DATE : 07/05/2017 Test Booklet Code

W
(VANI)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2017
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

1. Which one of the following statements is correct, Answer (1)

with reference to enzymes? Sol. Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
(2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme AIDS – HIV (Virus)
(4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor 5. Which among the following are the smallest living
Answer (2) cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
to plants as well as animals and can survive without
Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein
oxygen?
part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
(1) Bacillus
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their
association with apoenzyme is only transient and (2) Pseudomonas
serve as cofactors. (3) Mycoplasma
2. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete (4) Nostoc
antibacterial lysozyme?
Answer (3)
(1) Argentaffin cells (2) Paneth cells
Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes,
(3) Zymogen cells (4) Kupffer cells pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
Answer (2) plants and animals.
Sol. – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver. 6. Which one from those given below is the period for
– Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells. Mendel's hybridization experiments?

– Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as (1) 1856 - 1863

anti-bacterial agent. (2) 1840 - 1850
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells. (3) 1857 - 1869
3. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 (4) 1870 - 1877
acceptor in : Answer (1)
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea
(3) C2 plants (4) C3 and C4 plants plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data
was published in 1865 (according to NCERT).
Answer (2)
7. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are
Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4
plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc. (1) Water
4. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (2) Bee
(Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) (3) Wind
and select the correct option.
(4) Bat
Column - I Column- II
Answer (3)
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
Sol. Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema flowers packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma is a non-directional pollination.
virus 8. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when
Options :
(1) The value of 'r' approaches zero
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) K = N
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) K > N
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) K < N
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited Answer (1)

resources shows logistic growth curve. Sol. Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity.
For logistic growth Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same
breed will increase homozygosity.
dN ⎛K – N⎞
 rN ⎜ ⎟ 12. Among the following characters, which one was not
dt ⎝ K ⎠
considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
K–N
If K = N then =0 (1) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
K
(2) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
dN
 the = 0, (3) Seed – Green or Yellow
dt
(4) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
the population reaches asymptote.
Answer (2)
9. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven
values of X and Y and provides their explanation : characters.
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular
dorsally to vertebral was not considered by Mendel.
column and ventrally to the 13. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible
sternum for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached ATP?
dorsally to vertebral
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
column and sternum on
the two ends (3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondrion
(3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally Answer (4)
attached to vertebral Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of
column but are free on carbohydrates to generate ATP.
ventral side
14. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
(4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
attached to vertebral position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
column but are free on RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
ventral side altered?
Answer (1) (1) 1 (2) 11
Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 (3) 33 (4) 333
pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to
Answer (3)
vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98
10. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the
bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will
lymphoid tissue in human body be altered.
(1) 50% (2) 20% 15. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
(3) 70% (4) 10% conditions?

Answer (1) (1) Archaebacteria

Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and (2) Eubacteria

it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue (3) Cyanobacteria
in human body. (4) Mycobacteria
11. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by Answer (1)
(1) Mating of related individuals of same breed Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions
(2) Mating of unrelated individuals of same breed because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane
(3) Mating of individuals of different breed which reduces fluidity of cell membrane.
(4) Mating of individuals of different species Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

16. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on 20. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
(1) Membranes of synaptic vesicles (1) Equidae (2) Perissodactyla
(2) Pre-synaptic membrane (3) Caballus (4) Ferus
(3) Tips of axons Answer (2)

(4) Post-synaptic membrane Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class

mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
Answer (4)
mammals.
Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of 21. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time
neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The
receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on (1) Ecological Biodiversity
post-synaptic membrane. (2) Laws of limiting factor
17. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk (3) Species area relationships
output represents (4) Population Growth equation
(1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this Answer (3)
character in the population
Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a
(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the region species richness increases with the increases
character in one direction in area.
(3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one 22. DNA fragments are
yielding higher output and the other lower output
(1) Positively charged
(4) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
(2) Negatively charged
the population to produce higher yielding cows
(3) Neutral
Answer (2)
(4) Either positively or negatively charged depending
Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk on their size
output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will
Answer (2)
be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing
selection, the organisms with the mean value of the Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both phosphate group.
extremes get selected. 23. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play
school and passes through a dental check-up. The
18. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth.
(1) Heart (2) Stomach Which teeth were absent?
(3) Kidneys (4) Intestine (1) Incisors (2) Canines
Answer (4) (3) Pre-molars (4) Molars
Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries Answer (3)
maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver. Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
19. The water potential of pure water is Premolars are absent in primary dentition.

(1) Zero 24. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein

degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
(2) Less than zero of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell,
(3) More than zero but less than one which of the following is expected to occur?

(4) More than one (1) Chromosomes will not condense

Answer (1) (2) Chromosomes will be fragmented

(3) Chromosomes will not segregate
Sol. By convention, the water potential of pure water at
standard temperature, which is not under any (4) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
pressure, is taken to be zero. Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein 28. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the explanation for this feature?
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase.
(a) They do not need to reproduce
25. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is (b) They are somatic cells

(1) Absence of notochord (c) They do not metabolize

(2) Ventral tubular nerve cord (d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
(3) Pharynx with gill slits transport

(4) Pharynx without gill slits (1) Only (d) (2) Only (a)
Answer (3) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
Sol. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as Answer (1)
well as in chordates. Notochord is present in
Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during
chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is
maturation which provide more space for oxygen
characteristic feature of non-chordates.
carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the
26. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
Among the blood types of their children, how many anaerobically.
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible? 29. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They
(1) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
(2) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes because of :

(3) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes (1) Residual Volume

(4) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes (2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Answer (3) (3) Tidal Volume
Sol. Husband  Wife (4) Expiratory Reserve Volume
AB A
I I I i
Answer (1)
A B
+ I I Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration
I A A A
II A B
II as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
A alveoli even after forceful expiration.
i Ii IBi
30. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of
Number of genotypes = 4
(1) Marchantia (2) Fucus
Number of phenotypes = 3
IAIA and IAi = A (3) Funaria (4) Chlamydomonas
IAIB = AB Answer (4)
IBi = B Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence
27. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis.
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of 31. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
immune-response is responsible for such rejections? in male frogs :
(1) Autoimmune response (1) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa
(2) Cell-mediated immune response efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(3) Hormonal immune response (2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal
Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(4) Physiological immune response
Answer (2) (3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal 
Ureter  Cloaca
Sol. Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune (4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's
response. canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (4) Answer (2)

Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s (i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca. (ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange
32. Which one of the following statements is not valid for 36. The process of separation and purification of
aerosols? expressed protein before marketing is called
(1) They are harmful to human health (1) Upstream processing
(2) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns (2) Downstream processing
(3) They cause increased agricultural productivity (3) Bioprocessing
(4) They have negative impact on agricultural land (4) Postproduction processing
Answer (3) Answer (2)
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in
through its direct or indirect effects on plants. recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming
However continually increasing air pollution may process while after completion of biosynthetic stage,
represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
the product has to be subjected through a series of
to agriculture in the future.
processes which include separation and purification
33. Viroids differ from viruses in having : are collectively referred to as downstreaming
(1) DNA molecules with protein coat processing.
(2) DNA molecules without protein coat 37. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood.
(3) RNA molecules with protein coat (1) Organic compounds are deposited in it
(4) RNA molecules without protein coat (2) It is highly durable
Answer (4) (3) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA (4) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified
particles, without protein coat. walls
34. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used Answer (3)
to enlongate Sol. Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to
(1) The leading strand towards replication fork deposition of organic compounds and tyloses
formation, so this will not conduct water and
(2) The lagging strand towards replication fork
minerals.
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork
38. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
(4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork (1) Plants (2) Fungi
Answer (4) (3) Animals (4) Bacteria
Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous Answer (4)
at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during
other on the lagging strand.
post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as
polymerase at lagging strand in 5  3 direction. prokaryotes.
New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication 39. Which of the following statements is correct?
fork opens further.
(1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from impermeable to water
the replication fork, the direction of elongation would
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
be away from replication fork.
impermeable to water
35. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores (3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
and show vivipary belong to to water
(1) Mesophytes (2) Halophytes (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(3) Psammophytes (4) Hydrophytes permeable to electrolytes

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (1) Answer (1)

Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation.
water but impermeable to electrolytes while This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root
ascending limb is impermeable to water but hairs.
permeable to electrolytes.
45. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
40. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass? not cause further increase in height, because
(1) Forest ecosystem (2) Grassland ecosystem (1) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
(3) Pond ecosystem (4) Lake ecosystem (2) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
Answer (1) (3) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone
Sol. High productive ecosystem are in adults
– Tropical rain forest (4) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
– Coral reef Answer (2)
– Estuaries Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of
– Sugarcane fields bone which close after adolescence so
hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
41. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
cause further increase in height.
from the experiments of
(1) Griffith 46. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
suspended solids?
(2) Hershey and Chase
(1) Tertiary treatment (2) Secondary treatment
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Primary treatment (4) Sludge treatment
(4) Hargobind Khorana
Answer (2) Answer (3)

Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which Sol. Primary treatment is a physical process which
ended the debate between protein and DNA as involves sequential filtration and sedimentation.
genetic material. 47. Select the mismatch :
42. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's (1) Pinus – Dioecious
is : (2) Cycas – Dioecious
(1) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising (3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
capacity of sperms (4) Equisetum – Homosporous
(2) They inhibit gametogenesis Answer (1)
(3) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and
female cones on same plant.
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Answer (1) 48. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
Sol. Cu 2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence
suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity (1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
of sperms. (2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
43. An example of colonial alga is moves

(1) Chlorella (2) Volvox (3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate
Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect
number of vegetative cells.
provided by agarose gel.
44. Root hairs develop from the region of
49. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of
(1) Maturation (2) Elongation (1) Stipules (2) Adventitious root
(3) Root cap (4) Meristematic activity (3) Stem (4) Leaf
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (3) Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates

Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of
protection. These are modified stem gonadotropins (FSH and LH).
54. A gene whose expression helps to identify
50. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
indicates: transformed cell is known as
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector
(1) Transcription is occurring
(3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
(2) DNA replication is occurring
Answer (1)
(3) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers
(4) The DNA double helix is exposed helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
Answer (3) and selectively permitting the growth of the
Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete transformants.
formation of nucleosome. 55. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical
layers depending on their height can be seen best
Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
in :
51. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is
(1) Tropical Savannah (2) Tropical Rain Forest
(1) Pineal gland (3) Grassland (4) Temperate Forest
(2) Corpus cardiacum Answer (2)
(3) Corpus luteum Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the
(4) Corpus allatum basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation,
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and
Answer (3)
tall emergent trees.
Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure 56. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible into
for the release of the hormones like progesterone,
(1) Ovule (2) Endosperm
oestrogen etc.
(3) Embryo sac (4) Embryo
52. Select the mismatch :
Answer (3)
(1) Frankia – Alnus
Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic
(2) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
(3) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to
(4) Rhizobium – Alfalfa form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
57. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
Answer (2)
(1) During S-phase
Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer.
(2) Within nucleolus
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi
and roots of higher plants. (3) Prior to fission

53. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in (4) Just before transcription

reproduction, acts on Answer (3)
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion Sol. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission.
of LH and oxytocin Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due
to their primitive nature.
(2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and FSH 58. Which among these is the correct combination of
aquatic mammals?
(3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of oxytocin and FSH (1) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
(2) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and relaxin (3) Whales, Dolphins Seals
Answer (2) (4) Trygon, Whales, Seals

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (3) Answer (1)

Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of Sol. Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy for
chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale, conservation of animals and plants in zoological park
Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals belong to and botanical gardens respectively.
class mammalia. 64. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene
59. Coconut fruit is a rich food
(1) Drupe Select the best option from the following statements
(2) Berry (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(3) Nut (b) The photopigments are embedded in the
(4) Capsule membrane discs of the inner segment

Answer (1) (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A

Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded. photopigments

60. Double fertilization is exhibited by (1) (a) & (b)

(1) Gymnosperms (2) Algae (2) (a), (c) & (d)
(3) Fungi (4) Angiosperms (3) (a) & (c)
Answer (4) (4) (b), (c) & (d)
Sol. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature Answer (2)
exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and
triple fusion. Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in
61. Which of the following components provides sticky formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative
character to the bacterial cell? of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
photopigments.
(1) Cell wall
65. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
(2) Nuclear membrane
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
(3) Plasma membrane the correct statement.
(4) Glycocalyx (1) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
Answer (4) chain synthesis

Sol. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to (2) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
glycocalyx or slime layer. This layer is rich in chain synthesis
glycoproteins. (3) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
62. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are molecules
(1) Haplontic, Diplontic (4) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative
(2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic problem of globin molecules

(3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic Answer (3)

(4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic Sol. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that
the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising
Answer (3) too few globin molecules while the latter is a
Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly
has diplontic life cycle. functioning globin.
63. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ 66. Which of the following are not polymeric?
conservation of threatened animals and plants? (1) Nucleic acids (2) Proteins
(1) Wildlife Safari parks (2) Biodiversity hot spots (3) Polysaccharides (4) Lipids
(3) Amazon rainforest (4) Himalayan region Answer (4)
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Sol. – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides Answer (1)

– Proteins are polymers of amino acids Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with
– Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides multipurpose activities.
It has three zones
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol
(a) Core zone – without any human interference
67. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
(b) Buffer zone – with limited human activity
non-disjunction is
(c) Transition zone – human settlement, grazing
(1) Down's syndrome
cultivation etc., are allowed.
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome 71. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with
(3) Turner's syndrome flagellated cells called :
(4) Sickle cell anemia (1) Ostia (2) Oscula

Answer (1) (3) Choanocytes (4) Mesenchymal cells

Answer (3)
Sol. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of
21st chromosome. Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel
in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
68. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
circulation to water in water canal system.
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
not correct? 72. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause
the release of
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight (1) Renin

(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto (2) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate (3) Aldosterone
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with (4) ADH
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have Answer (2)
much lower temperature optimum
Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
yield release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which
Answer (3) cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin
Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that
Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher
decreases the blood volume/pressure.
temperature due to increased photorespiration.
73. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase (1) Autogamy and xenogamy
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature. (2) Autogamy and geitonogamy
69. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented (3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
by the application of (4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene Answer (2)
(3) Auxins (4) Gibberellic acid Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present
on different plants the condition is called dioecious
Answer (3) and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall. 74. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit aperture?
drop in Citrus. (1) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
70. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally (2) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
protected and where no human activity is allowed is (3) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
known as
cell wall of guard cells
(1) Core zone (2) Buffer zone (4) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in
(3) Transition zone (4) Restoration zone the cell wall of guard cells

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (3) 79. Which of the following is correctly matched for the
Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than product produced by them?
longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to (1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
open. (2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
75. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel (3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
can be visualised after staining with (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(1) Bromophenol blue Answer (4)
(2) Acetocarmine Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called
Brewer’s yeast. It causes fermentation of
(3) Aniline blue
carbohydrates producing ethanol.
(4) Ethidium bromide
80. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues
Answer (4) to beat for some time
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA Select the best option from the following statements
fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands
under UV light. (a) Frog is a poikilotherm

76. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation

(1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature
is reduced to NADH + H+ (d) Heart is autoexcitable
(2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is Options
reduced to FADH2
(1) Only (c)
(3) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
(2) Only (d)
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(3) (a) & (b)
(4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield (4) (c) & (d)
citric acid Answer (4)
Answer (4) Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having
Sol. Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because
(2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid of this condition, it will keep on working outside the
(6C).
body for some time.
77. Mycorrhizae are the example of 81. Myelin sheath is produced by
(1) Fungistasis (2) Amensalism (1) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
(3) Antibiosis (4) Mutualism (2) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
Answer (4) (3) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with (4) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
roots of higher plants. Answer (1)
78. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while
(1) Fibrous joint
Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral
(2) Cartilaginous joint nervous system.
(3) Synovial joint 82. Capacitation occurs in
(4) Saddle joint (1) Rete testis
Answer (3) (2) Epididymis
(3) Vas deferens
Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow
considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of (4) Female Reproductive tract
synovial joint which provide rotational movement as Answer (4)
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of
column. sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

83. The morphological nature of the edible part of 88. Which of the following options gives the correct
coconut is sequence of events during mitosis?
(1) Perisperm (2) Cotyledon (1) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
 crossing over  segregation  telophase
(3) Endosperm (4) Pericarp
(2) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
Answer (3)  arrangement at equator  centromere
Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid division  segregation  telophase
endosperm and cellular endosperm. (3) Condensation  crossing over  nuclear
membrane disassembly  segregation 
84. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
telophase
(1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(4) Condensation  arrangement at equator 
(3) Phellem (4) Phloem centromere division  segregation 
Answer (3) telophase
Answer (2)
Sol. Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts
off thick walled suberised dead cork cells towards Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would
outside and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e., be as follows
phelloderm on inner side. (i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
become visible occurs during early to
85. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
mid-prophase.
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
fertilisation? (ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
prophase or transition to metaphase.
(1) Intrauterine transfer
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs
(2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer during metaphase, called congression.
(3) Artificial Insemination (iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during
(4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as
Answer (3)
daughter chromosomes separate and move to
Sol. Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to opposite poles.
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm (vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by nuclei.
artificial insemination (AI).
89. Which of the following options best represents the
86. Which of the following RNAs should be most enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
abundant in animal cell? (1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (2) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(3) m-RNA (4) mi-RNA (3) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
Answer (1) (4) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-
peptidase
Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes
80% of total RNA of the cell. Answer (4)

87. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal
(1) Phelloderm juice.
(2) Primary phloem 90. Attractants and rewards are required for
(3) Secondary xylem (1) Anemophily (2) Entomophily

(4) Periderm (3) Hydrophily (4) Cleistogamy

Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible
Sol. During secondary growth, vascular cambium gives pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While
rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem. some plants also provide safe place for deposition of
Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium. eggs.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

91. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m 92. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km
respectively are connected by a massless and above the earth is the same as at a depth d below
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended the surface of earth. Then
by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
1
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately (1) d  km (2) d = 1 km
after the string is cut, are respectively 2
3
(3) d  km (4) d = 2 km
2
Answer (4)
Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface

A 3m ⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞
g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠
e e
B m
2h d
g g g  = g R …(1) g = g R …(2)
e e
(1) g, (2) ,g
3 3
From (1) & (2)
g g d = 2h
(3) g, g (4) ,
3 3
d = 2 × 1 km
Answer (2)
93. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion
kx with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its
Sol. 3m time period in seconds is

T 5
(1)

3mg
5
Before the string is cut (2)
2
kx = T + 3mg ...(1)
4
(3)
T = mg ...(2) 5
T 2
(4)
3
m
Answer (3)

mg
Sol. v   A2 – x 2
 kx = 4mg
a = x2
After the string is cut, T = 0
v a
kx  3mg kx
a=
3m  A2 – x 2  x 2

⎛ 2 ⎞
(3)2 – (2)2  2 ⎜ ⎟
3m m ⎝T ⎠
4mg  3mg
a=  a = g
3m 4
mg 5
T
3mg
g 4
 T 
a= 5
3
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

94. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted Initial energy

and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new
1
resistance will be Ui  CV 2
2
R Final energy
(1) nR (2)
n
2 2
1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞
R Uf  C⎜ ⎟  C⎜ ⎟
(3) n2R (4) 2 ⎝2⎠ 2 ⎝2⎠
n2
Answer (3) CV 2

4
R2 l 22
Sol. R  2 Loss of energy = Ui – Uf
1 l1
CV 2
n 2l12 
 4
l12 i.e. decreases by a factor (2)
R2 96. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded
 n2
R1 together as shown in figure. Their thermal
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal
R2 = n2R1
conductivity of the composite rod will be
95. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor A K1
T1 T2
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic B K2
energy of resulting system d
(1) Increases by a factor of 4 K1  K 2
(1)
(2) Decreases by a factor of 2 2
(3) Remains the same 3  K1  K 2 
(2)
(4) Increases by a factor of 2 2
Answer (2) (3) K1 + K2
(4) 2(K1 + K2)
Sol. C
Answer (1)
Sol. Thermal current
H = H1 + H2
V K1A(T1  T2 ) K 2 A(T1  T2 )
= 
Charge on capacitor d d
K EQ 2 A(T1  T2 ) A(T1  T2 )
q = CV  K1  K2 
d d
when it is connected with another uncharged
capacitor. ⎡ K  K2 ⎤
K EQ  ⎢ 1 ⎥
C q ⎣ 2 ⎦
97. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(1) 10 Hz
C
q1  q2 q0 (2) 20 Hz
Vc  
C1  C2 C  C (3) 30 Hz

V (4) 40 Hz
Vc 
2 Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Sol. Two successive frequencies of closed pipe Answer (1)

nv
 220 ...(i) e2
4l Sol. Let  A  ML3 T –2
40
 n  2 v  260 ...(ii)
4l l = CxGy(A)z
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y [ML3T–2]z
–y + z = 0  y = z ...(i)
n  2 260 13
 
n 220 11 x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
–x – 4z = 0 ...(iii)
11n + 22 = 13n
From (i), (ii) & (iii)
n = 11

v 1
So, 11  220 z=y= , x = –2
4l 2
v 100. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical
 20
4l resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two
So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz. identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current
98. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is
'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is
subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional
decrease in radius is R R
L
p B +
–
(1) (2) R L C
B 3p
3p p (1) 2 mA
(3) (4)
B 3B
(2) 0.2 A
Answer (4)
(3) 2 A
p
Sol. B  (4) 0 ampere
⎛ V ⎞
⎜ V ⎟ Answer (3*)
⎝ ⎠
V p R3
 L1 R2
V B Sol  +
–
r p R1 L2 C
3 
r B
At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3
r p
 i
r 3B
99. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that
+
e2   R2
can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity –
40
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e
is charge] 
i
1 1 R2
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
(1) 2 ⎢G ⎥ (2) c 2 ⎢G ⎥ 18
c ⎣ 40 ⎦ ⎣ 40 ⎦ =
9
1 =2A
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 1 e2
(3) 2 ⎢ ⎥ (4) G Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out
c ⎣ G 40 ⎦ c 40
of given is (3).

15
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

101. One end of string of length l is connected to a Answer (2)

particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected Sol. No option is correct
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force NA 1
If we take 
on the particle (directed towards center) will be NB e
(T represents the tension in the string) Then
m v2 N A e 8 t
(1) T (2) T   t
l NB e
m v2 1
(3) T  (4) Zero  e 7 t
l e
Answer (1) –1 = –7t
1
⎛ mv 2 ⎞ t=
Sol. Centripetal force ⎜⎜ l ⎟⎟ is provided by tension so 7
⎝ ⎠ 104. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass
the net force will be equal to tension i.e., T. 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
102. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected a force of 30 N?
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength (1) 25 m/s2 (2) 0.25 rad/s2
2536 × 10–10 m is (3) 25 rad/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) Answer (3)
(1)  6 × 105 ms–1 (2)  0.6 × 106 ms–1
40
(3)  61 × 103 ms–1 (4)  0.3 × 106 ms–1 Sol. cm

Answer (1 & 2)* Both answers are correct.

Sol. 0 = 3250 × 10–10 m
 = 2536 × 10–10 m F = 30 N
=I
1242 eV-nm
=  3.82 eV F × R = MR2
325 nm
30 × 0.4 = 3 × (0.4)2 
1242 eV-nm
h =  4.89 eV 12 = 3 × 0.16 
253.6 nm
400 = 16 
KEmax = (4.89 – 3.82) eV = 1.077 eV
 = 25 rad/s2
1
mv 2  1.077  1.6  10 19 105. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach
2
each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s
2  1.077  1.6  10 19 respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn
v=
9.1  10 31
having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by
the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound
v = 0.6 × 106 m/s 340 m/s]
103. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and (1) 350 Hz (2) 361 Hz
material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they have
(3) 411 Hz (4) 448 Hz
same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of
Answer (4)
1
number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will be ?
e ⎡v  vo ⎤
Sol. fA  f ⎢ ⎥
1 1 ⎣ v  vs ⎦
(1) (2)
 7 ⎡ 340  16.5 ⎤
 400 ⎢ ⎥
1 1 ⎣ 340  22 ⎦
(3) (4)
8 9 fA = 448 Hz
16
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

106. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and 108. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + e). If
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force
Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance
torque is d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero,
(1) 9.1 J (2) 4.55 J then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen
mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg]
(3) 2.3 J (4) 1.15 J
(1) 10–20 C (2) 10–23 C
Answer (1)
(3) 10–37 C (4) 10–47 C
Sol. W = MB (cos1 – cos2)
Answer (3)
When it is rotated by angle 180º then
Sol. Fe = Fg
W = 2MB
1 e 2 Gm 2
W = 2 (NIA)B  2
40 d 2 d
= 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85
9 × 109 (e2) = 6.67 × 10–11 × 1.67
× 10–2
× 10–27 × 1.67 × 10–27
= 9.1 J
6.67  1.67  1.67
107. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns e 2   10 74
9
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100
turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis e  10 37
coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A 109. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space
in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the after having lost contact with their spaceship. The
total charge flowing through the coil during this time two will:
is (1) Keep floating at the same distance between
(1) 32C (2) 16 C them
(3) 32 C (4) 16C (2) Move towards each other
Answer (3) (3) Move away from each other

d (4) Will become stationary

Sol.   N
dt Answer (2)
 N d Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of

R R dt weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls
towards each other.
N
dq  d 110. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer
R
series and the last line of Lyman series is
N ( )
Q  (1) 2 (2) 1
R
total (3) 4 (4) 0.5
Q 
R Answer (3)
(NBA) Sol. For last Balmer series

R
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
 R⎢ 2  2⎥
 ni r 2 b ⎣2  ⎦
 0
R
4
Putting values b 
R
4  107  100  4    (0.01)2 For last Lyman series

102
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
R⎢ 2  2⎥
Q  32 C l ⎣1  ⎦
17
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

1 113. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the

l  following diagram.
R
4 P
b R IV
 i f
l 1
I III
R f
b f II
4 700 K
l f 500 K
300 K
111. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal V
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T Match the following
(Kelvin) and mass m, is
Column-1 Column-2
h h P. Process I a. Adiabatic
(1) (2)
mkT 3mkT Q. Process II b. Isobaric
2h 2h R. Process III c. Isochoric
(3) (4)
3mkT mkT S. Process IV d. Isothermal
Answer (2) (1) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength (2) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b

h (3) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a

mv (4) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c
h Answer (2)
= 2m(KE) Sol. Process I = Isochoric

h II = Adiabatic

3 III = Isothermal
2m( kT )
2 IV = Isobaric
h 114. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is

3mkT partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with
water, is poured into one side until it stands at a
112. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of
distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
with another thin prism of glass of refractive index
original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is
1.7. This combination produces dispersion without
deviation. The refracting angle of second prism Pa Pa
should be F
A
10 mm
(1) 4° (2) 6° E
Final water level
(3) 8° (4) 10°
65 mm
Answer (2) Oil D
Initial water level
Sol. (  1)A  (  1)A  0 65 mm

B C
(  1)A  (  1)A
Water
(1.42  1)  10  (1.7  1)A

4.2 = 0.7A' (1) 650 kg m–3 (2) 425 kg m–3

A' = 6° (3) 800 kg m–3 (4) 928 kg m–3

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (4) Answer (1)

Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g Sol. Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre
140 × oil = 130 × water of gravity.
117. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally
13
oil = × 1000 kg/m3 on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
14
the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
oil = 928 kg m–3 a scale placed just above the source L. When the
115. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new the light is found to move through a distance y on
force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel the scale. The angle  is given by
and force constant is k. Then k : k is
y y
(1) (2)
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 9 2x x
(3) 1 : 11 (4) 1 : 14 x x
(3) (4)
Answer (3) 2y y

1 Answer (1)
Sol. Spring constant  length
Sol. When mirror is rotated by  angle reflected ray will
be rotated by 2.
1
k
l
i.e, k1 = 6k 2

k2 = 3k
x
k3 = 2k
In series

1 1 1 1 y
  
k ' 6k 3k 2k y
 2
1 6 x

k ' 6k y

k' = k 2x
118. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and
k'' = 6k + 3k + 2k
4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
k'' = 11k vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is
k' 1
 i.e k ' : k ''  1: 11
k '' 11 (1) 4 RT
116. Which of the following statements are correct? (2) 15 RT
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with (3) 9 RT
the centre of gravity of the body.
(4) 11 RT
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which
Answer (4)
the total gravitational torque on the body is zero
f f
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational Sol. U = n1 1 RT  n2 2 RT
and rotational motion in a body. 2 2

(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means 5 3

= 2 RT  4  RT
that small effort can be used to lift a large load. 2 2
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) = 5 RT + 6 RT
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d) U = 11 RT

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

119. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling Answer (4)
from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed Sol. Force between BC and AB will be same in
of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value magnitude.
10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force
d C
and the (ii) resistive force of air is B
(1) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J F
90°
(2) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
(3) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J d F
(4) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J
Answer (4) A
Sol. wg + wa = Kf – Ki  0I 2
FBC  FBA 
1 2d
mgh + wa = mv 2  0
2
F  2FBC
1
10–3 × 10 × + wa =  10 3  (50)2
103
2 0 I 2
 2
wa = –8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and 2 d
work done due to gravity = 10 J
 0I 2
F
1 2 d
120. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat
10
122. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x
the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
from the reservoir at lower temperature is acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
(1) 1 J (2) 90 J
(3) 99 J (4) 100 J (1) 0
Answer (2) (2) 5 m/s2
1 
Sol.  = (3) –4 m/s2

1 9 (4) –8 m/s2
1
 10  10
1 1 Answer (3)
10 10 Sol. x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t
=9
Q2 dx dy
= = 5 – 4t = 10
W dt dt
Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J
121. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires vx = 5 – 4t vy = 10
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fig. dv dv
x–4 y  10
Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire dt dt
‘B’ is given by
C ax = – 4 ay = 0
B d
Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = –4 m/s2
90°
123. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
d
microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and
2 = 6000 Å is
A
0 I 2
20I 2 (1) 8 : 27 (2) 9 : 4
(1) (2)
2d d (3) 3 : 2 (4) 16 : 81
2 2
20I 0I Answer (3)
(3) (4)
d 2d
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

1 125. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm

Sol. Resolving power  radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were

halved and the temperature doubled, the power
R1  2 radiated in watt would be

R2 1 (1) 225 (2) 450

6000 Å (3) 1000 (4) 1800


4000 Å Answer (4)
3 Sol. Rate of power loss

2
r  R 2T 4
124. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
escalator was not working. She walked up the r1 R12T14

stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she r2 R22T24
remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by 1
= 4
her to walk up on the moving escalator will be 16

t1  t2 450 1

(1)
2 r2 4

r2 = 1800 watt
t1t2
(2) t – t 126. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device
2 1
to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because
t1t2 the method involves :
(3) t  t
2 1 (1) Cells
(4) t1 – t2 (2) Potential gradients

Answer (3) (3) A condition of no current flow through the

galvanometer
d (4) A combination of cells, galvanometer and
Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator   v ge
t1 resistances
Answer (3)
d Sol. Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during
Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG  then
t2 taking reading it does not draw any current from the
velocity of girl w.r.t. ground circuit.

   127. The given electrical network is equivalent to

v gG  v ge  v eG
A Y
i.e, v gG  v ge  v eG B

(1) AND gate

d d d
 
t t1 t 2 (2) OR gate
(3) NOR gate
1 1 1
 
t t1 t2 (4) NOT gate
Answer (3)
t1t2
t
(t1  t2 ) Sol. Y  A  B
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

128. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio

1 I2
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The  (   2 )2
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100 2 (2I ) 1
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and
power gain of the amplifier is 1
 I (1   2 )2
(1) 200 and 1000 4

(2) 15 and 200 130. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
(3) 150 and 15000 that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the
(4) 20 and 2000 medium is nearly

Answer (3) (1) 1.25

Sol. Current gain () = 100 (2) 1.59

Rc (3) 1.69
Voltage gain (AV) = 
Rb
(4) 1.78
⎛ 3⎞
= 100 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ Answer (4)
2
D
= 150 Sol. X1 = X5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1)
2d
Power gain = AV 
D
X2 = X8th bright = 8
= 150 (100) d

= 15000 X1 = X2

129. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about

9 D D
their regular axis passing through centre and 8
2 d d
perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact
16
face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The   1.78
9
expression for loss of energy during this process is
131. Which one of the following represents forward bias
1 diode?
(1) I (1  2 )2
2
0V R –2 V
(1)
1
(2) I (1  2 )2
4 –4 V R –3 V
(2)
(3) I(1 – 2)2
–2 V R +2 V
(3)
I
(4) (1  2 )2
8 R
(4) 3V 5V

Answer (2)
Answer (1)
1 I1I2
Sol. KE  (1   2 )2 Sol. In forward bias, p-type semiconductor is at higher
2 I1  I2
potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

132. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis Brms = 2 × 10–8
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between B0
P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º Brms =
2
with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
through P2 is
B 0  2  Brms
I0 I0
(1) (2)
2 4 = 2  2  10 –8
I0 I0
(3) (4) = 2.83 × 10–8 T
8 16
134. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed
Answer (3)
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
P1 P3 P2 then the true angle of dip  is given by
I2 (1) cot2 = cot21 + cot22
Sol.
I0 I1 I3
(2) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
90° (3) cot2 = cot21 – cot22
45°
(4) tan2 = tan21 – tan22

Answer (1)
I
I2  0 cos2 45 Sol. cot2 = cot21 + cot22
2
I0 1 135. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.
 
2 2
20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
I 20 V
 0
4
I0 A B A B A B A B
I3  cos2 45
4
10 V
I0 30 V
I3  10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
8 (a) (b) (c) (d)
133. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
diagram.
peak value of the magnetic field is
(1) 1.41 × 10–8 T (1) Maximum work is required to move q in
(2) 2.83 × 10–8 T figure (c).

(3) 0.70 × 10–8 T (2) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
(4) 4.23 × 10–8 T
(3) Minimum work is required to move q in
Answer (2) figure (a).

Erms (4) Maximum work is required to move q in

Sol. c
Brms figure (b).

Answer (2)
Erms
Brms 
c Sol. Work done w = qV
6 V is same in all the cases so work is done will be

3  108 same in all the cases.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

136. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in Answer (2)
actinoids is attributed to Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family
(1) The radioactive nature of actinoids Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2
(2) Actinoid contraction 141. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
(3) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers
(4) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
is now decreased by moving the movable piston
Answer (3) fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the
Sol. It is a fact. container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
maximum value, will be
137. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
compound is : 

(Given that : SrCO3(s)  SrO(s) + CO 2(g).
(1) Ruthenocene (2) Grignard's reagent Kp = 1.6 atm)

(3) Ferrocene (4) Cobaltocene (1) 5 litre (2) 10 litre

Answer (2) (3) 4 litre (4) 2 litre

Answer (1)
Sol. Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded
organometallic compound. Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium
138. Which one is the wrong statement? For reaction,

h 

 SrO(s)  CO2
SrCO3 (s) 
(1) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by   ,
mv
where m = mass of the particle, v = group Kp  PCO2  1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2
velocity of the particle
Volume of container at this stage,
h
(2) The uncertainty principle is E  t  nRT
4 V …(i)
P
(3) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater Since container is sealed and reaction was not
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater earlier at equilibrium
symmetry and more balanced arrangement
 n = constant
(4) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
PV 0.4  20
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms n  …(ii)
RT RT
Answer (4)
Put equation (ii) in equation (i)
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of
⎡ 0.4  20 ⎤ RT
hydrogen like atoms is equal. V⎢ ⎥ = 5 litre
⎣ RT ⎦ 1.6
139. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
142. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the
(1) Analgesic (2) Antiseptic following reaction
(3) Antipyretic (4) Antibiotic H2O, H2SO4
H 3C C CH HgSO4
intermediate product
Answer (2) (A) (B)

Sol. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (1) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3
antiseptic.
SO4 O
140. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. (2) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH2
It will belong to which of the following family group
and electronic configuration? OH SO4
(1) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5 (3) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH
(2) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2 O
(3) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4 (4) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3
(4) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6 OH O
24
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI
Answer (4) 147. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol –1 and
OH S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous
at : (Assume that H and S do not vary with
Sol. H3C – C  CH H3C – C = CH temperature)
(A)
O (1) T < 425 K
Tautomerism
H3C – C – CH3 (2) T > 425 K
(B)
(3) All temperatures
143. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
(1) Haemoglobin (4) T > 298 K
(2) Micro-organisms present in the soil Answer (2)
(3) Oceans Sol. ∵ G = H – TS
(4) Plants
For a reaction to be spontaneous, G = –ve
Answer (2)
i.e., H < TS
Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO.
144. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for H 35.5  103 J
converting acetamide to methanamine?  T 
S 83.6 JK –1
(1) Carbylamine reaction
i.e., T > 425 K
(2) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
(3) Stephens reaction 148. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with
the geometry in column II and assign the correct
(4) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
code
Answer (2)
Column I Column II
O
 (a) XX (i) T-shape
Sol. CH3 – C – NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH
CH3 – NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O (b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal
This is Hoffmann Bromamide reaction. bipyramidal
145. The species, having bond angles of 120° is (c) XX5 (iii) Linear
(1) PH3 (2) CIF3
(d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
(3) NCl3 (4) BCl3
Answer (4) (v) Tetrahedral

Cl Code :
120°
Sol. B (a) (b) (c) (d)
Cl Cl
146. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
complexes : CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3
respectively is (3) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(1) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl Answer (2)
(3) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl Sol. XX  Linear
(4) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
XX3  Example : CIF3  T-shape
Answer (3)
XX5  Example : BrF5  Square pyramidal
Sol. Complexes are respectively [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ,
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl XX7  Example : IF7  Pentagonal bipyramidal

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

149. Identify A and predict the type of reaction 150. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
OCH3 (1) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction

NaNH2 (2) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in

A the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at
Br equilibrium
(3) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
OCH3 (4) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of
enzyme

(1) and substitution reaction Answer (2)

NH2 Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the
forward and backward reaction by same amount,
therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward
OCH3
reaction by same rate.
NH2
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by
(2) and elimination addition reaction
catalyst at a given temperature.
151. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified
KMnO4 solution:
OCH3
Br (1) CO2 (2) SO2
(3) and cine substitution reaction (3) NO2 (4) P2O5
Answer (2)
Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.
OCH3
152. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
following compounds is
(4) and cine substitution reaction
NH2 NH2 NH2

Answer (1)
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
NO2 CH3
Sol. H
NH2 (I) (II) (III)
(1) II < III < I (2) III < I < II
Br Br
Benzyne (3) III < II < I (4) II < I < III

OCH3 Answer (4)

NH2 Sol. –NO2 has strong –R effect and –CH3 shows +R
OCH3 X
a effect.
(Less stable)
NH2  Order of basic strength is
OCH3
OCH3 NH2 NH2 NH2
b H–NH2
< <
NH2
NH2
More stable as –ve charge is close to electron NO2 CH3
withdrawing group 153. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value
∵ Incoming nucleophile ends on same ‘C’ on which of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
‘Br’ (Leaving group) was present (1) Doubled (2) Halved
 NOT cine substitution. (3) Tripled (4) Unchanged

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Answer (4) 156. The correct statement regarding electrophile is

Sol. Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of (1) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
solvent and is independent of molality. can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
154. Of the following, which is the product formed when from a nucleophile
cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation (2) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
followed by heating? can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
O from another electrophile
(3) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
(1) (2) can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
from a nucleophile
OH O (4) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
charged species and can form a bond by
(3) (4) accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Answer (4)
OH O O
Answer (2) Sol. Fact.
O O
157. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
H (–) container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
(i) OH
Sol. + H atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume
(ii) 
of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
O gas in joules will be
155. The equilibrium constants of the following are.
(1) 1136.25 J (2) –500 J


N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 K1
(3) –505 J (4) +505 J


N2 + O2 
 2NO K2
Answer (3)
1
H2  O2  H2O K3
Sol. U = q + w
2
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction: For adiabatic process, q = 0
5 K

2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O, will be  U = w
2
= – P·V
(1) K1K33 / K2 (2) K2K33 / K1
= –2.5 atm × (4.5 – 2.5) L
(3) K2K3 / K1 (4) K32K3 / K1
= –2.5 × 2 L-atm
Answer (2)
= –5 × 101.3 J
2
[NH3 ] = –506.5 J
Sol. (I) 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1 
[N2 ] [H2 ]3  –505 J

158. Which of the following pairs of compounds is


 [NO]2
(II) N2  O2 
 2NO; K 2  isoelectronic and isostructural?
[N2 ] [O2 ]
(1) BeCl2, XeF2 (2) Tel2, XeF2
1 [H2 O]
(III) H2  O2  H2 O; K 3 
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2 (3) IBr2 , XeF2 (4) IF3, XeF2

(II + 3  III – II) will give Answer (3)

5 K
 Sol. IBr2–, XeF2
2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O;
2
Total number of valence electrons are equal in both
 K  K 2  K33 / K1 the species and both the species are linear also.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

159. Which is the incorrect statement? 162. Pick out the correct statement with respect
[Mn(CN)6]3– :
(1) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency
defect (1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
(2) Density decreases in case of crystals with (2) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
Schottky's defect
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
(3) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor,
(4) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric
crystal Answer (3)

(4) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic Sol. [Mn(CN)6]3–

compounds in which sizes of cation and anions Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4
are almost equal
CN – being strong field ligand forces pairing of
Answer (1 & 4) electrons
Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in 4 0
which size of cation and anion is largely different. This gives t2g eg

Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.93–0.96O1.00  Mn(III) = [Ar]

and it is due to metal deficiency defect.
160. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces.
(1) Ethyl chlorides 3d 4s 4p
2 3
(2) Iodobenzene d sp
(3) Phenol ∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6
(4) Benzene  Structure = octahedral
Answer (3) [Mn(CN)6]3– =

O – CH3 OH
[Ar]      
HI
Sol. + CH3I 2 3
d sp
163. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of
161. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
the following statements is true?
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is (1) Bond angle remains same but bond length
changes
(1) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(2) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
same
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+
(3) Both bond angle and bond length change
(4) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(4) Both bond angles and bond length remains
Answer (1) same
Sol. The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series Answer (4)
H2O < NH3 < en Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be in the conformations of ethane. There is only change
in the order in dihedral angle.

[Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+ 164. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite (1) Molality (2) Molarity
order (3) Mole fraction (4) Weight percentage
i.e., [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ Answer (2)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

Sol. Molarity includes volume of solution which can 168. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the
change with change in temperature. valence shell to participate in bonding that
165. Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
(1) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a (2) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
human body
(3) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
(2) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(4) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
(3) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
involved in blood clotting Answer (1)
(4) Denaturation makes the proteins more active Sol. Inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to
Answer (4) participate in bonding on moving down the group in
Sol. Due to denaturation of proteins, globules unfold and heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect
helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
activity.
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
166. The IUPAC name of the compound
 Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
O O  Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
C Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
H is ________.
 Sn(II) is reducing agent
169. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
(1) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :
(2) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
(i) X2  X + X (fast)
(3) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal 

(ii) X + Y2 
 XY + Y (slow)
Answer (1) (iii) X + Y  XY (fast)

O O The overall order of the reaction will be

2 (1) 1 (2) 2
Sol. H C 3 4
1
(3) 0 (4) 1.5
5 6
Answer (4)
Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming
in numbering of principal C-chain. step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question
 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii)
167. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing
I– ions the pair of species formed is = k[X] [Y2] ...(1)
(1) HgI2 , I3– (2) HgI2 , I–
k = rate constant of step (ii)
(3) HgI2–
4 , I3
– (4) Hg2I2 , I –
Assuming step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium
Answer (3) constant,
Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I–, both HgCl2
1 1
and I2 compete for I–. [X]2
k eq  ⇒ [X]  k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2– is 1.9 × 1030 [X2 ]
which is very large as compared with I3– (Kf = 700)
Put (2) in (1)
 I– will preferentially combine with HgCl2.
HgCl2 + 2I–  HgI2 + 2Cl– 1 1
Rate = kk eq 2 [X 2
Red ppt 2 ] [Y2 ]

HgI2 + 2I–  [HgI4]2– 1 3

Overall order =  1  = 1.5
soluble 2 2
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

170. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution 173. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal
of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts
of Ag2C2O4 is are put under an electric field?

(1) 2.42 × 10–8 (2) 2.66 × 10–12 (1) Na (2) K

(3) Rb (4) Li
(3) 4.5 × 10–11 (4) 5.3 × 10–12
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density

  2
Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s)  2 Ag (aq)  C2O4 (aq)  Li+ is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal
2s s
ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore,
KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42–] largest.
[Ag+] = 2.2 × 10–4 M  Moves slowest under electric field.

2.2  104 174. Consider the reactions :

 [C2O24 ]  M  1.1 104 M +
2 X
Cu /
A
[Ag(NH3)2]
Silver mirror observed
573 K –OH, 
 KSP = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4) (C2H6O)
–OH, 
Y
O
= 5.324 × 10–12
NH2 – NH – C – NH2
171. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with Z
CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation (1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate
(3) Zone refining (4) Displacement with Zn ion, Z-hydrazine

Answer (4) (2) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid,

Z-Semicarbazide
Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces
them. (3) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,
Z-Semicarbazone
From Native ore,
(4) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone,
Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2  Z-Hydrazone
4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH Answer (3)
Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I) Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it
Displacement
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone.

Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be
Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag
an aldehyde or ketone.
172. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
Reaction with OH – i.e., aldol condensation (by
(1) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C  assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is
CH > CH  CH aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible
(2) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 and carried out in special apparatus.
– CH3 These indicates option (3).
+ –
(3) CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > CH3 Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH
CH3–CH2OH 573 K
CH3–CHO CH3–COOH
– CH3 
(X) (A)
ethanal
(4) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH >
O
CH  CH –
OH
H2N – NH – C – NH2 OH
Answer (2) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
O
3-Hydroxybutanal
Sol. Correct order is CH3 – CH = N – NH – C – NH2 
(Z)
H – C  C – H  H3 C – C  C – H  H2C  CH2  CH3 – CH3 CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
(Two acidic (One acidic (Y)
hydrogens) hydrogen)
But-2-enal

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-W) VANI

175. In which pair of ions both the species contain When concentrations are changed
S – S bond?
o 2.303RT 1
(1) S2O72–, S2O32– (2) S4O62–, S2O32–  E2  Ecell –  log
2F 0.01
(3) S2O72–, S2O82– (4) S4O62–, S2O72–
i.e., E1 > E2
Answer (2)
178. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
O O O 10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the
– –
reactant to reduce to 5 g?
Sol. O S S S S O , S
O– (1) 238.6 second
O O S –
O
(2) 138.6 second
[S4O6]2(–) [S2O3]2(–)
(3) 346.5 second
176. Which one is the most acidic compound? (4) 693.0 second
OH OH Answer (2)
0.693
(1) (2) Sol. t1/2  second
10 –2
CH3 For the reduction of 20 g of reactant to 5 g, two t1/2
is required.
OH OH
O2N NO2 0.693
 t  2 second
(3) (4) 10 –2
= 138.6 second
NO2 NO2
179. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
Answer (4)
mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
Sol. –NO2 group has very strong –I & –R effects.
(1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography
177. In the electrochemical cell :
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this (3) Crystallisation (4) Steam distillation
Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 Answer (4)
is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to
0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of
which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para
nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in
RT ortho nitrophenol.
(Given, = 0.059)
F
180. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1 < E2 same bond order?
(3) E1 > E2 (4) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (1) CO, NO (2) O2, NO+
Answer (3) (3) CN–, CO (4) N2, O2–
Sol. Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu
Answer (3)
o 2.303RT (0.01) Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each.
 E1  Ecell –  log
2F 1

  

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