REVISION NO.

INITIAL January 22, 2010

MPL – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Set – B

1. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a. Position and instrument error

b. Instrument, pressure, and density error
c. Relative density only
d. Compressibility

2. With an almost discharged battery there will be:

a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load

b. Increase of current with decrease of voltage
c. Decrease of current with increasing load
d. Increase of voltage with increasing load

3. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen
mask?

a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft

4. When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded?

a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation

5. Maximum Differential pressure:

a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the

inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to
carry

6. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of

aircraft height
b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA
conditions
7. With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected ‘ON’:

a. Whenever the igniters are on

b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains
visible moisture
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining
d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on

8. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static
pressure?

a. Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator

b. Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
c. Airspeed indicator only
d. Airspeed indicator and machmeter

9. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot
should select:

a. Normal
b. 100%
c. Diluter
d. Emergency

10. When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?

a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture

b. Cruise power
c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture
d. Max take-off power

11. If a CSD overheat warning is shown:

a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the
alternator himself
b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the
temperature has reduced
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the
flight

12. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?

a. After a booster pump failure

b. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘ON’ during engine start
c. When flight idle is selected
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected ‘OFF’ during engine
shut-down

13. The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals.
This indicates:

a. The battery is charging

b. The torch is serviceable
c. The battery needs replacing
d. The filament is broken
14. A shuttle valve will:

a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down

b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of
hydraulic supply
d. Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

15. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?

a. To reduce wing bending at high speed

b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed
c. To reduce wing bending at low speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed

16. In what range is GPWS operative?

a. 2450 – 0 ft
b. 3000 – 50 ft
c. 2450 – 50 ft
d. 3000 – 0 ft

17. A nose wheel control system

a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times

b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the
neutral position
c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not
centralised

18. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is:

a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

19. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature

b. Position, manoeuvre induced
c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument

20. Total Air Temperature is:

a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought

to rest, adiabatically
b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus
the ram rise
c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor
d. The recovery factor plus the ram rise

21. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:

a. No change in altitude
b. A slight climb
c. A slight descent
d. A slight descent at high airspeed only
22. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The
altimeter reading will be:

a. Correct
b. Greater than the real altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
d. Oscillating around the correct altitude

23. An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for
a rate 1(one) turn?

a. 30°
b. 12°
c. 18°
d. 35°

24. An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3° glidescope. What is

its rate of descent?

a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min

25. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total
temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will:

a. Remain approximately constant

b. Increase by 10 kts
c. Decrease by 10 kts
d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or
below ISA

26. . With air in the hydraulic system, you would:

a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster

27. A hand pump is usually fitted:

a. For ground servicing purposes

b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off

28. What controls cabin pressurisation?

a. ECS pack mass flow controller

b. Outflow valve
c. Engine bleed valve
d. Inflow valve

29. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen
mask?

a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft
30. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:

a. To control the cooling air shutters

b. To monitor the oil temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d. To indicate cylinder head temperature

31. The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of:

a. 1°/min
b. 2°/min
c. 5°/min
d. 3°/min

32. How do you control power in a jet engine?

a. By controlling the mixture ratio

b. By controlling the fuel flow
c. By controlling the airflow
d. By controlling the bleed valves

33. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue
following a single failure below alert height?

a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational or fail active
d. Land 2 system

34. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:

a. Zero
b. Climb
c. Descent
d. Reducing pressure

35. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. Relieve excess pressure

b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system

36. How much fuel can be jettisoned?

a. A specific amount
b. The captain decides
c. All
d. A specified amount must remain

37. What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected
down?

a. The gear is down

b. The gear is down and locked
c. The gear and doors are down and locked
d. The gear is travelling between up and down
38. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a. Oil or grease on the brake drums

b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. The brake pads overheating

39. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:

a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder

b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other
divided by two

40. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:

a. 8,000ft
b. 10,000ft
c. 13,000ft
d. 14,000ft
One method of boundary layer control is accomplished by injecting
- a high speed jet of air into the boundary layer

On most airplanes, the first 50% of flap deflection causes

- more than 50% total change in lift

Swept wings causes a significant

- reduction in effectiveness of flaps

Compared to straight wing, swept wing flaps are

- less effective

An increase in airspeed above the stall speed will require

- a corresponding decrease in angle of attack and coefficient of lift

Lift coefficient must be maximum at

- airplane stall speed

When at high angle of attack the boundary layer tends to

- loop around the upper camber line

An airplane flying at L/D max will have

- the same gliding performance at all weights

Any angle of attack lower or higher than L/D max

- increases total drag

Stall warning devices must sense

- pressure distribution

An airplane stall warning device must sense

- relative wind

An aircraft in steady state, constant altitude turn

- experiences higher stall speeds

Fundamental recovery from a stall requires

- decreasing the angle of attack

The stall speed of an airplane

- is affected by weight and bank angle

If the boundary layer separates

- the airflow separates from wing surface and stall occurs

How does Vs (KTAS) vary with altitude?

- Varies directly with altitude

How does VNE change with altitude?

- VNE decreases with increasing altitude

What limits turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?

- compressor bleed valves

Flaps have more effect on

- thick wings

Split flaps as opposed to plain flaps

- produce only slight more lift, but much more drag

Fowler flaps as compared to split flaps

- generate more nose down pitching moment
Which is considered a primary flight control?
- elevator

Which is considered a primary flight control?

- outboard ailerons

Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?

- leading edge flaps

When are inboard ailerons normally used?

- low-speed and high-speed flight

When are outboard ailerons normally used?

- low-speed flight only

Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for
slow flight only?
- aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high
speeds

What is the purpose of a control tab?

- move the flight controls in an event of manual reversion

Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
- opposite direction

Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?
- same direction

The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the

- lift at low speeds

Which is a purpose of a leading edge flaps?

- increase camber of the wing

What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the
flare before touchdown?
- prevent flow separation

What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?
- change the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle

Which is the purpose of the leading edge slats on high-performance wings?

- increase relative wind at slow speeds

For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?

- reduce the wings' lift upon landing

Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?

- reduce the wings' lift upon landing

Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?

- reduce drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing

What affects indicated stall speed?

- weight, load factor, and power

Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?

- the highest altitude at which the desired manifold pressure can be obtained

What is the resulting performance loss when the engine on a twin-engine airplane fails?
- reduction of climb by 50% or more

If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed

should be maintained?
- VYSE

What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing

- the flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and
landing

Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?

- turbine inlet

What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-
engine performance?
- as temperature increases, thrust decreases

What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a
turbine engine?
- thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density

As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will

- decrease due to higher density altitude

The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is

- limiting exhaust gas temperature

What characterizes a transient compressor stall?

- imminent "bang" as backfires and flow reversals take place

What indicates a compressor stall has developed and become steady?

- strong vibrations and load roar

What type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe damage?
- steady, continuous flow reversal stall

At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur
- below .75 Mach

How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
- immediately after ground contact

How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness
in stopping?
- use maximum reverse as soon as possible after touchdown

Test data indicate that ice, snow , or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to
medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
- reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%

Freezing point depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing

- are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only

During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both

the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice.
What airspeed indication can be expected?
- decrease in airspeed

What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by
ice?
- the airspeed may act as an altimeter
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice , what
airspeed indication can be expected
- no variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made

How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by
ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?
- indication will drop to zero

1. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?

- Elevator, Outboard ailerons
2. Which of the following is considered an auxillary flight control?
a. - Leading-edge flaps
3. When are inboard ailerons normally used?
a. Low-speed and high-speed flight
4. When are outboard ailerons normally used?
a. Low-speed flight only
5. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/ outboard ailerons use the outboards for
slow flight only?
a. Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high
speeds
6. What is the purpose of a control tab?
- Move the flight control in the event of manual reversion
7. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?
a. - Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-
control pressures
8. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab
move when the control surface is moved?
a. - Remains fixed for all positions
9. What is the purpose of the servo tab?
a. - Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary
flight control
10. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?
- Opposite direction
11. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?
- Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to
aerodynamic forces
12. Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?
a. - Same direction
13. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the?
a. -Lift at low speeds
14. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?
- Increase the camber of the wings
15. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during
the flare before touchdown?
- Prevent flow separation
16. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?
- Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle
17. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high performance wings?
- Increase lift at relative high speeds
18. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
- Reduce lift without increasing airspeed
19. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?
- Reduce the wing’s lift upon landing.
20. Which is a purpose of the ground spoilers?
- Reduce the wing’s lift upon landing.
21. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the
most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?
- High RPM and low MAP
22. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of
modern aircraft engines?
- Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP
23. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine?
- The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained
24. What is controlled by the waste gate of a turbocharged-reciprocating engine/
- Exhaust gas discharge
25. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?
- With one engine inoperative
26. What does a blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane
represent?
- Maximum single-engine rate of climb
27. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at
Vmc?
- Heading
28. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with unsupercharged
engines?
- Decreases with altitude
29. What criteria determines which engine is the “critical” engine of a twin-engine airplane?
- The one with the center of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage
30. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to
allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
- When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
31. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
- Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid
32. What is the safest and most efficient take off and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-
engine airplane? Accelerate to
- An airspeed slightly above Vmc then lift off and climb at the best rate of
climb airspeed
33. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed
should be maintained?
- Vyse
34. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
- Turbine inlet
35. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine
engine performance?
- As temperature increases, thrust decreases
36. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a
turbine engine?
- Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density
37. As outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
- Decrease due to high density altitude
38. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
- Limiting exhaust gas temperature
39. Equivalent shaft horsepower ESHP of a turboprop engine is a measure of
- Shaft horsepower and jet thrust
40. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in
which altitude range?
- 25,000 ft to the tropopause
41. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
- Intermittent “bang” as backfires and flow reversals take place
42. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?
- Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed
43. At what mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?
- Below .75 Mach
44. Within what mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?
- .75 to 1.20 Mach
45. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?
- Critical Mach number
46. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
- Critical Mach number
47. What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing
airplane are shock-stalled first?
- Inward and forward
48. What is the principal advantage of a sweptback design wing over a straightwing design?
- The critical Mach number will increase significantly
49. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?
- The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root
50. What is the condition known as gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one
direction while yawing in the other/
- Dutch roll
51. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
- Immediately after ground contact
52. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness
in stopping?
- Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown
53. During an enroute descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both
the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice.
What airspeed indication can be expected?
- Decrease in indicated airspeed
54. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by
ice?
- The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter
55. If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what
airspeed indication can be expected?
- No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are
made.
56. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by
ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?

- indication will drop to zero