RTFQ Question Bank

Entrance Test- Airlines

*

(RTFQ= Read the F%$&# Question CAREFULLY)

1. What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a

shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the
required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
a) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the
required control deflection is smaller.
b) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is smaller. 462
c) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is larger.
d) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control
deflection is larger.
2. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for
a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a) Unchanged
b) Smaller
c) Larger
d) Dependent on trim position
3. A cambered wing would achieve:
a. Lower CL at a higher AOA
b. Lower CL at a lower AOA
c. Higher CL at a lower AOA
4. Standard units of measurement for horizontal distance are:
a. Metre, Nautical mile, Kilometre
b. Metre, Statute mile, Nautical mile
c. Metre, feet, Nautical mile
5. Type of fog observed on a clear night, light winds is:
a. Advection fog
b. Radiation fog
c. Steam fog

6. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the

formation of mountain waves?

a. Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20

knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
b. Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots
blowing across the mountain ridge.
c. Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least
30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.
d. Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots
blowing across the mountain ridge.
7. Annexure regarding the Rules of air:
a. Annexure 4
b. Annexure 3
c. Annexure 2
8. Annexure regarding the carriage of dangerous goods as laid down
by amendments in the Chicago convention of 1944:
a. Annexure 18
b. Annexure 17
c. Annexure 14
9. Which of these values are mentioned in the ISA?
1. Temperature
2. Density
3. Pressure
4. Humidity
a. 1,3
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,2,3,4
10.
Range of VOR located at 190 amsl and aircraft flying @ 6000
amsl.
a. 116km
b. 141km
c. 116nm
11.
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine
aircraft are:
a. Centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
b. Low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
c. Centrifugal high pressure pumps.
d. High pressure variable swash plate pumps
12.
The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine

2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 3
c) 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1
13.
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates
that:
a. Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways
b. Glider flying is performed outside the landing area
c. Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway
only
d. This aerodrome is using parallel runways
14.
Intruding Traffic Advisory is represented on the TCAS II by:
a. Full Yellow circle
b. Full Red square
c. Cyan hollow lozenges
15.
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the
following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a
take-off or a go-around:
a. DON'T SINK repetitive only
b. WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
c. DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
d. DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink
rate overshoots a second level
16.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
a. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception
by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended international practices for
contracting member states

17.

The second freedom of the air is the:

a. Right to overfly without landing

b. Right to land for a technical stop
c. Right to ""Cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic)
d. Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers
on board between two states.
18.
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land
b. Come back and land
c. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land
for the time being.
d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
19.
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches
the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less
than:
a. 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
d.. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
20.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that
are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar
(SSR)?
a. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure
7600.
b. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
c. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
d. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
21.
The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
a. In flight only.
b. By bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
c. By the air conditioning system.
d. By an auxiliary system.
22.
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by:
a. The cabin inlet airflow.
b. The cabin outflow valve.
c. The engine's RPM.
d. The engine's bleed valves.

23.
A bus-bar is:
a. The stator of a moving coil instrument.
b. A device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
c. A distribution point for electrical power.
d. A device which may only be used in DC circuits.
24.
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the
passenger breathes:
a. Pure oxygen under pressure.
b. A mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
c. Pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d. Cabin air under pressure.
25.
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a
fall in ambient temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a increase in air density
26.
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has
blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the
pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed :
a. Increases steadily
b. Increases abruptly towards VNE
c. Decreases steadily
d. Decreases abruptly towards zero
27.
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:
a. The total pressure
b. The static pressure
c. The outside temperature
d. The differential pressure measurement
28.
The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is
based on the measurement of the rate of change of:
a. Pitot pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Static pressure
d. Total pressure

29.
A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20
bank at a latitude of 40 north. Using a direct reading compass, in
order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate
heading of:
a. 330
b. 350
c. 030
d. 010
30.
A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal
component of the earth's magnetic field.
1- The flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- The primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)
3- The information can be used by a ""flux gate"" compass or a
directional gyro
4- The flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three
inertial axis
5- The accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less
than 0,5%
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct
statements?
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 3, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
31.
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to
the speed at which the engine:
a. Will run without any external assistance.
b. Is designed to idle after starting.
c. Operates most efficiently in the cruise.
d. Will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
32.
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its
normal idle speed. It may be caused by:
a. The starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the
engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
b. Compressor surging.
c. An attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been
accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
d. Failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the
engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter

33.
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
a. Independent of turbine rpm.
b. The same as turbine rpm
c. Greater than turbine rpm.
d. Less than turbine rpm.
34.
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a
fall in ambient temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air
density
35.
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a. The obstacle limited take-off mass.
b. The field limited take-off mass.
c. The climb limited take-off mass.
d. The take-off run.
36.
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause
over the equator?
a. 11,000m
b. 8000m
c. 16,000m
d. 10km
37.
From which of the following pieces of information can the
stability of the atmosphere be derived?
a. Dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. Surface temperature
c. Environmental lapse rate
d. Pressure at the surface
38.
What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with
altitude?
a. Inversion
b. Subsidence
c. Adiabatic
d. Advection

39.
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40C, and
the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a. 19340 feet
b. 20660 feet
c. 21740 feet
d. 18260 feet
40.
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area
where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?
a. Strong and parallel to the isobars.
b. Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
c. Strong and flowing across the isobars
d. Moderate and parallel to the isobars
41.
What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will
reach an altitude of 90 above the horizon at some time during the
year?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 66
d. 23
42.
The duration of civil twilight is the time:
a. Agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12
minutes
b. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6
below the true horizon
c. Needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0 to the
apparent height of 6
d. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12 below the
true horizon
43.
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
a. Turbulence at and below the cloud level
b. Poor visibility at surface
c. Smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
d. A high risk of thunderstorms
44.
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the
meridians: a. Is zero throughout the chart
b. Is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
c. Varies as the secant of the latitude
d. Equals earth convergency at the standard parallels

45.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Details about Instrument procedures can be found:

PANS ATM
Annexure 13
PANS OPS 8168
NOTAMS

46.
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:
a. Increase pressure surges within the system.
b. Store fluid under pressure.
c. Reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d. Reduce fluid temperature only.
47.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9
000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on
principle at least:
a. 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5
km visibility.
b. 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km
visibility.c. Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
d. 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km
visibility.
48.
Visibility from the cockpit is called:
a. Slant visibility
b. Flight visibility
c. RVR
d. Met visibility
49.
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot
tube is the :
a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Total pressure plus static pressure.
d. Total pressure
50.
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure
port (rain, birds), the altimeter:
a. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and
displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
b. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and
displays the correct information during symmetric flight

c. Keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations

d. Under reads the altitude

51.
Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag
(subsonic)?
a. The gliding angle is minimum.
b. The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
c. Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
d. Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. Endurance.
52.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Runway 30, W/v 240/35. What is the crosswind component?

24KT
45KT
30KT
10KT

53.
During a low level flight two parallel roads that are crossed at
right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be
used to check the aircraft:
a. Position
b. Groundspeed
c. Track
d. Drift
54.
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the
minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high
terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
a. At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b. At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c. At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d. At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
55.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area
means:
a. Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the
taxiways.
b. An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
c. The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider
flights are being performed.
d. Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
56.
Which of the following phenomenon can cause both fog and
clouds?

a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Advection
d. Subsidence

57.
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
a. By states on the basis of regional air navigation
agreements
b. By states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
c. By ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
d. By regional air navigation agreements
58.
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is
based on:
a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b. Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
59.
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
a. Large super-cooled water drops
b. Water vapour
c. Small super-cooled water drops
d. Snow
60.
An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances
from position 0400'N 03000'W :600 NM South, then 600 NM East,
then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. The final position of the
aircraft is:
a. 0358'N 03002'W
b. 0400'N 03002'W
c. 0400'N 03000'W
d. 0400'N 02958'W
61.
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
c. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. (AS PER
QB)
d. VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
62.
Which of the following statements about the difference
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?

a. Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap

does not.
b. Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does
not.
c. Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a
Krueger flap does not.
d. Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack,
deploying a slat does not.
63.
When turning right from 330(C) to 040(C) in the northern
hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
a. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
b. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
c. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the
effect
d. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
64.
An outside air temperature of -35C is measured while cruising
at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this
level?
a) 10C warmer than ISA.
b) 10C colder than ISA.
c) 5C warmer than ISA.
d) 5C colder than ISA.
65.
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and
35.If a pilot chooses 25 instead of 35, the aircraft will have:
a. An increased landing distance and better go-around
performance
b. A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c. An increased landing distance and degraded go-around
performanced. A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around
performance
66.
Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
a. Increases aircraft performance
b. Has no influence on aircraft performance
c. Decreases aircraft performance
d. Is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
67.
Which of these factors would increase the Take-off distance the
most?
a. Low elevation in summer
b. Low elevation in winter

c. High elevation in summer

d. High elevation in winter
68.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Airfield pressure is called:

QNH
QNE
QFE
QFF

69.
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the
following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. Over-current
4. over- speed
5. Under-frequency
6. Undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 2, 3,4,5,6
70.
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly
heading 030"", the pilot must fly heading:
a. 030 true
b. 030 magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic
track)
c. 030 magnetic
d. 030 true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
71.
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a
controlled flight deviates from the track?
a. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
practicable
b. Inform the ATC unit immediately
c. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
instructions

72.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the
troposphere?
a. TAS is constant.
b. TAS increases.
c. TAS decreases.
d. TAS is not related to Mach number.
73.
Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO)
and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a
pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In
order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the
maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be
limited :
a. By the MMO
b. initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain
flight level
d. By the VMO in still air
74.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Relationship of dip is:

Decreases towards poles and inversely proportional to H
Decreases towards poles and directly proportional to H
Increases towards poles and inversely proportional to H
Increases towards poles and directly proportional to H

75.
Rate of turn of an aircraft depends on
a. TAS
b. Weight
c. Load factor
d. Angle of bank
76.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Isobars are represented by lines:

In upper level charts for determining upper winds
In the core of the jet streams
On surface weather charts
To determine thermal winds

77.
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites
required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
a. 24
b. 5
c. 6
d. 4

78.
With which of the following types of cloud is ""+RA""
precipitation most commonly associated?
a. SC
b. AC
c. NS
d. ST
79.
Term used for air mass over ocean:
a. Continental
b. Maritime
c. Tropical
d. Equatorial

80.
True track= 358 Variation= 3E, Deviation =2W. Which FL do u
select from the following options?
a. F80
b. F75
c. F65
d. F90
81.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation
number shall be supplemented:
a. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R""
- for 3 ""L"", ""C"" and ""R"".
b. By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
c. By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and
the central has no letter.
82.
Condensation is:
a. Water changes to ice
b. Vapour changes to water
c. Water changes to vapour
d. Vapour changes to ice
83.
The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the
measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument
placed?
a. 1 m above the runway.
b. On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
c. Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d. On the roof of the weather station.

84.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which
alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
a. Arrival segment.
b. Initial approach segment.
c. Intermediate approach segment.
d. Final approach segment.
85.
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
a. That the CSD remains at a constant RPM notwithstanding the
generator RPM
b. That the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM notwithstanding
the acceleration of the engine.
c. That the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
d. Equal AC voltage from all generators.
86.
Angle between Magnetic and Compass North is:
a. Variation
b. Deviation
c. Convergence
d. True heading
87.
Given: True Heading = 180 TAS = 500 kt W/V 225 / 100
calculate the GS?
a. 435 kt
b. 600 kt
c. 535 kt
d. 450 kt
88.
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a. Selecting a lower VR
b. Selecting a lower V1.
c. Selecting a lower V2.
d. A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
89.
In a remote indicating compass system the amount of
deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may
be minimised by:
a. Mounting the detector unit where magnetic interference is
minimum
b. The use of repeater cards
c. Positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
d. Using a vertically mounted gyroscope

90.
If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you
should:
a. Scan the surroundings
b. Dim the cockpit lighting
c. Continue on instruments
d. Use your oxygen mask
91.
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a
deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
a. Squawk 7700
b. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action
taken as soon as circumstances permits

92.
The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have
different duration, is due to the:
a. Earth's rotation
b. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
c. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
d. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation
of the earth.
93.
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome shall give way to:
a. Other converging aircraft
b. Other vehicles and pedestrians
c. Aircraft taking off or about to take off
d. All vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle
94.
Following a stall the CP movement in (i) straight wing, (ii) swept
wing:
a. (i) forward, (ii) aft
b. (i) aft, (ii) forward
c. (i) does not shift, (ii) forward
d. (i) aft, (ii) does not shift
95.
Reduced take-off thrust
a. Can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least
10kt

b. Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the

performance limited take-off mass.
c. Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
d. Has the benefit of improving engine life.
96.
In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
a. Drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the
exhaust gases
b. Clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
c. Compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the
combustion chamber
d. Drive devices like pumps, regulator and generator.
97.
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
a. the outside air temperature is standard for that height
b. The air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
c. Standard atmospheric conditions occur
d. The indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

98.
Which of the following circumstances most favour the
development of radiation fog? a. Advection of very cold air over
much warmer sea
b. Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
c. Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
d. Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
99.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR
flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :
a. 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b. 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c. 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d. 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
100.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will:
a) Continue to display the reading at which the blockage
occurred
b) Gradually indicate zero
c) Under-read
d) Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the milli bar
subscale

Aptitude and General aviation knowledge

101.
When two resistors are connected in series:
a. Voltage is constant
b. Current is constant
c. Current increases across the circuit
d. Current decreases across the circuit
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.

1lbs is equal to
3.45kg
2.54kg
0.45kg
4.50kg

103.
Supersonic aircraft flying and crossing the sonic boom is:
a. Flying faster than the speed of sound
b. Pulling out of a dive
c. All of them fly faster than d speed of sound
d. Crosses the sound barrier

104.
14 workers finish a work in 16 days. 8 workers are working for
12 days, 8 more join after 12 days. How long will they take to finish
the remainder of the work?
a. 12
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
105.
Dropping a ball vertically down accelerates at 9.8 m/s2.
Throwing a ball vertically down will accelerate at (no air resistance):
a. At 9.8 m/s2
b. Less than 9.8 m/s2
c. More than 9.8 m/s2
d. Zero
106.
Two different balls are to be drawn from a bag containing 5
white and 7 black balls. What is the probability?
107.
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
a. Associated with the task of mental construction of the
environment
b. Due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
c. Due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
d. Solely induced in the absence of external reference points
108.
A little water evaporates from a 6 litre sugar solution containing
4% sugar, what will be the % of sugar left? (Insufficient information)
a. 3.5%
b. 4%
c. 19/4%
d. 5%
109.
Two balls are in a gravitational field. If the mass of one ball is
doubled, the gravitational force between them:
a. Remains same
b. Doubled
c. Tripled
d. Quadrupled
110.
Average of 7, x, 10, 14, 16 is 8. What is the missing number?
( Not an exact question)
Ans: 13
111.
S (distance) given by an equation, with respect to t(time). If
a(acceleration) is zero what will be the velocity of a body?

112.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Speed of Sound at Sea level is:

540m/s
450m/s
340m/s
661m/s

113.
Two bodies start from a point, one heading west at 40 km/hr.,
other heading north at 50 km/hr. respectively. What will be the rate
of change of distance between them at the end of 3 hours?
a. 41
b. 1041
c. 10
d. 41
114.
Out of these which is not an EM wave?
a. Radio
b. Seismic
c. Light
d. X-ray

115.
AC is converted to DC by:
a. Transformer Rectifier Unit
b. Inverter
c. Transformer
d. APU
116.
a.
b.
c.
d.

For HF communications to be effective over an extended time:

Frequency is increased over a month
Frequency is doubled at night
Frequency is halved at night
Different frequency is used in winters

117.
How would pendulum oscillations change with altitude?
a. Remain same
b. Increases
c. Decrease
118.
Hyperventilation is:
a. A decreased lung ventilation
b. A too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
c. An increased lung ventilation
d. A too high percentage of oxygen in the blood

119.
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without
oxygen) above 12,000 ft.?
a. Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of
consciousness
b. Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
c. Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
d. Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of
the rate of breathing
120.
A train crosses a platform in 20 seconds. To determine the
velocity of the train the following variables are required. (i) length of
train, (ii) length of platform:
a. Only (ii)
b. Only (i)
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. No values will yield in the result