FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2018

for students presently in

Class 7
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 216
Code 7000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 75 Minutes on Section-II and 45

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 75 +1.5 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 76 to 84 +1.5 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 85 to 93 +1.5 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 94 to 102 +1.5 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.

5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 102 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Kapil walks 15 km in East then he turns to his right and travels 10 km. Now in which direction he is
from his starting point?
(A) South (B) South East
(C) West (D) East

2. ‘Flower’ is related to ‘Petal’ in the same way as ‘Book’ is related to ___

(A) Pages (B) Content
(C) Author (D) Library

3. If ‘ZEBRA’ is written as ‘2652181’, then how can ‘COBRA’ be written?

(A) 302181 (B) 3152181
(C) 31822151 (D) 1182153

4. The question given below contains three elements. These three elements may or may not have some
linkages. These group of the element may fit into one of the diagrams at (A), (B), (C) & (D). You have
to indicate group of elements in this question fit into which of the diagrams given below. The letter
indicating the diagram is the answer.

Square, Rectangle, Polygon

(A) (B) (C) (D

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5. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than
B and taller than A. Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D

6. In a row of boys, Mr. Chopra is 18th from the right and Shekhar is 18th from the left. If both of them
exchange their positions, Shekhar becomes 25th from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
(A) 40 (B) 41
(C) 42 (D) 35

7. If pen is called pencil, pencil is called scale, scale is called bag and bag is called book, which is used
to carry the books?
(A) Scale (B) Pen
(C) Book (D) Bag

8. If POLITICS is coded as OPILITSC, then ARTICLES will be coded as :

(A) PAITLCES (B) RAITLCSE
(C) NNUHPM (D) NNVHPN

9. Arrange the given words in the order they occur in dictionary.

1. SIGN 2. SOLID
3. SCENE 4. SIMPLE
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

10. If E = 5 & SAFE = 31, then PINK = ?

(A) 41 (B) 40
(C) 50 (D) 65
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Directions (Questions 11 – 12): Find the missing terms:

11. 1, 4, 5, 8, 9, __
(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 12 (D) 10

12. 100, 90, 81, 73, ?

(A) 66 (B) 64
(C) 62 (D) 69

13. If in a certain code ‘DINESH’ is written as ‘HSENID’, then how will ‘MIRACLE’ be written in the same
code?
(A) ELACRIM (B) ACLERIM
(C) ELCARIM (D) CLEARIM

Directions (Question 14 - 15): In the following questions, there is some relationship between the two terms
to the left of :: and the same relationship holds between the terms to its right. Also, in each question, one of
the four terms is missing. Find out that term.

14. a : One : : f : ?
(A) Property (B) Fail (C) E (D) Six

15. Psychology : Mind : : Ornithology?

(A) Sanskrit (B) Coin
(C) Mammal (D) Bird

16. Complete the following series.

12, 14, 15, 16, 18, 20, __

(A) 22 (B) 25
(C) 21 (D) 23
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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-4

17. In the given question, there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same
relationship holds between the terms to its right. Also, in this question, one of the four terms is
missing. Find out this term.

BDEG : DFGI : : HKMO : __

(A) ILNP (B) JMOP
(C) JMOQ (D) JNOQ

18. A student went to a class at quarter to ten. After 15 minutes his professor came who is late to the
class by 25 minutes. At what time should the class start?
(A) 9:25 (B) 9:35
(C) 9:40 (D) 9:45

19. In a certain code language ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘x’, ‘x’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘x’. Answer the
following questions using the data.

14 x 2 – 6 + 10 + 4 x 2
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 1 (D) 25

20. The given question contains set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece
of paper. Figure (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three figures
are followed by four answer figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) from which you have to choose a figure
which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z).

Question Figures

X Y Z
Answer Figures
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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21. What is the next letter in the series?

B, D, G, K, P, ___
(A) S (B) V
(C) W (D) X

22. Find the next number in the series given below:

3, 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ___
(A) 2160 (B) 2430
(C) 1880 (D) 2040

23. Find the odd one among the following.

(A) Mercury (B) Moon
(C) Jupiter (D) Saturn

24. If the English alphabet are divided into two equal halves – from A to M and N to Z, which letter in the
later half would be corresponding to letter J?
(A) Q (B) V
(C) X (D) W

25. Find the next term in the series:

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?

(A) 48 (B) 50
(C) 49 (D) 64

26. Hira said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother”. Who is Hira to this girl?
(A) Father (B) Husband
(C) Father in law (D) Grand father
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27. In the given question, a matrix of certain characters is given.

These characters follow a certain trend, row – wise or column – wise. Find out this trend and choose
the missing character from the given alternatives.

9 36 25
4 16 9
1 9 4
12 43 ?
(A) 5 (B) 30
(C) 11 (D) 15

28. In a certain code language, if the word ‘SECTOR’ is coded as ‘CESROT’ then how will you code the
word ‘OPPOSITION’?
(A) SOPPONOITI (B) NOITISOPPO
(C) SOPOPNOITI (D) SOPPONOTIT

Directions (Questions 29 – 30): Read the following information to answer the given questions.
(i) Mannu, Balu, Vipin, Nitish, Kuldeep and Vinay are sitting in a circle facing centre.
(ii) Mannu is in between Balu and Kuldeep.
(iii) Vipin is in between Nitish and Vinay.
(iv) Kuldeep is to the immediate right of Nitish.

29. What is Vinay’s position in relation to Kuldeep?

(A) immediate left (B) second to the right
(C) third to the right (D) second to the left

30. Who is between Kuldeep and Vipin?

(A) Nitish (B) Balu
(C) Mannu (D) Cannot be determined
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-7

Recommended Time: 75 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Which of the following is used as SI (scientific) unit of temperature?

(A) °C (Degree Celsius) (B) °F (Degree Fahrenheit)
(C) K (Kelvin) (D) None of these

32. The instrument used to measure wind speed is called

(A) Anemometer (B) Barometer
(C) Ammeter (D) Thermometer

33. Change 37°C into °F

(A) 98.6°F (B) 42.7°F
(C) 108°F (D) 86.6°F

34. Change 54 km/h into m/s

(A) 15 m/s (B) 27 m/s
(C) 9 m/s (D) 20 m/s

35. Which of the following is used as SI unit of velocity?

(A) ms1 (B) cms1
(C) Foot/sec. (D) kmh1

36. 27°C = _____ K (fill the correct option in the blank).

(A) 273 (B) 300
(C) 310 (D) 293

37. The constant temperature at which a solid substance changes into liquid state is called
(A) melting point of substance (B) boiling point of substance
(C) saturation temperature (D) evaporation temperature

38. The area under a speed-time graph is represented by the unit

(A) m1 (B) m
(C) m2 (D) m3

39. Air moves from

(A) high pressure to low pressure (B) low pressure to high pressure
(C) high pressure to high pressure (D) low pressure to low pressure
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

40. The word acid was derived from

(A) sour (B) acēre
(C) acrid (D) acetone

41. What is the nature of common salt solution?

(A) Acidic (B) Basic
(C) Neutral (D) Difficult to identify

42. Which one of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Lime water (B) Soap
(C) Coffee (D) Antacid

43. Which portion of sheep provides wool?

(A) Skin (B) Fleece
(C) Muscles (D) Cocoon

44. What is the nature of wool providing animals?

(A) Herbivores (B) Carnivores
(C) Omnivores (D) Either A or B

45. Which category of microorganism causes sorter’s disease in wool industry?

(A) Protozoa (B) Fungus
(C) Virus (D) Bacterium

46. Dissolving sugar in water is

(A) a physical change (B) a chemical change
(C) a permanent change (D) Both (B) and (C)

47. The colour of light produced on burning sulphur is

(A) blue (B) white
(C) yellow (D) green

48. Lime water turns milky on passing carbon dioxide due to formation of
(A) calcium oxide (B) calcium hydroxide
(C) calcium carbonate (D) calcium bicarbonate
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-9

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1
49. Find the reciprocal of 2 is
3
7 7
(A) (B) 
3 3
3 3
(C)  (D)
7 7

50. The mean of 10 observation is 25. If one observation, namely 25, is deleted, the new mean is
(A) 25 (B) 20
(C) 28 (D) 22

51. Find the value of (1) × (1) × (1) …… 1001 times

(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) none of these

52. If each score is increased by 5 then which of the following statement is true?
(A) Mean remains the same (B) Mean increases by 5
(C) Mean decreases by 5 (D) None of these

3 2
53. Milk is sold at Rs. 16 per litre. Find the cost of 6 litres of milk.
4 5
1 1
(A) Rs.107 (B) Rs.102
5 5
1
(C) Rs.103 (D) None of these
5
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54. The denominator of a fraction exceeds the numerator by 5. If 3 be added to both, the fraction
becomes 3/4. Find the fraction.
12 12
(A) (B)
17 15
12 12
(C) (D)
13 11

55. In the given figure, POQ is a straight line, POR = 4x and R

QOR = 2x. Find the value of x (in degree).
(A) 10° (B) 20°
(C) 30° (D) 40° 4x 2x
P O Q

56. Find the sum of first 10 natural numbers.

(A) 56 (B) 55
(C) 54 (D) 53

57. In ABC, BC = 3.8 cm, B = 40° and C = 55°. In PQR, QR = 3.8 cm, Q = 40° and R = 55°. By
which congruency they are congruent?
(A) ASA (B) SAS
(C) SAS (D) RHS
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-11

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

58. The largest gland in human body is

(A) Liver (B) Salivary gland
(C) Pancreas (D) Thyroid

59. Intestinal villi are mainly concerned with

(A) Ultrafilteration (B) Secretion
(C) Assimilation (D) Absorption

60. Long inactivity and metabolic depression of animals during summer is known as:
(A) Aestivation (B) Migration
(C) Evolution (D) Hibernation

61. In photosynthesis, light energy is used for activation of

(A) chlorophyll molecule (B) ATP
(C) CO2 (D) All of these

62. Birds are adapted to fly because of ______.

(A) Streamlined body (B) Light bones
(C) Feathers and wings (D) All of these

63. In earthworm, the exchange of gases occurs through ______.

(A) Lungs (B) Gills
(C) Moist skin (D) Tracheae

64. Human beings have 3 pairs of salivary glands that secrete saliva containing enzyme __
(A) Pepsin (B) Rennin
(C) Ptyalin (D) Lipase

65. Indicate the type of climate of Kerala & North-East India.

(A) Hot & dry (B) Hot & wet
(C) Cool & wet (D) Cool & dry

66. Grasshopper have several openings called spiracles on lateral sides of their bodies which lead to air
tubes called
(A) Tracheae (B) Oesophagus
(C) Lungs (D) Gills
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Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 75. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. A car running between two points P and Q on a straight path. If it travels half of distance between P
and Q with velocity 40 km/h and other half with 60 km/h and return in the same manner. The average
speed of the car is
(A) 50 km/h (B) 52 km/h
(C) 100 km/h (D) 48 km/h

68. The temperature of a metal raised from 30°C to 90°C. What is the change in temperature of metal on
Fahrenheit scale.
(A) 60°F (B) 54°F
(C) 108°F (D) 81°F

69. Two cars A and B moving with uniform velocity of 60 km/h and 80 km/h respectively in opposite
directions. If car A moves from point X and car B moves from point Y on a straight road which are 420
km apart; and they meet at a point P between X and Y. Find the ratio of the distances XP and PY.
(A) 7 : 5 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 6 : 7 (D) 7 : 6

70. A particle is moving in a circle of diameter 5 cm. The distance covered when it completes 3
revolutions is (in cm)
(A) 10  (B) 15 
(C) 5  (D) 30 
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71. How much heat is released when 30 g of water at 96°C cools to 25°C? The specific heat of water is 1
cal g1°C1.
(A) 2130 cal (B) 1065 cal
(C) 213 cal (D) 106 cal

72. A car moves from A to B with speed 20 km/h and back to A with speed 30 km/h. The average speed
during the whole journey is
(A) 25 km/h (B) 24 km/h
(C) 50 km/h (D) 35 km/h

73. Mercury is used as a thermometric substance because:

(A) it is a good conductor of heat
(B) it does not stick to walls of the glass tube
(C) it has uniform expansion over large range of temperature
(D) all the above

74. In fluids, heat transfer takes place primarily due to

(A) conduction (B) convection
(C) radiation (D) none of these

75. From the given speed-time graph, find the average speed (from t = 0 to t = 20 minutes).

40
Speed
(in km/h)

0 10 20 30
Time (in minutes)
(A) 20 km/h (B) 30 km/h
(C) 25 km/h (D) none of these
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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-14

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 76 to 84. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

76. Which metal is used in galvanization?

(A) Copper (B) Lead
(C) Calcium (D) Zinc

77. Which is NOT a constituent element of stainless steel?

(A) Iron (B) Copper
(C) Nickel (D) Chromium

78. The gas produced when manganese dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid is
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen
(C) chlorine (D) manganese chloride

79. Silk route refers to the route for

(A) tourists (B) industries
(C) traders (D) producers

80. Match the words in column – I with column-II.

Column – I Column – II
(A) Scouring (P) Reeling
(B) Cocoon (Q) Wool
(C) Mulberry (R) Animal
(D) Yak (S) Leaves
(A) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P (B) A – Q, B – P, C – S, D – R
(C) A – P, B – S, C – R, D – Q (D) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D – P

81. The staple fibre among the following is

(A) silk (B) wool
(C) nylon (D) all the three

82. Which acid does our stomach contain?

(A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Acetic acid
(C) Formic acid (D) Carbonic acid

83. Acid-base indicators are the substances that

(A) change colour in acids (B) change colour in bases
(C) both A & B (D) depends upon nature of indicators

84. The common name for hydrated zinc sulphate is

(A) blue vitriol (B) green vitriol
(C) white vitriol (D) none of these
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-15

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 85 to 93. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

85. The equation for the statement: ‘half of number added to 10 is 15’ is:
x x
(A)  10  5 (B)  10  15
2 2
x x
(C)  15  10 (D)  10  15
2 2

86. In the given figure if 2 = 21 and l || m, t is a transversal

line, then the value of 7 is
(A) 50°
(B) 60°
(C) 70°
(D) 80°

87. If thrice of A’s age 6 years ago be subtracted from twice his present age, the result would be equal to
his present age. Find A’s present age.
(A) 9 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 12
5 1 11
88. The difference between the greatest number and the least number of , , is
9 9 9
2 4
(A) (B)
9 9
10 2
(C) (D)
9 3
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89. Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose one side measure 20 m and the diagonal 29 m is
(A) 82 m (B) 78 m
(C) 98 m (D) 88 m

90. In a triangle, the second angle is 5° more than the first angle and the third angle is three times of the
first angle. Find the smallest angle at triangle.
(A) 25° (B) 35°
(C) 45° (D) 60°

91. A bar graph represent the subjective marks of a student in a different subjects.
Y

50

40

30 On x-axis - subject
On y-axis - marks
20

10
X
Physics Chemistry Biology Maths SST
Find the percentage increase in the marks of mathematics with respect to the marks of the chemistry.
(A) 200% (B) 300%
(C) 400% (D) 500%

3
92. If 2x  3   5x  12 , then what is the value of x?
10
6 4
(A)  (B)
5 5
8 16
(C) (D) 
9 9

93. If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, the triangle must be:
(A) Scalene (B) Right angled
(C) Obtuse angles (D) Actute angled
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-17

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 94 to 102. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

94. During expiration or exhalation

(A) Lung’s volume decreases, diaphragm becomes dome shape
(B) Lung’s volume increases, diaphragm flattens
(C) Lung’s volume decreases, diaphragm flattens
(D) None of these

95. The root cells of plants also need oxygen to generate energy. They take oxygen from
(A) air spaces present between the soil particles
(B) water in soil
(C) the leaves
(D) All of the above

96. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because

(A) it does not require light energy (B) it cannot occur during daytime
(C) it occur more rapidly at night (D) it only occurs in darkness

97. When we breathe out, exhaled air turns lime water _____ due to presence of _____.
(A) Orange, Oxygen (B) Milky, Oxygen
(C) Milky, Carbon dioxide (D) Milky, Carbon monoxide

98. A type of teeth present in adult human being, but absent in child.
(A) Incisor (B) Molar
(C) Canines (D) Premolar

99. Plants that have mutualistic relation with nitrogen fixing bacteria, the bacteria fixes nitrogen for the
plant and in turn plant provide the bacteria with
(A) Enzymes (B) Nitrogen
(C) Food and shelter (D) Oxygen

100. The tropical rain forest is also called:

(A) Yellow forest (B) Monsoon forest
(C) Evergreen forest (D) All of these

101. What types of equipment would a meteorologist use to measure weather?

(A) Weather stations (B) Weather balloons
(C) Satellites (D) All of these

102. Weather does not include which factor?

(A) Temperature (B) Wind speed
(C) Amount of sunlight (D) All are factors of weather
Space for Rough Work

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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-18

CLASS – VII (PAPER – 1)

ANSWERS
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A
5. D 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. C 11. C 12. A
13. C 14. D 15. D 16. C
17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. B 24. D
25. C 26. C 27. B 28. A
29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A
33. A 34. A 35. A 36. B
37. A 38. B 39. A 40. B
41. C 42. C 43. B 44. A
45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C
49. D 50. A 51. C 52. B
53. A 54. A 55. C 56. B
57. A 58. A 59. D 60. A
61. A 62. D 63. C 64. C
65. B 66. A 67. D 68. C
69. B 70. B 71. A 72. B
73. D 74. B 75. A 76. D
77. B 78. C 79. C 80. B
81. B 82. A 83. D 84. C
85. B 86. B 87. A 88. C
89. A 90. B 91. C 92. A
93. B 94. A 95. A 96. A
97. C 98. D 99. C 100. C
101. D 102. C

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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-19

FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2018 for students presently in

Class 7
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 234
Code 7007
Instructions:

Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 15 +1.5 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 16 to 30 +1.5 0
SECTION – I
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 31 to 45 +1.5 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 46 to 60 +1.5 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 61 to 66 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 73 to 78 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 79 to 84 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-A) 85 to 96 +3 0
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-B) 97 to 108 +3 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 97 to 108.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 108 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-20

For questions 97 to 108

Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9

Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-21

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 15. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. 313 K = ______ °F (fill the correct option in the blank).

(A) 99 (B) 52
(C) 281 (D) 104

2. A cyclone is called a ______ in the American Continent.

(A) Hurricane (B) Typhoon
(C) Tornado (D) Thunderstorm

3. If velocity – time graph of a body is parallel to the time axis, then the body
(A) is at rest
(B) is moving with constant speed
(C) is moving with uniform non-zero acceleration
(D) None of these

displacement
4. The ratio of magnitude of
distance
(A) is always < 1 (B) is always = 1
(C) is always > 1 (D) may be  1

5. 5 g of copper was heated from 20°C to 80°C. How much heat energy was used to heat copper?
(specific heat capacity of Copper is 0.092 cal g1°C1)
(A) 27.6 cal (B) 0.0276 cal
(C) 29.5 cal (D) 2.76 cal
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6. Which of the following graph represents uniform velocity

(A) (B)

displacement displacement
(in m) (in m)

time (in sec.) time (in sec.)

(C) (D)

displacement velocity
(in m) (in m/s)

time (in sec.) time (in sec.)

7. If a particle covers equal distances in equal time intervals, it is said to

(A) be at rest (B) moving with uniform velocity
(C) is moving with uniform speed (D) moving with uniform acceleration

8. 41°F = _______°C (fill the correct option in the blank).

(A) 9 (B) 32
(C) 5 (D) None of these

9. The value of temperature at which both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales read same
(A) 10 degree (B) 0 degree
(C) 10 degree (D) 40 degree

10. A car travels 30 km at a uniform speed of 40 km/h and next 30 km at a uniform speed of 20 km/h.
Its average speed is
(A) 30 km/h (B) 32 km/h
2 3
(C) 26 km / h (D) 28 km / h
3 4
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11. A body covers the first half of total distance with a speed v and the second half in double the time
taken for first half. The average speed for whole journey is
v
(A) v (B)
2
2v 3v
(C) (D)
3 2

12. How much heat is absorbed by a 20 g granite piece as energy from the sun causes its
temperature to change from 10°C to 29°C (specific heat capacity of granite is 0.1 cal g1°C1)
(A) 19 cal (B) 38 cal
(C) 380 cal (D) 3.8 cal

13. An athlete takes 40 second to move on a circular path of diameter 200 m. What will be his
displacement after 2 minutes 20 seconds.
(A) 100 m (B) 200 m
(C) zero (D) 400 m

14. From the given velocity-time graph find the

displacement of particle in duration from t = 0 to t = 5 v
sec. (in m/s)
(A) 40 m
(B) 50 m 10
(C) 35 m 5
(D) 75 m
t(in sec.)
0 2 4 5

15. A body goes from a point A to point B 150 m apart in 30 second and return back to A in 20
second. The average velocity of the body for whole journey (in m/s) is
(A) Zero (B) 12.5
(C) 6 (D) None of these
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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-24

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 16 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

16. Which one among the following is a wool yielding animal?

(A) Horse (B) Cow
(C) Alpaca (D) Pony

17. Which is NOT a natural colour of sheep hairs?

(A) Blue (B) Black
(C) Brown (D) White

18. Find the odd one out of the following?

(A) Kosa (B) Mooga
(C) Tussar (D) Pashmina

19. Which process is involved in reeling the silk?

(A) Taking out silk fibres (B) Winding the silk fibres
(C) Spinning the silk fibres (D) Making the silk fibres

20. What can be the maximum length of continuous silk fibre obtained from one cocoon?
(A) 9 m (B) 90 m
(C) 900 m (D) 9000 m

21. The natural indicator litmus is extracted form

(A) hibiscus (B) amla
(C) lichens (D) ferns

22. What is the colour of turmeric in basic solution?

(A) Yellow (B) Red
(C) Blue (D) Purple

23. Which salt is formed when ammonium hydroxide is neutralized by nitric acid?
(A) Ammonium chloride (B) Ammonium nitrate
(C) Calcium nitrate (D) Calcium chloride
Space for Rough Work

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24. In which one of the household products, ammonia is found?

(A) Window cleaners (B) Toilet cleaners
(C) Dish washers (D) Detergents

25. Ant bites are treated with a solution of

(A) vinegar (B) common salt
(C) lemon juice (D) calamine

26. What type of change is rusting of iron?

(A) Useful change (B) Reversible change
(C) Chemical change (D) Fast change

27. What is baking soda chemically?

(A) Sodium carbonate (B) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(C) Calcium carbonate (D) Calcium hydrogen carbonate

28. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation of the sun and breaks down into
(A) oxygen (B) hydrogen
(C) water (D) nitrogen

29. Which acid is added to water during crystallization of copper sulphate?

(A) Nitric acid (B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) Carbonic acid

30. A log of wood is cut into pieces. The wooden pieces are burnt in a bonfire. The type of changes
that took place are respectively.
(A) chemical and chemical (B) physical and physical
(C) chemical and physical (D) physical and chemical
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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-26

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 45. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. What is the value of d in the given figure? A

(A) 107.5° a a
(B) 120°
(C) 200°
(D) 117.5° d
D
b
b 55°
B C

32. The property represented by a × (b + c) = a × b + a × c is

(A) commutative property (B) associative property
(C) distributive property (D) none of these

33. The attendance of a class of 45 boys for 10 days is given as 40, 42, 30, 35, 45, 44, 41, 38, 44
and 41 then the mean attendance of the class is
(A) 39 (B) 40
(C) 41 (D) 43

34. Find the value of 124 × 4 – 3 + 118  2 ?

(A) 552 (B) 496
(C) 553 (D) 553

1 1 1 1 1
35.     ..........  ?
6 12 20 30 9900
39 49
(A) (B)
100 100
59 69
(C) (D)
100 100
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5 2
36. The product of two numbers is 15 . If one of the numbers is 6 . Find the other.
6 3
3 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
8 8
3 3
(C) 3 (D) 4
8 8

37. If 6(2a – 1) + 8 = 14, then what is the value of a51 + a101 = ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

38. The mean of first five prime numbers is

(A) 3 (B) 3.6
(C) 7 (D) 5.6

39. If 20 is added to four times a certain number, the result is 5 less than five times the number. Then
the number is:
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 25

 0.1 0.01 
40. Which number is equal to   ?
 0.01 0.1 
(A) 10.1 (B) 1.10
(C) 1.01 (D) 10.01
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41. A number is multiplied by 6 and 12 is added to the product. The result is 84. Then the number is
(A) 12 (B) 72
(C) 12 (D) 72

42. Which of the following angles is 20° less than its supplement?
(A) 100° (B) 35°
(C) 55° (D) 80°

43. If one angle of a triangle is 75° and the other angles are in the ratio 2 : 3. The angles are
(A) 42°, 63° (B) 52°, 53°
(C) 45°, 60° (D) 35°, 70°

44. In the given figure, it is given that  || m, t is a t

50°
transversal. Then the value of x is 
(A) 130°
(B) 50°
(C) 120° x
m
(D) None of these

45. The length of rectangle is 3 cm greater than its breadth. The perimeter is 46 cm then find the
breadth of rectangle is
(A) 20 cm (B) 23 cm
(C) 10 cm (D) 13 cm
Space for Rough Work

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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-29

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 46 to 60. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

46. Which of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate.
(A) Stomach: Carbohydrate digestion. (B) Small Intestine: Absorbs digested food.
(C) Liver: Protein digestion (D) Both (B) & (C)

47. Which of the following briefly describes the desert climate?

(A) Hot and humid (B) Cool and humid
(C) Hot and dry (D) Hot and wet

48. Which of the following animal can breathe through skin as well as through lungs?
(A) Fish (B) Mammal
(C) Cockroach (D) Frog

49. Fungus is often seen growing on the bread indicating their mode of nourishment as
(A) Herbivorous (B) Mixotrophic
(C) Chemoautotrophic (D) Saprophytic

50. When the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration, it is called
(A) Transpiration (B) Compensation point
(C) Transportation (D) Photosynthesis

51. Major utility of breaking food into small bits during chewing is
(A) to reduce surface area of food
(B) to increase surface area of food for enzyme action
(C) just to enjoy the taste of food
(D) none of the above

52. The rate of photosynthesis is least in

(A) Red light (B) Green light
(C) Yellow light (D) Orange light
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53. Smoking damages the lungs & can cause

(A) Cancer (B) Common cold
(C) Pneumonia (D) Scurvy

54. Exchange of gases through lungs is called

(A) Cutaneous respiration (B) Pulmonary respiration
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

55. Find the odd one out.

(A) Nasal cavity (B) Nostrils
(C) Oesophagus (D) Trachea

56. The leaf is the food factory of the plant. Match the columns keeping this in mind:
Column – I Column – II
(a) Sunlight (i) End product
(b) Glucose (ii) Raw materials
(c) Carbon dioxide and water (iii) By product
(d) Oxygen (iv) Power
(A) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(iii) (B) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
(C) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(iv), (d)(i) (D) (a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
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57. The trunk of an elephant is a modification of the:

(A) upper lip and nose (B) lower lip and nose
(C) lower jaw and nose (D) none of these

58. Match the columns A and B:

Column – I Column – II
(A) Equatorial (i) deciduous trees
(B) Tropical (ii) mosses
(C) Cool temperature (iii) broad – leaved evergreen trees
(D) Polar (iv) cacti
(E) Desert (v) conifers
(A) (A)(iii), (B)(i), (C)(v), (D)(ii), (E)(iv)
(B) (A)(i), (B)(ii), (C)(iii), (D)(iv), (E)(v)
(C) (A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(i), (D)(iv), (E)(v)
(D) (A)(ii), (B)(i), (C)(iii), (D)(iv), (E)(v)

59. The amount of rainfall a place gets depends on:

(A) its closeness to the sea (B) winds
(C) the presence of mountains (D) all of these

60. The five steps of holozoic nutrition are given, put them in the correct order:
i. Assimilation
ii. Ingestion
iii. Egestion
iv. Digestion
v. Absorption
(A) i – iv – iii – v – ii (B) ii – v – iii – i – iv
(C) ii – iv – v – i – iii (D) iv – i – v – ii – iii
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 61 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. An object moving along a straight line travels one third of the total distance with speed of 3 m/s,
the remaining distance is covered in two equal interval of time, with a speed of 4 m/s for half the
time and with 5 m/s for the other half of the time. The average speed during the motion is
(A) 4.5 m/s (B) 6 m/s
(C) 3.86 m/s (D) 5 m/s

62. Two thermometers A and B have ice points marked 15° and 25° and steam points marked as 75°
and 125° respectively. When thermometer A measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it,
what would thermometer B read when it is used to measure the temperature of the same bath?
(A) 60° (B) 30°
(C) 100° (D) 50°

63. The maximum speed of a train is 70 km/h. It takes 10 hours to cover a distance of 350 km. Find
the ratio of its maximum speed to its average speed.
(A) 5 (B) 2
1
(C) (D) 35
5

64. A boy has to go 500 m due north, 400 m due east and 200 m due south to reach his school. He
x
takes 20 minutes to reach the school. If average velocity of boy during the walk is m/s then
12
find value of x.
(A) 11 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) None of these

65. When 400 Joule of heat is given to 100 g sample of a metal, its temperature increased by 20°C. If
specific heat of metal is n × 50 J kg1°C1 then find the value of n
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4

66. Calculate the amount of heat required to change 100 g of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C. Given
that latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g1; specific heat of water = 1 cal g1°C1; latent heat of
vapourisation of steam = 540 cal g1.
(A) 62 kcal (B) 64 kcal
(C) 72 kcal (D) 10 kcal
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BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-33

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 72. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. The element that burns with dazzling white flame is

(A) magnesium (B) sulphur
(C) chromium (D) phosphorus

68. The acid which consists of two carbon atoms in its molecule is
(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid
(C) carbonic acid (D) all the three

69. Virgin wool is obtained from

(A) rabbit (B) calf
(C) lamb (D) goat

70. Which process is NOT included while spinning wool?

(A) Combing (B) Rolling
(C) Straightening (D) Reeling

71. Proteins that build part of our body cells are made of
(A) amino acids (B) fatty acid
(C) inorganic acids (D) antacids

72. CNG (compressed natural gas) and LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) are the two commonly used
fuels. The main constituents of these fuels are respectively.
(A) butane and methane (B) methane and butane
(C) methane and methane (D) butane and butane
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 BBE/TRE-2018-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-34

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 73 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x  2  11  x 1  3x  4
73. Solve for x:   
6  3 4 12
6
(A) (B) 10
11
(C) 14 (D) 11

x 1
74. If   4 then x3  x2 + 1 = ?
4 2
(A) 2549 (B) 2559
(C) 2539 (D) 2569

 1
75. Which of the following is   th of its complement?
5
(A) 18° (B) 15°
(C) 36° (D) 75°

1
76. If 3  x  3   5  2x  1 then x 5  ?
x5
1024 1025
(A)  (B) 
32 32
1026 1027
(C)  (D) 
32 32

77. What is the sum of 0.21, 0.22 and 0.23 ?

(A) 0.64 (B) 0.65
(C) 0.66 (D) 0.67

78. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 7 : 8. The angles are
(A) 30°, 60° (B) 40°, 50°
(C) 42°, 48° (D) 27°, 63°
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 84. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

79. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) The desert plants have scale- or spine- like leaves to reduce the loss of water
(ii) In absence of photosynthesis, life is possible on earth
(iii) Desert plants have green stems which carry out photosynthesis
(iv) Plants have chlorophyll in leaves which imparts yellow colour to plant
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) T F F T (B) T F T F
(C) F T F T (D) F T T F

80. CO2 in the atmosphere remains relatively constant because

(A) CO2 is never used
(B) CO2 is converted to CaCO3
(C) Bacteria use up CO2
(D) CO2 released during respiration is balanced by CO2 used during photosynthesis

81. Sukriti went to a wildlife sanctuary where she saw dense vegetation of trees, shrubs, herbs and
also a variety of animals like monkeys, birds, elephants, snakes, frogs, etc. The most likely
location of this sanctuary is in the
(A) Temperate region (B) Tropical region
(C) Polar region (D) Coastal region

82. The cells lining the stomach walls are protected from damage by HCI because
(A) HCI is not acidic
(B) Cells are not affected at all by HCI, they are resistant
(C) HCI is not present in stomach
(D) Cells are covered with a layer of mucus.

83. If catabolic means break down of molecules and endergonic means use of energy to complete
the process. Keeping this in mind, which of the following statement is not true?
(A) Photosynthesis is a catabolic process
(B) Respiration is a catabolic process
(C) Photosynthesis is an endergonic process
(D) Respiration is not an endergonic process

84. Match the following:

Column – I Column – II
(a) Musk oxen (i) Strong sense of smell
(b) Lion (ii) Polar region
(c) Elephant (iii) Bharatpur, Rajasthan
(d) Siberian crane (iv) Thick skin, sensitive hearing
(A) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iii) (B) (a)(iv), (b)(i), (c)(ii), (d)(iii)
(C) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii) (D) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(ii)
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 85 to 96. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

85. Find the angles of a triangle which are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5.

(A) 45°, 60°, 75° (B) 30°, 60°, 90°
(C) 35°, 75°, 70° (D) None of these

86. In the given figure AB || CD and 2 = (3x – 10)°, 8 =

(5x – 30)°, then find the value of 2 and 8 are
(A) 100°, 100°
(B) 20°, 20°
(C) 40°, 90°
(D) 60°, 60°

87. The sum of two angles in a triangle is 95° and their difference is 25°. Then the angles of the
triangle.
(A) 75°, 50°, 55° (B) 85°, 65°, 30°
(C) 50°, 45°, 85° (D) 60°, 35°, 85°

B
88. In the given figure, If AB || CD and AC || DE then a +
b is equal to
(A) 70° 325°
C
(B) 120° a
(C) 100° A
E
(D) 115°
b
D

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89. If an unbiased dice thrown one time, then find the probability of getting a prime number.
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 1
(C) (D)
4 6

90. In the adjoining figure AM  BC and AN is the bisector of A

BAC. If B = 70° and C = 35° then MAN is.
(A) 17.5°
(B) 27.5°
(C) 37.5°
(D) 47.5°

B 70° 35°
C
M N

91. Find the value of x in the given figure: B

A 45°
60°
(A) 30°
(B) 25° C
(C) 35°
(D) 45°
80° x
D E

A
92. In the right angle triangle ABC if B = 90° then find the
length of AC in given figure is
(A) 12.5 cm
12 cm
(B) 14 cm
(C) 15 cm
B B
(D) 13 cm 5 cm

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A
93. In the given figure EF || CD, then find ABC D
(A) 75° (B) 105° E
B
(C) 115° (D) 85°

94. What should be placed in the empty space, so that the 1

sum of the fractions on each side of the triangle is same? 15

7 9
(A) (B)
15 15
5
6 8 ?
15
(C) (D)
15 15
2 4 5
15 15 15

95. Find the value of x in the given diagram is A E

(A) 70° 35° 30°

(B) 95°
x
(C) 110° 110° 100°
G
(D) 120°
B F C D

96. In the given figure OE is the angle bisector of AOB and F A

OF is the angle bisector of AOC, then the value of EOF
is: E
(A) 90°
(B) 180° C B
(C) 270° O
(D) none of these
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Numerical Based Questions number 97 to 108. Each question has
Single Digit Answer 0 to 9.

97. If K = 45  {8 – (2 × 5 + 3)} then K2 = ?

98. The sum of two integer is 12. If one of them is 35, find the sum of digits of other.

99. Find the sum of the smallest positive integer and the greatest negative integer.

1
100. How many one-fourths need to be added to 2 to make 4?
4

y
101. In the given figure What is the value of (in degree)?
10
A F

5y O 4y
B E

9y
C D

102. If the area of equilateral triangle is 3 3 cm2 then find the height of equilateral triangle.

3
103. How many pieces of equal size can be cut from a rope of 30 metres long, each measuring 3
4
meters?
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1 3 1
104. If 3  3  12 , then value of ‘x’ is:
x 4 2

105. A bar graph is drawn to the scale of 1 cm = r units. The length of the bar representing a quantity
r
208 units is 2.6 cm, then find .
10

106. In the given figure, the value of x is (26k°). Find the value of k.

56°

100° 74°

 3 5 11  9 6  1 
107. What is the value of       ?
2 2 2  3 3  2

108. A man drives 3 km towards North and then 4 km towards East. How far is he away from his initial
position?
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CLASS – VII (PAPER – 2)

ANSWERS
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D
5. A 6. A 7. C 8. C
9. D 10. C 11. C 12. B
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A
25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A
29. C 30. D 31. D 32. C
33. B 34. A 35. B 36. B
37. B 38. D 39. D 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. A 44. A
45. C 46. B 47. C 48. D
49. D 50. B 51. B 52. B
53. A 54. B 55. C 56. B
57. A 58. A 59. D 60. C
61. C 62. C 63. B 64. C
65. D 66. C 67. A 68. B
69. C 70. D 71. A 72. B
73. D 74. A 75. B 76. B
77. C 78. C 79. B 80. D
81. B 82. D 83. A 84. C
85. A 86. B 87. D 88. A
89. A 90. A 91. B 92. D
93. B 94. D 95. B 96. A
97. 9 98. 5 99. 0 100. 7
101. 1 102. 3 103. 8 104. 3
105. 8 106. 5 107. 5 108. 5

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