Aakash Botany Study Package 4 Solutionssss

Chapter 13
Reproduction in Organisms
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Life Span, Basic Features of Reproduction, Types of Reproduction, Asexual Reproduction)
1. Arrange the following w.r.t. increasing life span : Rose, Fruit fly, Rice
(1) Fruit fly, Rice, Rose (2) Rose, Rice, Fruit fly
(3) Rice, Rose, Fruit fly (4) Fruit fly, Rose, Rice
Sol. Answer (1)
Fruit fly  2 Weeks Rice 3-4 Months
Rose  5-7 Years Fruit fly < Rice < Rose
2. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for how organism reproduces?
(1) Organisms habitat (2) Internal physiology
(3) Environmental factors (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Organism habitat is responsible because if organism will live in nutrient deficient condition it will promote sexual
reproduction.
 Environmental factor also decides that how organism reproduce.
 Internal physiology is also responsible.
3. Process of reproduction which results in production of identical offsprings is

(1) Complex, fast (2) Simple, slow (3) Fast, simple (4) Fast, elaborate
Sol. Answer (3)
Binary fission, vegetative propagation, asexual reproduction will produce clones so it is fast and simple.
4. Asexual reproduction is common in

(1) Single celled organisms (2) Organisms having simple organisation
(3) Aquatic plants (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Asexual reproduction takes place in organisms like bacteria, protista and algae.
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2 Reproduction in Organisms Solutions of Assignment
5. For which of the following organisms there is no natural death?

(1) Bacteria reproducing by sporulation (2) Yeast reproducing by budding
(3) Unicellular organisms reproducing by spores (4) Unicellular organisms reproducing by binary fission
Sol. Answer (4)
Bacteria are called nearly immortal because the cell does not die but undergoes binary fission.
6. Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction in

(1) Amoeba, Penicillium (2) Chara, Bacteria
(3) Chlamydomonas, Penicillium (4) Amoeba, Bacteria
Sol. Answer (4)
Cell division itself is mode of reproduction in unicellular organism like Amoeba and Bacteria.
7. During budding in yeast

(1) Cytokinesis is unequal (2) Identity of parent is lost
(3) Clones are produced (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Because yeast reproduce by asexual method to produce clone.
8. Most common asexual structure produced in algae is

(1) Thick walled (2) Multicellular (3) Flagellated (4) Produced in chains
Sol. Answer (3)
Zoosperes possess flagella.
9. In which of the following plants root bud is involved in vegetative propagation?

(1) Sugarcane (2) Banana (3) Ginger (4) Dahlia
Sol. Answer (4)
Sugarcane Segment of stem with atleast one node
Banana  Rhizome
Ginger  Rhizome
Dhalia  Root buds
10. Choose incorrect option for given below organism
(1) Scourge of the water bodies (2) Reproduction through offset

(3) Found in running water (4) Drains oxygen from water
Sol. Answer (3)
Found in stagnate two water.
Solutions of Assignment Reproduction in Organisms 3
11. For commercial propagation of banana and ginger which of the following parts are utilised respectively?
(1) Rhizome, Sucker (2) Rhizome, Tuber (3) Tuber, Bulb (4) Sucker, Rhizome
Sol. Answer (4)
Rhizome is used in ginger and banana.
12. Offsprings produced through which of the following processes/structures represent clone?
(1) Gametic fusion (2) Syngamy
(3) Vegetative propagule (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (3)
Vegetative propagule produce offspring.
13. "Vegetative reproduction is also a type of asexual reproduction." Which of the following statements justify this?
(1) Involvement of one parent (2) Gametes are not involved
(3) Does not involve meiosis (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
All statements (1), (2) and (3)
14. Choose incorrect match

(1) Bulbil – Agave (2) Sucker – Pineapple
(3) Tuber – Bryophyllum (4) Runner – Grasses
Sol. Answer (3)
Bryophllum  Leaf tips possess new plants.
15. Which of the following vegetative propagule represents large size fleshy bud?
(1) Bulbil (2) Bulb (3) Sucker (4) Rhizome
Sol. Answer (1)
16. Choose odd one w.r.t. vegetative propagule involved in cultivation in following plants
(1) Banana (2) Ginger (3) Bryophyllum (4) Potato
Sol. Answer (3)
Banana, Ginger, Potato Stem modified
Bryophyllum Leaf
(Sexual Reproduction, Events in Sexual Reproduction)
17. In all the sexually reproducing organisms, events involved are

(1) Same, sequential (2) Same, non-sequential
(3) Different, sequential (4) Different, non-sequential
Sol. Answer (1)
Same sequential
Ist Pre-fertilization  Fertilization  Post-fertilization
18. Choose odd one w.r.t. sexuality

(1) Coconut (2) Cucurbits (3) Chara (4) Papaya
Sol. Answer (4)
Papaya is unisexual
19. What would be the number of chromosomes in the meiocyte and gamete of onion respectively?
(1) 24, 12 (2) 34, 17 (3) 16, 8 (4) 14, 17
Sol. Answer (3)
n = 16  gametes
2n = 32  Meiocytes
20. Majority of sexually reproducing organisms form

(1) Isogametes (2) Homogametes
(3) Heterogametes (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (3)
Heterogamates  Oogamous reproduction
21. Chara possess

(1) Sex organs above nodes (2) Multicellular and jacketed sex organs
(3) structure – Globule, – Nucule (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)

Chara contains multicellular jacketed sex organs
– Globule – Nucule
22. Give the ploidy of following structures in angiospermic plants.
Zygote, Endosperm, Ovum
(1) n, n, 2n (2) 2n, 2n, n (3) 2n, 3n, n (4) 2n, n, 2n

Sol. Answer (3)
2n  Zygote
3n  Endosperm
n  Ovum
23. From the given below processes how many are associated with post-fertilisation event?
(1) Syngamy, gamete transfer
(2) Gametogenesis, cell division
(3) Cell differentiation, gametic fusion
(4) Embryogenesis, PEN formation
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryogenesis  Embryo formation
P  N  Fromed by triple fusion
24. In flowering plants, zygote is formed
(1) Inside ovule (2) Inside archegonium
(3) In water (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (1)
Zygote formed inside ovule
25. Which of the following feature is universal in all sexually reproducing organisms?
(1) Embryo formation (2) Gametic meiosis (3) Zygote formation (4) Pollen grain transfer
Sol. Answer (3)
2n  Zygote
Formed by gametic union
26. Arrange the following plants w.r.t. increasing number of chromosome

Rice, Maize, Apple
(1) Maize, Rice, Apple (2) Apple, Rice, Maize
(3) Apple, Maize, Rice (4) Rice, Maize, Apple
Sol. Answer (1)
Maize  2n  20
Rice  2n  24
Onion  2n  32
Apple  2n  34
27. Strobilanthus kunthiana

(1) Shows flowering once in 12 months
(2) Transformed hilly tracks of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu into blue stretches
(3) Showed flowering during November-December 2006
(4) An annual plant
Sol. Answer (2)
28. In fungi homothallic term is used to represent

(1) Dioecious condition (2) Unisexual condition
(3) Bisexual condition (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (3)
Homothallic – Bisexual
29. Thick walled resistant zygote can be produced in the life cycle of
(1) Algae, fungi (2) Bryophytes, pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms, algae (4) Angiosperms, fungi
Sol. Answer (1)
Algae and fungi
30. Given figures labelled by A & B represent
A B
(1) Isogametes of Rhizopus Heterogametes of Fucus
(2) Isogametes of Cladophora Heterogametes of Fucus
(3) Isogametes of Rhizopus Heterogametes of angiosperms
(4) Isogametes of Chara Heterogametes of Synchytrium
Sol. Answer (2)
Isogany in Ulothrix
Heterogametes / Oogamy – Fucus, Chara
Isogametes in Rhizopus
31. Self fertilisation is seen in

(1) Unisexual flower of papaya (2) Bisexual flower of pea
(3) Unisexual flower of date palm (4) Bisexual flower of coconut
Sol. Answer (2)
Bud pollination in pea.
32. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. transition after fertilisation in angiosperms

(1) Zygote  Embryo (2) PEN  Endosperm
(3) Ovary  Fruit (4) Integument  Pericarp
Sol. Answer (4)
PEC  Primary endosperm cell  Endosperm
33. Choose correct sequence for different stages in the life cycle of rice.
(1) Juvenile phase  Recovery phase Flowering phase  Senescence
(2) Juvenile phase  Interflowering phase  Reproductive phase
(3) Juvenile phase  Reproductive phase  Senescence
(4) Juvenile phase  Senescence  Interflowering phase
Sol. Answer (3)
34. Choose odd one w.r.t. flowering and fruiting pattern

(1) Rice, Wheat (2) Marigold, Maize (3) Pea, Rice (4) Mango, Apple
Sol. Answer (4)
35. Choose odd one w.r.t. medium through which male gametes are transferred?
(1) Algae, Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes, Algae
(3) Simple plant, Bryophytes (4) Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
Sol. Answer (4)
Gametes transfer by pollen tube in Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
SECTION - B
(Life Span, Basic Features of Reproduction, Types of Reproduction, Asexual Reproduction)
1. In the process of asexual reproduction

(1) Large number of individuals are produced due to involvement of reduction division
(2) Individuals are genetically similar to one another but not to their parent
(3) There is no need to search for a mate
(4) Gametes may or may not be fused
Sol. Answer (3)
No gametic union takes place.
2. Members of which of the following groups reproduce through special asexual reproductive structures?
(1) Algae, Bryophytes (2) Fungi, Algae
(3) Pteridophytes, Angiosperms (4) Fungi, Pteridophytes
Sol. Answer (2)
Algae  Zoospores, Aplanospores etc.
Fungi  Zoospores, Conidia etc.
Zoospore, Conidia, Tuber,

3.
Offset, Pollen, Zygote
From the structures given in above box how many are not associated with asexual reproduction?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
Pollen, Zygote
4. In vegetative propagule of potato and Bryophyllum new plants arise from respectively
(1) Axillary bud, Adventitious bud (2) Adventitious bud, Axillary bud
(3) Axillary bud, Axillary bud (4) Leaf bud, Axillary bud
Sol. Answer (1)
Axillary bud  Potato
Adventitious bud A  Bryophyllum
5. Fleshy buds in aquatic plants are known as

(1) Bulbils (2) Offset
(3) Turions (4) Rhizome
Sol. Answer (3)
Turion  Potamogeton
6. Study the following statements and choose the correct option.

I. Life spans of organisms are correlated with sizes.
II. Death of all individuals is certain
III. The organism's habitat, internal physiology etc. are collectively responsible for how it reproduces.
IV. When offspring is produced by single parent with or without involvement of gamets formation is called
asexual reproduction.
(1) I, II are correct (2) III, IV are correct
(3) I, III are correct (4) II, IV are correct
Sol. Answer (2)
7. A portion of underground stem bearing bud forms a new plant in

(1) Adiantum, Colocasia and Vallisneria (2) Narcissus, Gladiolus and Freesia
(3) Garlic, Onion and Water hyacinth (4) Turmeric, Ginger and Strawberry
Sol. Answer (2)
Narcissus  Bulb
Glacliolus  Corm
Freesia  Corm
8. Which of the following statement about vegetative reproduction is incorrect?

(1) Stem cutting is a common horticultural method of plant propagation
(2) In trench layering, the basal branch may pegged at several places in soil at regular intervals
(3) Stock has large diameter than scion in crown grafting
(4) Gootee is an ancient method of propagation in subtropical trees and shrubs
Sol. Answer (2)
9. Grafting method can be used

(1) In all tracheophytes (2) Only in gymnospermic plants
(3) In cambium containing eustelic plants (4) Only in atactostelic plants
Sol. Answer (3)
Eustele cambium presenting ring
10. Study the following statement and choose the correct option
I. Asexual reproduction is common among single celled organisms and organisms with relatively simple
organisation.
II. Conidia, bud, gemmules are common sexual structures.
III. Runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb are vegetative propagules.
IV. The invasive weeds found growing in fresh water bodies is Zostera.
Sol. Answer (3)
11. Choose the correct options from the following
I. Annual and biennial plants show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senscent phases.
II. Bamboo species flower only once in life generally after 50-100 years.
III. Strobilanthus kunthiana is a monocarpic plant which flowers only once-after 6 years.
(1) I, III are correct (2) II is correct (3) I, II are correct (4) III is correct
Sol. Answer (3)
Bamboo Monocarpic
12. Examine the figure given below and select the correct option for labelled parts a, b, c, d.
d
c
a
(1) a – Buds (2) a – Nodes

b – Adventitious root b – Adventitious root
c – Leaves c – Leaves
d – Nodes d – Buds
(3) a – Buds (4) a – Nodes
b – Adventitious root b – Adventitious root
c – Nodes c – Buds
d – Leaves d – Leaves
Sol. Answer (3)
13. From the given categories of bud choose the one which is present on potato tuber?
Nodal bud, Adventitious bud, Axillary bud,

Leaf bud, Extra-axillary bud
(1) Adventitious, axillary bud (2) Nodal, axillary bud
(3) Leaf, extra-axillary bud (4) Nodal, adventitious bud
Sol. Answer (2)
Nodal and Axillary buds
(Sexual Reproduction, Events in Sexual Reproduction)
14. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Zygote is thick walled diploid sexual spore
(2) Flowers are bisexual in sweet potato
(3) Ulothrix shows external fertilisation
(4) The nucule in Chara has a cap of five coronary cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Zygote is thin walled.
15. Choose correct option w.r.t. following structures
Cellular Flagella Wall

structure
(a) Zoospore Unicellular Present Thick
(b) Conidia Unicellular Absent Thin
(c) Gamete Unicellular Can be Thick
present
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) only
Sol. Answer (4)
16. Choose correct option for asexual and sexual reproduction in organisms that have a relatively simple
organisation.
Asexual Sexual
Feature reproduction reproduction
(a) Condition Favourable Unfavourable
(b) Occurrence More Less
(c) Structures Spore Gamete
(d) Division Meiosis Mitosis
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (c) only (3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (3)
17. Which of the following plants produce non-motile male gametes?

(1) Ulothrix, Marchantia (2) Strobilanthus, Chara (3) Spirogyra, Ulothrix (4) Mangifera, Pinus
Sol. Answer (4)
Mangifera  Angiosperm
Pinus  Gymnosperm
18. Clear cut distinction between vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase is shown by
(1) All annuals and perennials (2) All biennial and perennials
(3) All annuals and biennials (4) All perennials
Sol. Answer (3)
Only monocarpic plants
19. In few fungi and most of the algae
(1) gamete – motile, gamete – motile (2) gamete – non-motile, gamete – non-motile
(3) gamete – non-motile, gamete – motile (4) gamete – motile, gamete – non-motile
Sol. Answer (1)
Isogamy or Anisogamy
20. Select correct option w.r.t. chromosomes number in sexual life cycle of apple.
(1) Megasporocyte - 34; Microspore - 17; PEN - 51 (2) Oosphere - 34; Nucellus - 34; Pollengrain - 17
(3) Meiospore - 34; Microspore - 17; Embryo - 34 (4) Meiocyte - 34; Sporocyte - 34; Pollen tetrad - 34
Sol. Answer (1)
Megasporocyte  2n  34 Microspore  n  17 PEN  3n  51
21. Choose correct option w.r.t. division during gamete formation and division in zygote for organisms having
haplontic life cycle respectively.
(1) Mitosis, mitosis (2) Meiosis, meiosis (3) Mitosis, meiosis (4) Meiosis, mitosis
Sol. Answer (3)
Organism is haploid so undergo mitosis to form male gamete and zygote undergoes meiosis to make haploid
gametophyte.
22. Which of the following plant groups shows internal fertilisation only?
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Fungi
(1) (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (b) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (c)
Sol. Answer (1)
In bryophytes and pteridophytes fertilization takes place in archegonia.
23. Which of the following features cannot be shown by structure which is vital link between two generations
ensuring continuity of species?
(a) Thick walled (b) Multicelled (c) One set of chromosomes
(d) Meiocyte (e) Resting structure
(1) (a), (b) & (e) (2) (a), (b) & (d) (3) (b) & (c) (4) (d) & (e)
Sol. Answer (3)
24. Organisms showing internal fertilisation shows reduction in number of ________ gamete and increase in number
of ________ gamete.
(1) , (2) Sperm, eggs (3) , (4) Male, female
Sol. Answer (3)

Oogamous reproduction
25. Choose correct option w.r.t. features of different plant groups
Asexual
Group Embryo Gametes spore
(1) Bryophytes Present Homogamete Absent
(2) Pteridophytes Present Homogamete Present
(3) Ulothrix Absent Homogamete Present
(4) Gymnosperms Absent Heterogamete Present
Sol. Answer (3)
26. Synchrony between the maturity of sexes and release of large number of gametes is shown by
(1) All spermatophytes (2) All bryophytes
(3) Most of the algae (4) Most of the land plants
Sol. Answer (3)
External fertilization
27 Choose correct option w.r.t. given bellow thallus
(1) Produce male gamete

(2) Form sexual branches as antheridiophore
(3) After fertilisation possess zygote
(4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) and (2) options
28. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of phases in the life cycle of wheat? [where J - Juvenile
phase, R - Reproductive phase, I - Interflowering period, G - Gap phase, S - Senescence, V - Vegetative phase]
(1) V I  R G S (2) J R  G R S
(3) J R  S (4) V R  S G
Sol. Answer (3)
Juvenile phase  Reproductive phase  Senescene
29. Examine the figures A, B, C & D given below and select the right option for female sex organs.
[C] [D]
(1) a, d & f (2) b, d & f (3) a, c & e (4) a, d & e

Sol. Answer (4)
a - Nucule d - Carpel e - Archegoniphore
30. Read the following statement carefully: "Further development of zygote depends on the type of life cycle the
organism has and the environment it is exposed to."
Identify the correctly matched pair w.r.t. the above statement.
(1) Thick walled zygote – Haplontic life cycle

(2) Zygote forms new – Haplodiplontic
generation, by mitosis, life cycle
represented by few cells
(3) Zygote undergoes – Diplontic life cycle
meiosis to form haploid
generation
(4) Zygote forms multicellular –Haplontic life cycle.
diploid generation
Sol. Answer (1)
Thick wall zygospore in adverse condition.
31. The vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and next are all, except
(1) Zygospore (2) Oospore (3) Zygote (4) Oosphere
Sol. Answer (4)
Oosphere  n
32. Choose the correct options

I. Gametes are always produced from diploid parent plant body.
II. Meiocytes are sporocytes in all plants.
III. The gymnosperms and pteriodophytes have diploid parent body.
IV. In seed plants, pollen grains are carrier of male gametes.
Sol. Answer (2)
} 2n body dominant
Gymnosperm
Ptendophyte
} Siphonogamy (Seed plants)

Angiosperm
Gymnosperm
33. Choose the correct option from following statements.

I. During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes mitotic cell division.
II. In organisms with diplontic life cycle, zygote divides by meiotic cell division.
III. The pericarp (fruit wall) develop from integument of ovule, after fertilization.
IV. In brinjal, sepals remained attached to fruit even after fertilization.
(1) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct (2) III, IV are incorrect but II, III are correct
(3) I, IV are incorrect but II, III are correct (4) II, III are incorrect but I, IV are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
34. The progenitor of the next generation in mature seed is

(1) Gamete (2) Spore (3) Oospore (4) Emrbyo
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryo  2n (Next generation sporophyte)
35. What is the carrier of gamete in the Pinus, Marchantia, Mango, Chara, Funaria respectively?
[where A - Pollen tube, B - H2O]
(1) A, B, B, A, A (2) A, B, A, B, B
(3) B, A, A, B, A (4) A, B, A, A, B
Sol. Answer (2)
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Offsets are produced by [NEET-2018]

(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy
Sol. Answer (2)
Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed by mitosis.
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic cells.
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of embryo from ovum or egg without fertilisation.
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without fertilisation, (generally seedless)
2. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time? [NEET-2018]
(1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit
(3) Papaya (4) Mango
Sol. Answer (1)
Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower generally only once in its life-time after 50-100 years.
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in their life-time.
3. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone
(2) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores
(3) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem
(4) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the nodes present on modified stem.
4. Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Vegetative reproduction (2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Sexual reproduction (4) Nucellar polyembryony
Sol. Answer (3)
Sexual reproduction generates new genetic recombination leading to variations.
5. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires: [NEET-2016]
(1) Water (2) Wind
(3) Insects (4) Birds
Sol. Answer (1)
In several simple plants like algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes, water is the medium through which male
gamete transfer takes place.
6. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
Mode of reproduction Example
(1) Conidia Penicillium
(2) Offset Water hyacinth
(3) Rhizome Banana
(4) Binary fission Sargassum
Sol. Answer (4)
Mode of reproduction Example
(1) Conidia Penicillium (Ascomycetes)

(2) Offset Water hyacinth
(3) Rhizome Banana
(4) Binary fission Saecharomyces (Yeast)
7. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Runners (2) Rhizome
(3) Offsets (4) Bulbils
Sol. Answer (2)
In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through rhizome.
8. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(2) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(4) Globule is male reproductive structure
Sol. Answer (3)
Nucule  +  Upper
Globule  +  Lower
9. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in [NEET-2013]

(1) Spirogyra (2) Volvox (3) Fucus (4) Chlamydomonas
Sol. Answer (1)
10. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates: [NEET-2013]

(1) Prolonged dormancy
(2) New genetic combination leading to variation
(3) Large biomass
(4) Longer viability of seeds
Sol. Answer (2)
11. Which one of the following is correctly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Chlamydomonas – Conidia (2) Yeast – Zoospores
(3) Onion – Bulb (4) Ginger – Sucker
Sol. Answer (3)
Tunicate bulb
12. Select the wrong statement:

(1) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
(2) In Oomycetes female gemete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non- motile
(3) Chlamydomomas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
(4) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour
Sol. Answer (2)

Female gamete large in size and less in number.
Male gamete small in size and large in number.
13. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of

(1) Stamen and carpel on the same plant
(2) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
(3) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(4) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
Sol. Answer (3)
+ Nucule
Globule
14. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?
(1) Mode of Nutrition (2) Multiplication by fragmentation
(3) Diplontic life cycle (4) Members of kingdom Plantae
Sol. Answer (2)
15. The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are

(1) Axillary buds (2) Root buds
(3) Flower buds (4) Shoot buds
Sol. Answer (1)
Present in Axile of leaf.
16. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct ?
(1) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds (2) Agave – Bulbils
(3) Penicillium – Conidia (4) Water hyacinth – Runner
Sol. Answer (4)
Water hyacinth  Offsets
17. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d) correctly identified
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids
(2) Antheridiophore Male tahllus Globule Roots
(3) Archegoniophore Female thallus Gemmacup Rhizoids
(4) Archegoniophore Female thallus Bud Foot
Sol. Answer (3)
18. Which of the following propagates through leaf-tip?
(1) Walking fern
(2) Sprout-leaf plant
(3) Marchantia
(4) Moss
Sol. Answer (1)
Adiantum caudatum – Walking ferm
19. In oogamy, fertilization involves

(1) A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete
(2) A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
(3) A large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
(4) A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
Sol. Answer (2)
20. In which one of the following pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf buds?
(1) Agave and Kalanchoe
(2) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(3) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
(4) Chrysanthemum and Agave
Sol. Answer (2)
21. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants?

(1) It reduces the vigour of the plant
(2) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant
(3) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(4) The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season
Sol. Answer (4)
Vivipary  Germination of seed on plants
So they cannot be stored for a long time
22. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(1) Sucker
(2) Runner
(3) Offset
(4) Rhizome
Sol. Answer (1)
Mint - Suckers
23. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Papaya (2) Marchantia
(3) Pinus (4) Cycas

Sol. Answer (3)
24. Which one of the following is a polygamous plant?

(1) Maize (2) Coconut
(3) Litchi (4) Papaya

Sol. Answer (3)
25. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the four structures A,
B, C and D are identified correctly
Structures :
Options :
A B C D
(1) Rhizome Sporangiophore Polar cell Globule
(2) Runner Archegoniophore Synergid Antheridium
(3) Offset Antheridiophore Antipodals Oogonium
(4) Sucker Seta Megaspore Gemma cup
mother cell
Sol. Answer (3)
26. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by

(1) Stolen (2) Offset
(3) Runner (4) Sucker
Sol. Answer (2)
Pistia – Offsets
27. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

(1) Fungi (2) Mosses
(3) Algae (4) Ferns
Sol. Answer (3)
Algae – External fertilisation
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : At the end of juvenility, the organism develops the capacity to reproduce.
R : It represents the time period between the first and next flowering in plants.
Sol. Answer (3)
2. A : Reproduction is a biological process of giving rise to young ones.

R : Reproduction increases population and maintains the continuity of species.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : Endogamy is common in majority of animals.

R : Fusing gametes are quite different and develop from the different individuals.
Sol. Answer (4)
4. A : The higher organisms must evolve a special mechanism for gamete transfer.
R : Male and female gametes are formed in different individuals.
Sol. Answer (1)
They are dioecious
5. A : Air layering does not produce a composite plant.

R : Stock and scion are fused to form a composite plant during grafting.
Sol. Answer (2)
6. A : Most of the species of Chara are monoecious but show cross fertilization.
R : The plant body shows protandrous condition.
Sol. Answer (1)
Protanderous  Male part develops earlier than female part
7. A : Multiplication occurs rapidly with equal rate in apomixis as well as in amphimixis.

R : Both types shows mitotic as well as meiotic division.
Sol. Answer (4)
Apomixis show only mitotic division
8. A : Fucus, a brown alga shows oogamy.

R : Female gamete is quite large as compare to male gamete.
Sol. Answer (1)
9. A : Runner, tuber, sucker, offset etc. are vegetative propagules.

R : Two parents are involved in the formation of these structure.
Sol. Answer (3)
Tuber, Runner, Suckers are vegetative propgule so it uniparental.
10. A : Cereals are monocarpic plants.

R : They have distinct juvenile, reproductive and senescent phases.
Sol. Answer (2)

Monocarpic  Flower only once in lifetime
11. A : The number of male gametes produced is several times than the number of female gametes produced.
R : This compensates the loss of male gametes during movement.
Sol. Answer (1)
12. A : In Volvox, heterogametes are formed in sexual life cycle.

R : Non-motile gametes are transferred by water.
Sol. Answer (3)
Male gametes will swim by flagella and join with female gamete.
13. A : Zygote is the first cell of the new generation in all sexually reproducing organisms.
R : Cell division and cell differentiation are the stages of embryogenesis.
Sol. Answer (2)
14. A : Water hyacinth is one of the most invasive weed.

R : It increases the dissolved oxygen of water.
Sol. Answer (3)
It is also called terror of Bengal.
15. A : No individual is immortal except one celled organisms.

R : A few number of plants and animals species have existed on earth and do not die because of budding.
Sol. Answer (3)

Chapter 14
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Flower - A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms, Pre-fertilisation : Structures and Events)
1. A typical angiosperm anther is _________ and _________.
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate (2) Bilobed, monosporangiate
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate (4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate
Sol. Answer (1)
Bilobed, Tetrasporangiate
2. The innermost wall layer of anther

(1) Is nutritive in function (2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) Is haploid and protective in function (4) Forms microspores
Sol. Answer (1)
Tapetum is nutritive.
3. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell is called

(1) Megasporogenesis (2) Microsporogenesis (3) Megagametogenesis (4) Microgametogenesis
Sol. Answer (2)
Meiosis
MMC (Microspore mother cell) Haploid Microspore
4. The pollen grain represents

(1) Male gamete (2) Male gametophyte (3) Microsporophyll (4) Microsporangium
Sol. Answer (2)
Pollen grains carry male gametes.
5. The most resistant organic material known which makes up the outermost layer of pollen wall is
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose (3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignin
Sol. Answer (3)
Sporopollenin  Caratenoid derivative
22 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Solutions of Assignment
6. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the function of the germ pore.
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube (2) It allows water absorption in seed
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (1)
7. The thin and continuous wall layer of pollen is

(1) Exine (2) Intine (3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium
Sol. Answer (2)
Intine is continuous and pectocellulose in nature.
8. The two-celled stage of mature pollen grain consists of

(1) Vegetative cell, generative cell (2) Vegetative cell, one male gamete
(3) Two male gametes (4) Generative cell, one male gamete
Sol. Answer (1)
9. In 40% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at

(1) Four-celled stage (2) Three-celled stage (3) Two-celled stage (4) Five-celled stage
Sol. Answer (2)
At 3 cell stage pollen grain is liberated in 40% of angiosperms
3- Celled stage is a mature gametophyte
10. Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of

(1) Rose (2) Clematis (3) Parthenium (4) Sunflower
Sol. Answer (3)
11. The pollen viability period of rice and pea respectively, is

(1) 30 minutes and several months (2) Several months and 30 minutes
(3) Few days and few months (4) Few days in both the cases
Sol. Answer (1)
12. Integumented megasporangium is

(1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac (3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac
Sol. Answer (1)
13. The nutritive tissue present in the ovule is called

(1) Nucellus (2) Funicle (3) Embryo (4) Integuments
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucellus is massive structure that store food.
14. The number of embryo sac in an ovule is generally

(1) One (2) Many (3) Four (4) Three
Sol. Answer (1)
15. The ploidy level of nucellus and female gametophyte respectively is

(1) n, n (2) n, 2n (3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
Sol. Answer (3)
Nucellus – 2n
n–n
Solutions of Assignment Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 23
16. The number of nuclei in a mature embryo sac are
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Six (4) Four
Sol. Answer (1)
17. The largest cell of the mature embryo sac is

(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergids (3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
Sol. Answer (3)
18. The structures which guide the pollen tube into synergid is
(1) Antipodals (2) Germ pore (3) Aril (4) Filiform apparatus
Sol. Answer (4)
19. Geitonogamy is
(1) Genetically autogamous (2) Ecologically autogamous
(3) Genetically allogamous (4) Functionally autogamous
Sol. Answer (1)
Geitonogamy include pollination between genetically simillar anther and stigma.
or
Male and female part of the same plant.
20. Which of the following plant provides safe place to insect for laying eggs?
(1) Sage plant (2) Amorphophallus (3) Ophrys (4) Mango
Sol. Answer (2)
Tallest flowers  Which give space for egg laying
21. Examples of water pollinated flowers are

(1) Zostera, Lotus, water lily (2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
Sol. Answer (4)
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of insect pollinated flowers?
(1) Fragrance (2) Nectaries
(3) Foul odour (4) Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
Sol. Answer (4)
Mucilage covering in pollen grain is found in aquatic plants.
23. Pollen robbers

(1) Consume pollen or nectar (2) Are effective in bringing about pollination
(3) Do not visit flowers for pollen (4) Take pollen from other insects
Sol. Answer (1)
24. Dioecious condition prevents

(1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Unisexuality of plant will prevent the genetical autogamy.
(Double Fertilisation, Post-fertilisation : Structures and Events, Apomixis and Polyembryony)
25. The role of triple fusion in angiosperms is to produce

(1) Cotyledons (2) PEN (3) Endocarp (4) Seed
Sol. Answer (2)
26. Production of seed without fertilization is called

(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis (3) Apomixis (4) Apogamy
Sol. Answer (3)
Agamospermy  Formation of seeds without fertilization
27. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the

(1) PEC (2) PEN (3) Endosperm (4) Embryo
Sol. Answer (1)
Central cell contain two haploid polar nuclei in which nucleus of male gamete fuse form triploid
primary endosperm cell.
28. The diploid and triploid product of double fertilization respectively are
(1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus (2) Endosperm and cotyledons
(3) Embryo and perisperm (4) Zygote and scutellum
Sol. Answer (1)
2n  Zygote  Syngamy
3n  PEC / PEN  Triple fusion
29. Double endosperm is found in

(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Pea (4) Coconut
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellular as well as nucellar endosperm is present.
30. Exalbuminous seeds are of

(1) Wheat, pea, groundnut (2) Castor, pea, groundnut
(3) Pea, groundnut, beans (4) Wheat, castor, rice
Sol. Answer (3)
Exalbuminous seeds are one which donot contain endosperm like - Pea, Groundnut, Beam
31. The single cotyledon in monocots is

(1) Scutellum which is lateral in position (2) Aleurone layer which is terminal in position
(3) Scutellum which is centrally placed (4) Epiblast which is haploid and lateral in position
Sol. Answer (1)
Monocot contain single cotyledon
32. The sheath enclosing plumule and radicle respectively in monocot seed are
(1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza (2) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(3) Scutellum and epiblast (4) Aleurone layer and pericarp
Sol. Answer (1)
Plumule is protected by  Coleoptile
Radicle is protected by  Colceorhiza
33. Perispermic seeds are
(1) Castor, sunflower (2) Black pepper, beet (3) Maize, beet (4) Barley, maize
Sol. Answer (2)
Perisperm is the remnent of nucellus found in Black Pepper, Beet, Ricinus.
34. Adventive polyembryony is common in

(1) Wheat (2) Apple (3) Mango (4) Orobanche
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryo develop either nucellus or integument.
35. Which of the following is a parthenocarpic fruit?

(1) Banana (2) Apple (3) Strawberry (4) Pomegranate
Sol. Answer (1)
Parthenocarpy is development of fruit without fertilization.
SECTION - B
(Flower - A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms, Pre-fertilisation : Structures and Events)
1. Pollen grains are generally _________ in outline measuring _________ micrometers in diameter.
(1) Spherical, 25-50 (2) Oblong, 25-50 (3) Oval, 10-25 (4) Spherical, 75-100
Sol. Answer (1)
Spherical 25 – 50 m
2. The vegetative cell is

(1) Small, has large irregularly shaped nucleus (2) Large, has large irregularly shaped nucleus
(3) Large with spindle shaped nucleus (4) Small, spindle shaped nucleus
Sol. Answer (2)
Due to asymmetrical spindle formation.
3. Cryopreservation means storing of products in

(1) Liquid nitrogen (2) Liquid oxygen (3) Liquid hydrogen (4) Liquid helium
Sol. Answer (1)
Liquid N2  at–196 °C
4. Choose the odd one w.r.t. gynoecium.

(1) Gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of flower
(2) The gynoecium may be syncarpous or apocarpous
(3) The number of ovules in papaya and mango is one
(4) The ovules are attached to placenta
Sol. Answer (3)
Papaya contain large number of ovule
5. The number of mitotic generations required to form a mature embryo sac in most of the flowering plants is
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
Sol. Answer (3)
Megaspore contain single nucleus which undergo 3 mitotic division.
6. The types of flowers which always produce seeds even in the absence of pollinators
(1) Chasmogamous flowers (2) Cleistogamous flowers
(3) Bisexual flowers (4) Unisexual flowers
Sol. Answer (2)
Cleistogamy take place in those flower which always remain closed.
7. The type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen on the stigma is
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Geitonogamy (4) Cleistogamy
Sol. Answer (2)
Xenogamy take place in genetically different plants.
8. Feathery stigma and versatile anthers are characteristic of

(1) Wind pollinated flowers (2) Insect pollinated flowers
(3) Water pollinated flowers (4) Bat pollinated flowers
Sol. Answer (1)
Feathery stigma to catch anther from air.
9. Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which are mostly

(1) Gymnosperms (2) Monocots
(3) Dicots (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (2)
10. Common floral reward provided by plants to pollinator are

(1) Nectar and pollen (2) Pollen and enzymes (3) Hormones and nectar (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
11. Pollen pistil interaction is

(1) Chemically mediated process (2) Dynamic process
(3) Genetically controlled process (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Chemically mediated process as well genetically controlled process.
12. Emasculation
(1) Prevent self-pollination in female parent
(2) Prevent cross pollination in female parent
(3) Prevent self-pollination in male parent
(4) Prevent cross pollination in male parent
Sol. Answer (1)
Emasculation is removal of anthers from the flower in bud condition.
13. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Outer three layers of anther wall are protective in function
(2) Sporogenous tissue, occupies the centre of each microsporangium
(3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and polyteny
(4) Ploidy level of microspore tetrad is haploid
Sol. Answer (3)
Cells of endothecium will not show increase in DNA content.
14. Which of the following statement is applicable for all flowering plants?
(1) Monosiphonous pollen tube
(2) Non-motile and morphologically dissimilar gametes
(3) Presence of pollinium
(4) Division of generative cell after pollination
Sol. Answer (2)
Pollen tube will carry the gametes.
15. Which is incorrect statement?

I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad.
II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte.
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15 m in diameter.
IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistance organic material which can be destroyed only by strong acids
and alkali.
(1) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct
(2) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
(3) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct
(4) II, IV are correct but I, III are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
Pollens are spherical and average size is 25-50 m.
Sporopollenin donot get destroyed by any known chemical.
16. Which statement is incorrect?

(1) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and exhibit fascinating array of patterns and designs
(2) The mature pollen grains has two cells, the bigger is vegetative cell and the smaller is generative cell which
floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
(3) Carrot grass pollens cause pollen allergy
(4) Pollen grains of pea and rose maintain viability for months
Sol. Answer (1)
Intine is inner wall of pollen grain.
Exine exhibit fascinating pattern.
17. In papaya male and female flowers are present on different plants. It permits
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Sol. Answer (4)
Papaya exhibit unisexuality.
18. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d. Correctly
identify
a
b
a b c d
(1) Endothecium Tapetum Microspore mother cell Middle layers
(2) Tapetum Endothecium Microspore mother cell Middle layers
(3) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum Microspore mother cell
(4) Endothecium Microspore mother cell Middle layer Tapetum
Sol. Answer (3)
19. Select incorrect statement regarding microsporogenesis in an anther

(1) Large number of microspore mother cells differentiate in one pollen sac
(2) Each microsporogenesis involves one meiosis and two mitosis
(3) Microspore tetrads may be tetrahedral or isobilateral
(4) It consumes tapetum and middle layers
Sol. Answer (2)
Microsporogenesis involve only formation of microspores by meiosis.
20. In castor, proliferation of the outer integumentary cells at micropylar region

(1) Lacks hygroscopic ability (2) Attract ants and helps in myrmecophily
(3) Is called epiblast (4) Stores sugary substances
Sol. Answer (4)
21. An angiospermic plant is having 24 chromosomes in its leaf cells. The number of chromosomes present in
synergid, pollen grain, nucellus & endosperm will be respectively
(1) 12, 12, 12, 72 (2) 8, 8, 12, 36 (3) 12, 12, 24, 36 (4) 12, 12, 12, 36
Sol. Answer (3)
Synergid, Pollen  n
Nucellus  2n, Endosperm  3n
identify
d
b
a
a b c d
(1) Synergids Antipodal cells Polar nuclei Filiform apparatus
(2) Filiform apparatus Egg Polar nuclei Nucellus
(3) Filiform apparatus Synergids Polar nuclei Antipodal cell
(4) Synergids Polar nuclei Filiform apparatus Antipodal cell
Sol. Answer (3)
23. The devices to discourage self pollination are

(1) Pollen release and stigma receptivity is not synchronised
(2) Anther and stigma are placed at different position
(3) Rejection of pollen by stigma of the same flowers
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
24. In monoecious plant like castor and maize

(1) Autogamy and allogamy are not prevented (2) Geitonogamy is prevented
(3) Autogamy is not prevented (4) Geitonogamy is not prevented
Sol. Answer (4)
In castor and maize unisexual and + flower are present on the same plant.
25. Select incorrect statement (w.r.t. artificial hybridisation)

(1) Emasculation is removal of anther in their mature condition from bisexual flower
(2) Emasculation is not required in male sterile plants
(3) Unisexual female flower is bagged in bud condition to prevent contamination
(4) Emasculated flowers are bagged in bud condition
Sol. Answer (1)
Removal of anther before maturation from bisexual flowers.
(Double Fertilisation, Post-fertilisation : Structures and Events, Apomixis and Polyembryony)
26. The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons on embryonal axis is
(1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl (3) Radicle (4) Plumule
Sol. Answer (2)
27. Suitable environmental conditions for seed germination are

(1) Adequate moisture, light, anaerobic conditions (2) Adequate moisture, low temperature, light
(3) Adequate moisture, suitable temperature and oxygen (4) Light, water, absence of oxygen
Sol. Answer (3)
Adequatic moisture and temperature O2 is needed for germination
28. Pericarp is dry in

(1) Guava, mango, mustard (2) Mango, groundnut, orange
(3) Groundnut, mustard (4) Orange, guava, mango
Sol. Answer (3)
They are simple and dry fruits.
29. Pick out wrong statement.

(1) Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms
(2) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest tree
(3) Exine has apertures where sporopollenin is present
(4) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
Sol. Answer (3)
Exine is outer covering of pollen.
identify
a
b
d
a b c d
(1) Suspensor Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle Suspensor
(3) Suspensor Plumule Radicle Cotyledon
(4) Radicle Plumule Cotyledons Suspensor
Sol. Answer (1)
identify.
c
d
a b c d
(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Radicle Coleorrhiza
(2) Coleorrhiza Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile
(3) Scutellum Coleorrhiza Radicle Coleoptile
(4) Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorrhiza
Sol. Answer (1)
32. Choose the correct option from the following
I. Dehydration and dormancy of mature seed are crucial for seed storage.
II. Seed of Lupinus arcticus is the oldest one which germinated after 2000 year.
III. Orchid seed is one of largest seed in plant Kingdom.
IV. Seeds of parasitic plants Orobanche and Striga are tiny seeds.
(1) I, II are correct but III, IV are incorrect (2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
(3) III, IV are correct but I, II are incorrect (4) II, III are correct but I, IV are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
Orchids are smallest seed.
Date palm have seed with highest utability.
identify.
a
b
d
a b c d
(1) Thalamus Seed Endocarp Mesocarp
(2) Thalamus Seed Mesocarp Endocarp
(3) Mesocarp Seed Endocarp Thalamus
(4) Endocarp Seed Thalamus Mesocarp
Sol. Answer (1)
34. Select the correct statement from the following :

(1) Hanging drop method as in-vivo germination of pollen grain
(2) Obturator directs the growth of pollen tube towards micropyle of seed
(3) There are many embryos of different sizes and shapes in the seeds of orange
(4) Embryo arises parthenogenetically from the diploid egg in adventive embryony
Sol. Answer (3)
35. Choose the correct option from the following statements.

I. Apomixis is form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction.
II. In Apomixis seeds develop either from diploid egg cell or from cells of nucellus.
III. Seeds collected from hybrids plant maintain hybrid character for a longer times.
IV. In Apomixis, there is segregation of characters.
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect
(3) Only I and II are correct (4) Only II and IV are correct
Sol. Answer (3)
In hybrid seed, inbreeding depression take place. There is no segregation of characters.
SECTION - C
1. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils? [NEET-2018]
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content
Sol. Answer (3)
Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is helpful in preserving pollen
as fossil.
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of pollen grain known as intine made up cellulose & pectin.
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
2. Double fertilization is [NEET-2018]
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
Sol. Answer (3)
Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon that occur in angiosperms only.
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
3. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of [NEET-2018]
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C
(3) –160°C (4) –196°C
Sol. Answer (4)
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation)
4. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both [NEET-2017]
(1) Autogamy and xenogamy (2) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
Sol. Answer (2)
When unisexual male and female flowers are present on different plants the condition is called dioecious and
it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
5. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into [NEET-2017]
(1) Ovule (2) Endosperm (3) Embryo sac (4) Embryo
Sol. Answer (3)
Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three successive
generations of free nuclear mitosis to form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
6. Attractants and rewards are required for [NEET-2017]
(1) Anemophily (2) Entomophily (3) Hydrophily (4) Cleistogamy
Sol. Answer (2)
Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While some plants
also provide safe place for deposition of eggs.
7. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
[NEET-2017]
(1) Water (2) Bee (3) Wind (4) Bat
Sol. Answer (3)
Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous flowers
packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination is a non-directional pollination.
8. Double fertilization is exhibited by [NEET-2017]
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Algae (3) Fungi (4) Angiosperms
Sol. Answer (4)
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and triple fusion.
9. In majority of angiosperms [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Egg has a filiform apparatus
(2) There are numerous antipodal cells
(3) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
(4) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
Sol. Answer (3)
Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to form megaspore.
10. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Water (2) Insects or wind
(3) Birds (4) Bats
Sol. Answer (2)
Water hyacinth and water lily are aquatic plants pollinated by insect or wind.
11. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Megasporangium (2) Megasporophyll
(3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Megaspore
Sol. Answer (1)
Integumented and stalked megasporangium is called ovule.
12. Which one of the following statements is not true? [NEET-2016]
(1) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
(2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(3) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(4) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
Sol. Answer (2)
Tapetum provides nourishment to developing pollen grain.
13. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the [NEET-2016]
(1) Thalamus or petal (2) Anther
(3) Connective (4) Placenta
Sol. Answer (1)
A typical stamen consist of anther and filament.
The proximal end of filament is attached to thalamus or petal of the flower where as distal and bears anther.
14. The coconut water from tender coconut represents [NEET-2016]

(1) Free nuclear endosperm (2) Endocarp
(3) Fleshy mesocarp (4) Free nuclear proembryo
Sol. Answer (1)
Coconut milk represents free nuclear endosperm where the division of PEN is not followed by cytokinesis.
15. Which of the following statements is not correct? [NEET-2016]
(1) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
(2) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the
same species grows into the style
(3) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers
(4) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with
those of the pistil
Sol. Answer (2)
Pollen grains of different species are incompatible, so they fail to germinate.
16. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of (NEET-2016)
(1) Apomixis (2) Sporulation
(3) Budding (4) Somatic hybridization
Sol. Answer (1)
Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilisation.
17. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Three sperms (2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell (4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
Sol. Answer (2)
In angiosperms, pollen grain is first male gametophyte. Pollen grain divides into generative cell and vegetative
cell. Generative cell further divides into two sperms.
18. Coconut water from a tender coconut is: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Degenerated nucellus (2) Immature embryo
(3) Free nuclear endosperm (4) Innermost layers of the seed coat
Sol. Answer (3)
Coconut water is free nuclear endosperm.
19. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of : [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Synergids (2) Generative cell (3) Nucellar embryo (4) Aleurone cell
Sol. Answer (1)
Filiform apparatus is finger like projections in each synergid.
20. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large shield-shaped cotyledon known as: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum
Sol. Answer (4)
Scutellum is the large persistent cotyledon in embryo of wheat grain.
21. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Banana (2) Brinjal (3) Apple (4) Jackfruit
Sol. Answer (1)
Formation of fruit without fertilisation is called parthenocarpy.
Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit therefore seedless.
22. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Occur in ovule (2) Occur in anther
(3) Form gametes without further divisions (4) Involve meiosis
Sol. Answer (4)
In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis involve meiosis.
23. Which one of the following statements is not true? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers
(2) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups
(3) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people
(4) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them
Sol. Answer (1)
Honey is made by using nectar of flowering plants.
24. The hilum is a scar on the [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Seed, where micropyle was present (2) Seed, where funicle was attached
(3) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel (4) Fruit, where style was present
Sol. Answer (2)
The hilum is a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the fruit.
25. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Apogamy
Sol. Answer (2)
Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy since the pollen grains comes from the same plant.
26. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates (2) Colour and large size of flower
(3) Nectar and pollen grains (4) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
Sol. Answer (3)
Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral rewards.
27. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Wet stigma (2) Hollow style (3) Solid style (4) Dry stigma
Sol. Answer (3)
A solid style has transmission tissue with large intercellular spaces which allows growth of pollen tube.
28. Geitonogamy involves [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower
(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
(4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population
Sol. Answer (1)
Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
29. Pollen tablets are available in the market for [AIPMT-2014]
(1) In vitro fertilization (2) Breeding Equisetum (3) Supplementing food (4) Ex situ conservation
Sol. Answer (3)
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and it has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food
supplements.
30. Function of filiform apparatus is to [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (2) Stimulate division of generative cell
(3) Produce nectar (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
Sol. Answer (4)
Filiform apparatus, present in synergids, play an important role in guiding the pollen tube into the synergid.
31. Perisperm differs from endosperm in [NEET-2013]
(1) Having no reserve food
(2) Being a diploid tissue
(3) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
(4) Being a haploid tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Nucellus remnant is called – Perisperm (2n)
32. Megasporangium is equivalent to [NEET-2013]
(1) Fruit (2) Nucellus (3) Ovule (4) Embryo sac
Sol. Answer (3)
33. Advantage of cleistogamy is [NEET-2013]
(1) More vigorous offspring (2) No dependence on pollinators
(3) Vivipary (4) Higher genetic variability
Sol. Answer (2)
Cleistogamy take place in closed flowers.
34. Which one of the following statements is correct ? [NEET-2013]
(1) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (2) Endothecium produces the microspores
(3) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen (4) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
Sol. Answer (3)
Tapetum secrete ubish bodies, IAA for MMC.
35. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Lignin (2) Cellulose (3) Cuticle (4) Sporopollenin
Sol. Answer (4)
36. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Mesocarp (2) Embryo (3) Endosperm (4) Endocarp
Sol. Answer (3)
Coconut liquid endosperm.
37. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Papaver (2) Michelia (3) Aloe (4) Tomato
Sol. Answer (2)
Michelia – Apocarpous condition
38. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Castor (2) Maize (3) Papaya (4) Cucumber
Sol. Answer (3)
Papaya is unisexual plant so no autogamy and geitonogamy. Only xenogamy take place.
39. Even in absence of pollination agents seed-setting is assured in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Salvia (2) Fig (3) Commellina (4) Zostera
Sol. Answer (3)
Cleistogamy take place.
40. What is the function of germ pore? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Emergence of radicle (2) Absorption of water for seed germination
(3) Initiation of pollen tube (4) Release of male gametes
Sol. Answer (3)
Pollen tube will come out.
41. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place
(2) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell
(3) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months
(4) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
Sol. Answer (1)
60% of Angiosperm pollen is liberated at 2 celled stage and after this double fertilization will take place.
42. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Bees (2) Butterflies (3) Birds (4) Wind
Sol. Answer (4)
43. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Brassica (2) Citrus (3) Gossypium (4) Triticum
Sol. Answer (2)
44. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Zygote (2) Suspensor (3) Egg (4) Synergid
Sol. Answer (4)
It will absorb nutrition from outer nucellus.
45. Wind pollination is common in : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Orchids (2) Legumes (3) Lilies (4) Grasses
Sol. Answer (4)
46. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Chasmogamy
Sol. Answer (1)
No pollinating agent is required.
47. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Endosperm (2) Pollen sac (3) Embryo sac (4) Ovule
Sol. Answer (3)
Megaspore  Embryosac [7-Celled, 8 - Nucleated]
48. What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Both occur round the year (2) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
(3) Both are applicable to only dicot plants (4) Both bypass the flowering phase
Sol. Answer (2)

Both are uniparental.
49. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root
tip cells? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
Sol. Answer (3)
2n  42
3n  63
50. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Geitonogamy (4) Karyogamy
Sol. Answer (3)
51. Wind pollinated flowers are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(2) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(3) Small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
(4) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen
Sol. Answer (3)
Small and light in weight so that it can be easily carried by.
52. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Diploid egg (2) Synergids
(3) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (4) Antipodal cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryo produce without fertilization.
53. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(1) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus (2) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(3) Egg cell and antipodal cells (4) Nucellus and antipodal cells
Sol. Answer (3)
54. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(2) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
(3) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryosac
(4) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
Sol. Answer (2)
It help in entry of pollen tube in Oosphere.
55. Unisexuality of flowers prevents [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy (2) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(3) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy (4) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
Sol. Answer (2)
Autogamy – Pollination between and + of the same flower.
Geitonogamy – Pollination between and + different of the flower of same plant.

56. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Leaf cuticle (2) Cork (3) Wood fibre (4) Pollen exine
Sol. Answer (4)
Contain sporopolenin
57. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Microspore mother cell (2) Microspore
(3) Generative cell (4) Vegetative cell
Sol. Answer (3)
Genrative cell undergo mitosis make gamete.

58. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Pollen grain (2) Microspore mother cell (3) Male gamete (4) Egg
Sol. Answer (2)
Generative cell undergo ergo mitosis to to make gamete.
59. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8
chromosomes in its synergids? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 8
Sol. Answer (2)
n = 8  Synergids so Alurone layer 3n = 24
60. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Anthers (2) Styles (3) Ovaries (4) Hairs
Sol. Answer (2)
61. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 2 + 4 + 2 (2) 3 + 2 + 3 (3) 2 + 3 + 3 (4) 3 + 3 + 2
Sol. Answer (2)
3 + 2 + 3 Nucleus of antipodals
Egg Polar
Apparatus nuclei
62. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Prophyll (4) Coleoptile
Sol. Answer (2)
63. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the
(1) Nucellus or integuments (2) Synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
(3) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule (4) Zygote
Sol. Answer (1)
64. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Egg cell (2) Central cell
(3) Persistant synergid (4) Degenerated synergid
Sol. Answer (4)
65. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse- shoe shaped and the
funiculus and micropyle are close to each other? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Circinotropous (2) Anatropous (3) Amphitropous (4) Atropous
Sol. Answer (3)

Embryosac is horse shoe-shape and ovule body bend.
66. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of flowers of different plants
(2) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous
(3) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination
(4) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all
Sol. Answer (2)
Because they are always closed flowers.
67. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after
(1) Meiotic division (2) Mitotic division (3) Formation of a thick wall (4) Differentiation
Sol. Answer (1)
Megaspores are produced by Mega sporogenesis.
68. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
(1) Maize (2) Vallisneria (3) Mulbery (4) Cucumber
Sol. Answer (4)
Colourful flowers.
69. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids
(2) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
(3) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials
(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis
Sol. Answer (4)
70. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in
(1) Perisperm (2) Endosperm (3) Cotyledons (4) Hypocotyl
Sol. Answer (2)
71. Embryo in sunflower has
(1) Two cotyledons (2) Many cotyledons (3) No cotyledon (4) One cotyledon
Sol. Answer (1)
Sunflower is dicot
72. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of
(1) Maize (2) Coconut (3) Castor (4) Pea
Sol. Answer (4)
Pea is non-endospermic.
73. In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives in
(1) Egg (2) An antipodal cell (3) A synergid (4) Central cell
Sol. Answer (3)
74. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Pollen grains remain viable for several months because their outer covering is made of sporopollenin
(2) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains are well represented in fossil strata due to sporopollenin
(4) Pollen wall has cavities containing proteins
Sol. Answer (1)
Pollen viability depends upon temperature, humidity and genetical make up.
75. Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some
(1) Aquatic plants (2) Wind-pollinated grasses
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bird-pollinated flowers
Sol. Answer (1)
Zostera
76. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(1) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus (2) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(3) Egg cell and antipodal cells (4) Nucellus and antipodal cells
Sol. Answer (3)
77. Embryo sac represents
(1) Megaspore (2) Megagametophyte
(3) Megasporophyll (4) Megagamete
Sol. Answer (2)
78. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be
(1) Tetraploid (2) Pentaploid (3) Haploid (4) Triploid
Sol. Answer (2)
- 2n, + - 4n
Gamete = n, + = 2n
So zygote will be 3n
79. The role of double fertilization in angiosperms is to produce
(1) Cotyledons (2) Endocarp (3) Endosperm (4) Integuments
Sol. Answer (3)
Triple fusion = 3n Endosperm
80. An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some orchids in which a male insect
mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female species and tries to copulate with it, thereby pollinating
the flower. This phenomenon is called
(1) Pseudo-pollination (2) Pseudo-parthenocarpy (3) Mimicry (4) Pseudo-copulation
Sol. Answer (4)
Oprys Orchid flower appear like + insect of Colpa.
81. Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by
(1) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete (2) One polar nuclei and one male gamete
(3) Ovum and male gamete (4) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
Sol. Answer (1)
Triple fusion – 2 Polar nuclei of + and 1 male nucleus.

82. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
(1) Salvia (2) Bottle brush (3) Vallisneria (4) Coconut
Sol. Answer (4)
Wind pollination
83. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule?

(1) Upward (2) Downward (3) Right (4) Left
Sol. Answer (2)
84. In angiosperm, all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed by
(1) Pectocellulose (2) Callose (3) Cellulose (4) Sporopollenin
Sol. Answer (2)
Callose  b, 1, 3 Glucan
85. In angiosperms, pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the
(1) Central cell (2) Antipodal cells (3) Egg cell (4) Synergids
Sol. Answer (4)
86. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angle to the funicle, is
(1) Hemitropous (2) Campylotropous (3) Anatropous (4) Orthotropous
Sol. Answer (1)
87. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting
seed is
(1) Tetraploidy (2) Pentaploidy (3) Diploidy (4) Triploidy
Sol. Answer (1)
+ - 2n, - 4n,
Gamete - n 2n
n + n + 2n = 4n
88. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(1) Tomato (2) Potato (3) Citrus (4) Turmeric
Sol. Answer (3)
89. Eight nucleated embryosac is
(1) Only monosporic (2) Only bisporic (3) Only tetrasporic (4) Any of these
Sol. Answer (4)
90. Adventive embryony in Citrus is due to
(1) Nucellus (2) Integuments (3) Zygotic embryo (4) Fertilized egg
Sol. Answer (1)
Development of embryo from nucellus or integument.
91. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
(1) Only the wall of the sporangium (2) Both wall and the sporogenous cells
(3) Wall and the tapetum (4) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Archesporial cells are initial cells.
92. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the
(1) Nucellus or integuments (2) Zygote
(3) Synergids or antipodals in an embryosac (4) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule
Sol. Answer (1)
93. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(1) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (2) Stimulate division of generative cell
(3) Produce nectar (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
Sol. Answer (4)
SECTION - D
1. A : Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrads.
R : Most abundant microspore tetrads is the product of simultaneous cytokinesis.
Sol. Answer (2)
2. A : In sporoderm, pectocellulosic layer is surrounded by sporopollenin.
R : Exine is differentiated into outer ektexine and inner endexine.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : The generative cell comes to lie freely in the cytoplasm of the tube cell.
R : Cellulosic wall around generative cell is dissolved.
Sol. Answer (3)
4. A : Restitutional nucleus can be observed in endothecium cells.
R : Endothecium cells are usually triploid.
Sol. Answer (4)
Restitutional nucleus formed in tapetum cells. At anaphase doubling of chromosome take place and it is
surrounded by nuclear envelop.
5. A : Chalazal vacuole is present in the help cell of embryo sac.
R : Polarity of synergid cytoplasm is opposite to egg cell.
Sol. Answer (2)
Chalazal vacule is present in synergids.
6. A : Formation of mature male gametophyte requires one meiotic and one mitotic division in 60% of the
angiosperms.
R : Pollination occurs in three celled condition in majority of angiosperms.
Sol. Answer (4)
Mature gametophyte need 1 Meiosis and two mitosis for all angiosperms.
7. A : Filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube into the synergids.
R : It is special cellular thickening at micropylar tip to secrete chemotropic stimulus.
Sol. Answer (1)
8. A : Geitonogamy helps in maintaining homozygosity and superiority of the race indefinitely.
R : It is functionally, ecologically and genetically cross pollination.
Sol. Answer (3)
Geitonogamy help in maintaining homozygosity because it is genetically self pollination. It is ecologically cross
pollination because need pollinating agents. So functionally cross pollination.
9. A : Initial growth of pollen tube takes place on expenditure of food present in the stigma and style.
R : Pollen tube travels intracellularly and chemotactically.
Sol. Answer (4)
Initial growth take place by using food in the pollen grain.
10. A : Eight cells of octant stage in dicot embryogeny are made by 2 vertical and one transverse divisions in
embryonal cell.
R : These cells are arranged in epibasal and hypobasal tier.
Sol. Answer (2)
11. A : Triple fusion is associated with the sexual reproduction in all spermatophytes.
R : It is required to form definitive nucleus as nutritive tissue.
Sol. Answer (4)
Triple fusion is a feature of only angiosperm not gymnosperm so it is not applicable to all spermatophyte
12. A : Anatropous ovule is resupinate ovule.
R : The body of ovule is completely bent with hilum close to micropylar end.
Sol. Answer (1)
13. A : More than one pollen tubes can enter an embryo sac.
R : Double fertilization can occur by contribution of gametes from different pollens.
Sol. Answer (2)
14. A : Hybrid seeds have to be produced every year because seeds collected from hybrid plants, if sown
subsequently, do not maintain hybrid characters.
R : Hybrid seeds show segregation of traits.
Sol. Answer (1)
15. A : Growth of male gametophyte is completed over the female reproductive organ.
R : 2-celled stage of partial male gametophyte is developed in-situ.
Sol. Answer (2)
gametophyte is liberated at 2 celled stage in 60% Angiosperm.

16. A : Certain proteins of pollen origin identifies the compatible stigma.
R : Compatibility proteins are found located in ektexine.
Sol. Answer (1)
Pollen grain carry independent proteins.
17. A : Tetraploid gametophyte can be produced from tetraploid sporophyte by means of apogamy.
R : Apogamy involves fertilisation, not meiosis.
Sol. Answer (4)
Apogamy is process of formation of spotophyte from the tissue of gametophyte.
18. A : Continued self-pollination checks inbreeding depression.
R : Pollen release and stigma receptivity are synchronised.
Sol. Answer (4)
Selfing cause inbreeding depressions.
19. A : Complete radicle is not produced by hypo-basal tier of octant embryo during Cruciferad development.
R : Hypophysis cell of suspensor contributes the tip of radicle in this type of development.
Sol. Answer (1)
20. A : Apomictic embryo is asexual mode of reproduction.
R : It prevents the segregation of traits.
Sol. Answer (2)

Chapter 15
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance, Inheritance of One Gene)
1. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. true breeding line)
(1) Shows the stable trait inheritance (2) Shows expression for few generations only
(3) Undergone continuous self-pollination (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
True breeding means Pure lines.
2. Which of the following is not a dominant trait in edible pea?

(1) Axial flower (2) Inflated pod (3) Green seed colour (4) Green pod
Sol. Answer (3)
Green seed  Recessive
Yellow seed  Dominant
3. The phenotype of an individual may be affected if the modified allele produces

(a) No enzyme at all
(b) The normal/less efficient enzyme
(c) A non-functional enzyme
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (c) are correct (3) (b) and (c) are correct (4) Only (c) is correct
Sol. Answer (2)
Recessive allele may not produce enzyme or may be non functional enzyme.
4. What will be possible blood group in children from the parents with B and AB blood groups?
(1) A, O (2) A, B, AB & O (3) A, B, AB (4) B, O
Sol. Answer (3)
Phenotype B AB
Genotype  IBi × IAIB
IAi, IBi IAIB . IBIB
So A, AB B are possible
46 Principles of Inheritance and Variation Solutions of Assignment
5. In garden pea, starch is synthesised effectively in

(1) Heterozygous round seeded plants (2) Homozygous round seeded plants
(3) Wrinkled seeded plants (4) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
Sol. Answer (2)
Bb  Intermediate starch grain BB  Large starch grain bb  Small starch grain
6. F1 progeny of Mendelian dihybrid cross produces

(1) Two types of pollen grains (2) Four genotypes of gametes
(3) Two types of eggs (4) Four types of pollens only
Sol. Answer (2)
F1 AaBb
B AB
A
b Ab
B aB
a
b ab
So four gametes
7. When Mendel self hybridised the F1 plants (RrYy), he found that dominant and recessive traits of one character
are segregated in a
(1) 9 : 1 ratio (2) 3 : 3 ratio (3) 10 : 6 ratio (4) 3 : 1 ratio
Sol. Answer (4)
8. Mendel published his work on inheritance of characters in 1865 but it remained unrecognised till 1900 because
(a) He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors
(b) His concept of factors as stable, discrete units that controlled the expression of traits did not find
acceptance from the contemporaries
(c) Mendel's approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was totally old
(d) Communication was not easy (as it is now)
(1) (a), (b) & (c) are correct (2) (c) & (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) & (d) are correct (4) Only (a) is correct
Sol. Answer (3)
9. Heterozygous round and yellow seeded pea plants were selfed and total 800 seeds are collected. What is the
total number of seeds with first dominant and second recessive traits?
(1) 950 (2) 300 (3) 200 (4) 150
Sol. Answer (4)
3
800   150
16
(Two Genes Interaction w.r.t. Post-Mendelism, Sex Determination, Mutation)
10. Which of the following statement for chromosomal theory of inheritance is incorrect?
(1) Pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a factor they carried
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the behaviour of genes
(3) The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes
(4) Chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs
Sol. Answer (1)
Solutions of Assignment Principles of Inheritance and Variation 47
11. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(1) Sutton and Boveri (2) Correns (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Tschermak
Sol. Answer (3)
12. Fruit flies are one of the best materials for genetic studies because of all, except
(1) Ability to grow on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
(2) Short life span
(3) Production of a large number of progeny in each mating
(4) Presence of few externally visible and identifiable contrasting traits
Sol. Answer (4)
13. Generation of non-parental gene combinations is termed as

(1) Linkage (2) Polyploidy (3) Recombination (4) Aneuploidy
Sol. Answer (3)
Non-parental gene combination - Recombination
Produce by crossing over
14. Initial clue about the genetic/chromosomal mechanism of sex-determination can be traced back to some of
the experiments carried out in
(1) Human beings (2) Birds (3) Insects (4) Plants
Sol. Answer (3)
Henking discovered X-body.
15. In which of the sex determination both male and female have same number of chromosomes?
(1) XY type (2) ZO type (3) XO type (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
AA + X X
Same number of chromosome in and +
AA + X Y
16. Two different types of gametes in terms of the sex chromosomes, are produced by
(1) Female fruit fly (2) Male butterfly
(3) Male human and female Drosophila (4) Female birds
Sol. Answer (4)
A+ X
AA + XW 
A+ W
Two type of eggs are produced by + bird because it is heterogametic.
17. Individuals having homomorphic sex chromosomes produce

(1) Only one gamete in complete life span (2) One type of gametes
(3) No gametes (4) Two type of gametes
Sol. Answer (2)
AA + XX  A + X
Produce only one type of gamete.
18. Which of the following phenomena leads to variation in DNA?

(1) Linkage, mutation (2) Recombination, linkage
(3) Mutation, recombination (4) Aneuploidy, linkage
Sol. Answer (3)

Mutation  Sudden change in genetic Material
Recombination  Non-parental combination
19. Absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes results in

(1) Point mutation (2) Chromosomal disorders
(3) Mendelian disorders (4) Gene mutation
Sol. Answer (2)
Trisomy or Monosomic condition.
(Genetic Disorders)
20. Sickle cell-anaemia disorder arises due to

(1) Duplication of a segment of DNA (2) Substitution in a single base of DNA
(3) Deletion of a segment of DNA (4) Duplication in a base pair of RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
3 5 T A
Substitution of Glutamine CTC CAC
5
GAG 3
GUG  Valine
21. In pedigree analysis, symbol given for sex unspecified is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol. Answer (1)
22. Cystic fibrosis, Myotonic dystrophy and Thalassemia are

(1) Chromosomal disorders (2) Autosomal recessive disorders
(3) Mendelian disorders (4) Autosomal dominant disorders
Sol. Answer (3)
Mendelian disorder because their inheritance follow Mendelion Inheritance.
23. Which of the following trait shows transmission from carrier female to male progeny?
(1) Autosomal dominant (2) X-linked recessive (3) Y-linked recessive (4) X-linked dominant
Sol. Answer (2)
1 X linked Recessive gene
XC X × X Y
XC Y XY
24. Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism that is inherited as

(1) Autosomal recessive trait (2) Sex-linked dominant trait
(3) X-linked recessive trait (4) Autosomal dominant trait
Sol. Answer (1)
Genes located on chromosome  12
25. Which of the following abnormalities is due to autosomal dominant mutation?
(1) Colour blindness (2) Thalassemia (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Haemophilia
Sol. Answer (3)
26. Mark the odd one w.r.t. syndrome which occur due to failure of segregation of homologous pair of chromosomes
during cell division cycle.
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (2) Down's syndrome (3) Turner's syndrome (4) Thalassemia
Sol. Answer (4)
Thalassemia is autosomal recessive disease.
27. Which of the disorder is related with the Karyotype given below?
(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Down's syndrome

(3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Cystic fibrosis
Sol. Answer (2)
21-Trisomy
28. Mark the correct match

(1) Turner's syndrome - 45 + XO (2) Phenylketonuria - 44 + XYY
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome - 44 + XXY (4) Thalassemia - 44 + YO
Sol. Answer (3)
Trisomy of X chromosome  44 + XXY
29. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarted in an individual affected with
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Sickle cell-anaemia
(3) Turner's syndrome (4) Colour blindness
Sol. Answer (1)
Trisomy of 21 chromosome
30. In which of the following disorder's affected individual's possess 47 chromosomes?

(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Down's syndrome (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
X Chromosome  Klinefelter Syndrome  2n + 1  47
21 Chromosome  Down's Syndrome  2n + 1  47
31. The affected individuals are short statured in disorders like

(1) Turner's syndrome, phenylketonuria (2) Down's syndrome, Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome, Down's syndrome (4) Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome
Sol. Answer (2)
32. In which of the following disorder gynaecomastia symptom is seen in individuals?

(1) Down's syndrome (2) Turner's syndrome (3) Klinefelter's syndrome (4) Phenylketonuria
Sol. Answer (3)
Development of breast in males.
33. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. monosomy)

(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (2) Down's syndrome (3) Turner's syndrome (4) Haemophilia
Sol. Answer (3)
34. Allosomic trisomy condition is seen in

(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Down's syndrome (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
2n + 1  Trisomy of × Chromosome
35. Which of the following disorder is seen in human female only?

(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Down's syndrome
(3) Haemophilia (4) Klinefelter's syndrome
Sol. Answer (1)
2n – 1  Monosomic of X Chromosome
SECTION - B
(Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance, Inheritance of One Gene, Inheritance of Two Genes)
1. When a pink flowered Antirrhinum plant is test crossed, then phenotypic ratio in resulting progenies is
(1) 1 Red : 1 White (2) 3 Red : 1 White (3) 2 Pink : 1 White (4) 1 Pink : 1 White
Sol. Answer (4)
RR rr Rr
Red White Pink
Rr × Rr
RR : Rr : rr
1 : 2 : 1
Red : Pink : White
2. Heterozygous tall and violet flowered pea plants were selfed and total 512 seeds are collected. What will be
total number of seeds for both heterozygous traits?
(1) 128 (2) 256 (3) 384 (4) 64
Sol. Answer (1)
Number of individual  512
4
 TtRr ⇒
16
4
512   128
16
3. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross)
(1) Frequency of TtRR genotype = 12.5% (2) Frequency of ttrr genotype = 6.25%
(3) Frequency of TTRR genotype = 6.25% (4) Frequency of ttRr genotype = 25%
Sol. Answer (4)
2 1
ttRr    12.5%
16 8
4. Find out the frequency of AabbCcDdee if parents are AabbCCddEe and AabbccDdee
(1) 0.78% (2) 12.5% (3) 25% (4) 50%
Sol. Answer (2)
AabbCCddEe × AabbCcDdee

AabbCcDdee
2 2 2 8
    12.5
4 4 4 64
5. In incomplete dominance
(1) Dominant trait is completely expressed in F1 generation
(2) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are different
(3) Two dominant alleles are needed to express the complete dominant trait
(4) F1 individuals have the equal traits of both parents
Sol. Answer (3)
6. Progeny with blood group ‘O’ can not be obtained in cross

(1) A×A (2) A×B (3) O×AB (4) B×B
Sol. Answer (3)
O × AB
ii IAIB
IAi, IBi  So no O blood group
7. Which of the following parental combination has produced mutant offspring?

(1) Tt × tt = Tt (2) tt × tt = Tt (3) Tt × Tt = tt (4) TT × tt =Tt
Sol. Answer (2)
tt × tt = Tt
8. Which of the following combination seems to have some linkage in character selected by Mendel?
(1) Stem height and pod colour (2) Flower colour and flower position
(3) Seed shape and seed colour (4) Plant height and pod shape
Sol. Answer (4)
Plant Height and Pod shape
9. A diploid organism is heterozygous for five loci and homozygous for 2 loci, how many types of gametes can
be produced?
(1) 128 (2) 32 (3) 4 (4) 14
Sol. Answer (2)

AaBbCcDdEe FFGG
5 Heterozygous Homozygous
2n ⇒25 ⇒3
10. Lesch Nyhan disease is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes neurological damage in human beings. A
survey of 500 mates from a caucasion population revealed that 20 were effected with this disorder. What is
the frequency of the normal allele in this population?
(1) 9.6 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.096 (4) 96
Sol. Answer (2)
20 1
q2 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 0.2
500 25
q = 0.2
p+q=1
p = 0.8
11. How many types of zygotic combinations are possible between a cross Aa BB Cc Dd × AA bb Cc DD?
(1) 32 (2) 128 (3) 64 (4) 16
Sol. Answer (4)
Aa BB Cc Dd × AA bb Cc DD
Number of gametes
2n  23
 8 × 2 = 16
12. In F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross (TTRR × ttrr)

(1) Tall plants and violet flowered plants are obtained in 1 : 1 frequency
(2) Ratio of parental and non-parental plants is 1 : 15
(3) Recombinant plants are obtained in 1 : 1 frequency
(4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
(Two Genes Interaction w.r.t. Post-Mendelism, Sex Determination, Mutation)
13. Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their
F1 progeny. He observed that
(a) F2 ratio was deviated very significantly from the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
(b) Both genes did not segregate independently of each other
(c) Recombinant types are not obtained in F2 generation
(d) Both genes segregate independently of each other
Select the correct set of statements :
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only (3) (b) & (d) only (4) (c) & (d) only
Sol. Answer (1)
y+ y
w+ w
Brown body and red eye are linked gene so F2 ratio deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
14. ___(A)___ used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the ___(B)___ as a measure of the
distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome.
(A) (B)
(1) Morgan Same chromosome
(2) Sturtevant Different chromosomes
(3) Morgan Different chromosomes
(4) Sturtevant Same chromosome
Sol. Answer (4)
15. While solving the problem of sex determination in large number of insects, it was observed that
(1) All eggs lack sex chromosome
(2) Some of the sperms bear the X-chromosome
(3) All eggs as well as sperms bear the X-chromosome
(4) Some of the eggs bear the X-chromosome
Sol. Answer (2)
Insects  XX  + A+X
XO  A+X A+O
16. Loss or gain of a segment of DNA results in

(1) Frame-shift muation (2) Point mutation
(3) Polyploidy (4) Chromosomal aberration
Sol. Answer (4)
17. Which one of the following is a physical factor that induce mutation?
(1) Acridines (2) HNO2 (3) UV-rays (4) Base analogue
Sol. Answer (3)
UV-rays and Non-ionised radiation.
18. The chromosome maps are not accurate maps because

(1) Crossing over frequency is higher than recombination frequency
(2) One crossing over interferes and increases the frequency of nearby crossing over
(3) Crossing over frequency decreases towards the ends of chromosome
(4) Heterochromation increases crossing over
Sol. Answer (1)
19. If a agouti mice (CcAa) is crossed with albino mice (ccAA), then how many albino mice are produced in
resulting progeny?
(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 2 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (3)
CcAa × ccAA
Agouti Albino
CA Ca cA ca
cA CcAA CcAa ccAA ccAa
Agouti Agouti Albino Alibino
20. Epistasis and dominance are respectively

(1) Intragenic, Intergenic (2) Non-allelic, Extra-allelic
(3) Non-allelic, Interallelic (4) Intergenic, Non-allelic
Sol. Answer (3)
21. In a complimentary gene interaction calculate the number of phenotype and genotype produced in a cross AaBb
× aaBB
(1) 1 phenotype, 2genotypes (2) 2 phenotypes, 4 genotypes
(3) 4 phenotypes, 4 genotypes (4) 2 phenotypes, 2 genotypes
Sol. Answer (2)
AB Ab aB ab
aB AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb
1 1 1 1 Genotype
Phenotype Phenotype
22. How many types of gametes will be produced by a O Drosophila having following arrangement of
two genes (y+ and w+) on X-chromosome?
+
y
w+
X Y
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 8
Sol. Answer (1)
y+
w+
X Y
23. If interference is complete or cent percent then the frequency of observed double crossover will be
(1) Equal to expected frequency (2) Greater than expected frequency
(3) Lesser than expected frequency (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (4)
(Genetic Disorders)
24. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded symbols indicate dominant or recessive allele.
(1) Recessive (2) Codominant

(3) Dominant (4) It can be recessive or dominant both
Sol. Answer (4)
If propositus  is Aa
Then it will be dominant pedigree
If  is aa  then it will be recessive pedigree.
25. In which of the following disorder a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in blood
clotting is affected?
(1) Thalassemia (2) Sickle-cell anaemia (3) Haemophilia (4) Phenylketonuria
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemophilia A  Blood clot factor VIIIth is absent
Haemophilia B  Blood clot factor IXth is absent
26. Mark the correct statement (w.r.t. sickle cell-anaemia)

(1) Homozygous individuals for HbS are apparently unaffected
(2) Heterozygous individuals exhibit sickle-cell trait
(3) Heterozygous individuals are affected as well as carrier
(4) Homozygous individuals for HbA show the diseased phenotype
Sol. Answer (2)
HbA HbS  Sicklecell trait
27. The defect sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the ______ of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of the
______ globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
(1) Substitution,  (2) Deletion,  (3) Duplication,  (4) Translocation, 
Sol. Answer (1)

Substitution of Pyrimidine
Purine
DNA  CTC  CAG
RNA  GAG  GUG
AA  Glutanic  Valine
acid
28. A Y-linked gene is responsible for hypertrichosis (long hair on ears). When an affected man marries a normal
woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?
(1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 100%
Sol. Answer (2)
Daughter will not receive Y chromosome from father.
29. A normal woman, whose father had colour blindness, married a normal man. What is the chance of occurrence
of colour blindness in the progeny?
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 75%
Sol. Answer (1)
XXC × XY
X XC
C
X XX XX
C
Y XY X Y
25% of progeny will be colour blind.
30. Mr. Stevan is suffering from haemophilia and cystic fibrosis. His father is hetrozygous for cystic fibrosis. The
probability of Stevan's sperm having recessive X-linked as well as autosomal allele is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 16 2 8
Sol. Answer (3)

AhAC Xh Y 
1
AC Xh 
2
1
AC Y 
2
31. Select incorrect one (w.r.t. reciprocal cross)

(1) To know whether the alleles are present on sex chromosomes or autosomes
(2) It is made to eliminate the effect of nuclear traits
(3) Two individuals with contrast genotypes are involved
(4) Results are not changed for autosomal traits
Sol. Answer (2)
32. In Lathyrus odoratus, hybrid blue flowered and long pollen plant is test crossed with homozygous recessive
red flowered and round pollen plant then how many parental types are obtained when genes are present in
cis stage in parents?
(1) 50% (2) 43.7% (3) 87.4% (4) 12.6%
Sol. Answer (3)
BbLl × bb ll
BL Bl bL Bl
bl BbLl Bbll bbLl bbll
7 1 1 7
14
  100  87.4%
16
33. Match the following - (w.r.t. Pedigree analysis)

Column - I Column - II
a. Solid symbol (i) Carrier of sex linked trait
b. Horizontal line (ii) Offspring
between symbols
c. Horizontal line (iii) Trait to be studied
above the symbols
d. Dot in centre (iv) Parents
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Sol. Answer (3)
34. Select incorrect statement
(A) Linked genes cause absolute lethality
(B) Persons affected by PKU do not show mental disorder
(C) F2 ratio in codominance and incomplete dominance are same
(D) Sex of male Drosophila is dependent on Y-chromosome
(1) (A) & (B) (2) (B) & (C) (3) (A), (B) & (D) (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
35. In phenylketonuria
(1) Break down of phenylalanine is rapid
(2) Accumulation of phenylalanine in body
(3) Chromosomal constitution of patient changes
(4) TSD gene situated on chromosome 15 undergoes mutation
Sol. Answer (2)
Phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme is absent.
SECTION - C
1. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans? [NEET-2018]
a. Dominance b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c (3) a, c and e (4) b, d and e
Sol. Answer (2)
 IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive relationship
 IAIB - Codominance
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic forms of a gene (multiple allelism)
2. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? [NEET-2018]
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(4) XO type sex determination : Grasshopper
Sol. Answer (1)
Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by pleiotropic gene.
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly matched.
3. Select the correct statement [NEET-2018]
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Sol. Answer (2)
Punnett square was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.

– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative mode of replication.
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder and Laderberg.
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
4. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is [NEET-2017]
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome (4) Sickle cell anemia
Sol. Answer (1)
Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of 21st chromosome.
5. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the
correct statement. [NEET-2017]
(1) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(2) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(3) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(4) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
Sol. Answer (3)
Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising too
few globin molecules while the latter is a qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin.
6. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments? [NEET-2017]
(1) 1856 - 1863 (2) 1840 - 1850
(3) 1857 - 1869 (4) 1870 - 1877
Sol. Answer (1)
Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data was
published in 1865 (according to NCERT).
7. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible? [NEET-2017]
(1) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes (2) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes (4) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
Sol. Answer (3)
Husband
AB
 Wife
A
I I I i
A
+ I IB
IA IAIA IAIB
A B
i Ii Ii
Number of genotypes = 4
Number of phenotypes = 3
IAIA and IAi = A
IAIB = AB
IBi = B
8. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
[NEET-2017]
(1) Stem – Tall or Dwarf (2) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
(3) Seed – Green or Yellow (4) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
Sol. Answer (2)
During his experiments Mendel studied seven characters.
Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular was not considered by Mendel.
9. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Inversion (2) Duplication (3) Translocation (4) Crossing-over
Sol. Answer (3)
Translocation is a phenomenon of transfer of a gene segment between non-homologus chromosome, i.e.,
different linkage group.
10. A true breeding plant is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) One that is able to breed on its own
(2) Produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants
(3) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind
(4) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution
Sol. Answer (3)
True breeding line is one that, having undergone continuous self pollination, shows the stable trait inheritance
and expression for several generations. It is both homozygous recessive as well as dominant in genetic
constitution.
11. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son
being colour-blind is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) 0 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.75 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (1)
Colourblindness is X-linked recessive disease and shows criss-cross inheritance.
12. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type
offspring. This indicates [NEET-2016]
(1) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
(2) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
(3) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
(4) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
Sol. Answer (4)
When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene
combinations are much higher than the non-parental or recombinant type.
13. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia? [NEET-2016]
(1) Dominant gene disorder (2) Recessive gene disorder
(3) X-linked recessive gene disorder (4) Chromosomal disorder
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemophilia is X-linked recessive gene disorder. It is a blood clotting disorder and shows criss-cross inheritance.
Father Mother
Son Daughter
14. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1
plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of [NEET-2016]
(1) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
Sol. Answer (2)
Parents - TT × tt
(Tall) (Dwarf)
F1 generation Tt (Heterozygous tall)
On selfing
Pollen  T t
egg
T TT Tt
(Tall) (Tall)
F2 generation
Tt tt
t (Tall) (dwarf)
Phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1 [Tall : Dwarf]

Genotypic ratio 
1 : 2 : 1 [Homozygous tall : Heterozygous tall : Dwarf]
15. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option [NEET-2016]
Column I Column II
(a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character
(b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
(d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Sol. Answer (3)
Dominance - Expression of only one allele in heterozygous organism.
Codominance - Side by side full expression of both alleles. F1 resembles both parents.
Pleiotropy - Single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expression e.g., Phenyl ketonuria.
Polygenic inheritance - Many genes govern a single character e.g., Human skin colour.
16. Pick out the correct statements : [NEET-2016]
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (b) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
Sol. Answer (1)
Sickle cell anaemia is autosomal recessive gene disorder.
17. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour blindness in her family.
What is the probability of their grandson being colour blind? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
(3) 1 (4) Nil
Sol. Answer (2)
Father (Colourblind)
Daughter (Carrier)
Grandson [50% Probability (0.5)]

18. The term "Linkage" was coined by [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) W. Sutton (2) T.H. Morgan (3) T. Boveri (4) G. Mendel
Sol. Answer (2)
The term "linkage" was coined by T.H. Morgan.
19. A pleiotropic gene : [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Controls multiple traits in an individual (2) Is expressed only in primitive plants
(3) Is gene evolved during Pliocene (4) Controls a trait only in combination with another gene
Sol. Answer (1)
The gene which controls multiple traits in an individual.
20. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Flower position (2) Seed colour (3) Pod length (4) Seed shape
Sol. Answer (3)
Mendel did not selected Pod length as a character for study
21. A gene showing codominance has [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote.
(2) One allele dominant on the other
(3) Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(4) Alleles that are recessive to each other
Sol. Answer (1)
Both alleles are independently expressed in heterozygote during codominance.
22. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given
pedigree.
I
II
III
IV
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) X-linked dominant (2) Autosomal dominant (3) X-linked recessive (4) Autosomal recessive
Sol. Answer (4)

The given pedigree represents inheritance of Autosomal recessive trait.
I Aa aa
II aa Aa Aa Aa aa Aa
III Aa Aa Aa Aa aa Aa Aa
IV aa aa Aa
23. Alleles are [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Heterozygotes (2) Different phenotype
(3) True breeding homozygotes (4) Different molecular forms of a gene
Sol. Answer (4)
Alleles are slightly different molecular forms of the same gene.
24. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Crossing over (2) Inversion
(3) Duplication (4) Translocation
Sol. Answer (4)
Translocation is illegitimate crossing over between non-homologous chromosome.
25. Multiple alleles are present [AIPMT-2015]
(1) On non-sister chromatids (2) On different chromosomes
(3) At different loci on the same chromosome (4) At the same locus of the chromosome
Sol. Answer (4)
All alleles of a gene are located on the same loci of chromosome in population.
26. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex chromosomes was born due to [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Fusion of two sperm and one ovum (2) Formation of abnormal sperms in the father
(3) Formation of abnormal ova in the mother (4) Fusion of two ova and one sperm
Sol. Answer (3)
Due to non-disjunction of X-chromosomes in mother
A + XX (egg) × A + X (sperm)
27. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?
[AIPMT-2015]
(1) Seven (2) Five (3) Six (4) Eight
Sol. Answer (1)
7 pairs of contrasting characters in pea plant were studied by Mendel in his experiment.
28. Fruit colour in squash is an example of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis
(3) Complementary genes (4) Inhibitory genes
Sol. Answer (2)
Dominant epistasis is the phenomenon of masking or supressing the expression of a gene by a dominant non-
allelic gene.
e.g., fruit colour in Cucurbita pepo (Summer squash)
29. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What
percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75%
Sol. Answer (3)
X+Y X X+ Xc
X+ Y X+ Xc
X+Xc X+Xc X+Y XcY
 Colourblind male = 50%
30. A human female with Turner's syndrome: [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Has 45 chromosomes with XO (2) Has one additional X chromosome
(3) Exhibits male characters (4) Is able to produce children with normal husband
Sol. Answer (1)
Turner's syndrome is caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosomes i.e., 45 with XO
(or 44 + XO).
31. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based
on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7
Sol. Answer (3)
According to Hardy Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1
(AA) p2 = 360 out of 1000 individual or p2 = 36 out of 100
q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of 100
so q = .16 = .4. As p + q = 1
so, p is 0.6.
32. If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances
of pregnancy resulting in an affected child? [NEET-2013]
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 100% (4) No chance
Sol. Answer (2)
ATA × ATA
AA : AAT : ATAT
1 : 2 :1
25%
33. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is [NEET-2013]

(1) It is a recessive disease
(2) It is a dominant disease
(3) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(4) It is a sex-linked disease
Sol. Answer (2)
34. If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could
be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of
protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals. This
is an example of [NEET-2013]
(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Partial dominance (3) Complete dominance (4) Codominance
Sol. Answer (4)
Both IA and IB give its expression.
35. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Law of dominance (2) Inheritance of one gene
(3) Co-dominance (4) Incomplete dominance
Sol. Answer (3)
36. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination fequency ?
[NEET-2013]
(1) The genes are tightly linked
(2) The genes show independent assortment
(3) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every
meiosis
(4) The genes may be on different chromosomes
Sol. Answer (1)
37. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1.
It represents a case of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance (2) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance (4) Dihybrid cross
Sol. Answer (2)
38. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour blind.
They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) Zero percent
Sol. Answer (4)
C
XY X X X
C
Gametes : X Y X X
X Y
C C C
X XX X Y
X XX XY
100% daughter = Normal but 50% carrier
50% son – Colourblind
50% son – Normal
39. A test cross is carried out to [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
(2) Predict whether two traits are linked
(3) Asses the number of alleles of a gene
(4) Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
Sol. Answer (1)
TT × tt
Cross with
recessive parent
Tt
40. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following
conditions could be an example of this pattern? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
Female Male
Mother Father
Daughter Son
(1) Phenylketonuria (2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Haemophilia (4) Thalassemia
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemophilia is sex linked character.
41. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations
(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
(3) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation
Sol. Answer (4)
Point mutation can cause mutation.
42. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given
example? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
(2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds.
(3) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(4) XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determine female sex
Sol. Answer (3)
AA – XO – A+ X
A+ O
43. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior of both its
parents. This phenomenon is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Heterosis
(3) Transformation (4) Splicing
Sol. Answer (2)
44. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) The F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(2) Between two genotypes with dominant trait
(3) Between two genotypes with recessive trait
(4) Between two F1 hybrids
Sol. Answer (1)
45. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA, IB and i. Since there are
three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Four (4) Two
Sol. Answer (3)
46. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
(1) Factors occur in pairs
(2) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(3) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
(4) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
Sol. Answer (4)
47. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Back cross (2) Test cross
(3) Dihybrid cross (4) Pedigree analysis
Sol. Answer (2)
48. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
(1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
(3) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(4) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
Sol. Answer (1)
Tightly linked gene will show less recombination.
49. A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with the recessive parent in order
to know its genotype is called [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Back cross (3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid ross
Sol. Answer (3)
50. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn
for the character [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) The female parent is heterozygous

(2) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
(3) The trait under study could not be colourblindness
(4) The male parent is homozygous dominant
Sol. Answer (1)
Aa aa
Aa aa Aa aa
51. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show co-dominance. There are six
genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
Sol. Answer (3)
52. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal
theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because: [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(2) A single mating produces two young flies
(3) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male
(4) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
Sol. Answer (4)
53. In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers
in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for
hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and white by rr genes. [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) rrrr (2) RR (3) Rr (4) rr
Sol. Answer (3)
Antirrhinum majus
RR × rr
F1 Rr
RR : Rr : rr
F2 1: 2 : 1
54. Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct?
(1) = male affected (2) = mating between relatives
(3) = unaffected male (4) = unaffected female

Sol. Answer (2)
55. Point mutation involves [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Deletion (2) Insertion
(3) Change in single base pair (4) Duplication
Sol. Answer (3)
Sickele cell anaemeia
56. Study the pedigree chart given below:
What does it show? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(2) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(3) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
(4) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
Sol. Answer (1)

Aa Aa
A– A–
aa Aa Aa aa
aa A–
57. Select the incorrect statement from the following: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
(2) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
(3) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
(4) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
Sol. Answer (3)
Baldness is sex influenced character.
58. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(2) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(3) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
(4) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
Sol. Answer (1)
59. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/
linkage? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(2) Klinefelter syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY
(3) Colour blindness - Y-linked
(4) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
Sol. Answer (2)
60. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) n = 21 and x = 7 (2) n = 7 and x = 21
(3) n = 21 and x = 21 (4) n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. Answer (1)
n=7
6n = 42
n = 21
x  7 (Monoploid)
61. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Codominance (2) Chromosomal aberration
(3) Point mutation (4) Polygenic inheritance
Sol. Answer (4)
62. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
(2) Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
(3) Crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
(4) Studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
Sol. Answer (1)
Tt × tt or +
63. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and
rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Higher number of the parental types (2) Higher number of the recombinant types
(3) Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio (4) Segregation in 3:1 ratio
Sol. Answer (1)
64. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a
green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 50 : 50 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
Sol. Answer (2)
Yy × yy
Yy : yy
50 50
65. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in
equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) AABB (2) AaBb (3) AaBB (4) AABb
Sol. Answer (2)
AaBb
AB, Ab, aB, ab
66. Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?
(1) Moist bread (2) Agar agar (3) Ripe banana (4) Cow dung
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytoplasmic or mitochondrial inheritance is from mother side.
67. Phenotype of an organism is the result of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Mutations and linkages
(2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(3) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(4) Genotype and environment interactions
Sol. Answer (4)
68. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offspring ?
(1) Autosomal (2) Cytoplasmic (3) Y-linked (4) X-linked
Sol. Answer (2)
69. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Nine (4) Two
Sol. Answer (4)
AAB bCC
2n 21 2
70. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa (2) Production of male honey bee
(3) Pod shape in garden pea (4) Skin colour in humans
Sol. Answer (4)
71. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow
cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation
of the cross RRYY x rryy? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
(2) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(3) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(4) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
Sol. Answer (4)
RRYY × rryy
RY ry
RrYy
Y  Round yellow
R
y  Round green
Y
r Wrinkled
Y
72. Test cross involves [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
(2) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
(3) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(4) Crossing bet
Sol. Answer (3)
73. If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) All normal visioned (2) One-half colourblind and one-half normal
(3) Three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal (4) All colourblind
Sol. Answer (4)
74. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
Sol. Answer (2)
75. A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children
(2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters are
affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
(1) Autosomal dominant (2) Sex-linked dominant (3) Sex-limited recessive (4) Sex-linked recessive
Sol. Answer (4)
XXc × XY
XCY or XX
Sex linked recessive
76. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.48 (3) 0.36 (4) 0.24
Sol. Answer (2)
77. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colourblind man. Suppose that the
fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Must have normal colour vision
(2) Will be partially colourblind since he is heterozygous for the colourblind mutant allele
(3) Must be colourblind
(4) May be colourblind or may be of normal vision
Sol. Answer (4)
XXC X XCY
XCY or XX
78. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because
(1) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
(2) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(3) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(4) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
Sol. Answer (3)
79. A woman with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by
(1) Down syndrome (2) Triploidy (3) Turner syndrome (4) Super femaleness
Sol. Answer (1)
2n + 1  21 chromosome
80. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should
be crossed to a plant with the genotype [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) aaBB (2) AaBb (3) AABB (4) aabb
Sol. Answer (4)
AaBb × aabb
Dihybrid test cross
81. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Cretinism (2) Cystic fibrosis (3) Thalassaemia (4) Haemophilia
Sol. Answer (1)
82. The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae, are useful in gene mapping because
(1) These are much longer in size (2) These are easy to stain
(3) These are fused (4) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
Sol. Answer (4)
83. Genetic variation in a population arises due to

(1) Mutations only (2) Recombination only
(3) Mutations as well as recombination (4) Reproductive isolation and selection
Sol. Answer (3)
84. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?
(1) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
(2) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
(3) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
(4) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
Sol. Answer (2)
It is used to study inheritance of character.
85. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-
determination in humans
(1) Due to some defect in the women
(2) Due to some defect like aspermia in man
(3) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
(4) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
Sol. Answer (3)
Next generation sex is determined by male.
86. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to

(1) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes (2) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
(3) Three copies of chromosome 21 (4) Monosomy
Sol. Answer (3)
2n + 1  21 Chromosome
87. The variation/difference in the offsprings of a species from their parents constitutes an important component
of
(1) Genetics (2) Speciation (3) Species fixation (4) Heredity
Sol. Answer (1)
88. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the
flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will
be
(1) Both homozygous (2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(3) Both heterozygous (4) Both hemizygous
Sol. Answer (3)
Rr × Rr
RR : Rr : rr
Red Red White
89. Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Totipotency
(3) Quantitative genetics (4) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
Sol. Answer (4)
90. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, the phenotypic ratio of
the offsprings was observed as
1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1
What is the possible value of x?
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 25
Sol. Answer (3)
Polygenic inheritance – 3 genes
1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1
91. The chromosome constitution 2n – 2 of an organism represents

(1) Monosomic (2) Nullisomic (3) Haploid (4) Trisomic
Sol. Answer (2)
Nullisomic  2n – 2
92. Mendel's principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
(1) One pair of alleles (2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles (4) Any pair of alleles
Sol. Answer (3)
93. Absence of one sex chromosome causes

(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Down's syndrome (4) Tay-Sach's syndrome
Sol. Answer (1)
AA – XO
Absence of X chromosome.
94. Chimera is produced due to

(1) Somatic mutations (2) Reverse Mutations
(3) Lethal mutations (4) Pleiotropic mutations
Sol. Answer (1)
Mutation in different tissue.
95. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because
(1) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(2) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(3) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
(4) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
Sol. Answer (1)
96. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/
linkage?
(1) Down’s syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome – 44 autosomes + XXY

(3) Colour blindness – Y-linked (4) Erythroblastosis foetalis – X-linked
Sol. Answer (2)
Trisomy of X-Chromosome
AA + X X Y
97. The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Y-chromosome, are
(1) Autosomal genes (2) Holandric genes
(3) Completely sex-linked genes (4) Mutant genes
Sol. Answer (2)
98. The colour blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females because
(1) The Y-chromosome of males have the genes for distinguishing colours
(2) Genes for characters are located on the X-chromosomes
(3) The trait is dominant in males and recessive in females
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
X Linked character and carry one X

So it will give its expression.
99. Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of the enzyme
(1) Tyrosinase (2) Xanthine oxidase (3) Catalase (4) Fructokinase
Sol. Answer (1)
Loss of pigment caused by Tyrosinase.
100. An abnormal human male phenotype involving an extra Y-chromosome (XYY) is a case of
(1) Edward’s syndrome (2) Jacob syndrome (3) Intersex (4) Down’s syndrome
Sol. Answer (2)
Trisomy of Y-Chromosome
101. The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known
as
(1) Epistasis (2) Dominance
(3) Suppression (4) Inactivation
Sol. Answer (1)
102. Barr body in mammals represents

(1) All the heterochromatin in male and female cells
(2) The Y-chromosome in somatic cells of male
(3) All the heterochromatin in female cells
(4) One of the two X-chromosomes in somatic cells of females
Sol. Answer (4)
One of X-chromosome change into heterochromatin in + .
103. When two dominant independently assorting genes react with each other producing effect jointly they are called
(1) Collaborative genes (2) Complementary genes
(3) Duplicate genes (4) Supplementary genes
Sol. Answer (2)
Both gene complement each other to give new expression.
104. A genetically diseased father (male) marries with a normal female and gives birth to 3 carrier girls and 5 normal
sons. It may be which type of genetical disease?
(1) Sex-influenced disease (2) Blood group inheritance disease
(3) Sex-linked disease (4) Sex-limited disease
Sol. Answer (3)
XDY × XY
5 Normal son (XY), 3(XXD) carrier daughter
105. A person whose father is colour blind marries a lady whose mother is daughter of a colour blind man. Their
children will be
(1) All sons colour blind
(2) Some sons normal and some daughters colour blind
(3) All sons and daughters colour blind
(4) All daughter normal
Sol. Answer (4)
C
XY × XX / X X
All normal daughter
106. In which of the following disease, the individual has one less X-chromosome?
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Bleeder’s disease (4) Down’s syndrome
Sol. Answer (1)
AA – XO (2n – 1) Monosomic
107. H.J. Muller had received Nobel Prize for
(1) His studies on Drosophila for genetic study
(2) Proving that the DNA is a genetic material
(3) Discovering the linkage of genes
(4) Discovering the induced mutations by X-rays
Sol. Answer (4)
108. The polygenic genes show
(1) Different karyotypes (2) Different genotypes (3) Different phenotypes (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Skin shade of human being.
109. Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for
(1) Chiasmata (2) Kinetochore
(3) Barr bodies (4) Autosomes
Sol. Answer (3)
+ contain  1 barr body

contain  0 barr body
110. A fruit fly is hemizygous for sex-linked genes, mated with normal female fruit fly, the males specific chromosome
will enter egg cell in the proportion
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 7 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
Sol. Answer (3)
XAY × XX
XAX × XY
1:1
111. Genetic identity of a human male is determined by
(1) Sex-chromosome (2) Cell organelles (3) Autosome (4) Nucleolous
Sol. Answer (1)
Y-Chromosome
112. Different forms of a gene located at the same locus of chromosomes are called
(1) Multiple alleles (2) Polygenes (3) Oncogenes (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
They are mutated genes occupy same gene locus on homologous chromosome.
113. After crossing two plants, the progenies are found to be male sterile. This phenomenon is found to be maternally
inherited and is due to some genes which reside in
(1) Mitochondria (2) Cytoplasm (3) Nucleus (4) Chloroplast
Sol. Answer (1)
114. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal skin
pigmentation was an albino. What is the probability that their second child will also be an albino?
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 25%
Sol. Answer (4)
a a
AA × AA
AA : AAa : AaAa
1 2 1
25%
115. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the
genotype AABbCc?
(1) Six (2) Nine (3) Two (4) Four
Sol. Answer (4)
AA Bb Cc
3n  32  9
116. When a single gene influences more than one traits it is called
(1) Pseudodominance (2) Pleiotropic (3) Epistasis (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Sickle cell anemia
117. Mental retardation in man, associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(1) Moderate increase in Y complement (2) Large increase in Y complement
(3) Reduction in X complement (4) Increase in X complement
Sol. Answer (4)
Increase in X complement
118. Loss of a X-chromosome in a particular cell, during its development, results into
(1) Gynandromorphs (2) Meta female (3) Triploid individual (4) Myotonic dystrophy
Sol. Answer (1)
Which contain both and + character.
119. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would
his interpretation have been different?
(1) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(2) He would have discovered sex linkage
(3) He could have mapped the chromosome
(4) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
Sol. Answer (1)
120. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the ‘X’ chromosomes
marries a normal man. How will the progeny be?
(1) 50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
(2) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour blind daughters
(3) All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour-blind
(4) Haemophilic and colour-blind daughters
Sol. Answer (1)
XhXC
121. In human beings, multiple genes are involved in the inheritance of
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Skin colour (3) Colour blindness (4) Phenylketonuria
Sol. Answer (2)
Polygenic inheritance
122. Haemophilic man marries a normal woman. Their offsprings will be
(1) All haemophilic (2) All boys haemophilic (3) All girls haemophilic (4) All normal
Sol. Answer (4)
XhY × XX
All normal
123. A marriage between normal visioned man and colour blind woman will produce offspring
(1) Colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughters (2) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(3) Normal males and carrier daughters (4) Colour blind sons and carrier daughters
Sol. Answer (4)
XY × XCXC
XCY XCX
124. In hybridization, Tt × tt gives rise to the progeny in the ratio
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
Sol. Answer (3)
Tt × tt
Tt : tt
1:1
125. According to Mendelism, which character shows dominance?
(1) Terminal position of flower (2) Green colour in seed coat
(3) Wrinkled seeds (4) Green pod colour
Sol. Answer (4)
126. Due to the cross between TTRr × ttrr the resultant progenies show what percent of tall, red flowered plants?
(1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) 25% (4) 100%
Sol. Answer (1)
TTRrr × ttrr
TR Tr × br
TR Tr
tr TtRr ttrr
1 1
127. In Drosophila, the XXY condition leads to femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to
Klienfelter’s syndrome in male. It proves
(1) In human beings, Y chromosome is active in sex determination
(2) Y chromosome is active in sex determination in both human beings and Drosophila
(3) In Drosophila, Y chromosome decides femaleness
(4) Y chromosome of man has genes for syndrome
Sol. Answer (1)
128. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when
(1) Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(2) Genes are linked and located on same chromosome
(3) Genes are located on non-homogenous chromosomes
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
129. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due to which
enzyme?
(1) Amylase (2) Invertase
(3) Diastase (4) Absence of starch branching enzyme
Sol. Answer (4)
130. Ratio of complementary genes is

(1) 9 : 3 : 4 (2) 12 : 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (4) 9 : 7
Sol. Answer (4)
9:7
131. When both parental alleles are expressed together, it is called

(1) Co-dominance (2) Dominance (3) Incomplete dominance (4) Pseudodominance
Sol. Answer (1)
132. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?
(1) AAbb and aabb (2) AaBb and aabb (3) AABB and aabb (4) aaBB × Aabb
Sol. Answer (2)
A a a a
B b × b b
A a
B b
a A a a a
b B b b b
1 : 1
133. Probability of four sons to a couple is

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/8 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/32
Sol. Answer (3)
1 1 1 1 1
   ⇒
2 2 2 2 16
134. If recombination frequency between AB genes is 20% and BC gene is 40% and interference is 30% in the
case of double cross over then what will be coincidance under this condition?
(1) 2.4 (2) 8 (3) 5.6 (4) 0.7
Sol. Answer (4)
C+I=1
0.3 + 0.7 = 1
135. Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to

(1) Deletion (2) Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosome
(3) Aneuploidy (4) Hormonal imbalance
Sol. Answer (2)
136. Number of Barr body in XXXX female is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (3)
XXXX
Number of X-chromosome – 1
4 – 1 3
137. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) Killer Paramecium (2) Killer Amoeba (3) Euglena (4) Hydra
Sol. Answer (1)
138. Which of the following is correct match?
(1) Down’s syndrome - 21st chromosome (2) Sickle cell anaemia – X-chromosome
(3) Haemophilia – Y-chromosome (4) Parkinson’s disease – X & Y chromosome
Sol. Answer (1)
139. How many genome types are present in a typical green plants cell?
(1) More than five (2) More than ten (3) Two (4) Three
Sol. Answer (3)
2n
140. Which of the following is an example of sex linked disease?
(1) AIDS (2) Colour blindness (3) Syphilis (4) Gonorrhoea
Sol. Answer (2)
AIDS – Viral
Syphilis, Gonorrhoea  Spirochetes
141. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?
(1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemia
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Colour blindness
Sol. Answer (3)
One gene control multiple feature.
142. A gene is said to be dominant if
(1) It expresses its effect only in homozygous state
(2) It expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
(3) It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
(4) It never expresses it’s effect in any condition
Sol. Answer (3)
Tt  Tall
143. On selfing a plant of F1-generation with genotype ‘’AABbCC’’, the genotypic ratio in F2-generation will be
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
Sol. Answer (1)
AABbCC
 ABC
2 type gamete  AbC  1 : 2 : 1
ABC AbC
ABC AABBCC AABbCC
ABC AABbCC AAbbCC
AABBCC : AABbCC : AAbbCC

1 2 1
144. A diseased mans marries a normal woman. They get three daughters and five sons. All the daughters were
diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is
(1) Sex linked dominant (2) Sex linked recessive
(3) Sex limited character (4) Autosomal dominant
Sol. Answer (1)
XDY × XX
D
(3. +) X X : XY (5 Sons)
+
145. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring is
produced by an affected mother and a normal father?
(1) 100% (2) 75%
(3) 50% (4) 25%
Sol. Answer (3)
146. Which one of the following discoveries resulted in a Nobel Prize?

(1) X-rays induce sex-linked recessive lethal mutations
(2) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(3) Recombination of linked genes
(4) Genetic engineering
Sol. Answer (1)
147. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are
reversed in one cross, is known as
(1) Test cross (2) Reciprocal cross
(3) Dihybrid cross (4) Reverse cross
Sol. Answer (2)
+
148. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many
different chromosomes?
(1) Seven (2) Six
(3) Five (4) Four
Sol. Answer (4)
1, 4, 5, 7
149. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
(1) Axial flower position (2) Green seed colour
(3) Green pod colour (4) Round seed shape
Sol. Answer (2)
150. Moustaches, beard and horseness in voice in human males are examples of
(1) Sex-linked traits (2) Sex limited traits
(3) Sex differentiating traits (4) Sex determining traits
Sol. Answer (2)
151. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by

(1) The ratio of number of X chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
(2) X and Y chromosomes
(3) The ratio of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
(4) Whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
Sol. Answer (1)
Number of X-chromosome
Set of autosomes
Gene balance theory
152. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male.
During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in
(1) One-third of the progenies (2) None of the progenies
(3) All the progenies (4) Fifty percent of the progenies
Sol. Answer (2)
Mitochondrial inheritance is cytoplasmic inheritance
153. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to
(1) Repulsion (2) Recombination
(3) Linkage (4) Crossing over
Sol. Answer (3)
Two genes are present on same chromosome.
154. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid
apes?
(1) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
(2) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only
(3) Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
(4) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes
Sol. Answer (4)
155. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome of humans are always

(1) Lethal (2) Sub-lethal
(3) Expressed in males (4) Expressed in females
Sol. Answer (3)
Hemizygous condition in XCY
156. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for haemophilic gene
h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh?
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/32 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/4
Sol. Answer (1)
Aa Bb XhY
1 1 1 1
  ⇒
2 2 2 8
157. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
(1) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes (2) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(3) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes (4) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
Sol. Answer (1)
158. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a
and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome?
(1) b, a, c (2) a, b, c (3) a, c, b (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
20 a 8 c
b
28%
bac
159. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed
hair (b) gene at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two genes (y and b) should be
(1) 66% (2) > 50% (3)  50% (4) 100%
Sol. Answer (3)
y b
Recombination frequency will be less than 50%.

160. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant
with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt,
(1) 25% will be tall with red fruit (2) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(3) 75% will be tall with red fruit (4) All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
Sol. Answer (2)
RRTt × rrtt
RT Rt rt
+ RT Rt
rt RrTt Rrtt
50 50
161. A normal woman, whose father was colour blind is married to a normal man. The sons would be
(1) 75% colour blind (2) 50% colour blind
(3) All normal (4) All colour blind
Sol. Answer (2)

XXC × XY
XCY, XY
Colour blind
162. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on
(1) Pisum sativum (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Oenothera lamarckiana (4) Althea rosea
Sol. Answer (3)
163. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(1) Barley (2) Rye
(3) Pearl millet (4) Sugarcane
Sol. Answer (2)
Rye  Scalea cereals
164. Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C pairing. However, these bases can exist in alternative valency status owing
to rearrangements called
(1) Frame-shift mutation (2) Tautomerisational mutation
(3) Analog substitution (4) Point mutation
Sol. Answer (2)
A  T  Tautomerisational mutation
G  C  Tautomerisational mutation
A  T  Amino  Imino group
165. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease called
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Edward syndrome (4) Night blindness
Sol. Answer (2)
166. Identify the one, which causes gene mutation

(1) Granoson (2) Colchicine
(3) Crossing over (4) X-rays
Sol. Answer (4)
Ionised radiation
167. The mutations are mainly responsible for

(1) Increasing the population rate (2) Maintaining genetic continuity
(3) Constancy in organisms (4) Variation in organisms
Sol. Answer (4)
168. Which of the following is the main category of mutation?

(1) Somatic mutation (2) Genetic mutation
(3) Heterosis (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
169. Change in sequence of nucleotide in DNA is called
(1) Mutagen (2) Mutation
(3) Recombination (4) Translation
Sol. Answer (2)
170. When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they
(1) Do not show a chromosome map (2) Show recombination during meiosis
(3) Do not show independent assortment (4) Induce cell division
Sol. Answer (3)
Linked genes will not show independent assortment.
171. Genetic map is one that
(1) Establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome
(2) Establishes the various stages in gene evolution
(3) Shows the stages during the cell division
(4) Shows the distribution of various species in a region
Sol. Answer (1)
Linear arrangement of gene on chromosome.
172. In mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of
(1) Frame shift mutation (2) Transcription
(3) Transition (4) Transversion
Sol. Answer (3)
A 
Replaced by
 G Transition

Pu
Purine
173. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is
(1) Random mutations (2) Genetic recombination
(3) Directed mutations (4) Acquired heritable changes
Sol. Answer (1)
174. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are considered to be
(1) Multiple alleles (2) The parts of same gene
(3) Pseudoalleles (4) Different genes
Sol. Answer (3)
When two adjacent genes occupy different gene locus but performer regulate same function.
175. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations?
(1) 5-bromouracil (2) 5-methylcytosine
(3) Guanine (4) Adenine
Sol. Answer (2)
176. Nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. Then after the formation
of organism, what shall be true?
(1) Organism will have extranuclear genes of the donor cell
(2) Organism will have extranuclear genes of recipient cell
(3) Organism will have extranuclear genes of both donor and recipient cell
(4) Organism will have nuclear genes of recipient cell
Sol. Answer (2)
Organism contain Extra chromosome DNA of recepient cell
177. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in
(1) Chloroplast genome (2) Mitochondrial genome
(3) Nuclear genome (4) Cytosol
Sol. Answer (2)
178. Extranuclear inheritance is the consequence of presence of genes in
(1) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(4) Lysosomes and ribosomes
Sol. Answer (1)
SECTION - D
1. A : Turner's syndrome generally does not occur in males.
R : Foetus with 44 + YO complement generally dies.
Sol. Answer (1)
Because absence of X chromosome
2. A : Sickel cell anaemia occurs due to the point mutation.
R : mRNA produced from Hb(s) gene has GAG instead of GUG.
Sol. Answer (3)
GUG  Valine
GAG  Glutamine
3. A : Holandric traits are passed from one generation to the next generation.
R : These traits appear more frequently in one sex than in other.
Sol. Answer (3)
Hoalandric genes are Y linked.
4. A : Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.
R : It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular phenotype from this product.
Sol. Answer (1)
5. A : The posssibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.
R : Mother of such a female has to be carrier and father should be haemophilic.
Sol. Answer (1)
It is X linked recessive
6. A : Polyploids with odd number of chromosomes are propagated vegetatively.
R : Seed formation is absent due to meiotic abnormality.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Pseudoalleles are actually closely linked genes.
R : These can be identified easily as both affect different characters, providing separate phenotypes.
Sol. Answer (3)
These genes occupy different location on a chromosome but they regulate same feature.
8. A : The heterozygotic female for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
R : Such traits show criss-cross inheritance.
Sol. Answer (2)
9. A : Non-allosomic genic determination of sex is found in bacteria.
R : Sex is dependent on some environmental factors in prokaryotes.
Sol. Answer (3)
Sex is regulated by F-plasmid or fertility genes.
10. A : Crossing over is exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes.
R : It produces new linkages.
Sol. Answer (4)
Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosome.
11. A : Mendel gave postulates like "principles of segregation and principles of independent assortment" after
studying seven pairs of contrasting traits in garden pea.
R : He was lucky in selecting seven characters in pea that were located on seven different chromosomes.
Sol. Answer (3)
12. A : Test cross is the tool for knowing linkage between genes.
R : Monohybrid test cross gives two phenotypes and two genotypes.
Sol. Answer (2)
13. A : Myotonic dystrophy is caused by recessive mutant pleiotropic gene.
R : Gene mutation leads to more synthesis of fibrillin proteins.
Sol. Answer (4)
Caused by Dominant genes.
14. A : In snapdragon, F1 plants do not have red or white flowers.
R : It is intermediate inheritance with neither of the two alleles of a gene being dominant over each other.
Sol. Answer (1)
Because of incomplete dominance they allele cannot give its expression completely in figuration.
15. A : en block inheritance of all genes located on the same chromosome may occur in some organisms.
R : Dihybrid test cross will have only two phenotypes.
Sol. Answer (1)
16. A : Morgan's cross III was conducted in Drosophila to locate genes on chromosome for white eye colour.
R : The cross was done between red eyed hybrid female and white eyed male.
Sol. Answer (3)
It was a reciprocal cross so + white x red eye.
17. A : Antlers in male deer are sex influenced traits.
R : These are controlled by autosomal genes which are influenced by the sex of bearer.
Sol. Answer (4)
Antler of deer is sex limited feature.
18. A : One drum stick per nucleus is present in the neutrophil of normal female.
R : It is absent in the neutrophil of male.
Sol. Answer (2)
19. A : Blood group phenotype is controlled by presence or absence of antigens present on surface coating of
RBC.
R : These antigens are of three types and found in the oligosaccharides rich head regions of a glycophorin.
Sol. Answer (2)
20. A : XO type sex determination is found in large number of insects.
R : Some of the sperms bear the X-chromosome whereas some do not.
Sol. Answer (2)
XX – XO – Type is found in some insects.

Chapter 16
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Solutions
SECTION - A
(The DNA, The Search for Genetic Material, RNA World)
1. Haploid content of human DNA contains
(1) 4.6 × 106 bp (2) 3.3 × 108 bp (3) 6.6 × 109 bp (4) 3.3 × 109 bp
Sol. Answer (4)
3.3 × 109  Genome
2. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are common for both RNA and DNA?
(1) C, G, A (2) G, A, U (3) T, A, C (4) U, A, C
Sol. Answer (1)
Pu  A, G Common Py  C
3. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain are joined by

(1) N-glycosidic bond (2) Phosphodiester bond (3) O-glycosidic bond (4) Hydrogen bond
Sol. Answer (2)
S–P–S
Phosphodiester
bond
4. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by the formation of

(1) Hydrogen bond (2) N-glycosidic bond (3) Phosphoester bond (4) O-glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (2)
C–N–C
5. Cytidine is a
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nitrogen base
(3) Nucleotide (4) Common dinucleotide in DNA and RNA
Sol. Answer (1)
C + S  Cytidine
Nitrogenus Sugar
Base
90 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Solutions of Assignment
6. Which of the following process is related to reverse transcription?

(1) DNA dependent DNA synthesis (2) RNA dependent DNA synthesis
(3) DNA dependent RNA synthesis (4) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis
Sol. Answer (2)
RNA
RNA
Reverse DNA
Transcriptase
 RNA dependent DNA polymerase
7. Which of the following structures are present in core particle of nucleosome?

(1) Octamer of histone proteins (2) 200 bp of DNA
(3) Non-histone proteins (4) Linker DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
H2A H2B
8 mole of histones
H3 H4
8. Packaging of DNA helix

(1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins only
(3) Requires acidic proteins that help in coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
Sol. Answer (4)
Nucleosome model
9. Length of DNA in E. coli is

(1) 2.2 m (2) 1.36 mm (3) 1.36 m (4) 3.4 m
Sol. Answer (2)
4.6 × 106 × 0.34 mm = 1.36 mm
10. Which of the following radioactive isotopes were utilised for labelling protein and DNA in transduction experiment
respectively?
(1) 32P, 35P (2) 35S, 35P (3) 35S, 32P (4) 32S, 35P
Sol. Answer (3)

S35  Protein coat P32  DNA
11. Dominance of RNA world is proved by

(1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Polyadenylation (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
(Replication, Transcription, Genetic Code, Translation)
12. Which plant was used by Taylor to prove semiconservative replication at chromosomal level?
(1) Haematoxylon (2) Vicia faba (3) Trillium (4) Ophioglossum
Sol. Answer (2)
Solutions of Assignment Molecular Basis of Inheritance 91
13. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by enzyme
(1) Helicase (2) Topoisomerase (3) Primase (4) Ligase
Sol. Answer (2)
Topoisomerase remove twisting stress
14. During polymerisation of deoxyribonucleosides triphosphates in bacteria which of the following enzyme is mainly
required?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (4) DNA gyrase
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA pol III  Read DNA segment and add nucleotide of DNA
15. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation of / in

(1) Ribonucleotides (2) 5  3 direction
(3) 3  5 direction (4) Deoxyribonucleosides
Sol. Answer (2)
5'  3 Polymerisation direction
16. During DNA replication which of the following does not act as substrates?
(1) dATP (2) dCTP (3) dUTP (4) dGTP
Sol. Answer (3)
dUTP  Does not exist
17. Out of the two strands of DNA one is carrying genetic information for transcription and it is called
(1) Coding strand (2) Non template strand (3) Sense strand (4) Template strand
Sol. Answer (4)
Antisense or template strank
18. When a mature mRNA was hybridised to its gene certain loops were observed. These loops represent
(1) Introns in DNA (2) Introns in rRNA (3) Exons in tRNA (4) Exons in DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Intro  Intervening sequence
19. Poly A tail is present in

(1) mRNA of bacteria (2) tRNA of eukaryotes (3) Promotor of bacteria (4) mRNA of eukaryotes
Sol. Answer (4)
mRNA of eukaryotes carry poly during post-transcription change.
20. Find out the incorrect match.

(1) UUU – Phenylalanine (2) UAG – Sense codon
(3) GUG – Valine (4) UGG – Tryptophan
Sol. Answer (2)
UAG  Nonsence codon on stop codon
21. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the code is
(1) Ambiguous and non-specific (2) Unambiguous and specific
(3) Ambiguous and specific (4) Unambiguous and non-specific
Sol. Answer (2)
Unambiguous  Like AUG  Methione not for any other AA.
22. What is incorrect for UTR?

(1) Present in between the translational unit in mRNA (2) Not recognised by any tRNA
(3) Required for efficient translation process (4) Provide stability to mRNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Present between Cap and Start and stop codon and poly A tail.
23. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in

(1) 60S subunit of ribosome (2) 50S subunit of ribosome
(3) 30S subunit of ribosome (4) 40S subunit of ribosome
Sol. Answer (2)
24. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of

(1) 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA (2) mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA
(3) 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA (4) All types of rRNA & tRNA
Sol. Answer (1)
5S rRNA, tRNA and SnRNA
(Regulation of Gene Expression, Human Genome Project, DNA Fingerprinting)
25. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for

(1) Aporepressor (2) Corepressor (3) Inactive repressor (4) Active repressor
Sol. Answer (4)
26. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon

(1) Is under positive as well as negative control (2) Controls catabolic pathway
(3) Shows feed back repression (4) Discovered by Jacob and Monod
Sol. Answer (3)
27. In lac operon, the lac mRNA

(1) Has several initiation and termination codons (2) Forms four different enzymes
(3) Is not transcribed in the presence of lactose (4) Is involved in an anabolic reaction
Sol. Answer (1)
In lac operon model have 4 different RNA so it have several initiation and termination codon.
28. How many locations have been identified in human genome where single base differences occur?
(1) 1.4 million (2) 14 million (3) 1.4 billion (4) 14 billion
Sol. Answer (1)
29. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?
(1) It is one of the largest chromosome (2) Its sequence was completed in May 2007
(3) It has maximum number of genes (4) It was the last chromosome to be sequenced
Sol. Answer (2)
Sequence completed in the year 2006
30. The non-human model organisms sequenced in Human Genome project were
(1) A nematode and fruit fly (2) Wheat and rice
(3) Fish and birds (4) Garden pea and fruit fly
Sol. Answer (1)
Caenorhabiditis elegna, Drosophila
31. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of DNA fingerprinting)

(1) Forensic science (2) Determining the population diversity
(3) Determining the genetic diversity (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) and (3)
32. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting digestion of DNA is followed by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Hybridisation (3) Denaturation (4) Southern blotting
Sol. Answer (1)
Grel electrophoresis will separate the DNA segment.
33. Read the following statements:

A. Variation at genetic level arises due to mutations.
B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys
(1) Only (B) is correct (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) is correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
34. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of hybridised DNA fragments is possible by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (3) Autoradiography (4) Centrifugation
Sol. Answer (3)
By taking radioactive isotops.
35. Mark the correct match.

(1) Catalytic RNA – 16 S rRNA and 23 S
in bacteria rRNA- as ribozyme.
(2) Val operon – Found in eukaryotes
(3) Sanger method – Determination of amino acid sequences in proteins only
(4) VNTR – Intron
Sol. Answer (4)
VNTR  Variable number Tanden repeat.
SECTION - B
(The DNA, The Search for Genetic Material, RNA World)
1. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5 A T G C A T C G 3, find the sequence of complementary strand
in 5 3 direction
(1) T A C G T A G C (2) C G A T G C A T (3) A T G C A T C G (4) A T C G T A C G
Sol. Answer (2)
3' 5'
TA C G TA G C
AT G C AT C G
5 3'
2. NHC structural proteins are
(1) Basic proteins rich in lysine, arginine
(2) Regulatory proteins
(3) Catalytic proteins rich in tryptophan and arginine
(4) Required for packaging of chromatin at higher levels
Sol. Answer (4)
3. Which of the following bond is not present in DNA?

(1) – 1– 9–N–glycosidic bond (2) 3– 5 phosphodiester bond
(3) – 1–1–N–glycosidic bond (4) – 1– 2–N–glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (4)
 – 1' – 9'  Glycosidic bond  Sugar and Purines
 – 1' – 1'  Glycosidic bond  Sugar and Pyrimidine
3' – 5'  Phosphodiester bond  Sugar and Phosphate
(Replication, Transcription, Genetic Code, Translation)
4. How many types of DNA polymerases are present in bacteria?
(1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA Pol I
Pol II
Pol III
5. Synthesis of leading and lagging strand require

(1) Single primer (2) Single and many primers respectively
(3) Many and single primers respectively (4) Many primers
Sol. Answer (2)
Leading  Continuous strand have polarity 3'  5' end it need single primer
Lagging  Discontinuous strand have polarity 5'  3' end it need multiple primer
6. For the strand separation and stabilisation during DNA replication which of the following set of enzymes and
proteins are required?
(1) SSBP, gyrase, primase (2) Topoisomerase, helicase, ligase
(3) Gyrase, ligase, primase (4) Topoisomerase, helicase, SSBP
Sol. Answer (4)
Topoisomerase – Remove twisting stress
Helicase – Unwind DNA
SSBP – Single strand binding protein
7. In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that synthesises tRNA is RNA polymerase ______ and is also responsible
for formation of ______ rRNA.
(1) II, 5.8 S (2) I, 5 S (3) III, 5 S (4) II, 18 S
Sol. Answer (3)
8. What is correct for bacterial transcription?

(1) mRNA requires processing to become active
(2) Translation can begin when mRNA is fully transcribed
(3) Transcription and translation takes place in the same compartment
(4) Rho factor initiates the process
Sol. Answer (3)
Transcription and translation take place in cytoplasm.
9. Which of the following is not required during post transcriptional processing in eukaryotes?
(1) Methyl guanosine triphosphate (2) Ligase
(3) ScRNA (4) SnRNA
Sol. Answer (3)
Small cytoplasmic RNA  ScRNA
10. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?

(1) Presence of intervening sequences in DNA
(2) DNA does not show coiling
(3) Linear ss-DNA representing single chromosome
(4) DNA can be chromosomal as well as extrachromosomal
Sol. Answer (4)
Nuclear DNA  Nucleoid
Extra chromosome  Plasmid
11. In-vitro template independent RNA synthesis is a feature of

(1) RNA polymerase (2) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Ochoa enzyme (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (3)
Ochoa  Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme was synthesized.
12. In protein synthesis, which of the following are required for the synthesis of charged tRNA?
(1) Amino acid, GTP, initiation codon, ribosome
(2) Amino acid, ATP, Mg++, enzyme, tRNA
(3) Amino acid, ATP, K+, enzyme, mRNA
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA, ribosome, initiation codon, release factor
Sol. Answer (2)
13. Termination of polypeptide synthesis in bacteria differs from eukaryotes in

(1) Having different termination codons (2) Being GTP dependent
(3) Involving more than one type of release factors (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
14. The accessibility of promoter regions of bacterial DNA in many cases regulated by the interaction of proteins
with sequences termed
(1) Regulators (2) Structural genes (3) Inhibitor genes (4) Operators
Sol. Answer (4)
If repressor is attached at operator their is no synthesis of mRNA.
15. Select the correct one (w.r.t. Wobble hypothesis)

(1) Third base of a codon lacks vibrating capacity
(2) Third base can establish H-bonds even with the non complementary anticodon
(3) Specificity of a anticodon is particularly determined by first two codon
(4) Major cause of degeneracy is the first two N-bases of codon
Sol. Answer (2)
GUG  3rd position can establish H - bond even with the non-complementary anticodon.
16. If there are 81 million bases in RNA of human cell, then calculate the total number of introns present in cDNA
(1) 27 millions (2) Zero
(3) Equal to ribonucleotides (4) Half the number of ribonucleotides
Sol. Answer (2)
Human RNA is processed RNA. So no intron in cDNA.
17. Splicing is necessary for preparing a mature transcript and its movement to cytoplasm. It requires
(1) scRNA and proteins (2) snRNA and proteins (3) scRNA and snRNA (4) scRNA only
Sol. Answer (2)
18. Majority of unusual bases are found in tRNA, TC loop is

(1) First loop from 5-end of tRNA (2) AA - tRNA synthetase binding loop
(3) Ribosomal binding loop (4) Nodoc site
Sol. Answer (3)
TC  Ribosomal binding loop
19. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNA sequence – 5CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC3 if a adenosine
residue is inserted after 12th nucleotide?
(1) Five amino acids (2) Six amino acids (3) Two amino acids (4) Three amino acids
Sol. Answer (3)
5' CCC UCA UAG UCA UAC
AA AA Stop
codon
So only two A.A will be formed.
20. Identification and binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence is a function of
(1) Rho factor (2) Sigma factor (3) Beta factor (4) Omega factor
Sol. Answer (2)
21. The DNA strand showing replication using Okazaki fragments also shows
(1) Continuous growth in 5  3 direction
(2) Discontinuous growth on 5  3 parental strand
(3) Discontinuous growth on 3  5 parental strand
(4) Involvement of one primer only
Sol. Answer (2)
22. Prokaryotic transcription mechanism requires involvement of only one polymerase type and
(a) It occurs in cytoplasm only
(b) It is often coupled with translation
(c) It does not require splicing but capping is essential
(1) All are correct (2) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (c) are correct (4) Only (c) is incorrect
Sol. Answer (4)
Their is no capping and tailing in prokaryotes.
23. Pribnow box is a consensus of ________ bases, forming a binding site for E. coli RNA polymerase at promotor.
(1) TATAAT (2) AGGAGG
(3) CAAT (4) GC
Sol. Answer (1)
24. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end

(1) With the help of gyanyl transferase (2) In a template independent manner
(3) With the help of methyl transferase (4) Of hn-RNA of E.coli
Sol. Answer (2)
Poly a tail formed at 3' end to stabilize RNA.
25. For every single amino acid incorporated in peptide chain _____ ATP and _____ GTP molecules are used.
(1) 1, 4 (2) 1, 6
(3) 1, 2 (4) 1, 3
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP  1  Activation of fRNA
GTP  2  Peptide of bond formation translocation.
26. In t-RNA
(1) CCA – OH is present at 5-end (2) TC loop for attaching the amino acid
(3) DHU loop for binding with AA - activating enzyme (4) There are three recognition sites
Sol. Answer (3)
(Regulation of Gene Expression, Human Genome Project, DNA Fingerprinting)

27. When the genomes of two people are cut using the same restriction enzyme, the length and number of fragments
obtained are different, this is called
(1) PCR (2) RFLP
(3) EST (4) Northern blotting
Sol. Answer (2)
RFLP  Restricted fragment length polymorphisom.
28. Which of the following does not code for any proteins?
(1) Micro-satellites (2) Exons
(3) Mini-satellites (4) More than one option is correct.
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) and (3)
29. Which statement is correct for homeotic genes?

(1) Control is exerted through homeodomain proteins
(2) Mutation in these genes not results in conversion of one body part into another
(3) Such genes have been studied extensively in humans
(4) Control oncogenesis process
Sol. Answer (1)
30. In which step of DNA profiling, nitrocellulose membrane is used?

(1) Denaturation (2) Autoradiography (3) Blotting (4) DNA amplification
Sol. Answer (3)
Southern Blotting
31. Repressor of lac-operon

(1) Is a tetrameric protein (2) Having a molecular weight of 16,000
(3) Has only one side (4) Is made by operator gene
Sol. Answer (1)
32. A set of genes or cDNA is immobilized on a glass slide and used in transcriptome studies is called
(1) Proteome (2) Microarray (3) DNA chip (4) Genome
Sol. Answer (2)
33. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA with repeated bases many times in a genome, but
(a) These sequences are of no transcriptional function
(b) These are associated with euchromatin region
(c) These helps to identify a person on the basis of its DNA specificity
(1) All are correct (2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (b) are correct (4) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
34. The microsatellites have simple sequences of repeated

(1) 11-60 bp (2) 1-6 bp (3) 10 bp (4) 50 bp
Sol. Answer (2)
Microsatellite  1 – 6 bp
35. In tryptophan operon

(1) Non-proteinaceous aporepressor is synthesised by R-gene
(2) Normally chorismic acid is not converted into tryptophan
(3) Repression is mostly connected with a catabolic pathway
(4) Enzymes produced by structural genes normally present in the cell
Sol. Answer (4)
SECTION - C
1. All of the following are part of an operon except [NEET-2018]
(1) an operator (2) structural genes (3) a promoter (4) an enhancer
Sol. Answer (4)
• Enhancer sequences are present in eukaryotes.
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
2. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence
of the transcribed mRNA? [NEET-2018]
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT (3) UCCAUAGCGUA (4) ACCUAUGCGAU
Sol. Answer (1)
Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by ‘U’–Uracil in
mRNA.
3. Select the correct match [NEET-2018]
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
Sol. Answer (1)
Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic acid.
4. Select the correct match [NEET-2018]
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV
(3) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - Lac operon
(4) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum sativum
Sol. Answer (3)
Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed model of gene regulation known as operon model/lac operon.
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting technique.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – Proved DNA as genetic material not protein
5. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a [NEET-2018]
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium (3) Virus (4) Plant
Sol. Answer (2)
Semi-conservative DNA replication was first shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by Matthew Meselson and
Franklin Stahl.
6. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901
is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?[NEET-2017]
(1) 1 (2) 11 (3) 33 (4) 333
Sol. Answer (3)
If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98 bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will be
altered.
7. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of [NEET-2017]
(1) Griffith (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (4) Hargobind Khorana
Sol. Answer (2)
Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which ended the debate between protein and DNA as genetic
material.
8. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates [NEET-2017]
(1) Transcription is occurring (2) DNA replication is occurring
(3) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre (4) The DNA double helix is exposed
Sol. Answer (3)
The association of H1 protein indicates the complete formation of nucleosome.
Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
9. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of [NEET-2017]
(1) Plants (2) Fungi (3) Animals (4) Bacteria
Sol. Answer (4)
Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in eukaryotes only
as split genes are absent as prokaryotes.
10. DNA replication in bacteria occurs [NEET-2017]
(1) During S-phase (2) Within nucleolus
(3) Prior to fission (4) Just before transcription
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission. Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due to their
primitive nature.
11. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell? [NEET-2017]
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (3) m-RNA (4) mi-RNA
Sol. Answer (1)
rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes 80% of total RNA of the cell.
12. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to enlongate [NEET-2017]
(1) The leading strand towards replication fork (2) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork (4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
Sol. Answer (4)
Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the other
on the lagging strand.
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA polymerase at lagging strand in 5 3direction. New Okazaki
fragments appear as the replication fork opens further.
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from the replication fork, the direction of elongation would be away
from replication fork.
13. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on
(1) Vinca rosea (2) Vicia faba
(3) Drosophila melanogaster (4) E. coli
Sol. Answer (2)
Semiconservative mode of chromosome replication was proved by Taylor in Vicia faba.
14. The equivalent of a structural gene is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Muton (2) Cistron (3) Operon (4) Recon
Sol. Answer (2)
Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.
Eukaryotic structural gene is monocistronic whereas prokaryotic structural gene is polycistronic.
15. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
(1) 5 S rRNA (2) 18 S rRNA (3) 23 S rRNA (4) 5.8 S rRNA
Sol. Answer (3)
23S rRNA is a component of larger subunit of ribosome and it act as peptidyl transferase (ribozyme).
16. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the
(1) Template strand (2) Coding strand (3) Alpha strand (4) Antistrand
Sol. Answer (1)
The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyze the polymerisation in only one direction that is 5  3, the
strand with polarity 5 3 act as template and is called as template strand.
17. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon? [NEET-2016]
(1) Lactose and Galactose (2) Glucose
(3) Galactose (4) Lactose
Sol. Answer (4)
Lac operon is an inducible operon. Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it also
regulates switching on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer.
18. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
[NEET-2016]
(1) DNA-DNA hybridization (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Zinc finger analysis (4) Restriction enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
A zinc finger is a small protein structural motif that characterised by the co-ordination of one or more Zn ions in
order to stabilise the folds.
19. Which one of the following is the starter codon? [NEET-2016]
(1) UAG (2) AUG (3) UGA (4) UAA
Sol. Answer (2)
AUG is the start codon.
UAA, UAG and UGA are stop codons.
20. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
Sol. Answer (4)
Order of organisation of genetic material
Largest Genome (haploid set of chromosome)
Chromosome (Condensed chromatin)
Gene (Segment of DNA; unit

of inheritance)
Smallest
Nucleotide (Made up of pentose
sugar, nitrogen base
and phosphate)
21. Satellite DNA is important because it [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Code for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
Sol. Answer (3)
Satellite DNA are the repetitive DNA which do not code for any protein. They show high degree of polymorphism
and form basis of DNA fingerprinting. Since DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree
of polymorphism, they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications.
22. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Feedback inhibition because excess of -galactosidase can switch off transcription
(2) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
(3) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(4) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
Sol. Answer (3)
Lac operon under control of repressor is a negative regulation. The nature of operon is inducible.
23. Which one of the followings is wrongly matched? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Transcription- Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
(2) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to make protein
(3) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
(4) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
Sol. Answer (4)
Operon  Structural, Operator, Promoter and Regulator genes.
24. Select the correct option [AIPMT-2014]
Direction of Direction of reading of the

RNA synthesis template DNA strand
(1) 5 – 3 3 – 5
(2) 3 – 5 5 – 3
(3) 5 – 3 5 – 3
(4) 3 – 5 3 – 5
Sol. Answer (1)

25. Transformation was discovered by [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Griffith (4) Watson and Crick
Sol. Answer (3)
On Diplococcus pneumoniae
26. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
A
DNA mRNA B Protein Proposed by [NEET-2013]
C
(1) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

(2) A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
(3) A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
(4) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson
Sol. Answer (2)
A B Proposed by
Replication DNA mRNA Protein
Transcription Translation C
Francis Crick
Central Diagram
27. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Lactose permease (2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase (4)  -galactosidase
Sol. Answer (4)
Z Y A Transacetylase
Permease
Z  –Galactosidase
Y is mutated so Z gene will give its effects.

28. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
Sol. Answer (3)
Polymerage III  Synthesize tRNA
29. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Slicing (2) Splicing (3) Looping (4) Inducing
Sol. Answer (2)
30. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) A promoter (2) The structural gene (3) The inducer (4) A terminator
Sol. Answer (3)
Inducer  is a chemical which will trigger the DNA to switch on gene in its presence.
31. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA
strand sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) AACTG (2) ATCGU (3) TTAGU (4) UAGAC
Sol. Answer (4)
ATCTG
UAGAC
32. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation
(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
How many of the above statements are right? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (1)
(A) and (D)
33. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) DNA sequencing (2) Genetic fingerprinting
(3) Study of enzymes (4) Genetic transformation
Sol. Answer (2)
PCR and RFLP
34. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(2) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
Sol. Answer (1)
Satellite DNA occur in highly repeated member.
35. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA
(3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA
Sol. Answer (1)
36. What are those structures that appear as 'beads – on – string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron
microscope? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Base pairs (2) Genes (3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleosomes
Sol. Answer (4)
37. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Bioinformatics (2) Biosystematics (3) Biotechnology (4) Biomonitoring
Sol. Answer (1)
38. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Viroid (2) Bacterial virus (3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
Sol. Answer (2)
Hershy and Chase experiment on T2 Bacteriophase
39. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) HIV (2) Pea (3) Mucor (4) Chlamydomonas
Sol. Answer (1)
Reverse transcriptase enzyme is found in HIV
40. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c) The z-gene codes for permease.
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.
The correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
Z - gene   - galactosidase
41. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Specific (2) Degenerate (3) Ambiguous (4) Universal
Sol. Answer (3)
Non-ambiguous
42. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleus (3) Dictyosomes (4) ER
Sol. Answer (2)
Posttranscription changes take place in nucleus.
43. The lac operon consists of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Four regulatory genes only (2) One regulatory gene and three structural genes
(3) Two regulatory genes and two structural genes (4) Three regulatory genes and three structural genes
Sol. Answer (2)
i P O Z Y A
Regulator 3 Structural genes
44. The 3 — 5 phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand (2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide (4) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
Sol. Answer (3)
45. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Genetic engineering (2) Organ transplantation
(3) Sex determination (4) Forensic science
Sol. Answer (4)
DNA fingerprinting
46. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
(1) Tailing (2) Transformation (3) Capping (4) Splicing
Sol. Answer (4)
Take place while posttranscriptional change in RNA.
47. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Drosophila melanogaster
Sol. Answer (1)
48. What is not true for genetic code? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) It is nearly universal
(2) It is degenerate
(3) It is unambiguous
(4) A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion
Sol. Answer (4)
49. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet"?
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Morgan and Sturtevant
(3) Beadle and Tatum (4) Nirenberg and Mathaei
Sol. Answer (4)
50. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category
mentioned against it? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Adenine, Thymine - Purines (2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(3) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines (4) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
Sol. Answer (1)
51. In the DNA molecules [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 53' direction and other in 35
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 53' direction
(4) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
Sol. Answer (1)
52. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the
particular amino acid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) UUA, UCA - Leucine (2) GUU, GCU - Alanine
(3) UAG, UGA - Stop (4) AUG, ACG - Start / Methionine
Sol. Answer (3)
(i) UUA  Leucine UCA  Serine
(ii) GUU  Valine GCU  Alanine
(iii) AUG  Methionine ACG  Threonine
53. One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Diploccus pneumoniae (2) Neurospora crassa
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Escherichia coli
Sol. Answer (2)
54. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
(1) Ribosome (2) Transfer RNA (3) Messenger RNA (4) DNA sequence
Sol. Answer (4)
55. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Polymerize in the 5  to  3 direction and explain 3  to  5 DNA replication

(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3  to  5 direction and forms replication fork
(4) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Answer (1)
56. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
(1) Anticodon (2) RNA polymerase (3) Ribosome (4) Transcription factor
Sol. Answer (4)
57. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
(1) Prevent chromosome loss (2) Act as replicons
(3) Are RNA transcription initiator (4) Help chromosome pairing
Sol. Answer (1)
They prevent the loss of DNA from the terminal part of DNA.
58. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle -like
structure. What is it's DNA-binding sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) TATA (2) TTAA (3) AATT (4) CACC
Sol. Answer (1)
59. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Semiconservative (2) Parallel (3) Discontinuous (4) Antiparallel
Sol. Answer (4)
Antiparallel nature means
One strand have polarity  5'  3'
Another strand have polarity  3'  5'
60. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this
DNA accommodated? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Through elimination of repetitive DNA (2) Deletion of non-essential genes.
(3) Super-coiling in nucleosomes (4) DNAse digestion
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA is coiled to form a solanoid and supercoiled.
61. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm (3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm
Sol. Answer (3)
3.4 nm or 34 Å
62. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(2) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
(3) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)
(4) One strand turns clockwise
Sol. Answer (3)
One strand has polarity 5'  3'
Another strand has polarity 3'  5'
63. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) c-DNA (4) r-RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
mRNA  is a cistron which carry information for synthesis of protein.
64. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase (3) A. Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum
Sol. Answer (4)
Beadle and Tatum on Nurospora crassa.
65. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle
like structure at that point. What is that sequence called? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box (3) AAAT box (4) TATA box
Sol. Answer (4)
66. E. coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the
source of energy because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose
(2) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(4) They cannot synthesize functional â-galactosidase
Sol. Answer (4)
67. Nucleotide are building blocks of nucleic acids, nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by :
(1) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n (2) Base-sugar-OH
(3) Base-sugar-phosphate (4) Sugar-phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)
68. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (1)
It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase
69. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
(1) Pyrimidine (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleotide (4) Purine
Sol. Answer (2)
70. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?
(1) Universal (2) Non-overlapping (3) Ambiguous (4) Degeneracy
Sol. Answer (3)
Genetic code is ambiguous.
71. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is
(1) AFLP (2) VNTR (3) SSCP (4) SCAR
Sol. Answer (2)
72. In an inducible operon, the genes are
(1) Always expressed
(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them "on"
(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them "off"
(4) Never expressed
Sol. Answer (2)
It need a inducer to trigger and switch on gene.
73. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(1) Plasmid (2) Probe (3) Vector (4) Selectable marker
Sol. Answer (2)
Probe  Radioactive DNA help to make out sequence of unknown DNA.
74. The reaction, Amino acid + ATP  Aminoacyl-AMP + P–P depicts
(1) Amino acid assimilation (2) Amino acid transformation
(3) Amino acid activation (4) Amino acid translocation
Sol. Answer (3)
Amino acid get activated to attach to tRNA.
75. The transcription of any gene is the indication of its
(1) Induction (2) Activity (3) Stimulation (4) Hypersensitivity
Sol. Answer (2)
76. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of
(1) Introns (2) Codons (3) Exons (4) Anticodons
Sol. Answer (2)
Codon will carry sequence in which A.A. will attach.
77. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their
experiments demonstrated that
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) Genes are made of DNA
(3) Genes carry information for making proteins
(4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information
Sol. Answer (3)

Beadle & Tatum experiment was done on
Nurospora Crassa. They propose one gene one enzyme hypothesis
78. Which of the following necleotide sequences contain 4 pyrimidine bases?

(1) GATCAATGC (2) GCUAGACAA (3) UAGCGGUAA (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
G AT C A AT C G  4  Pyrimidine
12 34
GCUAGACAA 2
U A G C G G U AA  2
79. The 1992 Nobel Prize for medicine was awarded to Edmond H. Fischer and Edwin J. Krebs for their work
concerning
(1) Reversible protein phosphorylation as a biological regulation mechanism
(2) Isolation of the gene for a human disease
(3) Human genome project
(4) Drug designing involving inhibition of DNA synthesis of the pathogen
Sol. Answer (1)
80. Initiation codon in eukaryotes is

(1) GAU (2) AGU (3) AUG (4) UAG
Sol. Answer (3)
AUG  Methionine
81. ‘Lac operon’ in E. coli, is induced by

(1) “I” gene (2) Promoter gene (3) -galactosidase (4) Lactose
Sol. Answer (4)
82. There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins
are
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA topoisomerase I (3) DNA gyrase (4) DNA polymerase I
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA gyrase  Show helicase as well as topoisomerase activity.
83. In protein synthesis, the polymerization of amino acids involves three steps. Which one of the following is not
involved in the polymerization of protein?
(1) Termination (2) Initiation (3) Elongation (4) Transcription
Sol. Answer (4)
Transcription is the process.
84. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) r-RNA (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
tRNA contain anticodon.
85. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a

(1) Depressor (2) Controlling element (3) Regulator (4) Inducer
Sol. Answer (4)
86. In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(1) Exons (2) Cistrons (3) Introns (4) Operons
Sol. Answer (1)
Exon  Coding Intron  Noncoding
87. The lac operon is an example of
(1) Repressible operon (2) Overlapping genes (3) Arabinose operon (4) Inducible operon
Sol. Answer (4)
88. If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then which of the
following will result?
(1) CAT GAT GATG (2) A non-sense mutation (3) C ATG ATG ATG (4) CA TGA TGA TG
Sol. Answer (1)
A T G AT G AT G
C Addition
C AT G AT G AT G
89. The wild type E.coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium
containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes take place?
(1) The lac operon is induced (2) E.coli cells stop dividing
(3) The lac operon is repressed (4) All operons are induced
Sol. Answer (1)
In the presence of lactose lac operone is induced.
90. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in its transcript will be
(1) GUAGCUUA (2) AUUCGAUG (3) CAUCGAAU (4) UAAGCUAC
Sol. Answer (4)
DNA AT T C G AT G
U A A G C TA C
91. Which of the following serves as an stop codon?
(1) UAG (2) AGA (3) AUG (4) GCG
Sol. Answer (1)
UAG  Stop codon
92. The codons causing chain termination are
(1) AGT, TAG, UGA (2) UAG, UGA, UAA (3) TAG, TAA, TGA (4) GAT, AAT, AGT
Sol. Answer (2)
UAG  Amber UGA  Opal UAA  Ocher
93. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio-labelled
(1) Thymidine (2) Deoxyribose sugar (3) Uracil (4) Adenine
Sol. Answer (1)
Thymidine in Vicia faba by Taylor.
94. Which of the following step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond?
(1) Peptidyl transferase reaction (2) Aminoacyl t-RNA binding to A-site
(3) Translocation (4) Amino acid activation
Sol. Answer (1)

Peptide bond is independent.
95. DNA elements, which can switch their position, are called
(1) Cistrons (2) Transposons (3) Exons (4) Introns
Sol. Answer (2)
Transposon jumping genes
96. Sequence of which of the following is used to know the phylogeny?

(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (3) t-RNA (4) DNA
Sol. Answer (4)
97. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
(1) Redundant genes (2) Regulatory genes (3) Polymorphic genes (4) Operator genes
Sol. Answer (2)
Regulatory genes  Repressor
98. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as

(1) Inhibitor (2) Repressor (3) Regulator (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
99. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association as per which of the following pair?
(1) AT-GC (2) AG-CT (3) AC-GT (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
1AGCT
A–T
G– C
100. Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation. For example, in place of wing Iong legs are
formed. Which gene is responsible?
(1) Double dominant gene (2) Homeotic gene (3) Complimentary gene (4) Plastid gene
Sol. Answer (2)
101. Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesise new strands, is
(1) Dispersive (2) Conservative (3) Semi conservative (4) Non conservative
Sol. Answer (3)
Semi conservative half parental strand is retained half newly formed.

102. In negative operon
(1) Co-repressor binds with repressor (2) Co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(3) Co-repressor binds with inducer (4) cAMP have negative effect on lac operon
Sol. Answer (1)
Co-repressor bind with apo-repressor  Apo-corepressor complex which completely block the site of operator
gene.
103. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
(1) One cistron contains many genes (2) One gene contains many cistrons
(3) One gene contains one cistron (4) One gene contains no cistron
Sol. Answer (3)
Cistron is functional unit of DNA that produce or code for polypeptide.
104. m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in which direction?
(1) 5  3 (2) 3  5 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Any of these
Sol. Answer (1)
5 3'  Polymerase activity.
105. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulate the process at different levels and at different time due to
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator (3) Intron (4) Exon
Sol. Answer (4)
106. A mutant strain of T 4 - bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R-IIX and
R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the possible reason?
(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild (2) It is not mutated
(3) Both strains have similar cistrons (4) Both strains have different cistrons
Sol. Answer (4)
Both strain carry different strain so they complaint the function that leads to lysis.
107. In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to
(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene (3) Structural gene (4) Promoter gene
Sol. Answer (2)
108. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 30% (4) 60%
Sol. Answer (3)
A+ G = C + T
20 + 30 = 30 + 20
109. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (2) Overlapping of genes
(3) Wobbling of codons (4) Universality of codons
Sol. Answer (1)
More than one codon code for a amino acid.
110. Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept is
applicable for
(1) All prokaryotes (2) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(3) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (4) All prokaryotes and some protozoans
Sol. Answer (1)
111. Exon part of hn-RNA have code for
(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Carbohydrate (4) Phospholipid
Sol. Answer (1)
Hn – RNA Heterogeneous nuclear RNA.
112. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling with clover leaf?
(1) rRNA (2) hn-RNA (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
Sol. Answer (4)
Clover leaf
113. Which of the following reunites the exon segments after RNA splicing?
(1) RNA polymerase (2) RNA primase (3) RNA ligase (4) RNA proteoses
Sol. Answer (3)
RNA Ligase
114. During initiation of translation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in
(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(3) Association of 30 S mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
Sol. Answer (3)
GTP is needed
mRNA
30 S
115. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
(1) 20 (2) 64 (3) 61 (4) 60
Sol. Answer (3)
61 codons specify 20 amino acids.
3 codons are strop codons i.e., UAA, UAG, UGA.
116. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of
(1) Thymine rich repeats (2) Cytosine rich repeats
(3) Adenine rich repeats (4) Guanine rich repeats
Sol. Answer (4)
117. What does “lac” refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase
(3) Lac insect (4) The number 1,00,000
Sol. Answer (1)
Lactose operon
118. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the
(1) First member of a codon (2) Second member of codon
(3) Entire codon (4) Third member of a codon
Sol. Answer (4)
GUG  Third position is Wooble position
119. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator
(3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
Sol. Answer (1)
Promoter site  RNA bind
120. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to
UAA ?
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
Sol. Answer (1)
UAA  Stopcodon
24 Codon 25 th Codon
Amino Acid
121. Which one of the following triplet codon, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein
synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon ?
(1) UCG - start (2) UUU - stop (3) UGU – leucine (4) UAC - tyrosine
Sol. Answer (4)
UUU  Phenylalanine
UGU  Cystine
UCG
Serine
UCG
122. DNA fingerprinting refer to

(1) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(2) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(3) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(4) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals
Sol. Answer (1)
123. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG then the
nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG (3) UAUGC (4) UATGC
Sol. Answer (3)
A T A C G  DNA
U A U G C  RNA
124. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to change in
(1) Protein structure (2) DNA replication
(3) Protein synthesis pattern (4) RNA transcription pattern
Sol. Answer (1)
125. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) RNA primers are involved (2) Is facilitated by telomerase
(3) Moves in one direction of the site (4) Moves in bi-directional way
Sol. Answer (4)
126. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species

(1) A + G / C + T (2) T + C / G + A (3) G + C / A + T (4) A + C / T + G
Sol. Answer (3)
G+C
A+T
127. What is true for E. coli with inhibited lac-z gene?

(1) They cannot synthesize permease
(2) They cannot synthesize functional beta galactosidase
(3) They cannot synthesize transacetylase
(4) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
Sol. Answer (2)
Z - gene   - Galactosidase
128. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(1) Tetracycline (2) Erythromycin (3) Neomycin (4) Streptomycin
Sol. Answer (3)
Erythromycin  Inhibits translocation of mRNA along ribosomes.
Streptomycin  Inhibits initiation of translation and causes misreading.
Tetracycline  Inhibit binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome.
129. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle - like
structure. What is its DNA-binding sequence?
(1) AATT (2) CACC (3) TATA (4) TTAA
Sol. Answer (3)
TATA box
130. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

(1) Differential expression of genes (2) Lethal mutations
(3) Deletion of genes (4) Developmental mutations
Sol. Answer (1)
131. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide, is
(1) Polymerase (2) Endonuclease (3) Exonuclease (4) Kinase
Sol. Answer (3)
132. Radio-tracer technique shows that DNA is in

(1) Multi-helix stage (2) Single-helix stage (3) Double-helix stage (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
133. Genes are packaged into a bacterial chromosome by

(1) Acidic protein (2) Actin (3) Histones (4) Basic protein
Sol. Answer (4)
134. The hereditary material present in the bacterium E.coli is
(1) Single-stranded DNA (2) Double-stranded DNA
(3) DNA and RNA (4) RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
Doble strand circular DNA
135. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
(1) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(2) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA and proteins
(3) DNA is the genetic material
(4) Bacteria undergo binary fission
Sol. Answer (3)
Experiment was done by Griffta on Pneumococcus pneumoniae.
136. E.coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radio active thymidine for five minutes. Then it
was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive (2) One strand radioactive
(3) Each strand half radioactive (4) None is radioactive
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA is semiconservative in nature.
137. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus of eukaryotes for RNA synthesis is/are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (3)
RNA Polymerase I
RNA Polymerase II
RNA Polymerase III
138. Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?
(1) E. coli (2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella (4) Pasteurella pestis
Sol. Answer (2)
Diplococcus pneumoniae by Griffth
139. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
(1) Simple protein (2) RNA (3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Repetitive DNA
Sol. Answer (3)
It synthesise the terminal or telomeric DNA.
140. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
(1) Enhancer (2) Transgene (3) Promoter (4) Reporter
Sol. Answer (3)
141. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth supplement, is known as
(1) Osmotroph (2) Mixotroph (3) Auxotroph (4) Prototroph
Sol. Answer (4)
Used in Beadel and Tatum experiment.
142. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate
Sol. Answer (2)
143. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Sol. Answer (3)
By Meselson and Stahl
144. Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
(1) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
(2) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
(3) Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division
(4) The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
Sol. Answer (4)
SECTION - D
1. A : RNA polymerase is of three types in eukaryotes for the synthesis of all types of RNAs.
R : RNA polymerase consists of six types of polypeptides alongwith rho factor which is involved in termination of
RNA synthesis.
Sol. Answer (3)
2. A : 5S rRNA and surrounding protein complex provides binding site of tRNA.
R : tRNA is soluble RNA with unusual bases.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : Operator gene is functional when it is not blocked by repressor.
R : Regulator gene produces active protein only which acts on operon system in E.coli.
Sol. Answer (3)
Regulator gene produce its product. It is inducer which will bind with repressor.
4. A : Peptidyl transfer site is contributed by larger sub-unit of ribosome.
R : The enzyme peptidyl transferase is contributed by both 23S and 16S ribosomal sub-units.
Sol. Answer (3)
5. A : Teminism is unidirectional flow of information.
R : It requires DNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme.
Sol. Answer (4)
Teminisms is revese transcription so no unidirectional flow of information.
6. A : In bacterial translation mechanism, two tRNA are required by methionine.
R : AUG codes for methionine and it shows nonambiguity also.
Sol. Answer (2)
7. A : Nutritional mutant strain of pink mould is auxotroph.
R : It is not able to prepare its own metabolites from the raw materials obtained from outside.
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxotrops are mutants which have specific nutritional demand
8. A : In DNA fingerprinting, hybridization is done with molecular probe.
R : Molecular probe is small DNA segment synthesized in laboratory with known sequence that recognise
complementary sequence in RNA.
Sol. Answer (3)
Probe help in identification of unknown sequence of DNA.
9. A : c-DNA libraries are important to scientists in human genomics.
R : c-DNA is synthetic type of DNA generated from mRNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
10. A : SNPs-pronounced "snips" are common in human genome.
R : It is minute variations that occurs at a frequency of one in every 300 bases.
Sol. Answer (1)
Single nucleotide polymorphism.
11. A : Catalytic functions were assigned to RNA molecule during evolution.
R : The rate of mutation is quite fast in RNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
12. A : Kornberg enzyme is associated with the removal of primers and thyminedimer.
R : DNA polymersase I does exonuclease activity in 5 3 and 3 5 directions.
Sol. Answer (1)
13. A : Wobbling reduces the number of tRNAs required for polypeptide synthesis.
R : It increases the effect of code degeneracy.
Sol. Answer (3)
One tRNA can read non-complementary sequence by Wobble hypothesis.
14. A : Unknown DNA after hybridization with VNTR probe, the autoradiogram gives many bands of differing sizes
in DNA profiling.
R : These bands represents DNA fingerprint of organism.
Sol. Answer (2)
15. A : Polypeptide sequences are dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA.

R : Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide can be predicted by the exact sequence of nucleotides on the
mRNA and template DNA.
Sol. Answer (3)
16. A : Triplet genetic code can be confirmed by frame shift mutations.
R : Frame shifting involves the change in protein product coded by triplet codons.
Sol. Answer (2)
By additio or deletion of one Nucleotide cause frame shift mutation.
17. A : Lac operon exerts negative control only.
R : The operator is occupied by aporepressor during regulation.
Sol. Answer (4)
Lac openon is +ve and –ve control.
18. A : Single DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in all except bacteria.
R : Structural genes in bacteria are monocistronic.
Sol. Answer (4)
19. A : Sigma factor of RNA polymesase recognizes the start signal region in prokaryotes.
R : Promotor region lies at 5 of template strand.
Sol. Answer (3)
20. A : HGP was completed in 2003 by sequencing all genes of all chromosomes.
R : All coding and noncoding genes were sequenced by ESTs.
Sol. Answer (4)
HGP completed by 2006.


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Chapter 13

(Life Span, Basic Features of Reproduction, Types of Reproduction, Asexual Reproduction)

3. Process of reproduction which results in production of identical offsprings is

4. Asexual reproduction is common in

5. For which of the following organisms there is no natural death?

6. Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction in

7. During budding in yeast

8. Most common asexual structure produced in algae is

9. In which of the following plants root bud is involved in vegetative propagation?

10. Choose incorrect option for given below organism

(1) Scourge of the water bodies (2) Reproduction through offset

14. Choose incorrect match

(Sexual Reproduction, Events in Sexual Reproduction)

17. In all the sexually reproducing organisms, events involved are

18. Choose odd one w.r.t. sexuality

20. Majority of sexually reproducing organisms form

21. Chara possess

Sol. Answer (4)

22. Give the ploidy of following structures in angiospermic plants.

Zygote, Endosperm, Ovum

(1) n, n, 2n (2) 2n, 2n, n (3) 2n, 3n, n (4) 2n, n, 2n

26. Arrange the following plants w.r.t. increasing number of chromosome

27. Strobilanthus kunthiana

28. In fungi homothallic term is used to represent

30. Given figures labelled by A & B represent

31. Self fertilisation is seen in

32. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. transition after fertilisation in angiosperms

34. Choose odd one w.r.t. flowering and fruiting pattern

(Life Span, Basic Features of Reproduction, Types of Reproduction, Asexual Reproduction)

1. In the process of asexual reproduction

Zoospore, Conidia, Tuber,

5. Fleshy buds in aquatic plants are known as

6. Study the following statements and choose the correct option.

7. A portion of underground stem bearing bud forms a new plant in

8. Which of the following statement about vegetative reproduction is incorrect?

9. Grafting method can be used

(1) a – Buds (2) a – Nodes

Nodal bud, Adventitious bud, Axillary bud,

(Sexual Reproduction, Events in Sexual Reproduction)

14. Select the incorrect statement

15. Choose correct option w.r.t. following structures

Cellular Flagella Wall

17. Which of the following plants produce non-motile male gametes?

19. In few fungi and most of the algae

(1) , (2) Sperm, eggs (3) , (4) Male, female

Sol. Answer (3)

25. Choose correct option w.r.t. features of different plant groups

Sol. Answer (3)

27 Choose correct option w.r.t. given bellow thallus

(1) Produce male gamete

(1) a, d & f (2) b, d & f (3) a, c & e (4) a, d & e

(1) Thick walled zygote – Haplontic life cycle

32. Choose the correct options

} Siphonogamy (Seed plants)

33. Choose the correct option from following statements.

34. The progenitor of the next generation in mature seed is

Previous Years Questions

1. Offsets are produced by [NEET-2018]

(1) Conidia Penicillium (Ascomycetes)