VENTRICULAR ATRIUM her finding?
216. In performing the Ct urography, when it is best to administered - MITRAL VEIN STENOSIS
fluorocimide (must be furosemide) 227. A 72 years old woman had no major illness. Throughout her life
- IN ALL PATIENTS, AS LONG AS THERE IS NO HISTORY OF she has had three syncopal episodes during the past 2 weeks after
ALLERGIC DRUG the past 2 days she has develop short breathing and cough. On
217. A 51 yr./old man has noted constant dull, right hip pain for the physical examination she has a febrile her blood pressure is 130/90
past 3 months. The physical examination he has diminished range of mm Hg. She has no proliferal edema. A chest radiograph reveals a
motion of the right hip, a radiograph reveals 10 x 43 cm mass prominent region of the left ventricle. Which of the following is most
involving the right ischium pelvis. The mass has irregular borders and likely diagnosing?
there are extensive of bony obstruction. The lesion was resected - CALCIFIC AORTIC STENOSIS
grossly, and the mass was bluish- white. Which of the following most 228. An 80 years old woman has had no major problems, but she has
likely diagnosis? never been physically active for most of her life. One day she falls out
- CHONDROSARCOMA to her bed and immediately notes a sharp pain in her left hip, she is
218. A 62 years old man, no abnormal finding on his physical subsequently unable to ambulate without severe pain. A radiographs
examination. A chest radiograph shows no abnormality of heart or show not only a fracture for the left femoral head but also a compress
 CLUSTER 5:
RADIOLOGIC SCIENCES
RRT 2019
fracture of a T10. Which of the following condition is most likely to 251. What is the most definitive test for diagnosing CNS vasculitis
have? - CT ANGIOGRAPHY WITH VOLUME RENDERING
- OSTEOPOROSIS 252. What are the characteristic MRI findings of the disseminated
229. An otherwise 44 years old man with no prior medical history has cerebral aspergalosis in immuno compromise patients
had increasing bad pain and the right hip pain for past decay. The pain - NUMEROUS FOCI OF RESTRICTED DIFFUSION IN THE
is worst at the end of the day. On the physical examination he has CORTICUM MEDULLARY JUNCTION
bone enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of 253. If a patient is to receive an iodine contrast medium you should
the spine reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the ask the patient which question
vertebral bodies. There is a sclerosis narrowing the joint space of the - ARE YOU ALLERGIC TO SHELLFISH?
right acetabulum seen in the radiograph of the pelvis. Which is likely to 254. Which of the following questions would you ask the patient before
have the condition? the chest x-ray
- OSTEOARTHRITIS - DID YOU EAT BEFORE COMING FOR THE TEST?
230. In which of the following patient with CT urography (including 255. If the Intensity decreasing order
scans before and after IVP contrast material) indicated a - SPTP, SATP, SATA
- 70 YEARS OLD WOMAN WITH A GROSS HEMATURIA 256. If the intensity of sound beam remains unchanged and the beam
231. Which of the following is also administered in addition to IVP area is reduced in half, what happens to the power
gadolinium when performing excretory MRI urography - HALVED
- IV SALINE AND FLOUROCIMIDE (must be furosemide) 257. Which procedure is diagnostic irregularity compression of the
232. Which of the following is true about using gadolinium enhance spinal cord
MR urography for the upper trunk transitional carcinoma - ULTRASOUND (MRI)
- IT SHOULD BE PERFOMED AS THE FIRST LINE IMAGING 258. Which of the FF used to diagnose upper, gastro intestinal
INSTEAD OF CT UROGRAPHY bleeding
233. Which is true regarding T2 weighted MR urography - RETROGRADE PYLOGRAM
- IT REQUIRES AN IV GADOLINIUM 259. Which procedure include non-ionizing radiation and strong,
234. All of the following are changes in cirrhosis that maybe seen in magnetic field allow the physician to exam internal structures and soft
the liver imaging EXCEPT tissue of the body
- DILATATION HEADING OF BILIARY TREE - NUCLEAR MEDICINE IMAGING (MRI)
235. A 1.5 nodule in cirrhotic liver that demonstrate per intensity T1 260. What would you tell in a patient for preparation of barium enema
weighted imaging, ISO intensity on T2 weighted imaging but without - INSTRUCT THE PATIENT TO FOLLOW ALL LIQUID DIET
enhancement of arterial imaging relative parenchyma to represent BEGINNING IN THE MORNING PROCEDURE.
- DYSPLASTIC NODULE 262. Relating to the thyroid of the value of T3 and T4 is increased with
236. Hepatic fibrosis, which of the following is true a value of THS
- FIBROSIS IS USUALLY ASSOCIATED WITH VOLUME AND - DECREASE
REFRACTION OF LIVER CAPSULES RATHER THAN MASS 263. Sonogrophically Echinococcus granulosus or (Hydatid disease)
AFFECT will have characterize
237. Pseudo cirrhosis associated with metastatic breast cancer, the - CYSTIC STRUCTURE OF THE DOUBLE WALL
liver may demonstrate of the following patterns of lobes contour 264. Majority secretion of the adrenal medulla and cortex is what?
abnormality - EPINEPHRINE
- ABSENT REFRACTION OF CAPSULE 265. Name the “sign” of associated dilated common bile duct
- WIDE SPREAD REFRACTION OF THE CAPSULE - SHOTGUN
- DIFFUSED NODULARITY 266. A benign mass composed of a tangled in the blood vessel of the
238. For esophageal cancer, Which of the following neo adjuvant. liver.
FDG, PET/CT. - HEMANGIOMA
- USED FOR DETECTION OF NEW INTERVAL METASTASIS THAT 268. What structure may cause the IVC to push anteriorly?
IS NOT PRESENT IN THE BASE LINE IMAGING - LYMPH NODES
240. Which is a potential cause of acetabular labial tear 269. What age can contact seminoma?
- TRAUMA - 15-35 (30-50)
- FEMORAL ACETABULAR IMPINGEMENT 270. Focal fatty infiltrate, focal fatty sparring, enlarged caudate lobe
- HIP DYSPLASIA and increased liver echogenecity is what disease?
241. Possible sign of femoral acetabular impingement includes - FATTY LIVER
- AN OSSEOUS PROMINENT 271. What common microorganism is opportunistic in infection of px.
- BUMP IN A FEMORAL NECK JUNCTION with AIDS?
242. The best imaging exam for acetabular labral tear - PNEUMOCYTIS CARINII PNUEMONIA
- 242. MR ARTHROGRAPHY 272. What is the ultrasound frame rate?
243. Which of the following is true regarding to arthrography of the hip - BETWEEN 5MHZ TO 50MHZ (10 – 30 frames per second)
- MR ARTHROGRAPHY HAS A HIGH SENSITIVITY IN ACCURACY 273. Term for concentration of matter.
OF AT LEAST 90% OF LABRAL TEAR - DENSITY
244. In newborn chest shows diffuse opacification with hour glass 274. When the length of a vessel is halved,
appearance. Which one question is most helpful in making a correct - THE RESISTANCE IS HALVED
diagnosis 275. Beam is narrowest in what the portion?
- WHAT IS THE GESTATIONAL AGE - FOCUS (Focal zone)
245. With ground glass, which one is the most helpful in ancillary 276. Area where the velocity is the highest.
findings -WITHIN THE CENTER OF THE LUMEN
- PLEURAL EFFUSION 277. Type of artifact causes an ultrasound reflection to be placed at an
246. A newborn has aspirated meconium respiratory distress. What is incorrect depth.
pattern do expect to see the CXR - RANGE AMBIGUITY
- COARSE RETICULAR 278. The width of the beam depends on what?
247. All of the following are diagnosed prenatally by ultrasound or MRI - DEPTH
Except 279. The diameter of a disc shaped unfocused piezoelectric crystal is
- PULMONARY INTERSTITIAL EMPHYSEMA 5 mm. Estimate the minimum lateral resolution of the system.
248. All of the following can stimulate MR ankylosing spondylitis - 2.5 MM
EXCEPT 280. I-P / area is equation of what?
- SPLENECTOMY - INTENSITY
249. The pattern of a current cardiomegaly with increased pulmonary 281. Ultrasound is a cyclic sound pressure with a frequency greater
blood flow is seen with than the upper limit of human hearing. At what value does ultrasound
- RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME begin?
250. All of the following are possible complication bacterial infection in - GREATER THAN 20 KHZ
children EXCEPT 282. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that the machine
- PULMONARY BLASTOMA can use when imaging is limited by the
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- DEPTH OF PENETRATION - CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA
283. Mirror image artifact is caused by; 309. You scan the liver and noticed a luminar narrowing on the hepatic
- REFLECTION OF ULTRASOUND BY HIGHLY REFLECTIVE vein. The Color and Specular Doppler reveals high velocity on the
TISSUE INTERFACES stricture, this describes what abnormality?
284. The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of ultrasound can cause? - CIRRHOSIS
- LIQUID FILLED STRUCTURE TO FILL ECHO ON ADJACENT 310. This is associated with invasion of the portal vein?
STRUCTURE ON THE SAME DEPTH - HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA
285. The term DUTY FACTOR is defined as? 311. Which is not an acoustic variable?
- THE TRANSIT PULSE DURATION DIVIDED BY THE TIME - INTENSITY
BETWEEN ONE TRANSIT PULSE TO THE NEXT\ 312. What sonographic wave is ultrasonic and is least useful in the
- (RATIONALE: DUTY FACTOR = PULSE DURATION / PULSE diagnostic imaging?
REPETITION PERIOD) - 30 kHz
286. When ultrasound frequency increases, the doppler shift? 313. What is the frequency of wave with a 1msec period?
- INCREASES - 1 kHz
287. An advantage of spatial compound scanner is that it: 314. The unit output of sound intensity
- REDUCE SPECKLE - DECIBEL (DB)
288. The doppler ultrasound spectral mirror artifact occurs when? 315. The beam intensity is increase by which of the ff:
- THE DOPPLER ANGLE IS AT 90% - ONE MILLION TIMES
289. The color doppler frequency aliasing occurs? 316. The more pixel per inch
- WHEN THE COLOR DOPPLER PRP IS TOO LOW - BETTER SPATIAL RESOLUTION
290. Doppler frequency aliasing can be reduced or eliminate by? 317. Greater output intensity
- DECREASING THE ULTRASOUND FREQUENCY - PULSE DOPPLER
291. Imaging tissue harmonic: 318. The thermal index=30 indicates
- INCREASE IMAGE RESOLUTION - TISSUE TEMPERATURE MAY RISE 3 DEGREES
- REDUCE SLICE THICKNESS ARTEFACT 319. What is the best lateral resolution
- REDUCE SIDE LOBE ARTIFACT - 0.06 cm
292. The width of ultrasound beam on focus will be decrease by? 320. If the frequency decreases, the numerical value of radial
- BOTH FREQUENCY AND APERTURE WIDTH WILL BE resolution
INCREASE - INCREASE
293. Harmonic imaging is used in conjunction with contrast agent 321. If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its
because it? smallest dimension is
- INCREASES IN ECHOGENECITY ON CONTRAST AGENT - INCREASE
RELATIVE ON TISSUE 323. The branch that supply the blood to the brain?
294. Echo enhancement is present on tissue that have? - CIRCLE OF WILLIS/ ARTERIAL CIRCLE
- LOW ATTENUATION 328. In radiology department, what is the method to reduce or
- (RATIONALE: ACOUSTIC/ ECHO ENHANCEMENT HAS minimize back strain?
INCREASED ECHOGENIC ENERGY OR HYPERECHOIC ENERGY - BODY MECHANICS
BEHIND LOW ATTENUATING TISSUE SUCH AS FLUID FILLED 329. Enhancement, multipath & side nodules result in
STRUCTURE: EX CYST, URINARY BLADDER GALLBLADDER) - ARTIFACT
295. A patient with a known mass in the left medial segment. What 331. When we increase frequency the near zone
anatomical landmark is used to separate left medial segment to right - INCREASED
anterior segment? 332. When the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the
- MEDIAL HEPATIC VEIN radial resolution is
296. A patient with an enlargement on the caudate lobe of the liver. - INCREASED
What anatomical landmark is used to differentiate the anterior border 334. Which is/are of the following the unit of longitudinal resolution?
of the caudate lobe? - FEET/FOOT
- FISSURE OF LIGAMENTUM VENOUSUM 335. The range equation relates the distance of the reflector to ___ &
297. You are to rule out the recannulization of paraumbilical. What ______
anatomical landmark is used to differentiate this structure? - TIME FLIGHT & PROPAGATION SPEED
- LIGAMENTUM TERES 336. Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is the
298. Which vessel courses of main lobar most relevant in measuring the depth collimation accuracy?
- MIDDLE HEPATIC VEIN - PROPAGATION SPEED
299. Oxygenated blood is supplied to the liver 337. Assuming a constant frequency, and an increase in the diameter
- PORTAL VEIN AND HEPATIC ARTERY of an unfocused circular transducer will result to
300. You are performing sonogram slender female, notice the - BEAM OF THE NEAR FIELD INCREASED
extension of inferior aspect of the right lobe of the liver. This is most 338. Changing which of the ff would not affect the hard copy imaging
likely represent - DISPLAY BRIGHTNESS AND CONTRAST
- RIEDEL’S LOBE 339. What are the typical chemical Doppler frequency
301. The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of the ultrasound can - 1 to 10 MHz
cause: 340. What is the amount of attenuation of 6 MHz in 0.5 cm of the
- LIQUID FILLED STRUCTURE TO FILL ECHO ON THE ADJACENT same tissue
STRUCTURE ON THE SAME DEPTH - 2Db
303. You identified a single, homogenous, hyperechoic lesion 341. How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?
measuring 2.4cm on the posterior aspect of the right lobe of the liver. -4
What describes this mass? 342. What artifact has a grainy appearance and caused by
- CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA interference effects of scattered sound?
304. A patient is referred for sonographic liver to rule out metastatic - SPECKLE
disease, what best describe for the appearance of liver metastasis? 343. Multiple reflections are equally in space is called
- ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE ASSOCIATED WITH LIVER - REVERBERATION
METASTASIS 344. The angle between ultrasound pulse and two medium at 90°.
305. Which is NOT a feature of hepatic cyst? What it is called?
- INCREASE ATTENUATION - ORTHOGONAL INCIDENCE
306. You scan the liver and noticed an irregularity on the surface of 345. Refraction occurs when:
the liver. A nodular liver surface is characterized by this classic - OBLIQUE SURFACE AND DIFFERENT PROPAGATION SPEED
abnormality? 346. Sound travelling from medium 1 to medium 2 propagation speed
- CIRRHOSIS measures 1600 m/s, 1500 m/s respectively. The oblique incidence
307. Which is NOT TRUE on fatty liver? - ANGLE OF INCIDENCE= ANGLE OF REFLECTION
- IS AN IRREVERSIBLE DISORDER 347. Depth calibration measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90 mm
308. It is the common term on benign tumor on the liver? reflectors 50 mm. what will the machine calculate the distance?
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- 450 MM - PDD
348. In an analog screen converter. What components store the image 377. Which of the following should sonographically appear as a cystic
data? mass surrounding?
- DIELECTRIC MIX - HYDROCELE
349. When the ultrasound machine displays only high reflective 378. The ability of an imaging system to detect weak reflection is
objects sonography should? - SENSITIVITY
- INCREASE OUTPUT POWER 379. The chromatography procedure in nuclear medicine are used to
350. At what location of the sound beam SPTA intensity the highest? determine
- FOCAL POINT - RADIONUCLIDE PURITY
351. What can pulse Doppler measures that a continuous wave 380. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of Parkinson’s
cannot? disease.
- LOCATION - HEADACHE, FEVER AND ANOREXIA
352. What is the fraction of time that is sound transmitting? 381. The time that the transducer is crossing, 1 measured at 18s of
- DUTY FACTOR total elapsed time. What is the duty factor?
353. If the ff. SPTA is equal which would have the lowest SPPA? - 0.005
- CONTINUOUS WAVE 382. If the frequency of a US is doubled, what happen to the period
354. The DB is defined as the ______ two intensities. - HALVED
- RATIO 383. If the waves amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power
355. You undergo quality assurance study using a tissue equivalent - QUADRUPLED
phantom. By adjustment using the knob of the control console system 384. Which of the following terms best describe the relation between
by changing the range from highly bright to fairly visible. What are you frequency and the length percent
evaluating? - INVERSE
- SYSTEM SENSITIVITY 385. Frequency closest to the lower limits of the ultrasound.
356. Which of the following is not a measure of area? - 15,000 Hz
- CUBIC METER 386. The frequency of the ultrasound is increased from 0.77 MHZ to
357. If a power of a sound wave is increased by 8, how many decibel 1.54 MHZ, what happened to the wavelength?
is this? - HALVED
- 9db 387. A complication of Cushing syndrome the attending Radtech must
358. Which of the following is true of all waves? be cautious
- ALL CARRY ENERGY FROM ONE TO ANOTHER - SPONTANEOUS FRACTURE
359. If the system is set at 0db at full intensity, what is the output 392. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of parkinsons
power when uses 10db at full intensity. disease
- 10 db - HEADACHE, VOMITING AND ANOREXIA
360. According to AIUM, statement of bioeffect, that no confirm of 393. The approximate CT number of water is express in HU.
bioeffect below intensity _____. Watt per square cm SPTA. - ZERO
- 0.1 394. The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the
361. Which of the following is not a measure of area? confines of the that connect and used for imaging but can affect
- CUBIC METER nearby and personnel is called
362. Which of the following is true of all waves? - MOTION BLUR
- BOTH CARRY ENERGY TO ONE SIDE TO THE OTHER 395. Multi beam collimator are different from custom shape block
363. Force is applied to a surface, if the force is tripled with the because
surface area where the force is applied is also triple. What is the - THEY PRODUCE SCALP ISODOSE DISTRIBUTION OF
pressure? PENUMBRA, EXTREMELY HEAVY CAN BE PRODUCE IN ANY
- UNCHANGED SIZE OR SHAPE
364. Which of the following units are appropriate to describe the 397. The most common cause of noise in CT scan
period of acoustic wave. - QUANTUM NOISE
- MINUTES 400. Captopril renal scan are used to assess
365. Two waves arrive at the same location and interfere the resultant - RENAL artery STENOSIS
sound wave smaller than either of the two original wave is called 401. In hyperthyroidism, most common functional study
- DESTRUCTIVE INTERFERENCE - INCREASE IN SHF AND HIGH T4
366. Ultrasound is defined with frequency of 402. In the treatment of head and neck immobilation is important
- GREATER THAN 0.02 MHZ because
367. Compare two sound waves. A and B. The frequency of wave A is - IN CLOSE PROXIMITY WITH RADIOSENSITIVE ORGAN
one third to the wave B. How does the period of wave A is compared 404. The 1st portion of the kidney to become visible after injection of
to wave B? contrast medium?
- IS THREE TIME LONGER THAN B - CALYCES
- NOTE: FREQUENCY AND WAVELENGTH IS INVERSELY 405. What radiotherapy machine operates of the principle of the
PROPORTIONAL electron accelerate in a circular orbit in changing magnetic field?
368. What sound wave is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic - BETATRON
imaging? 406. The appropriate quality use for dose calculation speck
- 24 kHz - HDD
369. What is the unit of power? 407. Which of the following procedures is also known as short
- WATTS distance therapy?
370. The maximum value of density is 60lb/in squared, while the - BRACHYTHERAPY
maximum value of density is 20lb/in squared. What is the amplitude 408. The sonogram such as mass in the head of the pancreas. The
wave? sonographer should
- 20lb/in2 - OUTLINE THE HEPATIC ARTERY AND SPLENIC ARTERY TO
371. The final amplitude of sound wave is reduced to one half. The DETERMINE WEATHER THEY ARE DILATED
final power is _____ to the original power? 409. The mechanisms of Radiopharmaceutical localization in Lung
- NONE OF THE ABOVE Scanning
372. If the frequency is decreased the numerical value of radial - ACTIVE TRANSPORT
exposure is 410. What type of radiotherapy machine operates 50-156 kv potential
- INCREASED range
374. Which of the following is the reeaon why F-18 - ORTHOVOLTAGE (Diagnostic: 30-150kVp)
(Flourodioxideglucose)? 411. A flattening filters
- UNDERGOES METABOLIC TRAPPING - REDUCES THE DOSE RATE IN THE CENTER OF UNFILTERED
375. Clay shoveler fracture include which area of the spine? BEAM
- CERVICAL ONLY (Lower cervical region to upper thoracic) 412. The geometric factor that greatly affects spatial resolution in CT
376. With a given FOD measures with lower limb energies Scan
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- FOCAL SPOT SIZE - 5%
414. The process by which the entire data is set is used for high 447. The activity of the given amount of a radioactivity of a
quality images radionuclide to ionized air molecules
- IMAGE MATRIX - IONIZING CONSTANT
415. The characteristics of ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia 448. Which of the following is the least obstacle to the transmission of
- CHADWICK’S SIGN (DOUBLE BUBBLE SIGN) UTZ?
418. Which of the following is an example of a radiosensitizers - FAT
- HYDROXYUREA (HYDROXYURES) 449. The relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of voxels tissue to
419. When an 0.5 cm margin is added to all sites to a 15x15 cm field an equal volume of water is referred to as
the added are - LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT
- 15 cm2 450. A viral inflammation of the brain and meninges is referred to as
420. When pelvic radiation delivered in an obese patient the - ENCEPHALITIS
advantage of prone position is that 451. A technetium 99m DMSE scan is used for determining in
- THE ABDOMEN IS FLATTENED AGAINST THE COUCH AND - NEPHROLITHIASIS
COMPRESSED AND CAUSING THE SMALL BOWEL TO MOVE 452. A magnetic resonance sequence uses a 180 degree pulse
ANTERIORLY followed by a 90 degree pulse this refers to as ____.
421. Normal appearance of structures in ultrasonic measures of gb - INVERSION RECOVERY
diameter 453. CT artifact that is most common in scanning the base of the
- 3mm skull?
422. Survey meters are - BEAM HARDENING
- DETECT THE SOURCE OF RADIATION 455. Sonographically the gastroesophageal junction can be
423. Which of the following procedure is not performed with Tc99m visualized?
Sulfur Colloid? - SONOGRAPHICALLY CANNOT BE RECOGNIZED
- GI BLEED STUDIES 456. The most definitive test for esophageal tumor?
424. The computation of an unknown value to known value - CT
- EXTRAPOLATION 457. The characteristic of this condition that ends in a blind pouch?
425. Which of the following diagnosis does not limit the sonographic - ESOPHAGEAL DIVERTICULA
characteristic of hyaditid form mole? 458. Which of the following term refers to the excessive carbon
- MISSED ABORTION dioxide in the blood?
426. The common cause of cystitis or urinary tract infection - HYPERCAPNIA
- INFECTION FROM THE URETERS AND KIDNEYS 459. What term refers to hernia protrusion of the urinary bladder?
427. What is the standard MRI pulse sequence can provide T1, T2 - VESICOCELE
and Proton density weighted images? 460. Which of the following involves the emission of a signal from a
- PLANAR IMAGING patient?
428. The axial scan can be obtained by placing the transducer in the - PROJECTION RECOVERY
parietal bone just above the 461. Which of the following refers to the net measurement of radiation
- EXTERNAL AUDITORY MEATUS dose that demonstrate of radiation throughout patient’s body?
431. The process in which the planned arrangement is verified using a - DOSIMETRY
x-ray machine that works and mimics the geometry of the therapy 462. Which of the following deals with the measurement of absorbed
machine and produces a diagnostic quality radiograph dose from ionizing radiation with matter?
- SIMULATION - RADIATION DOSIMETRY
432. What is the most popular RF pulse sequence because of the 463. What is the condition refers to the presence of cavities in the
reduction of scan time which consist of 90-degrees pulse that initiates pons
upon saturation sequence and followed by 180-degree pulse and 50% - PUNTO BULBIA
of the echo time? 464. What is another term for alpha particle
- SPIN ECHO - 2 PROTONS (ALPHA RADIATION,
433. Hemorrhage on CT scans becomes isodense after how many ALPHA RAY)
hours? 465. Which of the following describe the special case of Compton
- 24 hrs. effect if the photon scattered right angle to its original direction and the
436. Which of the following is NOT a low LET radiation? angle emission depends on the energy
- PROTON - GAZING HIT
437. The mechanism of uptake of radiopharmaceutical in liver-spleen 466. What is the approximate velocity of sound
scanning - 5000 m/s
- PHAGOCYTOSIS BY THE RE SYSTEM 467. Which of the following detectors gives information about energy
438. CT equipment must be frequently calibrated so that water is distribution of an incident radiation
consistently represented by CT number zero and other tissue with - DOSIMETRY
their appropriate CT number. This refer to 468. The principal advantage of CT over conventional tomography is
- UNIFORMITY - REDUCED PATIENT DOSE
439. Treatment fields are designed by radiation oncologist margins are 469. Which type of monitoring device is used to measure radiation
always added around the tumor because of. base on the change of thermal energy per unit mass of the medium
- UNCERTAINTIES OF THE TUMOR EXTENT, PENUMBRA OF THE - CALOMETRY
BEAM AND PATIENT’S MOTION 471. What does the term metastasis mean
440. This is the reduction of available space in the spinal column - SPREAD OF CANCER TO A DISTANT SIDE TUMOR
causing of the compression of neural elements 472. Which of the following disease involves chronic inflammation in
- SPINAL STENOSIS the intestine?
441. In an ultrasound examination, if the prostate is found to be - CROHN’S DISEASE
enlarged the sonographer should also check the.
- SCROTUM FOR HYDROCELE 474. A cobalt 60 source comes from what stable element
442. The differentiation in densities in CT scan image refers to as - COBALT 59
- CONTRAST RESOLUTION 475. What part of LINAC machine produce electron
443. A guide for determining the needed electron beam energy ( in - ELECTRON GUN
MeV) is to 476. The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the
- DIVIDE THE 80% ISODOSE LINE BY 10 AND THEN THE confines of the higher that connect and use for imaging but can affect
MAXIMUM TUMOR DEPTH IN CENTIMETERS nearby or personnel is called.
444. Thyroiditis will appear sonographically as a - FRINGE FIELD
- DIFFUSELY ENLARGED THYROID LOBE WITH DECREASED 477. What is the common field arrangement is used for palliative
ECHOGENICITY treatment
446. Percentage is considered acceptable in a primary beam - PARALLEL OPPOSED
transmission to the __.
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478. Which of the following are true in image characteristics in 505. In computed tomography axial image, the area of the pixel
computed tomography scan.? multiplied by the thickness of the slice is referred to as
i. THE VALUE OF THE PIXEL DETERMINES THE PIXEL __________________.
BRIGHTNESS - VOXEL
iii. FIELD OF VIEW AND PIXEL ARE DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL 506. A radionuclide generator equilibrium relationship where the
- I AND III parent T1/2 is a factor of 100-1000 times greater than daughter T1/2 is
479. The time required for the 2 components of net magnetization to _________________.
return to 63% of its original value following an excitation pulse is - TRANSIENT
___________. 507. Nuclear medicine and SPECT imaging rely on c=scintillation
- T1 cameras to detect ______________________.
480. Which of the following is description of a mass with distorted - GAMMA RAYS
architecture, irregular borders, and decreased transmission? 508. Immobility and consolidation of the joints between vertebral
- HETEROGENOUS MASS bodies is ___________.
481. Which of the following is misadministration according to the - SPONDYLOSIS
criteria/protocol established by the Nuclear medicine organization? 509. Which of the following is observed during breast
- ADMINISTRATION OF 15 mCi Tc-99m SULFUR COLLOID TO ultrasonography?
THE WRONG PATIENT - LACTIFEROUS DUCT
482. PET imaging is especially useful to evaluate _____________. 510. For Tc-MAA (macroaggregated albumin) localization in the lungs,
- PRERADIATION AND POST RADIATION OF CHEMOTHERAPY the mechanism is based on ___________________.
483. Following a cerebral contusion bleeding, which of the following - MICROEMBOLIZATION OF CAPILLIARIES USING
are TRUE regarding computed tomography scan imaging for this type PRECIPITATED SERUM ALBUMIN PARTICLE
of pathology? 511. Which imaging modality is sensitive in evaluating the presence
ii. TRANSTENTORIAL HERNIATION and distribution of pulmonary emphysema?
iii. OBSTRUCTION OF THE FOURTH VENTRICLES - COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
- II AND III 523. In an electron beam _____________________.
485. Which of the following occurs MOST frequently in male teenagers - THE 20 PERCENT ISODOSE CURVE BULGES OUT AND THE 90
and commonly found in the pelvis and proximal long tubular bones? PERCENT CURVE CONSTRICTS
- EWING’S SARCOMA 524. Which of the following will NOT require collimation?
485. The function of saliva is to__________________. - POSITRON EMISSION TOMOGRAPHY
- MOISTEN FOOD AND PROMOTE DIGSETION 525. Which of the following terms refers to a localized bulging or
486. Which of the following is characteristic of emphysema? filtration of an artery?
- DESTRUCTION OF ALVEOLAR WALLS - ANEURYSM
487. Wavelenght is a measure of _________________. 526. Presence of large amounts of gas and fluid in uniformly dilated
- DISTANCE loops of small and large bowel, often seen after abdominal surgery
488. Which term refers to an over activity of the thyroid on patient’s _______________.
with goiter as demonstrated in an ultrasound examination? - ADYNAMIC ILEUS
- HYPERTHYROIDISM 527. The result of thin section imaging is _______________.
490. In computed tomography scan image, the differentiation of - FEWER PARTIAL VOLUME ARTIFACTS
densities is referred to as ________________. 528. At what interspace does the diaphragm when the lungs are fully
- CONTRAST RESOLUTION infiltrated?
492. What are the advantages of neonatal cranial sonography versus - TENTH
computed tomography? 529. When performing cranial CT scan, the infraorbitomeatal line
i. CAN BE DONE WITH A PORTABLE UNIT (IOML) should be positioned.
ii. NO PARTIAL VOLUME EFFECT - VERTICAL AND PARALLEL TO THE X-RAY BEAM
- I AND II 531. Administration of Tc-99m DTPA (Diethylene Triamine Penta
493. Which of the following is NOT a radiographic appearance of acetic acid) for renal scan will allow measurement of which kidney
asthma? function?
- PULMONARY VASCULAR MARKINGS REMAIN NORMAL - GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE
494. Which of the following parameters will decreased if the repetition 532. The term tumor volume is defined by ICRU:
time (TR) is increased in a magnetic resonance imaging examination? - THE GROSS PALPABLE OR VISIBLE/ DEMONSTRABLE
ii. T1 CONTRAST EXTENT AND LOCALIZATION OF MALIGNANT GROWTH
iii. NUMBER OF ACQUISITION 533. The cisterna magna appears sonographically as an
- II AND III ___________________.
- ECHO-FREE SPACE INFERIOR TO THE CEREBELLUM
495. An accumulation of fluid in pleural space which is sometimes 534. Which of the following are indications that computed tomography
caused by heart failure or pulmonary embolus is referred to as is the imaging modality of choice?
_______________. i. EVALUATION OF PATIENTS AFTER ACUTE TRAUMA
- EFFUSION ii. EVALUATION OF PATIENTS SUSPECTED OF HAVING AN
496. An orthovoltage radiation therapy is often employed in ACUTE SUBARACHNOID PARENCHYMAL HAEMORRHAGE
______________________. iii.EVALUATION OF PATIENTS WITH DISEASE AFFECTING THE
- SUPERFICIAL (DEEP-LYING TISSUES) BASE OF THE SKULL
497. A non-infectious arthritis is characterized by osteoporosis, soft - I, II AND III
tissue swelling, and erosion of metacarpophalangeal joints and ulnar 535. The abnormal vascular communication between a pulmonary
styloid processes is referred to as ______________. artery and pulmonary vein is referred to as ______________.
- RHEUMATOID - PULMONARY ARTERIOVENOUS FISTULA
499. The main pathologic problem brought about by embolism is 536. Which advanced chronologic age, the pancreas
_______________. ______________________.
- OBSTRUCTION - DECREASED IN SIZE WITH INCREASED ECHOGENICITY
501. Which is the resultant on refraction if the probe is positioned 537. Radiation therapy units operating at approximately 50-120 kVp
perpendicular to the interface? are referred as ________________.
- CHANGED IN REFRACTION - SUPERFICIAL UNITS
502. 1 Gy is the same as __________________. 538. Which of the following is an injury caused by a blunt force that
- 100 cGy damages small blood vessels without disruption of the continuity of
504. Brachytherapy which employs implant methods can be tissue?
accomplished in which of the following technique? - CONTUSION
i. MOULD 539. Which of the following is most likely the side effect to the
ii. INTERSTITIAL IMPLANT expected for male patient receiving an external radiation to the neck
iii. INTRACAVITARY IMPLANT for the cancer of the larynx?
- I, II, AND III - SORE THROAT
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540. What is the term for benign epithelial neoplasm that grows in 570. Which of the following is characterized as a lesion with may
gland-like pattern/ histocytes that may contain Langerhans granules and pockets of
- ADENOMA necrosis?
541. Which interaction is the most predominant for megavoltage - EOSINOPHILIC GRANULOMA
photon beam in the clinical range? 571. Which of the following is a disease of the large intestine that is
- PHOTODISINTEGRATION found in small children causing constipation that can eventually lead to
542. When performing a BPD measurement, the angle between the death if untreated?
ultrasonic beam and the perpendicular plane is called - HIRCHSPRUNG DISEASE
________________. 572. Which of the following is eluted to an Mo/Tc generator?
- ANGLE ASYNCLITISM - PHYSIOLOGICAL SALINE
543. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of 573. In an isocenteric treatment technique, it is routine to normalize
cerebrovascular accident? the dose _______________.
- ATHEROSCLEROSIS - AT ISOCENTER
545. Orthovoltage x-ray units usually operate in the range of 574. Which setting should the radiologic technologist adjust to provide
_________________. better contrast resolution in a computed tomography scan
- 150 to 200 kVp (Orthovoltage: 200-300kVp) examination?
546. The use of small slice thickness in computed tomography scan - INCREASED THE FIELD OF VIEW
will result in which of the following? 575. Four weeks gestation age is equivalent to
i. INCREASED SPATIAL RESOLUTION _____________________.
iii. DECREASED CONTRAST RESOLUTION - 16 WEEKS MENSTRUAL AGE
- I AND III 577. In the treatment of head and neck cancer, immobilization is
548. The radiopharmaceutical of choice for salivary gland study is particularly important because ______________.
_________________________. - THE PROXIMITY OF SEVERAL RADIOSENSTIVE ORGANS AND
- Tc99m PERTECHNETATE OFTEN SMALL TUMOR MARGINS
549. The estimated frequency of sound wave with a wavelength of 5.2 580. What radio therapy machine uses 50-156 kV potential range?
meters if the velocity is 5.2 km/s is ________. - SUPERFICIAL THERAPHY
- 1000 c/s 582. The geometric factor that greatly affects spatial resolution in CT
550. Which is NOT nuclear radiation? scan
- SLICE THICKNESS
551. Audible sound has an average frequency of 584. A process by which the entire data set is used for high quality
__________________. images
- 10 Hz – 19 Hz (20,000Hz/ 20kHz) - VOLUME RENDERING
552. What is the half-life and energy of Tc99m? 585. The characteristic ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia is/
- 6 HOURS, 140 KeV - DOUBLE-BUBBLE SIGN
553. Which of the following is NOT likely to contribute to chest pain? 586. The appropriate quantity used for dose calculation is fixed SSC
- THYROID DISORDER technique.
554. Which of the following is NOT part of the chest? - PDD
- CLAVICLE 590. When an 0.5 cm margin is added to all sides of a 15x15 cm
555. Simulators are primary used to __________________. fields, the added area is?
- DUPLICATE THE MECHANICAL MOVEMENTS OF THE - 31 cm²
THERAPY MACHINE 592. Normal average ultrasonic measurement of the gallbladder
556. Which of the following is the limit for Mo-99 contamination in a diameter
solution of Tc-99m? - 30mm
-NOT MORE THAN 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc99m 593. Survey meter can
557. 2D ultrasound images are known as _______________. - CAN BE USED TO MEASURE EQUIVALENT DOSE OF
- B MODE RADIATION WORKS
558. Originally, computed tomography was primary used for diagnosis 594. Which of the following procedure is NOT performed with TC99m
of ______________ disorder sulphur colloid?
- NEUROLOGIC - OUTLINE THE HEPATIC ARTERY AND SPLENIC ARTERIES TO
559. In cisternography, indium III DTPA is administered DETERMINE WHETHER THEY ARE DILATED
____________. 595. Which of the following diagnoses does NOT mimic the
- INTRATHECALLY sonographic characteristic of hydatidiform mole?
560. The device that provides the link between the CT technologist - MISSED ABORTION
and other components of the imaging system is the _________. 597. The axial scan can be obtained by placing the transducer on the
- COMPUTER parietal bone just above the_
561. What primarily controls the profile of the ultrasound beam? - CORONAL SUTURE
- TRANSDUCER TYPE 599. Proton beams for therapeutic application range in energy from
562. Which of the following views will the acquisition for the - 150-250 MeV
scanogram is achieved in a cranial computed tomography scan? 600. The average energy of COBALT 60 beam is?
- ANTERO-POSTERIOR - 1.2 MeV
563. In an ultrasound examination, seminomas of the testicles appear 601. Which of the following is the reason why F-18
as _______________. FDG(Fluorodeoxyglucose) localizes in malignant tumors?
- A SOLID, HOMOGENOUS MASS - IT IS ORGANIFIED BY FLUORINATION TRAPPING
565. Bacterial inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis is referred to 602. Which of the following radionuclide is used to image the
as _____________. neuroendocrine tumors?
- PYELONEPHRITIS - INDIUM 111 WBC
566. The role of sound attenuation in tissue is expressed in terms of 603. FOD at a given depth
______________. - BEAM ENERGY GOES NOT MATTER
- HALF – VALUE LAYER 604. Radiographic appearance of atelectasis
567. The ability of magnetic resonance to image in the coronal and - AIRLESS LUNG, WHICH MAY VARY FROM THIN PLATE-LIKE
sagittal planes is helpful in examining the curved surface in the STREAKS TO LOBAR COLLAPSE
_______________. 605. Which of the following radionuclide is NOT used in
- KNEE JOINT radiosynarthrosis?
568. The ejection fraction of the gallbladder can be evaluate using - RHENIUM 187
___________. 607. Multibeam collimators are different from custom-shaped blocks
- CHOLECYSTOKININ because
569. The Sanford technique is a method used for - THEY ARE EASY TO SET-UP, PRODUCE SHARPER PENUMBRA
_________________ irradiation. AND CAN BE USED WITH ANY FIELD SIZE
- TOTAL SKIN 608. The impurity limits of Mo99 per 1 millicurie of Tc99m is
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- 0.15 uCi 634. Hydronephrosis may be best demonstrated sonographically by
609. Rapture of the spleen as a result of a blunt abdominal trauma can which of the following patterns?
be BEST demonstrated by - FLUID FILLED PELVO-CALYCEAL COLLECTING SYSTEM
- COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY 635. What is the useful depth dose range of grenz-ray therapy
610. Patient with hyperthyroidism have the following thyroid function machines?
test - 2 MICROMETER
- DECREASED TSH, HIGH T4 636. Which of the following to a disadvantage in using xenon gas
611. Sonographically, the gastroesophageal junction can be detector in computed tomography?
visualized? - MUST BE KEPT UNDER PRESSURE
- ANTERIOR TO THE AORTA 637. Which of the following is an example of a radioprotector
612. What is the SSD of a linear accelerator? compound?
- 100 cm - CYSTEAMINE
613. Which of the following combination quality control test are to be 638. During a computed tomography examination, if the patient is
performed daily on gamma camera? experiencing anaphylactic shock, which of the following is the drug of
- PHOTOPEAKING, LINEARITY, UNIFORMITY, SENSITIVITY choice?
614. This is a reduction of available space in the spinal column - ANTIHISTAMINE
causing compression of the neural elments 639. Which of the following are examples of the materials used in the
- BULGING DISK five-pin test for computed tomography linearity?
616. Tc99m DMSA scan is used for determining i. POLYETHYLENE
- SPACE OCCUPYING LESSION iii. PLEXIGLAS
617. Uptake of colloidal particle is due to the function of what liver - I AND III
cells? 640. What type of computed tomography scan artifacts will produce a
- KUPFFER starburst appearance?
618. As frequency of sound increased, wavelength - STREAK ARTIFACT
__________________. 641. One acoustic parameter which determines the intensity.
-DECREASE - POWER
619. Colonic intussusception can sometimes be reduced by which of 642. What describes the loss in the uniformity of individual cell and
the following procedures? their architectural orientation:
- BARIUM ENEMA - ATROPHY
620. Percentage depth dose (PDD) at a given depth 643. A disorder that is characterized by small testes that falls to nature
_________________. and produce sperm is a _________ syndrome:
- DETERMINES TISSUE TO BE IRRADIATED - KLINEFELTERS
621. What is the possible medical diagnosis for patient who is 644. To best visualize the prostate sonographically when performing
experiencing sign and symptoms of bronchiectasis due to mucus transverse scan of the pelvis, the sonographer should ___________.
plugs? - ANGLE THE TRANSDUCER 15 DEGREE CEPHALAD
- ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME 645. The depth of maximum dose of 18MV x-ray is at __________.
622. A treatment planning computerized tomography scan is different - 3.0 to 3.5cm
from a diagnostic computerizes tomography scan because in 646. The abdomen is defined as _____________________.
treatment planning the patient __. - THE PORTION OF THE BODY BETWEEN THE THORAX AND
- MUST BE IN TREATMENT POSITION ON A FLAT SURFACE PELVIS CONTAINS THE PERITONEAL CAVITY
623. What is the most common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease? 647. Which of the following is an area of ischemia of the brain from
- GASTRIC (Burning stomach pain) cut-off circulation?
624. Which of the following is an advantage of computed tomography - STROKE
over conventional radiography? 648. Image reconstruction time is defined as that from
- IMPROVES CONTRAST RESOLUTION ______________________.
625. Which of the following is a compound coupled with technetium - END OF SCANNING TO IMAGE APPERANCE
99m used to investigate the brain? 650. Which of the following will provide a visual representation of the
- HMPAO (HEXAMETHYLPROPLENEAMINE) dose at various position across the radiation field?
626. What is considered as the best tool for staging the extent of - PERCENTAGE DEPTH DOSE (PDD)
tumor in the breast? 651. Axial cranial sonography are taken at what intervals?
- MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING - 2 cm
627. If more that are radiopharmaceuticals can be used for a 652. Which of the following are among the three components of
procedure, which of the following should be considered? computed tomography scanner?
i. PHYSICAL PROPERTIES i. HIGH VOLTAGE TRANSFORMER
ii. CHEMICAL PROPERTIES ii. OPERATING CONSOLE
iii. BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES iii. COMPUTER
- I, II AND III - I, II AND III
628. The advantage of magnetic resonance imaging over computed 653. Which medical term is used to described the entry of air into the
tomography include the following: pleural space?
ii. ARE SENSITIVE IN DETECTING WHITE MATTER DISEASE - PNEUMOTHORAX
iii. ABILITY TO DEMONSTRATION PRIMARY AND METASTATIC 654. What computed tomography technique employs continuous
BRAIN TUMORS scanning while the table moves the patient through gantry?
- II AND III - HELICAL SCANNING
629. The normal sonographic texture of the spleen is ___________. 655. The total number of echoes collected during () time repetition in a
- MODERATELY ECHOGENIC BUT LESS ECHOGENIC THAN THE fast scan imaging sequence is referred to as _____________.
LIVER - TIME TO ECHO
630. The sonographic demonstrate of a device of a double decidual 656. Which of the following nuclear medicine stress studies is affected
sac, with or without fetal pole, strongly suggests ___________. by caffeine consumption?
- AN INTRAUTERINE PREGNANCY - TREADMILL EXERCISE
631. Which of the following are the advantage of ultrasonography? 657. Which of the following is the imaging modality of choice in
i. REQUIRES NO SPECIALLY DESIGNED ROOM evaluating patients with suspected neurologic dysfunction caused by
iii. NO KNOWN BIOLOGICAL EFFECT head trauma?
- I AND III - COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
632. When scanning the adrenal glands, the slice thickness is 658. Ultrasonic waves are ____________________.
_________ mm. - MECHANICAL
- 2-3 659. Which of the following describe a third generation computed
633. What primary affects the LARMOR frequency? tomography scanner?
- STRENGTH OF THE MAGNETIC FIELD i. SUB SECOND IMAGING TIME
ii. CURVILINEAR DETECTOR ARRAY
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iii. RING ARTIFACTS - INTEGRAL RESOLUTION
- I, II AND III 686. In most cases, increased uptake of bone-seeking radiopharm is
660. What is the single most effective non-invasive technique in noted, within how many hours following injury?
evaluating lung cancer to include its location, metastasis and extent of - 12-48 HOURS
masses? 687. Basic function of PMT?
- SPUTUM CYTOLOGY - TO CONVERT LIGHT INTO ELECTRICAL SIGNALS
661. Which of the following is a radionuclide impurity? 688. Part of PMT that receives flashes of light
- Mo99 IN THE Tc99M ELUATE - PHOTOCATHODE
662. What is the mechanism of uptake of Tc99m HMPAO 689. Which of the following radionuclides would be used as a source
(hexamethylpropleneamine)? to calibrate a detection system to 99m technetium?
- ACTIVE TRANSPORT - Co 57
663. What sonographic scan will show the liver, pancreas, superior 690. In the scintillation detector, the intensity of the light received from
mesenteric vein (SMV), Celiac truck, superior mesenteric artery the crystal is?
(SMA), aorta and spinal column (visible posteriorly) - DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL TO THE ENERGY OF THE
- UPPER ABDOMINAL LONGITUDINAL CENTER SCAN INCIDENT GAMMA RAY
664. Magic angle effect artefact occurs at region of what degree to the 691. The technologist prepares for a radiopharmaceutical dose to be
main magnetic field? given to a pediatric patient, patient should receive 65% of the adult
- 55 dose of 25mCi, what is the does in mCi that the patient should
665. Which of the following produced in a cyclotron receive?
ii. THALIUM 201 - 16.25 mCi
iii. INDIUM 111 692. Which radiopharmaceutical is used in a patient suspected of
- II AND III Meckel’s diverticulum?
666. The imaging modality that is frequently used to assess - Tc 99m PERTECHNETATE
osteosarcoma is ___________________. 693.The organ receiving the greatest radiation dose using 99m Tc
- POSITRON EMISSION TOMOGRAPHY phosphate for bone imaging is the?
667. The principal advantage of second generation computed - URINARY BLADDER
tomography scanner is ________________. 694. What are the indication for subjecting a patient to a diuretic renal
- CONSTANT SOURCE TO DETECTOR PATH scan?
668. When a patient with metastatic thyroid carcinoma in a candidate - THE PATIENT MIGHT HAVE URINARY TRACT OBSTRUCTION
for radioactive iodine treatment, the uptake of I131 in the metastases 695. What of the following is more effective in picking up the most
is best enhanced by: metastatic lessions and could be subtituded for boney survey with less
- ADMINISTRATION OF EXOGENOUS TSH cost and better diagnostic yield?
669. The optimal size range for human lung scanning using 131MAA - RADIONUCLIDE SCAN
is: 696. Which of the following is ordered in patients with
- 5-100 microns hyperparathyroidism ?
670. To do a cardiac blood pool scan dose is - RADIONUCLIDE SCAN
- 300 MICROCURIES OF 99Mtc SERUM ALBUMIN PER Kg OF 697. Specific gravity of a sample containing radioactive material Is
BODY WEIGHT impressed by?
671. If the blood urea nitrogen is over 100mg percent renal scanning - MILLICURIES PER GRAM
is best done with 698. Which radionuclide may produce pharmacologic in normally
- 131 HIPPURAN administered doses?
672. The highest radiation dose to liver during liver scanning with - 131 BENGAL
normal dose is given BY: 699. Which of the following radioisotopes may be released into
- 131 ROSE BENGAL sanitary sewage system in a concentration greater than 100
673. In doing a bone scan with 85 strontium nitrate the following microcuries per liter?
percentage to the injected dose deposits in the bone - 99m TECHNETIUM
- 90% 700. The only radionuclide used for radiotherapy:
674. Which of the following conditions will not produce an area greater - IODINE 131
activity on the strontium bone scan? 701. Iodine 131 and iodine 125 have
- EOSOPHONIC GRANULOMA - DIFFERENT NUMBER OF NEUTRONS
675. During schilling test 1000 micrograms of unlabelled vitamin B12 703. The most modern imaging device in nuclear medicine
is given to 1-2hrs after the test dose: - PET
- TO PROMOTE RENAL EXCRETION OF ABSORBED LABELED 704. The most common condition of a wholebody scanning
VITAMIN B12 A. TO DETECT FRACTURES
B. TO DIAGNOSE OSTEOMYELITIS
676. Which of the following is the most accurate method for C. TO DETECT BONE
determination of enterice protein loss - D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
- CERUPLASMIN Cu67 TEST 705. The principal thyroid hormone
678. What is the useful radioisotope which is usually isolated after - TRIDOTHYRONINE
cyclotron production by dissolution acid 706. This is also known as “pulse height analyser”?
- INDIUM - GAMMA SPECTOMETER
679. What system is capable of three-dimensional imaging and 707. A renal scan should be done in which position?
quantification of radionuclide distribution? - SUPINE
- SPECT 708. Of the following elements, which has the shortest half-life?
680. It represent the energy distribution from all of the gamma rays - 198 GOLD
totally absorbed by the crystals.
- PHOTOPEAK
681. It is an Ionization type radiation detector which is designed to
measure activities and principally utilized to assess the activity of the
radioisotope dose prior to administration
- DOSE CALIBRATION
682. What is the nicknamed of the handheld survey meter?
- CUTIE PIE
683. What is the measurement of the pinhole collimator mounted on a
cone of shielding material at a fixed distance from the crystal face
diameter?
- 4-6mm
684. Amount of positional distortion caused by the camera with
respect to incident gamma rays events entering the detector