Part-FCL Question Bank

PPL(A)
Acc. (EU) 1178/2011
and
AMC FCL.115, .120, 210, .215

(Excerpt)

10 – Air Law
(Austria)
 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

1 Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a) Certificate of aircraft registration

b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) Airworthiness review certificate
d) EASA Form-1
e) Airplane logbook
f) Appropriate papers for every crew member
g) Technical logbook (1,00 P.)
 a, b, c, e, f
 a, b, e, g
 d, f, g
 b, c, d, e, f, g

2 Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? (1,00 P.)

 Restricted area
 Prohibited area
 No-fly zone
 Dangerous area

3 What is the meaning of an area labeled "LO D 21"? (1,00 P.)

 In this area airspace "D" no. 21 has been established
 A no-fly area was set up from ground up to FL 210
 This area is the austrian dangerous area no. 21
 A low-level flying area was set up till 210 ft AGL

4 What is the meaning of an area labeled "LO D 15"? (1,00 P.)

 This area is a military only area
 This area is an area for test flights up to 1.500 ft AGL
 This area is a no-fly area from ground up to FL150
 This area is the austrian restricted area no. 15.

5 What is the meaning of an area labeled "LK P 2"? (1,00 P.)

 This area is a no-fly area up to FL 245
 This area is a restricted area from ground level up to FL 200
 This area is the czech restricted area no. 2
 The area is a military only area

6 Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? (1,00 P.)
 ICAO chart 1:500000
 AIC
 NOTAM
 AIP

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

7 Which statement is correct regarding restricted areas in Austria? (1,00 P.)

 Restricted areas are established around potentially explosive industry.
 Restricted areas are established around military shooting ranges.
 Restricted areas are established around power plants.

 In Austria there are no permanent restricted areas.

8 What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA?
(e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED) (1,00 P.)
 They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states
 They have the same status as ICAO Annexes
 They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
 Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding

9 Which organisation issues certification requirements for newly developed aircrafts in

Austria? (1,00 P.)
 EASA
 ICAO
 FAA
 Federal Ministry

10 Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have? (1,00 P.)

 6 months
 12 years
 12 months
 Unlimited

11 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"? (1,00 P.)

 Airspace Restriction Criteria
 Airspace Rulemaking Committee
 Airworthiness Recurring Control
 Airworthiness Review Certificate

12 The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state... (1,00 P.)

 in which the aircraft is registered.
 in which the aircraft is constructed.
 of the residence of the owner.
 in which the airworthiness review is done.

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

13 Where should the registration of an aircraft clearly visibly be attached? (1,00 P.)
 On the lower part of the fuselage, on one side of the fuselage and on the upper side of one
wing.
 On the upper side of the right wing, on the fuselage or on the body-mounted engine nacelles
(both sides).
 On the fuselage or on the body-mounted engine nacelles (both sides) and at the lower side of
the left wing.

 On both wings and at least one side of the fuselage and on the body-mounted engine nacelles.

14 Under which circumstances are Austrian aircraft obliged to carry the national flag?
(1,00 P.)
 Only on flights outside the EU countries.
 On every flight.
 This is not necessary.
 Only for international flights.

15 Which type of aircraft has the registration "OE-XUB"? (1,00 P.)

 Single piston engine aircraft.
 Microlight.
 Helicopter.
 Power glider.

16 A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in... (1,00 P.)
 the country where the license was issued.
 all ICAO countries.
 those countries that have accepted this license on application.
 the country where the license was acquired.

17 What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1? (1,00 P.)

 Flight crew licensing
 Rules of the air
 Operation of aircraft
 Air traffic services

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

18 Which flight times have to be recorded in you personal flight log book and what is the
correct expression ? (1,00 P.)
 The period, when the pilot takes seat in the aircraft until the pilot leaves the aircraft at the
destination.

Enroutetime
 The period, when the aircraft leaves the ground until the aircraft touches the ground at the
destination.

Flighttime
 The period from the moment when the aircraft starts taxi with own power until reaching the
parking position at the destination.

Blocktime
 The period, when the aircraft reaches the taxi holding point until the aircraft leaves the runway
at the destination.

Dutytime

19 What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)? (1,00 P.)
 Unlimited
 48 months
 24 months
 60 months

20 What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot license? (1,00 P.)
 21 years
 18 years
 17 years
 16 years

21 What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night
flights? (1,00 P.)
 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
 At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

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22 The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
(1,00 P.)
 48 Months.
 60 Months.
 24 Months.
 12 Months.

23 In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight
time? (1,00 P.)
 A proficiency check with an examiner
 According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of
an ATO
 The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor
 The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor

24 The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to... (1,00 P.)
 act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation
may be obtained.
 act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.
 act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.
 act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation
as a flight instrucor.

25 What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school? (1,00 P.)
 21 years
 18 years
 17 years
 16 years

26 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"? (1,00 P.)

 Standard European Routes of the Air
 Standardized European Rules of the Air
 Selective Radar Altimeter
 Specialized Radar Approach

27 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? (1,00 P.)

 Temporary Reserved Airspace
 Temporary Radar Routing Area
 Terminal Area
 Transponder Area

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28 What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? (1,00 P.)

 To obtain a clearance to enter this area
 To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority
 The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000
 To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact

29 What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight? (1,00 P.)
 Visual reference to the terrain
 Speed not above 115 kt IAS
 At least 500 m ground visibilty
 A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m

30 What has to be done before entering a TMZ? (1,00 P.)

 Request a clearance before entering
 Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk "IDENT"
 Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
 File a flight plan before the flight

31 What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"? (1,00 P.)

 Traffic Management Zone
 Transponder Mandatory Zone
 Touring Motorglider Zone
 Transportation Management Zone

32 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IFR"?

(1,00 P.)
 Instrument Flight Rules
 Instrument Meteorological Conditions
 Bad Weather Flight Rules
 Commercial Flight Rules

33 A flight is called a "visual flight", if the... (1,00 P.)

 visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
 visibility in flight is more than 5 km.
 flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.
 flight is conducted under visual flight rules.

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

34 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"? (1,00 P.)

 Instrument flight conditions
 Visual flight rules
 Variable meteorological conditions
 Visual meteorological conditions

35 Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 Both have to divert to the right
 The heavier one has to climb
 Both have to divert to the left
 The lighter one has to climb

36 Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority
 Both have to divert to the left
 The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
 Both have to divert to the right

37 In airspace "D" a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses.

Which aeroplane has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert
 The Cessna 152, because IFR and commercial flights have priority
 The air traffic control (ATC) has to decide which one has to divert
 The Boeing 737, because an airliner has greater power reserves

38 Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required
minimum height? (1,00 P.)
 An approach without landing at an aerodrome
 The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome
 Take-off or landing at an aerodrome
 Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

39 A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other

opposite at the same altitude.

Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision? (1,00 P.)
 The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left
 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
 The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft

40 Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D

and E? (1,00 P.)
 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically

41 What is the meaning of the term "Special VFR"? (1,00 P.)

 A VFR flight is performed in controlled airspace after approval with ATC without COM
equipment
 A VFR flight is performed below the VFR weather minimas within a control zone
 A VFR flight is performed on an IFR route with a special permission of ATC
 A VFR flight is performed in especially established airspace

42 Which are the minimum weather conditions for a "Special VFR" flight in a control
zone? (1,00 P.)
 Minimum visibility in flight 1,5 km, ceiling not below 600 ft
 Minimum visibility in flight 3 km, ceiling not below 600 ft
 Minimum visibility in flight 3 km, ceiling not below 500 ft
 Minimum visibility in flight 2,5 km, ceiling not below 500 ft

43 The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is... (1,00 P.)
 1500 m.
 3000 m.
 5000 m.
 8000 m.

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

44 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at 5000 ft MSL? (1,00 P.)
 3000 m
 1500 m
 5000 m
 8000 m

45 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL75? (1,00 P.)
 3000 m
 5000 m
 1500 m
 8000 m

46 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL110? (1,00 P.)
 8000 m
 5000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m

47 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL125? (1,00 P.)
 5000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m
 8000 m

48 What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? (1,00 P.)
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

49 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR? (1,00 P.)
 8 km
 1.5 km
 10 km
 5 km

50 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR?

(1,00 P.)
 10 km
 5 km
 8 km
 1.5 km

51 The term "ceiling" is defined as the... (1,00 P.)

 height of the base of the highest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 10000 ft.
 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.
 altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds
covering more than half of the sky below 20000 ft.

52 Under which conditions a VFR flight during night is allowed?

a) The pilot is licened for night flight.

b) The aeroplane is equipped and permitted for night flight.
c) Parachutes for all crew members and passengers must be operational
and already put on.
d) The flight has to be performed in controlled airspace or in the vicinity of the
aerodrome.
e) A permit to fly have to be obtained before every flight from Radar control. (1,00 P.)
 a, b, c, d, e.
 b, c, d.
 a, b, d.
 a, b, e.

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

53 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the

following signal:

Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft,

followed by a smooth turn to the left? (1,00 P.)
 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
 Follow me
 You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading
 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

54 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the

following signal:

A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft

without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft? (1,00 P.)
 You may continue your flight
 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately
 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
 Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield

55 The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa... (1,00 P.)
 when climbing above the transition altitude.
 at 4000 ft.
 when descending below FL 100.
 at the decision height.

56 During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... (1,00 P.)
 local QFE.
 1013.25 hPa.
 1030.25 hPa.
 local QNH.

57 What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? (1,00 P.)

 To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern
 To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
 To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
 To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres

58 Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes? (1,00 P.)
 B, R, S
 A, C, S
 B, C, V
 A, C, R

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

59 A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... (1,00 P.)
 transponder approved for airspace "B".
 mode A transponder.
 pressure-decoder.
 mode C or S transponder.

60 Which transponder code has to be set in airspace E for VFR flights,

if no other code was assigned? (1,00 P.)
 6000.

 7000.

 3000.

 2000.

61 Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? (1,00 P.)

 2000
 7700
 7000
 7600

62 Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?
(1,00 P.)
 7600
 7700
 7000
 7500

63 Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency? (1,00 P.)
 7600
 7700
 7000
 7500

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

64 The aerodrome Friesach/Hirt (LOKH) is located within airspace...

See annex (ALW-024) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 1
 D.
 F.
 E.
 G.

65 What is the maximum allowed flight altitude at "Mauterndorf",

if the pilot does not have contact to an ATC-station?

See annex (ALW-026) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 2
 FL 195.
 9.500 ft MSL.
 7.500 ft MSL.
 FL 125.

66 Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? (1,00 P.)
 ALR (alerting service)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
 FIS (flight information service)
 ATC (air traffic control)

67 Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? (1,00 P.)

 ALR (alerting service)
SAR (search and rescue service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)
 APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
FIS (flight information service)
 FIS (flight information service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)
 TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)

68 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"? (1,00 P.)
 VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
 IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
 VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic
 VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

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69 The CTR Linz is located within airspace...

See annex (ALW-028) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 3
 E from GND to 2.500 ft AGL.
 D from GND to 2.500 ft MSL.
 E from 1.000 ft AGL to FL125.
 D from 1.000 ft AGL but at least 2.500 ft MSL to FL125.

70 The upper limit of the CTR St. Gallen/Altenrhein is...

See annex (ALW-029) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 4
 3.300 ft MSL.

 1.306 ft MSL.

 5.500 ft MSL.

 2.000 ft MSL.

71 Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
(1,00 P.)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
SAR (search and rescue)
 FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
FIS (flight information service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)

72 A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)... (1,00 P.)

 via telephone.
 via radio communication.
 by a personal visit.
 via internet.

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73 What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light
aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category? (1,00 P.)
 Danger jet blast
 Be careful wake winds
 Attention propwash
 Caution wake turbulence

74 Which of the following options states a correct position report? (1,00 P.)
 DEABC reaching "N"
 DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
 DEABC, "N", 2500 ft
 DEABC over "N" at 35

75 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AIREP"? (1,00 P.)

 Aircraft report
 Aeronautical instrument requirement report
 Automatic identification report
 Aeronautical information report

76 What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? (1,00 P.)
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

77 Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? (1,00
P.)
 GEN
MET
RAC
 GEN
AGA
COM
 GEN
COM
MET
 GEN
ENR
AD

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78 What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP? (1,00 P.)
 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods

79 The shown NOTAM is valid until...

A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400

E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE. (1,00 P.)
 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.
 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.

80 A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... (1,00 P.)

 AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
 AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
 ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
 NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

81 What type of airfield is LOWK?

See annex (ALW-027) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 5
 Private airfield.
 A glider airfield.
 Military airfield.
 Public Civil Aerodrome.

82 The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as... (1,00 P.)

 the lowest point of the landing area.
 the highest point of the landing area.
 the highest point of the apron.
 the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.

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83 Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"? (1,00 P.)
 A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given
 A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed
is given
 A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are
prevailing
 A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed
when a taxi clearance is given

84 What type of airfield is LOXZ?

See annex (ALW-030) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 6
 International airport.
 Military airfield.
 Public civil airfield.
 A privat airfield.

85 What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean? (1,00 P.)
 The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water
 Some water patches are visible
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 A large part of the surface is flooded

86 What does the reported runway condition "DAMP" mean?

(1,00 P.)
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 Change of colour on the surface due to moisture
 Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible
 A large part of the surface is flooded

87 What does "WATER PATCHES" mean regarding the reported runway condition? (1,00
P.)
 Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible
 A large part of the surface is flooded
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 Patches of standing water are visible

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88 How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility? (1,00 P.)
 The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.

 The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.

 The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
 The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.

89 What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Cleared to land
 Airport unsafe, do not land

90 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Cleared to land
 Airport unsafe, do not land

91 What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
 Airport unsafe, do not land
 Cleared to land

92 What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Return to starting point
 Clear the taxiway / runway
 Cleared for take-off
 Cleared to taxi

93 What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Cleared for take-off
 Return to starting point
 Cleared to taxi
 Immediately taxi clear of runway in use

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94 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Cleared to taxi
 Cleared for take-off
 Land at this airport and proceed to the apron
 Return to starting point

95 Of what shape is a landing direction indicator? (1,00 P.)

 A straight arrow
 T
 L
 An angled arrow

96 What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? (1,00 P.)

 It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying
aircraft
 Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
 It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
 It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects

97 In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Apply some fast pitch changes
 Apply some changes of the rudder
 Apply some changes of RPM
 Rock the wings (in the daytime)

98 What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to
an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Clear the taxiway / runway
 Return to starting point
 Stop
 Land at this airport and proceed to apron

99 How are two parallel runways designated? (1,00 P.)

 The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"
 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
 The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1

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100 According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway? (1,00 P.)
 Blue
 Yellow
 Green
 White

101 What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed

symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? (1,00 P.)
 A ground roll could be started from this position
 Do not touch down behind them
 At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
 Do not touch down before them

102 Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways? (1,00 P.)
 "18" and "18-2"
 "06L" and "06R"
 "26" and "26R"
 "24" and "25"

103 What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)? (1,00 P.)

 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct
glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct
departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport
 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
 An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport

104 An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... (1,00 P.)

 fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the
air.
 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the air.
 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the ground.
 rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft
pilots from the air.

105 Which is the colour of runway edge lights? (1,00 P.)

 White
 Red
 Blue
 Green

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106 Which is the colour of runway end lights? (1,00 P.)

 Green
 Blue
 White
 Red

107 What is shown on the printed sign?

See figure (ALW-019) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 7
 Point A on a taxiway
 Part A of the runway
 Taxiway A
 Parking position A

108 What is shown on the printed sign?

See figure (ALW-020)

(1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 8
 From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction
 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway
 The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m
 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area

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109 Which meaning has a yellow diagonal on red ground signal as shown in the signal
area of an aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-009)

(1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 9
 Prohibition on landing for a longer period.
 Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces.
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor.
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right.

110 What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-011) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 10
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
 Glider flying is in progress
 Landing prohibited for a longer period
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

111 What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an
aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-012) (1,00 P.)

Siehe Anlage 11
 Prohibition on landing for a longer period
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
 Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

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112 What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"? (1,00 P.)

 Alerting phase

 Uncertainty phase
 Distress phase
 Rescue phase

113 Who provides search and rescue service? (1,00 P.)

 Only civil organisations
 Both military and civil organisations
 International approved organisations
 Only military organisations

114 How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times
 Rock the wings
 Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
 Push the rudder in both directions multiple times

115 With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three
categories regarding aircraft occurrences? (1,00 P.)
 Happening
Event
Serious event
 Event
Crash
Disaster
 Incident
Serious incident
Accident
 Event
Serious event
Accident

116 What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? (1,00 P.)
 To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations
 To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
 To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
 To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences

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