Interview Question Bank

Technical Questions and Answer

1. What is HAT?

 Height Above Touchdown. The height of the Decision height or Minimum Descent Altitude above
the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone of the runway. HAT is published on
instrument approach charts in conjunction with all straight-in minimums. (AIM)
2. What is MDA?
 Minimum Descent Altitude. The lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which
descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a
standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided. (non-
precision approaches) (AIM)
3. What is MVA?
 Minimum Vectoring Altitude. The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a
radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed
approaches. This altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the MEA,
and the charts are normally only available to controllers. (AIM)
4. What is RCLM?
 Runway Centerline Marking (FAR)
5. What does NOPT mean?
 It means no procedure turn authorized. (FAR)
6. What is Route MORA?
 Route Minimum Off Route Altitude. This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The Route MORA
altitude provides reference point clearance within 10nm of the route centerline and end fixes.
Route MORA values clear all reference points by 1000’ in areas where the highest reference
points are 5,000’ MSL or lower. Route MORA values clear all reference points by 2,000’ in areas
where the highest reference points are 5,001’ MSL or higher. (AIM)
7. What is Grid MORA?
 Grid Minimum Off Route Altitude. An altitude derived by Jeppesen or provided by State
Authorities. The Grid MORA altitude provides terrain and manmade structure clearance within the
section outlined by the latitude and longitude lines. MORA does not provide for NAVAID signal
coverage or communications coverage. Grid MORA values 14,000’ MSL and below are green.
Values greater than 14,000’ are maroon.

o Jeppesen values clear all terrain and manmade structures by 1,000’ in areas where the
highest elevations are 5,000’ MSL or lower. MORA values clear all terrain and manmade
structures by 2,000’ in areas where the highest elevations are 5,001’ MSL or higher.

o State provided values provide 1,000’ obstacle clearance in non-mountainous terrain, and
2,000’ obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain. (AIM)
8. What is MAA?
 Maximum Authorized Altitude. A published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or
flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. (AIM)
9. What is MSA?
  Minimum Safe Altitude. Altitude depicted on an instrument approach chart and identified as the
minimum safe altitude that provides a 1000’ obstacle clearance within a 25nm radius from the
navigational facility upon which the MSA is predicated. If the radius limit is other than 25nm, it is
stated. This altitude is for emergency use only and does not necessarily guarantee NAVAID
reception. When the MSA is divided into sectors, with each sector a different altitude, the altitudes
in these sectors are referred to as "minimum sector altitudes". (AIM)
10. What is MOCA?
 Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude. The lowest published altitude in effect between radio
fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance
requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal
coverage only within 22nm or 25sm of a VOR. (AIM)
11. What is MRA?
 Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.
(AIM)
12. On an IFR flight plan, if the flight time to the destination is 45 min and destination to alternate is 30
min. What is the minimum fuel required in minutes?
 45+30+45min after alternate = 2+00
13. On the takeoff minimums you see: STD / Adequate Vis Ref / CL or RCLM, any RVR out, other two
req. What do they mean?
 STD: Standard takeoff minimums (50RVR - 1sm or 24RVR - ½sm),

 Adequate vis ref: shown as a reminder that at least one of the following visual aids must be
available:

- Operative High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL)

- Operative Centerline Lights (CL)

- Runway Centerline Markings (RCLM)

- In circumstances when none of the

above visual aids are available, visibility
or RVV 1/4sm may still be used
provided other markings or runway
lighting provide pilots with adequate
visual reference to identify the takeoff
surface and maintain directional control
throughout the take-off run.

 CL or RCLM, any RVR out, other two req: Operative Touchdown Zone and Rollout RVR reporting
systems serving the runway to be used, both of which are controlling, or three RVR reporting
systems serving the runway to be used, all of which are controlling. However, if one of the three
RVR reporting systems has failed, a take-off is authorized providing two RVR values are at or
above the appropriate take-off minimums. (Jeppesen)
14. What are the standard takeoff minimums (Part 91)?
 Visibility RVR50 or 1sm (2 engine aircraft); Visibility RVR24 or ½sm (3 or more engine aircraft). (FAR)
15. When do we need a takeoff alternate?
 When the takeoff weather is below landing minimums prescribed for the certificate holder. (FAR)
16. How far away can a takeoff alternate be?
  2 – Engine aircraft: not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in
still air with one engine inoperative.

 3 – Engine aircraft: not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed
in still air with one engine inoperative. (FAR)
17. What are the filing weather minimums for an alternate airport?
 If there is an approach established under part 97, then the alternate minimums associated with
that approach, if none are established, then 800/2 (non-precision), 600/2 (precision) (Part 91), if
there is no part 97 approach, then weather allowing descent from the MEA and approach and
landing under basic VFR. (FAR)
18. What constitutes a ceiling?
 Any broken, overcast or obscuration not classified as thin or partial.
19. If the current altimeter setting is 28.40, what is the lowest usable flight level?
 FL200
20. What speed restriction is there below Class B airspace?
 No person may operate an aircraft underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport
or in a VFR corridor designated through such an area at an indicated airspeed of more than
200kts. (FAR)
21. What is the number in parenthesis next to the MDA on an approach plate?
 HAA (circling approaches) or HAT (straight-in approaches). (Jeppesen)
22. What is a MEA and what does it look like? (find one on a chart)
 MEA (Minimum Enroute Altitude). Lowest published altitude between radio fixes, which assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between
those fixes. It provides for 1,000’ of obstruction clearance in non-mountainous terrain and 2,000’
of obstruction clearance in mountainous terrain within 4nm either side of an airway. (AIM)
23. How can you tell what the MSA is based or centered on?
 It will say so next to the MSA circle on the approach plate. (Jeppesen)
24. What class of airspace are the jet routes in?
 Class A. (AIM)
25. Where are changeover points located?
 The changeover point is located midway between two navigation facilities or as specified by the
change over point symbol. (AIM)
26. What is the difference between a solid black triangle and an unfilled triangle?
 The solid triangle represents a compulsory reporting point in a non-radar environment and the
other is not compulsory. (Jeppesen)
27. How can you tell if there is a MEA change at a fix?
 ---l fix l--- (Jeppesen)
28. What is 14,400T along a route?
 The "T" at end signifies that the altitude is a Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA). It
meets obstacle clearance requirements (1,000’ non-mountainous / 2,000’ mountainous) for the
entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within
22nm of a VOR. (Jeppesen)
29. What does the "a" mean on an altitude along an airway?
  The "a" at the end of the altitude denotes a Route MORA. (Jeppesen)
30. What would indicate the highest altitude allowed on a route segment?
 MAA (AIM)
31. What direction are standard turns in holding?
 Right turns are standard and Left turns are non-standard in holding. (AIM)
32. At what point during an ILS approach are you on final?
 At the published glideslope intercept or when ATC directs a lower than published glideslope
intercept altitude, it is the resultant actual point of glideslope intercept. (AIM)
33. Where is the FAF for a LOC approach?
 The FAF is a Maltese cross symbol on the approach plate. (Jeppesen)
34. What are the three types of Hydroplaning?
 Dynamic – 9 x square root of tire pressure

 Reverted Rubber – Skidding on steam pocket

 Viscous – Skidding on painted or slippery surface

35. Prior to the FAF, you are informed that the weather has gone below minimums. What do you do?
 Continue the approach ground track at or above the MDA and execute a missed approach at the
missed approach point. (AIM)
36. After intercepting glideslope on an ILS you are told the weather is below minimums. What do you
do?
 Continue the approach to DH and if the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a
position to land using normal procedures, land. (FAR)
37. Calculate a VDP for an approach with a HAT of 450’ and FAF to MAP is 1+45?
 Timing method: HAT x 10% = seconds to be subtracted from timing of FAF to MAP. 450 x 10% =
45sec. 1+45 – 45sec. = 1min. Execute missed approach 1 minute after passing the FAF.
38. Going 390ktas with a 30kt tailwind, how far will you go in 40 minutes?
 390 + 30 = 420kgs or 7nm/min. 7nm/min x 40min = 280nm
39. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within how many hours after
consumption of alchohol?
 8 hours (FAR)
40. What is the Mode C Veil?
 The airspace within 30nm of generally primary airports within Class B airspace areas, from the
surface upward to 10,000’msl. Unless otherwise authorized by air traffic control, aircraft operating
within this airspace must be equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
having Mode C capability. (AIM)
41. What is Class C airspace?
 Generally that airspace surface to 4,000’ above airport elevation charted in msl surrounding those
airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that
have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. (AIM)
42. For operations off established routes from 18,000’msl to FL450, you should not use (H) NAVAIDs
more than how many miles apart?
 260nm (AIM)
43. When may controllers authorize a contact approach?
 Must be requested by the pilot.

 Reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1sm.

 Approach will be made to an airport having a standard or special instrument approach procedure.

 Approved separation is applied between these, IFR and special VFR aircraft. (AIM)
44. In Class B and C airspace, can an ATC controller request airspeeds greater than 250kias below
10,000’msl.
 Yes (AIM)
45. What is a microburst?
 Small-scale intense downdrafts, which on reaching the surface, spread outward in all directions
from the center. This causes the presence of both vertical and horizontal wind shears that can be
extremely hazardous to all types and categories of aircraft. Due to their small size, short duration,
and the fact that they can occur over areas without surface precipitation, microbursts are not
easily detectable with weather radar or LLWAS. (AIM)
46. With a dump rate of 2500#/min., how long will it take to dump 30,000#'s?
 (2.5K/min = 5k every 2min), 30/5=6, 6 x 2min = 12min
47. How far will you travel in a descent from FL330 at 300kts to 17,000’ at 250kts?
 (3 to 1 rule) 33 – 17 = 16,000’ x 3 = 48nm + 5nm to slow 50kts = 53nm
48. What is "MCA V190 13000NE" next to a fix?
 Minimum crossing altitude at fix of 13000’ traveling northeast along V 190. A climb must be
executed to cross the fix at or above this altitude when traveling in that direction. (Jeppesen)
49. When do you switch NAVAIDs on an airway?
 At the designated change over point or halfway if none is depicted. (Jeppesen)
50. Can you shoot the RWY 22 ILS DME with DME inoperative?
 No, with DME in approach name, it is required. (Jeppesen)
51. What would be a PDP for a 360 HAT with both the VOR/DME and MAP at the threshold?
 360/300 for 3 degree slope =1.2 DME
52. If you lose communications what route will you fly?
 By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;

 If vectored, from the point of failure direct to fix, route or airway specified in the vector clearance;

 In absence of a route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance;

 If none of the above, then by the route filed in flight plan. (AIM)
53. What does a flashing white Air Traffic Control Tower Light Gun Signal mean?
 When on the ground, return to starting point on the airport.

 When inflight, it is not applicable. (AIM)

54. If you lose communications (IMC), what altitude will you fly?
  The highest of the following altitudes for the route/segment being flown: that assigned by ATC,
the MEA, or that advised may be expected in a further clearance. (AIM)
55. What are your procedures if you lose communications in holding?
 When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent
and approach as close as possible to the EFC time if one has been received, or if one has not
been received, as close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed or amended (with
ATC) ETE.

 If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the
EFC time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance
limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and
approach as close as possible to the ETA as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC)
ETE. (AIM)
56. How can we find out if a runway is grooved?
 Look on the back of the Jeppesen airfield diagram, at the additional runway information section.
57. What does VASI stand for?
 Visual Approach Slope Indicator. (AIM)
58. Describe the indications of a three-bar VASI.
 The top two rows of lights are for high cockpit aircraft, and the lower two rows are for everyone
else.

 Red over red = below glideslope

 Red over white = on glideslope

 White over white = above glideslope. (AIM)

59. What does PAPI stand for?
 Precision Approach Path Indicator. (AIM)
60. What is the PAPI on glideslope indication?
 The right two lights are red and the left two lights are white. (AIM)
61. What does VASI-R indicate?
 VASI is located on the right side of the runway. (AIM)
62. Where is the ILS MAP?
 Decision Height. (AIM)
63. Describe runway lighting.
 Runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways amber replaces white on the last
2,000’ or ½ the runway, whichever is less. The departure end lights are red. The approach end
lights are green. Centerline lights are white until 3,000’ remaining, then they alternate red and
white for 2,000’ and are then red for the last 1,000’. (AIM)
64. Describe taxiway lighting.
 Taxiway edge lights are blue

 Taxiway centerlines will be green if installed. (AIM)

65. What does ODALS stand for?
 Omni-Directional Approach Light System. (AIM)
66. What are REIL?
 Runway End Identifier Lights, commonly referred to as threshold strobes. (AIM)
67. What is a MEA gap, and what does it look like on a chart?
 A MEA gap is established when a gap exists in guaranteed NAVAID signal coverage. It looks like
a solid rectangle that is torn in half. (AIM/Jeppesen)
68. With good communications, and upon arrival at your clearance limit you still have received no
further clearance, what do you do?
 If there is no published holding pattern, enter a standard holding pattern at the clearance limit.
Aircraft altitude determines the length of the legs and holding airspeed. (AIM)
69. What is Class A airspace?
 Generally that airspace from 18,000’msl up to and including FL600. (AIM)
70. What are the requirements for a visual approach?
 An approach conducted on an IFR flight plan, clear of clouds, and the pilot must, at all times,
have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight. The approach must be authorized and
under ATC control. The reported weather at airport must be at least 1,000’ and 3nm visibility.
(AIM)
71. What is Class B airspace?
 Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000’msl surrounding the nation’s busiest airports.
The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consist of a surface
area and two or more layers (can resemble an upside down wedding cake), and is designed to
contain all published instrument approach procedures. ATC clearance, two-way radio
communications, a transponder with Mode C capability and a private pilot’s license are all
required to fly in Class B airspace, and for IFR flight, a VOR or TACAN is also required. (AIM)
72. When are you expected to begin slowing prior to a clearance limit if further clearance has not been
received?
 When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and clearance beyond the fix has not
been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the aircraft will cross the fix,
initially, at or below the maximum holding speed. (AIM)
73. What are the critical phases of flight?
 Taxi, takeoff, landing and all other flight operations other than cruise flight conducted below
10,000’. (FAR)
74. What would the First Officer have to do if the Captain had to leave the flight deck and use the
restroom while the aircraft is cruising at FL
260?
 If one pilot leaves the flight deck when operating at altitudes above 25,000’msl, the remaining
pilot at the controls shall put on and use an approved oxygen mask until the other pilot returns.
(FAR)
75. When cleared for an approach and not established on that approach procedure, when can you
descend?
 Maintain the last assigned altitude unless a different altitude is assigned by ATC, or until the
aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
(FAR)
76. What signifies the highest point on the approach plate chart?
 The elevation with a large arrow pointing to it. (Jeppesen)
77. What calls are required entering and exiting holding?
  Report the time and altitude upon entering holding

 Report leaving holding. (AIM)

78. State the maximum holding airspeeds?
 200kts: MHA – 6000’msl

 230kts: 6,001’msl-14,000’msl

 265kts: >14,001’msl (AIM)

79. How do you determine holding leg lengths?
 <14,000’msl, 1 min inbound to the fix

 >14,001’msl, 1 ½ min inbound to the fix. (AIM)

80. If DME is out on a LOC approach, how might you determine the MAP?
 Timing from the FAF. (Jeppesen)
81. Are stopways included in runway length for Jeppesen runway descriptions?
 No. Stopways and overruns are not included in runway length. (Jeppesen)
82. If ground control clears you to taxi to the active runway, can you cross that runway to get to the hold
short?
 No. (AIM)
83. On takeoff what will the runway centerline lighting system look like approaching the departure end of
runway?
 Runway centerline lights are white until 3000’ remaining; alternating red and white until 1000’
remaining; then all red. (AIM)
84. What denotes an ILS critical area?
 Yellow ladder like symbol on the taxiway. (AIM)
85. When is an ILS critical area in effect?
 When the weather is less than 800/2. (AIM)
86. What does RAB07 mean in a METAR?
 Rain began time 07 past the hour. (AIM)
87. What does AO2 mean in the remarks section of a METAR?
 The type of automated station, in this case, automated station with precipitation discriminator.
(AIM)
88. When will braking action advisories be placed in effect?
 When tower controllers have received runway braking action reports which include the terms poor
or nil, or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway
braking conditions. (AIM)
89. What are the recommended thunderstorm avoidance criteria?
 Avoid thunderstorms in altitude by 1,000’ for every 10kts of wind at altitude

 Avoid by at least 20nm on the upwind side. (AIM)

90. At what altitude are you required to have operable DME?
 You must have DME to operate >FL240. (FAR)
91. What are the approach categories?
 Cat A: less than 91kts

 Cat B: 91kts-120kts

 Cat C: 121kts-140kts

 Cat D: 141kts-165kts

 Cat E: 166kts and greater. (AIM)

92. How is an aircraft’s category determined?
 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. (AIM)
93. How do you determine what the approach light configuration is for an airport?
 Look on the back of the airfield diagram to determine approach lighting configuration for each
runway.
94. What does the designation (H) next to the VOR indicate?
 High altitude designated VOR service volume. 18,000’ through 45,000’ = 130nm (AIM)
95. How can you determine pressure altitude inflight?
 Set 29.92inHg in the altimeter
96. What is density altitude?
 It is pressure altitude corrected for deviations from standard day temperature
97. What is the service volume for a (T) designated VOR?
 1,000’ – 12,000’ = 25nm (AIM)
98. What is a displaced threshold?
 A displaced threshold is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated
beginning of the runway. It reduces the length of the runway available for landings. The portion of
the runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings
from the opposite direction. (AIM)
99. What is HIWAS?
 HIWAS (Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service) broadcasts SIGMETS, AIRMETS, and
PIREPS continuously over VOR frequencies. (AIM)
100. How far will you travel in 10min at 320ktas with a 50kt headwind?
 320 – 50 = 270kgs or 4.5nm/min x 10min = 45nm
101. Convert 9OC to F.
 (C x 2) – 10% + 32 = F

 9 x 2 = 18, (18 – 2 = 16), 16 + 32 = 48OF

102. When turning from a tailwind to a headwind, what will happen to your IAS?
 Nothing, only the groundspeed changes.
103. What is significant about a letter in a VOR approach designation, ie. VOR-A?
 The use of an alphabetical designation indicates the procedure does not meet the criteria for
straight-in landing minimums (will be circling). (Jeppesen)
104. If airfield temp is 60OF, what is the probable freezing level?
  [(F – 32) + 10%] /2 = C then – 2O/1000'

 60 – 32 = 28 + 3 = 31 / 2 = 15.5OC = 7,750’
105. Doing 310ktas with a 50kt tailwind, how long will it take to go 75 miles?
 310 + 50 = 360 = 6nm/min 75nm / 6nm/min = 12min 30sec
106. If you arc from the 092 radial northwest on the 12 DME arc to intercept the 332 radial. How many
miles will you travel on the arc?
 At 12 DME = 5 radials/nm for 120 radials, 120 / 5 = 24nm.
107. You weigh 182,000lbs and need to dump to 155,000lbs. With a dump rate of 3000lbs/minute how
long will this take?
 182,000lbs – 155,000lbs = 27,000lbs. 27,000lbs / 3,000lb/min = 9min.
108. How long will it take to dump 60,000lbs of fuel at a rate of 2,500lbs/min?
 2,500 x 2 = 5,000 , 60,000 / 5,000 = 12 x 2 = 24min or

 2,500 x 4 = 10,000, 60,000 / 10,000 = 6 x 4 = 24min

109. You need to descend to cross a fix at 5,000’ from FL250, doing 300kgs. At 4,000’/min ROD, how
far out must you start the descent to cross the fix at 5,000’?
 25,000’ – 5,000’ = 20,000’. 20,000’ / 4,000’/min = 5 min. 300kgs = 5nm/min. 5min x 5nm/min =
25nm from fix.
110. You need to loose 20,000’ in 5min. What rate of descent is required?
 4,000’/min.
111. You are going 360ktas with a 60kts headwind. How long will it take you to go 75nm?
 15min
112. You traveled 315 miles in 45 minutes. What is you speed in nm/min?
 315 / 3 = 105, 315 + 105 = 420kts = 7nm/min.
113. You are going 150ktas with no wind, how long does it take to travel 10nm?
 4min
114. What’s the reciprocal 260?
 080
115. What is the reciprocal of 102?
 282
116. What is the reciprocal of 012?
 192
117. What are the three classes of aircraft?
 Heavy (>225,000lbs), Large (>41,000lbs – 225,000), Small (41,000lbs and less) (AIM)
118. Approach states the altimeter is 29.95, but you accidentally set 28.95. What does the altimeter
read at landing, and will you touchdown before or after you think you should?
 If your altimeter is set below the local setting, then you will read lower than the actual altitude and
in this case by 1,000’, and will land after you think you should.
119. You are at FL450 and need to descend to FL250, with 2,000’/min ROD, how far will you travel in
the descent at 480kts?
  45k – 25k = 20k, 20 / 2 = 10min. (480 = 8nm/min) 10min x 8nm/min = 80nm.
120. Traveling at 8.5nm/min, how far will you go in 30min?
 8.5 = 510kts. 510 / 2 = 255nm in 30min.
121. Descend from FL350 to FL190 with a 2000’/min rate of descent, how long will it take?
 35k – 19k = 16k. 16 / 2 = 8min.
122. At 240ktas with no wind, how long will it take to travel 390nm?
 240kts = 4nm/min, 390nm / 4nm/min = 97min 30sec.
123. You need to descend from FL290 to 14,000’ at 2,500’/min. How long will it take?
 15,000’ / 2,500’/min = 6min (2.5 x 2 = 5, 15 / 5 = 3, 3 x 2 = 6min)
124. If you need to dump 20,000lbs of fuel at 6,000lb/min, how long will it take?
 20 / 6 = 3 + 20.
125. Reciprocal of 139?
 319
126. You need to dump 35,000lbs of fuel at a rate of 2500lbs/min. How long will it take?
 14min (2.5 x 2 = 5, 35 / 5 = 7, 7 x 2 = 14) or (35 / 2.5 = 14)
127. Going 320ktas with a 50kt headwind, how long will it take to go 90nm?
 20min
128. You are traveling at 360ktas with a 60kt tailwind. How long will it take to travel 455 miles?
 360 + 60 = 420kgs = 7nm/min. 455 / 7 = 65min
129. If you burn 9,000lb/hr, how much fuel will you burn in a 1 + 20 flight?
 (Proportions) 3k per 20min, 9,000lbs + 3,000lbs = 12,000lbs
130. If you go 375nm in 45min, what is your ground speed?
 375 / 3 = 125, 375 + 125 = 500kgs
131. Going 580ktas with a 40kt headwind, how long will it take to go 360nm?
 580 – 40 = 540kgs = 9nm/min, 360 / 9 = 40 minutes.
132. On a standard day what altitude would we encounter the freezing level?
 (– 2OC /1,000’) 15OC to 0OC = 15, 15 / 2 = 7.5 x 1,000’ = 7,500’
133. Assume you are burning 8,000lbs/hr. On an IFR flight, what is the fuel required for a 1+30 trip, with
an alternate being 0+30 minutes away?
 8,000lb/hr x 1.5hr = 12,000lbs; + 4,000lbs (to fly to the alternate); + 6,000lbs (45 minutes of flying
time). 12,000 + 4,000 + 6,000 = 22,000lbs.
134. Going 300kts, you need to descend from 33K to 10K and slow to 250kts. How far out do we need
to start our descent?
 33 – 10 = 23 x 3 = 69, + 1nm / 10kts of decel = 69 + 5 = 74nm.
135. You traveled 360nm in 45 minutes. What is your GS?
 (Proportions) 360 / 3 = 120. 120 x 4 = 480kts.
136. Flying at 440kts, how far do you fly in 45 min?
 (Proportions) 440 / 4 = 110, 110 x 3 = 330nm
137. Convert 12O C to F.
 54
138. What is a CSD (Constant Speed Drive)?
 Component that converts the variable RPM produced by the engine to a constant RPM for the
generator.
139. What is a T/R?
 Transformer / Rectifier
140. What does the Transformer / Rectifier do?
 Transforms 115v to 28v and Rectifies AC to DC power.
141. Why do aircraft use AC power?
 Allows smaller motors and wires thereby reducing weight due to the higher voltage and low
current of the AC system.
142. What is a battery for on an aircraft?
 A/C backup in the event of generator failure of when the generators are inoperative.
143. What is the purpose of a slat?
 High-energy air flows from under the wing to energize the boundary layer which then delays a
stall to a higher angle of attack than would normal.
144. Why do some aircraft have two sets of ailerons?
 For increased maneuverability during slow speed flight.
145. When are outboard ailerons designed to work?
 Outboard ailerons are designed to work at slower speeds for increased controllability and
maneuverability, but the mechanization on platforms may differ.
146. What is the function of a fuse plug?
 Prevent tire blowout.
147. What is a cabin outflow valve?
 The valve that allows internal pressure to escape, thereby controlling aircraft pressurization. The
valve is open on the ground gradually closes on a schedule as the aircraft climbs.
148. What does $ mean in a METAR?
 Maintenance needed on the system.
149. What is an ACM?
 Air Cycle Machine (ACM)
150. How does an Air Cycle Machine work?
 An air cycle machine mixes both hot and cold air to regulate the temperature of the cabin. Before
the air is cooled, it is routed through the primary heat exchanger to be cooled by outside air. The
air then flows to the air cycle machine compressor. The compressor increases both air pressure
and temperature. The air then goes to secondary heat exchanger and is cooled again. The air is
then directed to the ACM turbine resulting in even more heat loss as it helps to power the turbine
and in doing so it expands losing more heat. Lastly, the now cold air is routed to a water
separator that removes moisture prior to the air entering the cabin. It is at this point that the air
mix valve regulates the flow of both hot and cold air to maintain the desired temperature.
151. What are the purposes of a hydraulic accumulator?
  Store hydraulic pressure

 Protect system against pressure surges

152. What has occurred if the accumulator pressure gauge reads ‘0’ pressure?
 The accumulator has lost it’s precharge.
153. On climbout there is a windshear that results in a tailwind decreasing to calm wind. What are the
indications?
 Same as an increase in headwind. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. (AIM)
154. What is the equation for Mach?
 M = TAS / Speed of Sound
155. If you conduct a constant Mach climb, what will happen to TAS?
 TAS will decrease (as temperature decreases, so must the TAS to maintain Mach)
156. What is VFE?
 Maximum flap extended speed. (AIM)
157. What if VEF?
 Speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail. (AIM)
158. What is V1?
 It is the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action to stop the
airplane within the accelerate-stop distance. It also is the minimum speed in the takeoff, following
a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the
required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. (sometimes Takeoff
Decision Speed) (AIM)
159. What is V2?
 Takeoff Safety Speed. A referenced airspeed obtained after lift-off at which the required one-
engine inoperative climb performance can be achieved. (AIM)
160. What is VA?
 Design maneuvering speed (AIM)
161. What is VNE?
 Never-exceed speed (AIM)
162. What is VMO?
 Maximum operating limit speed (AIM)
163. What is wind shear?
 Wind shear is a change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance, either horizontally or
vertically. (AIM)
164. What causes wind shear, and how is it reported?
 Windshear is normally associated with strong temperature inversions, surface obstructions,
thunderstorms or frontal activity.

 PIREPS, LLWAS, SIGMETS. (AIM)

165. What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?
 Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; fly from that airport to the alternate
airport (if required), and fly after that for 45min at normal cruising speed. (FAR)
166. What is QFE?
 Height above airport based on local station pressure. (AIM)
167. What concerns you about light winds and a 3O dewpoint spread?
 High potential for fog.
168. What is QNE?
 The barometric pressure used for the standard altimeter setting: 29.92inHg or 1013.2 millibars
(AIM)
169. What types of fog are there?
 Advection – warm air passing over cool ground

 Radiation – cooling ground cools the air over it

 Upslope – warm moist air cools moving upslope

170. What is QNH?
 Altitude based on local station pressure. (AIM)
171. What is needed for frost to form?
 Sublimation. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the
surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
172. What is required for thunderstorm formation?
 Unstable lapse rate

 Warm moist air

 Lifting action
173. What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?
 Cumulus

 Mature

 Dissipating
174. What is a deboost valve?
 A deboost valve is a component installed in the brake lines that reduces the aircraft’s hydraulic
system pressure and increases the volume of fluid going to the brake system.
175. What is a relay?
 A relay is a small magnetically operated switch used to control high-current systems.
176. What is an inverter?
 Changes 28v DC power to 115v AC power.
177. What is the output of a generator when the GCR is open?
 Residual voltage.
178. What are ground spoilers for?
 Spoilers increase drag and reduce lift placing more of the aircraft’s weight on the tires, making
brakes more effective and enhancing ground controllability.
179. What are the primary flight controls?
  Aileron

 Elevator

 Rudder
180. How is an aircraft pressurized?
 The air conditioning packs, for the most part, continuously pump air into the aircraft’s cabin. The
cabin outflow valve will vent all pressure in excess of a preset value.
181. What is the purpose of the fuel/oil heat exchanger?
 The fuel/oil heat exchanger cools engine oil and can aid in heating fuel to prevent ice formation.
182. What is the purpose of the cabin outflow valve?
 The purpose of the outflow valve is to vent or release all pressure above a preset amount
allowing control of cabin differential pressure.
183. What is anti-skid used for?
 Aid braking in wet, icy or otherwise slippery runway conditions.
184. How does anti-skid work?
 The anti skid system monitors each wheels deceleration. If one slows too rapidly, the system
reduces brake pressure to that wheel until its rate of deceleration is normal. Anti-skid systems are
normally automatically disabled below about 20mph – 30 mph so that the aircraft can be stopped.
185. What does the "D" mean in the VOR information box?
 Paired DME capability (Jeppesen)
186. What is a Diode and what does it do?
 A Diode is a component on a circuit board allowing electricity to flow in only one direction.
187. What color is the left wing navigation light?
 The left wing navigation light is red and the right navigation light is green. (AIM)
188. When you check a hydraulic accumulator pressure gauge during preflight, what is shown?
 Nitrogen or air pre-charge pressure.
189. How can you tell if a generator is at its proper RPM
 You may check the generator frequency gauge, as that is a representation of generator speed.
190. What effect will a forward moving CG have on an aircraft?
 An aircraft’s VMC will increase

 Stalling angle of attack will be reached at a higher speed.

 Cruise speeds will be slower

191. What are the airspeed limitations associated with Class C and D airspace?
 Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below
2,500’ above the surface within 4nm of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace area at an
indicated airspeed of more than 200kts. (AIM)
192. What are the airspeed limits in Class B airspace?
 Airspeed shall be at or below 250kias when below 10,000’msl, or as assigned by ATC, there are
no other airspeed restrictions when inside Class B airspace. (AIM)
193. What does a flashing red and green light from the control tower mean?
 Exercise extreme caution for both, on the ground and in the air. (AIM)
194. What should you be concerned about in cold temperatures with regards to fuel?
 Gel formation in fuel due to the freezing of water contained in the fuel.
195. What are two methods that fuel can be heated?
 Engine bleed air

 Fuel oil heat exchanger

196. What do you do if you go IMC while circling to land?
 If visual reference is lost while circling-to-land from an instrument approach, the missed approach
specified for that particular procedure must be followed. To become established on the missed
approach course, the pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and
continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. (AIM)
197. What is the most important instrument during start?
 Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) or Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).
198. What gauges would indicate a hot start?
 EGT or TIT
199. What is a vortex generator?
 It is an aerodynamic surface that delays airflow separation from the airfoil surface by introducing
high-energy airflow from above the boundary layer, down into the lower energy boundary layer.
This can delay shock-induced boundary layer separation approaching M CRIT as well as help
maintain proper airflow over tail control surfaces during flight at high angles of attack.
200. Why are generators wired in parallel?
 This is done to allow generators to share the electrical load as well as to provide a backup in the
event generators are lost or malfunctioning.
201. What are the tolerances for a VOR check?
 They are required in the preceding 30 days. Should an error in excess of +/- 4 O be indicated
through use of a ground check or dual system check, or +/- 6O using the airborne check, IFR flight
shall not be attempted without correcting the source of the error. (AIM)
202. What is the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC)?
 MAC is the average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.
203. When both the pilot and copilot are at the controls, is a crewmember of an aircraft required to wear
a quick-donning type oxygen mask when cruising at FL410 (Part 121)?
 No. When operating at flight altitudes above FL250, one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall
at all times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed and supplying oxygen, except that the
one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below FL410 if each flight
crewmember on flight deck duty has a quick-donning type oxygen mask that has been shown and
can be put on and used within 5 seconds. (FAR)
204. What are the oxygen mask usage requirements while cruising at FL430 (Part 121)?
 One pilot must always wear an oxygen mask when operating above FL410. (FAR)
205. What is a movement area?
 The runways, taxiways, and other areas of an airport/heliport which are utilized for taxiing,
takeoff, and landing of aircraft, exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. At those
 airports/heliports with a tower, specific approval for entry onto the movement area must be
obtained from ATC. (AIM)
206. What is a non-movement area?
 Taxiways and apron (ramp) not under the control of ATC. (AIM)
207. If you travel 330nm in 45min, how fast are you going?
 Proportions: 110nm every 15min = 440kts
208. If you travel 217nm in 30min, and have a 10kt headwind, what is your TAS?
 217 x 2 = 434kgs + 10kt headwind = 444ktas
209. If you travel 130nm in 20min, what is your speed?
 130 x 3 = 390kts
210. If you burn 6,000#/hour. How much fuel would be used in a 1+22 flight?
 6,000 / 60 = 100#/min. 22 x 100 = 2,200. 6,000 + 2,200 = 8,200 pounds.

TAF KNZC 061130Z 061212 15005KT 5SM HZ FEW020 WS010/31022KT

FM 1330 30015G25KT 3SM SHRA OVC020
TEMPO 1416 1/2SM+ TSRA OVC008CB
FM1900 27008KT 5SM SHRA BKN020 OVC040
PROB40 2201 1SM –RA BR
FR0409 18005KT 6SM-SHRA OVC020
BECMG 0709 P6SM NSW SKC
METAR KNZC 061357Z COR 22015G25KT 3/4SM R28L/2600FT TSRA OVC010CB 18/16 A2978RMK
SLP045 T01820159
211. Can you takeoff with a 2 engine aircraft (Part 91)?
 No, weather is below RVR50 or 1sm (Part 91) (FAR)
212. Can we takeoff with a 3 engine aircraft (Part 91)?
 Yes, weather is above RVR24 or 1/2sm (Part 91) (FAR)
213. What is the current ceiling?
 1000’ OVC (AIM)
214. If we planned to arrive at NZC at 1345, is a destination alternate required?
 Yes, weather is forecast to be below 2000’, 3sm +/- 1 hour of planned arrival. (FAR)
215. Are you ready to start again?
 Are you kidding?