Air Regulations

Test 1

Q1. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 005◦, the magnetic heading 355◦. Which of the following flight
level is correct?
A) FL65
B) FL70
C) FL55
D) FL 60

Q2. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL, the minimum horizontal distance
from cloud for VFR flight is:
A) 1000 ft.
B) 5 km
C) clear of clouds and in sight of the surface.
D) 1500 m.

Q3. The number of characters required to compose the ATS route designator shall not exceed--characters
a) 7
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5

Q4. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated:

a) as prescribed by the state
b) immediately a significant change occurs
c) as prescribed by the meteorological office
d) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change

Q5. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
a) through a central control unit.
b) automatically at the control zone boundary.
c) by agreement with the receiving unit
d) with the pilot's consent.

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC will be cleared to land if this is desirable
b) Suspension of VFR operations cannot be initiated by the aerodrome controller
c) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between
aircraft on the movement area
d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.

Q7. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is reported when it falls below

a) 1500m
b) 1000 m
c) 1200 m
d) 800 m

Q8. What is the obligation of a state in the event of non-compliance with international standards?
a) The state has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
b) The state has to notify the council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.
c) Modification to international standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to
recommended practices have to be notified to ICAO.
d) The state has to publish such differences in the national AIP only.

Q9. Which of the following ICAO documents contain international standards and Recommended practices
(SARPS)?
a) ICAO Technical Manuals.
b) Procedures for air Navigation services (PANS).
c) Regional Supplementary procedures (SUPPS).
d) Annexes to the convention on international civil aviation.

Q10. The ICAO Annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international
flights is:
a) Annex 16
b) Annex 15
c) Annex 8
d) Annex 9

Q11. Which body of ICAO finalizes the standard and recommended practices (SARPS) for submission for
adoption?
a) The assembly
b) The council
c) The air navigation commission
d) The regional air navigation meeting.

Q12. If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not
possible, attempts shall be

made to convey instructions and essential information by using standard phrases and pronunciations,
transmitting each phrase twice. The standard phrase with the meaning “Descend for landing” for use by
INTERCEPTING aircraft is:
A) YOU LAND (YOU-LAAND)

B) DESCEND (DEE-SEND)

C) LET DOWN (LET-DAUN)

D) DESCEND FOR LAND (DEE-SEND FOR LAAND)

Q13. An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately,
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A code:

A) 7600

B) 7500

C) 7000

D) 7700

Q14. Which state shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg?
a) State of the operator.
b) State of registry.
c) The state of registry or the state of the operator.
d) State of design.

Q15. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
subject to the:
a) Requirement laid down by ICAO.
b) Laws of the state in which the aircraft is operated.
c) Laws of the state of Registry.
d) Laws of the state of registry and operation.

Q16. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall be:
a) At least 75 centimeters
b) At least 50 centimeters
C) At least 60 centimeters
d) At least between 40 centimeters and 50 centimeters.

Q17. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and
numbers and shall be that assigned by
a) The State of Registry or common mark registering authority
b) The International Civil Aviation Organization.
C) The State of Registry Only
d) The International Telecommunication union

Q18. You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL:
a) with a valid license plus flight instructor rating
b) With a CPL
c) With a PPL plus CPL theory
d) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating.

Q19. The holder of a pilot license when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot-in-
command the functions and duties of a pilot-in-command shall be entitled to a credit
a) In full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license.
b)50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license.
c) In full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of
pilot license.
d) The flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license in accordance with the
requirements of the licensing authority.

Q20. In the context of PART-FCL definitions, when does "flight time" end?
a) At engine shut down
b) When all the passengers have disembarked
c) At touchdown
d) When the aeroplane finally stops after landing to disembark passengers.

Q21. The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the:
a) prevention of accidents or incidents and to establish liability
b) prevention of accidents or incidents
c) prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the
improvement of the design
d) prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.

Q22. Which of the following, according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accredited
representative to participate in the investigation?
a) All ICAO members States
b) State conducting the investigation State of aircraft Registry and operator's State
c) Any State which, on request provides information facilities or experts to the State conducting the
investigation.
d) State conducting the investigation and stale of design and manufacturing.

Q23. What is an aircraft security check?

a) An inspection of those parts of the interior of the aircraft to which passengers may have had access,
together with an inspection of the hold of the aircraft in order to detect prohibited articles and unlawful
interference with the aircraft.
b) An inspection done by a flight safety inspector who checks if airworthiness certificate of an aircraft is
valid
c) An inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight
d) An Inspection of the interior and accessible exterior of the aircraft in order to detect prohibited articles
and unlawful interferences that jeopardise the security of the aircraft.

Q24. The objective of aviation security is to:

a) regulate the transportation of dangerous goods by air
b) ensure that adequate maintenance standards are applied by all operators
c) safeguard international Civil Aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference
d) ensure that commercial flight operations are safe and secure.

Q25. In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of
the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify
the:
a) ICAO,
b) State of Registry of the aircraft and ICAO
c) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator
d) State of registry of the aircraft the state of the operator and ICAO.

Q26. Alert phase is defined as follows:

a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
b) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted
c) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger
d) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.

Q27. When flying en-route you intercept an emergency transmission from an aircraft in distress. Your
actions will include, where possible
a) Record the bearing of the transmission, and continue on your way
b) Acknowledge the transmission, and begin to search the aircraft in distress.
c) Enter a holding pattern and await instructions
d) Hold at your current position and coordinate the SAR operation.

Q28. Which sign can be written in the sand by survivors on an island to give people in an aircraft a
NEGATIVE response?

a) X

b) (-)

c) N

d) B

Q29. From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs
and health formalities?
a) NOTAM
b) ATCC
c) AIP (Aeronautical information Publication).
d) NAV/RAD charts.

Q30. For an inbound aircraft the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following?
a) 2 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
b) 3 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 3 copies of a simple stores list
c) 2 copies of the general declaration, 2 coples of the cargo manifest 2 copies of a simple stores list
d) 3 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest 2 copies of a simple stores list.

Q31. On a VFR flight, your magnetic track is 200°. Which of the following flight levels should be used?

A) FL65, FL85 or FL105

B) FL70, FL90 or FL110

C) FL60, FL80 or FL100

D) FL75, FL95 or FL115

Q32. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud
should be:

A) clear of the cloud and in sight of the surface.

B) 2000 ft. and 300 NM horizontally.

C) 1000 ft. horizontally and 1000 ft. vertically.

D) 1000 ft. vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.

Q33. Which of these statements about the oxygen system in transport aeroplanes is incorrect?

A) Passengers must leave the toilet(s) immediately after a decompression because oxygen systems are not
installed in toilets.

B) It is possible to visually verify when the oxygen flows to a passenger mask.

C) A chemical oxygen generator cannot be switched off.

D) The chemical oxygen generator incorporates a heat shield.

Q34. With regard to an oxygen system, what is the emergency selector?

A) Demand-regulated 100% oxygen flow under ambient pressure

B) Demand-regulated 100% oxygen supply under positive pressure

C) Reduced-partial pressure oxygen supply to extend time of availability

D) Continuous-flow 100% oxygen supply under positive pressure

Q35. You can determine the amount of oxygen in a portable bottle by observing its:

A) volume.

B) level.

C) pressure.

D) temperature.

Q36. Which of the following answers is correct?

A) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is not adaptable.

B) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is adaptable.

C) Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is not adaptable.

D) Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is adaptable.

Q37. Attitudes are defined as:

A) a synonym for behaviour.

B) tendencies to respond to people, things or events in a particular manner.

C) the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting.

D) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity.

Q38. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should:

A) make up his mind before consulting other crew members.

B) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible.

C) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute.

D) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind.

Q39. Having made an important decision, a commander of an aircraft should:

A) always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing.
B) explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air.

C) as the leader of the crew, never need explain the reasons behind the decision.

D) explain the reasons for the decision only if asked.

Q40. Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making most effective?

A) Friendliness

B) General intelligence

C) Assertiveness

D) Competitiveness

Q41. An oxygen supply system must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease as:

A) the oxygen system would be contaminated.

B) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.

C) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.

D) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen.

Q42. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?
a) An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication
has not been re-established.
b) Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of an aircraft has been impaired to
the extent that a forced landing is likely
c) An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA which was last notified to ATC
d) An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.

Q43. The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a minimum height of:
a) 700 m above ground or water.
b) 700 m above aerodrome level.
c) 700 ft above ground or water
d) 700 ft above aerodrome level.

Q44. Some letter combinations shall not be used in registration marks. Which of the following
combinations might be confused with an urgent or distress signal?
a) XXX
b) DDD
c) III
d) RCC
Q45. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in length but not suitable for use by
aircraft, marked?
a) By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
b) By a yellow X
c) By a white x
d) By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold.

Q46. What color is a land aerodrome beacon?

a) White or white/green.
b) Green or green/white.
c) Any colour except red
d) Yellow or yellow/white.

Q47. Who issues the certificate of airworthiness?

a) State of registry
b) ICAO
c) Operator
d) State of design

Q48. According to Annex 7, the definition of aircraft is:

a) Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the
reactions of the air against the Earth's surface.
b) A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions
on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
c) Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air
d) A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on
surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of.

Q49.Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located?

a) On the right half of the upper surface of the wing structure.
b) On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure.
C) On the right half of the lower surface of the wing structure.
d) On the left half of the upper surface of the wing structure

Q50. To be able to execute a public transport flight according AIRCREW regulation, the minimum and
maximum age of the pilot holding a CPL for aeroplanes or helicopters is
a) 18 and 65 years.
b) 18 and 60 years.
c) 21 and 64 years
d) 21 and 65 years