Quantum Field Theory Class: Assignment 2

Sungsoo, Jang∗
Department of Physics at the City College Of New York
(Dated: September 10, 2020)
The purpose of the assignment is to assess classical quantum field theory in terms of Euler’s
Lagrangian.

1. CHAPTER ONE: CLASSICAL FIELD THEORY

Recall the Lagrangian from the first homework.

∂Ψ !2
£ = i!Ψ∗
− ∇Ψ∗ · ∇Ψ − V (x)Ψ∗ Ψ. (1)
∂t 2m
1, Show that the momentum conjugate to the field Ψ is π = i!Ψ∗ .

Solution 1 : The momentum conjugate is

∂£
π0 = = i!Ψ∗ (2)
∂ Ψ̇

2, Construct the Hamiltonian H for this theory.

Solution 2 : By the definition of Hamiltonian, the conjugated momentum from the solution 1
and time derivative of the wave function with Lagrangian density gives
! "
0 ∂Ψ 0 ∂Ψ ∗ ∂Ψ !2 ∗ ∗
H=π −£=π − i!Ψ − ∇Ψ · ∇Ψ − V (x)Ψ Ψ
∂t ∂t ∂t 2m
(3)
!2 ∗ ∗
= ∇Ψ · ∇Ψ + V (x)Ψ Ψ,
2m
where H is Hamiltonian density, we can take an integral over volume, then the total hamiltonian
is as following,
# # ! 2 "
3 3 ! ∗ ∗
H = d xH = d x ∇Ψ · ∇Ψ + V (x)Ψ Ψ . (4)
2m

According to the integration by parts,

! "
!2 !2 ∗ 2 !2 ∗
∇Ψ∗ · ∇Ψ = − Ψ ∇ Ψ+∇· Ψ ∇Ψ , (5)
2m 2m 2m

∗ Electronic address: sjang000@[Link]

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in which the last term, we assume the wave function at the infinite vanishes Ψ∗ → 0 since there
is no source at the surface integrated. As a result, the Hamiltonian becomes
# # ! " # ! "
3 3 ∗ !2 2 3 ∗ ∂Ψ
H = d xH = d xΨ − ∇ Ψ + V (x)Ψ = d x i!Ψ . (6)
2m ∂t

This equations looks familier from the third question of the first [Link] Shchrodinger’s
equation shows up

3, Show that Hamilton’s equations of motion

δH δH
Ψ̇ =
, π̇ = (7)
δπ δΨ
agree with Euler-Lagrange equations you worked our on the first homework.

Solution 3 : One can show them using functional derivative.

$ %
δH 0 ′ ∂Ψ 0 ∂Ψ ∂Ψ
= lim (π (t) + $(t − t)) − £ − [π − £] = ′ (8)
δπ 0 (t′ ) !→0 ∂t ∂t ∂t

Time is fixed in the second term from the equation (7), resulting in
$
δH ∗ 1 !2 2 & ' '
= Ψ lim − ∇ Ψ(r, t) − $δ (3) (r′ − r)) + V (x)[Ψ(r, t) − $δ (3) (r′ − r)) −
δΨ(r′ , t′0 ) !→0 $ 2m
$ %% (9)
∗ !2 2 ∗ ′
Ψ − ∇ Ψ + V (x)Ψ = π̇ = Ψ V (r ),
2m

where −∇2 δ (3) (r′ − r) = 0, at r = r′ .

4, The Lagrangian has an internal symmetry Ψ → e−iα/! Ψ and Ψ∗ → eiα/! Ψ∗ , whereα is a

constant. Construct the corresponding conserved current j µ . Does it look familiar?

Solution 4 : The complex scalar field has an internal symmetry, U (1), which indicates the
transformation as they mentioned from the question. This transformation has no affect on the
Lagrangian according to the Noether’s theorem. In oder to get to Noether’s current for the
internal symmetry, U (1). Let an infinitesimal change be in the phase α for the transformation.
Then, we have as following;
ψ → ψ − iψδα,
(
∂ (( (10)
ψ = Dψ = −iψ
∂α ( α=0

ψ ∗ → ψ ∗ + iψ ∗ δα,
(
∂ ∗ (( (11)
ψ ( = Dψ ∗ = iψ ∗ ,
∂α α=0
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The Lagrangian equation is &not depending' on a ”variable” α, the following quantity vanishes
D£ = 0 and since D£ = ∂µ Πµ ∂ψ/∂α , which implies that W µ = Πµ ∂ψ/∂α = 0, also applied
with ψ ∗ , then the Noether’s current for complex scalar field theory becomes,
∂£ ∂£
Jµ = Dψ + Dψ ∗ , (12)
∂[∂µ ψ] ∂[∂µ ψ ∗ ]

where it can be written as

) *
J µ = i (∂ µ ψ ∗ )ψ − (∂ µ ψ)ψ ∗ (13)

It looks like probability current density at µ = 0.

+
5. Show that charge Q d3 xj 0 generates infinitesimal symmetry transformation, in that senses
that
δQ δψ
δψ = , δπ = (14)
δπ δπ
Show that the Lagrangian charges by a total derivative under this transformation, δ£ = ∂µ F µ .

Solution 5 : Consider the complex scalar field. The field variates as following,

δψ = iψα (15)

δψ ∗ = iψ ∗ α (16)

The transformation for δ£ = 0 provides the current density to transform infinitesimal from the
equation (12).
# #
Q = i d x(ψ ∂ψ − ψ∂ψ ) = i d3 x(πψ − π ∗ ψ ∗ ).
3 ∗ ∗
(17)

Allowing the infinitesimal variated field δψ and δπ, one can extract result as following
$# # %
δQ 1 ) * )
= lim d3 x δψ(δπ + $δ (3) (x′ − x)) − δπ ∗ δψ ∗ − d3 x δπδψ − δπ ∗ δψ ∗ ) = iδψ, (18)
δπ !→0 $

which is as δψ = iψα into full transformation iψ.Similarly,

δQ
= δπ (19)
δψ

6, Under a time translation t → t − $ the field transforms according to Show that the Lagrangian
changes by a total derivative under this transformation,
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Solution 6 : The infinitesimally translated time in Lagrangian density can be written as fol-
lowing,
! " ! "
∂£ ∂£ ∂£ ∂£ ∂£
δ£ = δψ + δ(∂µ ψ) = δψ − ∂µ δψ + ∂µ δψ , (20)
∂ψ ∂(∂µ ψ) ∂ψ ∂(∂µ ψ) ∂(∂µ ψ)

where the equation of motion is zero, we can conclude that

! "
∂£
δ£ = ∂µ δψ = ∂µ F µ . (21)
∂(∂µ ψ)

7, Construc the corresponding conserved current j µ

Solution 7 : From equation (20), one can conclude that ∂µ Πµ = ∂£ ∂£

∂ψ = ∂µ ∂(∂µ ψ) . Therefore,
by allowing the Lagrangian density to change by the four-divergence of arbitrary functions W µ ,
the variation of Lagrangian density is (applying a symmetry transformation)

δ£ = ∂µ W µ δα, (22)

Then, the variation of the action for this Lagrangian is following

# # #
δS = d4 δ£ = d4 x∂µ W µ δα = δα d3 Anµ W µ (23)

The equation (23) indicates Noether’s current.

µ ∂ψ
jN (x) = Πµ − Wµ (24)
∂α

8, Construct the corresponding charge Q, and show that it agrees with the Hamiltonian you found
in problem 2.

Solution 8 : Using Noether’s current from the equation (24), one can derive as following. For
an infinitesimal Lorentz transformation, one can show

δxµ = wµν xν δα, (25)

where one can see that wµν is antisymmetric tensor. Thereby, the field δψ is given by

δψ = δxµ ∂µ ψ = wµν xν ∂µ ψδα, (26)

and also the equation (26) becomes

∂ψ
= wµν xν ∂µ ψ (27)
∂α
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Since the internal symmetry, U (1), the changing in Lagrangian with respect to α becomes, defin-
ing W µ ,
∂£
= wρσ xρ ∂ σ £ = ∂µ [g µν wρσ xσ £] = ∂µ W µ , (28)
∂α
where we can use Noether’s theorem from equation (24) in problem 7.

µ ∂ψ
jN = Πµ − g µν wρσ xσ £ (29)
∂α

µ
jN = wρσ Πµ xσ ∂ ρ ψ − g µρ wρσ xσ £ = wρσ (j ′µ )ρσ , (30)

in which for the current for the first assignment for the problem 2 becomes (j ′µ )ρσ = xρ T µσ
This term is anti-symmetry, and we can switch the indices. As a result,

(j µ )ρσ = xρ T µσ − xσ T µρ , (31)

where ∂µ (j µ )ρσ = 0. The angular momentum components of the charge conserved is

# #
Q = d x(j ) → Q = d3 x(xi T j0 − xj T i0 ),
αρ 3 α ρ0 ij
(32)

and the boosts term is following

#
0i
Q = d3 x(x0 T i0 − xi T 00 ), (33)

Therefore, the Hamiltonian from the first assignment for problem 2.

∂£
H= ∂µ Aν − £, (34)
∂(∂µ Aν )

which gives and symmetrize the following tensor

1
T ′µν = F µσ Fσν + F αβ Fαβ (35)
4
where T ′00 = 12 (E2 + B2 ), and T ′0i = (E × B)i

-The End of Assignment 2-