‫إمتحانات للصيادلة‬

‫للمساعدة في إجتياز إمتحان ممارسة المهنة‬

First 100

1- Which of the following is not an indication for Tranexamic Acid?

a- Treatment of heamorrhage associated with excessive fibrinolysis
b- An antidote for Streptokinase overdose
c- Prophylaxis of hereditary angioedma
d- Prevent heammorhage due to Heparin overdose

2- Which of the following drugs does not cause insomnia ?

a- MAOI’s
b- Caffeine
c- Beta blockers
d- Barbiturates

3- Which of the following is a lipid lowering drugs?

a- Aprotinin
b- Tranexamic acid
c- Lansoprazole
d- Acipimox

4- Which of the following H2 receptors antagonist has the highest

affinity for cytochrome p450 ?
a- Nizatidine
b- Ranitidine
c- Cimetidine
d- Famotidine

5- Which of the following side effects will be caused by antacids

containing NaHCO3?
a- Belching
b- Constipation
c- Diarrhea
d- Blurred vision
6- Which of the following is a dopamine antagonist?
a- Granisetron
b- Domperidone
c- Cisapride
d- Loperamide

7- Which of the following drugs is a systemic amoebicide?

a- Diloxanide furoate
b- Pyrimethamine
c- Emetin
d- Sodium Stibogluconate

8- Which of the following drugs is the drug may cause discolouration of

nail beds and mucus membranes?
a- Tetracycline
b- Chloroquine
c- Doxycycline
d- Rifampicin

9- Which of following drugs is the drug of choice for the treatment of all
forms of Schistosomiasis?
a- Praziquantel
b- Mebendazole
c- Niclosamide
d- Thiabendazole

10- Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of
influenza A infection ?
a- Zidovudine (AZT)
b- Amantadine
c- Ribavarin
d- Vidarabine

11- Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of

Leishmaniasis?
a- Pyrimethamine
b- Diloxamide
c- Sodium Stibogluconate
d- Emetin
12- Which one of the following statements about tetracycline is not
correct?
a- It is useful for the treatment of resistant strains
b- It is contraindicated in pregnancy
c- It is safe in infections caused by Chlamydia
d- It can lead to discolouration of teeth if given to children

13- Which of the following drug will antagonize Methotrexate?

a- Thiamine
b- Folic acid
c- Biotin
d- Cyanocobalamin

14- lodine is found in all of the following except:

a- Cod liver oil
b- Sea food
c- Kelp
d- Iodized salt

15- Match the statements (1- 4) to the trace elements (A-D) listed
below.each answer may be used more than once:

a- Zinc b- Copper c- Chromium d- Selenium

1. Formation of red and white blood cells-b

2. Protects cells against damage during cellular metabolism-d
3. Promotes wound healing and normal growth-a
4. Helps maintain normal glucose metabolism- c

16- Match the drug characteristics (1- 4) with the drug listed below (a-
d). each answer may be used more than once
a- Auranofin
b- Pencillamine
c- Aspirin
d- Corticosteroids

1- Platelet function effect-c

2- Oral form of gold-a
3- Given on an empty stomach-b
4- May be given intra articularly-d

17- for each side effect (1- 4) list the most likely cause (a-d). each answer
may be used more than onces

a- Sodium Bicarbonate
b- Aluminium Hydroxide
c- Amitriptyline
d- Magnesium Hydroxide

i1- May cause diarrhea-d

i2- Should not be used by patient of heart failure-a
i3- May cause dry mouth-c
i4- Can be incorporated with an antacids mixture to control diarhoea-b

18- Pyridoxine requirements may increase during administration of all

the following except:
a- Isoniazid
b- Cycloserine
c- Oral contraceptives
d- Levodopa

19- All of the following preparations contain alcohol except:

a- Syrup simplex
b- Aromatic ammonia spirit USP
c- Terpin hydrate elixir USP
d- Belladona tincture B.P

20- Which of the following solutions is used as an astringent?

a- Strong iodine solution USP
b- Aluminium acetate topical solution USP
c- Acetic acid NF
d- Benzalkonium chloride solution NF

21- An extrapyramidal adverse effects is caused by the blocking of:

a- Serotonin receptors in the brain
b- Acetylcholine receptors in the brain
c- Dopamine receptors in the brain
d- Dopamine receptors outside the brain

22-A rare side effect of some anticonvulsants is Stevens-Johnson

syndrome. This is a severe:
a- Skin reaction
b- Bone marrow toxicity
c- Renal failure
d- CNS suppression

23-If a woman, receiving carbamazepine becomes pregnant, it is

important that she receives daily supplements of:
a- Vit A
b- Vit B6
c- Folic acid
d- Riboflavin

24-Which of the following are side effects of phenytoin treatment?

a- Acne
b- Hirsuitism
c- Gingival hyperplasia
d- a, b, and c

25-Which drug is considered as Alpha-1- Adrenergic blocker:

a- Hydralazine
b- Minoxidil
c- Prazosin
d- Guanethidine

26-Nitroglycerin-all the following are true except :

a- Can be dispensed in hospital pack of 500 and 1000 tabs
b- Containers must be made of glass and be covered with a tight-fitting
c- Close tightly after use
d- Tablets must be stored at controlled R.T
e- Tablets not to be refrigerated

27-The most important adverse reaction to terbutaline is:

a- Tachycardia b- CNS stimulation
c- Fine muscle tremor d- Gastric irritation
e- All of the above
28-Which of the following is true about Penicillin V?
a- It is inactivated by gastric acid
b- It is acid stable
c- It is more active than Benzylpencillin
d- It is absorbed better after foods

29- Which of the following is a quinolone antibiotic?

a- Clindamycin
b- Chlortetracycline
c- Ciprofloxacin
d- Clarithromycin

30-Tuberculosis is caused by a:
a- Mycoplasma
b- Mycobacterium
c- Micrococcus
d- Microbacter

31-pertussis is another name for:

a- Cough
b- Diphtheria
c- Whooping cough
d- Scarlet fever

32-in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis, antibiotic treatment

must be continued for at least:
a- 6 months
b- 4 months
c- 2 months
d- 1 month

33-all of the following are prodrugs except:

a- Sulindac
b- Diazepam
c- Enalapril
d- Sulfasalazine

34-which route of drug administration is likely to subject a drug to first

pass effect?
a- Intravenous
b- Inhalation
c- Oral
d- Sublingual

35-which of the following statements is/are correct?

a- Ketamine is used in the treatment of migraine
b- Acute systemic anaphylaxis should be treated immediately by IV injection
of adrenaline
c- Sulphonylureas are oral anticoagulants
d- None of the above

36-verapamil exerts its effects through which of the following actions?

a- Preventing entry of calcium channels through slow channels
b- Increasing sodium entry
c- Antagonizing the opening of the fast sodium channel
d- None of the above

37-cardiac glycoside may be useful in treating all of the following except

a- Atrial flutter
b- Congestive heart failure
c- Ventricular tachycardia
d- Atrial fibrillation

38-streptokinase is indicated for the treatment of:

a- Impaired fat absorption
b- Pulmonary emboli
c- Tuberculosis
d- Psoriasis

39-tretinoin is used therapeutically:

a- As a urinary acidifier
b- As an antifungal agent
c- In the treatment of tuberculosis
d- In the treatment of acne

40-a calcium channel blocker that is used parenterally for cardiac

arrythmias is:
a- Verapamil hcl b- Nefedipine c- Captopril
d- Minoxidil

41-Which of the following has not been used for the treatment of
Parkinsonism?
a- Cogentin
b- Artane
c- Tofranil
d- Kemadrin

42-The drug that is most likely to induce bronchospasm is:

a- Pindolol
b- Pentoxyfylline
c- Omeprazole
d- Lisinopril

43-The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to:

a- An anticoagulant effect
b- Inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
c- An antigen-antibody reaction
d- All of the above

44-The most useful drug in the treatment of diabetes insipidus is:

a- Glibenclamide
b- Insulin
c- Metoclopramide
d- Desmopressin acetate

45-The tricyclic antidepressant Iimipramine (Tofranil) has been

approved by FDA for use in:
a- Parkinson's disease
b- Hypertension
c- Eneuresis
d- Peptic ulcer

46-Regular use of sublingual doses of Nitroglycerin is likely to result in

a- Hepatotoxicity
b- Nephrotoxicity
c- Peptic ulcer
d- Tolerance
47-All of the following are beta blockers except:
a- Metoprolol (Lopressor) i
b- Nadolol (Corgard) i
c- Enalapril (Renitec) i
d- Propranolol (Inderal) i

48-Bisacodyl frequently can cause:

a- Abdominal cramps
b- Constipation
c- Skin rashes
d- Dizziness

49-An example of a pure opioid Antagonist:

a- Naloxone hcl (Narcan) i
b- Pentazocine (Sosegon) i
c- Nalbuphine (Nubain) i
d- Morphine

50-Carbamazepine (tegretol) is used for treatment of:

a- Eneuresis
b- Trigeminal neuralgia
c- Attention of defict disorder
d- Psoriasis

51-Buspirone (Buspar) is classified pharmacologically as:

a- Antidepressant
b- Anxiolytic agent
c- Narcotic analgesic
d- Hypnotic

52-Dilitiazem is used primarily for its ability to produce:

a- Cough depreaaion
b- Analgesia
c- Calcium channel blockade
d- Emesis
53- Carbocysteine is an agent used clinically as:
a- Laxative b- Cough suppressant
c- Diagnostic agent d- Mucolytic
54-The following drugs may be given by sublingual route except:
a- Digoxin
b- Nifedipine
c- Nitroglycerin
d- Isoprenaline

55-Match the following antibiotics to the best description given below

(a-d)
a- Betalactam antibiotic active against pseudomonas
b- Pencillinase resistant betalactam
c- Contraindicated in children
d- Inhibits renal metabolism

1- Piperacillin-a
2- Tetracycline-c
3- Flucloxacillin-b
4- Cilastin-d

56- Disinfectants are expected to destroy or inhibit the growth of

microbes which are in:
a- The vegetative stage
b- The sporing stage
c- Both a and b
d- None of the above

57-Which of the following is not a storage area for iron:

a- Reticuloendothelial system
b- Kidney
c- Hepatocytes
d- Muscle

58-Which of the following is a sulphonylurea antidiabetic drug?

a- Chlorpropamide
b- Bumetanide
c- Acetazolamide
d- Frusemide
59-One drop has a volume of:
a- 0.5 ml b- 0.1 ml c- 0.15 ml
d- Variable, depending on the liquid and the dropper
60- Ketorolac (NSAIDs) is used in eye preparations as a/an:
a- Anti-inflammatory
b- Antihistamine
c- Astringent
d- Corticosteroid

61-Which of the following drugs is a vasodilator?

a- Methyldopa
b- Mexitilline
c- Prazocin
d- Propranolol

62-Which of the following drugs is not associated with haemolytic

aneamia?
a- Mefenamic acid
b- Methyldopa
c- Methadone
d- Methyltestosterone

63-Which of the following Vitamins is essential in the formation of

Prothrombin?
a- Vitamin A
b- Vitamin B complex
c- Vitamin E
d- Vitamin K

64-Which of the following is not used as an antitussive?

a- Noscapine
b- Pethidine
c- Codeine
d- Diphenhydramine

65-Which of the following Local Anaesthetics is useful for topical

administration only?
a- Lidocaine
b- Bupivacaine
c- Benzocaine
d- Procaine

66-The iron preparation given by the intravenous route is:

a- Ferrous sulphate
b- Iron-dextran
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Iron-sorbitol citric acid

67-Carotenoids are precursors for which vitamin?

a- Vitamine E
b- Vitamine D
c- Vitamine A
d- Vitamine K

68-Which of the following is recommended for dyspepsia in pregnancy?

a- Gaviscon (alginic acid/aluminum hydroxide/magnesium trisilicate)
b- Pylorid (Ranitidine)
c- De-nol (tripotassium dicitratobismuthate, which is a bismuth-containing compound. It is
used to aid healing of ulcers in the stomach and intestine (peptic ulcers).
d- Zantac (Ranitidine)

69-Which of the following drug interactions is not used therapeutically?

a- Epinephrine / Lidocaine
b- Probenicid / Penicillin
c- Pseudoephedrine / Salbutamol
d- Trimethoprim / Sulphamethoxazole

70-The maximum daily dose of Glibenclamide is

a- 2.5 mg/day
b- 5 mg/day
c- 20 mg/day
d- 30 mg/day

71-Which of the following is not used to treat psychosis?

a- Aluoxetine
b- Haloperidol
c- Perphenazine
d- Resperidone
72-A sympathomimetic often present in OTC appetite suppressant is:
a- Ephedrine
b- Phenylephedrine
c- Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
d- Caffeine
73-Opioids have the following uses except:
a- Anti tussive
b- Anti-inflammatory
c- Analgesics
d- Pre anaestetics

74-Levocabastine is a/an:
a- Antihistamine
b- Anti microbial
c- Anti inflammatory
d- Corticosteroid

75-Which of the following is not used as aprophylaxis for migraine?

a- Pizotifin
b- Metoprolol
c- Prazocin
d- Propranolol

76-The most common side effect of sublingual glyceryl trinitrate is:

a- Nausea
b- Throbbing headache
c- Hypertension
d- Skin rash

77-All of the following are common iodine deficiency symptoms except:

a- Goitre
b- Intellectual disability
c- Growth retardation
d- Decreased early and late pregnancy miscarriage

78-Which of the following insulins has the shortest duration of action?

a- Isophane insulin
b- Soluble insulin
c- Insulin zinc suspension
d- Protamine zinc insulin

79-Vasopressin (ADH) is used therapeutically for:

a- Treatment of polyuria caused by hypercalceamia
b- Treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus
c- Decrease chest pain in refractory unstable angina
d- Increasing uterine contractivity

80-oral sympathomimetic decongestants should be avoided in patients

who have:
a- Asthma
b- Cough
c- Hypertension
d- Throat infections

81-Percentage of total body iodine in thyroid glands is:

a- 50%
b- 75%
c- 90%
d- 95%

82-Daily saliva secretion is:

a- 1 litre
b- 1.5 litres
c- 1.8 litres
d- 2 litres

83-Normal serum bilirubin is:

a- 0.5 - 1 mg %
b- 1 - 3 mg %
c- 3 - 4 mg %
d- 4 - 5.5 mg %

84-Ovary secretes:
a- FSH and LH only
b- Oestrogen and Progestrogen only
c- Oestrogen, Progestrogen and Androgen
d- All of these
85- The absence of anti-A and anti-RH agglutinin plasma means that the
subject is:
a- A+ve or AB+ve
b- A-ve or AB-ve
c- B+ve or AB+ve
d- Type O
86-The most important buffer in extracellular fluids is:
a- Acetate
b- Bicarbonate
c- Phosphate
d- Protein

87- Reticulocytosis indicate:

a- Increased RBC formation
b- Decreased WBC formation
c- Decreased RBC formation
d- Increased WBC formation

88-Ketosteroids in urine include :

a- Adrenal and testicular function
b- Pituitary function
c- Hypothalamic function
d- Pancreatic function

89-Which blood can be safely given to a patient of blood group AB

positive?
a- AB negative
b- A positive
c- B positive
d- O positive

90- Function of gall bladder is:

a- Increase alkalinity of bile
b- Increase concentration of bile
c- Increase intrabiliary presence
d- Increase phosphate level

91-Insulin causes:
a- Increase glucose metabolism
b- Increase gluconeogenesis
c- Increase lipolysis
d- Increase glycogenolysis

92- Major pathway of excretion of Calcium is:

a- Kidney
b- Gut
c- Kidney and Gut
d- None of the above

93- The secretion of aldosterone is controlled by:

a- Angiotensin
b- ACTH
c- Epinephrine
d- Insulin

94- First relay station of pain is:

a- spinal cord
b- Medulla
c-pons
d- thalamus

95- Testosterone is secreted by:

a- sertoli cells
b- leydig cells
c- germ cells
d- adrenal medulla

96- Which neurotransmitter controls secretion of prolactin?

a- Dopamine
b- Serotonin
c- Somatostatin
d- GABA

97- Nucleus of atom contains:

a- Electrons
b- Only Protons
c- Electrons and Protons
d- Protons and Neutrons
98- Which of the following is the fastest to be absorbed from the
stomach?
a- Carbonhydrate
b- Proteins
c- Fats
d- Water
99- Function of calcitonin is to:
a- Decrease level of Calcium
b- Increase level of Calcium
c- Increase level of Mg
d- Increase level of Potassium

100- The following are true of insulin except:

a- Glycopeptide
b- Secreted by beta cells
c- Causes lipogenesis
d- Promotes glycogenesis

Second 100

1- Wich of th following is not a major pathway or type of

biotransformations ?i
a- Oxidation
b- Deamination
c- Reduction
d- Hydrolysis
e- Conjugation

i2- Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?i

a- Acacia
b- Cholesterol
c- Gelatine
d- Veegum
e- Tragacanth
i3- Which of the following symptoms is not present in digitalis
intoxication?i
a- AV block
b- Ventricular tachycardia
c- Vomiting
d- Vagal arrest of the heart
e- Visual disturbances

(@) 4- Which of the following statements about propylthiouracil is

false ?i
a- It is used for treatment of hyperthyroidism
b- It inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones
c- It diminishes peripheral deiodination of T4 and T3
d- It inhibits iodide oxidation
e- It interferes with the effectiveness of exogenously administered thyroid
hormones

i5- All of the following are diuretics except :i

a- Aminophylline
b- Glyburide
c- Spironolactone
d- Bum etamide
e- Chlorthalidone

i6- Which of the following is not a side effect of codeine?i

a- Miosis
b- Nausea
c- Diarrhea
d- Respiratory depression
e- Addiction

(@) 7- All of the following are natural estrogens or congeners except :i

a- Estradiol
b- Diethylstilbestrol
c- Estrone
d- Ethinyl estradiol
e- Estropipate

(@) 8- Epinephrine is not given orally because :i

a- It is inactivated in the gastric mucosa
b- Local vasoconstriction inhibits absorption
c- It is rapidly inactivated in circulation
d- None of the above
e- All of the above

i9- Wich of the following cardiac glycosides does not occur naturally ?i
a- Digoxin
b- Oubain
c- Digitoxin
d- Amrinone
e- Nitroglycerin

(@) 10- Various opiates may be used as all of the following except :i
a- Analgesics
b- Anti-inflammatories
c- Antidiarreals
d- Aids to anesthesia
e- Antitussive

i11- Which of the following is not a stimulant laxative ?i

a- Cascara Sagrada
b- Senna
c- Caster oil
d- Bisacodyl
e- Docsate

i12- Which of the following action is not seen with sympathomimetics ?

a- Pupil constriction
b- Increased heart rate
c- Sweat gland stimulation
d- Bronchiole dilation
e- Systemic blood vessel constriction

i13- All of the following statements about propanolol are true except :i
a- The oral route of administration is preferred
b- Propranolol penetrates in to the CNS
c- Propranolol is primarily biotransformed in the liver
d- Propranolol causes rashes and sore throat
e- It is non selective alpha antagonist

i14- Which of the following drugs is not a proton pump inhibitor ?i

a- Pantoprazole
b- Rabeprazole
c- Lansoprazole
d- Sulfisoxazole
e- Omeprazole

(@) 15- All of the following are side effects of progestin’s except :i
a- Weight gain
b- Headache
c- Fatigue
d- Constipation
e- Nausea and vomiting

i16-Bacitarcin is not usually given parentrally because of its :i

a- Insolubility
b- Lack of stability
c- Pain at the injection site
d- Lack of potency
e- Nephrotoxicity

i17- Which of the following drugs should not be administered with high
fat meals ?i
i|. Indinazir
i||. Riluzole
i|||. Stavudine
a- | only
b- ||| only
c- | and || only
d- || and ||| only
e- | , || and |||i

i18- Each of the following exert antimicrobial action by inhibiting cell

wall synthesis except :i
a- Cephalosporins
b- Penicillin
c- Bacitracin
d- Vancomycin
e- Novobiocin

i19- Which of the following antibiotics or group of antibiotics does not

act by inhibiting of cell membrane function ?i
a- Erythromycin
b- Amphotericin B
c- Colistin
d- Nystatin
e- Polymyxins

i20-Which of the following diuretics do not cause potassium loss ?i

a- Furosemide
b- Chlorthalidone
c- Triamterene
d- Hydrochlorothiazide
e- Metolazole

i21- Which is not essential amino acid ?

a- Threonine
b- Tryptophane
c- Glutamone
d- Methionine
i22 – Hyper calcemia does not occur in normal individuals because :i
a- Calcium is rapidly excreted
b- Calcium is rapidly biotransformed
c- Calcium is insoluble
d- Excess calcium is not absorbed

i23- All of the following are true of haemolytic jaundice except :i

a- There is increased production of Bilirubin
b- Urobilinogin concentration is increased in urine
c- Production of Urobilinogin is increased
d- Bilirubin is found in the urine of the patient
e- None of the above because all are true

i24- Which of the following beta-adrenergic agents is not short acting ?i

a- Pirbuterol
b- Salmetrol
c- Terbutaline
d- Albuterol
e- None of the above

i25- Possible treatment of Hypoglycemia does not include :i

a- Insulin
b- Candy
c- Glucose
d- Fruit juce
e- Glucagon

i26- Which of the following Antihypertensive agents has no adverse

effect on Glucose tolerance?i
i1-metoprolol
i2-atenolol
i3-captopril
ia. 1 only
ib. 3 only
ic. 1 and 2i
id. 2 and 3i
ie. 1 , 2 and 3 i

i27- Signs and symptoms of acute Otitis media do not include :i

a- Fever
b- Irritability
c- Stuff neck
d- Lethargy
e- The child may be as asymptomatic

i28- Alternative Antibiotics for Otitis media for the child allergic to
Penicillin include all of the following except :i
a- Clindamycin
b- Erythromycin
c- Erythromycin – Sulfisoxazole
d- Ciprofloxacin
e- Trimethoprin – Sulfamethoxazole

i29- It is important that the patient recognizes all the following signs as
possible Lithium side effects except :
a- Hand tremors
b- Headaches
c- Mudcle weakness
d- Constipation
e- Polyuria

i30- Which of the following is not useful in the treatment of acute

Digoxin toxicity ?i
i1- calcium administration
i2- lidocaine administration
i3- fab fragment antibodies
ia. 1 only
ib. 3only
ic. 1 and 2 only
id. 2 and 3 only
ie. 1 , 2 and 3

i31- Some common patient complaints associated with Anticholinergic

drugs include all of the following except:
a- Urinary retention
b- Shortness of breath
c- Blurred vision
d- Constipation
e- Dry mouth

i32- Which of the following iron preparations is not available oral

dosage form ?i
a- Iron dextran
b- Ferrous fumarate
c- Ferrous gluconate
d- Ferrous sulphate
e- Polysaccharide – Iron complex

i33- In which of the following conditions is iron supplementation

indicated ?i
i1 Primary hemochromatosis
i2 Patient receiving multiple blood transfusions
i3 Pregnancy

a- 1 only
b- 3 Only
c- 1 and 2 only
d- 1, 2 and 3

i34- Some symptoms of iron deficiency include all of the following

except :i
a- Fatigue
b- Constant thirst
c- Dystrophy of nails
d- Dysphagia
e- Dispnea on exertion

i35- Which of the following agents would not be indicated for a patient
with angina ?i
a- Isosorbide
b- Flecainide
c- Nifedipine
d- Inderal
e- Diltiazem

i36- All of the following may be symptoms of a myocardial infarction

except :
b- Agitated behavior and ahen pallor
c- Nausea, sweating and dyspnea
d- Heartburn, fainting and skipped beats
e- Dental and neck pain, no relief from Nitroglycerin

i37- All of the following are true about morphine except :i

a- May cause diarhoea
b- A m etabolite of codeine
c- Has specific receptors in the GIT
d- May cause vomiting

i38- Which one of the following drugs is not available as antipsychotic

depot injection ?i
a- Flupenthixol
b- Fluphenazine
c- Chlorpromazine HCL
d- Haloperidol Decanoate

i39- Which one of the following statements about chloral hydrate is false
?i
a- May cause gastritis
b- Can cause tolerance
c- It is a respiratory stimulant
d- Toxicity is much increased by administration of Ethanol

i40- Which one of the following statements about narcotic analgesics is

false ?i
a- Codeine is useful for its anti tussive properties
b- Pentazocine is more addictive than morphine
c- Pentazocine may cause hallucinations
d- Morphine can cause diarhoea

41- Which of the following should not be used to prevent migraine in an

asthmatic patient ?i
a- Propranolol (Inderal)i
b- Pizotifen (Sanomigran)i
c- Amitryptyline (Tryptizol)i
d- Clonidine (Dixarit)i

i42- Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine ?i

a- Alprazolam
b- Clobazem
c- Chlormethiazole
d- Chlordiazepoxide

i43- Which of the following is true about Benzodiazepines ?i

a- Patients can develop a psychological dependence
b- Patients can develop a withdrawal syndrome
c- Patients can develop tolerance to the drug
d- All of the above

i44- Dopamine tablets cannot be used to treat Parkinson’s disease

because it :i
a- Does not cross blood brain barrier
b- Is too toxic after long term administration
c- Is transformed to L-dopa by the autonomic neurons
d- Is not m etabolized by mono amine oxidase

i45- Which of the following drugs cause insomnia ?i

a- MAOI’s
b- Caffeine
c- Beta blockers
d- Barbiturates
e- a, b and c

i46- Which of the following is not effective for partial seizures ?i

a- Phenytoin
b- Ethosuximide
c- Carbamazepine
d- Lamotrigine

i47- Amitryptyline causes all of the following except :i

a- Hypotension in the elderly
b- Raising of the seizure threshold
c- Sedation
d- Constipation

i48- All of the following are clinical applications of desmopressin

except:i
a- Diabetes Insipidus
b- Nocturnal eneuresis
c- Urinary retention
d- Post operative poly urea

i49- All of the following have very limited crossing through inflamed
meninges except :i
a- Clavulanic acid salts
b- Penicillin
c- Teicoplanin
d- Erythromycin
i50- All of the following are mainly Bacteriostatics except :i
a- Chloramphenicol
b- Sulphadiazine
c- Ampicillin
d- Tetracycline

i51- The following antibiotics are used for treatment of acne in many
patients except :i
a- Erythromycin
b- Neomycin
c- Clindamycin
d- Tetracycline

i52- The following can be used as topical and systemic Antibacterial

preparations except :i
a- Fucidic acid
b- Mupirocin
c- Tetracycline hcl
d- Gentamycin

i53- Which one of the following is not an indication for potent, topical
corticosteroids ?i
a- Chronic Discoid Lupus Erythematosus
b- Psoriasis
c- Lichen simplex chronicus
d- Hypertrophic lichen planus

i54- All of the following statements of Acyclovir are true except :i

a- It is a nucleoside antiviral drug
b- It is converted to triphosphate and subsequently inhibits synthesis of viral
DNA
c- It is analogue of purine ----bolites
d- It is available topically and orally
i55- Stability of pharmaceutical products is affected by the following
factors except :i
a- Temperature and humidity
b- Composition of drug product
c- Dosage form and packing material
d- Dose strength and pack size

i56- Aqueous film coating has the following properties except :i

a- Hygroscopic in nature
b- Gastric fluid resistant
c- Water soluble coating
d- Less costly to manufacture

i57- The treatment of choice for Kaposi’s sarcoma is which one of the
following ?i
a- Bleomycin
b- Dactinomycin
c- Doxorubicin
d- Mitomycin

i58- All of the following drugs are Neuroleptics with the exception of one
which is :i
a- Butyrophenones
b- Trifluoperazine
c- Diphenylbutyl piperidines
d- Benzhexol

i59- The following characteristics and uses apply to interferon alpha

except for one :i
a- It is a protein
b- It is obtained from lymphoblastoid source
c- It is an injectable preparation
d- It is a hormone
i60- Mono Amine Oxidase Inhibitor’s include the following except :i
a- Tranylcypromine
b- Phenalazine
c- Thioridazine
d- Moclobemide

i61- Prostate cancer is treated by the following except for one :i

a-cyproterone acetate
b-tamoxifen
c-flutamide
d-triptorelin

i62- metabolism of ethyl Alcohol involves all the following pathways

except :i
a- Oxidation
b- Conversion to acetaldehyde and acetate
c- Excreted unchanged through the lungs and kidneys
d- Sulphate conjugation

i63- The following statements apply to Azathioprine except for one :i

a- It is immunosuppressant
b- It is metabolized in the body to active 6 Mercaptopurine
c- It is classified as anti metabolite
d- It is used to treat body rejection after organ surgical transplant

i64- Which of the following is not cytotoxtic ?

a- Alkylating drugs
b- Cytotoxic antibiotics
c- Corticosteroids
d- Vinca alkaloids

i65- Which of the following is not used as Antimanic drug ?i

a- MAOI’s
b- Carbamazepine
c- Benzodiazepine
d- Lithium carbonate

i66- Which of the following statements about Naloxone is false ?i

a- It is a pure antagonist to Morphine
b- It cause Euphoria
c- It is used in the treatment of Opiate overdose
d- It causes a withdrawal syndrome when given to an opiate dependent
subject

67- Which of the following drugs is not a Tricyclic Antidepressant?i

a- Trimipramine
b- Maprotiline
c- Nortryptiline
d- Imipramine HCL

i68- Captopril and Enalapril do all the following except :i

a- Increase rennin concentration in blood
b- Inhibit an enzyme
c- Competively blocks Angiotensin || at it’s receptors
d- Raises the blood Potassium concentration

i69- Wich of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of

Parkinson’s disease ?i
a- Benzhexol
b- Amantadine
c- Chlorpromazine
d- Carbidopa

i70- Which of the following drugs is not classified as Antipsychotic

drug ?i
a- Chlorpromazine
b- Pimozide
c- Risperidone
d- Buspirone
71- Which of the following statements is false about Amphetamine ?i
a- Decrease restlessness
b- Induces hypersensitivity in children
c- Decrease appetite
d- It is a controlled drug

i72- Which of the following statements is false about Diamorphine ]

(Heroin)?
a- Causes nausea and vomiting
b- A respiratory depressant
c- Has potent Atropine like properties
d- Converted in the body to Atropine

i73- A package insert lists a drug dose for a neonate as being 10-
microgram/kg/day. The age range for a neonate is considered to be
a- Birth to 1 month
b- 1 month to 6 months
c- Birth to 1 week
d- 1 year through 5 years

i74- The child’s dose of a drug is reported as 1.2 mg/kg/ body weigh.
What is the appropriate does for a child weighing 60 lb?
a- 6 mg
b- 9 mg
c- 32 mg
d- 72 mg
e- 126 mg

i75- The infusion of Theophyline established for a neonate is

i0.08mg/kg/hr. how many ml of drug are needed for one daily bottle if
the body weigh is 16 lb?i
a- 0.58mg
b- 14mg
c- 30mg
d- 150mg
e- 8mg
i76- Blood Pressure measurements were made for 1 week on fivepatients
with the following averages

Patients 1 2 3 4 5

B.P 140/70 160/84 180/88 190/90 150/70

What is the median systole pressure ?i

a- 80
b- 83
c- 84
d- 160
e- 164

i77- The concentration of Sodium Fluoride in a community’s drinking

water is 0.6ppm.express this concentration as a percentage
a- 0.00006%
b- 0.0006%
c- 0.006%
d- 0.06%
e- 0.6%

i78- Lanoxin pediatric elixir contains 0.05mg of Digoxin per ml. how
many micrograms are there in 3 ml of the elixir ?i
a- 0.15micrograms
b- 0.015micrograms
c- 1.5micrograms
d- None of the above

i79- A pharmacist add 1 pint of Alcohol USP to 1 L of a mouthwash

formula. What is the new percentage of alcohol present if original
mouthwash was labeled as 12% V/V ?i
a- 30%
b- 38%
c- 45%
d- 57%
e- 59%
i80- A prescription calls for the dispensing of 4% Pilocar solution with
the direction of “ Gtt I OU TID” . How many mg of Pilocarpine HCL is
being used per day? Assume that the dropper is calibrated to deliver i20
‘drops to the ml
a- 4mg
b- 6mg
c- 12mg
d- 24mg
e- 60mg

i81- The adult intravenous (IV) dose of Zidovudine is 2mg / kg q 4hrs

six times a day . How many mg will a 180-lb patient receive daily ?i
a-12mg
b-164 mg
c-650mg
d-980 mg
e-2160 mg

i82- A pharmacist dilutes 100ml of Clorox with 1 quart of water

Express the concentration of Sodium Hypochlorite in the final dilution
as a W/V ratio. Commercial Clorox contains i5.25% W/V Sodium
Hypochlorate
a- 1/9
b- 1/10
c- 1/100
d- 1/180
e- 1/200

Questions 83 and 84 relate to the following hospital formula

for a T-A-C solution
Cocaine HCL 4%
Tetracaine HCL 2%
Epinephrine HCL solution 1/2000
Sodium Chloride injection qs 4ml
i83- How many mg of Cocaine HCL is in the final solution?i
a- 400mg
b- 4mg
c- 20mg
d- 8mg
e- 160mg

i84- How many ml of Adrenaline Chloride solution (0.1%) may be used

to prepare the solution?i
a- 0.002ml
b- 0.04ml
c- 1ml
d- 2ml
e- 5ml

i85- An administration set delivers 60 drops to the ml. How many drops
per minute are needed to obtain 20 units of Heparin per minute if the IV
admixture contains 15,000 units per 250ml of Normal Saline?i
a- 20
b- 40
c- 60
d- 80
e- 120

i86- Dopamine (Inotropin) 200mg in 500ml of Normal Saline at 5

microgram/kg/min is ordered for a 155-lb patient. What is the final
concentration of solution in micro/ml ?i
a- 0.4micrograms
b- 2.5micrograms/ml
c- 40micrograms/ml
d- 400micrograms/ml
e- 25microgram/ml
i87- The estimated Creatinine clearance rate for a 120lb patient is
i40ml/min. what maintenance dose should be administered if the normal
maintenance dose is 2mg/lb of the body weight ?i
a- 60mg
b- 100mg
c- 120mg
d- 160mg
e- 240mg

i88- A pharmacist repackages 10 lb of an ointment in to jars to be

labeled 2 oz(with). How many jars can be filled ?i
a- 73
b- 80
c- 83
d- 88
e- 100

i89- How many ml of Glycerin would be needed to prepare 1 lb of an

ointment containing i5% W/W Glycerin ? (The density of glycerin is
1.25g/ml)i
a- 1.2ml
b- 18.2ml
c- 22.7ml
d- 24ml
e- 28.4ml

i90- A hospital clinic requests 2 lb of 2% Hydrocortisone ointment. How

many grams of 5% Hydrocortisone ointment could be diluted with
White Petrolatum to prepare this order?i
a- 18.2g
b- 27.5g
c- 45.4g
d- 363g
e- 545g
i91- How many grams of Glacial Acetic Acid (99.9% W/V) must be
added to 1 gal Purified Water to prepare an irrigation solution
containing 0.25% W/V Acetic Acid ?i
a- 1.2g
b- 9.5g
c- 12g
d- 20g
e- 95g

i92- What is the decay constant (K) of the Radio-Isotope 32P if its half
life is 14.3 days. Assume that Radiopharmaceutical follow first t- order
kinetics
a- 0.048/day
b- 0.07/day
c- 0.097/day
d- 0.1/day
e- 0.15/day

i93- A pre------ion calls for 25 m. eq. of Potassium Chloride

How many grams of KCL (MW 74.6) are needed?i
a- 7.46g
b- 0.746g
c- 8.86g
d- 1.86g
e- 0.186g

i94- How many milliliters of a 10% KCL (MW 74.6) solution contain 5.0
mEq of K+ ?i
a- 2.100ml
b- 21.000ml
c- 3.730ml
d- 37.300ml
e- 0.373ml
i95- The dose of a drug is 0.5mg/kg. What dose should be given to a 6
years old child who weigh 44 lb ?i
a- 0.003g
b- 0.033g
c- 0.010g
d- 0.100g
e- 0.050g

i96- If a pre------ion order requires 30 g of concentrated Sulfuric Acid

(density is 1.8g/ml) , What volume should the pharmacist measure ?i
a-1.67ml
b-18.00ml
c-30.00ml
d-16.67ml
e-166.70ml

i97- Calculate the weight of 25ml of Hydrochloric Acid whose density is

1.18g/ml
a- 29.500g
b- 2.950g
c- 0.295g
d- 295.00g
e- None of the above

(@) 98- Convert 2 pints 3 fluid ounces into ml

a- 1500ml
b- 1050ml
c- 150ml
d- 105ml
e- 10.5ml
i99- Convert 60 grams to grains
a- 9240 grains
b- 924 grains
c- 9.24 grains
d- 0.924 grains
e- 0.0924 grains

i100- The dose of a drug is 0.6mg

How many doses are contained in 96mg of the drug ?i
a- 16
b- 160
c- 360
d- 600
e- None of the above

Third 100

1- Seminal vesicles are present between

a- Prostate and anus
b- Prostate and rectum
c- Bladder and rectum
d- Prostate and bladder

i2- Seminal vesicles secrete

a- Prostaglandins
b- Inhibin
c- Acid phosphatase
d- All of the above
i3- Clitoris develops from
a- Genital tubercle
b- Genital ridge
c- Mullerian duct
d- Urogenital sinus

i4- Commonest anatomical site of appendix is

a- Paraceacal
b- Retroceacal
c- Illeal
d- Pelvic

i5- The shortest part of the colon is

a- Ascending colon
b- Transvers colon
c- Descending colon
d- Sigmoid colon

i6- Which of the following factors affect the distribution of a drug?

a- Lipid solubility
b- Plasma protein binding
c- Polarity
d- Molecular size
e- All of the above

7- The rate of zero-order reactions

a- Changes constantly
b- Is independent of temperature
c- is independent of concentration
d- Holds only for light catalyzed reaction
e- Holds only for radio active compounds

i8- A source of anticarcinogenic drugs is

a- Belladona
b- Nux vomica
c- Vinca rosea
d- Cascara
e- Digitalis

9- If a central nervous system (cns) drug is extensively ionized at the ph

of blood it will
a- Penetrate the blood – brain barrier slowly
b- penetrate the blood – brain barrier rapidly
c- Not penetrate the blood – brain barrier
d- Be eliminated slowly
e- Not to be distributed to any tissue sites

i10- Most drugs are:

a- Strong electrolytes
b- Weak electrolytes
c- Non electrolytes
d- Highly ionic
e- None of the above

i11- The major mechanism of degradation of drugs in the GIT is:

a- Oxidation
b- Hydrolysis
c- Acetylation
d- Conjugation
e- Reduction

i12- The buffer equation is also known as

a- Young’s equation
b- Charles equation
c- Henderson-hasselbalch equation
d- Strokes’ law
e- None of the above
i13- Radioactive decay follows a
a- Mixed order
b- Fractional order rate
c- Zero order rate
d- First order rate
e- Second order rate

i14- The most common disintergrator in compressed tablets is

a- Dextrose
b- Lactose
c- Starch
d- Potassium bitartrate
e- Powdered sucrose

15- An antidote for heparin overdose is

a- Protamine sulphate
b- BAL
c- Atropine
d- Calcium salts
e- Dicumarol

i16- Salicylic acid is used primarily as an (a)i

a- Analgesic
b- Antipyretic
c- Cough suppressant
d- Uricosuric agent
e- Keratolytic agent

17- Which of the following is found in vitamin b12?i

a- Magnesium
b- Nickel
c- Iron
d- Cobalt
e- Manganese
18- freeze dying is based on
a- pressure filtration
b- sublimation
c- polymerization
d- pasteurization
e- densification

19-the most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are

a- Hard capsules
b- Soft gelatin capsules
c- Tablets
d- Bulk powders
e- Divided powders

20- Ointments are typically used as

i|. Emollients
i||. Protective barriers
i|||. Vehicles for applying drugs

a- |. Only
b- |||. Only
c- | and || only
d- || and ||| only
e- |, || and |||i

i21- A humectant retards

a- Bacterial growth
b- Degradation
c- Surface evaporation
d- Spreadability
e- All of the above
22- Starch is used in tabletting as a
i|. Binder
i||. Glidant
i|||. Disintegrant

a- ||. Only
b- |||. Only
c- | and || only
d- || and ||| only
e- |, || and |||i

i23- Gums are used in tabletting primarily as

a- Disintegrators
b- Glidants
c- Lubricants
d- Binding agents
e- Both b and c

i24- Vanishing creams are classified as

a- Oleaginous
b- Absorption bases
c- Water-soluble bases
d- O/w bases
e- W/o bases

i25- Syrup nf is
a- Self preserving
b- A supersaturated solution
c- A dilute solution
d- high unstable
e- flavored and preserved

i26- Reaction rate is increased most rapidly by

a- Humidity
b- High temperature
c- Freezing
d- Photolysis
e- Hydrolysis

i27- Gmp regulations are promulgated and revised by

a- Congress
b- State boards of pharmacy
c- The dea
d- The fda
e- The epa

28- Ferritin is a (an)i

a- Vitamin
b- Micelle
c- Emulsion
d- Amino acid

29- Vitamin b6 is also known as

a- Thiamine
b- Riboflavin
c- Niacin
d- Pyridoxine
e- Cyanocobalamine

i30- Sunscreen preparations containing p amino benzoic acid should be

a- Used sparingly
b- Applied 2 hrs before exposure
c- Packaged in air-resistant containers
d- Packaged in light-resistant containers
e- Used only on arrears other than the face

31- Which of the following statements is (are) true for undecylenic acid?

i|. It is often used as zinc salt

i||. It may cause irritation and sensitization
i|||. It is most fungistatic of the fatty acids
a- |. Only
b- |||. Only
c- |. And ||. Only
d- ||. And ||| only
e- |, || and |||i

32- Which of the following is classified as fat soluble?i

a- Vitamin d
b- Niacin
c- Ascorbic acid
d- Thiamine hydrochloride
e- Riboflavin

i33- The active constituents of saline laxatives are

a- Absorbable anions
b- Nonabsorbable anions
c- Tribasic cations
d- Absorbable cations and anions
e- Nonabsorbable cations and anions

i34- Bismuth subsalicylate is used in antidiarrheals for its

a- Hydrophobic action
b- Hydrophilic action
c- Adsorbent action
d- Absorbent action
e- Antibacterial action

i35- Cellulose acetate phthalate is used in pharmacy as a (an)i

a- Emulsifier
b- Enteric coating material
c- Suspending agent
d- Flavoring agents
e- Excipient
i36- Coca butter (theobroma oil) is used as a suppository base because of
its
a- Solubility
b- Melting point
c- Miscibility
d- Reactivity
e- Lipophilic properties

i37- The most widely used method for sterilization of pharmaceutical is

a- Microfiltration
b- Radiation
c- Ethylene oxide exposure
d- Moist heat
e- Dry heat

i38- Ophthalmic solutions should be formulated to include which of the

following?i
i|. Sterility
i||. Isotonicity
i|||. Buffering

a- |. Only
b- ||. Only
c- |. And || only
d- ||. And |||. Only
e- |, || and |||i

i39- Soda lime is used as a (an)i

a- Alkalinizer
b- Therapeutic agent in topical preparations
c- Stabilizer in emulsions
d- Reagent for absorption of carbon dioxide
e- Preservative in aromatic waters
i40- The limulus test is relatively new method of testing for
a- Pyrogens
b- Microbial growth
c- Acidity
d- Creaming
e- Lack of osmolarity

i41- Which of the following is associated with excessive infusion of of

hypotonic fluids?
a- Hemolysis
b- Hyperglycemia
c- Dehydration
d- Glycosuria
e- None of the above

i42- Which of the following is associated with excessive infusion of

hypertonic dextrose?i
a- Loss of electrolytes
b- Hyperglycemia
c- Dehydration
d- Glycosuria
e- All of the above

i43- Normal rectal temperature is usually

a- Measured in the morning
b- Measured in the evening
c- About same as the normal oral temperature
d- About 1c lower than oral
e- About 1c higher than oral

i44- The latin oculo utro is translated to mean

a- Right eye
b- Each eye
c- Left eye
d- Each ear
e- Right ear
i45- Advantages of tablets over liquid dose forms include the following
i|. Enhanced stability
i||. Ease of administration
i|||. Greater accuracy of dosing

a- ||. Only
b- |||. Only
c- |. And ||. Only
d- || and ||| only
e- |, || and |||i

i46- The latin post cibos can be translated to mean

a- After meals
b- Before meals
c- With meals
d- Without meals
e- On the empty stomach

i47- Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?i

a- Cortisone
b- Hydrocortisone
c- Prednisolone
d- Methylprednisolone
e- Dexamethasone

i48- The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics is as

a(an):
a- Lubricant
b- Antacid
c- Source of mg ion
d- Disintegrator
e- Binder
i49- Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its
properties?i
a- Neutralizing
b- Emetic
c- Absorptive
d- Adsorptive
e- Stabilizing

i50- The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in

a- Sunscreens
b- Antacid tablets
c- Capsules as a diluent
d- Effervescent salts
e- Emulsions

i51- Which of the following is used as a hemostatic agent?i

a- Heparin
b- Oxycel
c- Coumadins
d- Indanediones
e- None of the above

i52- Another name of extended insulin zinc suspension is

a- Nph
b- Lente
c- Ultralente
d- Regular
e- None of the above

i53- The latin oculus sinister means

a- Right eye
b- Left eye
c- Both ears
d- Both eyes
e- Right ear

i54- The recommended method of mixing insulin’s is to

a- Shake vigorously
b- Mix gently by rolling between palms of hands
c- Add simultaneously to container
d- Add lente insulin first then regular insulin
e- None of the above

i55- The formulation of different active ingredients that have been

judged to produce similar effects are called
i|. Generic *****alence
i||. Therapeutic *****alence
i|||. Pharmaceutical *****alence

A-|. Only
B-||. Only
C-|. And || only
D-|, || and |||i

i56- Which of the following is a true statement regarding transdermal

delivery systems?
a- Products from different manufactures require identical amounts of the
active ingredient to yield *****alent responses
b- Skin thickness is not a factor in drug absorption
c- The transdermal unit should always be placed at the same site
d- The transdermal unit contains more drug than is needed for delivery into
the body over the prescribed the period of use
e- The transdermal unit may remain attached to the skin after the labeled
delivery period because drug absorption cases

57-dosage of anticonvulsants is adjusted:

A-when seizures occur frequently
B-every 2 weeks
C-every 2 years
D- only when side effects are seen
E-seasonally

i58-which of the following agents is associated with tinnitus as a result of

toxicity?i
a- Salicylate
b- Phenytoin
c- Propranolol
d- Acetaminophen
e- Cyclobenzaprine

i59-parkinson is probably due to

A- too little dopamine in the brain
B- too little levodopa in the brain
C- too little acetylcholine in the brain
D- too much levodopa in the brain
E- too much dopamine in the brain

i60-the greatest threat from the morphine poisoning is

A- renal shut down
B- paralysis of spinal cord
C- respiratory depression
D- cardiovascular collapse
E- none of the above

61- a specific narcotic antagonist is

A- meperidine
B- polybrene
C- nalorphine
D-universal antidote
E- meprobamate
62- wich of the following is used to curtail chronic uric acid stone
formation?i
A- allopurinol
B- trimethoprim
C- mehtenamine
D-ethacrynic acid
E- furosemide

63-which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?

A- trimethadione
B- colesevelam
C-flucytosine
D-coumarin
E- propranolol

64- capecitabine is used to treat

A- hypertension
B- muscular injuries
C- ulcers
D- breast cancer
E- congestive heart failure

65- magnesium ion is necessary in

A- stimulating enzyme systems
B- muscular contractions
C- nerve conduction
D- all of the above
E- none of the above

i66- a class of plant alkaloids widely used to treat migraine is

A- vinic al kaloids
B-digitalis
C- stramonium alkaloids
D- ergot alkaloids
E- belladonna alkaloids
i67- cyclosporine is used for
A- allergies
B- angina
C- prevention of transplant rejection
D-steroids deficiency
E- treating lead poisoning

i68-pantoprazole is used primarily to treat

A- gastric hyperacidity
B- hypertension
C-cardiac insufficiency
D- gout
E- migraine headache

i69- citalopram is a(an)i

A- diuretic
B- cardiotonic
C- antidepressant
D-anti-inflammatory
E- anthelmintic

i70- daunorubicin and doxorubicin have been commonly associated with

A- ulcers
B- cardiac toxicity
C- colitis
D- gout
E-Hepatotoxicity

i71- in which of the following dosage is nicotine available when used as

smoking detergent?
A- transdermal
B- nasal drops
C- gum
D- a and c
E- a, b and c
i72-folic acid administration has been recommended during pregnancy
to prevent which of the following congenital problems?i
A- spina bifida
B- cystic fibrosis
C- patent ductus arteriosus
D- limb deformations
E- cleft palate

i73- an advantage of amoxicillin over ampicillin is that it

A- is more acid stable
B- is not destroyed by pencillinase
C- has a broad spectrum
D- does not cause allergies
E- has a longer ----f of life

i74- Arsenic trioxide was approved by the fda in 2000 to treat which of
the following disease?i
a- Leukemia
b- Muscle spasms
c- Parkinson's disease
d- Neuralgias
e- Colon cancer

i75- Primidone, used in the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic

seizures , is metabolized to:
a- Phenytoin
b- Phenobarbital
c- Metformin
d- Carbamazepine
e- None of the above

i76-vincristine has been commonly associated with which of the

following adverse events?i
A- neurotoxicity
B- gout
C- duodenal ulcers
D- blood clotting
E- none of the above

i77-dolasetron, a 5-ht3 antagonist is an(a)i

a- B- adrenergic blocker
b- Antiemetic
c- Glucocorticoid
d- Local anesthetic
e- Sunscreen

i78-cholestyramine resin has the prevalent side effect of

a- Blocking absorption of some vitamins
b- Raising cholesterol levels
c- Causing intoxication
d- Increasing sensitivity to uv light
e- All of the above

79- Lorazepam produces which of the following action(s)?

A- sedation
B- loss of memory
C- reduction of anxiety
D- all of the above
E- none of the above

i80- Timolide combines the action of nonselective beta blocking agent

and a(an)i
a- Diuretic
b- Cardiotonic
c- Selective beta blocker
d- Anti-inflammatory agent
e- Vasoconstrictor
i81- Which of the following drugs has been associated with reye's
syndrome in children?
a- Aspirin
b- Acetaminophen
c- Ibuprofen
d- Naproxen
e- Phenobarbital

i82- Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as

a- Sedatives
b- Hypnotics
c- Antispasmodic agents
d- Anti-parkinsonian agents
e- Preanesthetic agents

i83- Norethindrone is a drug commonly used in

a- Mixed estrogens
b- Oral contraceptives
c- Treating carcinomas
d- Diagnostic testing
e- Abortifacients

i84- Some anti-convulsant (e.g., carbamazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin)

are fda approved to treat seizures but have also been effective in the
treatment of
a- Parkinsonism
b- Neuralgias or neuropathies
c- Colitis
d- Nausea
e- All of the above

i85- Efavirenz is classified as a(an)

a- Muscle relaxant
b- Sedative hypnotic
c- Tranquilizer
d- Analgesic
e- Antiviral

i86- Lepirudin is used mainly to treat

a- Gastritis
b- Minor anxiety states
c- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
d- Severe pain
e- Nausea

i87- Histamine is found in the human body in

a- The granules of mast cells in the blood
b- The mucosal layer of the GI tract
c- The hypothalamus
d- A and b
e- A, b and c

i88- Orlistat is used as a(an)i

a- Narcotic antagonist
b- Narcotic analgesic
c- Weight loss agent
d- Antiepileptic
e- Anesthetic

i89- Antipsychotics usually act on the

a- Cerebrum
b- Cerebellum
c- Lower brain areas
d- Brain and spinal cord
e- Nerve endings

i90- Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic or as a(an)i

a- General anesthetic
b- Antipruritic
c- Preanesthetic
d- Antiarrhythmic
e- Analgesic
d- Anti-inflammatory agent
e- Vasoconstrictor

91- Cocaine has a long duration of local anesthetic action because it is

a- More stable than most local anesthetics
b- Readily absorbed
c- Not biotransformed
d- A vasoconstrictor
e- None of the above

i92- Tenecteplase is used primarily to reduce mortality associated with

which of the following clinical problems?i
a- Diabetes
b- Myocardial infarction
c- Hemorrhage
d- Prostate cancer
e- None of the above

i93- Albiterol is usually administered by which route?i

a- Iv
b- Im
c- Nasal
d- Rectal
e- Oral

i94- Nateglinide is used most commonly to treat

a- Aids
b- Genital herpes
c- Diabetes
d- Cmv retinitis
e- Influenza
i95- Barbiturates, in general, are particularly noted for
a- Lack of habituation
b- Producing microsomal enzymes in liver
c- Instability
d- Slow absorption
e- Poor oral absorption

i96- Meloxicam exerts its action because it is a(an)i

a- No steroidal anti-inflammatory
b- Mao inhibitor
c- Alkaline
d- Calcium channel blocker
e- Acid

i97- Oxcarbazepine is used to treat

a- Partial seizures
b- Hdogkin's disease
c- Angina pectoris
d- Breast cancer
e- Depression

i98- Which of the following is classified as a cholinergic antagonist?i

a- Acetylcholine
b- Neostigmine
c- Atropine
d- Bethanecol
e- Methacholine

i99- Nitroglycerin has a relatively short-half life due to

a- Its volatility
b- Its chemical instability
c- Its poor absorption
d- First-pass ----bolism
e- All of the above
i100- Trihexylphenidyl is used to treat
a- Parkinsonism
b- Angina
c- Xerostomia
d- Glaucoma
e-Muscle spasms

Fourth 100

1- Which of the following NSAIDs is available in a parenteral form?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Ketorolac
C. Tolmetin
D. Piroxicam
E. None of the above

2- Muscle relaxant are seldom used for more

Than
A. 2 to 3 weeks because Of toxicity
B. Of instability
C. Of short duration of need
D. Of tolerance being developed
E. They are used longer commonly

3- Linezolid is used against infections caused by antibiotic resistant

A. Gram- positive cocci
B. Gram- negative bacilli
C. HIV virus
D. Gram-positive bacilli
E. None of the above

4-Nateglinide stimulates the release of

A. Insulin
B. Epinephrine
C. Glucose
D. Glucagon
E. Norepinephrine

5- Mifeprostone is a receptor antagonist of which hormone?

A. Estrogen
B. Thyroid
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol
E. Progesterone

6- Rivastigmine has the primary action of inhibiting

A. Acetyl cholinesterase
B. Epinephrine
C. Gastric acid
D. Calcium influx
E. Histamine release

7- Which of the following are low molecular- weight heparin?

A. Tinzaparin
B. Enoxaparin
C. Dalteparin
D.B and C
E. A.B and C

(@) 8- Ocular timolol is used primary in

A. Glaucoma
B. Pink eye
C. conjunctivitis
D. Eye infections
E. Eye cleaners

9- Sucralfate is used for short term therapy of

A. Ulcers
B. Hypertension
C. Carcinomas
D. Calcium depletion
E. Dental caries

10- Lorazepam is classified as

A. Loop diuretic
B. MAO inhibitor
C. Thiazide diuretic
D. Dibenzazepine
E. Polycyclic amine

i11- probantheline is contraindicated in patients with

A. Glaucoma
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Obstructive disease of Gl tract
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. All of the above

12- Antiepileptics as a group are noted for developing or causing

A. Rashes
B. Atrial tachycardias
C. Tolerance
D. Spasms
E. Headache

13- Selenium sulfide is used

A. Orally
B. Tolerance
C. By injection
D. By none of the above
E. By all of the a bove

14-Zonisamide is considered a broad spectrum

A. Antibiotic
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Antiviral
D. NSAID
E. Antihistamine

15- Baclofen is used primarily as a(an)

A. Sympathomimetic
B. Antianxiety agent
C. Muscle relaxant
D. Antispasmodic
E. Tranquilizer

16- Beta interferon is used to treat

A. Adult- onset diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. cardiac insufficiency
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Ulcers

17-. Aprevalent side effect of propylthiouracil (PTU) is:

A. Hearing loss
B. Visual impairment
C. Acidosis
D. LeuKopenia
E. Muscular spasm

18- candesartan is used as a(an)

A. Diuretic
B. Antihypertensive
C. Hypnotic
D. Sedative
E. Antidepressant

19- the pharmacologic actions of sulindac include

1.Anti-inflammatory properties
11.Analgesic properties
111.Antipyretic properties

F. 1only
G.11only
H.1and11only
I. 11and111only
J. 1,11and111

20- Mirtazapine is used to treat symptoms of

A. Depression
B. Parkinsonism
C. Gout
D. Petit mal epilepsy
E. None of the above

21- Ofloxacin is classified as a (an)

A. Antifungal
B. Antiviral
C. Broad-spectrum antibiotic
D. Narrow spectrum antibiotic
E. Antirickettsial

22- Zidovudine may commonly cause which of

The following as a side effect?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Dryness of the mouth
C. Hyperactivity
D. Anemia
E. Anuria

23- Mupicorin ointment is used topically to treat

A. Conjunctivitis
B. All types of eye infections
C. Impetigo
D. Carcinomas of the skin
E. Hemorrhoids

24- Pentoxifylline acts primarily by

A. Dissolving cholesterol
B. Decreasing viscosity of the blood
C. Increasing biotransformation
D. Oxidative mechanisms
E. Preventing formation of cholesterol

25- Which of the following is most useful in treating hypertensive crisis?

A. Sodium nitorprusside
B. Serpasil
C. Chlorothiazide
D. Spironolactone
E. Triamterene

26- Allopurinol differs from most other agents used to treat gouty
conditions because
A. Does not decrease uric acid levels
B. Prevents formation of uric acid
C. Increase elimination of uric acid
D. Causes rapid biotransformation of uric acid
E. Has analgesic properties

27- Estrogen tend to increase the risk of

A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. Hirsuitism
C. Hearing loss
D. Visual problems
E. pregnancy

28- Which of the following drugs is contraindicated when used with

sildenafil?
A. Fluroquinolones
B. Organic nitrates
C. Penicillin’s
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. none of the above

29- Gentamicin exhibits

A. Significant hepatotoxicity
B. Significant cardiotoxicity
C. Significant dermal toxicity
D. Significant nephrotoxicity
E. All of the above

30- Risendronate is classified as a (an)

A. Cardio suppressant
B. Bisphosphonate
C. Diuretic
D. Immunosuppressant
E. Sympathomimetic

i31- Carbamazepine is used as an anticonvulsant as well as to treat pain

from
A. Kidney infections
B. Burns
C. Muscle injuries
D. Sinus headache
E. Trigeminal neuralgia

32- Methylphenidate is used to treat

A. Fatigue
B. Hyperkinesis disorders
C. Anxiety
D. Depression
E. Obesity
33- Doxorubicin is used to treat
A. A wide variety of infections
B. Gram- positive infections
C. Gram- negative infections
D. Viral infections
E. Carcinomas

34- A drug is useful in treating potentially fatal fungal infections is

A. Nystatin
B. Propionic acid
C. Amphotericin
D. Nystatin
E. Griseofulvin

35- The use of thyroid hormones in the treatment of obesity is

A. Widely accepted
B. Unjustified
C. Acceptable in combination with other drugs
D. Only acceptable if other treatments fail
E. Acceptable if the patient is closely monitored

36- An advantage of dextromethorphan over codeine as an antitussive is

that it
A. Is twice as affective
B. Is more stable
C. Has no side effects
D. Produces very little depression of the CNS
E. Has better analgesic properties

37- Nonselective 2- adrenoreceptor antagonists are used primarily in

A. Peripheral vascular disorder
B. Tachycardia
C. Migraine headache
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Renal insufficiency

38- Antimuscarinic drugs are contraindicated in

A. Narrow angle glaucoma
B. Paralytic ilens
C. Pyloric or intestinal obstruction
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

39- Zanamivir and ostelamivir are both FDA approved for

A. Treatment of influenza A infection
B. Treatment of influenza B infection
C. Prophylaxis of influenza infections
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

40- Which of the following drugs is not a proton pump inhibitor?

A. Pantoprazole
B. Rabeprazole
C. Lansoprazole
D. Sulfisoxazole
E. Omeprazole

41- A danger of prolonged use of pilocarpine salts as a miotic is

A. Tearning
B. Glaucoma
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Detached retina
E. Lens opacity

(@) 42- A serious side effect of furosemide in treating heart patients is

that it
A. Interact with digitalis glycosides
B. Causes arterial blockade
C. May cause anuria
D. Causes hypertension
E. May lose its effects

43- Which of the following drugs require electrocardiographic

monitoring prior to induction of therapy?
A. Ziprasidone
B. Arsenic trioxide
C. Cisapride
D. A and B
E- A,B and C

44- Lumivudine is usually classified as a(an)

A. H2 antagonist
B. Ulcer protectant
C. Antiviral
D. Oral antidiabetic
E. Anthelmintic

(@) 45- Prolonged usages of sublingual nitrates is likely to cause

A. Ulcers
B. Anuria
C. Rashes
D. Development of tolerance
E. Persistent headache

(@) 46- Streptokinase is used to

A. Dissolve blood clots
B. Treat digestive disorders
C. Promote carbohydrate degradation
D. Treat muscle injuries
E. Replace pepsin

47- Gold compounds have been used to teat

A. Worm infestations
B. Ulcers
C. Kidny failure
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Psoriasis

(@) 48- Tamoxifen is classified as a(an)

A. Estrogen
B. Antiestrogen
C. Androsterone
D. Testosterone
E. Thyroid hormone

(@) 49-Beriberi is associated whith a deficiency of

A. Vitamin D
B. Thiamine (B1)
C. Vitamin C
D. Niacin(B3)
E. Riboflavin(B2)

50- A drug is used to treat delirium tremens is

A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Haloperidol
C. Disulfiram
D. Methadone
E. None of the above

51 - Cromolyn sodium acts by

A. Destroying histamine
B. Releasing histamine
C. Biotransforming histamine
D. Preventing the release of histamine
E. None of the above

52- The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is due to

A. Analgesia
B. Inhibition of clotting
C. Antipyretic effect
D. Degradation of prostaglandins
E. Inhibition of prostaglandins synthesis

(@) 53- Castor oil is classified as which type of laxative?

A. Lubricating
B. Anthraquinone
C. Irritant
D. Stool softening
E. Bulk producing

54- Pencillamine is most commonly used to treat

A. Parkinsonism
B. Wilson's disease
C. Neoplasms
D. Raynaud's disease
E. Gram- positive infections

55- Which of the following drugs are withdrawn from the US market
In 2001 due to increased risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis?
A. Cerevastatin
B. Cisapride
C. Dexfenfluramine
D. Terfenadine
E. Astemizole

56- Doxycycline oral gel is used to treat

A. Periodontitis
B. Aphthous ulcers
C. Acne
D. Lyme disease
E. Arthritis

57- Which of the following drugs requires a dosage adjustment in

patients with renal impairment?
A. Famotidine
B. Capecitabine
C. Gentamicin
D. A and C
E. A, B and C

58- Aprevalent side effect of norethindrone is:

A. Diarrhea
B. Breakthrough bleeding
C. Blood dyscrasiency
D. Cardiac insufficiency
E. Abortion

(@) 59- the preferred way to offset hypokalemia is to

A. Eat citrus fruit
B. Eat sea food or fish
C. Administer potassium salt
D. Administer IV electrolytes
E. Dimnish urination

60- Persons receiving MAO inhibitors should control their intake of

A. Some fermented and beverages
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fats and lipids
D. Water
E. salicylate analgesics

61- Which of the following drug's may inhibit the metabolism of

ziprasidone?
I. Erythromycin
II. Ketoconazole
III. Phenobarbital

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

62- Flumazenal is a specific antagonist for which of the following drugs?

I. Meperidine
II. Propoxyphene
III. Diazepam

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

63- Which of the following antidepressant also had an indication for

smoking cessation?
A. Haloperidol
B. Bupropion
C. Citalopram
D. Mirtazapine
E. Paroxetine

64- Docosanol is a (an)

A. Diuretic
B. Nonnarcotic analgesic
C. Anti- inflammatory
D. Antiviral
E. Anthelmintic

65- Which of the following statements is true regarding the

Administration of alendronate?
I. Take more than 30 minutes before first food or beverage of the day
II. Take with 6 to 8 ounces of plain water
III. Remain fully upright (sitting or standing ) for about 30 minutes

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
66- Testosterone is available as which of the following dosage form?
I. Ointments
II. Injection
III. Transdermal patch

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

67- Which of the following is an oral hypoglycemic agent?

A. Ketorolac
B. Pioglitazone
C. Doconasol
D. Riluzole
E. Terbinafine

68- The concurrent administration (within 1 to 2 hours of dosing) of

nislopidine should be avoided with which of the following?
I. High _ fat meal
II. Grapefruit juice
III. Cocoa

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

69- Which of the following drugs may be administered without regard

to meals?
I. Valaciclovir
II. Cetirizine
III. Acarbose

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
70- Dexfenfluramine, an agent approved for the treatment of obesity ,
was removed from the U.S market due to
A. Cardiac valvular dysfunction
B. Gastric ulcerations
C. Renal toxicity
D. Ototoxicity
E. Hepatic impairment

71 - The terminal half _ life of alendronate is:

A. 10 days
B. 10 months
C. 10 years
D. 10 hours
E. 10 minutes

72- Serotonin syndrome is characterized by which of the following

syndrome?
I. Mental states changes
II. Tremor
III. Diaphoresis

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

73- the FDA has recommended the removal of which ingredient found in
cough/cold products due to an association with hemorrhagic stroke?
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Psedoephedrine
C. Guanfenisen
D. Phenylpropanolamine
E. Ephedrine
(@) 74- Which of the following antacids should not be used in dialysis
patients?
l. Aluminum hydroxide
ll. Magnnesium hydroxide
lll.Calcium carbonate

A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and lll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l,ll and lll

75- Melatonin regulates which of the following functions?

l. Sleep
ll. circadian
lll. Respiration

A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll

76- Tacrolimus ointment is used primarily to treat

A. Pain
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Sunburns
D. Skin grafts
E. Poison ivy

77- In 2001 , Which analgesic experienced significant misuses and

diversion, requiring revisions in the warning section of the product
labeling?
A. Oxycontin
B. Demerol
C. Tylenol #3
D. Toradol
E. roxanol

(@) 78- Which of the following drug combination has (have) been
effective therapy for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori?
l. Clarithromycin/ ranitidine bismuth citrate
ll. Omeprazole/ clarithromycin
lll. Ciprofloxacin/ erythromycin

A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l ,ll and lll

79- Ziprasiodne , an agent used to treat schizophrenia , exerts its

pharmacological effects by:
A. Inhibiting histamine reuptake
B. Stimulating serotonin synthesis
C. Blocking dopamine
D. Stimulating dopamine release
E. None of the above

80- Ocular timolol is used primarily to treat

A. Mydriasis
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataracts
D. Conjunctivitis
E. None of the above

81i- Cetirizine is a
A. Nonspecific histamine antagonist
B. Histamine 1 antagonist
C. Histamine 2 antagonist
D. Histamine 1 agonist
E. Histamine 2 agonist

82- Bivalirudin is a (an)

A. Anticoagulant
B. Anti- infective
C. NSAID
D. Antiviral
E.Antihistamine

83- Cevimeline is used to treat

A. Dermatitis
B. Xerostomia
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Tinea versicolor
E. Eczema

84- Crotalide is used to treat the bites of

A. Fleas
B. North American vipers
C. Ticks
D. Rabid animals
E. Black widow spiders

85- Which of the following statements regarding fosphenytoin are true?

l. Fosphenytoin is completely converted to phenytion after intravenous or
Intramuscular administration
ll. The administration of 1 mmol of phenytion
111. Monitoring serum phenytion levels is not necessary
A. l only
B. ll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll

86- The principal adverse effect of acarbose is

A. Hematologic
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Renal
D. Hepatic
E. Dermal

87- Unoprostone is FDA approved to treat

A. Ovarian cancer
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Open angle glaucoma
D. Conjunctivitis
E. Tinnitus

88- Oral parenteral Ketorolac therapy is limited to 5 days of therapy

due to an increased risk of
A. Renal impairment
B. Gastro intestinal bleeding/ perforation
C. Liver failure
D. CNS disturbances
E. A and B
89- Which of the following HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors causes the
greatest percentage increase in HDL?
A. Simvastatin
B. Pravastatin
C. Lovastatin
D. Fluvastatin
E. All produce *****alent reductions

90- Sibutramine should not be used in patients

l. With a body mass index greater than 30 kg/m2
ll. Taking MAO inhibitors
lll. With poorly controlled hypertension

A. l only
B. lll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll

i91- Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to

A. Sodium depletion
B. Potassium depletion
C. Direct drug interaction
D. Increased absorption
E. Increased solubility of the lithium salts

92- Leflunamide is used to treat

A. Crohn's disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Psoriasis
D. Photoallergic reactions
E. None of the above

93- Sumatriptan use is contraindicated in patients’:

l. with a history of ischemic heart disease
ll. Taking phenelzine
lll. With uncontrolled hypertension

A. l only
B. lll only
C. l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l ,ll and lll

94- Eptifibatide is classified as a (an)

A. Fluoroquinolone
B. Glycoprotein llb/ llla receptor inhibitor
C. Diuretic
D. Antihypertensive
E. None of the above

95- Finasteride's action in the treatment of benign prostatic

hypertrophy is a (an)
A. HMG- CoA reductase inhibitor
B. Alpha-5reductase inhibitor
C. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
D. P450 hepatic enzyme inhibitor
E. None of the above

96- A useful agent in the treatment of bladder incontinence is

A. Nalmefene
B.. olterodine
C. Tolcapone
D. Valrubicin
E.None of the above

97- Which of the following agents are approved for treatment of

narcolepsy?
l. Modafinil
ll. Methylphenidate
lll. Dextroamphetamine

A. l only
B. lll only
C.l and ll only
D. ll and lll only
E. l , ll and lll

98- Misoprostol is used to

A. Treat gastric ulcers
B. Prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers
C. Prevent osteoporosis
D. Prevent renal toxicity
E.Treat Paget's disease

99- Acarbose , a hypoglycemic agent, exerts which of the following

mechanisms of action?
A. Increased insulin secretion
B. Increased insulin receptor sensitivity
C . Decreases circulating insulin antibiotics
D. Delays digestion of carbohydrates
E. None of the above

100- Which of the following drugs interferes with the metabolism of

Indinavir?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Digoxin
D. Lorazepam
E. None of the above

Fifth 100

1-An adverse effect of commonly associated with the use of

theophyllineHYH products is
A) Crystaluria
B) Skin Rash
C) Syncope
D) Ptosis
E) Insomnia

i2- Which of the following statement is (are) true of epinephrine?

l. May be administered by inhalation
ll. Reduces arterial blood pressure
lll. Peripheral vasodilator

A) 1 only
B) 111only
C)1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i3- Dipivefrin ( proppine) can best be described as a(an)i

A) Sholinesterase inhibitor
B) Osmotic diuretic
C) Beta- adrenergic blocking agent
D) Prodrug
E) Chelating agent

i4- Which of the following statement are (is) true of ticlopidine

HCI(Ticlid)?
1. Only administered parenterally
11. Dissolves blood clots
111. Inhibits platelet aggregation

A) 1only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E) 1,11 and111

i5- The antiarrhythmic action of tocainide(Tono card) and

mexiletine(Mexitil) most closely resembles that of
A)Acebutolol
B) Verapamil
C) Quinidine
D) Lidocaine
E) Disopyramide

i6- Wghich one of the following agents may be added to local injection of
Xylocaine in order to prolong its effect
A) Succinylcholine chloride
B) Sodium carbxymethylcellulose
C) Polyethylene glycol
D) Epinephrine
i7- Colestipol HCI is most commonly employed as a (an)i
A) Antidote for atropine overdosage
B) Hypoglycemic agent
C) Bile acid sequestrant
D) Fat substi tute
E) Bronchodilator

i8- Which one of the following drugs dose NOT lower plasma
lipoprotein Concentrations?i
A) Simvastatin
B) Clofibrate
C) Probucol
D) Cholestyramine
E) Nicotinamide

i9- A drug that has been shown to have a strong antagonism for both
histamine and serotonin is
A) Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Tirmeton)i
B) Tripolidine (Actidil)i
C) Cyproheptadine (Periactin)i
D) Loratidine (Claritin)i
E) Promethazine (Phenergan)i

i10- Idoxuridine (Herplex) is an effective treatment for dentric

keratitis , which is caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium difficle
E) Herpes simplex

11- Isotretinoin is used therapeutically

A) As a urinary analgesic
B) In the treatment of cystic acne
C) As an antifungal agent
D) In the treatment of resistant tuberculosis
E) As an osmotic diuretic

i12- An agent that would be most likely to cause drugs- induced

bronchospasm is
A) nedocromil
B) Enalapril
C) Isoproterenol
D) Pindolol
E) Theophylline

13i- Albuterol(Proventil , Ventolin) is a(an)i

A) Alpha receptor antagonist
B) Alpha receptor agonist
C) Beta receptor antagonist
D) Beta receptor agonist
E) Alpha and Beta receptor agonist

i14- Which of the following drugs is (are) histamine antagonists?i

i1. Brompheniramine
11i. pyrilamine
i111. Rantidine

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111
i15- Of the following glucocorticoids, which one has the greatest anti-
inflammatory potency when administered systemically?i
A) Hydrocortisone (Cortef)i
B) Dexamethasone (Decadron)i
C) Triamcinolone (Aristocort)i
D) Prednisone (Meticorten)i
E) Cortisone (Cortone)i
i16- Benzoyl peroxide is commonly employed in the treatment of
A) Psoriasis
B) Pinworms
C) Acne
D) Trichomonal infections
E) Seborrheic dermatitis

i17- Which one of the following hormones is released from the posterior
pituitary gland?i
A) Oxytocin
B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)i
C) Thyroid – stimulating hormone (TSH)i
D) Follicle – stimulating hormone(FSH)i
E) Growth hormone

i18- During ovulation , peak plasma concentration(s) of Which of the

following Hormone(s) will be reached?i
1i. Progesterone
i11. Follicle – stimulating hormone (FSH)i
i111. Luteinizing hormone (LH)i

A)1 only
B) 111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1,11 and 111

i19- Liotrix is a thyroid preparation that contains

i1. Liothyronine sodium
i11. Levothyroxine sodium
111i. Desiccated thyroid

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

20i- A phenothiazine derivative commonly used for its antihistaminic

effect is?i
A) Promethazine
B) Promazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Prochlorpromazine
E) Thioridazine

i21- Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is indicated for the treatment of

1. Insomnia
11. Epilepsy
111. Trigeminal neuralgia

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E)1 ,11 and 111

i22- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that possesses the least
sedating action is
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Oxazepam (Serax)
C) Meprobamate (Miltown , Equanil)
D) Chlordiazeppoxide (Librium)
E) Buspirone (Buspar)
i23- Which of the following is (are) NOT true of theophylline?
1. Chemically related to caffeine
11. Increases the contractile force of the heart
111. Causes CNS depression

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

(@) 24- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by

which one of the following mechanisms?
A) Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane
B)Inhibition of protein synthesis
C) Destruction of the bacterial cell nucleus
D) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
E) Steric hindrance of membrane acids

i25- The antibacterial mechanism of the penicillins is most similar to

that of
A) Lincomycin (Lincocin)
B) Tetracycline HCL (Achromycin)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D)Granisteron (Kytrill)
E)Probenecid (Benemid)

i26- Five hundred milligrams of phenoxymethyl penicillin is e quiv alent

to approximately how many units of penicillin activity?
A) 125,000
B) 200,000
C) 1600
D) 250,000
E) 800,000

i27- Chlorhexidine gluconate is most similar in action to

A)Quindine gluconate
B) Chlorpheniramine
C) Calcium gluconate
D) Hexachlorophene
E) Chloroquine phosphate

i28- Sulfanomides exert a bacteriostatic effect by competitivel;y

inhibiting the action of
A) monoamine oxidase
B) Xanthine oxidase
C)Pyrimidine
D) Para-aminobenzoic acid
E) Uric acid

i29- Sulfones such as dapsone are employed commonly in the treatment

of
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Psoriasis
C) Brigh’s disease
D) Hansen’s disease
E) Cushing’s disease

i30- which one of the following tetracycline has the longest duration of
action?
A) Doxycline (Vibramycin)
B) Tetracycline (Achromycin)
C) Minocycline (Minocin)
D) Oxytetracycline (Terramycin)
E) Demeclocycline (Dclomycin)

i31- Tricyclic antidepressants are believed to exert their antidepressant

action by
A) Potentiating GABA activity
B) Increasing the effect of neurotransmitters on postsynaptic receptor sites
C) Blocking alpha adrenergic receptors
D) Increasing the m etabolic breakdown of biogenic amines
E) Blocking beta adrenergic receptor

i32- Methylxanthines such as caffeine and theophylline exert all of the

following pharmacologic effects EXCEPT
A) Cardiac stimulation
B) Peripheral vasoconstriction
C) Relaxation of smooth muscle
D) Diuresis
E) CNS stimulation

i33- Which of the following agents has (have) been found useful in the
treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
1. Ergotamine tartrate (Ergostat)
11. Loperamide (Imodium)
111. Auronafin (Ridaura)

A) 1only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i34- As an antiarrhythmic drug , procainamide is most similar in action

to which one of the following agents?
A) Amiodarone( K)
B) Propranolol
C) Digoxin
D) Verapamil
E) Quinidine

i35- Which of the following statements are (is) true of acetycysteine?

1. Mast cell stabilizer
11. Acetaminophen antidote
111. Mucolytic

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 ,11 and 111

i36- Which of the following is (are) true of pravastatin?

1. Antihypertensive agent
11. Pregnancy category X
111. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

A) 1 only
B)111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E)1 ,11 and 111

i37- Which of the following is (are) employed as antifungal agents?

1. Natamycin
11. Clorimazole
111. Mafenide

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i38- Which of the following is (are) dopaminergic antipkinson agents?

1. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
11. Pergolide(Permax)
111. Selegiline (Eldepryl)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i39- Agents that are employed as gastric stimulants include

1. Omeprazole
11. Cisapride
111. Metoclopramide

A) 1 only
B) 111 0nly
C)1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E)1 ,11 and111

i40- Methimazole (tapozle) is used for the same therapeutic indication as

A) Methaxsalen
B)Danazole
C) Propylthiouracil
D) omeprazole
E) Azathioprine

41- Pencillamine is a drug used therapeuptically for the treatment 0f

1. Wilson's disease
11. Rheumatoid arthritis
111. Cysteinuria

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i42- Polymyxin B is pharmacologically and microbilogically similar to

A) Ampicillin (Polycillin)
B)Colistin ( Coly- Mycin S)
C) Gentamicin (Garamycin)
D) Penicillin G
E) Tetracycline (Achromycin)

i43- Potentially fatal aplastic anemia is toxic effect associated with

A) Ciprofloxacin (cipro)
B) Cefadroxil (Duracef)
C) Disopyramide (Norpace)
D) Clindamycin (Cleocin)
E) Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
i44- Agents indicated for the treatment of depression include (is)
1. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
11. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
111. Phenelzine (Nardil)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D)11 and 111 only
E)1 , 11 and 111

i45- Enhanced clotting ability of the blood is associated with the

administration of
1. Tocopherol
11. Ticlopidine
111. Phytonadione

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i46- Carbidopa can best be classified as a drug that

A) Reverses aymptoms of Parkinson's disease
B) Exerts an anticholinergic action
C) Is adopa – decarboxylase inhibitor
D) Is a neuromuscular blocking agent
E) Is a skeletal muscle relaxant

i47- Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a drug employed in the treatment of

severe recalcitrant cystic acne. Which one of the following is NOT an
adverse effect associated with its use?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertriglyceridemia
C) Pseudotumor cerebri
D) Conjuctivitis
E) Fatal abnormalities

i48- Which of the following is true of isotretinoin (Accutane)

A) Commonly causes cheilitis
B) A derivative of vitamin D
C) Is applied topically to severe acne lesions
D) Contraindicated in patients with diabetes
E) May be used safely in pregnant patients after the first trimester

i49- Endorphins are

A) Endogenous opioid peptides
B) A new class of topical anti- inflammatory agents
C) Neuromuscular blocking agents
D) Biogenic amines believed to cause schizophrenia
E) Endogenous chelating agents

i50- Lovastatin (Mevacor) is contraindicated for use in patients who are

A) Hypersensitive to aspirin
B) Pregnant
C) Chronic asthmatics
D) More than 25 % over ideal body weight
E) Diabetics

51- Which of the following drugs is a available in a transdermal dosage

form for use in the prevention of nausea and vomiting associated with
motion sickness in adults
A) Metoclopramide
B) Ondansetron
C) Scopolamine
D) Clonidine
E) Granisetron

i52- Which one of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of
primary nocturnal enuresis?
A) Ritodine (Yutopar)
B) Amoxapine (Asendin)
C)Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
D) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
E) Methenamine hippurate (Urex)

i53- An example of a benzodiazepine that is not m etabolized to active m

etabolites in the body is
A) Triazolam
B) Chlordiazepoxide
C) zolpidem
D) Diazapam
E) Halazepam

i54- Which of the following , antimicrobial agens would be MOST useful

in the treatment of an infection caused by nbeta lectamase- producing
staphylococci?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Cephapirin
C) Cephalexin
D) Dicloxacillin
E) Bacampicillin

i55- Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for the

Gastrointestinal absorption of
A) Medium chain triglycerides
B) Folic acid
C) Iron
D) Tocopherols
E) Cyanocobalamin

i56- Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutiam, and ataxia are adverse effects

associated with the use of
A) Minoxidil
B) Chlorpromazine
C)Ginseng root
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

i57- Levobunolol (Betagan) is a drug used in the treatment of glaucoma.

Which one of the following best describes the action it exerts on the eye?
A) Miotic
B) Decreases the production of aqueous humor
C) Interferes with the enzyme carbonic anhydrase
D) Acts as an osmotic diuretic
E) Mydriatic

i58- Cardioselectivity is a property of which of the following beta

adrenergic blocking agents?
1.Carteolol (ocupress)
11. Metipranolol HCI (Optipranolol)
111. Betaxolol(Betoptic)

A) 1only
B)111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i59- Which of the following is (are) a property or an action of

pilocarpine?
1. Direct acting miotic
11. Ingredient in Ocusert ocular therapeutic system
111. Similar pharmacologic action to dorozolamide(Trusopt)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1,11 and111
i60- Which one of the following is NOT an effect of atropine on the
human body?\
A) Cardiac stimulation
B) Diminished sweating
C) Mydriasis
D) Reduction of gastrointestinal tone
E) Stimulation of gastric secretion

i61- Which one of the following statement best describes the mechanism
of action of antihistaminic drugs?
A) They interfere with the synthesis of histamine in the body
B) They form inactive complexes with histamine
C) They stimulate the m etabolism of endogenous histamine
D) They blok the receptor sites on which histamine acts
E) They are alpha- adrenergic blockers

i62- Haloperidol (Halol) differs from chlorpromazine (Thorazine) in

that haloperidol
A) Is not an antipsychotic agent
B) Dose not produce extrapyramidal effects
C) Is not a phenothiazine
D) Dose not cause sedation
E) Cannot be administered parenterally

(@) 63- Tomoxifen(Nolvadex) is an agent that can best be described as a

(an)
A) Gonadotropin- releasing hormone analog
B) Antiestrogen
C) Enstrogen
D) Progestin
E) Androgen

i64- Which of the following ia (are) true of auranofin (Ridaura)?

1. May cause thrombocytopenia
11. Orally administered form of gold therapy
111. Its use may result in renal impairment

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1 , 11 and 111

i65- Advantages of acetaminophen over aspirin include all of the

following EXCEPT?
A) No alteration of bleeding time
B) Less gastric irritation
C) No occultblood loss
D) No appreciable effect on uric acid excretion
E) Greater anti- inflammatory action

i66-The use of clozapine (Clozaril) has been associated with the

development of
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Aranulocytosis (dec in WBCS FROM MARROW)
D) Meningitis
E) Hyperuricemia

i67-Although classified as antibiotics, dactinomycin (Cosmegen) and

plicamycin (Mithracin) are used in cancer chemotherapy because they
have a (an)
A) Immunosuppresant effect
B) Antiviral effect
C) Ability to "sterilize" blood
D) Anabolic effect
E) Cytotoxic effect

i68- The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to

1. Resetting of the hypothalamic "setpoint"
11. Adrenal stimulation
111. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C)1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i69- The first dose effect is characterized by marked hypotension and

syncope on taking the first few doses of medication. This effect is seen
with the use of.
1. Bepridil (Vascor)
11. Terazosin (Hytrin)
111. Prazosin (Minipress)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i70- Carbon monoxide exerts its toxic primarily by

A) Reacting with blood enzymes to produce acidic substances
B)Decreasing the oxygen- carrying capacity of the blood
C) Reacting with amino acids in the body to form ammonia
D) Inhibiting the gag reflex
E) Paralyzing the muscles of the diaphragm

71- The most serious potential consequence of indestion of a liquid

hydrocarbon such as kerosene or gasoline is
A) The aspiration of the position into respiratory tract
B) The corrosive action of the position on the stomach lining
C) The paralysis of peristaltic motion of the GI tract
D) Dissolution of the mucoid coat of the esophagus
E) The destruction of body enzymes by the poison
i72- Deferoxamine mesylate is considered to be a specific antidote for
the treatment of poisoning caused by
A) Anticholinergic agents
B) Opiate narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Loop diuretics
E) Iron containing products

i73- Which one of the following agents is classified pharmacologically as

a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
A) Indapamide (Lozol)
B) Acetazolamide (iamox)
C) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
D) Torsemide (Demadex)
E) Amiloride (Midamor)

i74- The thiazide diuretics decease the excretion of

A) Uric acid
B) Urea
C)Sodium
D) Bicarbonate
E) Creatinine

i75- The renal excretion of amphetamines can be diminished by

alkalinization of the urine. Which of the following would tend to
diminish the excretion rate of amphetamine sulfate?
1. methenamine mandelate
11. Sodium bicarbonate
111. Acetazolamide

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
i76- An agent emplyed in relieving signs and symptoms of spasticity
resulting from multiple sclerosis is
A) Buspirone (Buspar)
B) Dantrolene (Dantrium)
C) Ursodiol (Actigall)
D) Mexiletine (Mexitil)
E) Amiodarone (Cordarone)

i77- Which of the following is (are) MAO inhibitors?

1. Pargyline (Eutonyl)
11. Tranylcypromine(parnate)
111. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i78- Arug that is indicated for the treatment of both diarrhea and
constipation is
A) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
B) Lactulose (Cephylac)
C) Magnesium sulfate
D) Senna (Senokot)
E) Polycarbophil (Mitrolan)
i79- Which one of the following is microsomal enzyme indicer?
A) Indomethacin
B) Rifampin
C) Tolbutamide
D) Tobramycin
E) Ibyprofen

i80- The thiazide derivative diazoxide (Hyperstat)

A) Is a stronger diuretic than hydrochlorothiazide
B) Is not a diuretic
C) Produces about the same diuretic response as an equal dose of
hydrochlorothiazide
D) Produces diuretics in normotensive subjects only
E) Is a pressor agent

i81- Which of the following is (are) broad- spectrum antifungal agents?

1. Griseofulvin
11. Ketaokonazole
111. Miconazole

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i82- Which of the following barbiturates is used as an intravenous

anesthetic?
A) Mephobarbital
B)Amobarbital
C) Methohexital sodium
D) Pentobarbital sodium
E) Secobarbital sodium

i83- The most useful drug the treatment of diabetes insipidus is

A) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
B) Glucagen
C) Insulin
D) Glyburide (Micronase)
E) Lypressin (Diapid)

i84- A pharmacist receives a pres criription order for indimethacin

(Indocin) capsules.
He/she should consult with physician if the mediation record indicates
that the patient
A) Has gout
B) Has arthritis
C) Has a peptic ulcer
D) Has insomnia
E)Is hypertensive

i85- The sulfonylyreas (eg. Diabinese, Glucotrol) are believed to exert

their hypoglycemic effect by
A) Decreasing the desire for sugar consumption
B) Inhibiting breakdown of endogenous insulin
C) Enhancing the effectiveness of the small amounts of insulin that the
diabetic can produce
D) Increasing the peripheral utilization of glucose
E) Stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas

i86- Which of the following hypoglycemic drugs has longest serum half
life?
A) Acetohexamide (Dymelor)(1.3hr)
B) Tolbutamide (Orinase)(8hr)
C) Glyburide (Diabinese, Micronase)(24hr)
D) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)(36hr)
E) All of the above about the same serum half life

i87- Vidarabine(Vira- A) is an antiviral agent indicated for the

treatment of
A) Rubella
B) Smallpox
C) Influenza
D) Pneumocystis carini pneumonia (PCP)
E) Herpes simplex encephalitis

i88- Zidovudine (Retrovir) is indicated for the treatment of patients with

1. Influenza A virus infection
11. Herpes simplex infection
111. human immunodefiency virus (HIV) infection
A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i89- Which one the following statement is true of alteplase (Activase)?

A) It is derived from bovine tissue
B) It is thrombolytic agent
C) It is derived from porcine tissue
D) It is an anticoagulant
E) It is administered intramuscularly

i90- Cromylin sodium (Intal, Nasalcrom, Opticrom) is a drug that is

A) Effective in acute asthmatic attacks
B) A synthetic corticosteroid
C) A histamine antagonist
D) A theophylline derivative
E) A mast cell stabilizer

91- Which one of the following calcium channel blockers may be

employed parentera
1. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
11. Isradipine (DynaCirc)
111. V erapamil (Isoptin, Calan)

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E) 1, 11 and 111

i92- Which one of the following is NOT a progestin?

A) Norethynodrel
B) Norethindrone
C) Ethynodiol diacetate
D) Levenorgestrel
E) Mestranol(estrogen)

i93- Which one of the following beta- adrenergic blocking agents has
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)?
A) Esmolol(Brevibloc)
B) Atenolo (Tenormin)
C) Pindolol(Visken)
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
E) Propranolol HCL (Inderal)

i94- Torsemide (Demadex) is most similar in action to

A) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
B) Risperidone (Risperdal)(CNS)
C) Bum etanide (bumex)
D)Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
E) Acetazolamide (Diamox)(CAIs)

i95- Potassium supplementation is LEAST likely to be required in a

patient using
A) Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
B) Chlorthalidone (Hygroton)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium)

i96- Acyclovir (Zovirax) is indicated for the treatment of

A) Shingles(chicken pox)
B) Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
C) HIV infection
D) Measles
E) Influenza caused by influenza A virus strains
i97- A drug that is effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal
syndromes and in the prevention of delirium tremens is
A) Disulfiram (Antabuse)
B) Methadone (Dolophine)
C) Phenytion (Dilantin)
D) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
E) Haloperidol (Haldol)

i98- Which one of the following statement is TRUE of bacitracin?

1. It is effective intreating Pseudomonas infection
11. It is an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent
111. Nephrotoxicity limits its parenteral use

A) 1 only
B) 111 only
C) 1 and 11 only
D) 11 and 111 only
E)1 , 11 and 111

i99- Olzalazine sodium (Dipentum) is employed in the treatment of

A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Duodenal ulcers
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Urinary tract infections
E) Diabetes insipidus

i100- Beta carotene is considered to be a precursor for

A) Betaseron
B)Beta interferon
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin A
E) Carteolol
Sixth 100

1- The highest concentration of benzoyl peroxide for acne to be sold as

OTC in the UAE is
A) 2.5%
B) 5.0%
C)10%
D)15%

i2- The appropriate PH range for aphthalmic products is

A) 2.0 to 3.0
B) 4.0 to 6.0
C) 6.0 to 8.0
D) 8.0 to 10.0

i3- Which of the following should NOT be administered to a patient

being treated for narrow- angle glaucoma
A) Dipivefrine
B)Pilocarpine
C) Carbachol
D) Homatropine

i4- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients with open- angle
glaucoma EXCEPT
A) Carbachole
B) Atropine
C) Dipivefrine
D) Betaxolol

i5- Methylcellulose and similar agents are in ophthalmic solutions to

A) Increase drop size
B) Reduce drops size
C) Increase ocular contact time
D) Reduce tear formation during instillation of the drops

i6- Which of the following sulfonylureas has the longest half- life
A) Tolbutamide
B) Glibenclamide
C) Tolzamide
D) Chlorpropamide

i7- The insulin preparation which is non- immunogenic

A) Protamine zinc insulin suspension
B) Human insulin
C) Bovine insulin
D) All of the above

i8- Incombined oral contraceptives, oestrogens act to,

A) Inhibit of leuteinising Hormone
B) Inhibit release of Follicle stimulating hormone
C) Inhibit ovulation
D) Cause thickening of cervical mucus

(@) 9- Which of the following substances when present inurine is the

most likely positive sign of pregnancy
A) Thyroid stimulating hormone
B) Melatonin
C) Human chrionic gonadotropin
D) Corticotropin

i10- Which of the following is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland

A) Somatotropin
B) Human chorionic gonadotropin
C) Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Corticotropin
i11- Side effects of isotretinoin (Roaccutane) include
A) Dermatological reactions
B) Depresion
C) Teratogenicity
D) All of the above

i12- Lidocain Hcl is NOT administered orally because it is

A) ineffective by this route
B) Too acidic
C) Too acidic by this rout
D) A cause of arrhythmias

i13- Calcitonin is produced in the

A) adrenal cortex
B) Thyroid gland
C) Pancreas
D) Adrenal medulla

i14- Which of the following is the shortest acting Mydriatic

A) Atropine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Tropicamide
D) a, b and c

i15- Tinea infections are caused by

A) Virus
B) Fungus
C) Gram- positive bacterium
D) None of the above

i16- Prolactin inhibiting factor is

A) Dopamine
B) Thyrotropin
C) Somatotropin
D) Corticotropin
i17- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with increased
prolactin secretion
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Metocloproamide
C) Bromocryptin
D) Methyldopa

(@) 18- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a high level of which of the
following ion
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnessium
D) Potassium

i19- Which of the following is the first diagnostic symptom of digoxin

overdose
A) Anorexia, nausea, vomiting
B) Constipation
C) High bodytemperature
D) Bronchospasm

i20- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion inhibitor

A) Dipyridamole
B) Nitrafuratoin
C) Dextropropoxyphene
D) Imipramine

i21- Nitroglycerin has a relatively low bio- availability because

A) Its chemically unstable
B) Its poorly absorbed
C) It has a first pass m etabolism
D) a,b and c
i22- Sucralfate is used to treat
A) Peptic ulcers
B) Carcinoma
C) Calcium depletion
D) Obesity

i23- Methyldopa is used as a /an

A) Antiparkinsonism
B) Sedative
C) Antihypertensive
D) Prolactin inhibitor

i24- Pentoxifylline acts primarily by

A) Dissolving cholesterol
B) Decreasing viscosity of theblood
C) Oxidative mechanisms
D) Preventing formation of cholesterol

i25- Which of the following is most useful in treating hypertensive crisis

A) Chlorthiazide
B) Spironolactone
C) Sodium Nitroprusside
D) Adenosine
i26- A triple therapy for erapy for eradication of H. pylori contains
A) Amoxycillin, Omeprazole, Clarithromycin
B) Tetracycline, Amoxycillin, Clarithromycin
C) Vancomycin, Amoxycillin, Metronidazole
D) Pencillin, Clarithromycin, Metronidazole

i27- Lidocaine is used as

A) General anaesthesia
B) Antipruritic
C) Antiarrythmic
D) Preanaesthetic

i28- The principal toxic effect of

A) Bronchospasm
B) Chillis
C) Hair loss
D) Haemorrhage

i29- Which of the following is NOT true about Misoprostol

A) It's a prostaglandin analogue
B) It is used to prevent NSAID'S induced peptic ulcer
C) It may be used in pregnant women
D) It causes diarrhea
i30- Which of the following is a lipid lowering drug
A) Aprotinin
B) Tranexamic acid
C) Lansoprazole

D) Acipimox

31- Simethicone is a\an

A) Antacid
B) Antiflatulent
C) Constipating agent
D) Laxative

i32- Which of the following side effects will be caused by antacids

containing sodium bicarbonate
A) Belching
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhoea
D) Blurred vision

i33-Which of the following is a dopamine antagonist

A) Grannisteron
B) Domperidone
C) Cisapride
D) Loperamide

i34- Which of the following drugs is a systemic amoebicide

A) Diloxamide furoate
B) Pyrimethamine
C) Emetin
D) Sodium stibogluconate
i35- Which of the following drugs may cause discolouration of nail beds
and mucous membranes
A) Tetracycline
B) Chloroquine
C) Doxycycline
D) Rifampicin

i36- Which of the following drugs is the choice for the treatment of all
forms of Schistosomiasis
A) Praziquantel
B) Mebendazole
C) Niclosamide
D) Thiabendazole

i37- Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of
influenza A infection
A) Zidovudine(AZT)
B) Amantadine
C) Ribavirin
D) Vidarabine

i38- Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of

leishmaniasis
A) Pyrimethamine
B) Diloxamide furoate
C) sodium stibogluconate
D) Emetin

i39- In Which of the following infections ciprofloxacillin is least effective

A) UTI due to a beta- lactamase producing strain of klebsiella

B) Pneumonia due to to streptococcus pneumonia
C) UTI infection due to E. coli
D) UTI due to pseudomonas aeruginosa

i40- Which one of the following statements about Tetracyclines is not

correct
A) It is useful for treatment of resistant strains
B) It is contraindicated in pregnancy
C) It is effective infection caused by Chlamydia
D) It can lead to discolouration of teeth if given to cgildren

i41- Which one of the following is both pencillinase resistant and

effective by oral administration
A) Pencillin V
B) Methicillin
C) Amoxicillin+ Clavulanic acid
D) Carbimazole

i42- Which of the following drugs is used topically for burn patients
A) Sulphacetamide
B) Sulphadiazine
C) Sulphasalzine
D) Silver sulphadiazine

i43-Which one among the following drugs is effective in the treatment if

pneumonia caused by pneumocystis carinii
A) Sulphacetamide
B) Sulphasalzine
C) Sulphisoxzole
D) Co- Trimoxazole
i44- Sulphonamides are useful in the treatment of which one of the
following
A) Influenza
B) Gonorrhoea
C) Urinary tract infections
D) Meingococcal

i45- In which one of the following clinical situations is the prophylactic

use of antibiotics NOT warranted
A) It is useful for the treatment of resistant strains
B) It is contraindicated in pregnancy
C) It is effective in infection caused by Chlamydia
D) Patient with a heart prosthesis having a tooth removal

i46- Which of the following clinical indications will NOT require a

combination of antibiotics
A) Treatment of mixed infections
B) Treatment of tuberculosis
C) Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis
D) Treatment of gonnorhoea

(@) 47- Which of the following drug will antagonize methotrexate

A) Thiamine
B) Folic acid
C) Biotin
D) Cyanocobalamin

i48- All of the following aretherapeutic indications of salicylates

EXCEPT
A) Rhematoid arthritis
B) Fever in children with varicella
C) Fever in adults with influenza
D) Spasmodic dysmennorhoea

(@) 49- Famotidine is classified as

A) Anti depressant
B) H1 receptor antagonist
C) H2 receptor antagonist
D) Beta 2 agonist

i50- Match the drug characteristics (1-4).Each answer may be used

more than once
A) Auranofin
B) Pencillamine
C)Aspirin
D) Corticosteroids

1- Platelet function effect

2- Oral form of gold
3- Given on an empty stomach
4- May be given intra- aricularly

i51- For each side effct(1-4), list the most likely cause (A-D) .Each
answer may be used more than once
A) Sodium bicarbonate
B)Aluminium hydroxide
C) Amitryptiline
D) Magnessium hydroxide
i1- May cause diarrhea
i2- Should not be used by patients of heart failure
i3- May cause dry mouth
i4- Can be incorporated with an antacid mixture to control diarhoea

i52- Pyridoxine requirements may increase during administration of all

of the following EXCEPT
A) Isoniazid
B) Cycloserine
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Levodopa

i53- The process of rubbing or grinding a substance in a mortar is called

A) Trituration
B) Spactulation
C) Levigation
D) Coating

(@) 54- Which of the following is a natural emulsifuing agent

A) Acacia
B) Lactose
C) Polysorbate 20
D) Polysorbate 80

i55- All of the following preparations contain alcohol EXCEPT

A) Syrup simplex B.P
B) Aromatic ammonia spirit USP
C) Acetic acid N.F
D) Belladone tincture B.P

i56- the RDA (Recommended daily allowance) of elemental iron for an

adult man is
A) 1-5mg
B) 10-18mg
C) 50-100mg
D) 150-200mg

i57- A contraindication to the antimigraine drug sumatriptan is

A)Hypotension
B) Hirsuitism
C) Gingival hyperplasia
D) a, b and c

i59- Paracetamol
A) Is not recommended for post- immunization in 2-3 month old infants
B) Has an anti- inflammatory activity similar to aspirin
C) Is an effective analgesic in severe renal colic
D) May cause severe liver toxicity if taken in overdose

i60- An inorganic molecule used in the treatment of mania is

A) Aluminium hydroxide
B)Cromolyn sodium
C) Lithium bicarbonate

D) Magnesium oxide

i61- Which of the following is the drug of choice for an acute febrile
convulsion
A) Carbamazepine
B) Clonazepam
C) Diazepam
D) Phenytion

i62- Which of the following is a tricyclic anti-depressant

A) Clomipramine (Anafranil)i
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)i
C) Maprotilline (Ludiomil)i
D) Tranylcypromine (Parnate)i

i63- Which of the following components of analgesic tablets commonly

causes constipation
A) Aspirin
B) Caffeine
C) Codeine
D) Paracetamol

i64- Which of the following chemical groups dose NOT have

antidepressant activity
A) Tricyclics
B) Selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
D) Phenothiazines

i65- Which of the following is chemically similar to aspirin

A) Diflunisal
B) Etodolac
C) Sulindac
D) Indomethacin

i66- Which of the following drugs has antimuscarinic activity

A) Benzhexol
B) Benztropine
C) Procyclidine
D)All of the above

(@) 67- Levodopa is

A) The latin name for dopamine
B) The amino acid precursor of dopamine
C) The main m etabolite of dopamine
D) The natural dopamine receptor antagonist

i68- Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of which

neurotransmitter in the substantial nigra
A) Dopamine
B) Noradrenaline
C) Acetylcholine
D) Adrenaline

i69- Which of the following is the amino- acid precussor of dopamine

A) Levodopa
B) Bromocryptine
C) Carbidopa
D) Procyclidine

i70- for a 4 year old child, the maximum daily dose of paracetamol is
A) 240mg
B) 480 mg
C)1 g
D) 2 g

i71- Which of the following is available as an injection

A) Alprazolam
B) Bromazepam
C) Clorazepate
D) Diazepam

i72- Which of the following agents should not be used concurrently with
levodopa
A) Mono Amine Oxidase Inhibitors
B) Diphenhydramine
C)Benztropine
D) Amantadine

i73- An example of a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist is

A) Bromocryptine (Parlodel)i
B) Cimetidine (Tagamet)i
C) Ondanestron (Zofran)i
D) Fluoxetine (Prozac)i

i74- Which of the folloeing CANNOT be given with a MAOI

antidepressant
A) Beta blocking drugs
B) NSAID'S
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors

i75- Which of the following can lower the convulsion threshold (at
therapeutic doses)i
A) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)i
B) Propanolol (Inderal)i
C) Amitryptiline (Tryptizol)i
D) Phenytoin (Epanutin)i

i76- Which anticonvulsant is associated with sedation and tolerance

A) Valproic acid
B) Phenobarbitone
C) Clonazepam
D) Vigabatrin

i77- Benzodiazepines mainly affect which neurotransmitter

A) Gama- amino- butyric-acid
B) Noradrenaline
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine

i78-Which if the following antiepileptic drugs is also used in the

prophylaxis of manic depression
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Lamotrigine
D) Phenobarbitone

i79- In the elderly, an antipsychotic drug such as Haloperidol is likely to

cause
A) Hyperthermia
B) Hypertension
C) Hypotension
D) Hypoprolactinaemia

i80- Select the drug of choice for preventing the DELAYED emetic
symptoms of cancer chemotherapy
A) 5HT 3antagonist
B) Dexamethasone
C) Metoclopramide
D) Prochlorperazine

i81- Which of the following is effective when given once daily for the
prevention of epilepsy
A) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
B) Sodium valproate (Epilim)
C) Phenytoin (Epanutin)
D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol Retard)i

i82- All of the following can be used to treat pesudomembraneous colitis

EXCEPT
A) Vancomycin
B) Metronidazole
C) Cholestyramine
D) Clindamycin

i83- The rote of cilastatin in the combination imipenem/cilastatin is

A) To inhibit beta- lactamase enzymes
B) To make a sustained release formula
C) To block the renal m etaboltsm of imipenem
D) To inhibit the liver microsomal enzymes from m etabolizing imipenem

i84- The pharmacist's advice to a patient who is using ciprofloxacin

should be that
A) Do not take it directly after a meal which contains milk and dairy
products
B) Do not it at the same time with acids
C) Separate it from calcium and iron supplements at least for2 hours

D) All of the above

i85- Which one of the followingstatements is nutrue about aztreonam

A) It is active against both grampositive and gram negative micro-

organisms
B) It is a mono bactam
C) Its usual dose is one gram every 8 hours
D) It has low tendancy to causehypersensitivity in pencillin allergic patients

i86-Biphosphonates are used clinically to treat

A) Hypocalceamia
B) Htponatreamia
C) Hypercalceamia related to malignancy
D) Hypokaleamia caused by diuretics
i87- What is the e quivalent anti- inflammatory dose to 5mg of
prednisolone
A) 50mg of cortisone acetate
B) 50mg of hydrocortisone
C) 0.75mg of betamethasone
D) 10mg of prednisolone

i88- The following statements are true when we talk about oestrogens
except
A) It is responsible for female secondary sexual charscteristics
B) It causes myometrial atrophy
C) It can be used in post menopausal osteoporosis
D) Long term treatment with oestrogen may increase the risk of endometrial
cancer

i89- Which one of the following hormones is secreted by the

hypothalamus
A) Gonadorelin
B) Corticotropin
C)Vasopressin
D) Genotropin

i90- Which one of the following is the most commonly reported side
effect of antipsychotics in the elderly ?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Arrhythmia
C) EPS
D) Excessive urination

i91- All the following are considered to be beta – lactam type

antibiotics,EXCEPT
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Pieracillin
C) Ofloxacillin
D) Imipenem

i92- Which one of the following organs is involved in calcium- balance

and homeostasis
A) Pancreas
B) Hypothalamus
C) Parotid glands
D) Parathyroid

i93- The most common side effect of a NSAID is

A)Headache
B) Naproxen
C) Skin rash
D) Diarrhoea

i94- Which one of the following is usually given once a day

A) Piroxicam
B) Naproxen
C) Diflunisal
D) Ibuprofen

i95- Which one of the following can be given safely to a patient receiving
an MAOI
A) Cromoglicate nasal drops
B) Ephedrine nasal drops
C) Oxym etazoline nasal drops
D) Xylom etazoline nasal drops

i96- Which one of the nasal sprays is usually used ONCE daily
A) Beclomatasone (Becotide)i
B) Dexa methasine ( Dexa rhinaspray)i
C) Fluticasone (Flixonase)i
D) Cromoglycate (Rynacrom)i
i97- Which is the most potent ear \ nose drops
A) Betamethasone (Betnesol)i
B) Dexamethasone (Sofradex)i
C) Hydrocortisone (Otosporin)i
D) Prednisolone (Predsol)i

i98- Which one of the following should be avoided during treatment

with warfarin
A) Amoxicillin
B) Glibenclamide
C) Indomethacin
D) VitaminD

i99- Which one of the following can be used to treat acute go

A) Diclofenac
B) Ibuprofen
C) Indomethacin
D) All of the above

i100- Which one of the following is most closely related to aspirin

A) Acetaminophhen
B) Diclofenac
C) Diflunisal
D) Salazopyrine

Seventh 100

(@) 1- Which of the following drugs inhibits the formation of uric acid
A) Aspirin
B) Colchicine
C) Allopurinol
D) Sodium salicylate

i2- Which of the following is NOT an indication of digoxin

A) Congestive heart failure
B) Atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia caused by congestive heart failure

i3- The therapeutic effect of warfarin is achieved by

A) Dissolving existing thrombi
B) Preventing the thrombus formation when blood stasis occurs
C) Preventing the renal synthesis of Vitamin K
D) Preventing the thrombus formation in vitro

i4- The antihypertensive effect of Guanethidine is inhibited by which of

the following
A) Diazepam
B) Amitryptilline
C) Hydrochlorthiazide
D) Nitrofurantoin

i5- In interaction of Amiloride with Caotopril there is a possibility of

A) Hypokaleamia
B) Hyperkaleamia
C) Hypocalcamia
D)Hypophosphateamia

i6- Which of the following is not true about Simvastatin

A) It is a HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
B) Its main adverse effect is Gl disturbances
C) Concomittant administration of Simvastatin with cyclosporine is
associated with increased risk of myopathy
D) The dose should be adjusted in renal failure patients

i7- The possible interaction between Cisapride (Prepulsid) and Hyoscine

butyl
A) Cisapride will increase the Antimuscarinic side effect of Buscopan
B) They counteract the effect of each other
C) Buscopan will increase the adverse effects of cisapride
D) Cisapride will displace Buscopan from the plasma protein binding sites

i8- Which of the following dose not lower plasma lipoprotein

concentrations
A) Nicotinamide
B) Simvastatin
C) Cholestyramine
D) Gemfibrozil

I9- The most common side effect related to the use of Aluminium
containing antacids is
A) Nausea,Vomitting
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhoea
D) Gl bleeding

i10- A disadvantage in the use of cimetidine, is its ability cause

A) Hair growth
B) Decreased prolactin secretion
C) Inhibition of hepatic microsomal enzymes
D) Oesophageal reflux

(@) 11- Regular use of sublingual doses of Glyceryl trinitrate is likely to

result in the development of
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Nephrotoxicity
C) Tolerance
D) Respiratory impairment

I12- Gastric intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein that is required for Gl

absorption

A) Vitamine B12
B) Folic acid
C) Iron
D) Calcium

I13- Which of the following ACE inhibitors has the shortest duration of
action
A) Enalapril
B) Captopril
C) Lisinopril
D) Perindopril

i14- Which of the following antacids is most likely to induce rebound

acidity
A) Aluminium hydroxide
B)Magnesium hydroxide
C) Simethicone
D) Calcium carbonate

i15- A patient who has excessive levels of amylase indicate a disease of

the
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Pancreas
D) Kidney

i16- Sucralfate is best described as a \an

A) Artificial sweetner
B) Denaturing agent for alcohol
C) Ulcer protectant
D) Oral hypoglyceamic

i17- Which of the following drugs is suitable to treat a hypertensive

patient who also has Asthma and Hyperuriceamia
A) Amlodipine
B) Hydrochlorthiazide
C) Moduretic
D) Propanolol

I18- Cromolyn is used in the following EXCEPT

A) In preventing food allergy
B) For local application to the eye
C) For local application to the nose
D) For local application to the skin

I19- Anoverdose of which drug can cause insomnia,arrythmais and

convulsions
A) Aminophylline
B) Prednisolone
C) Adrenaline
D) Beclomethasone

i20- Which of the following is most likely to have long term side effects
when used to treat asthma in a 10 yr old child
A) Daily administration of salbutamol by inhaler
B) Daily administration of prednisolone by mouth
C) Daily administration of beclomethasone by inhaler
D) Daily administration of cromolyn by inhaler

I21- Which of the following antibiotics is ONLY used topically

A) Polymixin B
B) Pencillin G
C) Carbenicillin
D) Clindamycin

I22- Chloramphenicol is the drug of choice in:

A) Symptomatic salmonella infections
B) Tuberculosis
C) Cholera
D) Streptococcal pharyngitis

I23- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about

clindamycin
A) It is effective against staphylococcus aureus
B) It is effective against anaerobic organisms
C) The major side effect is Pseudomembraneous colitis
D) It is indicated for serious bone infections

I24- Nedocromil is classified as

A) A beta- agonist
B) Methylxanthine
C) Mast- cell- stabilizer
D) Glucocorticoid

i25- Salmeterol is a:
A) Abeta-agonist
B) Methylxanthine
C) Mast-cell- stabilizer
D) Muscarinic antagonist

i26- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about

Diphenhydramine
A) It has an expectorant effect
B) It has an antihistaminic effect
C) It has an atropine like effect
D) It is contraindicated in patients with prostate hypertrophy

i27- Which of the following drugs DOES NOT cause insomnia

A) MAO'S
B) Caffeine
C) Beta blockers
D) Barbiturates

i28- Which of the following can reduce the effectiveness of

sulphonamides antibiotics
A) Folic acid
B) Pantothenic acid
C) Vitamin B12
D) Methotrexate
I29- Which of the following is the most effective drug for the treatment
of motion sickness
A) metoclopramide
B) ondanestron
C) Prochlorperazine
D) cinnarizine

I30- Which one of the following is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic drug

A) Buspirone
B) Lorazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Pimozide

(@) 31- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of blood, it will

A) Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier slowly
B) Penetrate the Blood brain Barrier rapidly
C) Be eliminated slowly
D) Not be distributed to any tissue sites

i32- Which of the following is NOT an indication of Tranexamic acid

A) Treatment of haemorrhage associated with excessive fibrinolysis
B) An antidote for streptokinase overdose
C) Prophylaxis of hereditary angioedema
D) Prevent haemorrhage due to heparin overdose

I33- Phenobarbital will interact with warfarin through which

mechanism
A) Induction of microsomal enzymes
B) Induction of non- microsomal enzymes
C) Inhibition of non- microsomal enzymes
D) Inhibition of microsomal enzymes

i34- Sulphonyureas e.g.; Glibenclamide (Daonil)act by

A) I ncreasing the secretion of insulin from beta cells
B) Increasing the uptake of glucose by muscle
C) Reducing the hepatic synthesis of glucose
D) All of the above

i35- Which of the following is NOT a third generation cephalosporin

A) Cefuroxime
B) Cefriaxone
C) Ceftazidime
D) Cefotaxime

i36- Which of the following drugs has low therapeutic index

A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Dilitiazem( Dilzem)
C) Theophylline (Theodur)
D) a and c above

i37- Which of the following salts commonly cause diarrhea

A) Aluminum hydroxide
B) Ferrous sulphate
C) Magnesium hydroxide
D) All of the above

i38- Which of the following is a gram positive bacteria

A) Streptococcus faecalis
B) Salmonells typhi
C) Haemophilus influenza
D) E. Coli

i39- Which of the following can be used safely to treat diabetes in

pregnancy
A) Metformin (Glucophage)
B) Glibenclamide (Daonil)
C) Insulin
D) None of the above
(@) 40- Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is
A) Progesterone receptor antagonist
B) Progesterone receptor agonist
C) Oestrogen receptor agonist
D) Oestrogen receptor antagonist

i41- Which of the following insulins has the longest duration of action
A) Actrapid
B) Insultard
C) Monotard
D) Ultralente

i42- Which of the following can increase the level of HDL- cholesterol
A)Cholestyramine (Questran)
B) Fluvastatin (Lescol)
C) Gemfibrosil (Lopid)
D) Simvastatin (Zocor)

i43- Which of the following drugs is SAFE in G6PD deficiency

A) Cephalexin
B) Dapsone
C) Primaquin
D) Sulphamethoxazole

i44- Which of the following is a prostaglandin analogue

A) Cimetidine
B) Misoprostol
C) Omeprazole
D) Sucralfate
i45- Which of the following is a natural emulsifying agent
A) Acacia
B) Lactose
C) Polysorbate 20
D)Sorbittan monopalmitate

i46- Cocoa butter (Theobroma oil) exhibits all of the following

properties except that
A) It melts between 33 and 35 degrees centigrade
B) It is a mixture of glycerides
C) It is useful in formulating suppositories
D) It is soluble in water

(@) 47- Which of the following is an occasional side effect of the ACE-
inhibitors
A) Alopecia
B) cough
C) Hypokaleamia
D) All of the above

i48- Ibuprofen is a
A) Fenamate derivative
B) Propionic acid derivative
C)Pyrazolline derivative
D) None of the above

i49- The specific antagonist for benzodiazepine overdose is

A) Flucytosine
B) Flumazenil
C) Flunarizine
D) Flurazepam

i50- In asthma, Cromolyn sodium(Intal) acts via

A)Antagonism of H-1 receptors
B) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
C) Stabilization of epithelial mast cells
D) None of the above

51- According to recent evidence, which of the following is associated

with the lowest risk of gastro- intestinal side –effect
A) Diclofenac
B) Ibuprofen
C) Naproxen
D) Piroxicam

i52- Which of the following can be used safely in a patient who is

allergic to aspirin
A)Diclofenac
B) Ibuprofen
C) Meloxicam
D) None of the above

i53- Which one of the following must be avoided during treatment with
methotrexate
A) Aspirin
B) Cimetidine
C) Folic acid
D) Metoclopramide
i54- What daily dose of aspirin is considered to be anti- inflammatory
A) 500 to 1g
B) 1g to 2g
C) more than 3g
D) 75 mg daily

i55- Which one of the following blocks the neuromuscular junction

A) Baclofen
B) Chlordiazepoxide
C) Diazepam
D) Vecuronium

i56- The expiry date of a drug is usually the time when potency falls
below
A) 90%
B) 85 %
C)80%
D) 75 %

i57- The term "store in a cool place "means that the temperature must
not exceed
A) 4 centigrade
B) 10 centigrade
C) 15 centigrade
D) 30 centigrade

i58- Which of the following is the drug of choice for an acute febrile
convulsion
A) Carbamazepine
B) Clonazepam
C) Diazepam
D) Phenytoin

i59- Peripheral neuritis due to isoniazid can be avoided by giving which

vitamin
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Pyridoxine
C) Riboflavine
D) Thiamine

i60- Tuberculosis is treated with a combination of drugs because

A) This prevents the emergence of resistant organisms
B) It improves drug penetration in to the mycobacterium
C) It minimizes the rifampicin toxicity
D) It minimizes the isoniazid toxicity

i61- According to USP,if a medicine expires "January 2001" it must not

be used after
A) January 01,2001
B) January15,2001
C) January 31,2001
D) December 31,2001

i62- The antibacterial mechanism of penicillin is most similar to

A) Clindamycin ( Dalacin
B) Tetracycline (Achromycin)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Ciprobay)
D) Cefachlor (Ceclor
i63- Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is NOT true
A) It is mainly excreted in the faeces
B) It commonly causes gastrointestinal distress
C) Its absorption is inhibited bt antacids and milk
D) It may produce phototoxic reaction on exposure to sunlight

i64- Which of the following antibioitics should be administered to a

patient whose renal function is severly compromised
A) Erythromycin
B) Tobramycin
C) Norfloxacillin
D) Piperacillin

i65- All of the following agents cause their toxic effects by interferences
in DNA trans cription
A) Cisplatin
B) Tamoxifen
C) Doxorubicin
D) Cyclophosphamide

i66- Hyperkaleamia is a contraindication to the use of

A) Chlorthalidone
B) Acetazolamide
C) Spironolactone
D) Chlorthalidone

i67- Which of the following is not a beta-lactam antibiotic

A) Aztreonam
B) Imipenem
C) Streptomycin
D) Ampicillin
i68- Which of the following is not recommended for the amanagement of
allergic rhinitis
A) Systemic nasal decongestants
B) Corticosteroids
C) Cromoglycate
D) Nedocromil

i69- Which of the following is a risk factor for heart disease

A) Low HDL cholesterol
B) Low LDL cholesterol
C) Low triglycerides
D) Low VLDL cholesterol

i70- Which of the following is TRUE

A) Procainamide is m etabolized more slowly than procaine
B) Sulphonyureas are oral anticoagulant
C) An immediate IV injection salbutamol is used to treat acute systemic
anaphylaxis
D) Ketamine is used in the treatment of migraine

i71- Which of the following can be used in the treatment of diabetes

insipidus
A) Metformin
B) Glucagon
C) Vasopressin
D) Insulin

i72- Mannitol may be useful in all the following treatments EXCEPT

A) Treatment of pulmonary oedema with congestive heart failure
B) Diagnostic evaluation of acute oligourea
C) Treatment of elevated intraoccula pressure
D) Prophylaxis of acute renal failure

i73- Omeprazole should only be used on pres cription because

A) It is expensive
B) It has many drug interactions
C) It can mask the symptoms of gastric cancer
D) It can cause hepatitis

i74- Histamine induced broncho-constriction is due to the activation of

A) H1 receptors
B) H2 receptors
C) H3 receptors
D) Allof the above

i75- Which of the following medicine is available as an OTC medicine in

the treatment of nausea and vomiting
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Meclozine
D) Chlorpromazine

i76- In Addison's disease the proper replacement therapy should be

A) Glucocorticoid plus mineralocorticoid
B) Mineralocorticoid therapy alone
C) Glucocorticoid therapy alone
D) Tetracosactrin ( analogue of ACTH)
i77- Streptomycini is an antibiotic indicated for the treatment of
A) Gram-negative bacterial septiceamia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Pencillin-resistant gonococcal infection
D) Syphillis

i78- In the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),

inhaled corticosteroids
A) Are more effective in the treatment of asthma
B) Are more beneficial when used alone
C) Produce more side effects than when used in the oral form
D) Should be used for at least 2 weeks before efficacy is assessed

i79- The primary goals of asthma therapy include all the following
EXCEPT
A) Treatment of secondary complications
B) Management of acute attacks
C) Chronic symptom management
D) Prevention of lung tissue destruction

i80- In the emergency room,the preferred first line therapy for asthma
is
A) Theophyline
B) Beta- agonists
C) Corticosteroid

D) Antihistamine

i81- Ceftriaxone can be used in

A) Gonorrhoea
B) Typhoid fever
C) Meningococcal meningitis
D) All of the above

i82- Which statement would most accurately describe the antibacterial

of tetracycline antibiotics
A) They are bacteriostatic
B) They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal unit
C) They inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
D) All of the above

i83) Which of the following corticosteroids has the highest

mineralocorticoid activity
A) Cortisone acetate
B) Hydrocortisone
C) Fludrocortisone
D) Betamethasone

i84- The recommended maintenance dose of Ranitidine for peptic ulcer

is
A) 150 mg at night
B) 300 mg at night
C) 150 mg twice daily
D) 300 mg twice daily

i85- Which of the following is NOT an indication for desmopressin

A) Diabetees insipidus
B) Primary nocturnal eneuresis
C) Renal function testing
D) Prostate atrophy

i86- A hypertensive patient should be encouraged to

A) Reduce the amount of salt in their diet
B) Increase the amount of salt in their diet
C) Drink more water if they eat a salty meal
D) Reduce their fluid intake
i87- Which of the following is NOT true of methadone
A) Can be given orally or parenterally
B) It is a narcotic antagonist
C) It is an addictive drug
D) It has significant analgesic activity

i88- Select the drug of choice foe the treatment of an otitis externa
caused by staphylococcus
A) Aluminium acetate
B) Neomycin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Flucloxacillin

i89- Caffeine toxicity may include all of the following symptoms

EXCEPT
A) Cough
B) Anxiety
C) Reslessness
D) Muscle twitching

i90- A bacteriostatic agent has which of the following effects on bacteria

A) It kills bacteria on contact
B) It dehydrates bacteria
C) It inhibits multiplication of bacteria
D) All of the above

i91- A patient in diabetic coma

A) May have the adour of acetone on their breath
B) Usually recovers without treatment
C) May tremor excessively
D) None of the above

i92- All of the following drugs may be used for the therapy of
hypertensive emergency crisis EXCEPT
A) Furosemide
B) Diazoxide
C) Nifedipine
D) propanolol

i93- ACE inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
following adverse reactions
A) Hepatitis
B) Hypokaleamia
C) Agranulocytosis
D) Cough

i94- Barbiturates containing a sulphur atom are usually

A) Short acting
B) Ultrashort acting
C) Iong acting
D) Medium acting

i95-Adecrease in HDL/LDL ratio indicates

A) Increased triacyl glycerol
B) Increased mobilization of fat
C) Low risk for artherosclerosis
D) Increased esterification of cholesterol

i95- Diverticulosis is associated with

A) Stomach
B) Small intestine
C) liver
D) Colon

i96- Dyspnoea means

A) Painful muscle spasm
B) Pain in the heart
C) difficulty in breathing
D) none of the above
i97- Esters are formed by the reaction between
A) Acids and bases
B) Acids and alcohols
C) Acids and aldehydes
D) Acids and ketones

i98- For how long should the patient wait after stopping MAO
inhibitor's before he starts on Tricyclic antidepressants
A) 1 months
B) 2 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 days

i99- Glipizide is used to true

A) Peptic ulcer
B) Diabetes
C) Colitis
D) Infections

i100- In running person Which of the following occurs

A) Hyperventilation
B) Tachycardia
C) Increased BP
D) Increased stroke volume
E) All of the above

Eighth 100

i1- Drugs given systemically may cause all the following EXCEPT
A) Hair loss
B) Chronic urticaria
C) Erythema multiform
D)Fungal infections of the skin

i 2- Grape fruit juice should be avoided with many drugs because

A) It spoils the taste
B) It increases the drug metabolism
C) It decreases the drug metabolism
D) It delays gastric emptying

i 3- Grave's disease may be characterized by

A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hepatic cirrhosis
C) Cortisol insufficiency
D) Hyperthyroidism

i 4- Hypercalceamia dose not occur in normal individuals because

A) Calcium is rapidly excreted
B) Calcium is rapidly biotransformed
C) Calcium is insoluble
D) Exccess calcium is not absorbed

i 5- Hyper- responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to stimuli with

bronchiolar constriction and symptoms of wheezing and dyspnoea
describes
A) Chronic obstruction
B) Asthma
C) Pneumonia
D) Chrocic obstructive pulmonary disease
i 6- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of blood ,it will
A) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier slowly
B) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier rapidly
C) Be eliminated slowly
D) Not be distributed to any tissue sties
i 7- In a hypertensive patient taking insulin which of the following drugs
to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient
A) Hydralazine
B) Prazosin
C) Propanolol
D) Methyldopa

i 8- In migraine management, which one of the following is

contraindicated in ischeamic heart disease
A) Pizotifen
B) Sumatriptan
C) Propanolol
D) Flunarizine

i 9- Iron is required by the body to maintain normal

A) Digestion
B) Bone growth
C) Vitamin absorption
D) Oxygen transport

i 10- Levocabastine nasal drops are classified as

A) Corticosteroid
B) Sympathomimetic
C) Antihistamine
D) Astringent

11- Lidocaine HCL is not usually administered orally because it is

A) Has no systemic activity

B) Too acidic
C) Too basic
D) a cause of arrhythmia
i 12- Megaloblastic aneamia may be responsive to administration of all
of the following EXCEPT
A) Cyanocobalamin
B) Intrinsic factor concentrate
C) Ferrous sulphate
D) Folic acid

13- Nasal carriage of Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

(MRSA) can be treated with ointment that contains
A) Mupirocin
B) Gentamycin
C) Nystatin
D) Chloramphenicol

i 14- Oestrogens tend to increase the risk of

A) Endometrial carcinoma
B) Hirsuitism
C) Hearing loss
D) Visual problems

i 15- Pencillamime is the antidote for

A) Copper and lead
B) Iron
C) Cobalt
D) None of the above

i 16-Prostaglandins are chemically similar to

A) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates
C) Lipids
D) Enzymes

i 17- Radioactive isotopes of which substance are used widely in

diagnosis andtherapy
A) Carbon
B) Iodine
C) Radium
D) None of the above

i 18- Sertraline is classified as

A) Selective Mono amine oxidase inhibitor
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
C) Tricyclic antidepressant
D) Dopamine receptor blocker

i 19- The normal range of FASTING blood glucose is

A) 3.0-4.0mmol/L (55-75mg/dL)
B) 4.0-8.0mmol/L (75-150mg/dL)
C) 8.0-10.0mmol/L (150-180mg/dL)
D) 5.0-6.0mmol/L (90-110mg/dL)

i 20- The anti diuretic hormone is secreted from

A) The renal cortex
B) The renal medulla
C) The adrenal cortex
D) the posterior pituitary

21- The anti obesity drug Orlistat acts mainly by

A) Inhibition of glucose absorption from GIT
B) Inhibition of fat digestion by inhibiting pancreatic lipase
C) Inhibition of bile salt secretion
D) Chelate with amino acids and prevent their uptake through the GIT wall
i22- The approximate *****alent dose of Lorazepam to 5mg of
Diazepam is
A) 0.5mg
B) 4mg
C) 5mg
D) 0.1mg
i23- The breakdown of glycogen is initiated by
A) Trypsin
B) glucagons
C) Pepsin
D) Renin

i24- The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg What dose should be given to a 6 yr.
old child who weighs 44 lbs.2.2 lbs =1kg approximately
A) 0.003g
B) 0.010g
C) 0.033g
D) 0.05g

i25- The drug of choice for treating an acute attack of re-entrant

supraventricular tachycardia
A) Verapamil
B) Digitalis
C) Propanolol
D) Phenylepherine

i26- The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are peimarily

A) Lipases
B) Ketases
C) Dehydrogenases
D) None of the above
(@) 27- The least stable of water soluble vitamins is
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Thiamine
C) Niacin
D) Folic acid
i28- The main function of the gall bladder is to
A) Concentrate bile
B) Secrete bile
C) Eliminate bile
D) None of the above

i29- The major mechanism f degradation of drugs in the Gl tract is

A) Oxidation
B) Hydrolysis
C) Reduction
D) Conjugation

i30- The manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis are due to

A) hypertonicity of smooth muscles
B) Hypertonicity of striated muscles
C) Weakness of striated muscles
D) Sclerosis os striated muscles

i31- The most prevalent type of white blood cells are the
A) Monocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Basophils

32- The parathyroid gland is responsible for

A) Pulmonary function
B) Maintaining the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Cardiac output
D) Calcium metabolism
33- The primary function of gastrointestinal villi is
A) Facilitating the passage of chime through the GIT
B) Increasing the surface area of the GIT
C) To breakdown aminoacids into smaller molecules
D) None of the above

34- The sympathetic ganglia are located

A)Near the heart
B) Near the spinal cord
C) Near the adrenal glands
D) Near the tissues they innervate

35- Tocopherols are a form of

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin B complex

36-Tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided in which of the following

conditions
A) Depressed patients with insomnia
B) Closed angle glaucoma
C) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
D) Nocturnal eneuresis

37- What is the weight used to make 1500 units, each of which contains
250 microgram of a drug
A) 37.5 milligram
B) 37500 microgram
C) 375 milligram
D) 3750 milligram

38- What will result if the distribution of drug drugs is slower than the
process of biotranaformation and elimination
A) Increase blood level of drug
B) Decrease blood level of drug
C) Synergism
D) Failure to attain diffusion equilibrium

39- Which is recommended for acute cyanide poisoning

A) Desferrioxamine
B) Dimercaprol (BAL)
C) Dicobalt edentate
D) Pencillamine

40- Which of the following drugs increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
A) Neomycin
B) Hydrochlorthiazide
C) Phenobarbital
D) Oestradiol

41- Which of the following drugs is classified as an HMG CO-A

reductase inhibitor
A) Probucol
B) Clofibrate
C) Gemfibrozil
D) Lovastatin

42- Which of the following drugs undergoes mared hydrolysis in the Gl

tract
A) Aspirin
B) Pencillin G
C) Paracetamol
D) Hydrocortisone
43- Which of the following is a contra indication of for Tricyclic
antidepressant
A) Insomnia
B) Recent myocardial infarction
C) Essential hypertension
D) Nocturnal eneuresis

44- Which of the following is a metabolic product of alcohol

A) Acetaldehyde
B) Formic acid
C) 4- methyl pyrazole
D) Pyridoxine

45- Which of the following is an indication for pancreatic enzyme

supplements
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Post pancreatectomy
C) Post total gastrectomy
D) All of the above

(@) 46- Which of the following is found in vitamin B12

A) Magnessium
B) Nickel
C) Cobalt
D) Iron
47- Which of the following is associated with less gastric side effects
A)Difflunisal (Dolobid)
B) Ibuprofen (brufen)
C) Ketoprofen (Oruvail)
D) Piroxicam (Feldene)
48- Which of the following is not indicated for use in children less than
12 years old
A)Domperidone (Motilium)
B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C) Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
D) Astemizole (Hismanal)

49- Which of the following is NOT naturally occurring

A) Oestradiol
B) Diethylstilbesterol
C) Oestrone
D) Ethinyl oestradiol

50- Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections

A) Peanut oil
B) Cotton seed oil
C) Corn oil
D) Theobroma oil

i51- Which of the following is TRUE about ORS in severe diarhoea

A) Sugar and amino acids inhibits sodium and water reabsorption
B) ORS includes sodium acetate and calcium
C) ORS is the treatment of choice in children with diarhoea
D) All of the above

52- Which of the following is used as a plasma expander

A) Sodium salts
B) Starches
C) Dextrans
D) Calcium salts
53- Which of the following is used to treat hyperthyroidism
A) L- thyroxine
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Liothyronine
D) Carbimazole

54- Which of the following is used to treat paracetamol overdose

A) Acetylcysteine
B) Methylene blue
C) Pyridoxine
D) Methylprednisolone

55- Which of the following prokinetic drug is a dopamine receptor

antagonist
A) Metoclopramide
B) Bethanechol
C) Cisapride
D) Buscopan

56- Which of the following statements is correct about chlorhexidine

alcoholic solution
A) Chlorhexidine will disinfect the hands if allowed to dry
B) It is most suitable for disinfection of medical appliances
C) It is essential to use it on the skin before venepuncture
D) It provides the best treatment for impertigo
57- Which of the following stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes
A) Phenobarbitone
B) Mannitol
C) Urea
D) None of the above
58- Which of the following CANNOT be used as a prophylactic for
migraine
A) Pizotifen
B) Propanolol
C) Methylsergide
D) Dihydroergotamine

59- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of

Attention of Deficit disorders in children

A) Pseudoephedrine

B) Dexamphetamine
C) Venlafaxine
D) Phenytoin

(@) 60- Which one the following is not an essential amino acid
A) Threonine
B) Glutamine
C) Tryptophan
D) Methionine

61- Which of the following Over the Counter (OTC) medications has a
dangerous drug interactions with Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
A) Chlorpheniramine maleate
B) Paracetamol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Vitamin C
62- Which statement is true about Otitis media treatment
A) Local treatment is more effective than systemic one
B) Ear drops containing local anasethetic are of great value in the
management of pain
C) Systemic antibiotic is needed when bacterial involvement is proved
D) Oral antibiotic use as a prophylactic measure is not indicated for
recurrent otitis media

63- Which substance commonly found in fermented food, can be toxic

when MAO,I are used
A) Phenylalanine
B) Tyramine
C) Histidine
D) None of the above

64- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that posseses the least
sedating action is
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Buspirone (Buspar)
C) Meprobamate (Equanil)
D) Chlordiazepoxide ( Libirium)
E) Oxazepam (Serax)

65- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by which of

the following mechanisms
A) Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane
B) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C) Inhibition of protein synthesis
D) Steric hindrance of membrane amino acids
(@) 66- Which of the following antagonizes the actions of
sulphonamides
A) Streptomycin
B) Penicillin G
C) Morphine
D) Para- amino benzoic acid

67- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of

primary nocturnal eneuresis
A) Ritordine (Yutopar)
B) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
C) Metrolazone (Zaroxolyn)
D) amiloride (Midamor)

(@) 68- the thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of

A) sodium
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Bicarbonate

69- Which of the following oral hypoglyceamic drug has the longest
serum half life
A) Acetohexamide (Dymelor)
B) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
C) Glyburide ( Diabeta)
D) Tolbutamide (Orinase)

70- Diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) is most similar in action to

A) Buspirone (Buspar)
B) Dicyclomine ( Bentyl)
C) Retoprofen (Orudis)
D) Mecamylamine (Inversine)

71- Which of the following is not progestin

A) Mestranol
B) Nor-ethindrone
C) Ethynordiol diacetate
D) Levonergestrel

i72- Agents useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma usually

A) Block both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
B) Stimulate alpha receptors but block beta receptor
C) Stimulate beta receptors but block alpha receptors
D) Stimulate alpha and/ or beta receptors

i73- All of the following are bacterial infections Except

A) Cholera
B) Plague
C) Rabies
D) Pertussis

(@) 74- Which of the following statements conserning Bisacodyl is NOT

true
A) Laxative action occurs with 6 hours after oral administration
B) Tablets should be administered with milk to avoid gastric irritation
C) Action of suppositories occurs within 1 hour after insertion
D) Tablets should be swallowed whole

i75- The local anaesthetic most commonly used in OTC burn remedies is
A) Benzocaine
B) butamben picrate
C) Lidocaine
D) Phenol
E) Tetracaine

i76- Methylcellulose and similar agents are used in ophthalmic solutions

to
A) Increase drop size
B) Increase ocular contact time
C) Reduce inflammation of the eye
D) Reduce drop size

i77- The most potent H2 receptor antagonist

A) Omeprazole
B) Sucralfate
C) Famotidine
D) Metoclopramide

i78- Which second generation cephalosporin is available as a parenteral

and oral medication
A) Cefuroxime
B) Cephalexin
C) Ceclor
D) Cefonicid

i79- Haloperidol is classified structurally as a

A) Benzodiazepine
B) Butyrophenone
C) Phenothiazine
D) Tricyclic
E) Malonylurea
i80- Chronic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis with indomethacin
requires care because indomethacin
A) Is an anti-inflammatory steroid
B) Cause headaches in some patiets
C) Inhibits the action of prostaglandins
D) Causes tachycardia

i81- The aminoglycoside most likely to remain a useful therapeutic agent

in the event of resistance to Gentamicin
A)Streptomycin
B) Neomycin
C) Amikacin
D) Cephalosporin

i82- Zollinger- Ellison syndrome is the result of adenomas in the

A) Gallbladder
B) Liver
C) Stomach
D) Pancreas
E) A,B&D

i83- In Examining the patient, the physician notes that the patient
complains polydepsia refers
A) Excessive Urination
B) Excessive appetite
C) Excessive Weight gain
D) Excessive thirst
E) B&C
i84- Which of the following should NOT be administered to a patient
being treated with narrow angle glaucoma
A) Dipiverine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Carbachol
D) Homatropine

i85- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients with open angle
glaucoma EXCEPT
A) Carbachol
B) Atropine
C) Dipiverine
D) Betaxolol

i86- Which of the following antifungal agents is NOT effective against

Candida
A) Nystatin
B) Clotrimazole
C) Tolnaftate
D) Miconazole

i87- Which of the following sulphonylureas has the longest half life
A) Tolbutamide
B) Glibenclamide
C) Tolazamide
D) Chlorpropamide

i88- Side- effects of Isotretinoin(Roaccutane) include

A) Dermatological reactions
B) Depression
C) Teratogenicity
D) All of the above
i89- Which of the following is the shortest acting Mydriatic
A) Atropine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Tropicamide
D) A,B&C

i90- Tinea infections are caused by

A) Virus
B) Fungus
C) Gram-positive bacteria
D) None of the above

i91- Prolactin inhibiting factor is

A) Dopamine
B) Thyrotropin
C) Somatropin
D) Corticotropin

i92- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with increased

prolactin secretion:
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Bromcriptine
D) Methyldopa

i93- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a level of which of the

following ion:
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnessium
D) Potassium

i94- Which of the following is the first diagnostic symptom of Digoxin

overdose
A) Anorexia, Nausea, Vomitting
B) Constipation
C) High body temperature
D) Bronchospasm

i95- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion inhibitor

A) Dipyridamole
B) Nitrofurantoin
C) Dextropropoxyphene
D) Imipramine

i96- Lidocaine is used as a

A) General anesthesia
B) Antipyretic
C) Antiarrythmic
D) Pre- anaesthetic

i97- The principal toxic effect of Heparin is

A) Bronchospasm
B) Chills
C) Hair loss
D) Haemorrhage

i98- The two major properties of drugs that are usually modified by
complexation are
A)Odor and tast
B) Tast and solubility
C) Chemical structure and solubility
D)Chemical structure and stability
E) Stability and solubility

(@) 99- PH is
A) Not temperature dependent
B) A measure of acidity
C) The same as POH
D) igh for acids
E) None of the a bove

i100- Sucralfate is used to treat

A) Peptic ulcers
B) Carcinoma
C) Calcium depletion
D) Obesity