BYJU'S

NEET-2021

BIOLOGY
PART-2

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MCQs on Ureotelism For NEET
Some animals excrete excess nitrogenous waste in the form of urea, these are ureotelic animals
and the phenomena is referred to as ureotelism. Urea is less toxic and can be stored in the body
for good durations in the body. From the body it is excreted in the form of urine. Ureotelism is
seen in some semi-terrestrial animals such as adult amphibians, earthworms, elasmobranch, etc.
1. The urea in hypertonicity is retained in
(a) birds
(b) man
(c) amphibians
(d) elasmobranch
Answer: (d)
2. This is a metabolic waste as a result of protein metabolism
(a) ammonia, urea and creatinine
(b) ammonia, urea and alanine
(c) nitrogen, oxygen and urea
(d) carbon dioxide, urea and ammonia
Answer: (a)
3. The least toxic excretory material is
(a) urea
(b) all are equally toxic
(c) ammonia
(d) uric acid
Answer: (d)
4. The yellow colour is imparted to the vertebrate’s urine because of
(a) melanin
(b) uric acid

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(c) urochrome
(d) cholesterol
Answer: (c)
5. This amongst the following is an excretory structure
(a) pinacocyte
(b) solenocyte
(c) choanocyte
(d) archeocyte
Answer: (b)
6. In the urine of frog, the main nitrogenous waste product is
(a) allantoin
(b) urea
(c) uric acid
(d) ammonia
Answer: (b)
7. In ureotelic animals,
(a) urine is passed out in form of solution of ammonia
(b) urine is passed out in form of solution of urea
(c) urine is passed out in form of amino acids
(d) urine is passed out in none of these forms
Answer: (b)
8. For urea formation, the correct order of ornithine cycle is. Ornithine ________,
________
(a) urinine, arginine
(b) arginine, urinine
(c) citrulline, arginine
(d) arginine, citrulline
Answer: (c)
9. Who discovered the Ornithine cycle?
(a) Bowman
(b) Krebs and Hanseliet

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(c) Krebs
(d) Malpighi
Answer: (b)
10. The main nitrogenous waste in ___________ is uric acid
(a) man
(b) fishes
(c) birds
(d) frog
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Hepatitis For NEET

The liver tissue experiences inflammation in Hepatitis infection. While some infected patients
are asymptomatic, some others tend to develop discolouration of the skin (yellow) and whites of
the eyes, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, diarrhoea, etc. Solve some questions listed here on
Hepatitis.
1. This nucleic acid is found in hepatitis B virus
(a) dsRNA
(b) ssDNA
(c) ssRNA
(d) dsDNA
Answer: (d)
2. Hepatitis G virus is from the family
(a) Coronaviridae
(b) Hepadnaviridae
(c) Flaviviridae
(d) Caliciviridae
Answer: (c)
3. This Hepatitis virus is not an RNA virus
(a) Hepatitis G virus
(b) Hepatitis E virus
(c) Hepatitis B virus
(d) Hepatitis A virus

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Answer: (c)
4. This form of Hepatitis could be passed via contaminated water or food
(a) A and E
(b) C
(c) B
(d) All of these
Answer: (a)
5. This is incorrect regarding Hepatitis A virus
(a) It can cause hepatocellular carcinoma
(b) It may be cultivated in cell culture to be used in primate and human cells
(c) It is one of the most stable viruses that infects humans
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
6. This can cause Hepatitis
(a) an improperly functioning immune system
(b) alcohol and medicines
(c) viruses
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
7. The most reliable detection test for Hepatitis E is
(a) ELISA test for IgG anti-HEV
(b) Polymerase chain reaction for detection of HEV RNA
(c) Western blot assay for IgM anti-HEV
(d) ELISA test for IgM anti-HEV
Answer: (b)
8. This agent represents an isolate of Hepatitis G virus
(a) GBV-C
(b) GBV-B
(c) GBV-A
(d) None of the above

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Answer: (a)
9. This organ is majorly affected by hepatitis
(a) Liver
(b) Heart
(c) Kidneys
(d) Brain
Answer: (a)
10. In a sample of blood, doctors look for which of these elevated levels to confirm
Hepatitis?
(a) Interferons
(b) Calcium
(c) Liver enzymes
(d) White blood cells
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Plague For NEET

Bacteria Yersinia pestis causes an infectious disease Plague, typically seen in smaller mammals
and its fleas. It is a zoonotic disease, transmitted between animals through its fleas and it can
transmit from animals to humans. Yersinia pestis was formerly known as Pasteurella pestis. It is
a gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. In the medieval times, plague was known as Black Death.
If left untreated without the administration of antibiotics, it can turn fatal. Provided below are a
few questions on the topic Plague, along with answers.
1. The causative of the bacterial disease, Plague is
(a) Vibrio
(b) Mycobacterium
(c) Clostridium
(d) Pasteurella pestis
Answer: (d)
2. In the life cycle of plague, this is the role of humans
(a) primary host
(b) secondary reservoir
(c) accidental intruder in rat flea cycle
(d) primary transmission vector

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Answer: (c)
3. This transmits Plague
(a) Tse-tse fly
(b) House fly
(c) Mosquito
(d) Rat flea
Answer: (d)
4. This set shows bacteria diseases
(a) Mumps, Malaria, poliomyelitis
(b) Tuberculosis, Tetanus, Measles
(c) Plague, Leprosy, Diphtheria
(d) Mumps, Typhoid, Cholera
Answer: (c)
5. What is the biological name of the vector/insect which carries Plague?
(a) Pediculus humanus
(b) Bacillus pestis
(c) Anopheles mosquito
(d) Xenopsylla cheopis
Answer: (d)
6. This plague type is the most serious of all forms of this disease and is contagious
(a) Septicemic Plague
(b) Pneumonic Plague
(c) Bubonic Plague
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
7. Which of the following is associated with “Black death”
(a) Measles
(b) Plague
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Cancer

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Answer: (b)
8. This is the most common form of plague causing swelling of the lymph nodes
(a) Pneumonic plague
(b) Bubonic plague
(c) Septicemic plague
(d) All of these
Answer: (b)
9. The causative of Plague is
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Yersinia pestis
(c) Trichinella spiralis
(d) Salmonella typhimurium
Answer: (b)
10. This can be used to prepare the vaccine of Tularemia and Plague
(a) Formalin inactivated suspension of virulent bacteria
(b) Heat killed suspension of virulent bacteria; avirulent live bacteria
(c) Chemical fraction of the causative bacteria
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Indigestion for NEET

Dyspepsia, upset stomach or indigestion are terms used to describe the uneasiness felt in your
upper abdomen. These are some symptoms one often experiences immediately after you start
eating; it gives a feeling of fullness and affects the gastrointestinal organs of the body. Solve
some questions on indigestion here.
1. Except this, all others inhibit the pancreatic secretion
(a) Glucagon
(b) Somatostatin
(c) Sympathetic stimulation
(d) Acid in the duodenum
Answer: (d)
2. When a solution changes the color of a turmeric indicator to red from yellow, what is the
solution?

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(a) neutral
(b) acidic
(c) basic
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
3. This can elicit enterogastric reflex
(a) hyperosmotic chyme in the duodenum
(b) acid chime in the duodenum
(c) distension of the duodenum
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
4. With regards to vomiting –
(a) can be produced by conditioned reflex
(b) occurs on an empty stomach only
(c) occurs in a denervated stomach only
(d) occurs by strong contraction of the walls of the stomach
Answer: (a)
5. The conversion of this is brought about by enterokinase
(a) proteins into polypeptide
(b) pepsinogen into pepsin
(c) trypsinogen into trypsin
(d) lactose to sucrose
Answer: (c)
6. Rennin acts on
(a) fat in the intestine
(b) protein in the stomach
(c) At 1-3 pH, milk converting casein to calcium paracaseinate
(d) At 7.2-8.2 pH, milk converting casein to calcium paracaseinate
Answer: (c)
7. The release of this stimulates pancreatic juice

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(a) Cholecystokinin
(b) Secretin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Enterokinase
Answer: (c)
8. The epithelial cells of the intestine which participate in absorption of food have this on
their surface
(a) Microvilli
(b) Zymogen granules
(c) Phagocytic vesicles
(d) Pinocytic vesicles
Answer: (a)
9. A combination of anxiety and spicy food can cause
(a) Seizures
(b) Indigestion
(c) Hypotension
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
10. Food indigestion is mainly caused by
(a) infection
(b) lack of saliva
(c) lack of water in the body
(d) lack of chewing
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Ringworm For NEET

Dermatophytosis or ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin. It is a misnomer as it is not a
worm but a fungus that causes the infection. It causes a lesion which resembles the shape of a
ring which is where it derives its name from. It can infect animals and humans both. In the initial
days, it appears as red patches on the skin and later can spread to other body parts. Typically, it is
found in feet, scalp, groin, nails, beard and associated areas.
1. In human beings, fungal infection is known as
(a) Fungosis

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(b) Mycosis
(c) Mucorsis
(d) Micromia
Answer: (b)
2. Which of these is not the causal organism for ringworm
(a) Epidermophyton
(b) Microsporum
(c) Macrosporum
(d) Trichophyton
Answer: (c)
3. In Humans, the causative of Ringworm is
(a) bacteria
(b) viruses
(c) nematodes
(d) fungi
Answer: (d)
4. Which is the classification of a group of fungi having septate mycelium wherein sexual
reproduction either is unknown or absent?
(a) Basidiomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes
(d) Phycomycetes
Answer: (c)
5. In children, this leads to epidemic ringworm of the scalp
(a) Epidermophyton floccosum
(b) Candida albicans
(c) Trichophyton rubrum
(d) Microsporum audouinii
Answer: (d)
6. In human beings, the fungus that can cause a disease is
(a) Cystopus

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(b) Aspergillus
(c) Puccinia
(d) Rhizopus
Answer: (b)
7. Who is honoured with the title of “Father of Modern Mycology”?
(a) Micheli
(b) De Bary
(c) Bawden
(d) Stanley
Answer: (b)
8. What is the ringworm of the scalp called?
(a) onychomycosis
(b) tinea unguium
(c) tinea pedis
(d) tinea capitis
Answer: (d)
9. Appearance of scaly, dry lesions with a sense of itch on different body parts are
symptoms of
(a) amoebiasis
(b) ascariasis
(c) ringworm
(d) elephantiasis
Answer: (c)
10. For fungus, the culture media is
(a) Sabouraud’s medium
(b) Chocolate agar medium
(c) NNN Medium
(d) Tellurite medium
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Hypothalamus For NEET

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The hypothalamus is a small portion of the brain performing a range of functions. Importantly, it
links the nervous and the endocrine systems through the pituitary gland. It is located below the
thalamus forming the floor of the third cerebral ventricle. This cone-shaped structure
encompasses a control centre for a range of functions of the autonomic nervous system. Solve
some important questions on Hypothalamus given below for NEET.
1. These are the set of hormones that the hypothalamus produces
(a) Thyroxine and oxytocin
(b) Antidiurectic hormone and oxytocin
(c) Testosterone and oxytocin
(d) Estrogen and oxytocin
Answer: (b)
2. In hypothalamus, osmoreceptors are involved in
(a) secretion of aldosterone
(b) secretion of ACTH
(c) secretion of ADH
(d) secretion of GH
Answer: (c)
3. If Hypothalamus does not secrete GnRH, it would have an impact on
(a) Hypersecretion of pituitary gonadotropins
(b) Hyposecretion of pituitary gonadotropins
(c) Hypersecretion of prolactin
(d) Hypersecretion of oxytocin
Answer: (b)
4. GnRH directly triggers the release of
(a) Thyrocalcitonin
(b) Estrogen
(c) Progesterone
(d) FSH
Answer: (d)
5. The Hypothalamus forms a part of ____________
(a) Future brain
(b) Hind brain

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(c) Forebrain
(d) Midbrain
Answer: (c)
6. This comprises nerve tissue and down growth from the hypothalamus
(a) Adrenal
(b) Thymus
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Posterior pituitary
Answer: (d)
7. The secretion of several anterior pituitary hormones are governed by other hormones
from
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Pancreatic lobes
Answer: (b)
8. In the hypothalamus, the displacement of set point is a result of
(a) Pyrogens
(b) Receptors
(c) Effectors
(d) Pathogens
Answer: (a)
9. This event can cause a damage to the hypothalamus portal system
(a) decreased secretion of PTH
(b) decreased secretion of TSH
(c) decreased secretion of oxytocin
(d) decreased secretion of ADH
Answer: (b)
10. This structure connects hypothalamus and the pituitary
(a) Cerebral cortex
(b) Infundibulam

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(c) Anterior
(d) Corpus callosum
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Prions For NEET

A type of protein, prions cause diseases in humans by animals through activation of normal
healthy proteins in the human to abnormally fold. Explore important MCQs on Prions given
below.
1. Neurodegenerative diseases such as mad cow and Kuru diseases are caused by infectious
particles known as
(a) coronavirus
(b) viroids
(c) retrovirus
(d) prions
Answer: (d)
2. This is not a prion disease
(a) Scrapie
(b) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
(c) Lewy body dementia
(d) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Answer: (c)
3. In human cells, this is the first virus to be cultured
(a) HIV
(b) Influenza virus
(c) Dengue virus
(d) Polio virus
Answer: (d)
4. What causes scrapie in sheep?
(a) Proteins
(b) Viroid
(c) Prion
(d) Virion

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Answer: (c)
5. ___________ is a protein having partial with no detachable nucleic acid
(a) Proteins
(b) Viroid
(c) Prions
(d) Virion
Answer: (c)
6. _____________ are the naked RNA strands infecting plants
(a) prions
(b) RNA viruses
(c) viroids
(d) retroviruses
Answer: (c)
7. What is the other name for Bovine spongiform encephalopathy?
(a) Kuru disease
(b) Mad cow disease
(c) Mad dog disease
(d) Sheep’s disease
Answer: (b)
8. What is the latent viral DNA contained in the host DNA referred to as?
(a) invader
(b) prion
(c) prophage
(d) viroid
Answer: (c)
9. In sheep, this disease characterizes pneumonia and demyelination
(a) Scrapie
(b) Measles
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Visna

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Answer: (d)
10. Lack of coordination and muscle twitching in a disease takes place due to this prion
(a) Tetanus
(b) Cancer
(c) Kuru disease
(d) Marasmus
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Vermiculture for NEET

Earthworms are made used to prepare enriched compost. They take in biomass to excrete worm-
casts, which is a blackish gold appearing digested form of food. Some of the composting
material that is commonly used are kitchen wastes, animal excreta, forest litter and farm
residues. Red earthworm or Eisenia foetida, is a species of earthworm that feeds on the surface
and converts organic matter into vermicompost.
1. For vermicomposting, this species of earthworm is not apt
(a) Perionyx excavatus
(b) Pheretima posthuma
(c) Eudrilus eugeniae
(d) Eisenia fetidae
Answer: (b)
2. The process in which earthworms are used to degrade organic wastes is
(a) Compost bedding
(b) Humus forming
(c) Vermicomposting
(d) None
Answer: (c)
3. Kitchen wastes and animal excreta can be minimized most profitably via
(a) vermiculture
(b) biogas production
(c) direct usage as biofertilizers
(d) storing in underground storage tanks
Answer: (b)
4. The process of covering spawned compost with a suitable material is known as

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(a) cropping
(b) casing
(c) spawning
(d) composting
Answer: (b)
5. While burrowing, the anterior ends of earthworms become turgid serving as a hydraulic
skeleton though they do not possess a skeleton. This is as a result of
(a) setae
(b) gut peristalsis
(c) coelomic fluid
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
6. This is apt for vermicomposting
(a) Algae
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Earthworms
(d) Fungus
Answer: (c)
7. Vermicompost is a/an
(a) toxic material
(b) organic biofertilizer
(c) inorganic fertilizer
(d) synthetic fertilizer
Answer: (b)
8. This can be the best worm for composting
(a) pink worms
(b) red wigglers
(c) maggots
(d) does not matter
Answer: (b)
9. In earthworms, typhlosome is a

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(a) excretory structure
(b) a circulatory system structure
(c) fold of intestine
(d) defence mechanism
Answer: (c)
10. Which of the following nutrients is abundantly found in worm castings?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Calcium and other minerals
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Respiratory Quotient For NEET

Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) usually referred to as the respiratory ratio, is the ratio of volume of
carbon dioxide evolved to the volume of oxygen consumed during cellular respiration. It can be
given as follows:
R.Q. = Volume of Carbon dioxide evolved ÷ Volume of Oxygen consumed
This R.Q. is dependent on the type of respiratory substrate consumed whilst respiration is taking
place. When estimated from the production of carbon dioxide however, the respiratory quotient
is a dimensionless factor used to calculate BMR (basal metabolic rate). Solve questions on
Respiratory quotient for NEET here.
1. The respiratory quotient or R.Q. is greater than one in which case?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fat
(c) Fructose
(d) Organic acid
Answer: (d)
2. RQ (Respiratory Quotient) can be defined as
(a) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved ÷ Volume of oxygen consumed
(b) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved = Volume of oxygen consumed
(c) Volume of oxygen evolved ÷ Volume of carbon dioxide consumed
(d) Volume of oxygen consumed ÷ Volume of carbon dioxide evolved
Answer: (a)

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3. The Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) of C39 H72 O6 is
(a) 0.72
(b) 2.71
(c) 1.32
(d) 3.250
Answer: (a)
4. In anaerobic respiration, the Respiratory quotient is
(a) greater than one
(b) one
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Answer: (d)
5. What will the respiratory quotient of the mixture be when equal quantities of groundnut
seeds and germinating maize is taken
(a) infinity
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) one
Answer: (c)
6. The respiratory quotient of a plant structure is dependent on the substrate’s nature that
is
(a) metabolized
(b) catabolized
(c) oxidized
(d) reduced
Answer: (c)
7. The respiratory quotient in succulent plants is always less than one. The reason is
(a) complete reduction
(b) complete oxidation
(c) incomplete reduction
(d) incomplete oxidation

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Answer: (d)
8. The Respiratory quotient in germinating seeds is
(a) zero
(b) less than one
(c) greater than one
(d) one
Answer: (b)
9. The energy yield due to the outcome of total oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose during the
cellular respiration is enough to convert
(a) 38 molecules of ADP to 38 molecules of ATP
(b) 36 molecules of ADP to 36 molecules of ATP
(c) 30 molecules of ADP to 30 molecules of ATP
(d) 32 molecules of ADP to 32 molecules of ATP
Answer: (b)
10. Carbohydrate’s respiratory quotient is
(a) equal to five
(b) less than unit
(c) greater than unity
(d) unity
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Chemiosmotic Hypothesis

The chemiosmotic hypothesis explains the synthesis of ATPs driven by proton gradient present
across the membranes of mitochondria during respiration and thylakoid membranes during
photosynthesis. Peter Mitchell proposed this hypothesis of ATP synthesis. ATP synthesis is
coupled with the electron transport chain and generation of the proton gradient. He explained
that if there is some other mechanism to generate pH gradient then electron transport is not
necessary.
1. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the chloroplast?
(a) Stroma
(b) Intermembrane space
(c) Lumen of thylakoids
(d) Antennae complex

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Answer: (c)
2. Cyclic photophosphorylation is associated with the production of
(a) ATP
(b) NADPH
(c) O2

(d) All of the above

Answer: (a)
3. During cellular respiration, chemiosmosis occurs in
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Peroxisome
(d) Nucleoplasm
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the following is necessary for chemiosmosis?
(a) Proton gradient
(b) Membrane
(c) Proton pump
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
5. Which of the following processes is responsible for generating a proton gradient across
the thylakoid membrane?
(a) Proton carrier transport H  from stroma to lumen
+

(b) Splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane

(c) NADP reductase enzyme present at the stroma side, removes proton by reducing NADP +

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)
6. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the mitochondria?
(a) Matrix
(b) Inner membrane
(c) Outer membrane
(d) Intermembrane space

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Answer: (d)
7. Which part of ATP synthase forms the transmembrane channel?
(a) CF 0

(b) CF 1

(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
8. The ATP synthesised by ATP synthase present in the thylakoid membrane is released
towards
(a) stroma
(b) lumen
(c) inner membrane
(d) outer membrane
Answer: (a)
9. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of
(a) protons
(b) NADPH
(c) electrons
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
10. Who proposed the chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis?
(a) Francis Crick
(b) H G Khorana
(c) Peter Mitchell
(d) J D Watson
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Speciation For NEET

Evolution gives rise to a new and distinct species over a course of time. Through this, a
genetically independent group of entities – species arise. The phenomena where a genetically
homogenous population is split into two or more populations which experience genetic
differentiation and gradual reproductive isolation is speciation. This can take place by the
transformation of old species into newer ones with time and multiplication of species.

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1. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing
in frequency?
(a) It is because polyploidy is a rare process
(b) it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior
(c) allopatric speciation does not necessitate reinforcement
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
2. This is the key to speciation of populations
(a) reproductive health
(b) reproductive isolation
(c) population growth
(d) extinction
Answer: (b)
3. This can cause a steeper cline
(a) Extensive migration
(b) Strong selection against heterozygotes
(c) Stabilizing selection throughout the region
(d) All of these
Answer: (b)
4. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is
(a) temporal isolation
(b) ecological isolation
(c) gametic isolation
(d) behavioural isolation
Answer: (c)
5. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations
(a) that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group
(b) that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation
(c) in experimental conditions
(d) in nature
Answer: (d)

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6. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?
(a) a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations
(b) sharing genetic material between two populations
(c) extensive gene flow
(d) increased ability to resist new diseases
Answer: (a)
7. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species
(a) allopatric speciation
(b) parapatric speciation
(c) bottleneck
(d) sympatric
Answer: (b)
8. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism
(a) ecological isolation
(b) individual isolation
(c) temporal isolation
(d) behavioural isolation
Answer: (b)
9. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation
between the speciating events
(a) Peripheral speciation
(b) Hybridization
(c) Sympatric speciation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (a)
10. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of
speciation
(a) Sympatric speciation
(b) Parapatric speciation
(c) Allopatric speciation
(d) None of these

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Answer: (a)

MCQs on Lymphocytes For NEET

Lymphocytes are constantly produced by the bone marrow. Some of these enter the bloodstream
while some into the lymphatic system. This system comprises organs and tissues such as lymph
nodes, tonsils and spleen protecting the body from infections. Close to 25% of newly synthesized
lymphocytes stay in the bone marrow turning into the B cells while the 75% remaining cells pass
into the thymus becoming T cells.
1. Lymphocytes are of two types, they are
(a) T-cells and erythrocytes
(b) Erythrocytes and Platelets
(c) T-cells and Platelets
(d) T-cells and B-cells
Answer: (d)
2. Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent encounter
with the same antigen?
(a) helper T cells
(b) memory cells
(c) plasma cells
(d) basophil
Answer: (b)
3. Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as
(a) Platelets
(b) Astocytomas
(c) Granulocytes
(d) Buffers
Answer: (c)
4. Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells
(a) through injection of tumor necrosis factor
(b) by phagocytosis
(c) through insertion of perforins into the target’s membrane
(d) by releasing oxidizing agents
Answer: (c)

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5. This is not a cardinal sign of inflammation
(a) redness
(b) heat
(c) swelling and pain
(d) opsonization
Answer: (d)
6. ___________ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-killing ability
(a) histamines
(b) neutrophils
(c) free radicals
(d) platelets-derived growth factors
Answer: (c)
7. The phenomena that initiates when a helper T cell binds with a class II MHC protein on
a displaying cell is referred to as
(a) T cell proliferation
(b) costimulation
(c) self-antigen recognition
(d) antigen proliferation
Answer: (b)
8. The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is
(a) B lymphocytes
(b) T lymphocytes
(c) NK cells
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
9. An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as
(a) immunoglobulin
(b) antibody
(c) antigen
(d) interferon
Answer: (c)

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10. The only blood cells which are not viewed as a part of the immune system are
(a) fat cells
(b) glial cells
(c) osteocytes
(d) red blood cells
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Phylogeny For NEET

Earth is home to millions of species today, some known, some unknown. The evolutionary
history of species is given by the Phylogeny. Biochemical and morphological evidence indicate
that entities are related genetically. This can be represented in the form of an evolutionary tree
referred to as the phylogenetic tree where the genealogical associations of entities are indicated.
Phylogeny hence finds its applications in numerical and fundamental streams. Explore some
important questions and answers for NEET on Phylogeny here.
1. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the horizontal elements of this
phylogeny
(a) mitosis
(b) point mutations
(c) S phase of the cell cycle
(d) endosymbiosis
Answer: (d)
2. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would be the most
appropriate outgroup
(a) tiger
(b) leopard
(c) wolf
(d) domestic cat
Answer: (c)
3. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose
(a) tree with fewest branch points
(b) tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology or DNA sequences
(c) tree in which branch points are based on as many shared characters possible
(d) tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability
Answer: (b)

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4. This is used to know the phylogeny
(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
5. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and hence
unacceptable
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) Fungi
Answer: (b)
6. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is
(a) a character used to sort bird species
(b) example of analogy rather than homology
(c) a shared derived character
(d) a shared ancestral character
Answer: (d)
7. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of phylogenetics
(a) branches are the lines in the tree
(b) tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species
(c) node indicate inferred ancestor of extant taxa
(d) connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node
Answer: (b)
8. This is not a vestigial organ in man
(a) coccyx
(b) nails
(c) third molar
(d) homologous
Answer: (b)

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9. Pick the incorrect option for the blank
Recent uses of phylogenetic analysis is to analyse ________ in addition to tracing the
evolutionary history of specific genes
(a) physical separation methods
(b) proteomes
(c) genomes
(d) gene families
Answer: (a)
10. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for Phylogenetics study
(a) sampling bias is involved
(b) with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut phylogenetic tree can be
constructed
(c) much easier to obtain in comparison to fossil records
(d) more in number compared to fossil records
Answer: (a)

MCQs on EMP Pathway For NEET

The EMP Pathway (Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas Pathway) is another name for glycolysis. It
enables the metabolic usage of glucose to produce NADH, ATP and other biosynthetic
precursors, such as pyruvate or the 3-phosphoglycerate. This pathway can take place aerobically
and anaerobically with the conversion of the pyruvate to the acetyl CoA, along with the
association to the TCA cycle. Learn and solve some questions for NEET on EMP Pathway or
glycolysis here.
1. This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Phosphoglucose isomerase
(c) Aldolase
(d) Phosphoglucose mutase
Answer: (a)
2. Glycolysis is the conversion of
(a) Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
(b) Fructose into pyruvate
(c) Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) Glucose into pyruvate

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Answer: (d)
3. The EMP pathway in eukaryotes usually takes place in
(a) nucleus
(b) lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) cytosol
Answer: (d)
4. In the last step of the EMP pathway or glycolysis, this substrate is used
(a) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(b) Pyruvate
(c) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
(d) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
Answer: (a)
5. When yeasts carry out alcoholic fermentation of glucose, the coenzyme – thiamine
pyrophosphate is needed by
(a) transaldolase
(b) pyruvate decarboxylase
(c) lactate dehydrogenase
(d) hexokinase
Answer: (b)
6. The activity of this enzyme increases when the ATP supply of a cell depletes
(a) Glucokinase
(b) Phosphofructokinase-1
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Pyruvate kinase
Answer: (b)
7. This is not one of the steps between the glycolysis of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 3-
phosphoglycerate
(a) formation of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(b) oxidation of NADH to NAD +

(c) ATP synthesis

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(d) catalysis by phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer: (b)
8. In EMP pathway, the process by which ATP is formed from ADP is
(a) reduction
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) substrate-level phosphorylation
(d) photo phosphorylation
Answer: (c)
9. In erythrocytes, the EMP pathway or glycolysis produces pyruvate which is metabolized
further to
(a) haemoglobin
(b) ethanol
(c) lactate
(d) CO 2

Answer: (c)
10. This enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis or the EMP pathway
(a) Glucokinase
(b) Pyruvate kinase
(c) Phosphofructokinase-1
(d) Hexokinase
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Peristalsis For NEET

Peristalsis is a wave-like movement of the muscles to push down food to different processing
stations for the food to be disintegrated further. This process commences in the oesophagus and
is an involuntary progressive movement. Learn some important MCQs on Peristalsis here.
1. This structure is absent in frogs and present in man
(a) thyroid gland
(b) adrenal gland
(c) salivary gland
(d) pancreas
Answer: (c)

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2. This hormone facilitates the secretion of HCl from the stomach
(a) somatomedin
(b) secretin
(c) gastrin
(d) renin
Answer: (c)
3. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) cephalic phase of gastric secretion does not involve the release of gastrin
(b) contraction of pyloric sphincter is caused due to large doses of gastrin
(c) deficiency of intrinsic factor causes pernicious anaemia
(d) gastric peristalsis includes propulsive grinding and mixing movements
Answer: (a)
4. In humans, this pair of food constituents arrive at the stomach in a state of complete
indigestion
(a) Starch and protein
(b) Fat and starch
(c) Cellulose and protein
(d) Cellulose and fat
Answer: (d)
5. This is most likely to happen if parietal cells of the gut epithelium turn partially non-
functional
(a) Steapsin turns all the more effective
(b) pH of the stomach will sharply decline
(c) Efficiency of pancreatic enzymes will reduce particularly of lipase and trypsin
(d) Inadequate hydrolysis of pepsin into peptones and proteoses
Answer: (d)
6. This regulates the peristalsis of the intestine
(a) Brachial plexus
(b) Sacral plexus
(c) Auerbach’s plexus
(d) Discoidal plexus

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Answer: (c)
7. This is incorrect about vitamins
(a) tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
(b) vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) vitamins are organic catalysts
Answer: (c)
8. Minimum peristalsis takes place in
(a) Oesophagus
(b) Duodenum
(c) Rectum
(d) Stomach
Answer: (c)
9. This prevents keratinization of the skin
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin A
Answer: (d)
10. This macromineral is essential for the synthesis of insulin
(a) magnesium
(b) chlorine
(c) iodine
(d) sulphur
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Sex determination For NEET

Determination of sex is more complicated than you thought. It describes the environmental and
genetic phenomena which impact sex differentiation. This technique makes use of different
genes and mechanisms to lay down activities in females and males regulating a shared gene
switch. It controls the development of sexual behaviour.
1. In an entity with genetic composition AA+XXY such as Drosophila will be a normal
female. In the case of mammals, it will be?

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(a) Turner
(b) Klinefelter
(c) Normal female
(d) Normal male
Answer: (b)
2. ______________ discovered XY sex chromosomes
(a) M J D White
(b) Nettil Stevans
(c) R Brown
(d) Mendel
Answer: (b)
3. In this plant, sex determination was first studied
(a) Mirabilis
(b) Melandrium
(c) Datura
(d) Rumex
Answer: (b)
4. This technique can be used to detect the chromosomal abnormality of an unborn baby
(a) Tissue culture
(b) Ultrasound
(c) CAT Scanning
(d) Amniocentesis
Answer: (d)
5. A foetus’ determination of gender is dependent on
(a) mother’s age
(b) father’s health
(c) egg’s nature
(d) sperm’s nature
Answer: (d)
6. This number of Barr bodies are found in a female with XXXX chromosomes

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(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
Answer: (b)
7. If a boy has sexual characters of that of a girl, its genotype would be
(a) XYY
(b) XO
(c) XXY
(d) XXX
Answer: (c)
8. Theory of linkage was put forward by
(a) De Vries
(b) Sutton
(c) Bateson and Punnet
(d) Morgan
Answer: (d)
9. The chromosomes accounted for sex determination are referred to as
(a) Heterosis
(b) Multiple alleles
(c) Allosomes
(d) Autosomes
Answer: (c)
10. The condition of Free martin is observed in
(a) Frog
(b) Rabbit
(c) Goat/sheep etc
(d) Man
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Alcoholism For NEET

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A chronic condition, alcoholism is the uncontrolled urge to drink and remain preoccupied with it.
This inability to control drinking is a result of depending on alcohol both physically and
emotionally. It is the most severe form of alcohol abuse. Commonly, it is referred to as alcohol
use disorder. It can be split into three categories – mild, moderate and severe. Counselling serves
as a preventive measure. Learn important questions on Alcoholism for NEET here.
1. Consumption of this causes increase in the fat synthesis, dilation of blood vessels, low
blood sugar and stomach-inflammation
(a) drug addiction and tobacco
(b) alcohol
(c) tobacco
(d) drug addiction
Answer: (a)
2. This causes tunnel vision
(a) Smoking
(b) Alcohol
(c) Barbiturates
(d) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (b)
3. After drinking alcohol, consumption of this leads to death
(a) Morphine
(b) Opium
(c) Barbiturate
(d) All of these
Answer: (c)
4. This drug along with alcohol generates marked drowsiness otherwise does not produce
sedative effect
(a) Marijuana
(b) Valium
(c) Antihistamine
(d) Barbiturate
Answer: (c)
5. Constituent of alcoholic beverage is

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(a) Propyl alcohol
(b) Methyl alcohol
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Mix of all of these
Answer: (c)
6. This is a result of the appearance of the fatty liver syndrome
(a) synthesis of fatty acids, fat and glycerols
(b) synthesis of fat from alcohol
(c) synthesis of fat from amino acids
(d) excessive synthesis of fat from fatty acids
Answer: (b)
7. Alcoholism causing fatty acid syndrome is called
(a) Cirrhosis
(b) Neuritis
(c) Gastritis
(d) Nephritis
Answer: (a)
8. This is a withdrawal symptom of alcohol consumption
(a) Delirium
(b) Nausea and vomiting
(c) swollen and patchy face
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
9. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver
(a) meat and egg
(b) alcohol
(c) saturated fat
(d) starch
Answer: (b)
10. This is a consequence of alcohol addiction

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(a) psychosis, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome
(b) cardiovascular diseases, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome
(c) ulcers, all types of mental illness, vitamin deficiency, cardiovascular diseases
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Selaginella for NEET

Selaginella is the genus belonging to the family Selaginellaceae. The distinguishing factor that
this family possesses is the presence of two types of spores and scale-leaves having a ligule.
Explore important MCQs on Selaginella for NEET here.
1. Division to which Selaginella belongs is
(a) Psilopsida
(b) Pteropsida
(c) Lycopsida
(d) Spenopsida
Answer: (c)
2. The character that Selaginella possesses which is of evolutionary significance is
(a) Strobilus
(b) Heterospory
(c) Seed
(d) Ligule
Answer: (b)
3. This statement regarding Selaginella is incorrect
(a) Endodermis is trabeculated
(b) Vascular cylinder is protostelic
(c) Few species of Selaginella are truly xerophytic
(d) Selaginella is commonly distributed on plains and hills
Answer: (d)
4. In this species of Selaginella, the apex continues its vegetative growth beyond the formation of
strobilus
(a) S.cuspidata
(b) S.helvetica

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(c) S.rupestris
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
5. This is uncommon in Selaginella and Funaria
(a) Embryo
(b) Roots
(c) Archegonium
(d) Motile sperms
Answer: (b)
6. The presence of ________ anatomically characterizes the stem of Selaginella
(a) Protostele
(b) Amphiphloic siphonostele
(c) Siphonostele
(d) Ectophloic siphonostele
Answer: (a)
7. This characterizes the presence of Selaginella
(a) Ligule
(b) Homospory
(c) Flowers
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
8. Male gametes in Selaginella are
(a) Multiflagellated
(b) Biflagellated
(c) Monoflagellated
(d) Aflagellated
Answer: (b)
9. Stele of Selaginella stem is
(a) Eustelic
(b) Solenostelic

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(c) Protostelic
(d) Dictyostelic
Answer: (c)
10. This is the innermost layer of sporangium of Selaginella
(a) Tapetum
(b) Synangium
(c) Elaters
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Class Pisces For NEET 2021

Pisceans are aquatic entities found in marine, freshwater and brackish water. This class is
classified under Phylum Chordata and subphylum Vertebrata, hence they possess characteristic
features of both the groups. Typically, the body is segregated into head, trunk, and tail and is
streamlined. The lateral line system found in them serves as a sensory structure to sense
disturbances in the ambience. The internal skeleton of fishes is cartilaginous or bony. These
cold-blooded entities exhibit a closed type of blood circulation. Read on and solve these
questions on Class Pisces.
1. A common trait between tadpole and fish is
(a) scales
(b) lateral line
(c) fins
(d) legs
Answer: (b)
2. This has a cartilaginous endoskeleton
(a) Bony fishes
(b) Mollusca
(c) Dipnoi
(d) Elasmobranch
Answer: (d)
3. True fishes have fins and gills. This is not a true fish
(a) Hippocampus – SeaHorse
(b) Hythalamictyes – Silver carp

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(c) Carassius – Goldfish
(d) Lepisma – Silverfish
Answer: (d)
4. This fish shows dorsal fin modified into suckers
(a) Neoceratodus
(b) Hippocampus
(c) Echeneis
(d) Torpedo
Answer: (c)
5. This is a living fossil
(a) Lepidosiren
(b) Latimeria
(c) Lepidosteus
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
6. This is a migratory fish
(a) Ribbon fish
(b) Carp
(c) Salmon
(d) Shark
Answer: (c)
7. The distinguishing factor between rays and sharks are 
(a) type of tail fin
(b) position of gill slits
(c) position of mouth
(d) nature of their scales
Answer: (b)
8. Type of association between shark and suckerfish is
(a) Predation
(b) Parasitism

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(c) Commensalism
(d) Symbiosis
Answer: (c)
9. Placoid scales are found in
(a) paleontological fishes
(b) lung fishes
(c) bony fishes
(d) cartilaginous fishes
Answer: (d)
10. This is a characteristic feature of fishes
(a) gills and epidermal scales
(b) tail and epidermal scales
(c) gills and venous heart
(d) venous heart and tail
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Diffusion For NEET 2021

Movement of molecules from an area that is highly concentrated to a region that is lower in
concentration down through the concentration gradient is diffusion. Here, molecules unite due to
kinetic energy of random motion. The process of diffusion takes place in gases and liquids as
their molecules move in a random motion. Molecules are in motion until the concentration level
at both the higher and lower level equalizes in the medium.
1. Phenomena through which water is absorbed by solids such as colloids leading them to
increase in volume is
(a) diffusion
(b) imbibition
(c) facilitated diffusion
(d) osmosis
Answer: (b)
2. In older dying leaves to younger leaves, the mineral ions are assimilated into
(a) deposition of organic and inorganic compounds
(b) organic compound
(c) inorganic compounds

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(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
3. Passage of water across a selectively permeable membrane is
(a) osmosis
(b) active transport
(c) facilitated diffusion
(d) pinocytosis
Answer: (a)
4. Wall pressure will______________ with rise in turgidity
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate
Answer: (a)
5. Most effective light for stomatal opening is
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Yellow
Answer: (b)
6. Diffusion of water through selectively permeable membrane is
(a) osmosis
(b) imbibition
(c) translocation
(d) diffusion
Answer: (a)
7. Water is forcefully pushed beyond endodermis of the root through the process of
(a) diffusion
(b) transmembrane transport
(c) symplast pathway

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(d) apoplast pathway
Answer: (b)
8. Transpiration is a phenomenon pertaining to
(a) Activated transport
(b) Diffusion
(c) Osmosis
(d) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: (b)
9. When placed in water, raisins swell up as a result of
(a) Adsorption
(b) Plasmolysis
(c) Endosmosis
(d) Diffusion
Answer: (c)
10. A bottle filled with previously moistened mustard seeds and water was screw-capped
tightly and placed in a corner. After 30 minutes, it suddenly blew up. This is the process
involved
(a) DPD
(b) Osmosis
(c) Imbibition
(d) Diffusion
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Homeostasis For NEET 2021

Homeostasis is the condition of optimal functioning for entities inclusive of variables such as
fluid balance and body temperature under some limits. It is a self-regulating process, through
which biological systems maintain stability to adapt to conditions that are favorable to survive.
1. Liver functions are pivotal to
(a) osmoregulation
(b) thermoregulation
(c) homeostasis
(d) all of these
Answer: (c)

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2. During catabolism of amino acids, the release of the amino group is known as
(a) deamination
(b) hydrolysis
(c) ammunition
(d) hydration
Answer: (a)
3. The only treatment in case of uremia is
(a) dialysis
(b) lithotripsy
(c) lung transplant
(d) kidney transplant
Answer: (d)
4. This type of nephron is best to conserve water in body
(a) Juxtamedullary nephrons
(b) cortical nephrons
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) serotical nephrons
Answer: (a)
5. This is responsible for production of concentrated urine
(a) proximal tubule
(b) cortical nephrons
(c) distal tubule
(d) juxtamedullary nephron
Answer: (d)
6. This nephron segment is not permeable to water even in the presence of ADH
(a) Collecting duct
(b) descending limb of loop of Henle
(c) ascending limb of loop of Henle
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (c)

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7. Leaves fall of helping in plant to get rid of accumulated wastes hence known as
(a) ebony
(b) sacrifice
(c) excretophore
(d) helper
Answer: (c)
8. Active uptake of sodium is promoted by action of enzyme known as
(a) adrenatrone
(b) aldosterone
(c) antidiuretic
(d) diuretic
Answer: (b)
9. The vertebral column provides more strength as a result of 4
(a) burantals
(b) appendanges
(c) frontals
(d) curvatures
Answer: (d)
10. Dogs have specialized evaporative cooling in the respiratory tract by
(a) woofing
(b) licking
(c) panting
(d) sleeping
Answer: (c)
11. This statement about Homeostasis is incorrect
(a) because of this, the fluctuations of the internal environment are of extremely narrow range as
compared to that of the external environment
(b) there is a definite control system regulating the homeostatic activities
(c) homeostatic mechanisms keep the internal environment fixed despite wide changes in the
external environment
(d) all the above

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Answer: (c)

MCQs on Tissue Culture For NEET 2021

Also referred to as micropropagation, Tissue culture is a technique wherein fragments of plant or
animal tissues are cultured and grown in a laboratory. In some instances, the organs are also used
for tissue culture. For the growth of culture, the media used is agar and broth.
Tissue culture is used to produce disease-free plants to enhance plant yield. Requirements for
tissue culture is a greenhouse, a sterile workplace, a nursery, and trained staff. Eggplant, oil
palm, tomato, pineapple, banana, plantain, rubber tree, sweet potato have been produced by
tissue culture in developing countries.
There are two main types of cultures:

 Primary Culture
 Cultures of established Cell Lines

NEET MCQ tissue-culture PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect about agar?

(a) Remains stable at incubation temperature
(b) Does not react with media constituents
(c) Does not use in micropropagation work
(d) Not digested by plant enzymes
Answer: (c)
2. In tissue culture system, this is the main effect of cytokines
(a) shoot elongation
(b) adventitious root formation
(c) induction of somatic embryos
(d) adventitious shoot formation
Answer: (d)
3. This is not a basic component of culture media for plant cultivation
(a) amino acids
(b) sucrose/sugar
(c) a complex mixture of salts
(d) serum albumin
Answer: (d)

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4. Which of the following plant propagation method uses girdling?
(a) cuttings
(b) grafting
(c) layering
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (c)
5. The ability of single cells to divide and produce all differentiated cells in the entity.
(a) Totipotency
(b) Multipotent
(c) Pluripotent
(d) Unipotent
Answer: (a)
6. Which of the following is the first transgenic crop?
(a) flax
(b) tobacco
(c) plastic
(d) cotton
Answer: (b)
7. Which of the following is not a feature of plant cells?
(a) Consists of plastids
(b) Cell wall outside the cell membrane
(c) Presence of centrioles
(d) Cell-cell communication through plasmodesmata
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following is a superbug?
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) transgenic plant
(d) worms
Answer: (b)

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9. This is a cellular totipotency property.
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) virus
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
10. Growth of plant tissues in artificial media is called _______.
(a) cell hybridization
(b) plant tissue culture
(c) transgenesis
(d) gene expression
Answer: (b)

MCQs On ABA and Other Growth Regulators For NEET 2021

Plant growth regulators are simple and small chemicals generated by plants naturally to regulate
development and growth. Phytohormones or plant growth hormones are classified into plant
growth inhibitors and plant growth promoters. While promoters promote cell division and
enlargement, inhibitors inhibit growth and facilitate dormancy and abscission in plants.
1. Abscission zone can be induced for formation by
(a) abscisic acid
(b) cytokinins
(c) gibberellins
(d) auxins
Answer: (a)
2. Presence of this in the seed is linked with dormancy
(a) abscisic acid
(b) gibberellic acid
(c) starch
(d) ethylene
Answer: (a)
3. Abscisic acid treatment results in
(a) root elongation

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(b) stomatal closure
(c) stem elongation
(d) leaf expansion
Answer: (b)
4. ABA contains
(a) one asymmetric and two symmetric carbon atoms
(b) one symmetric and two asymmetric carbon atoms
(c) one asymmetric carbon atom
(d) one symmetric carbon atom
Answer: (c)
5. Morphactins are
(a) synthetic auxins
(b) synthetic gibberellins
(c) synthetic growth regulators
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
6. Dormin is a
(a) abscisic acid
(b) growth promoter
(c) auxin
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
7. This is wound hormone
(a) phyllocaline
(b) auxin
(c) hormone only
(d) necrohormone
Answer: (d)
8. This is a plant hormone
(a) acetylene

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(b) dormin
(c) formalin
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
9. This is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor
(a) NAA
(b) IAA
(c) GA
(d) ABA
Answer: (d)
10. Abscisic acid regulates
(a) leaf fall and dormancy
(b) cell division
(c) cell elongation and cell wall formation
(d) shoot elongation
Answer: (a)

MCQs On Multiple Allelism For NEET 2021

When genes exist in more than two allelic forms, it is multiple allelism. The genetic variation
arises as a result of mutation and hence are responsible for hereditary variations. Here, three or
more alleles of a gene are found to be present. This can be illustrated best in humans by the ABO
blood group.
1. A person with antigens A and B and no antibodies belongs to blood group or in which
blood group antibodies are absent
(a) O
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) A
Answer: (b)
2. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of
(a) dominance
(b) epistasis
(c) partial dominance

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(d) multiple allelism
Answer: (d)
3. During the serological test in which anti-human serum is mixed with the blood of
another animal, the blood of this animal gives the thickest precipitate
(a) mule
(b) dog
(c) chimpanzee
(d) gibbon
Answer: (c)
4. In disputed parentage, blood group analysis of mother, alleged father and child can
(a) not be of any use
(b) only prove that he cannot be the father
(c) certainly prove a man to the father
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
5. This is the genotype of blood group A
(a) I  I |
A A

(b) I  I |
A O

(c) I  I |
B B

(d) I  I | or I  I |
A A A O

Answer: (d)
6. If a patient with blood group B requires an immediate blood transfusion, this type can be
given
(a) AB and B
(b) AB and A
(c) AB and O
(d) B and O
Answer: (d)
7. In men, this is genetically dominant
(a) Albinism
(b) Haemophilia

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(c) Rh positive
(d) color blindness
Answer: (c)
8. Color of the skin in humans is regulated by
(a) polygenic effect
(b) lethal genes
(c) multiple genes
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
9. The recessive character typically is expressed only when present in a double recessive
condition. But, a single recessive gene can express itself in humans when genes are found on
(a) either on autosome or X chromosome
(b) X chromosome of male
(c) X chromosome of female
(d) any autosome
Answer: (b)
10. Two allelic genes are situated on
(a) any two chromosomes
(b) two non-homologous chromosomes
(c) two homologous chromosomes
(d) same chromosomes
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Floral Formula For NEET 2021

A floral formula is the numeric representation of different floral structures that constitute a
flower. It is used to describe the salient features/characteristics of a flower with the help of
certain symbols and signs known as floral symbols.
Floral parts are calyx(K), corolla(C), androecium(A) and gynoecium(G).
1. Tricarpellary, the syncarpous gynoecium is found in these flowers
(a) Liliaceae
(b) Poaceae
(c) Fabaceae

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(d) Solanaceae
Answer: (a)
2. Perigynous flowers are found in________.
(a) Rose
(b) China rose
(c) Cucumber
(d) Guava
Answer: (a)
3. Tulip, onion, cucumber, guava, potato, brinjal, mustard, china rose – amongst these,
how many have superior ovary?
(a) Six
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three
Answer: (a)
4. Standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is known as_______.
(a) Carina
(b) Corona
(c) Vexillum
(d) Pappus
Answer: (c)
5. Free-central placentation is found in_______.
(a) Citrus
(b) Brassica
(c) Argemone
(d) Dianthus
Answer: (d)
6. _________ is the large shield-shaped cotyledon, the wheat grain possesses in its embryo
(a) coleoptile
(b) scutellum
(c) coleorhiza

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(d) epiblast
Answer: (b)
7. These flowers show radial symmetry______.
(a) Cassia
(b)  Pisum
(c) Trifolium
(d)  Brassica
Answer: (d)
8. Keel is the characteristics feature of the flower of_______.
(a) tomato
(b) aloe
(c) Indigofera
(d) tulip
Answer: (c)
9. These many plants among Salvia, Sesbania, Mustard, Indigofera, Aloe, Allium,
groundnut, turnip, and radish gram possess stamens with diverse lengths in their flowers
(a) six
(b) five
(c) four
(d) three
Answer: (c)

10.   is the floral formula of:

(a) Brassica
(b) Petunia
(c) Sesbania
(d) Allium
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Hardy Weinberg Law For NEET 2021

Hardy Weinberg Principle states – “In a large, random-mating population, the genotype and
allele frequencies remain constant in the absence of any evolutionary influences from one to
another generation. Influences are inclusive of a choice of mate, natural selection, genetic drift,

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mutation, sexual selection, gene flow, genetic hitchhiking, founder effect, meiotic drive,
population bottleneck, inbreeding and assortative mating.”
Also See: Hardy Weinberg Law
1. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive
condition – cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.56
(d) 0.98
Answer: (d)
2. A sampled “a” population has 36% of homozygous recessive genotype (aa). Then the
frequency of allele “a” is
(a) 0%
(b) 20%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
Answer: (c)
3. 360 out of 1000 individuals in a population have a genotype of AA while 480 have Aa
genotype. The rest 160 belong to aa. Frequency of allele A in this population is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.4
Answer: (b)
4. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then the
frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in
the population is
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Answer: (a)

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5. What does p  in the below mentioned Hardy-Weinberg equation indicate?
2

(p+q)  = p  + 2pq + q
2 2 2

(a) individuals that are heterozygous dominant

(b) individuals having a lethal allele
(c) individuals that are homozygous dominant
(d) individuals that are homozygous recessive
Answer: (c)
6. 25 individuals in a population are homozygous dominant, then the individuals that are
expected to be homozygous recessive are
(a) 100
(b) 75
(c) 50
(d) 25
Answer: (d)
7. Consider a population of sheep to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for
black wool(w) has an allele frequency of 0.81 while the allele for white wool(W) has an
allele frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population
is
(a) 4%
(b) 15%
(c) 31%
(d) 66%
Answer: (c)
8. This condition is essential for a population to be in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(a) random mating
(b) no mutations
(c) large population
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
9. This statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best
(a) it is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically
(b) in large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent

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(c) allele frequency changes over a period of time in a large population
(d) mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency
Answer: (d)
10. This is true of the population which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(a) entities migrate constantly
(b) populations should be limited and small
(c) mating is random
(d) process of natural selection is occurring
Answer: (c)

MCQs On Phylum Aschelminthes For NEET 2021

Aschelminthes are also known as roundworms as they possess cylindrical bodies and are
typically found free-living and parasitic worms. They are triploblastic and bilaterally
symmetrical possessing an organ system level of organization. These possess a false coelom and
are known as pseudocoelomates, wherein the body cavity is adjacent to the mesoderm on one
side only. Some members of this phylum are Pinworm, Ascaris and Hookworm. Explore MCQs
on Phylum Aschelminthes below.
1. Ascaris has ____________________ cells in the excretory system
(a) Green gland
(b) Flame
(c) Nephron
(d) Renette
Answer: (d)
2. Syncytial epidermis is found in_______.
(a) Ascaris
(b) Metaphire
(c) Housefly
(d) Periplaneta
Answer: (a)
3. ______________ is known as a coelom derived from blastocoel
(a) Enterocoel
(b) Haemocoel
(c) Pseudocoel

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(d) Schizocoel
Answer: (c)
4. This is the basis on which female Ascaris can be identified.
(a) Two spicules found at the posterior end
(b) Presence of postanal and preanal papillae
(c) Straight posterior end
(d) Common cloacal aperture
Answer: (c)
5. In Ascaris, the period of incubation outside the human body is
(a) More than 30 days
(b) 15-30 days
(c) 8-14 days
(d) 4-8 days
Answer: (b)
6. In the life cycle of Ascaris, the infective stage is
(a) Third lava
(b) Second larva
(c) Cyst
(d) Fertilized egg
Answer: (b)
7. The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel as
(a) it is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid
(b) has very little parenchyma
(c) contains large cells termed pseudocoelocytes
(d) bound extremely by muscle layer and internally by intestines
Answer: (d)
8. Ascaris lumbricoides is found living in the intestine of
(a) Pig
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Monkey

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(d) Goat and sheep
Answer: (b)
9. The process of morphological differentiating male and female sexes is known as
(a) sexual dimorphism
(b) polymorphism
(c) variation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
10. This has no alternate host
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Tapeworm
(c) Fasiola hepatica
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides
Answer: (d)

MCQ on Apoptosis For NEET 2021

A cell can die either due to apoptosis or necrosis. A type of programmed cell death is observed in
multicellular organisms known as apoptosis. The cell reaches this stage as a result of
biochemical changes occurring within it. Some of these changes are shrinking of cells, blebbing,
chromosomal DNA fragmentation, chromatin condensation, global mRNA decay and so on. The
phenomena of apoptosis, compared to necrosis is a predictable and controlled routine.
1. This is an extracellular messenger of apoptosis
(a) tumor necrosis factor
(b) serine
(c) translation inhibitor
(d) ribozyme
Answer: (a)
2. This is concerned with the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis
(a) cytochrome d
(b) cytochrome c
(c) cytochrome b
(d) cytochrome a
Answer: (b)

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3. Apoptotic bodies can be recognized with the presence of these on the surface
(a) phosphatidyl tyrosine
(b) phosphatidylinositol
(c) phosphatidylcholine
(d) phosphatidylserine
Answer: (d)
4. Apoptotic cells detach due to the inactivation of this
(a) PKC
(b) PKB
(c) RAF1
(d) FAK
Answer: (d)
5. Shrinking of the nucleus is caused when this inactivates
(a) gelsolin
(b) tubulin
(c) actin
(d) lamin
Answer: (d)
6. This cell organelle participates actively in animal apoptosis
(a) nucleus
(b) vacuoles
(c) mitochondria
(d) chloroplast
Answer: (c)
7. This can stimulate cytochrome release from mitochondria
(a) Akt
(b) Bid
(c) Bad
(d) Smac
Answer: (b)

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8. This cannot be killed by apoptosis
(a) immune cells
(b) cells with DNA damage
(c) cancer cells
(d) a cell infected with viruses
Answer: (c)
9. This is an anti-apoptotic protein
(a) Bim
(b) Bcl-Xs
(c) Bfl 1
(d) NOXA
Answer: (c)
10. This is an active cell death process
(a) necrosis
(b) lysis
(c) apoptosis
(d) senescence
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Mitochondria For NEET

Found in most of the eukaryotes, mitochondria is a double-membrane bound organelle.
However, some multicellular entities may show the absence of mitochondria in a few cells.
Explore some important MCQs on mitochondria for NEET.
1. Cristae in mitochondria serves as sites for
(a) oxidation reduction reaction
(b) protein synthesis
(c) macromolecules breakdown
(d) flavoproteins are phosphorylated
Answer: (a)
2. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) mitochondrial DNA is known as mtDNA
(b) mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell

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(c) mitochondria is the site for calvin cycle
(d) mitochondria is the site for krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: (c)
3. Inner membrane of mitochondria is rich in phospholipid _______
(a) phosphatidylserine
(b) phosphatidylinositol
(c) phosphatidylcholine
(d) cardiolipin
Answer: (d)
4. Mt DNA is
(a) simple single stranded circular DNA molecule
(b) simple double stranded circular DNA molecule
(c) simple double stranded linear DNA molecule
(d) simple single stranded linear DNA molecule
Answer: (b)
5. Inner mitochondrial membrane has
(a) cytochrome oxidase complex
(b) b-c 1 complex
(c) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
6. This is not a function of mitochondria
(a) fatty acid breakdown
(b) non-shivering thermogenesis
(c) electron transport chain and associated ATP production
(d) glycolysis and associated ATP production
Answer: (d)
7. This statement is incorrect about mitochondrial membrane
(a) outer membrane is permeable to all molecule types
(b) outer membrane is resembles a sieve

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(c) outer membrane embeds enzymes of electron transfer chain
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
8. Oxysomes of F0-F1 particles take place on
(a) Chloroplast surface
(b) Thylakoid
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Mitochondrial surface
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) generally, chloroplasts are larger than mitochondria
(b) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have DNA
(c) mitochondria and chloroplasts both contain an outer and inner membrane
(d) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bound
by thylakoid membrane
Answer: (d)
10. Typically, the inner membrane of mitochondria is highly convoluted to form a series of
infolding known as
(a) grana
(b) thylakoids
(c) cristae
(d) lamellae
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Pancreas For NEET 2021

Situated in the abdomen, Pancreas are pivotal in food conversion serving as a fuel to the cells of
the body. Mainly it has two important functions – endocrine function which checks the blood
sugar level and the exocrine function which assists in digestion. It is engirdled by some vital
organs of the body such as the spleen, small intestine and liver.
The chief duct of the pancreas links with the common bile duct that supplies the bile from the
gallbladder. Together, they associate with the duodenum at a point known as the Vater or the
ampulla. At the point, the enzymes of the pancreas and the bile are introduced into the duodenum
to assist the digestion process of proteins, fats and carbohydrates.
1. Inhibition of gastric secretions is brought about by

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(a) GIP
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Pancreozymin
Answer: (a)
2. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in
humans is
(a) trypsin
(b) enterokinase
(c) trypsinogen
(d) chymotrypsin
Answer: (c)
3. Pancreatitis can be produced by the following drug
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Nalidixic acid
(c) Colchicine
(d) L-Asparaginase
Answer: (d)
4. Gasless abdomen in X-ray is a sign of
(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Acute pancreatitis
(c) Intussusception
(d) Necrotizing enterocolitis
Answer: (b)
5. This is a major product of chief cells
(a) Mucus
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Pepsinogen
(d) HCl
Answer: (c)
6. The islets of Langerhans are found in

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(a) Stomach
(b) Alimentary canal
(c) Pancreas
(d) Liver
Answer: (c)
7. Secretion of pancreatic juice is triggered by
(a) secretin
(b) enterogastrone
(c) gastrin
(d) enterokinase
Answer: (a)
8. This is a common passage for bile and pancreatic juice
(a) stomach
(b) ampulla
(c) duct of oddi
(d) duct of wirsung
Answer: (b)
9. Pancreas is not
(a) Elongated organ
(b) Compound
(c) Exocrine portion secretes pancreatic juice
(d) Located above duodenum
Answer: (d)
10. This is most diagnostic investigation for acute pancreatitis
(a) Serum LDH
(b) Serum amylase
(c) Serum Lipase
(d) Serum P-isoamylase
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Ozone Layer Depletion For NEET 2021

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Manufactured chemicals, precisely manufactured halocarbon solvents, refrigerants, foam-
blowing agents, and propellants are the ozone-depleting substances or ODS, known to be the
main cause of depletion of the ozone layer. The ODS are moved to the stratosphere layer after
being pushed away from the surface post tumultuous mixing, faster than molecules can even
settle.
1. Good ozone is found in the
(a) stratosphere
(b) ionosphere
(c) troposphere
(d) mesosphere
Answer: (a)
2. This is not the consequence of ozone layer depletion
(a) malignant melanoma – skin cancer type
(b) increased ultraviolet radiations
(c) tides
(d) cyanobacteria are sensitive to UV rays and would be affected by its increase
Answer: (c)
3. Greenhouses gases causing a rise of 3℃ rise in the overall global temperature in the past
century are CFCs. The CFC used in refrigerators is
(a) Ammonia
(b) Freon
(c) Methane
(d) carbon dioxide
Answer: (b)
4. Main cause of ozone holes and its depletion is
(a) propellants
(b) foam-blowing agents
(c) halocarbon refrigerants
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
5. Ozone can be destroyed by the following free radical(s)
(a) chlorine radical (Cl)

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(b) hydroxyl radicals (OH)
(c) nitric oxide radical (NO)
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
6. Following form(s) of oxygen is/are involved in ozone-oxygen cycle
(a) triatomic oxygen (O )3

(b) diatomic oxygen (O ) 2

(c) atomic oxygen (O)

(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
7. Ozone-depleting substance chiefly utilized in
(I) chimneys
(II) all of the human activities
(III) burning fossil fuels
(IV) cooling and refrigeration applications and in the manufacturer of foam products
(a) All
(b) Only IV
(c) Only I, II and III
(d) Only I and II
Answer: (b)
8. Montreal protocol is related to the
(a) food security
(b) global warming
(c) sustainable development
(d) ozone layer depletion
Answer: (d)
9. This is a major risk linked with extreme ultraviolet rays through the atmosphere as a
result of ozone layer depletion
(a) neurological disorder
(b) digestive system gets damaged
(c) increased liver cancer

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(d) increased skin cancer
Answer: (d)
10. UV rays is higher in summer as
(a) during summer, ozone is more in the atmosphere
(b) sun is busy in summer specially
(c) sun is closer to planet earth so UV rays have a shorter distance to travel and reach us
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Ecological Succession For NEET 2021

The gradual and steady alteration in the species observed in a specific area with regards to the
changing environment is referred to as ecological succession. In nature, the phenomenon is
typically foreseeable and unpreventable as biotic components of the ecosystem are constantly
trying to sustain with changing atmospheric conditions. The main objective of this phenomenon
occurring in nature is the maintenance of equilibrium in the ecosystem.
1. In ecological succession, the intermediate developmental phase is known as
(a) ecesis
(b) climax
(c) nudation
(d) sere
Answer: (d)
2. This is true about secondary succession
(a) follows primary succession
(b) takes place on a deforested site
(c) is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively slower pace
(d) begins on a bare rock
Answer: (b)
3. Lithosphere serves as a reservoir for
(a) nitrogen cycles
(b) carbon cycles
(c) oxygen cycles
(d) phosphorus cycles
Answer: (d)

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4. This is not a climax vegetation
(a) grasses
(b) savannah
(c) forests
(d) hydrophytes
Answer: (d)
5. This about ecological succession is incorrect
(a) food chain relationships become more complex
(b) species diversity increases as succession proceeds
(c) role of decomposers becomes all the more important
(d) is a random process
Answer: (d)
6. An example of plants occupying the second stage of hydrosere is
(a) Salix
(b) Vallisneria
(c) Azolla
(d) Typha
Answer: (b)
7. On the sand, ecological succession is
(a) halosere
(b) xerosere
(c) hydrosere
(d) psammosere
Answer: (d)
8. Order of basic processes involved in succession is
(a) invasion -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> nudation
(b) nudation -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> invasion -> reaction
(c) invasion -> nudation -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization
(d) nudation -> invasion -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization
Answer: (d)

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9. Process of the successful establishment of species in a new area is known as
(a) climax
(b) sere
(c) ecesis
(d) invasion
Answer: (c)
10. In ecological succession, the final stable community is known as
(a) climax community
(b) ultimate community
(c) final community
(d) seral community
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Infertility
Infertility can be challenging for identification and determination. It can also include deficiency
in the hormonal level in both women and men, and also issues with ovulating in women. The
major symptom of infertility is the incapabilities to hold a pregnancy. However, depending on
the cause, it can be treated accordingly.
1. This is a major reason for infertility in women
(a) Anovulation
(b) Weight
(c) Age
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
2. Boosting the intake of _________ can help women trying to conceive
(a) Potassium
(b) Folic acid
(c) Lycopene
(d) Nickel
Answer: (b)
3. Nerve supply of ovary is through
(a) Sacral fibers

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(b) Pudendal nerve
(c) Branches of renal and aortic plexus
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
4. Menstrual phase bleeding is due to
(a) necrosin
(b) fibrinolysis
(c) menotoxin
(d) vasoconstriction and ischaemia
Answer: (d)
5. Fertility in women is impaired by
(a) Hernia
(b) High blood pressure
(c) Obesity
(d) Gallstones
Answer: (c)
6. Infertility is when a couple fails to conceive after
(a) 4 years of unprotected sex
(b) 3years of unprotected sex
(c) 2 years of unprotected sex
(d) 1 year of unprotected sex
Answer: (d)
7. Procedures used to treat infertility are
(a) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection
(b) IVF – In Vitro Fertilization
(c) IUI – Intrauterine insemination
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
8. Right ovarian artery arises from
(a) Uterine artery

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(b) Aorta
(c) Renal artery
(d) Common iliac artery
Answer: (b)
9. This condition impairs infertility
(a) PCOD
(b) Fibroids
(c) Endometriosis
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
10. In women, this sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility
(a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
(b) Pelvic inflammatory disease
(c) Genital herpes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

Vascular Tissues Questions With Answers

Also known as the circulatory system, the vascular system is composed of vessels transporting
lymph and blood all through the body. Veins and arteries supply blood to all the parts of the
body/tissues, enriching them with nutrients and oxygen. In return, they take away wastes
released by the different tissues.
1. Lymph differs from blood in having ________.
(a) Much more of water content
(b) No WBC
(c) No RBC
(d) No protein
Answer: (c)
2. What happens to the red blood cells when it is kept in 0.8% NaCl?
(a) Burst
(b) Shrink
(c) Remains unchanged

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(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
3. Division of White Blood Cells takes place by_______.
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) Mitosis
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
4. Least constancy of shape is exhibited by_______.
(a) Blood platelets
(b) Epithelial Cells
(c) White Blood Cells
(d) Red blood Cells
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following statement is true about the Camel’s erythrocytes?
(a) Oval and nucleated
(b) Oval and non-nucleated
(c) Circular, nucleated and biconvex
(d) Circular, non-nucleated and biconcave
Answer: (a)
6. In adults, Red blood Cells is formed in ________.
(a) The liver
(b) The thymus
(c) The spleen
(d) The bone marrow of long bones
Answer: (d)
7. What is the average life span of human Red blood Cells?
(a) 90 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 120 days

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(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
8. When the count of white blood cells drops below the optimum level of blood it is known
as ________?
(a) Anaemia
(b) Leukopenia
(c)  Leukaemia
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
9. The protein content is the highest in the lymphatics of ________.
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Below the skin
(d) All the above
Answer: (a)
10. An abnormal rise in the number of RBC count is known as________.
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Anaemia
(c) Leukemia
(d) All the above
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Implantation and Gastrulation

Implantation is the act of firmly setting in. In particular, it is when the fertilized egg is attached to the
lining of the uterus firmly, which usually takes place nearly 6 or 7 days after fertilization while
gastrulation is the process wherein the embryo transforms from blastula to a gastrula with multiple
cell layers during embryonic development.

NEET MCQ implantation-and-gastrulation PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. Which of the following organ is formed during gastrulation?

(a) Gill
(b) Vitelline membrane
(c) Heart

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(d) Archenteron
Answer: (d)
2. Mesoderm gives rise to all the structures except ______.
(a) Gonads
(b) Circulatory system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Muscular system
Answer: (c)
3. In human females, the fertilized eggs get implanted in the uterus after ________.
(a) One month of fertilization
(b) Two months of fertilization
(c) Seven days of fertilization
(d) Three weeks of fertilization
Answer: (c)
4. Brain, nerve cells and spinal cord or the central nervous system develops from embryonic
______.
(a) Mesoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Ectoderm
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following options contains only the mesodermal structures?
(a) Heart, blood, bones, notochord
(b) Heart, blood, muscles, liver
(c) Notochord, blood, liver, muscles
(d) Liver, heart, bones, blood
Answer: (a)
6. Implantation is the process of__________.
(a) Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall
(b) Egg movement
(c) Degeneration of egg
(d) Egg fertilization
Answer: (a)

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7. Which of the following embryo has a parasitic mode of nutrition?
(a) Mammalian embryo
(b) Bird’s embryo
(c) Amphibian embryo
(d) Reptilian embryo
Answer: (a)
8. which of the following events is likely to take place, if the nuclei from an 8-celled stage of
an embryo are transplanted into enucleated eggs?
(a) Recipient egg dies
(b) Donor nuclei die in the new environment
(c) Cleavage occurs but is arrested after some time
(d) Formation of the viable embryo in the recipient eggs
Answer: (d)
9. Egg implantation is followed by______.
(a) Parturition
(b) Copulation
(c) Fertilization
(d) Gestation
Answer: (d)
10. Pseudopregnancy is a physiological condition, comparable to normal pregnancy except
that there is no__________.
(a) endometrial changes
(b) developing foetus
(c) corpus luteum
(d) developing ovum
Answer: (b)

Cleavage Biology MCQs for NEET 2021

Division of cells during the early embryo stages is known as cleavage in embryology.
Fertilization is followed by cleavage. The various cells as an outcome of the cleavage are
blastomeres, forming a huge ball-like structure; this mass is known as a morula. The end product
of the cleavage is blastula.
1. This is also known as meroblastic cleavage
(a) Partial
(b) Unequal holoblastic

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(c) Equal holoblastic
(d) Superficial
Answer: (a)
2. The type of cleavage found in insects
(a) Holoblastic
(b) Discoidal
(c) Superficial
(d) Meroblastic
Answer: (c)
3. Discoidal and superficial cleavages are types of
(a) Unequal holoblastic
(b) equal holoblastic
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Meroblastic
Answer: (d)
4. If the first cleavage furrow divides zygote completely into two, the cleavage type is
(a) meroblastic
(b) holoblastic
(c) equatorial
(d) radial
Answer: (b)
5. The only human system that is derived from all the three germ layers is
(a) Nervous system
(b) Digestive system
(c) Respiratory system
(d) Excretory system
Answer: (b)
6. The fertilized egg divides by the process of
(a) Oogenesis
(b) Cleavage

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(c) Regeneration
(d) Invagination
Answer: (b)
7. If an unfertilized egg is pricked with a microneedle, it will
(a) transform into a tadpole at a faster rate
(b) die immediately
(c) will remain undivided
(d) start dividing
Answer: (d)
8. A freshly unfertilized egg of hen contains
(a) 10,000 cells
(b) 1,000 cells
(c) 100 cells
(d) one cell
Answer: (d)
9. How many cleavages are completed in the 16-celled stage of an egg?
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer: (c)
10. The spindle in the determinate cleavage is
(a) Horizontal
(b) Oblique
(c) Vertical
(d) Sub-equatorial
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Fertilization for NEET 2021

The process of uniting of male and female gametes for the commencement of the development of
a new offspring is known as fertilization. Sexual reproduction is when fertilization occurs

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followed by the phases of development of new individuals. Depending upon the method of birth,
fertilization can either be internal or external.
1. Sperm lysin, the enzymatic substance produced by sperms in mammals is known as
(a) cryanogamone
(b) hyaluronic acid
(c) androgamone
(d) hyaluronidase
Answer: (d)
2. Egg development without fertilization is known as
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Metagenesis
(c) Gametogenesis
(d) Oogenesis
Answer: (a)
Also See:

 Method Of Birth Control MCQs

 DNA Structure MCQs
3. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum in the process of fertilization, entry of further
sperms is prevented by
(a) condensation of yolk
(b) development of the vitelline membrane
(c) formation of the fertilization membrane
(d) development of the pigment coat
Answer: (c)
4. In the process of fertilization, this is true
(a) the entry of sperm activates the egg for completing meiosis
(b) only one sperm reaches the egg and enters it
(c) only the acrosome of the sperm enters the egg
(d) two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to produce two nuclei, which are again
haploid
Answer: (a)

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5. In rabbits, humans and other placental mammals, fertilization occurs in
(a) vagina
(b) ovary
(c) fallopian tubes
(d) uterus
Answer: (c)
6. In female mammals, Bartholin’s glands open into the
(a) Fallopian tubes and release a secretion which makes sperms motile
(b) uterus and release a lubricating fluid during the birth of young ones
(c) vestibule and release a lubricating fluid in the vagina
(d) urinary bladder and assist in release of urine
Answer: (c)
7. This is a minute cell which separates from the animal egg during maturation is known as
(a) Primary oogonia
(b) secondary oogonia
(c) primary spermatogonia
(d) polar bodies
Answer: (d)
8. The nutritive medium for the ejaculated sperms is given by
(a) fallopian tube
(b) uterine lining
(c) seminal fluid
(d) vaginal fluid
Answer: (c)
9. This helps in the penetration of the egg by the sperm
(a) fertilization membrane
(b) antifertilizin
(c) sperm lysin
(d) fertilizin
Answer: (c)

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10. In a man, sperms move after ejaculation at a rate of nearly
(a) 2 to 4 inches/minute
(b) 2 to 4 mm/minute
(c) 2 to 4 cm/minute
(d) 2 to 4 feet/minute
Answer: (b)

Plasma Membrane Questions With Answers

Cell membrane or plasma membrane is generally found existing in all the cells which distinguish
the inside of the cell from its exterior. In plant and bacterial cells, the cell wall is found fastened
to the plasma membrane on its exterior surface. This membrane checks the transportation of
particles which enter and exit the cell and comprises a lipid bilayer which in nature is
semipermeable.

NEET MCQ Plasma Membrane PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. This is not the function of plasma membrane

(a) Energy transduction
(b) Intercellular interactions
(c) Responding to external stimuli
(d) Assisting in chromosome segregation
Answer: (d)
2. In the plasma membrane, carbohydrates
(a) always faces outwards, towards extracellular space
(b) directed to all sides in the membrane randomly
(c) always faces to the lumen of cells
(d) always faces inward to the nonpolar portion of the membrane
Answer: (a)
3. In the plasma membrane, Glycolipids are usually situated in
(a) cannot be predicted, it varies according to the cell types
(b) inner leaflet of the plasma membrane
(c) the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane
(d) evenly distributed in both outer and inner leaves of plasma membrane
Answer: (c)

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4. The major interaction responsible for stabilizing plasma membrane
(a) hydrophobic interactions
(b) hydrophilic interactions
(c) covalent bonds
(d) ionic bonds
Answer: (a)
5. In the plasma membrane, lipid molecules are arranged in
(a) head parallel
(b) alternate
(c) scattered
(d) series
Answer: (a)
6. Ion carriers are located in
(a) Plasma membranes
(b) Cell wall
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cellular space
Answer: (a)
7. In the plasma membrane, the best method to study the properties of integral membrane
proteins is
(a) atomic force microscopy
(b) freeze-fracture analysis and electron microscopy
(c) cryo-sectioning and electron microscopy
(d) all of the above
Answer: (b)
8. In the plant cell, this layer is present nearest to the plasma membrane
(a) Tonoplast
(b) Middle lamella
(c) secondary wall
(d) primary wall
Answer: (c)

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9. Beetroot, if kept in cold water, anthocyanin does not come out due to plasma membrane
(a) Dead
(b) differentially permeable
(c) permeable to anthocyanins
(d) Impermeable to anthocyanins
Answer: (d)
10. Plasma membrane is made up of
(a) A protein, a lipid and a cellulose layer
(b) Bimolecular lipid layer surrounded by protein layers
(c) A protein layer between two lipid layers
(d) A lipid layer between two protein layers
Answer: (b)

MCQs On Internal Structure of Root Stem and Leaf

There are two chief conducting tissues in vascular plants – xylem and phloem. The conducting
tissues extend from leaves to the roots and are critical for nutrient and water transport. The
structure of phloem and xylem tissue is based on the plant if it is a gymnosperm or angiosperm.
1. Collenchymatous hypodermis is characteristics of
(a) Hydrophytes
(b) Monocot and dicot stem
(c) Monocot stem
(d) Dicot stem
Answer: (d)
2. The lacunae in the vascular bundles of monocot stem is
(a) Metaxylem
(b) A mucilage canal
(c) Lysigenous water cavity
(d) A large sized protoxylem
Answer: (c)
3. The protoxylem in its midrid bundle in a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf
(a) is not distinct
(b) faces the ventral epidermis of the leaf

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(c) faces the dorsal epidermis of the leaf
(d) is surrounded by metaxylem
Answer: (c)
4. This is not a characteristic feature of anatomy of dicotyledonous root
(a) Pith little or absent
(b) Secondary growth
(c) Radial vascular bundles
(d) Vascular bundles 15-20
Answer: (d)
5. Vascular bundles are scattered in
(a) Dicot stem
(b) Dicot root
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Monocot stem
Answer: (d)
6. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by
(a) Palisade along both the surface
(b) Undifferentiated mesophyll
(c) Palisade towards abaxial surface
(d) Palisade towards adaxial surface
Answer: (b)
7. Well-developed pith is found in
(a) Monocot root and Dicot stem
(b) Dicot root and Dicot stem
(c) Dicot root and Monocot stem
(d) Dicot and Monocot stems
Answer: (a)
8. In monocot leaf
(a) Veins form a network
(b) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma

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(c) Mesophyll is well differentiated into these parts
(d) Bulliform cells are absent from epidermis
Answer: (b)
9. In orchids, Velamen tissues is found in
(a) Leaves
(b) Root
(c) Flowers
(d) Shoot
Answer: (b)
10. Polyarch and exarch vascular bundles occur in
(a) Dicot stem
(b) Monocot stem
(c) Dicot root
(d) Monocot root
Answer: (d)

MCQs On Hormonal Control Digestion

Hormones, the chemical messengers, found in the gut are critical in regulating the intake of food
and energy expenditure. The body’s biggest hormone-producing structure, the gut secretes more
than 20 various peptide hormones, some of these affect the eating pattern, sensation of pleasure
during nibbling while some others target the brain to control appetite and so on.
1. Which of the following statement about Enterogastrone?
(a) The hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa
(b) The hormone secreted by mucosa
(c) The hormone secreted by related to digestion
(d) The hormone secreted by the gastric mucosa
Answer: (a)
2. Juice containing sodium glycocholate is secreted under the influence of _______.
(a) Enterogastrone
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Enterokinin
(d) Secretin

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Answer: (b)
3. Gall bladder contractions and Pancreatic secretion are triggered by_______
(a) Enterogastrone
(b) Enterocrinin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Cholecystokinin
Answer: (d)
4. Cholecystokinin hormone which is released from the intestinal epithelium triggers___.
(a) Release of bile from the gallbladder
(b) Conversion of protein to peptones
(c) Conversion of fats into glycerol
(d) Secretion of pancreatic juice
Answer: (a)
5. The hormone secretin triggers ______.
(a) Gallbladder
(b) Pancreas
(c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(d) Stomach
Answer: (b)
6. _________regulates the enzymatic quantity in pancreatic juice.
(a) Cholecystokinin
(b) Gastrin
(c) Pancreozymin
(d) Secretin
Answer: (c)
7. In a mammal, the release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is triggered by ______.
(a) Cholecystokinin
(b) Trypsinogen
(c) Secretin
(d) Enterokinase

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Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following secretes secretin hormone?
(a) Oesophagus
(b) Ileum
(c) Duodenum
(d) Stomach
Answer: (c)
9. The hormone gastrin is secreted by_______.
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Stomach
(d) Intestine
Answer: (c)
10. Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ______.
(a) Cholecystokinin
(b) Gastrin
(c) Enterogastrone
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Diseases Caused by Viruses

Viruses, in nature, are submicroscopic. These infectious vehicles have the capability to duplicate
only inside the living cells of an entity. From microbes, to plants, animals and even humans,
microbes can infect them all. Viruses exist as virions, independent particles when not inside an
infected cell comprising generic material, capsid and an envelope of lipids. Viruses can cause a
range of deadly diseases.
1. The non-living characteristic of viruses is
(a) ability to multiply only inside the host
(b) ability to undergo mutation
(c) ability to be crystallized
(d) ability to cause diseases in the host
Answer: (c)
2. This virus contains both DNA and RNA

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(a) Polio virus
(b) Herpes virus
(c) Cyanophage
(d) Leukovirus
Answer: (d)
3. The region in the body where polio virus multiplies is
(a) Muscle cells
(b) Nerve cells
(c) Intestinal cells
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
4. Interferons curb infection of
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Cancer
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
5. This virus, for the first time, was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals
(a) Pox virus
(b) Flu virus
(c) Tobacco mosaic virus
(d) Bacteriophage
Answer: (c)
6. Causative of Chickenpox is
(a) Bacteriophage T-2
(b) Varicella virus
(c) SV-40 virus
(d) Adenovirus
Answer: (b)
7. Tetanus germs produce a toxin. It affects

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(a) jaw bones
(b) involuntary muscles
(c) voluntary muscles
(d) both voluntary and involuntary muscles
Answer: (c)
8. This is a viral disease
(a) Rickets
(b) Measles
(c) Beri-beri
(d) Syphilis
Answer: (b)
9. This is a communicable disease
(a) Rabies
(b) Cancer
(c) Alkaptonuria
(d) Phenylketonuria
Answer: (a)
10. Hydrophobia or rabies is a disease caused by
(a) Protozoan
(b) Nematode
(c) Virus
(d) Helminth
Answer: (c)

Diabetes Mellitus and Cardiovascular Diseases Questions With

Answers
Diabetes or Diabetes Mellitus is a collection of disorders related to metabolism typically
distinguished by unusually high levels of blood sugar for an extended period of time.
Cardiovascular diseases are the diseases or disorders of the heart and blood vessels, several of
these diseases are related to the phenomena of atherosclerosis, which is a medical condition that
develops when plaque starts to build in the walls of the arteries.

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NEET MCQ diabetes-mellitus PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. The probable cause of Erythroblastosis fetalis can be

(a) Bleeding
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Adjoining of RBC
(d) Diapedesis
Answer: (c)
2. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder
(a) PCR
(b) ELISA
(c) ABO blood group
(d) NMR
Answer: (a)
3. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications
(a) controlling blood lipids and blood pressure
(b) Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease
(c) Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet
(d) controlling blood glucose
Answer: (c)
4. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting is due to lack of plasma thromboplastin
component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Hypoprothrombinemia
(c) Christmas disease
(d) Stuart disease
Answer: (c)
5. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver
(a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
(b) Sulfonylureas
(c) Biguanides

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(d) Meglitinides
Answer: (c)
6. Presence of RBC in urine is known as
(a) Proteinuria
(b) Hematuria
(c) Urolithiasis
(d) Nephritis
Answer: (b)
7. The disease characterized by extreme muscle weakness and brownish pigmentation of
the buccal cavity and skin is
(a) Grave’s disease
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Addison’s disease
(d) Cushing’s disease
Answer: (c)
8. This statement regarding Angina is true
(a) blood flow is unaffected
(b) most common in children
(c) inadequate supply of oxygen to the heart muscles
(d) heart stops beating
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the wrongly matched pair
(a) heart failure – not enough blood supply to the body
(b) angina pectoris – acute chest pain
(c) cardiac arrest – narrowing of the lumen
(d) heart attack – not enough blood supply to cardiac muscles
Answer: (c)
10. This disease is not related to the circulatory system
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Hypertension
(c) Diphtheria

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(d) Coronary thrombosis
Answer: (c)

Self Evaluation Test - Human Health and Disease MCQs

Human health involves absolute well being in all aspects, physical, mental and social not
necessarily an illness or disorder. The well-being of humans is a crucial aspect which can be
influenced by many factors both externally as well as internally.
1. The low RBC count is seen in anaemia and ________.
(a) Myxoedema
(b) Influenza
(c) Typhoid
(d) Leukaemia
Answer: (d)
2. A child is suffering from Kwashiorkor and if this child is compared with other
marasmus children then what additional symptoms are present in Kwashiorkor child?
(a) Oedema
(b) Wasted muscles
(c) A decrease in body weight
(d) Impaired physical growth
Answer: (c)
3. Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are
(a) Allergic diseases
(b)  Hormonal diseases
(c) Autoimmune diseases
(d) Hereditary diseases
Answer: (c)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(a) These are produced in the thyroid
(b) These are originated in lymphoid tissues
(c) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(d) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
Answer: (b)

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5. The antibody-dependent cytotoxicity is seen in ________.
(a) Local anaphylaxis
(b) Generalise anaphylaxis
(c) Immune complex reaction
(d) Non-compatible-blood transfusion
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following protein causes the dilation of blood vessels?
(a) Histamine
(b) Pyrogens
(c) Interferon
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
7. Parkinson’s disease is caused due to deficiency of ________.
(a) Dopamine
(b) GABA
(c) Acetylcholine
(d) Endorphins
Answer: (a)
8. Gaucher’s disease is linked with________.
(a) Malnutrition
(b) Abnormal fat metabolism
(c) Abnormal protein metabolism
(d) Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
Answer: (b)
9. LSD is obtained from _______.
(a) Cannabis Sativa
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Papaver somniferum
(d) Erythroxylon coca
Answer: (b)

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10. Infectious proteins are present in ________.
(a) Prions
(b) Viroids
(c) Gemini viruses
(d) Satellite viruses
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Arthritis and Cancer for NEET

Arthritis is a medical condition wherein the patient complains of inflammation of one joint in
particular or more than one joint which results in stiffness of the joints along with pain which
only gets worse with aging. There exists different types of arthritis, each having different
causatives. Cancer, on the other hand, is a grave condition where abnormal cells in the body
grow uncontrollably. It develops whenever the normal control mechanism of the body stops
functioning.
1. This is cancerous state of blood
(a) Uremia
(b) Chloremia
(c) Leukemia
(d) Proteinemia
Answer: (c)
2. Benign tumour is the one which
(a) differentiated and capsulated
(b) shows metastasis
(c) differentiated and non capsulated
(d) undifferentiated and non capsulated
Answer: (a)
3. If a muscle fails to give stimulation action and there is much ingestion of lactic acid, the
conduction is termed as
(a) Fatigue
(b) Tonus
(c) Paralysis
(d) Tetanus
Answer: (a)

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4. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician
conduct to diagnose the cancer
(a) blood test
(b) mammography
(c) CT scan
(d) pap test
Answer: (b)
5. Rheumatoid arthritis is different from some other forms of arthritis as it
(a) occurs below the waist
(b) is more painful than other forms
(c) generally occurs above the waist
(d) is symmetrical, affecting the right and the left sides of the body
Answer: (d)
6. Chemicals, that can induce cancer are called
(a) Carcinogens and produce malignant tumour
(b) carcinogens and produce non-malignant tumour
(c) mutagenic agents and do not produce malignant tumour
(d) mutagenic agents and produce benign tumour
Answer: (a)
7. A painful disorder of the joints, Gouts is due to
(a) inflammation of synovial membrane
(b) deposition of uric acid at joints
(c) injury to tendon
(d) damage caused to ligaments
Answer: (b)
8. Cancerous cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells as they
(a) differ in structure
(b) undergo rapid division
(c) are nutrition-starved
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)

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9. Cancer is related to
(a) Non-malignant tumor
(b) uncontrolled growth of tissues
(c) controlled division of tissues
(d) none of the above
Answer: (b)
10. The nucleus of cancerous cells becomes
(a) Unchanged
(b) Degenerated
(c) Abnormally large
(d) Hypertrophied
Answer: (c)

Yeast and Albugo Questions With Answers

Yeasts are the single-celled, eukaryotic entities belonging to the Kingdom Fungi. Through the
process of fermentation, yeasts are known to convert carbohydrates into carbon dioxide and
alcohols. Albugo, on the other hand, is a species of Oomycete and generally referred to as white
rust. These at times are also referred to as fungi.
1. Yeast produces an enzyme complex, which is responsible for fermentation. Which is the
enzyme complex?
(a) Zymase
(b) Dehydrogenase
(c) Aldolase
(d) Invertase
Answer: (a)
2. In yeast, the sexual reproduction is by conjugation. After fusion, the zygotic nucleus
divides meiotically and forms haploid spores. The unicellular structure with haploid spores
is
(a) Gametangium
(b) Zoosporangium
(c) Sporangium
(d) Ascus
Answer: (d)

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3. The rising of dough is due to
(a) sulphur dioxide
(b) hydrogen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen
Answer: (c)
4. In manufacture of bread, it becomes porous due to the liberation of CO  by the action of
2

(a) Yeast
(b) Virus
(c) Protozoans
(d) Bacteria
Answer: (a)
5. The food reserve in Albugo usually is
(a) Fat
(b) Protein granules
(c) Glycogen
(d) Volutin granules
Answer: (c)
6. This statement on Albugo is incorrect
(a) Non-flagellated female gametes
(b) Biflagellated zoospores
(c) Biflagellated male gametes
(d) All of these
Answer: (c)
7. The species causing white rust of cruciferae has a botanical name, it is
(a) Pythium debaryanum
(b) Peronospora parasitica
(c) Albugo candida
(d) Puccinia graminis
Answer: (c)

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8. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because
(a) it has eukaryotic organization
(b) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch
(c) Some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of pseudomycelium
(d) it has no chlorophyll
Answer: (a)
9. This is used in the preparation of alcohol
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Acetobacter
(c) Lactobacillus
(d) Penicillium
Answer: (a)
10. Fungus without mycelium is
(a) Agaricus
(b) Albugo
(c) Puccinia
(d) Saccharomyces
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Archaebacteria for NEET 2021

Archaebacteria is a type of single-celled entity, which differs from other modern life-forms.
They are a group of microorganisms, deemed to be an ancient life-form or the oldest living
organisms and are known to have evolved separately from blue-green algae and bacteria.
Listed below are few important and solved MCQs on Archaebacteria.
1. Which of the following bacteria thrive in extreme environmental conditions, such as high
temperature and acidic pH, the absence of oxygen and high salt concentration?
(a) Eubacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following statement is true for archaebacteria?

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(a) Archaebacteria are fossils
(b) Archaebacteria are halophiles
(c) Archaebacteria are photosynthetic
(d) Archaebacteria are old living entities
Answer: (d)
3. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to
the two groups called _______.
(a) Cyanobacteria and Diatoms
(b) Liverworts and Yeasts
(c) Protists and Mosses
(d) Eubacteria and Archaea
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following bacterium is found in extreme saline conditions?
(a) Eubacteria
(b) Mycobacteria
(c) Archaebacteria
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer: (c)
5. Most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in the
production of antibiotics are the ones categorized as _______.
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria
(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
Answer: (c)
6. Methanogens belong to_______.
(a) Eubacteria
(b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Slime moulds
(d) Archaebacteria
Answer: (d)

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7. Which of the following features differs archaebacteria from eubacteria?
(a) Cell shape
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Mode of reproduction
(d) Cell membrane structure
Answer: (d)
8. Methanococcus, Thermococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify
(a) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(b) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a
cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(c) archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(d) archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
Answer: (c)
9. After the new classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
archaea and eukarya) which one of the following is true about archaea?
(a) Resembles eukarya in all respects
(b) Completely differ from prokaryotes
(c) Completely differ from both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(d) Have some novel features that are absent in other eukaryotes and prokaryotes
Answer: (d)
10. Which of the following are likely to be present into the deep seawater?
(a) Eubacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Saprophytic fungi
(d) Blue-green algae
Answer: (b)

Blood Groups MCQ for NEET 2021

A blood group or blood type is a blood-classification, categorized on the basis of presence and
absence of antibodies and inherited antigenic particles on the surface of RBCs.
Important MCQs for NEET Biology:
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  MCQs on Life Processes
 MCQs on Lac Operon
 MCQ on Lipids
 MCQ on Diversity in Living World
 Apiculture MCQs
 MCQ on Meiosis
1. In the ABO system, blood group ‘O’ is characterized by the:
(a) presence of antigen O
(b) presence of both antigen A and antigen B
(c) absence of both antigen A and antigen B
(d) presence of antigen A and absence of antigen B
Answer: (c)
2. Antiserum is
(a) blood serum containing specific antibodies
(b) blood serum containing specific antigens
(c) blood serum containing a mixture of antigens and antibodies
(d) blood serum in which antigens and antibodies are both absent
Answer: (a)
3. A false positive result is best described as one that is given
(a) by a substance other than that being tested for
(b) when the substance being tested for is present in large amounts
(c) when substance being tested for is present in minute quantities
(d) when substance being tested for is absent
Answer: (a)
4. Which antibodies are found in the plasma of a person with type A blood?
(a) anti-A, but not anti B
(b) neither anti-A nor anti B
(c) both anti-A and anti B
(d) anti-B, but not anti-A
Answer: (d)
5. Under this circumstance, an antigen-antibody reaction will occur. A person with

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(a) Type A blood is given type O blood
(b) Type AB blood is given type O blood
(c) Type O blood is given type A blood
(d) Type AB blood is given type B blood
Answer: (c)
6. When typing blood, a positive reaction
(a) shows which antigens are present
(b) shows clumping
(c) helps deduce which blood type the sample is
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
7. If a blood type ends in + (positive) that means
(a) your attitude is positive
(b) you are positive for an Rh protein
(c) you are positive you know your blood type
(d) + sign at the end is insignificant
Answer: (b)
8. In the context of the ABO blood group, a transfusion of AB blood may be given to a
person who has blood type
(a) A
(b) O
(c) B
(d) AB
Answer: (d)
9. Human blood types in the ABO blood group are identified by
(a) clotting factors in plasma
(b) microscopic examination of white blood cells
(c) antigen-antibody reactions
(d) series of enzyme controlled reactions
Answer: (c)

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10. Red blood cells that do not contain either A or B antigens on their surface are normally
found in the person with blood type
(a) A
(b) O
(c) B
(d) AB
Answer: (b)

Plastids Questions With Answers

Plastids are double-membrane organelles, which are found both in the plant cells and in the cells
of algae. These cell organelles are responsible to synthesize as well as in the storage of food.
Plastids contain pigments essential for the process of photosynthesis.

MCQs On Plastids
1. All three types of plastids have evolved from _________.
(a) Leucoplast
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Pro-plastid
(d) Chromoplast
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following species lack plastids?
(a) Fungi and animals
(b) Plants and animals
(c) Bacterium, animals and fungi
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
3. Which of the following is a common feature of plastids and mitochondria?
(a) Both have Double-stranded DNA
(b) Both contain 70s ribosomes
(c) Both are double membranous cell organelles
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is not a colourless plastid?

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(a) Amyloplast
(b) Elaioplast
(c) Rhodoplast
(d) Proteinoplast
Answer: (c)
5. Plastids are present in ______
(a) Euglenoides
(b) Plants
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All protists
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following cell organelle are found only in a plant cell?
(a) Plastids
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Golgi complex
(d) Ribosomes
Answer: (a)
7. Plastids are absent in ________.
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Blue-green algae
(d)  All of the above
Answer: (d)
8. Plant cells and animal cells differ from each other in having ________.
(a) Vacuole
(b) Centrosome
(c) Plastid
(d) Golgi body
Answer: (c)
9. Which of the following type of plastids helps in pollination?

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(a) Leucoplasts
(b) Chloroplasts
(c) Chromoplasts
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
10. Fret channels are associated with _________
(a) Two lamellae of a granum
(b) Two grana of a chloroplast
(c) Two quantasomes
(d) Two plastids of a cell
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Regeneration For NEET 2021

Regeneration is a biological process, wherein some entities replace and restore an amputated or
lost body parts. From bacteria to humans, every species is capable of undergoing regeneration.
This process can be completed or incomplete recovery of the lost or amputated tissue.
Listed below are a few important MCQs on Regeneration.
1. Repetitive regeneration can be seen in
(a) Molluscs
(b) Tadpole
(c) Hydra
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
2. The method of asexual reproduction that can be called as a mode of regeneration is
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) sporulation
(d) binary fission
Answer: (a)
3. Regeneration can be seen in which of the following
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Spongilla

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(c) Earthworm
(d) Starfish
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following organs can be regenerated in Echinodermata?
(a) Eyes
(b) Pedicellariae
(c) Arms and disc
(d)Digestive system
Answer: (c)
5. The damaged leg is not regenerated in______.
(a) Frog
(b) Crab
(c) Salamander
(d) Frog’s tadpole
Answer: (a)
6. The repair by cell division in the damaged tissue is called ______.
(a) Exponential growth
(b) Deaccelerating growth
(c) Epimorphosis regeneration
(d) Morphallaxis regeneration
Answer: (c)
7. Restorative regeneration is _______.
(a) Healing of wounds
(b) Formation of a new entity from a piece of the body of the parent
(c) A regular process in which the dead and worn-out cells of some organs are continuously
replaced by new cells
(d) All of these
Answer: (c) 
8. Ability to give rise to a new individual entity from body parts is
(a) Reproduction
(b) Fragmentation

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(c) Regeneration
(d) Fission
Answer: (c)
9. Regeneration of a limb or tail is an example of
(a) Epimorphosis
(b) Autotomy
(c) Compensatory hypertrophy
(d) Morphallaxis
Answer: (a)
10. Epimorphosis is regeneration through
(a) The repatterning of existing cells as seen in hydra
(b) The reinitiation of division in existing cells, followed by patterning, as occurs in amphibians
such as newts
(c) The repatterning of existing cells as seen in amphibians
(d) The reinitiation of embryonic growth from remaining cells as seen in Hydra
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Apoplast for NEET 2021

Water absorption in plant roots occurs through either active or passive transport. In passive
mode, movement of water takes place through the apoplast of the root which comprises the
intercellular spaces and cell wall. Apoplast is a void, exterior to the plasma membrane wherein
material diffusion easily occurs.
1. In plants, water movement is
(a) up the potential gradient in both symplast and apoplast
(b) down the potential gradient in apoplast and up the potential gradient in symplast
(c) down the potential gradient in both symplast and apoplast
(d) down a potential gradient in symplast and up the potential gradient in apoplast
Answer: (c)
2. Pick the incorrect statement regarding apoplast movement
(a) movement of water is through mass flow
(b) gradient-dependant
(c) mass flow of water takes place as a result of cohesive and adhesive properties of
water

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(d) continuous water stream gets tension when water is absorbed by root hairs
Answer: (d)
3. In roots, most of the water flows through
(a) Symplast
(b) Apoplast
(c) Imbibition
(d) Active transport
Answer: (b)
4. Movement of water through apoplast stops at the level of ________ and crosses
membrane to undergo symplast till xylem cells
(a) starch sheath
(b) inner layer of cortex
(c) endodermis
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
5. In plants, this about apoplast and symplast water movement is true
(a) being down a potential gradient
(b) an equal rate of transport
(c) conduction through interconnected protoplasts
(d) assistance by cytoplasmic streaming
Answer: (a)
6. Pressure in roots develops due to
(a) low osmotic soil potential
(b) rise in transpiration
(c) active absorption
(d) passive absorption
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following statements does not hold true in context of apoplast?
(a) occurs through intercellular spaces and cell walls
(b) system of adjacent cell walls is continuous all through the plant
(c) crosses cell membrane

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(d) discontinuous path at the place of casparian strips of endodermis in roots
Answer: (c)
8. This is not part of apoplast
(a) cell walls
(b) vessels
(c) intercellular spaces
(d) sieve tubes
Answer: (d)
9. Symplastic movement is slower than apoplastic movement because
(a) molecule has to enter through cell membrane
(b) it is down the gradient
(c) as it involves cytoplasmic streaming always
(d) all of the above
Answer: (a)
10. Most of the movement in roots through apoplast is due to
(a) endodermal cells are loosely packed and hence no resistance to water movement
(b) medullary cells are loosely packed and hence no resistance to water movement
(c) cortical cells are loosely packed and hence no resistance to water movement
(d) pericycle cells are loosely packed and hence no resistance to water movement
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Auxin
Auxins are a group of plant hormones present in a very small quantity but play an important role
in the growth and differentiation of various parts of plants. IAA and IBA are naturally occurring
auxins. They promote cell elongation, fruit development, root initiation from cuttings and are
responsible for apical dominance and phototropism.
1. Application of ________ can delay abscission of fruits and leaves at early stages
(a) gibberellic acid
(b) ethylene
(c) auxin
(d) cytokinin
2. Flowering can be induced in pineapple by application of

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(a) Abscisic acid
(b) NAA, 2,4-D
(c) Phenylacetic acid
(d) Cytokinin
3. Find the incorrect match
(a) Abscisic acid - Stomatal closure
(b) IAA - Cell wall elongation
(c) Cytokinin - Cell division
(d) Gibberellic acid - Leaf abscission
4. Uneven distribution of _______ results in phototropic curvature
(a) phytochrome
(b) auxin
(c) gibberellin
(d) cytokinin
5. The Avena curvature test is an accurate bioassay for
(a) ABA
(b) GA 3

(c) IAA
(d) Ethylene
6. Which one of these is commonly used synthetic auxin?
(a) NAA
(b) IAA
(c) IBA
(d) GA
7. Auxin is transported polarly. Mostly, auxin movement is
(a) acropetal
(b) basipetal
(c) centripetal
(d) both (a) and (c)
8. Removal of apical bud results in

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(a) more axillary buds
(b) flowering ceases
(c) more lateral branches
(d) plant growth ceases
9. Commonly applied hormone in tea plantation is
(a) abscisic acid
(b) ethylene
(c) indole-3-acetic acid
(d) zeatin
10. Which of the following combination of hormones will promote differentiation of shoot
as well as root in tissue culture?
(a) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(b) Auxin and abscisic acid
(c) IAA and gibberellin
(d) Auxin and cytokinin
Answers

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)

6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)

MCQs on Amino Acids

Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. There are 20 amino acids present in proteins.
Amino acids are organic compounds, which can be referred to as substituted methanes. The 𝜶
carbon has an amino group, carboxylic group, hydrogen and variable R group. There are 9
essential amino acids and 11 non-essential amino acids.
1. Which among the following is not polymeric?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Nucleic acids
(c) Proteins
(d) Lipids
2. The simplest amino acid is
(a) Glycine

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(b) Alanine
(c) Asparagine
(d) Tyrosine
3. Amino acids are mostly synthesised from
(a) fatty acids
(b) mineral salts
(c) 𝜶-ketoglutaric acid
(d) volatile acids
4. Amino acids with the aliphatic ‘R’ group are
(a) Glycine, alanine, leucine
(b) Serine, threonine, cysteine
(c) Lysine, arginine, histidine
(d) Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
5. Which of the following amino acids is not necessary to be taken in the diet?
(a) histidine
(b) threonine
(c) serine
(d) lysine
6. An amino acid yielding acetyl CoA during catabolism is
(a) ketogenic
(b) glucogenic
(c) essential
(d) both glucogenic and ketogenic
7. The first amino acid of any polypeptide chain in eukaryotes is
(a) valine
(b) methionine
(c) glycine
(d) alanine
8. Amino acids with aromatic side chain are
(a) tryptophan, asparagine, tyrosine

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(b) tryptophan, threonine, tyrosine
(c) phenylalanine, tryptophan, serine
(d) phenylalanine, tryptophan, tyrosine
9. The naturally occurring proteins consist of
(a) D-amino acids
(b) L-amino acids
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
10. Which of the following amino acids has to be supplemented in the diet?
(a) phenylalanine
(b) cysteine
(c) glutamine
(d) asparagine
Answers

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)

MCQs on Lichens for NEET 2021

Found mostly in the terrestrial part of the world, lichens are in fact two entities operating as a
single entity which is a stable one. They comprise a fungus surviving in a symbiotic relationship
with an algae. Where the fungal partner is the mycobiont and the non-fungal partner is the
phycobiont containing chlorophyll.
1. This is a crustose lichen
(a) Peltigera
(b) Usnea
(c) Rhizocarpon
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
2. Most of the scientists deem the algal-fungal relationship in lichens as helotism. Helotism
is a

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(a) master-master relationship
(b) master-slave relationship
(c) a kind of mutualism
(d) a kind of symbiotic association
Answer: (b)
3. Majorly, lichens are the pollution indicators of
(a) CO
(b) Mercury
(c) NO 2

(d) SO 2

Answer: (d)
4. The symbiotic association of algae and fungi is known as
(a) Mycorrhiza
(b) lichen
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (b)
5. Vegetative reproduction in lichens takes place by
(a) isidia
(b) soredia
(c) fragmentation
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
6. In the studies on the atmospheric pollution, lichens are important as they
(a) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(b) are very sensitive to pollutants
(c) efficiently purify the atmosphere
(d) can also be grown in greatly polluted atmosphere
Answer: (b)
7. This lichen is pioneer in xerosere

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(a) fruticose lichen
(b) foliose lichen
(c) crustose lichen
(d) leprose lichen
Answer: (c)
8. A common phycobiont in lichens are
(a) Cetraria
(b) Microcystis
(c) Trebouxia
(d) Oedogonium
Answer: (c)
9. Reindeer moss is a lichen known as
(a) Usnea
(b) Rocella
(c) Cladonia
(d) Parmelia
Answer: (c)
10. This about lichens is incorrect
(a) Lichens are indicators of pollution
(b) They grow rapidly about 2cm every day
(c) Some species are eaten by reindeers
(d) They have symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Porifera
Commonly referred to as sponges, Poriferans are characterized by the presence of a feeding
system that is distinctive amongst animals. They are the least complicated, simplest form of
animal entities on the planet. These entities have no mouth but have tiny, minuscule pores on
their exterior walls from where water is taken in. Cells in the sponge walls drain out water as
water is being pumped throughout the body and out from the other larger openings. Water flow
in the sponges is unidirectional. There are three body types that sponges have, they are –
leuconoid, asconoid and syconoid.
1. This about sponges is true

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(a) one mouth, innumerable exits
(b) innumerable mouths, one exit
(c) large spacious stomach
(d) spicules are composed of chitin
Answer: (b)
2. _____________ is the name of the dried skeleton of ‘Venus flower basket’
(a) Euplectella
(b) Euspongia
(c) Leucosolenia
(d) Spongila
Answer: (a)
3. Members of phylum Porifera are
(a) Mostly freshwater animals but few are marine entities
(b) Mostly marine animals but few are freshwater entities
(c) Exclusively freshwater animal
(d) Exclusively marine animals
Answer: (b)
4. Animals lacking excretory, respiratory and circulatory structures are
(a) Sponges
(b) Tapeworms
(c) Liver fluke
(d) Threadworms
Answer: (a)
5. These are ‘multicellular grade’ entity
(a) Vertebrates
(b) Sponges
(c) Prokaryotes
(d) Coelenterates
Answer: (b)
6. The group of animals to which Sycon belongs can be best described as

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(a) Multicellular having tissue organization, but not a body cavity
(b) Unicellular or acellular
(c) Multicellular with a gastrovascular cavity
(d) Multicellular without any tissue organization
Answer: (d)
7. Collared, flagellated cells that cover large parts of the inner chambers of sponges,
helping water circulation to continue are
(a) Porocytes
(b) Choanocytes
(c) Amoebocytes
(d) Pinacocytes
Answer: (b)
8. This is a flagellated larva of Leucosolenia
(a) Maggot
(b) Kedia
(c) Planula
(d) Parenchymula
Answer: (d)
9. Poriferan evolution from protozoans is evidenced by animals such as
(a) Paramecium
(b) Euglena
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Proterospongia
Answer: (d)
10. The chamber common to all the types of the canal system of sponges is
(a) Excurrent canal
(b) Radial chamber
(c) Incurrent canal
(d) Paragastric cavity
Answer: (d)

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MCQs on Neurons Nerve Impulse
Electric changes across the neurotic membrane is the reason why nerve impulses are transmitted
from one neuron to another. Polarization of the membrane of an unstimulated neuron takes place,
in simpler words a difference in the electrical charges between the exterior and the interior of the
membranes takes place. Where the interior is negative in charge compared to the exterior. The
initiation of an impulse to the resetting of a neuron in order to prepare the neuron for a second
stimulation can be carried out in these following four steps –

 Action potential.
 Repolarization.
 Hyperpolarization
 Refractory period.
Learn MCQs on neurons nerve impulse here.
1. The Myelin sheath is derived from the
(a) Microglia
(b) Neuroglial cells
(c) Schwann cells
(d) Nerve cells
Answer: (c)
2. Nissl’s granules are found in
(a) Nerve cells
(b) WBC
(c) RBC
(d) Platelets
Answer: (a)
3. Which of these is a disease of the myelin sheath?
(a) Polio
(b) Leprosy
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Alzheimer
Answer: (c)
4. This neurotransmitter is not a biogenic amine
(a) Serotonin

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(b) Dopamine
(c) Norepinephrine
(d) Neuropeptides
Answer: (d)
5. A nerve impulse jumps from one __________ to another during saltatory conduction
(a) Synapse
(b) Axon
(c) Node of Ranvier
(d) Myelin sheath
Answer: (c)
6. ________ are the neurons carrying impulses away from the central nervous system
(a) Efferent nerves
(b) Afferent nerves
(c) Extensors
(d) Sensory nerves
Answer: (a)
7. This amongst the following is found in muscle cells and nerves
(a) membrane potential
(b) potassium equilibrium potential
(c) resting potential
(d) sodium equilibrium potential
Answer: (c)
8. Which of these has the highest permeability in a resting nerve cell?
(a) Cl-
(b) Na+
(c) K+
(d) I-
Answer: (c)
9. For the first time, research on nerve cells was carried out on this organism
(a) Grasshopper

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(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Octopus
(d) Giant squid
Answer: (d)
10. Neurotransmitters can inhibit or excite neurons. _________ for example, is inhibitory
whereas __________ is excitatory
(a) GABA; glutamate
(b) Glutamate; GABA
(c) Serotonin; dopamine
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
 

MCQs on Coelenterata for NEET 2021

Entities of phylum coelenterata are typically found secured to the rocks at the bottom of the sea.
Coelenterates are multicellular entities that can be occurring in solitude or in colonies and are the
most uncomplicated group of invertebrates. The mouth of such entities is engirdled by short and
thin tentacles. Explore MCQs on coelenterates here.
These aquatic entities have a body structure that is radially symmetric and are diploblastic and
lacks coelom. Their body has a hypostome – a single opening, which is bordered by sensory
tentacles supplied with colloblasts or nematocysts in order to trap planktonic prey. The tentacles
are girdled by the gastrovascular cavity or the coelenteron which is a spacious cavity. Digestion
in coelenterates is both through extracellular and intracellular means while simple diffusion is
the means by which excretion and respiration is carried out.
1. Pick the most suitable terminology to designate life cycle of Obelia
(a) Metamorphosis
(b) Neoteny
(c) Metagenesis
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
2. This group is commonly known as ‘sea stick’
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Arthropoda

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(d) Echinodermata
Answer: (b)
3. This does not belong to Phylum Coelenterata
(a) Sea cucumber
(b) Sea feather
(c) Sea pen
(d) Sea fan
Answer: (a)
4. A coelenterate that is commonly referred to as ‘fresh water polyp’ is
(a) Obelia
(b) Physalia
(c) Hydra
(d) Aurelia
Answer: (c)
5. This is a special character of coelenterata occurring only in them
(a) Flame cells
(b) Hermaphroditism
(c) Nematocysts
(d) Polymorphism
Answer: (c)
6. The characteristic larva in coelenterates is
(a) Oncosphere
(b) Rhabditiform
(c) Planula
(d) Cysticercus
Answer: (c)
7. Oxygen in coelenterates is supplied to different tissues by
(a) Plasma
(b) Diffuses through integuments
(c) Blood pigment

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(d) Tracheal tubes
Answer: (b)
8. The class of coelenterata in which the medusa and polyp both are found in one animal is
(a) Anthozoa
(b) Hydrozoa
(c) Scyphozoa
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
9. This phylum shows the presence of nerve cells and absence of nerves
(a) Coelenterata
(b) Porifera
(c) Nemathelminthes
(d) Platyhelminthes
Answer: (a)
10. This is a characteristic feature of coelenterata
(a) Polyp
(b) Gastrovascular cavity
(c) All are marine
(d) Presence of tentacles around mouth
Answer: (b)
 

MCQs on Famine for NEET

An extensive scarcity of food is known as famine which is brought about by various factors that
include inflation, crop failure, war scenarios, imbalance in the population or any of the
government schemes. The process of famines is usually followed or accompanied by episodes of
starvation, malnutrition, epidemics and increase in the rate of mortality. In world history, every
colonized continent of the world has gone through the adversity of famine.
1. The condition wherein there is no enough food in a region to feed people is known as
______.
(a) Drought
(b) Famine
(c) Monsoon

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(d) Thunderstorm
Answer: (b)
2. Which of the following are the result of the droughts, flooding, increased population and
unequal distribution of food?
(a) Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(c) Famine
(d) Dengue fever
Answer: (c)
3. Which of the following is linked with the self-starvation in preventing type anorexia
nervosa/binge-eating?
(a) Eating only certain food types
(b) Not being bothered about weight gain
(c) Not eating to help control weight gain
(d) Regularly engaging in purging activities to help control weight gain
Answer: (d)
4. What happens when a person goes hungry for a long period of time?
(a) They may be more prone to disease
(b) They may be stunted in height
(c) Affects brain functioning
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
5. How many children in the middle and low-income areas can be affected by Vitamin A
deficiency?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/8
Answer: (b)
6. WFP stands for _______.
(a) World Food Program

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(b) Wild Fire Protection
(c) Wild Fauna Protection
(d) Wild Food Program
Answer: (a)
7. Individuals with bulimia have a perceived lack of control over their eating pattern and
are often reported to _________.
(a) Low self-esteem
(b) High levels of self-disgust
(c) High levels of depression
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
8. The lesions to which part of the brain in animal research have been shown to cause
appetite loss leading to self-starvation syndrome
(a) Amygdala
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Basal ganglia
(d) lateral hypothalamus
Answer: (d)
9. The Body Mass Index(BMI) measure depicts that one can be considered as overweight
with a BMI of:
(a) 45-59.9
(b) 25-29.9
(c) 20.9-30.9
(d) 55-69.9
Answer: (b)
10. In the event of starvation, after consumption of glycogen and fats, the next nutrient that
is to be consumed is
(a) starch
(b) cellulose
(c) proteins
(d) adenosine triphosphate
Answer: (c)

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MCQs on Epiphytes
Epiphytes are entities dwelling on the surface of other plants such as branches, tree trunks etc for
space and shelter only. This is why they are also referred to as space parasites. The epiphytic
roots comprise a covering of dead tissue, spongy in nature known as the velamen. With the help
of this, they are able to absorb water from dew, moist atmosphere and also rain. In a few other
instances, they are also referred to as “air plants” as they are not anchored to the soil.
1. The presence of epiphytic roots is the characteristic feature of_________.
(a) Cuscuta, in which haustoria is present
(b) Pinus, in which mycorrhizal association is present
(c) Orchids, in which velamen tissue is present
(d) Jussiaea, in which floating roots are present
Answer: (c)
2. Velamen is a special layer of absorptive tissue, consisting of 4 or 5 layers of long
polygonal cells, which are formed by the _________.
(a) Stem
(b) Absorbing roots
(c) Hanging roots
(d) Clinging roots
Answer: (c)
3. A plant with epidermis specialised to absorb moisture from the air is______.
(a) Rhizophora
(b) Jussiaea
(c) Vanda
(d) Avicennia
Answer: (c)
4. What is the outer covering of the epiphytic root called?
(a) Velamen
(b) Rhizophore
(c) Semaphore
(d) Pneumatophore
Answer: (a)
5. A root cap is not found in the root of

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(a) Stilt root of Pandanus
(b) Seminal roots
(c) Hanging prop root of Banyan
(d) Epiphytic roots
Answer: (d)
6. This is a function of velamen
(a) transpiration
(b) exchange of gases
(c) absorption of moisture from air
(d) absorption of water from soil
Answer: (c)
7. Epiphyllous roots in Begonia and Bryophyllum are
(a) Modified leaves
(b) Green roots
(c) Roots arising from leaves
(d) Roots bearing stem
Answer: (c)
8. Aerial absorptive roots occur in
(a) Mesophytes
(b) Epiphytes
(c) Xerophytes
(d) Hydrophytes
Answer: (b)
9. This root modification does not store food
(a) Napiform
(b) Tuberous
(c) Stilt
(d) Conical
Answer: (c)
10. Identify the correct statement

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(a) Velamen roots attach to the soil
(b) In Cuscuta, velamen roots are present
(c) Velamen roots are tap roots
(d) Velamen roots are living
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Lac Operon

Found in some enteric bacteria and E.coli, Lac operon is an operon necessary for transfer and
metabolism of lactose. The lac operon of E.coli comprises genes involved in the metabolism of
lactose, which gets expressed only in the presence of lactose and absence of glucose.

NEET MCQ lac-operon PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. Lac operon is an example of

(a) only positive regulation
(b) only negative regulation
(c) both positive and negative regulation
(d) sometimes positive sometimes negative
Answer: (c)
2. In the presence of lactose, how long does it take for the lac operon to be expressed?
(a) when lactose equals glucose concentration
(b) when glucose is more than lactose concentration
(c) as long as lactose is more than glucose concentration
(d) as long as lactose is more than galactose concentration
Answer: (c)
3. Which of these acts as an inducer of the lac operon?
(a) Allolactose
(b) Lactose
(c) Galactose
(d) Glucose
Answer: (a)
4. The sequence of the structural genes in the lac operon is
(a) lacA-lacZ-lacY

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(b) lacZ-lacY-lacA
(c) lacZ-lacA-lacY
(d) lacA-lacY-lacZ
Answer: (b)
5. Regulation of the lac operon can be envisioned as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its
(a) lactose
(b) substrate
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
6. Lac Operon will be turned on when
(a) Lactose is less than glucose
(b) Lactose is less in the medium
(c) Lactose is more than glucose
(d) Glucose is enough in the medium
Answer: (c)
7. In a cell as per the Operon Concept, the regulator gene governs the chemical reactions
by 
(a) Inhibiting the substrate in the reaction
(b) Inhibiting migration of mRNA into cytoplasm
(c) mRNA transcription inhibited
(d) Enzyme-reaction inactivation
Answer: (d)
8. In Lac-operon, the gene product of LacA gene is
(a) Beta-galactoside permease
(b) Beta-galactoside transacetylase
(c) Beta-galactosidase
(d) Beta-galactoside isomerase
Answer: (b)
9. This condition in lac operon facilitates the condition of lac genes being transcribed at
high levels

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(a) low glucose, high lactose
(b) low glucose, low lactose
(c) high glucose, high lactose
(d) high glucose, low lactose
Answer: (a)
10. The correct option regarding the lac operon in E.coli from the following is
(a) Lac operon is switched on in the absence of lactose
(b) Lac repressor binds to the lac promoter
(c) β-galactosidase is the only enzyme produced in large quantities when lac operon is turned on
(d) lac operon messenger RNA is a polycistronic mRNA
Answer: (d)
 

MCQs on Ketogenesis
Ketogenesis is the process of catabolism of fatty acid and ketogenic amino acids. Energy is
released in the process and ketone bodies are also produced. Excess ketone bodies may lead to
ketoacidosis. Ketogenesis is the preferred mode to derive energy, when there is less amount of
carbohydrate in the diet, e.g. during starvation or fasting.
1. Brain derives energy from ketogenesis, if glucose is
(a) less
(b) high
(c) constant
(d) zero
2. Which of the following amino acids are exclusively ketogenic?
(a) Asparagine
(b) Threonine
(c) Proline
(d) Leucine
3. Activated fatty acid is transported to mitochondria from cytosol by
(a) Creatinine
(b) Carnitine
(c) Creatine

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(d) Clathrin
4. Ketone bodies are formed from
(a) Acetone
(b) Acetyl CoA
(c) Acetoacetate
(d) HCl
5. When the rate of synthesis of ketone bodies is more than its utilization, it leads to
(a) colour blindness
(b) diabetes
(c) anaemia
(d) ketonemia
6. Urine of a person contains abnormal quantities of ________ during prolonged fasting
(a) amino acids
(b) ketones
(c) glucose
(d) fats
7. Ketogenesis occurs primarily in ______ of liver cells
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytosol
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Golgi apparatus
8. Organs that can utilise energy formed in ketogenesis are
(a) Brain
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Heart
(d) All of the above
9. Which of the following are ketone bodies
(a) acetoacetate
(b) acetone
(c) ꞵ-hydroxy butyrate

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(d) all of the above
10. Which of the following produce acetyl CoA directly
(a) Lysine
(b) Phenylalanine
(c) Isoleucine
(d) Alanine
Answer

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)

MCQs on Volvox
Volvox are green algae. They form colonies of many cells. The plant body is a hollow sphere
known as coenobium. They are autotrophic and have chloroplasts. Volvox reproduce asexually
by reproductive cells known as gonidia. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and the dominant
phase of life is haploid. Some species of Volvox can multiply rapidly to cause harmful algal
bloom.
1. Coenobium refers to
(a) a group of filaments
(b) Palmelloid form
(c) A hollow spherical colony
(d) None of these
2. Algae with motile colony is
(a) Nostoc
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Volvox
3. In Chlorophyta, structure for protein and starch reserve is
(a) Pyrenoid
(b) Eye spot
(c) Volutin

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(d) Paramylum
4. Volvox and Chlamydomonas are similar because they
(a) belong to Chlorophyta
(b) both are motile
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
5. Volvox belongs to which of the following classes of algae?
(a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Chrysophyceae
6. The chloroplast present in Volvox is
(a) cup-shaped
(b) ribbon-shaped
(c) girdle-shaped
(d) star-shaped
7. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
(a) Isogamous
(b) Anisogamous
(c) Oogamous
(d) None of the above
8. Find the incorrect match
(a) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like thallus
(b) Volvox – Colonial, non flagellated
(c) Chlorella – Unicellular, non flagellated
(d) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular flagellated
9. The chlorophyll pigment present in Volvox are
(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll e

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(d) both (a) and (b)
10. Find the incorrect statement about Volvox
(a) Sexual reproduction is oogamous
(b) true coelom and no metamerism
(c) somatic cells are non flagellated
(d) phototaxis movement is present
Answer

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)

6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

MCQs on Dinoflagellates
Dinoflagellates are unicellular eukaryotic organisms having two flagella. They have
characteristics of both plants and animals. They are autotroph or heterotroph. They are also
found as endosymbiont in red algae. The colour varies depending on the pigments present in
them. They are bioluminescent and cause red tide.
1. Dinoflagellates belong to
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Animalia
2. In which of the following organisms, the cell wall is made up of two overlapping shells?
(a) Chrysophytes
(b) Euglenoids
(c) Slime moulds
(d) Dinoflagellates
3. Most of the Dinoflagellates are
(a) Multicellular
(b) Unicellular
(c) Zooflagellates

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(d) both (a) and (b)
4. Dinoflagellates are
(a) biflagellate
(b) uniflagellate
(c) they have many flagella
(d) non flagellate
5. Food reserve in Dinoflagellates is
(a) Alginic acid
(b) Fucoxanthin
(c) Starch
(d) Mannitol
6. Which of the following pigments are not present in Dinoflagellates?
(a) Fucoxanthin
(b) Chlorophyll a
(c) Chlorophyll b
(d) Chlorophyll c
7. Which of the following protozoans show bioluminescence?
(a) Opaline
(b) Noctiluca
(c) Paramecium
(d) Entamoeba
8. Marine phytoplankton is mostly represented by
(a) Brown algae
(b) Green algae
(c) Seaweeds
(d) Diatoms and Dinoflagellates
9. The function of pusule in Dinoflagellate is
(a) Osmoregulation
(b) Food production
(c) Food storage

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(d) Movement
10. Dinoflagellates are
(a) Photosynthetic
(b) Holophytic
(c) Autotrophic
(d) All of these
Answer

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)

 

MCQs on Kranz Anatomy

Kranz anatomy refers to the special structure of leaves present in the plants, which undergo
carbon fixation by the C  pathway. There are two different types of photosynthetic cells, which
4

are ring-shaped, found surrounding the vascular tissues and are present within the leaves. Bundle
sheath cells have large chloroplasts and surround vascular tissues. Mesophyll cells surround
bundle sheath cells and have a few small chloroplasts. Calvin cycle occurs in the bundle sheath
cells.
1. Who discovered the C4 pathway?
(a) Melvin Kelvin
(b) Hatch and Slack
(c) Rudolph Markus
(d) Robert Brown
2. Which of the following is a C4 plant?
(a) Wheat
(b) Cactus
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
3. C4 pathway takes place in
(a) Xylem
(b) Bundle sheath cells
(c) Phloem
(d) Mesophyll cells

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4. Which of the following pathways of carbon fixation has phosphoenol pyruvate as a primary
CO2 acceptor?
(a) C3 plant
(b) C4 plants
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) C2 plants
5. Which of the following is true about bundle sheath cells present in the leaves having Kranz
anatomy?
(a) they have thin walls with many intercellular spaces and chloroplasts are absent
(b) they have thin walls with no intercellular spaces and many chloroplasts
(c) they have thick walls with many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
(d) they have thick walls with no intercellular spaces and many chloroplasts
6. C4 pathway is a more efficient photosynthetic pathway than C3, because of
(a) lower photorespiration rate
(b) cells contain more chloroplasts in leaves
(c) larger leaf area
(d) spore formation
7. In leaves with Kranz anatomy, formation of malic acid during CO2 fixation occurs in
(a) epidermis
(b) phloem
(c) mesophyll
(d) bundle sheath
8. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in
(a) chloroplasts present in the grana of bundle sheath
(b) chloroplasts present in the grana of mesophyll
(c) chloroplasts present in the stroma of mesophyll
(d) chloroplasts present in the stroma of bundle sheath
9. The difference between C3 and C4 pathway is
(a) photorespiration
(b) Calvin cycle
(c) respiration
(d) glycolysis
10. The final product of C4 pathway is
(a) Malate

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(b) Oxalate
(c) Acetate
(d) Aspartate
Answer

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d)

6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)

MCQs on Protozoa
Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotic organisms. They are heterotrophic. They may be free-living
or parasitic. A single cell performs all the metabolic and reproductive functions. Many
protozoans live as an endoparasite in humans and and cause various diseases.
1. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped in
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Archaea
(d) Fungi
2. Which of the following organisms will vanish if all the ponds and puddles are destroyed?
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania
(d) Ascaris
3. In Amoeba  and Paramecium, the cell organelle for osmoregulation is
(a) nucleus
(b) body surface
(c) contractile vacuole
(d) pseudopodia
4. Which class does the malarial parasite belong to?
(a) dinophyceae
(b) sarcodina
(c) ciliata
(d) sporozoa

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5. Protozoa are classified on the basis of
(a) locomotory organelle
(b) shape
(c) number of nuclei
(d) size
6. Organ of defense in protozoans is
(a) statocysts
(b) trichocysts
(c) otocysts
(d) nematocysts
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of prtozoans
(a) binary fission
(b) contractile vacuole
(c) cell membrane as an outer body covering
(d) pseudopodia
8. Which of the following class of protozoa does not generally contain contractile vacuole?
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Rhizopoda
(c) Flagellata
(d) Cilliata
9. Trypanosoma  belongs to which of the following group?
(a) mastigophora
(b) sarcodina
(c) sporozoa
(d) ciliata
10. Which of the following protozoan causes African sleeping sickness
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) Trypanosoma lewsii
(d) Trypanosoma gambiense

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Answer

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)

MCQs on Reptilia
Reptiles are characterized by the presence of epidermal scales and cornified skin. They do not
have an external ear. They are mostly terrestrial and creep or crawl. They are poikilothermic and
oviparous animals.
1. Find the correct statement about class Reptilia
(a) dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales and absence of external ears
(b) marine habitat, endoskeleton is cartilaginous and have placoid scales
(c) fresh-water habitat, bony endoskeleton and air-bladder for buoyancy
(d) moist skin and body is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by the tympanum
2. Reptilian ancestry of birds can be indicated by
(a) Eggs with the calcareous shell
(b) four-chambered heart
(c) scales on their hindlimb
(d) presence of crop and gizzard
3. Find the correctly matched pairs
(i) Sea Urchin – parapodia
(ii) Obelia – Metagenesis
(iii) Crocodile – four-chambered heart
(iv) Lemur – thecodont
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) only (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (i) and (iv)
4. Uricotelism is found in
(a) frogs and toads.
(b) birds, land reptiles and insects

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(c) mammals and birds
(d) fish and freshwater protozoans
5. Aquatic reptiles are
(a) ammonotelic
(b) ureotelic
(c) ureotelic over land
(d) ureotelic in water
6. Animals that get most affected by the change in the environmental temperature are
(a) aquatic
(b) homeothermic
(c) poikilothermic
(d) desert living
7. Bones of the reptiles are covered by
(a) Keratin
(b) Chitin
(c) Calcium
(d) none of the above
8. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Dinosaurs
(b) Snakes
(c) Tuatara
(d) Lizards
9. The respiratory organ in reptiles is
(a) gills
(b) epidermis
(c) skin
(d) lungs
10. Find the correctly matched pair without any exceptions
(a) Chondrichthyes- cartilaginous endoskeleton
(b) Reptilia- 3 chambered heart with undivided ventricle

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(c) Mammalia- viviparous
(d) Chordata- have mouth with a lower and upper jaw
Answer

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)

6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)

MCQs on Ascomycetes
Ascomycetes are a group of fungi characterised by the presence of ascus. They belong to the
subkingdom Dikarya. Each ascus contains 4-8 ascospores. Examples include
yeast, Penicillium, Aspergillus,  morels truffles, etc.
1. Which of the following is incorrect for ascomycetes
(a) they are unicellular as well as multicellular
(b) they are parasitic, saprophytic or coprophilous
(c) Neurospora, Claviceps and yeast belong to Ascomycota
(d) coenocytic mycelium
Answer: (d)
2. Dikaryophase and septate mycelium are characteristic features of which of the following
class?
(a) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(b) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
3. Which of the fungi produces toxins in crop plants?
(a) Colleotrichum
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Penicillium
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (d)
4. Which one of the following is incorrect
(a) Neurospora is widely used in genetic studies
(b) Yeast reproduces by budding

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(c) Penicillium species are used in cheese production
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
5. Ergot is caused by
(a) Penicillium
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Claviceps
(d) Aspergillus
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the organism produces aflatoxin?
(a) fungi
(b) virus
(c) nematodes
(d) bacteria
Answer: (a)
7. Aspergillus has _______ hyphae
(a) aseptate and uninucleate
(b) aseptate and multinucleate
(c) septate and uninucleate
(d) septate and multinucleate
Answer: (d)
8. Dikaryon phase has
(a) diploid nucleus
(b) two similar nuclei
(c) two dissimilar haploid nuclei
(d) two haploid nuclei
Answer: (c)
9. Claviceps produces
(a) LSD
(b) marijuana

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(c) ganja
(d) charas
Answer: (a)
10. Mycorrhiza shows
(a) endemism
(b) antagonism
(c) parasitism
(d) symbiosis
Answer: (d)
 

MCQs on Slime Moulds

Slime Moulds are unicellular saprophyte. They are often present as an aggregate called
plasmodium, which is a multinucleated stage. They have characteristics of both fungi and
animal. They are kept in the kingdom Protista.
1. Slime moulds were included in which of the following kingdom?
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Plantae
Answer:(b)
2. Which of the following characteristic structure is found in slime mould?
(a) Pseudoelaters
(b) Elaters
(c) Capitulum
(d) Capillitium
Answer:(d)
3. Where does the spore formation occur in cellular slime mould?
(a) Plasmodium
(b) Sporangium
(c) Sporophore
(d) Pseudoplasmodium

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Answer:(b)
4. Spores of slime moulds develop into
(a) Amoeboid cells
(b) Biflagellated cells
(c) Swarm cells
(d) All of the above
Answer:(d)
5. Which is the example of slime mould?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Physarum
(d) Thiobacillus
Answer:(c)
6. Slime moulds, algae, protozoa are related in having
(a) Eukaryotic cell
(b) Prokaryotic cell
(c) Flagella
(d) Pseudopodia
Answer:(a)
7. A characteristic feature of a “true slime mould” is
(a) Occurs as an independent cell
(b) A multinucleate plasmodial stage
(c) Secretes mucoidal exudate
(d) None of the above
Answer:(b)
8. Slug formation is induced by
(a) Over crowding
(b) Plentiful resources
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Unfavourable conditions

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Answer:(d)
9. Slime mould differ from fungi in having
(a) Phagocytosis mode of nutrition
(b) Amoeboid cells
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:(c)
10. Sporangia of slime mould contain
(a) Haploid spores
(b) Diploid zygotes
(c) Gametes
(d) None of the above
Answer:(a)

MCQs on Paramecium
Paramecia are unicellular ciliated protozoa. They are heterotrophic and holozoic. They contain
two types of nuclei. Paramecium reproduce by conjugation.
Also Check:

 NEET Biology Syllabus

 NEET Biology Important Topics
 NEET Biology MCQs
 How to Score 340 in NEET Biology 2021
1. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped in
(a) Protista
(b) Monera
(c) Fungi
(d) Archaea
2. In Paramecium, osmoregulation occurs through
(a) body surface
(b) pseudopodia
(c) nucleus

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(d) contractile vacuole
3. In Paramecium, genetic information is stored in
(a) all the nuclei present
(b) mitochondria
(c) micronucleus
(d) macronucleus
4. Phylum Protozoa is classified based on
(a) size
(b) shape
(c) number of nuclei
(d) locomotory organ
5. Conjugation as a mode of reproduction is present in
(a) ciliata
(b) flagellata
(c) sarcodina
(d) sporozoa
6. In Paramecium, food is ingested through
(a) cytoproct
(b) cytopyge
(c) cytosome
(d) cytopharynx
7. Trichocyst of Paramecium is required for
(a) osmoregulation
(b) nutrition
(c) reproduction
(d) defence
8. Paramecium are
(a) holophytic
(b) holozoic
(c) parasitic

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(d) saprobiotic
9. In Paramecium, metabolic activities and growth is regulated by
(a) macronucleus
(b) micronucleus
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) contractile vacuole
10. In Paramecium, both autogamy and conjugation are called sexual reproduction because
of
(a) rejuvenation
(b) gene combination
(c) the fusion of haploid gametes
(d) involvement of two individuals
Answer

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a)

6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)

MCQs on Endosperm
The endosperm is present in the seed of most of the angiosperms. It stores food and provides
nourishment to the growing embryo. The endosperm is formed as a result of the triple fusion
between the second male gamete and the secondary nucleus. Based on the development pattern,
endosperms are of three types; cellular, nuclear and helobial.
1. The primary endosperm nucleus is
(a) tetraploid
(b) triploid
(c) diploid
(d) haploid
2. The white edible part of maize is
(a) pericarp
(b) seed coat
(c) endosperm
(d) seed
3. The polar nuclei and male gamete fuse to form

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(a) secondary nucleus
(b) zygote
(c) triple fusion
(d) PEN
4. The outermost proteinaceous layer of maize endosperm is called
(a) pericarp
(b) epidermis
(c) aleurone
(d) tunica
5. Glyoxysomes are present in
(a) root hairs
(b) palisade cells of leaf
(c) endosperm of wheat
(d) endosperm of castor
6. The sunflower embryo has
(a) 3 cotyledons
(b) 2 cotyledons
(c) single cotyledon
(d) cotyledon is absent
7. If the endosperm cell of a dicot plant contains 30 chromosomes, find the number of
chromosomes present in the root cells of the plant
(a) 40
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
8. Which one of the following dicot plant lacks cotyledon
(a) Ranunculus
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Pistia
(d) Dianthus
9. Which of the tissue culture will form a triploid plant

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(a) endosperm
(b) pollen
(c) megaspore
(d) ovule
10. In the angiosperms, the endosperm is formed
(a) before fertilization
(b) after fertilization
(c) along with fertilization
(d) None of the above
Answer

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

 

MCQs on Epithelial Tissue

Epithelial tissues are present as the outer covering of the skin and epithelium also lines the body
cavities such as respiratory tract, digestive tract, etc. They perform various functions such as
absorption, protection and secretion. There are mainly three types of epithelial cells: squamous,
cuboidal and columnar.
1. Find the correct match
(a) The moist surface of the buccal cavity has glandular epithelium
(b) The tubular parts of nephrons have cuboidal epithelium
(c) The inner surface of bronchioles have squamous epithelium
(d) The inner lining of salivary ducts have ciliated epithelium
2. The ciliated columnar epithelium is present in
(a) bronchioles and Fallopian tube
(b) bile duct and oesophagus
(c) Fallopian tube and urethra
(d) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
3. Which types of cells line blood vessels?
(a) columnar epithelium

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(b) smooth muscle tissue
(c) connective tissue
(d) squamous epithelium
4. Gap, tight and adhering junctions are found in
(a) epithelial tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) muscular tissue
(d) neural tissue
5. Which types of epithelial cells form Stratum germinativum?
(a) cuboidal
(b) ciliated
(c) columnar
(d) squamous
6. An epithelial tissue having thin flat and closely packed cells that are arranged edge to
edge are found in
(a) the inner lining of cheeks
(b) the inner lining of the stomach
(c) the inner lining of the fallopian tube
(d) the outer surface of the ovary
7. Which of the following layer has actively dividing cells?
(a) stratum lucidum
(b) stratum corneum
(c) stratum compactum
(d) stratum malpighi
8. Tissue having very less or no intercellular matrix is
(a) epithelial
(b) connective
(c) cardiac
(d) muscular
9. The inner lining of the vagina, urethra and oesophagus is made up of
(a) Columnar epithelium

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(b) Stratified squamous epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium
(d) Ciliated epithelium
10. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in
(a) Thin bronchioles
(b) Choroid of eye
(c) Sweat gland
(d) All of the above
Answer

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)

MCQs on Krebs Cycle

Krebs cycle is an eight-step process occurring in the mitochondrial matrix. Acetyl CoA, derived
from carbohydrates, proteins and fats is completely oxidised to release carbon dioxide. The
energy released is stored in the form of ATP.
1. Product of Krebs cycle essential for oxidative phosphorylation is _______
(a) NADPH and ATP
(b) Acetyl CoA
(c) CO  and oxaloacetate
2

(d) NADH and FADH 2

Answer: (d)
2. A single molecule of glucose generates _________ molecules of acetyl CoA, which enters
the Krebs cycle.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: (c)
3. ___________ accepts hydrogen from malate
(a) FAD

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(b) NAD
(c) NADP
(d) FMN
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the intermediate of the Kreb’s cycle is utilised in the formation of amino acids?
(a) Citric acid
(b) Malic acid
(c) Isocitric acid
(d) 𝛼-ketoglutaric acid
Answer: (d)
5. Krebs cycle occurs in aerobic respiration due to
(a) Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to operate
(b) Oxygen is a reactant
(c) Oxygen has a catalytic function
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
6. Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate by__________ reaction
(a) Dehydration
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidative decarboxylation
(d) Dephosphorylation
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
(a) Lactate
(b) Isocitrate
(c) Succinate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
8. The entry of pyruvate into the TCA cycle is inhibited by the presence of a high cellular
concentration of
(a) Pyruvate

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(b) NADH
(c) Coenzyme A
(d) AMP
Answer: (b)
9. ATP synthesis is powered by
(a) Coenzyme motive force
(b) cAMP
(c) proton gradient
(d) GTP hydrolysis
Answer: (c)
10. FAD is reduced in which of the reaction of the Kreb’s cycle?
(a) Isocitrate to oxaloacetate
(b) Succinyl CoA to Succinate
(c) Fumarate to malate
(d) Succinate to fumarate
Answer: (d)

Earthworm Digestive System Questions With Answers

Belonging to the Phylum Annelida, Earthworms are invertebrates. These annelids are usually
found inhabiting soil, making it fertile, which is of great economic importance. They have a
segmented, long cylindrical body and are hermaphrodites. Earthworms feed on dead organic
matter. Explore important MCQs on Earthworm here.
Also Check:

 NEET Biology Syllabus

 NEET Biology Important Topics
 NEET Biology MCQs
 How to Score 340 in NEET Biology 2020
1. The earthworm is placed under the group
(a) Polychaeta
(b) Hirudinea
(c) Oligochaeta
(d) Crustacea

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Answer: (c)
2. The parasite found in the seminal vesicle of earthworms are
(a) Nosema
(b) Sarcocystis
(c) Monocystis
(d) Nyctotherus
Answer: (c)
3. The typhlosole in earthworm is related to
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) absorption
(d) reproduction
Answer: (c)
4. Colour of the body in earthworms is due to the presence of
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Blood
(c) Porphyrin
(d) Haemocyanin
Answer: (c)
5. Region of earthworm that is a forest of nephridia is
(a) Pharyngeal region
(b) Clitellar region
(c) Typhlosolar region
(d) Intestinal region
Answer: (b)
6. Chloragogen cells are found in
(a) Blood of earthworm
(b) The coelomic fluid of the earthworm
(c) Blood of cockroach
(d) The body wall of leucosolenia

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Answer: (b)
7. This animal does not show any metamorphosis of larval stage
(a) Asteria
(b) Musca domestica
(c) Pheretima Posthuma
(d) Butterfly
Answer: (c)
8. The most effective organ for food digestion in earthworm is
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Stomach
Answer: (c)
9. The typhlosole found in Pheretima occurs in
(a) Stomach
(b) Intestine
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Gizzard
Answer: (b)
10. In earthworm, the mouth is located on
(a) Stomium
(b) Peristomium
(c) Prostomium
(d) Protostomium
Answer: (b)

Neural Communication Questions With Answers

Animals are known to receive hundreds of stimuli at the same time. Their survival is dependant
on identifying and thereby responding appropriately to the stimuli received. In almost all the
animals, the process of neural communication takes place in four phases. In any case( both
external or internal), information must be received, transmitted to the CNS, integrated and
transmitted to the corresponding glands or muscles to bring about corresponding action, which is
the actual response.

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MCQs On Neural Communication 
1. The mode of communication between the neurons by sending electrical impulses known as
_______.
(a) Membrane potentials
(b) Neuromodulators
(c) Neurotransmitters
(d) Action potentials
Answer: (d)
2. If the cell stimulation is strong, then the strength of the action potential produced would be
______.
(a) Weaker than the produced by weak stimulation
(b) Stronger than the produced by weak stimulation
(c) Double then the produced by the weak stimulation
(d) No different to the produced by weak stimulation
Answer: (d)
3. Dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline are collectively called _______.
(a) Amines
(b) Hallucinogens
(c) Anxiolytics
(d) Neurotransmitters
Answer: (a)
4. The excess amount of produced neurotransmitters by presynaptic neurons is __________.
(a) Taken up by postsynaptic neurons
(b) Recycled back into the presynaptic neuron
(c) Removed and taken around the rest of the body
(d)  Eliminated by substances contained within the cell body
Answer: (b)
5. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter enabling communication between muscles and nerves. In
case of an interruption in the interaction between acetylcholine and acetylcholine receptor sites
on the muscles, this condition can occur in _______.
(a) Botulism

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(b) Myasthenia gravis
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following disorder causes dopamine neurons to die?
(a) Seizure disorder
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c)Parkinson’s disease
(d) Lou Gehrig’s disease
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that induces neurons in the brain to drain away
and die?
(a) Poliomyelitis
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Huntington’s disease
Answer: (d)
8. Which of the following is called the common neurotransmitter?
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Dopamine
(c) Serotonin
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
9. The cavity of the diencephalon is known as _______.
(a) First ventricle
(b) Third ventricle
(c) Second ventricle
(d)  Fourth ventricle
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is the cause for transmission of nerve impulse through nerve fibre in
a single direction?

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(a) Neurotransmitters released by dendrites.
(b) Neurotransmitters released by axon endings.
(c) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b)

Artificial Hybridization Questions With Answers

The process by which desired pollen grains are utilized for pollination and fertilization is referred
to as artificial hybridization. It is a technique adopted with a view of crop improvement where
the foremost criteria is to make sure that the desired pollen grains are used for pollination and
stigma is protected from contamination which is typically carried out by emasculation and
bagging techniques.
1. This is the correct sequence for artificial experiment in bisexual flowers
(a) Self-pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging
(b) Cross pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging
(c) Emasculation -> Bagging -> Cross pollination -> Rebagging
(d) Bagging -> Emasculation -> Cross pollination -> Rebagging
Answer: (c)
2. Both geitonogamy and autogamy are prevented in
(a) Cucumber
(b) Papaya
(c) Mazia
(d) Castor
Answer: (b)
3. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the
(a) the cytoplasm of antipodal cells
(b) one male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids and other in cytoplasm of central cell
(c) both in cytoplasm of central cell
(d) both in cytoplasm of synergids
Answer: (d)
4. Who first used artificial hybridization in fruit crops?
(a) Karpocho
(b) Knight
(c) Jones
(d) Mendel

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Answer: (b)
5. This will lose its economic value if fruits are produced through parthenocarpy
(a) Banana
(b) Citrus
(c) Pomegarante
(d) Grape
Answer: (c)
6. After reaching the ovary, pollen tube does not display this of the following events
(a) may enter the ovule through chalaza
(b) enters one of the synergids through filiform apparatus
(c) enters the ovule through the micropyle
(d) chemotactic movement of pollen tube towards synergid
Answer: (d)
7. This statement is incorrect
(a) the seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal or viable seeds
(b) embryo in the dormant seeds show higher rate of general metabolic rate
(c) because fo dormancy seeds remain viable for long durations and can be stored
(d) as the seeds mature, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry
Answer: (b)
8. When dioecious plants are considered for artificial hybridization, this step would not be relevant
(a) collection of pollen
(b) bagging of female flower
(c) dusting of pollen on stigma
(d) emasculation
Answer: (d)
9. Aleurone layer participates in
(a) enzyme synthesis
(b) transfer of food to cotyledons
(c) is also known as scutellum
(d) protection of delicate embryo
Answer: (a)
10. The external conditions required for seed germination are
(a) light, moisture and appropriate temperature

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(b) oxygen, carbon dioxide and appropriate temperature
(c) oxygen, light and appropriate temperature
(d) oxygen, moisture and suitable temperature
Answer: (d)

Stress Hormones Questions With Answers

Stress hormones are the hormones secreted in response to danger, stress or in situations of
emergency. These hormones are responsible to initiate a series of reactions to stress which is
referred to as ‘fight or flight’ responses. In humans, there are three main stress hormones:
cortisol, adrenaline, noradrenaline
1. This hormone is produced under condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in
the liver of human beings
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Estradiol
(d) Adrenaline
Answer: (d)
2. Fight or flight reactions causes the activation of
(a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
(b) adrenal medulla leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
(c) pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels
(d) the kidney, causing suppression of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
Answer: (b)
3. After trying for several years, a couple finally learnt that they are going to have a baby.
They are experiencing this type of stress
(a) Strain
(b) Anxiety
(c) Distress
(d) Eustress
Answer: (d)
4. This part of the autonomic nervous system provides the body with energy for the fight-
or-flight response
(a) Central nervous system
(b) Sympathetic nervous system

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(c) Peripheral nervous system
(d) Parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: (b)
5. A real or perceived challenge or threat which causes the body to produce a response is
a(n)
(a) injury
(b) phobia
(c) stressor
(d) frustration
Answer: (c)
6. The hormone released by the adrenal glands allows the body to make energy more
readily available from the stored nutrients
(a) ACTH
(b) Cortisol
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Norepinephrine
Answer: (b)
7. When danger or stress is perceived/experienced, this response occurs in the body
(a) Exhaustion
(b) Adaption
(c) Fight-or-flight
(d) Resistance
Answer: (c)
8. This branch of science investigates the relationship between stress and the nervous and
immune systems
(a) Neurolinguistics
(b) Sociology
(c) Adaptive immunology
(d) Psychoneuroimmunology
Answer: (d)
9. All of the following is true about the hormone epinephrine except that it

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(a) is released by the pituitary gland
(b) is also known as adrenaline
(c) is secreted by the adrenal gland
(d) prepares the body for action
Answer: (a)
10. The primary hormone responsible for stress-related physiological responses, such as an
increase in heart rate is
(a) insulin
(b) cortisol
(c) epinephrine
(d) thyroxin
Answer: (c)

Species Diversity Questions With Answers

Species diversity is used to refer to the variety of species found in a particular region/area. At the
most basic level, it is the biodiversity. Species diversity includes all the species that range from
plants to various microbes. It is interesting to note that no two individuals of the same species are
exactly the same. For instance, take human beings. They vary immensely in almost every aspect.
1. The following practice has led to the maximum damage to the diversity of Indian forests
(a) Block cutting
(b) Selective harvesting
(c) Jhum cultivation
(d) Taungya cultivation
Answer: (c)
2. Plant species on the verge of extinction as a result of over-exploitation is
(a) Gloriosa
(b) Centella
(c) Podophyllum
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
3. This endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest and the most
expensive wool – the shahtoosh
(a) Cheetal

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(b) Kashmiri goat
(c) Nilgai
(d) Chiru
Answer: (d)
4. This group of vertebrates comprises of the highest number of endangered species
(a) Fishes
(b) Birds
(c) Reptiles
(d) Mammals
Answer: (d)
5. Indri-indri lemur is found in
(a) India
(b) Sri lanka
(c) Madagaskar
(d) Mauritius
Answer: (c)
6. This is not under situ conservation
(a) Botanic Garden
(b) National park
(c) Statuary
(d) Biosphere reserve
Answer: (a)
7. One of the endangered species of the Indian medicinal plants is
(a) Garlic
(b) Ocimum
(c) Nependenthes
(d) Podophyllum
Answer: (d)
8. Siberian crane is a regular visitor of bird sanctuary
(a) Bharatpur (Rajasthan)

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(b) Ranaganathittu (Karnataka)
(c) Lalbagh (Karnataka)
(d) Vedanthangal (T.N)
Answer: (a)
9. Sacred groves are useful in
(a) Preventing soil erosion
(b) generating environmental awareness
(c) conservation rare and threatened species
(d) year-round flow of water in rivers
Answer: (c)
10. Species very near to extinction if conservation measures are promptly not take up are
(a) Rare species
(b) threatened species
(c) endangered species
(d) vulenrable species
Answer: (c)

Kingdom Fungi MCQs for NEET

Fungi are eukaryotic, non-motile and non-vascular entities and are ubiquitous. Though fungi
resemble plants, they are not plants. Instead, they are more closely related to animals. Fungi for a
matter of fact are of huge economic importance showing diversity in habitat and morphology.
Some of these are rusts, puffballs, truffles, morels, moulds, yeasts etc.

NEET MCQ Kingdom Fungi PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. This fungi division includes ‘Club fungi’

(a) Zygomycota
(b) Deuteromycota
(c) Basidiomycota
(d) Ascomycota
Answer: (c)
2. This group is used to represent pathological fungi
(a) Penicillium

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(b) Truffles, mushrooms and morels
(c) Smuts, rusts and moulds
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
3. The fungi which derive their food directly from dead organic matter are known as
(a) Predators
(b) Decomposers
(c) Mutualists
(d) Parasitic fungi
Answer: (b)
4. What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb
nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?
(a) Haustoria
(b) Mildew
(c) Constricting ring
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
5. Which of these entities is an indicator of the SO  pollution of air?
2

(a) Puffballs
(b) Mushrooms
(c) Mosses
(d) Lichens
Answer: (d)
6. The fungal disease – the black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Melampsora lini
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Puccinia graminis tritici
(d) Albugo candida
Answer: (c)
7. What does ‘Perfect stage’ of a fungus indicate?
(a) indicates that it can reproduce asexually

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(b) indicates that it is perfectly healthy
(c) indicates that it is able to form perfect sexual spores
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
8. Death angel/death cap (amanita) and Jack O Lantern mushroom are all examples of
(a) Poisonous mushrooms
(b) Edible mushrooms
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
9. Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by
(a) Sphacelotheca sorghi
(b) Sphacelotheca cruenta
(c) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(d) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii
Answer: (a)
10. Oyster mushroom is an example of predator fungi that attacks
(a) Tapeworms
(b) Pinworms
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Roundworms
Answer: (d)

Biodiversity MCQs for NEET

The term Biodiversity was coined first by E.O Wilson. It can be defined as the variability and
variety of living entities and the ecological complexes in which they exist. It can be used to refer
to the occurrence of many ecosystems, different entities, species, range of variants accustomed to
different climatic conditions, environments, interactions and processes. Hence biodiversity
encompasses genetic diversity and variability of life forms such as plants, animals, microbes, etc.
spread across a range of ecosystems.
1. The most important reason for biodiversity loss in today’s age is
(a) over-exploitation
(b) co-extinctions

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(c) alien species invasions
(d) fragmentation and habitat loss
Answer: (d)
2. Biodiversity loss can lead to everything except this
(a) increased resistance to the environmental perturbance
(b) a decline in plant production
(c) increased variability in water use
(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle
Answer: (a)
3. Which of these is not a reason accounting for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(a) more niche specialization
(b) availability of more solar energy
(c) more time for species diversification
(d) large seasonal variations in environmental factors
Answer: (d)
4. The main difference between the ‘Sixth extinction’ and the previous five extinctions is
that, the sixth extinction
(a) mainly affects plants
(b) mainly occurs on islands
(c) occurs at a faster rate
(d) is exclusive of human activities
Answer: (c)
5. The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
(a) low endemicity and low threat of extinction
(b) low endemicity and high threat of extinction
(c) high endemicity and low threat of extinction
(d) high endemicity and high threat of extinction
Answer: (d)
6. Presence of plants organised into well defined vertical layers based on their heights can
be best observed in
(a) grassland

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(b) tropical savannah
(c) tropical rain forest
(d) temperate forest
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened plants and animals?
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Wildlife safari parks
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Himalayan region
Answer: (b)
8. The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human activity takes
place is known as
(a) transition zone
(b) buffer zone
(c) core zone
(d) restoration zone
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the correct match
(a) Stratification – Population
(b) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
(c) Age Pyramid – Biome
(d) Parthenium hysterophorus – a threat to biodiversity
Answer: (d)
10. The National aquatic animal of India is
(a) Sea horse
(b) River Dolphin
(c) Blue whale
(d) Gangetic shark
Answer: (b)
 

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MCQs on Enzyme for NEET 2021
Enzymes are the biological polymers accelerating a biochemical reaction. Initially, enzymes
react with molecules known as substrates converting it into distinct molecules known as
products. They exist in all fluids and tissues of the body. The intracellular enzymes catalyze
reactions taking place in metabolic pathways.
1. The nature of an enzyme is
(a) Lipid
(b) Vitamin
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Protein
Answer: (d)
2. In alcoholism, this enzyme is elevated
(a) acid phosphatase
(b) hepatitis
(c) serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase
(d) glutamyl transpeptidase
Answer: (d)
3. With regards to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect
(a) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site
(c) the non-competitve inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that binding the
substrate
(d) addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate
Answer: (d)
4. What is the count of genes that determine the synthesis of one enzyme?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Eight
(d) Sixteen
Answer: (a)
5. This enzyme was first isolated and purified in the form of crystals

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(a) Urease
(b) pepsin
(c) Amylase
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (a)
6. Macromolecule chitin is
(a) a simple polysaccharide
(b) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(c) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(d) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
Answer: (d)
7. Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
(a) grouping enzymes into multienzyme free-floating complexes
(b) concentrating enzymes with specific cellular compartments
(c) fixing enzymes into membranes so they are adjacent to each other
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
8. Tryptophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consists of
(a) a protein A and one subunit A
(b) a protein designated A
(c) two proteins designated A and B
(d) a protein designated B
Answer: (c)
9. This statement about enzymes is true
(a) enzymes accelerate reactions by lowering the activation energy
(b) enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function
(c) enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
10. The enzyme COX-1 is vital for human health in this way:

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(a) it is a chemical derivative of aspirin
(b) catalyzes the hormone-production which maintains the stomach lining
(c) critical for the biosynthesis of DNA
(d) helps in the transportation of carbon dioxide in the blood
Answer: (b)

Structure of Eye MCQs for NEET

The eye comprises of three layers, enclosing three transparent structure. The outermost layer
comprises of sclera and cornea. The middle layer or the uvea consists of the choroid, iris and the
ciliary body, the innermost layer consists of the retina. These layers enclose the flexible lens, the
vitreous body and the aqueous humour.
1. The main function of the cornea present in the human eye is
(a) structural support to the eye
(b) bends light before it reaches the lens
(c) changes the shape of the lens enabling image to be focused on the retina
(d) contains a concentrated amount of cone cells on the correct orientation
Answer: (b)
2. The type of cells found in retina are
(a) Purkinje cells
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Neuroglial cells
(d) Amacrine cells
Answer: (d)
3. Where will the image of a distant object be formed when a person using a concave lens to
correct vision, is not using glasses?
(a) behind retina
(b) in front of the retina
(c) on the blindspot
(d) on the yellow spot
Answer: (b)
4. A cornea transplant is never rejected in humans because
(a) it consists of enucleated cells
(b) it is a non-living layer

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(c) it has no blood supply
(d) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
Answer: (c)
5. This is an incorrect statement
(a) rhodopsin is the purplish-red protein situated in rods only
(b) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C
(c) Retinal is the light-absorbing part of visual photopigments
(d) the rods in the retina have rhodopsin, a photopigment while cones have three different
photopigments
Answer: (b)
6. The fovea is the mammalian eye is the centre of the visual field wherein
(a) the optic nerve exits the eye
(b) only rods are found
(c) more rods than cones are found
(d) no rods but a high density of cones occur
Answer: (d)
7. In the human eye, the photosensitive compound is composed of
(a) guanosine and retinol
(b) transducin and retinene
(c) opsin and retinol
(d) opsin and retinal
Answer: (d)
8. The eye lens is
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Biconcave
(d) Biconvex
Answer: (d)
9. The persistence of vision for the human eye is
(a) 1/6th of a second
(b) 1/10th of a second

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(c) 1/16th of a second
(d) 1/18th of a second
Answer: (c)
10. What does the tapetum lucidum do?
(a) it is the coloured part of the eye
(b) gives animals night vision
(c) transparent jelly-like fluid
(d) it is the area where the optic never attaches
Answer: (b)
11. The innermost layer and the most delicate layer of the eyeball where the photoreceptors
are located are
(a) Chloroid
(b) Sclera
(c) Cornea
(d) Retina
Answer: (d)
12. This part of the eye dilates and contracts based on the environment
(a) Sclera
(b) Cornea
(c) Lens
(d) Pupil
Answer: (d)
13. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(a) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(b) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(c) ligaments attached to the iris
(d) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
Answer: (b)
14. The eye of octopus and the eye of cats show different patterns of structure, yet they
perform similar functions. This is an example of
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

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(b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
Answer: (c)
15. Which of these colours is least scattered by dust, fog, smoke?
(a) Yellow
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Violet
Answer: (b)

Ecosystem‌MCQs for NEET

An ecosystem is the functional and structural unit of ecology wherein entities interact with each
other and their surroundings. It can be defined as a community of lifeforms in concurrence with
that of the abiotic or non-living factors and components that interact with each other.
1. In an ecosystem, which one of the following types of entities occupies more than one
trophic level?
(a) Frog
(b) Phytoplankton
(c) Zooplankton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)
2. The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the trophic level of consumers is known
as
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net primary productivity
(c) Secondary productivity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
3. Limitations of ecological pyramids involve all these statements, except
(a) they assume a simple food chain and do not consider food webs
(b) in the ecological pyramids, saprotrophs are not given any place

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(c) they do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(d) they do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels
Answer: (d)
4. This entity will be the first one to colonize a bare rock
(a) Herbs and shrubs
(b) Annual plants
(c) Lichens
(d) Perennial plants
Answer: (c)
5. During ecological succession
(a) types and numbers of animals remain constant
(b) establishment of a new biotic community is fast in its primary phase
(c) predictable and gradual changes in species composition take place in a given area
(d) changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is
referred to as pioneer community
Answer: (c)
6. This ecosystem has the maximum biomass
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Pond ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: (d)
7. These are the primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem
(a) blue-green algae
(b) coral reefs
(c) chemosynthetic bacteria
(d) green algae
Answer: (c)
8. This is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem
(a) Absence of weeds

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(b) Ecological succession
(c) least genetic diversity
(d) absence of soil entities
Answer: (c)
9. At the producer level, if 20J of energy is trapped, then how much energy will be available
to a peacock as food in the subsequent chain?
Plant -> Mice -> Snake -> Peacock
(a) 0.2 J
(b) 0.02 J
(c) 0.002 J
(d) 0.0002 J
Answer: (b)
10. Match from the columns and pick the correct option

Column I Column II

Earthworm Pioneer species

Succession Detritivore

Ecosystem service Natality

Population growth Pollination

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 3 2 4 1

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 (d) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (d)

Seed Germination MCQs for NEET

Germination is a process observed in plants wherein the seed undergoes changes to grow into a
seedling or a young plant. It is the basic process through which various species grow into a plant
from a single seed. The process of seed germination has an impact on the yield of crop and
quality of crops. One such example is of that we observe during sprouting of seedlings from
gymnosperm or angiosperm seeds.
1. A few normal seedlings of tomato were placed in a dark room. After a few days, they
were found to have turned white-coloured like albinos. Which of these can be used to
describe them?
(a) Defoliated
(b) Etiolated
(c) Embolised
(d) Mutated
Answer: (b)
2. Gibberellins can facilitate seed germination due to their influence on
(a) synthesis of abscisic acid
(b) rate of cell division
(c) production of hydrolyzing enzymes
(d) absorption of water through the hard seed coat
Answer: (c)
3. An enzyme which can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is
(a) Invertase
(b) Lipase
(c) Protease
(d) α-amylase
Answer: (d)
4. During the germination of seeds, the seed coat ruptures due to
(a) massive imbibition of water
(b) differentiation of cotyledons

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(c) a sudden increase in cell division
(d) massive glycolysis in cotyledons and endosperm
Answer: (a)
5. The proteinaceous part of maize endosperm is
(a) Peripheral layer
(b) scutellum
(c) Apophysis
(d) Aleurone layer
Answer: (d)
6. One of these gases is required for the germination of pea seeds
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) water vapours
(d) hydrogen
Answer: (b)
7. Seed dormancy allows the plants to
(a) develop healthy seeds
(b) reduce viability
(c) overcome unfavourable climatic conditions
(d) prevent deterioration of seeds
Answer: (c)
8. The protective covering over radical during the germination of seeds is
(a) Coleoptile
(b) Epithelium
(c) Suspensor
(d) Coleorhiza
Answer: (d)
9. Which of these compounds can induce seed dormancy?
(a) Potassium nitrate
(b) ABA

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(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene
Answer: (b)
10. An albuminous seed showing hypogeal germination is
(a) bean
(b) castor
(c) gram
(d) maize
Answer: (d)

Parthenocarpy MCQs for NEET

It is a condition pertaining to fruits. In a few plants, the fruits develop without the fertilization of
ovules, it is referred to as Parthenocarpy. This phenomenon is typically observed in Banana, figs,
and pineapple. Parthenocarpy occurs due to the absence of the following events – pollination,
fertilization and embryonic development.
1. The process by which fruits are developed without fertilization is called _________.
(a) Apomixis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Self-pollination
Answer: (b)
2. In which of the plant species, parthenocarpy takes place?
(a) Mango
(b) Banana
(c) Peach
(d) Jackfruit
Answer: (b)
3. Which of these plants will lose their economic value if its fruits are as a result of induced
parthenocarpy?
(a) Banana
(b) Orange
(c) Grape
(d) Pomegranate

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Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the development of parthenocarpic fruit?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
5. Which of the following statement is false about parthenocarpy?
(a) Fruits developed are seedless
(b) The Ovary is stimulated with pollination
(c) The process is used as it yields high quality and consistency
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
6. The fruit in tomato is classified into _____.
(a) Pepo
(b) Pome
(c) Drupe
(d) Berry
Answer: (d)
7. Which of the following statement is false about Fabaceae?
(a) It was earlier mentioned to as Papilionoideae
(b) It is widely distributed across the world
(c) It is common to find plants with fibrous root system here
(d) It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following statement is false about Hilum?
(a) Hilum lies underneath micropyle
(b) Ccar over the seed coat
(c) Growing seeds are attached to the fruit through the hilum
(d) All of the above

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Answer: (a)
9. What is the fruit of wheat and rice called?
(a) Follicle
(b) Caryopsis
(c) Siliqua
(d) Achene
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is not an agricultural product?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Alum
(d) Cotton
Answer: (c)

Amoebiasis Questions With Answers

Also referred to as amoebic dysentery, amoebiasis is an intestinal ailment known to be caused by
the parasite, Entamoeba histolytica. This parasite harbours in the intestines and produces eggs
that are passed from the body into the stool.
1. Amoebiasis causes
(a) Headache and cold
(b) Dysentry
(c) Fever
(d) Severe cold
Answer: (b)
2. Amoebiasis is caused by
(a) Toxoplasma gondii
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
3. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
(a) Diamond’s medium

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(b) CLED medium
(c) NNN medium
(d) MacConkey agar
Answer: (a)
4. Presence of ingested RBCs is a characteristic feature of
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Dientamoeba fragilis
(c) Entamoeba coli
(d) Iodamoeba butcheli
Answer: (a)
5. The most common site for amoebiasis is:
(a) Cecum
(b) Sigmoid colon
(c) Transverse colon
(d) Hepatic flexure
Answer: (a)
6. Amoebiasis is transmitted by
(a) Direct contact with dirty hands
(b) Sexual contact
(c) Faecal contamination of drinking water and food
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
7. Differentiation between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains can be done by
(a) Phagocytic activity
(b) Use of genetic markers
(c) Zymodeme analysis
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
8. In tissues, amoebiasis is treated with
(a) Tinidazole

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(b) Nitazoxanide
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Any of these
Answer: (d)
9. The karyosome of Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) liver
(b) progressive
(c) central
(d) even
Answer: (c)
10. Entamoeba histolytica cysts have _________ nuclei
(a) 1-4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 6-8
Answer: (a)

Thalassemia MCQs for NEET

An inherited disorder of the blood, Thalassemia is a condition wherein the body starts to produce
an inadequate amount of haemoglobin, which is a protein molecule carrying oxygen in red blood
cells. Thalassemia leads to extreme destruction of the red blood cells resulting in anaemia.
Anaemia is a condition wherein the red blood cells or haemoglobin are usually lesser than the
normal count.
Also Check:

 NEET Biology Syllabus

 NEET Biology Important Topics
 NEET Biology MCQs
 How to Score 340 in NEET Biology 2020
1. This statement is true about Thalassemia
(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
(c) Mild thalassemia may not need treatment

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(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
2. This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
(a) Abdominal cramps
(b) Weakness and slow growth
(c) Dark urine
(d) Facial bone deformities
Answer: (a)
3. This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
(a) Alloimmunization
(b) Beta-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
4. Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
(a) Prenatal testing
(b) A complete blood count (CBC)
(c) A Reticulocyte Count
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
5. Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
(b) Blood transfusions
(c) Iron chelation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
6. Possible complications of thalassemia
(a) Infection
(b) Iron overload
(c) Only B

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(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
7. The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
(a) Enlarged spleen
(b) Bone deformities
(c) Problems with the heart
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
8. Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
(a) Certain ancestry
(b) Family history of thalassemia
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
9. This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
10. This about beta-thalassemia is true
(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
(c) Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean
islands
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)

Diversity in Living World MCQs for NEET

Planet Earth exhibits diversity in every form of life. The humid and warm regions of the earth are
extremely diverse and are referred to as the regions of mega biodiversity. Every individual has a
unique DNA set up. Species vary greatly in the numerous characteristics they exhibit.

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NEET MCQ Diversity in Living World PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?

(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
Also Check: Important NEET Notes for The Living World
2. For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
3. Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
4. Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how
reproductive isolation comes about
(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)
(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(c) (a) and (r) both are incorrect
(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer: (d)
5. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum

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(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
6. Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record
(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
(c) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer: (d)
7. Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
8. A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
9. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during
short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time
and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for
considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
(a) They are reproductively distinct
(b) They fail to interbreed in nature
(c) They are physiologically different
(d) They are distinct morphologically
Answer: (b)

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10. One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Thyroid Gland

One of the largest endocrine glands, the thyroid gland is a ductless endocrine gland, located at
the anterior portion of the neck. It somewhat resembles the shape of a butterfly. Primarily, the
function of the thyroid gland is to secrete the T3 hormone (Triiodothyronine ) and T4 hormone
(Thyroxine hormone).
1. The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
(a) T4
(b) T3
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) TSH
Answer: (C)
2. Iodine deficiency can cause
(a) Goitre
(b) Thyroid cancer
(c) Solitary thyroid nodules
(d) Thyroiditis
Answer: (a)
3. Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
(c) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer: (c)
4. The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
(a) Adrenal gland

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(b) Pineal gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer: (c)
5. Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
(a) Menopause
(b) Posttraumatic stress
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Crohn’s disease
Answer: (a)
6. Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
(a) Replaces insulin
(b) Replaces ADH
(c) Replaces TH
(d) Replaces surfactant
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer: (d)
8. In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement
of the thyroid gland
(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
(c) Elevated levels of TSH
(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer: (c)
9. ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
(a) Prevertebral fascia

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(b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
(d) Superficial fascia
Answer: (b)
10. This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
(a) Thyroiditis
(b) Goitre
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Coronary artery With Answers

A condition of the heart wherein the lipid deposition of plaque in coronary arteries causes a
serious disease, known as coronary artery disease. It is also referred to as ischemic heart disease.
It causes blockages wherein the artery tends to become narrow and rigid furthermore restricting
the smooth blood flow to the heart. The most dangerous factor of this disease is that plaque could
rupture leading to heart attack causing sudden cardiac death.
1. Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
(a) Cardiac catherization
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Treadmill stress test
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
2. The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
(a) Age
(b) Obesity
(c) Heredity
(d) Gender
Answer: (b)
3. This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
(a) Sleep problems
(b) Headache
(c) Diarrhoea

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(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer: (d)
4. If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to
narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
(a) one smokes
(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure
(c) one has diabetes
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
5. Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
(b) to expand artery, medication is used
(c) inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
6. Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
(a) A new fragment of the artery
(b) A wire mesh tube
(c) A cotton tube
(d) A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer: (b)
7. The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
(a) Left main coronary artery
(b) right marginal artery
(c) Posterior descendary artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
8. One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(c) unstable angina

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(d) No episodes of dyspnea
Answer: (d)
9. Ischemia is
(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues
(b) Overflow of blood to tissues
(c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
(d) the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer: (a)
10. This is the role of the coronary artery
(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles
(b) to supply blood to heart muscles
(c) to supply blood to all parts of the body
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Muscular Dystrophy With Answers

A group of disorders affecting the voluntary muscles in the human body is known as muscular
dystrophy. In this disease, the patients experience progressive weakening of skeletal muscles and
loss of muscle mass. This disorder is caused due to the interference of abnormal genes in the
formation of proteins essential for muscle formation.
1. One of the ways scientists suggest to find a treatment for muscular dystrophy is
(a) replacing muscles
(b) create customized diets for them to be healthier and stronger
(c) attempt to correct defective genes so it creates the right proteins
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
2. Define muscular dystrophy
(a) Diseases which destruct the muscles of the body
(b) diseases which cause the muscles to get disproportionate
(c) born with too many or too little muscles
(d) diseases which do not allow muscles to grow
Answer: (a)

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3. Muscular dystrophy can affect
(a) Only humans
(b) Only animals
(c) Both animals and humans
(d) Only plants
Answer: (c)
4. Another way that scientists propose as a treatment to cure muscular dystrophy is
(a) Removal of defective genes
(b) Replacing defective genes after removing with parents genes again
(c) Discovering chemicals which can substitute the missing chemical
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
5. _____________ is not a form of muscular dystrophy
(a) Lunar dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(d) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
Answer: (a)
6. The protein whose production gets affected in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
(a) Actin
(b) Myotropin
(c) Dystrophin
(d) Leucovorin
Answer: (c)
7. The gene responsible for causing Duchenne muscular dystrophy is found on
(a) Y chromosome
(b) X chromosome
(c) Autosomal chromosome number 5
(d) Autosomal chromosome number 8
Answer: (b)

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8. The enzyme, whose blood levels is increased in patients with Duchenne muscular
dystrophy is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) Dystrophin kinase
(c) Adenosine triphosphate
(d) Creatinine phosphokinase
Answer: (d)
9. Duchenne muscular dystrophy can be cured with
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Creatinine phosphokinase inhibitors
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
10. The involvement of this muscle affects the breathing in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
(a) Triceps
(b) Biceps
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Quadriceps
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Morphology of a Bacteria

Bacterial morphology is extremely diverse. Specific shapes are a result of adaptive pressures
causing effective bacterial fitness. The shape affects the significant biological functions which
include nutrient acquisition, dispersion, motility, stress resistance and interactions with other
entities. Ultimately, the bacterial morphology is dictated by the net-like peptidoglycan (PG)
sacculus.
1. Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
2. What is a cluster of polar flagella called?

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(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
3. Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
4. Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
5. This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
6. What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?

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(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
8. The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two
modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
9. Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
10. This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Hydroponic System for NEET

The technique of cultivating plants in a nutrient solution without the use of soil is known as
Hydroponics. Hydroponics is an alternative to the traditional cultivation methodologies and is
fast replacing them.
1. Which of these is the fibre obtained from the coconut’s husk
(a) Perlite
(b) Vermiculture

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(c) Coir
(d) Rockwool
Also Check: Types of Hydroponic Systems
Answer: (c)
2. The form of hydroponics that does not require a growing medium at all is
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Static solution culture
(c) Medium culture
(d) Aeroponics
Answer: (d)
3. Plants with larger roots can be cultivated with which of the following types of hydroponics
(a) Ebb and flow system
(b) Drip system
(c) Nutrient Film technique
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
4. Hydroponics is a method of cultivation of plants without the use of
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) sunlight
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following is not true about hydroponics?
(a) Requires high investment
(b) Technical knowledge required
(c) Can be misused to cultivate banned crops
(d) Plants through hydroponics cannot be cultivated everywhere
Answer: (d)
6. Salts and water in hydroponic plants are absorbed by
(a) Leaves

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(b) Stem
(c) Roots
(d) Outer Layer of plants
Answer: (d)
7. The scientist who used nutrient culture solution in hydroponic cultures was
(a) Knop
(b) Sachs
(c) Wallace
(d) Webster
Answer: (a)
8. Deficiency of mineral nutrition does not cause which of these
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Shortening internode
Answer: (b)
9. Roots of a plant in hydroponics are submerged in a solution of dissolved _________
(a) fertilizers
(b) oxygen
(c) mineral salts
(d) chemicals
Answer: (a)
10. Which of these plants may not be suitable for cultivation through hydroponics
(a) Tomatoes
(b) Carrot
(c) Cucumber
(d) Strawberries
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Plant Hormones

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Plant hormones or phytohormones are the single molecules synthesized within plants occurring
in extremely low concentrations. Some major plant hormones are – Auxin, Gibberellin, Ethylene,
Abscisic acid and Cytokinin
1. Indole-3-acetic acid is the most common naturally occurring plant hormone of _______
class
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinin
Answer: (b)
2. This hormone is not a growth inhibitor
(a) Dormin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Ethylene
(d) IAA
Answer: (d)
3. ___________ is a gaseous plant hormone
(a) IBA
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) NAA
Answer: (b)
4. A widely used rooting hormone is
(a) 2,4, -D
(b) NAA
(c) 2,4,5 – T
(d) Cytokinin
Answer: (b)
5. The leaf defoliator utilized in the Vietnam war by the USA known as “Agent Orange”
was
(a) 2,4, -D and 2,4,5 – T
(b) Ethylene

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(c) 2,4, -D and NAA
(d) 2,4,5 – T, ethylene and NAA
Answer: (a)
6. Transport of auxin is
(a) non-polar
(b) symplast
(c) apoplast
(d) polar
Answer: (d)
7. Formation of the nodule is induced by
(a) IAA
(b) NAA
(c) IBA
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: (a)
8. This is the precursor of Indole-3-acetic acid
(a) Methionine
(b) Tryptophan
(c) Glycine
(d) Isopentynyl pyrophosphate
Answer: (b)
9. This bioassay is used to detect the presence of auxin
(a) Only tobacco pith culture
(b) Tobacco pith culture and Avena curvature test
(c) Tobacco pith culture and Split pea stem curvature test
(d) Split pea stem curvature test and Avena curvature test
Answer: (d)
10. Which of these is not a function of auxin?
(a) inducing callus formation
(b) inducing dormancy

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(c) enhancing cell division
(d) maintaining apical dominance
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Down Syndrome

It is a genetic condition resulting when a baby is born with three rather than the typical two
copies of chromosome 21. Down syndrome is referred to as ‘Trisomy 21 as there are three copies
of chromosome 21.
1. One of this trait is not seen in a person with Down syndrome
(a) High muscle tone
(b) Small stature
(c) Upward slant eye
(d) Short neck
Answer: (a)
2. The number of chromosomes a child with Down syndrome has is
(a) 45
(b) 46
(c) 47
(d) 48
Answer: (c)
3. Down syndrome is caused due to
(a) bacterial infection
(b) a chromosomal abnormality
(c) Viral infection
(d) lack of oxygen supply to the brain during birth
Answer: (b)
4. Which of these traits is not linked with Down syndrome?
(a) Oily skin
(b) Hypotonicity
(c) Simian Crease
(d) Brachycephaly
Answer: (a)

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5. This assessment finding would enable a nurse to suspect the presence of Down syndrome
in a newborn
(a) Single palmar crease and hypotonia
(b) Short palpebral tissues and flat maxillary area
(c) Prominent scalp veins and a high-pitched cry
(d) Persistent postnatal growth lag and Microcephaly
Answer: (a)
6. Down syndrome is
(a) Sex-linked
(b) Chromosomal
(c) dominant
(d) recessive
Answer: (b)
7. A disease which may result from Down syndrome
(a) Cancer
(b) Cellulitis
(c) Celiac disease
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
8. Generally, a person with Down syndrome has an IQ of
(a) 20-30
(b) 40-50
(c) 60-70
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
9. The chances of an offspring to have Down syndrome __________ with the mother’s age
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) is not influenced
(d) there is no correlation
Answer: (b)

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10. There are several variations of Down syndrome with Trisomy 21 accounting for close to
95% of all cases recorded. There is another form of the syndrome that occurs when a
segment of the 21st chromosome detaches to attach itself to another chromosome. Its name
is
(a) Displacement
(b) Transportation
(c) Translocation
(d) Relocation
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Cell Structure and Function

Cell forms the structural, functional and biological units of living entities. These building blocks
have the capability to replicate themselves. Cells vary distinctly in their structure and function.
Entities can be unicellular or multicellular.

NEET MCQ Cell Structure and Function PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. This cell is the longest in the human body

(a) Muscle cells
(b) Nerve cells
(c) Bone cells
(d) Gland cells
Answer: (b)
2. This tissue includes the blood tissue
(a) Muscle tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Nervous tissue
Answer: (b)
3. Which of this is/are examples of an organ containing a smooth muscle
(a) Iris of eye
(b) Bronchi only
(c) Uterus only
(d) All of the above

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Answer: (d)
4. This structure of the plant cell is non-living
(a) Nucleus
(b) cell wall
(c) cytoplasm
(d) Mitochondrion
Answer: (b)
5. This cell organelle does not contain DNA
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer: (c)
6. The main difference between human cheek cells and onion peel cells is
(a) Presence of cell wall in onion peel cells
(b) Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cells
(c) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cells
(d) Absence of the plasma membrane in cheek cells
Answer: (a)
7. This jellylike substance inside the plasma membrane in which all cell organelles are
floating is
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Tonoplasm
(c) Karyoplasm
(d) Cell sap
Answer: (a)
8. The organelle serving as a primary packaging area for molecules that will be distributed
throughout the cell is
(a) Vacuole
(b) Plastids
(c) Mitochondria

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(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: (d)
9. Animal cells are interconnected by
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Cell wall
(c) Desmosomes
(d) Plasmodesmata
Answer: (c)
10. The Cell theory is not applicable to
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Virus
(d) Microbes
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Microbes in Human Welfare

Microbes are ubiquitous. These are microscopic entities that are not visible to the naked eye.
While some are extremely useful, some can be fatal too. These tiny creatures catalyze some
critical biological processes taking place in nature without any human intervention.
1. In Swiss cheese, big holes are made by a
(a) bacterium producing methane gas
(b) machine
(c) fungus releasing a lot of gases while its metabolic activities
(d) bacterium producing large quantities of carbon dioxide
Answer: (d)
2. During which stage of the purification of the sewage water are microbes used?
(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Tertiary treatment
(d) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: (b)
3. What does a high value of BOD(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicate?
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(a) That water is pure
(b) that water is less polluted
(c) that water is highly polluted
(d) that consumption of organic matter by microbes is higher in the water
Answer: (c)
4. This entry in the table is wrongly matched

Option Name of the Microbe Product Purpose

(a) Monascus purpureus Statins Lowers blood cholesterol

(b) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removes clots from blood vessels

(c) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Oil stain removal

(d) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin-A Immunosuppressive drug

Answer: (c)
5. This is a good producer of citric acid
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Clostridium
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Pseudomonas
Answer: (a)
6. This is not an example of performing biological control of diseases/pests using microbes
(a) Trichoderma sp. against some plant pathogens
(b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against insects and other arthropods
(c) Ladybird beetle against aphids
(d) Bt-cotton to increase yield
Answer: (d)
7. This is chiefly produced by the activity of an anaerobic bacteria on sewage
(a) Laughing gas
(b) Propane
(c) Mustard gas
(d) Marsh gas

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Answer: (d)
8. For the production of ethanol, the most common substrate used in distilleries is
(a) Soya meal
(b) Molasses
(c) Ground gram
(d) cornmeal
Answer: (b)
9. This is not a biofertilizer
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Nostoc
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Mycorrhiza
Answer: (a)
10. Carbon dioxide is not released in which of the following processes?
(a) Lactate fermentation
(b) Alcoholic fermentation
(c) Aerobic respiration in animals
(d) Aerobic respiration in plants
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Plant Physiology

Plant physiology is a branch in Botany concerning with the physiological functions or processes
of plants. Precisely, it is a descriptive study of variation and structure of plants at the cellular and
molecular level leading to ecological, physiological and biochemistry associated viewpoints of
plants exploration.

NEET MCQ plant physiology PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. In the rainy season, doors get swelled up due to

(a) Transpiration
(b) Imbibition
(c) Diffusion
(d) Respiration

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Answer: (b)
2. This statement regarding enzyme inhibition is correct
(a) non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
(b) non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding a large amount
of substrate
(c) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate and inhibitor compete for the active site
on enzyme
(d) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate competes with an enzyme to bind
to an inhibitor protein
Answer: (c)
3. In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation takes place with the help of
(a) PEP carboxylse and pyruvate carboxylase
(b) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(c) PEP carboxylase and RuBP carboxylase
(d) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
Answer: (b)
4. Peroxisomes are involved in which type of reactions pertaining to plant photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin Cycle
(b) Glycolytic cycle
(c) Glyoxylate cycle
(d) Bacterial photosynthesis
Answer: (c)
5. The fundamental feature of Kranz Anatomy of C4 plants is
(a) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and granal chloroplasts in mesophyll
cells
(b) Presence of granal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and agranal chloroplasts in mesophyll
cells
(c) Presence of chloroplasts in epidermal and mesophyll cells
(d) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in both mesophyll and bundle sheath cells
Answer: (a)
6. The statement which is incorrect with respect to enzyme action is

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(a) Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase
by malonate
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme as its active site
(c) a non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds
the substrate
(d) malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Answer: (a)
7. A phosphoglyceride is always composed of
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
the group is also attached
(b) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
attached
(c) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate molecule to which a
glycerol molecule is also attached
(d) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
group is also attached
Answer: (d)
8. Macromolecule chitin is
(a) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(b) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(c) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(d) simple polysaccharide
Answer: (b)
9. This is a wrongly matched pair
(a) Alcohol – Nitrogenase
(b) Detergents – Lipase
(c) Textile – Amylase
(d) Fruit juice – Pectinase
Answer: (a)
10. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
(a) Trypsin

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(b) Collagen
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Insulin
Answer: (b)

Spermatogenesis Questions With Answers

Spermatogenesis is the phenomena where the sperm (male gamete) develops within the male
reproductive organs, the testes. Each sperm in this process contains only one copy of each
chromosome. To create the haploid gamete, cells undergo the meiotic process in which the
genome is replicated and divided twice to produce four haploid gametes. The process typically
occurs in seminiferous tubules of the testes after passing through different stages.
1. This amongst the following statements is incorrect. Human spermatozoa usually
(a) moves with the help of their tails
(b) contains enzyme in their head which aids in penetration of the ovum
(c) are released in large numbers after a few days of abstinence
(d) at a concentration of 1 million/ml of ejaculate will fertilize the ovum
Answer: (d)
2. Polar bodies are formed during
(a) Oogenesis
(b) Spermatogenesis
(c) Gametogenesis
(d) Spermateleosis
Answer: (a)
3. The correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis is
(a) Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Spermatogonia – Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Spermatocytes – Spermatozoa
(c) Spermatocytes – Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Spermatozoa
(d) Spermatogonia – Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Spermatozoa
Answer: (d)
4. In spermatogenesis, the phases of maturation involve
(a) formation of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
(b) Growth of spermatogonia into primary spermatocytes
(c) formation of spermatogonia from gonocytes through mitosis

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(d) formation of oogonia from spermatocytes through meiosis
Answer: (a)
5. This happens during spermatogenesis
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Meiosis and mitosis
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
6. The actual genetic section of sperm is its
(a) Acrosome
(b) Tail
(c) Middle piece
(d) Head
Answer: (d)
7. The process of spermatogenesis is induced by
(a) TSH
(b) FSH
(c) MSH
(d) ACTH
Answer: (b)
8. The number of spermatozoa, a single primary spermatocyte finally produced in
spermatogenesis is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (b)
9. The acrosome of sperm is formed from
(a) Mitochondria of spermatid
(b) Golgi complex of spermatid
(c) Nucleus of spermatid

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(d) Centrosome of spermatid
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following cells is immortal?
(a) Glomerular cells
(b) Somatic cells
(c) Cells of pituitary
(d) Germ cells
Answer: (d)

Lipids Questions With Answers

Lipids are energy-rich organic, non-polar molecules. These organic compounds contain carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen atoms that form a framework for the structure and function of living cells.
They are insoluble in water and only soluble in nonpolar solvents as water is a polar molecule.
These molecules in the human body can be synthesized in the liver and are typically found in
butter, whole milk, oil, cheese, food that is fried and in so,e red meats too.

NEET MCQ on Lipids PDF:- Download the PDF Here

1. This molecule acts as molecular chaperones to assist the folding of proteins

(a) Vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Amides
(d) Lipids
Answer: (d)
2. Which of these is not a lipid?
(a) Fats
(b) Oils
(c) Proteins
(d) Waxes
Answer: (c)
3. The abundantly distributed enzyme in germinating seeds and adipocytes is
(a) Lipase
(b) Proteases
(c) Cellulase

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(d) Nuclease
Answer: (a)
4. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
(a) Peroxisome
(b) Peroxisome and Mitochondria
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Peroxisome, Mitochindria and ER
Answer: (C)
5. An example of ____________ is Carnauba wax
(a) Soft wax
(b) Liquid wax
(c) Hard wax
(d) Archaebacterial wax
Answer: (c)
6. In fats, the number of OH groups can be expressed as
(a) Reichert-Meissil number
(b) Polenske number
(c) Iodine number
(d) Acetyl number
Answer: (d)
7. Rancidity of lipids of lipid-rich foodstuff is because of
(a) Reduction of fatty acids
(b) Hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
(c) Dehydrogenation of saturated fatty acids
(d) Oxidation of fatty acids
Answer: (d)
8. This is an example of derived lipids
(a) Terpenes
(b) Steroids
(c) Carotenoids

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(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
9. The degree of unsaturation of lipids can be measured as
(a) Iodine number
(b) Saponification number
(c) Reichert Meissel number
(d) Polenske number
Answer: (a)
10. The specific gravity of lipid is
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.2
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Types of Bonding and Forces in Solid

In solids, molecules are tightly packed and only oscillate about their fixed positions. Nature of
bonding and forces that hold particles (atom, molecules, ions, etc.) together in a solid explain its
properties. Solids can be classified as metallic, covalent, ionic or molecular, based on the types
of intermolecular forces present in them.
1. The Atoms of solid Ar are held together by
(a) Van der Waals forces
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Ionic bonds
(d) Hydrophobic forces
2. Which of the following has the weakest bond?
(a) Ice
(b) Diamond
(c) KCl
(d) Neon
3. Which of the following is the weakest bond?
(a) Ionic bonds

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(b) Metallic bonds
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
4. Which of the following has both covalent and ionic bonds?
(a) NaOH
(b) KCl
(c) CH 4

(d) SO 2

5. In a crystal, covalent molecules are held together by

(a) Dipole-dipole attraction
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Van der Waals attraction
(d) Electrostatic attraction
6. Which of the compounds shows the highest lattice energy?
(a) CsF
(b) KF
(c) RbF
(d) NaF
7. Metallic bonds do not have
(a) Highly directed bonds
(b) Mobile valence electrons
(c) Delocalised electrons
(d) Overlapping valence orbitals
8. Formation of a chemical bond results in
(a) Increase in energy
(b) Decrease in energy
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
9. Small discrete molecules are present in which of the substances?
(a) Copper

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(b) CO
(c) Dry ice
(d) Graphite
10. Particles in an ionic crystals are held together by
(a) Nuclear forces
(b) Electrons
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Electrostatic forces
Answer

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c)

6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)

MCQs on Types of Joints

Our body has movable as well as immovable joints present between bones. Fibrous bones are
present in the cranium and are immovable. Cartilaginous joints allow limited movement, e.g.
joints between two vertebrae. Synovial joints are movable joints, e.g. joints in our appendicular
skeleton, which help us in locomotion and movement.
1. Humans have ________ joint between sternum and ribs
(a) gliding
(b) angular
(c) cartilaginous
(d) fibrous
Answer: (c)
2. The joint in our elbow is an example of
(a) hinge joint
(b) ball and socket joint
(c) pivot joint
(d) gliding joint
Answer: (a)
3. Find the correctly matched pair
(a) Fibrous joint — between phalanges
(b) Cartilaginous joint — skull bones

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(c) Gliding joint — between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
(d) Hinge joint — between vertebrae
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following joints does not allow any movement?
(a) Synovial joint
(b) Fibrous joint
(c) Ball and Socket joint
(d) Cartilaginous joint
Answer: (b)
5. Glenoid cavity articulates
(a) Clavicle with acromion
(b) Clavicle with scapula
(c) Scapula with acromion
(d) Humerus with scapula
Answer: (d)
6. The joint between atlas and axis is
(a) Saddle joint
(b) Angular joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Cartilaginous joint
Answer: (c)
7. Find the correct pair
(a) Gliding joint – between carpals
(b) Cartilaginous joint – between frontal and parietal
(c) Hinge joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Pivot joint – between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
Answer: (a)
8. The type of joint between the skull bones is
(a) Fibrous
(b) Cartilaginous

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(c) Synovial
(d) Hinge
Answer: (a)
9. Ribs and sternum are connected by
(a) Areolar tissue
(b) Hyaline cartilage
(c) White fibrous cartilage
(d) Bony matter
Answer: (b)
10. The joint between 1st and 2nd cervical vertebrae
(a) Gliding joint
(b) Saddle joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Hinge joint
Answer: (c)

MCQs on DNA Replication

DNA replication occurs in all living organisms. It is an important biological process for
inheritance. A DNA molecule replicates to form two identical copies of itself. During the cell
cycle, replication occurs at ‘S’ phase. DNA replication is a semiconservative process, in the
newly formed double-stranded DNA, one strand of original DNA is retained, which acts as a
template for the formation of another strand. It is an enzyme catalysed process.
1. During replication, Okazaki fragments elongate
(a) leading strand towards the replication fork
(b) lagging strand towards the replication fork
(c) leading strand away from the replication fork
(d) lagging strand away from the replication fork
Answer: (d)
2. Which of the following enzymes separates the two strands of DNA during replication?
(a) Gyrase
(b) Topoisomerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase

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Answer: (c)
3. DNA replication is
(a) conservative
(b) conservative and discontinuous
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous
(d) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is used in DNA replication studies?
(a) Neurospora crassa
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Pneumococcus
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following helps in opening of DNA double helix in front of replication fork?
(a) topoisomerase
(b) DNA polymerase-I
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) DNA ligase
Answer: (c)
6. Termination of replication is triggered by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Helicase
(c) SSB
(d) Tus protein
Answer: (d)
7. DNA polymerase synthesizes
(a) DNA in 5’-3’ direction
(b) DNA in 3’-5’ direction
(c) mRNA in 3’-5’ direction
(d) mRNA in 5’-3’ direction

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Answer: (a)
8. Association of histones H  with nucleosome shows
1

(a) the occurrence of transcription

(b) the occurrence of replication
(c) exposed DNA double helix
(d) the condensation of DNA into chromatin fibre
Answer: (d)
9. The 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester linkage joins
(a) two DNA strands
(b) two nucleotides
(c) a nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(d) two nucleosides
Answer: (b)
10. The fragments of DNA are joined together by which of the following enzymes?
(a) Endonuclease
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Primase
(d) Ligase
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Algae
Algae are a diverse group of autotrophic organisms capable of performing photosynthesis. They
are mostly found in aquatic habitats. They come in different shapes and sizes, from unicellular
algae like chlorella to massive brown algae, giant kelp. Algae are divided into three main classes
according to the pigment present in them, viz. Chlorophyceae (Green algae), Rhodophyceae
(Red algae) and Phaeophyceae (Brown Algae).
1. Which one of the following is a colonial alga?
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following shows zygotic meiosis?

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(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Marchantia
(c) Funaria
(d) Fucus
Answer: (a)
3. Find the incorrect statement
(a) Agar-agar is produced from Gracilaria
(b) Chlorella is used in space food
(c) Mannitol is a food reserve of Rhodophyceae
(d) Algin is produced by algae
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following has non-flagellated isogamous gametes?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Volvox
(d) Fucus
Answer: (a)
5. Mannitol is a reserved food found in
(a) Gracillaria
(b) Porphyra
(c) Chara
(d) Fucus
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following contains chlorophyll a, b, phycoerythrin and phycocyanin?
(a) Chlorophyta
(b) Phaeophyta
(c) Rhodophyta
(d) Bacillariophyta
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is rich in protein?

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(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Nostoc
(d) Chlorella
Answer: (d)
8. Ulothrix produces
(a) isogametes
(b) heterogametes
(c) anisogametes
(d) basidiospores
Answer: (a)
9. What is the mode of sexual reproduction in Chlorophyceae?
(a) oogamous
(b) anisogamous
(c) isogamous
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
10. What is the shape of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas?
(a) cup-shaped
(b) spiral
(c) stellate
(d) collar-shaped
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Harmful Microorganisms

Microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi and protozoa cause various diseases in plants and
animals. Harmful microorganisms are also termed as pathogens. Mostly these are parasitic and
multiply within the host. They cause infectious diseases and sometimes need a vector for
transmission. Some examples of diseases are malaria, cholera, typhoid, sleeping sickness,
dysentery, etc.
1. Which of the following pairs of diseases is caused by bacteria?
(a) Herpes and influenza
(b) Tetanus and mumps

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(c) Typhoid and smallpox
(d) Cholera and tetanus
Answer: (d)
2. This disease is caused by a protozoan
(a) Influenza
(b) Syphilis
(c) Blastomycosis
(d) Babesiosis
Answer: (d)
3. The trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica feed on
(a) only mucosa and submucosa of the colon
(b) erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of the colon
(c) only blood
(d) intestinal food
Answer: (b)
4. Human immunodeficiency virus first destroys these cells
(a) leucocytes
(b) B-lymphocytes
(c) thrombocytes
(d) helper T-lymphocytes
Answer: (d)
5. The motile zygote of Plasmodium is found in
(a) human liver
(b) human RBCs
(c) salivary glands of female Anopheles
(d) the gut of female Anopheles
Answer: (d)
6. Infectious protein is a characteristic of
(a) satellite viruses
(b) viroids

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(c) prions
(d) gemini viruses
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following gets killed by lysozyme present in saliva and tears?
(a) some of the fungi
(b) virus-infected cells
(c) all viruses
(d) some of the bacteria
Answer: (d)
8. Clostridium botulinum is a
(a) facultative aerobe
(b) obligate anaerobe
(c) facultative anaerobe
(d) obligate aerobe
Answer: (b)
9. Our body synthesizes interferons in response to
(a) fungi
(b) bacteria
(c) virus
(d) mycoplasma
Answer: (c)
10. Salmonella causes
(a) tetanus
(b) T.B.
(c) polio
(d) typhoid
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Blood
Blood is the most important fluid in the body for transporting nutrients and oxygen. Blood is a
type of fluid connective tissue. Blood comprises plasma and formed elements. It consists of
thrombocytes (platelets), erythrocytes (RBC) and leucocytes (WBC).

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1. Which of the following blood cells play an important role in blood clotting?
(a) Thrombocytes
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Erythrocytes
Answer: (a)
2. Serum differs from blood as it lacks
(a) antibodies
(b) clotting factors
(c) albumins
(d) globulins
Answer: (b)
3. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Serum contains blood and fibrinogen
(b) Plasma is blood without lymphocytes
(c) Blood comprises plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets
(d) Lymph is plasma with RBC and WBC
Answer: (c)
4. This plasma protein is responsible for blood coagulation
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Globulin
(c) Serum amylase
(d) Albumin
Answer: (a)
5. DNA is not present in
(a) an enucleated ovum
(b) hair root
(c) a mature spermatozoa
(d) mature RBCs
Answer: (d)

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6. Globulins of the blood plasma are responsible for
(a) defence mechanisms
(b) blood clotting
(c) oxygen transport
(d) osmotic balance
Answer: (a)
7. Lymph differs from blood in having
(a) no plasma
(b) more RBCs and less WBCs
(c) more WBCs and no RBCs
(d) plasma without proteins
Answer: (c)
8. WBCs which release heparin and histamine
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Monocytes
(d) Eosinophils
Answer: (a)
9. WBCs which are the most active phagocytic cells
(a) lymphocytes and macrophages
(b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(c) neutrophils and monocytes
(d) eosinophils and lymphocytes
Answer: (c)
10. Find the correct statement for WBCs
(a) can squeeze through blood capillaries
(b) produced only in the thymus
(c) deficiency leads to cancer
(d) do not contain a nucleus
Answer: (a)

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MCQs on Reproduction in Bacteria
Asexual reproduction in bacteria is by binary fission. It is the main mode of their propagation.
Binary fission leads to the formation of identical copies of a cell without any genetic
recombination. As genetic diversity is a key to survival, bacteria also undergo alternative
reproduction methods, whereby sharing of genetic material occurs, namely conjugation,
transformation and transduction.
1. Binary fission in bacteria does not involve
(a) spindle formation
(b) DNA duplication
(c) Cytokinesis
(d) Cell elongation
Answer: (a)
2. Transfer of genetic material from the donor to recipient bacterium through cell contact
is termed as
(a) transduction
(b) recombination
(c) conjugation
(d) transformation
Answer: (c)
3. Common vegetative reproduction in bacteria is by
(a) conjugation
(b) budding
(c) oidia
(d) binary fission
Answer: (d)
4. Transfer of genetic material in bacteria through virus is termed as
(a) transduction
(b) recombination
(c) conjugation
(d) transformation
Answer: (a)
5. Genetic recombination between bacterial cells is first demonstrated by

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(a) Ochoa and Kornberg
(b) Har Gobind Khorana
(c) H. J. Muller
(d) Lederberg and Tatum
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following methods of reproduction proved for the first time that DNA is
genetic material?
(a) Binary fission
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transduction
(d) Transformation
Answer: (d)
7. Mode of action of penicillin is by
(a) inhibiting RNA synthesis
(b) inhibiting cell wall formation
(c) destroying chromatin
(d) inhibiting spindle formation
Answer: (b)
8. Bacterial sex factor is
(a) F-factor
(b) col-factor
(c) R-factor
(d) RNA
Answer: (a)
9. Which of the following bacteriophages are responsible for specialised transduction?
(a) T  phages
4

(b) Lysogenic phages

(c) Lytic phages
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (b)
10. Transduction was discovered by

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(a) Zinder and Lederberg
(b) Ivanovsky
(c) Griffith
(d) Avery et al
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Biofertilizers
Biofertilizers are living microorganisms that are used as fertilizers for agricultural practice. They
promote the growth of plants by providing essential and growth-promoting nutrients. They
increase the nutrient content of soil by natural processes such as nitrogen fixation and other
processes, which solubilize nutrients like phosphorus. Examples include various bacteria, algae,
cyanobacteria (blue-green algae), e.g. Rhizobium, Anabaena, Azospirrilum, Pseudomonas, etc.
1. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Alnus – Frankia
(b) Alfalfa – Rhizobium
(c) Nitrogen fixer – Anabaena
(d) Mycorrhiza – Rhodospirrilum
Answer: (d)
2. Which of the following nitrogen fixers is found in rice fields associated with Azolla?
(a) Tolypothrix
(b) Frankia
(c) Anabaena
(d) Spirulina
Answer: (c)
3. Which of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(a) Mycorrhiza
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Nostoc
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following is used as a biofertilizer for soybean crop?
(a) Nostoc
(b) Azospirillum

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(c) Rhizobium
(d) Azotobacter
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following is commonly used as a nitrogen fixer in paddy fields?
(a) Frankia
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Azospirrilum
(d) Rhizobium
Answer: (c)
6. This is not used in organic farming
(a) snail
(b) earthworm
(c) Oscillatoria
(d) Glomus
Answer: (a)
7. Which of the following is a nitrogen fixer in the root nodules of Alnus?
(a) Clostridium
(b) Bradyrhizobium
(c) Azorhizobium
(d) Frankia
Answer: (d)
8. Which of the following is a pair of biofertilizers?
(a) Salmonella and E.coli
(b) Rhizobium and grasses
(c) Nostoc and legume
(d) Azolla and BGA
Answer: (d)
9. Which of the following fern is a biofertilizer?
(a) Salvinia
(b) Azolla

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(c) Pteridium
(d) Marsilea
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is an endomycorrhiza?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Glomus
(d) Nostoc
Answer: (c)
11. Pick the correct statement 
(a) legumes do not fix nitrogen 
(b) legumes fix nitrogen independent of bacteria 
(c) legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria in their roots 
(d) legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria in their leaves 
Answer:  (c)
12. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through the usage of 
(a) resistant varieties 
(b) manures 
(c) biofertilizers
(d) all of the above 
Answer:  (d)
13. A biofertilizer involving a pteridophyte host is 
(a) Azotobacter 
(b) Clostridium 
(c) Anabaena 
(d) Rhizobium 
Answer:  (c)
14. Which of the following plants form a symbiotic relationship with two nitrogen-fixing
bacteria Rhizobium and Aero rhizobium in root and stem nodules respectively?
(a) Sesbania rostrata
(b) Crotalaria juncea 

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(c) Sesbania aculeata 
(d) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba 
Answer:  (a)
15. This plant is used in sandy soils and as green manure in crop fields 
(a) Lantana camara and Saccharum munja 
(b) Phyllanthus niruri and Calotropis procera 
(c) Azolla pinnata and Dichanthium annulatum 
(d) Alhagi camelorum and Crotalaria juncea 
Answer:  (d)

MCQs on Vector-Borne Diseases

Some pathogens cannot enter the body of humans or animals directly. They need a vector for
transmission. These vectors are mostly blood-sucking insects such as mosquitoes, fleas, ticks,
etc. Pathogenic organisms complete some stages of their lifecycle in the vector and some in the
host. Examples include malaria, dengue, chikungunya, plague, sleeping sickness, Kala-azar,
filariasis, etc.
1. The motile zygote of Plasmodium is found in
(a) human liver
(b) human RBCs
(c) salivary glands of female Anopheles
(d) the gut of female Anopheles
Answer: (d)
2. Ascaris infection is transmitted by
(a) mosquito bite
(b) Tse-tse fly
(c) consuming uncooked pork
(d) drinking contaminated water with eggs of Ascaris
Answer: (d)
3. Plague is caused by
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Yersinia pestis
(c) Salmonella typhimuium
(d) Trichinella spiralis

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Answer: (b)
4. Which of the following is a correct matching pair of disease and pathogen?
(a) Filariasis – Wuchereria
(b) Kala-azar – Glossina
(c) Sleeping sickness – Leishmania
(d) Malaria – Anopheles
Answer: (a)
5. Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease?
(a) Yellow fever
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Viral fever
(d) Malaria
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following is an incorrectly matched pair of a disease and its associated
vector?
(a) Leishmaniasis – Anopheles culifacies
(b) Dengue fever – Aedes aegypti
(c) Filariasis – Culex pipiens
(d) Sleeping sickness – Glossina palpalis
Answer: (a)
7. Recurring chills and fever in malaria is due to
(a) destruction of micro and macrogametocytes by the WBCs
(b) rupturing of RBCs by rapid multiplication and release of haemozoin
(c) toxins released from trophozoites
(d) sporozoites released from RBCs and are rapidly being killed in the spleen
Answer: (b)
8. Sporozoites of the malarial parasites are found in
(a) the saliva of female Anopheles mosquito, which is freshly moulted
(b) the saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(c) RBCs of an infected human
(d) the spleen of an infected human

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Answer: (b)
9. Kala-azar is transmitted by
(a) Dragon fly
(b) Housefly
(c) Tse-tse fly
(d) Sand fly
Answer: (d)
10. Yellow fever is transmitted by
(a) Anopheles
(b) Aedes
(c) Housefly
(d) Tse-tse fly
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Ageing and Death For NEET 2021

A chain of biological events following a natural course right from birth, maturity to old age and
ultimately death is ageing. Typically, ageing is characterized by hair thinning and greying, loss
in muscle mass and strength, skin wrinkling, etc. Genetics has a role in the phenomena of ageing
and death. Cells of the body tend to become inefficient with ageing, leading to the inability to
perform basic functions. In addition to slowing down reflexes, the decline in the lung capacity,
ability of the heart to pump blood, the immune system of the body are also affected.
1. The study of different aspects of ageing is known as
(a) Gerontology
(b) Gynaecology
(c) Odontology
(d) Chronology
Answer: (a)
2. This theory states that the accumulation of particular waste products leads to ageing
(a) immunity theory
(b) metabolic theory
(c) waste product theory
(d) all of the above
Answer: (c)

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3. The human body loses cells regularly in this area
(a) red blood cells
(b) lining layer of the gut
(c) surface of skin
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
4. This characterizes ageing
(a) increase in the consumption of oxygen
(b) increased anabolism
(c) increased metabolic activity
(d) a decrease in the metabolic activity
Answer: (d)
5. This is known as the “Clock of ageing”
(a) Pituitary
(b) Thymus
(c) Thyroid
(d) Adrenal
Answer: (b)
6. In many mammals, even humans, ageing can be due to
(a) malnutrition and stress
(b) interaction between hereditary factors and the environment
(c) adverse alterations in the environment
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
7. The activity of collagen protein is affected badly in old age. This is due to
(a) diffusion that becomes very high
(b) diffusion that becomes very slow
(c) permeability which becomes very high
(d) permeability which becomes very low
Answer: (a)

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8. Brain and Thymus are the main factors in the ageing process
(a) Mutation theory
(b) Pacemaker theory
(c) Gene theory
(d) Stress theory
Answer: (b)
9. Which of the following theory states that accumulation of errors in cellular molecule
affects the ageing process?
(a) Gene theory
(b) Environmental theory
(c) Error catastrophe theory
(d) Mutation theory
Answer: (c)
10. Degenerative changes take place during
(a) ageing only
(b) metamorphosis only
(c) both in ageing and metamorphosis
(d) parthenogenesis
Answer: (c)

Syphilis Questions With Answers

Syphilis infects the genital area, mouth, lips, anus in both women and men and is a sexually
transmitted disease. Apart from sexual contact, it can also be passed during the state of
pregnancy from the mother to the foetus. Initial stages are flagged by tiny sores, which are
painless, in few cases leads to the swelling of the lymph nodes.
1. This causes Syphilis
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Treponema pallidum
Answer: (d)
2. Syphilis is often called
(a) The invisible dictator

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(b) The terrorizing emperor
(c) The great imitator
(d) The great terminator
Answer: (c)
3. In this state of the antibody test, it is found to be positive in 1-3 weeks post the
appearance of a chancre
(a) tertiary syphilis stage
(b) secondary syphilis stage
(c) primary syphilis stage
(d) all of these
Answer: (c)
4. All of these are a differential diagnosis of the primary genital lesion of syphilis, except for
(a) Donovanosis
(b) Traumatic injury
(c) Chancroid
(d) Herpes zoster infection
Answer: (d)
5. Experimental entities that are utilized for the study of syphilis are
(a) Chimpanzees
(b) Rabbits
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
6. Today, the main test that is used to diagnose syphilis is
(a) Wassup
(b) Waterboy
(c) Waterman
(d) Wassermann
Answer: (d)
7. This stage is found to be the most infective stages of all
(a) secondary syphilis stage

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(b) tertiary syphilis stage
(c) primary syphilis stage
(d) all of these
Answer: (a)
8. Syphilis is a complicated and organized sexually transmitted diseases where the
causative agent is
(a) a fungus
(b) a virus
(c) a bacteria
(d) a spirochete
Answer: (c, d)
9. Neurosyphilis is
(a) an infection of the liver due to syphilis
(b) a major illness of the eyes of babies due to syphilis
(c) an infection of the kidneys due to syphilis
(d) a major illness of the nervous system due to syphilis
Answer: (d)
10. Chancre of syphilis is found in the
(a) throat, chest area and vagina
(b) genitals only
(c) buttocks, back, arms and legs
(d) genitals, anus, rectum, vagina, lips and in the mouth
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Bacteriophage
Bacteriophage or phage is a virus infecting bacterial cells. It multiplicates within a bacterial cell.
The basic structure of bacteriophage is a genome containing DNA or RNA surrounded by a
protein coat. There are many types of bacteriophages present. They are ubiquitous. They may
replicate by lytic or lysogenic cycle. Some common examples include λ phage, T  page, ΦX174,
4

etc.
1. T. O. Diener discovered
(a) free infectious RNA
(b) bacteriophage

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(c) infectious protein
(d) free infectious DNA
Answer: (a)
2. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another in the process of
transduction is by
(a) conjugation between bacteria of opposite strains
(b) physical contact between donor and recipient
(c) special organ for conjugation
(d) bacteriophages
Answer: (d)
3. Bacteriophages with tail are
(a) motile in water
(b) motile on plant leaves
(c) non-motile
(d) motile on bacterial surface
Answer: (d)
4. Viruses which cause lysis of bacteria are known as
(a) lysogenic
(b) lytic
(c) lipolytic
(d) lysozymes
Answer: (b)
5. Transduction involves
(a) bacteria obtaining DNA from the external environment
(b) bacteria obtaining DNA from the mother cell
(c) transfer of genome by conjugation
(d) transfer of genetic material through virus
Answer: (d)
6. Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is the genetic material. They worked on
(a) bacteriophages
(b) viroid

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(c) fungus
(d) bacterium
Answer: (a)
7. Which of the following is used as a vector in genetic engineering?
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) Plasmid
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d)
8. When the viral genome gets inserted into bacterial host it is termed as
(a) replication
(b) lytic cycle
(c) lysogenic cycle
(d) capsid formation
Answer: (c)
9. Which of the following may contain satellite RNAs?
(a) Plant viruses
(b) Bacteriophages
(c) Prions
(d) Viroids
Answer: (a)
10. Transduction is mediated by
(a) F-factors
(b) cosmids
(c) phage vectors
(d) plasmid vectors
Answer: (c)

MCQs on Thallophyte
Thallophyta is a division of lower plants having an undifferentiated body. Examples include
algae, fungi, lichens. They are mostly found in aquatic environments. They lack true roots, stems

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and leaves. They lack vascular tissues. They do not produce seeds. In modern taxonomy, algae,
fungi and lichens are kept in separate groups.
1. Which of the following shows syngamy outside the body?
(a) Fungi
(b) Fern
(c) Algae
(d) Mosses
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following pigments is present in the brown algae?
(a) Phycoerythrin
(b) Phycocyanin
(c) Haematochrome
(d) Fucoxanthin
Answer: (d)
3. Which of the following is called ‘amphibians’ of the Plant kingdom?
(a) Bryophyta
(b) Thallophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) Pteridophyta
Answer: (a)
4. The general term for a group of plants reproducing by spore formation is
(a) thallophytes
(b) sporophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) cryptogams
Answer: (d)
5. Conjugation in Spirogyra or fertilization in Chlamydomonas leads to the formation of
(a) carpospore
(b) oospore
(c) zoospore
(d) zygospore

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Answer: (d)
6. Lichens are a good indicator of SO pollution because
2 

(a) they flourish in polluted environments

(b) they are sensitive to SO 2

(c) they grow faster

(d) they are an association of algae and fungi
Answer: (b)
7. Blue green algae are included in
(a) Fungi
(b) Protista
(c) Prokaryotes
(d) Bryophytes
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following does not contain nuclear membrane?
(a) Nostoc
(b) Volvox
(c) Agaricus
(d) Penicillium
Answer: (a)
9. Most of the fungi contain _______ in their cell wall.
(a) peptidoglycan
(b) cellulose
(c) chitin
(d) hemicellulose
Answer: (c)
10. Which of the following contains more than one pyrenoids?
(a) Oedogonium
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Ulothrix
(d) All of the above

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Answer: (d)

MCQs on Human Digestive System

Human digestive system comprises an alimentary canal or gastrointestinal tract and associated
digestive glands. The food that we eat gets broken down into simpler compounds for absorption.
There are various enzymes and hormones secreted by various glands and cells of the digestive
system, which facilitate the digestion of food. The undigested food is expelled out of the body
through the anus. The main organs of the digestive system include the mouth, pharynx,
oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestine, rectum and anus. There are various types of
digestive glands present, e.g. salivary glands, pancreas, liver, etc.
1. The enzymes present in pancreatic juice are
(a) Amylase, Trypsinogen, Peptidase, Rennin
(b) Trypsinogen, Lipase, Amylase, Procarboxypeptidase
(c) Peptidase, Pepsin, Amylase, Rennin
(d) Maltase, Amylase, Trypsinogen, Pepsin
Answer: (b)
2. Which of the following hormones stimulates the production of pancreatic juice and
bicarbonate?
(a) Insulin and glucagon
(b) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(c) Gastrin and insulin
(d) Angiotensin and epinephrine
Answer: (b)
3. Infants’ gastric juice contains
(a) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(b) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
(c) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(d) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
Answer: (d)
4. The absorption of fructose by intestinal mucosa is
(a) co-transport mechanism
(b) simple diffusion
(c) facilitated transport
(d) active transport

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Answer: (c)
5. Carboxypeptidase requires _______ for its activity
(a) copper
(b) niacin
(c) iron
(d) Zn
Answer: (d)
6. Na  and other carrier ions facilitate absorption of
+

(a) amino acids and fructose

(b) fatty acids and glycerol
(c) fatty acids and glucose
(d) amino acids and glucose
Answer: (d)
7. Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted in
(a) pyloric region
(b) Ileum
(c) duodenum
(d) Oesophagus
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following hydrolytic enzymes act in low pH?
(a) Peroxidases
(b) Hydrolases
(c) Amylases
(d) Proteases
Answer: (d)
9. Which of the following is synthesized and stored in the liver cells?
(a) Galactose
(b) Lactose
(c) Glycogen
(d) Arabinose

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Answer: (c)
10. The disease caused due to deficiency of nicotinic acid is
(a) anaemia
(b) osteomalacia
(c) xerophthalmia
(d) pellagra
Answer: (d)

MCQs on Biosynthesis
Biosynthesis refers to the synthesis of biomolecules inside our body. It is a multi enzymatic and
multistep process. Macromolecules like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, DNAs, etc. are synthesized
in our body. Even the monomers like amino acids for proteins and nucleotides for DNA, RNA
are synthesized inside. Biosynthesis is the anabolic pathway of metabolism.
1. Arthropods have an exoskeleton made up of chitin. It is a polymer of
(a) D-glucosamine
(b) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(c) lipoglycans
(d) N-acetyl glucosamine
Answer: (d)
2. Phosphodiester bond is present in
(a) monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(b) fatty acids in a diglyceride
(c) nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(d) amino acids in a polypeptide
Answer: (c)
3. An example of a non-reducing carbohydrate is
(a) ribose 5-phosphate
(b) lactose
(c) sucrose
(d) maltose
Answer: (c)
4. Phosphoglyceride is made up of

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(a) unsaturated or saturated fatty acids linked to phosphate to which glycerol is attached
(b) unsaturated or saturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
(c) only saturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
(d) only unsaturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
Answer: (b)
5. Which of the following inhibits the action of succinic dehydrogenase by competitive
inhibition?
(a) malate
(b) oxaloacetate
(c) 𝜶-ketoglutarate
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following is a precursor of amino acid synthesis?
(a) fatty acids
(b) 𝜶-ketoglutaric acid
(c) mineral salts
(d) volatile acids
Answer: (b)
7. Phosphoenol pyruvate is the primary acceptor for CO  fixation in
2

(a) C  plants
3

(b) C  plants
4

(c) C  plants
2

(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (b)
8. Which of the following is the primary acceptor for CO  fixation in C  plants?
2 3

(a) PGA
(b) PEP
(c) RuBP
(d) RMP
Answer: (c)
9. The start condon for protein synthesis is

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(a) AUG
(b) UAA
(c) UAG
(d) UGA
Answer: (a)
10. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in
(a) ribosomes
(b) lysosomes
(c) nucleolus
(d) nucleoplasm
Answer: (c)

Also Check: Types Of Biochemical Pathways

11. The First phase of protein synthesis or translation is
(a) binding of mRNA to the ribosome
(b) anticodon recognition
(c) DNA recognition
(d) tRNA aminoacylation
Answer: (d)
12. The enzyme involved in the opening of DNA double helix during transcription
(a) DNA helicase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) DNA polymerase
Answer: (c)
13. Which of the following cell organelles is the site of glycoprotein and glycolipid
formation?
(a) Peroxisomes
(b) Polysomes
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

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Answer: (c)
14. Glycosidic and peptide bonds are present respectively in
(a) Glycerol, trypsin
(b) Chitin, cholesterol
(c) Inulin, Insulin
(d) Cellulose, lecithin
Answer: (c)
15. Which of the following is an important precursor for purine synthesis?
(a) Leucine
(b) Glutamine
(c) Aspartate
(d) Glycine
Answer: (d)
16. Which of the following is an important precursor for pyrimidine synthesis?
(a) Leucine
(b) Glutamine
(c) Aspartate
(d) Glycine
Answer: (c)
17. Erythrose 4-phosphate is a precursor of which amino acid?
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Phenylalanine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
18. The catecholamines, norepinephrine and epinephrine are derived from
(a) arginine
(b) tyrosine
(c) tryptophan
(d) histidine

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Answer: (b)
19. Phospholipids are
(a) monoglycerides
(b) diglycerides
(c) triglycerides
(d) Any of the above
Answer: (c)
20. Precursor of fatty acid synthesis is
(a) actoacetyl CoA
(b) succinyl CoA
(c) propionyl CoA
(d) acetyl CoA
Answer: (d)

MCQs On Androgens For NEET

In vertebrates, Androgens are hormones regulating the development of male characteristics.
Additionally, they govern the development of sexual characteristics in men such as a change in
voice, facial and body hair growth and more. Testosterone, produced by the male testes is the
most active androgen. The adrenal cortex produces other androgens supporting the functions of
testosterone, comparatively in smaller quantities.
1. As per the prenatal androgen theory, female homosexuality takes place as a result of
(a) underexposure to estrogen
(b) overexposure to prenatal androgen
(c) overexposure to testosterone
(d) underexposure to prenatal androgen
Answer: (b)
2. What is the reason why some human females tend to develop male characteristics such as
degeneration of ovaries and uterus, beard, enlargement of the clitoris?
(a) surgical removal of mammary glands
(b) overproduction of adrenal androgens
(c) damage to the posterior pituitary
(d) overproduction of estrogen and testosterone
Answer: (b)

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3. This is Addison’s disease
(a) Involves a long-term endocrine disorder in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough
steroid hormones
(b) Involves the overproduction of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
(c) Involves the overproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla
(d) Involves the underproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla
Answer: (a)
4. This hormone in males triggers Sertoli cells to synthesize androgen binding globulin
(ABG)
(a) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
(b) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Answer: (d)
5. When chemical signals are produced by entities, it influences the behaviour of other
entities belonging to the same species. This is known as
(a) Steroid
(b) Androgen
(c) Insulin
(d) Pheromone
Answer: (d)
6. This is the effect of GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus
(a) triggers the synthesis of carbohydrates from non-carbohydrates in liver
(b) triggers foetal ejection reflex
(c) triggers secretion of milk in the mammary glands
(d) triggers the synthesis and secretion of androgens
Answer: (d)
7. This condition results in females that secrete large quantities of androgens
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Adrenal hyperplasia
(c) Both of these

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(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
8. The adrenal glands in hyperplasia produce high quantities of this substance
(a) Estrogen
(b) Androgen
(c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Adrenaline
Answer: (b)
9. This conduction is most likely to occur if the developing foetus is not sensitive to the
effects of testosterone and other such androgens
(a) Klienfelters syndrome
(b) Von Willebrand’s disease
(c) Waardenburg’s syndrome
(d) Testicular feminisation syndrome
Answer: (d)
10. The receptor cells in the hypothalamus of the developing males in the womb are
unresponsive to
(a) estrogen
(b) androgen
(c) gonadotropins
(d) testosterone
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Dentition
Dentition tells about the type, number and arrangement of teeth in a species. It also tells about
the development of teeth. Homodont dentition refers to having all the teeth morphologically
similar, whereas heterodont refers to morphologically dissimilar teeth. Most of the non-
mammalian invertebrates have homodont teeth. The teeth of humans are heterodont, diphyodont
and thecodont. Diphyodont means two successive sets of teeth and thecodont refers to the teeth
fixed in the socket of the jaw bone.
1. When teeth are embedded in the jaw bone, it is called
(a) diphyodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont

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(d) all of the above
Answer: (b)
2. An adult human being has a total of 32 permanent teeth, which are of four types. They
are called
(a) lophodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont
(d) diphyodont
Answer: (c)
3. The arrangement of teeth in the upper and lower half of the jaws is represented by
(a) dentology
(b) odontology
(c) enamel
(d) dental formula
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is the hardest substance found in vertebrates?
(a) Chondrin
(b) Dentine
(c) Keratin
(d) Enamel
Answer: (d)
5. Which of the following is the correct dental formula of an adult human being?

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Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following types of teeth are absent in the primary dentition of a human
being?
(a) Canines
(b) Premolars
(c) Incisors
(d) Molars
Answer: (d)
7. Which of the following cells secrete enamel?
(a) Ameloblast
(b) Dontoblast
(c) Odontoblast
(d) Osteoblast
Answer: (a)
8. Which of the following cells secrete dentine?
(a) Chondroblast
(b) Osteoblast
(c) Odontoblast
(d) Elaioblast
Answer: (c)
9. The dentition of amphibians is
(a) heterodont
(b) acrodont
(c) thecodont
(d) lophodont
Answer: (b)
10. Human teeth are
(a) diphyodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont
(d) all of the above

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Answer: (d)

MCQs on Gut For NEET

A healthy gut is a critical part of our gastrointestinal health, which in turn contributes to the
wellness of the entire body and its normal functioning. The gut or the digestive tract or the
digestive system or the gastrointestinal tract is a group of organs which includes esophagus,
mouth, pancreas, stomach, gallbladder, liver, colon, small intestine and rectum. The gut performs
many critical functions which protects and maintains the overall wellness of our bodies, which
starts from the intake and hence absorption of water and nutrients.
1. These are the functional units of food absorption
(a) Peyer’s patches
(b) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(c) Brunner’s glands
(d) Villi
Answer: (d)
2. This is not an enzyme of the digestive system
(a) Enterokinase
(b) Enterogastrone
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Answer: (b)
3. The gastric glands are situated in this layer of the stomach
(a) Submucosa
(b) Mucosa
(c) Muscularis mucosa
(d) Serosa
Answer: (b)
4. Movement of the walls of the gut is known as
(a) Metachronal
(b) Diastole
(c) Peristalsis
(d) Systole
Answer: (c)

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5. The fundic part of the stomach is
(a) absent in frog, present in rabbit
(b) absent in both frog and rabbit
(c) present in both frog and rabbit
(d) absent in rabbit, present in frog
Answer: (a)
6. This food component is affected if the stomach’s pH is 7
(a) Fat
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Protein
Answer: (d)
7. The actual function of the vertebrate stomach is
(a) absorption
(b) storage
(c) digestion
(d) enzyme secretion
Answer: (b)
8. Digestion of proteins is accomplished in
(a) Duodenum
(b) Ileum
(c) Rectum
(d) Stomach
Answer: (b)
9. Name the valve running between the stomach and the oesophagus
(a) pyloric sphincter
(b) ileo-caecal valve
(c) gastric valve
(d) cardiac sphincter
Answer: (d)

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10. This is the common passage for breathing and swallowing food
(a) Glottis
(b) Pharynx
(c) Larynx
(d) Gullet
Answer: (b)

MCQs on Cycas For NEET

Cycas belongs to the family of Cycadaceae. The leaves of Cycas are circinate and dark green in
colour. Seeds of Cycas are seen along the margins of the modified leaves arranged in a whorl
towards the top of the trunk instead of compact cones. Learn some important multiple choice
questions on Cycas for NEET.
1. In Cycas, the fern characteristic is
(a) reticulate venation
(b) circinate venation
(c) taproot system
(d) coralloid roots
Answer: (b)
2. In Cycas, the spermatozoid is
(a) Multiciliated
(b) uniflagellate
(c) non flagellate
(d) biflagellate
Answer: (a)
3. The stem of the Cycas is a source of edible starch known as
(a) sigo
(b) cycas starch
(c) sago
(d) cyco
Answer: (c)
4. The Cycas has
(a) oil ducts

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(b) resin ducts
(c) laticiferous vessels
(d) mucilage ducts
Answer: (d)
5. The largest sperms are found in this plant
(a) Pinus
(b) Sunflower
(c) Mango
(d) Cycas
Answer: (d)
6. __________ is a connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms
(a) Cycadales
(b) Ginkgoales
(c) Coniferales
(d) Gnetales
Answer: (d)
7. In Cycas, the endosperm is a
(a) post fertilization product and diploid
(b) post fertilization product and haploid
(c) pre fertilization product and diploid
(d) pre fertilization product and haploid
Answer: (d)
8. This is considered to be a living fossil
(a) Podocarpus
(b) Zamia
(c) Cycas
(d) Pinus
Answer: (c)
9. The reason why Cycas is not classified under dicotyledons plants even though it has an
embryo with two cotyledons is
(a) it appears as a palm tree

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(b) it possesses megasporophyll
(c) has compound leaves
(d) its ovules are naked
Answer: (d)
10. This is the most commonly occurring ornamental species of Cycas
(a) Cycas revoluta
(b)  Cycas beddomei
(c) Cycas circinalis
(d)  Cycas rumphii
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Sporulation For NEET

Sporulation is the formation of spores during unfavourable conditions from vegetative cells. It is
hence sometimes considered to be an adaptive instinct allowing entities to survive even in the
extreme of conditions either extremely hot or freezing conditions, or even nutrition-deprived
conditions. Solve some questions for NEET on sporulation here.
1. The daughter cells that are formed when the septum forms near the poles of the cell is
known as
(a) daughter cell
(b) macrocell
(c) minicell
(d) microcell
Answer: (c)
2. _____________ is also used to address lag phase
(a) generation time
(b) transitional period
(c) period of initial adjustment
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
3. This can best describe a microbial control protocol inhibiting the growth of molds and
yeasts
(a) fungistatic
(b) bactericidal

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(c) fungicidal
(d) bacteriostatic
Answer: (a)
4. In gram-positive cells, during its reproduction, synthesis of new membrane material is
carried out by this organelle
(a) cytoplasmic membrane
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mesosome
(d) nucleus
Answer: (c)
5. A fold or bleb like formation is seen in this bacteria
(a) E.coli
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Rhodopseudomonas acidophila
(d) Streptococcus faecalis
Answer: (a)
6. This is not a characteristic of a growth curve
(a) every growth curve has 4 distinct stages
(b) Graph numbers of microbes versus time
(c) plotted with logarithmic numbers
(d) under relatively stable environmental conditions, development of microbial population is
seen
Answer: (a)
7. Spores produced endogenously are found in all except this
(a) Rhizopus
(b) Mushroom
(c) Mucor
(d) Albugo
Answer: (b)
8. _____________ is used to refer to the growth of bacteria or microbes
(a) increase in the number of cells

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(b) change in the total population
(c) increase in the mass of an individual entity
(d) increase in the size of an individual entity
Answer: (a)
9. In bacteria, sporulation takes place in this growth phase
(a) phase of decline
(b) log phase
(c) lag phase
(d) stationary phase
Answer: (d)
10. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila follows this mode of reproduction
(a) Budding
(b) Sporulation
(c) Fragmentation
(d) Binary fission
Answer: (a)

MCQs on Cytokinins For NEET

The plant-specific chemical messengers, Cytokinins are found in all plant tissues. It is a plant
hormone influencing the stimulation and growth of cell division. These are synthesized in the
roots and typically are derived from adenine. They are critical in the processes of cell
differentiation and normal growth, which takes place in the fruits and leaves. They pass to these
regions by moving up in the woody tissues – xylem.
1. This causes delay in senescence
(a) ascorbic acid
(b) gibberellins
(c) auxins
(d) cytokinins
Answer: (d)
2. ___________ is a coconut milk factor
(a) cytokinin
(b) morphactin
(c) auxin

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(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
3. Which of these can prevent the falling of leaves
(a) abscisic acid
(b) cytokinins
(c) auxin
(d) florigen
Answer: (b)
4. The first one to synthesize cytokinin was
(a) Thimman and Went
(b) Calvin and Bensan
(c) Letham
(d) Skoog and Miller
Answer: (d)
5. This hormone prevents the crop from falling
(a) ethylene
(b) auxin
(c) gibberellin
(d) cytokinin
Answer: (b)
6. The cambial tissue of Pinus radiata has
(a) cytokinin
(b) gibberellins
(c) auxins
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
7. This is capable of delaying yellowing of leaves
(a) auxins
(b) ABA
(c) cytokinins

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(d) gibberellins
Answer: (c)
8. In a culture medium, the use of an old sample of DNA is associated with the discovery of
which of these?
(a) ABA
(b) Cytokinins
(c) Pantothanic acid
(d) Vitamin K
Answer: (b)
9. The hormone Cytokinin has the main function of
(a) causing dormancy
(b) cell movement
(c) participating in cell division
(d) induction of cell division and delay in senescence
Answer: (d)
10. This plant hormone is responsible for the ripening of fruits
(a) Cytokinins
(b) Auxin
(c) Ethylene
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)

Marasmus MCQs For NEET

A severe form of malnutrition, Marasmus occurs when there is a lack of energy and nutrition,
when one fails to fulfil the basic requirement. It causes wasting or the loss of muscles and body
fat. Growth of a child with marasmus may not be normal as seen in others.
1. Which disorder are kids of age below one year more likely to suffer from if breastfeeding
is replaced by foods low in calories and proteins?
(a) Rickets
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Marasmus
(d) Pellagra
Answer: (c)

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2. The deficiency of protein alone is a symptom of
(a) Protemia
(b) Indigestion
(c) Kwashiorkor
(d) Marasmus
Answer: (c)
3. This is a feature of marasmus and not Kwashiorkor
(a) Edema
(b) Voracious appetite
(c) Hypoalbuminemia
(d) Fatty change in liver
Answer: (b)
4. Marasmus is not characterized by
(a) swelling of limbs
(b) replacing tissue proteins
(c) impaired growth
(d) protein deficiency
Answer: (a)
5. There is a considerable decline in the weight of the body and growth rate along with the
mental faculties getting impaired. Which of these diseases are associated with the
mentioned symptoms?
(a) Epilepsy
(b) Indigestion
(c) Kwashiorkor
(d) Marasmus
Answer: (d)
6. This is a common feature of Kwashiorkor and Marasmus
(a) thinning of limbs
(b) failure of development of brain and growth
(c) wasting of muscles
(d) all the above

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Answer: (d)
7. Which is not a vitamin deficiency disease
(a) Cheilosis
(b) Scurvy
(c) Rickets
(d) Marasmus
Answer: (d)
8. If protein deficiency is seen in a child more than a year old, it may lead to
(a) Deficiency disorder
(b) Protemia
(c) Kwashiorkor
(d) Marasmus
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the incorrect statement about Marasmus
(a) pregnancy in lactation period
(b) protein rich diet replaces mother’s milk
(c) less than one year old infants are affected
(d) simultaneously deficiency of calories and proteins
Answer: (b)
10. Extensive oedema, fat underneath skin, swelling of parts of body are all associated with
(a) Kwashiorkor
(b) Marasmus
(c) Both
(d) Protemia
Answer: (a)

Questions And Answers On Restriction Enzymes For NEET

Restriction endonuclease or restriction enzymes or molecular scissors are proteins produced by
bacteria which cleaves the DNA at particular sites along the molecule. The restriction enzymes
in a bacterial enzyme cleaves foreign DNA and hence, destructs infecting entities. These
enzymes can be isolated from cells of bacteria and utilized in labs to influence DNA fragments,
namely those which encompasses genes. This is why they are the vital tools of recombinant
DNA technology.

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1. For cloning, restriction enzymes with sticky ends are used for
(a) ease of transformation
(b) easy insertion into plasmids of DNA segments from different sources
(c) easy identification of plasmids with antibiotic resistance
(d) easy identification of plasmids having inserts
Answer: (b)
2. The host controlled restriction is a process associated with
(a) gene of interest
(b) bacteria
(c) plasmid
(d) viruses
Answer: (b)
3. How many bases does the sequence which identifies the restriction enzymes contain?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 12
Answer: (c)
4. The restriction enzymes bind to and cut the sequences of DNA which usually are
(a) antiparallel
(b) not symmetrical about the midpoint
(c) symmetrical about the midpoint
(d) random sequences
Answer: (c)
5. In bacteria, the restriction phenomena occurs naturally as
(a) bacteria produces enzyme
(b) for survival
(c) for efficient cloning
(d) destruction of DNA of the bacterium
Answer: (a)

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6. Restriction enzymes are isolated from
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Protozoa
(d) Bacteria
Answer: (d)
7. Joining and cutting DNA are these techniques
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) DNA degradation
(c) DNA manipulation
(d) DNA replication
Answer: (c)
8. For the production of a DNA copy, the enzyme which uses RNA is called
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) DNA ligase
(d) reverse transcriptase
Answer: (b)
9. This was the first restriction endonuclease that was discovered
(a) BamHI
(b) EcoRI
(c) HindIII
(d) HindII
Answer: (d)
10. This is not a cloning factor
(a) pUC19
(b) SV40
(c) EST
(d) M13
Answer: (c)

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MCQs on Climate For NEET
Climate change has been a growing concern. As specified by the WMO (World Meteorological
Organization), classical duration to describe a climate is 30 years. It can be summed up as the
average weather of a particular region over a time period. Climate describes the average range of
temperature in various seasons. Given below are some important questions with answers on the
topic – Climate.
1. In terms of efficiency, the most potent greenhouse gas is
(a) N O
2

(b) CH 4

(c) C O
2

(d) CFC
Answer: (d)
2. This ecological factor is the strongest determinant of different biomes
(a) wind and soil
(b) precipitation and temperature
(c) wind and light
(d) humidity and pH
Answer: (b)
3. On the ozone layer, the CFC has continuing effect as
(a) Reactions use up by the Cl atoms formed by them leading to the degradation of ozone
(b) their efficient absorption by water vapours of the atmosphere
(c) In reactions, the Cl atoms formed by them serve as catalysts leading to the degradation of
ozone
(d) they are constantly produced in increasing quantities, globally
Answer: (c)
4. Regions having severe and long winters and growing season consists of a few months of
summers represent
(a) Tundra ecosystem
(b) Taiga ecosystem
(c) Savannah ecosystem
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

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5. This is the wavelength of infrared radiations
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) longer
(d) shorter
Answer: (c)
6. This is not one of the possible adverse effects of the phenomena of global warming
(a) extraordinary weather patterns
(b) retreat of glaciers
(c) an increase of UVB radiations
(d) rise in the sea levels
Answer: (c)
7. Identify the phenomena taking place in this statement – Climate system is affected due to
an increasingly large quantity of gas molecules absorbing thermal infrared radiations.
(a) alpha radiations
(b) ozone gases
(c) beta radiations
(d) greenhouse gases
Answer: (d)
8. The reason why presence of ample carbon dioxide causes an increase in the greenhouse
effect is because carbon dioxide
(a) reduces atmospheric pressure
(b) precipitates atmospheric dust
(c) is not opaque to infrared rays
(d) is opaque to infrared rays
Answer: (d)
9. Identify the incorrect statement
(a) Eutrophication is a natural process seen in fresh water bodies
(b) Greenhouse effect occurs naturally
(c) In the upper part of the atmosphere, ozone causes harm to animals
(d) In tropical areas, most of the forests have been lost

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Answer: (c)
10. The phenomena instrumental in eliminating atmospheric carbon dioxide is
(a) burning of fossil fuels
(b) deforestation
(c) photosynthesis
(d) lightning
Answer: (c)

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