(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) ANESTHESIA “QUESTIONS”

ANESTHESIA (AIIMS & NEET - Recall Questions )

Anesthesia T&D
1. Which of the following is not true regarding 7. Modified Mallampati grading is used in
rapid sequence intubation(RSI) assessment of ?
A. High volume low pressure cuffs are preferred A. Difficult intubation
B. Simultaneous administration of an induction and B. Airway obstruction
neuromuscular blocking agents C. Death due to aspiration
C. Oxygenate the patient with 100% oxygen for 3 D. Intubation
mins before intubation
D. Preferred technique in cardiac arrest patients 8. Trilene is degraded by?
A. Enzymatic Degradation
2. The correct relation of age and MAC B. Non Enzymatic degradation
requirements are represented correctly in C. Chemical Degradation
which of the following— D. None
A. Neonates> adults> infants
B. Infants >neonates > adults 9. All are true about the procedure done by this
C. Infants>adults>neonates needle except:
D. Adults>infants>neonates

3. 3 yr old undergoing squint surgery, Initially

heart rate was 140/min. After anaesthesia and
starting surgery heart rate is 40/min. Next
appropriate step is:
A. Stop surgery
B. Decrease plane of anaesthesia A. Breath-holding is not necessary
C. Inj. glycopyrrolate B. Coagulopathy is not an absolute contraindication
D. Inj. atropine C. The bevel should face upwards while inserting
the needle
4. Circuit of choice for spontaneous ventilation is ? D. To be done in lateral recumbent position
A. Mapleson A
B. Mapleson B 10. Which of the following statements is correct
C. Mapleson C regarding the difference between adult and
D. Mapleson D child resuscitation?
A. Ventricular dysrhythmias are uncommon in
5. Most common nerve used for monitoring in children
anesthesia is ? B. Infant myocardium more refractory to hypoxia
A. Facial nerve because of congenital heart disease
B. Median nerve C. More ventilation to be given compared to chest
C. Radial nerve compression
D. Ulnar nerve D. Dissolved aortic oxygen concentration is more in
preattack state
6. Murphy's eye is a part of?
A. Endoscope 11. Which of the following prevents aspiration?
B. Endotracheal tubes A. LMA
C. Ryle’s tube B. Oropharyngeal airway
D. LMA C. Nasopharyngeal airway
D. Proseal LMA

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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) ANESTHESIA “QUESTIONS”

12. Not true about CPR? 21. Which of the following is used to measure the
A. Chest compressions at 100/min depth of anesthesia -
B. Ratio 30:2 A. Bispectral index
C. Chest compression> 6 inches B. Immobility of patient
D. Breathing rate 8-10 breaths/min C. MAC of anesthetic drug
D. None
13. Appropriate post operative urine output is?
A. 1 ml/kg/hr B. 2 ml/kg/hr 22. Complications of stellate ganglion block are all
C. 3 ml/kg/hr D. 4 ml/kg/hr except?
A. Cardiac arrest B. Pneumothorax
14. Shifting patient from assisted ventilation to C. Hematoma D. Hoarseness of voice
voluntary ventilation which of the following
shows failure? 23. Use of soda lime in anesthesia is?
A. O2 saturation <80% A. As a hardener B. As an absorbent
B. PEEP <5cms C. As a softener D. As an indicator
C. RR <35 mins
D. Tidal volume >5 ml/kg 24. Most common complication of central venous
line insertion is?
15. Ideal inhalational inducing agent of choice is? A. Lung apex injury
A. Halothane B. Desflurane B. Infection at catheter site
C. Sevoflurane D. Isoflurane C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Pneumothorax
16. Which anesthetic agent is safe to use in
porphyria? 25. Fastest acting inhalational anesthetic agent is?
A. Etomidate B. Ketamine A. Sevoflurane B. Isoflurane
C. Thiopentone D. Propofol C. Ether D. Halothane

17. Positive end-expiratory pressure causes 26. True about capnography is?
increase in which respiratory parameter - A. It cannot detect esophageal intubation
A. Lung compliance B. It cannot detect mechanical ventilation failure
B. FRC C. It is used to detect correct intubation in patients
C. Tidal volume D. It cannot detect saddle embolism
D. All of the above
27. What is not true about preoperative
18. Brain dead patient comes under which modification of drugs?
category in ASA classification? A. Lithium should be stopped 2-3 days before
A. ASA 1 B. ASA 3 B. Low dose aspirin should be stopped 7 days
C. ASA4 D. ASA6 before
C. TCAs can be continued till the date of operation
19. Which of the following mixture of anesthetics D. Oral anticoagulants are stopped 4 days before
is applied on skin?
A. Lidocaine and prilocaine 28. During laparoscopy routine monitoring
B. Bupivacaine and prilocaine includes?
C. Lidocaine and bupivacaine A. ECG
D. Lidocaine and procaine B. Invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring
C. Capnography
20. Inhalational anesthetic of choice in children D. Neuro muscular junction monitoring
is?
A. Sevoflurane B. Halothane 29. Fluid of choice in shock is?
C. Desflurane D. Isoflurane A. Albumin B. Ringer lactate
C. Hydroxyethyl starch D. Dextran

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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) ANESTHESIA “QUESTIONS”

30. IV administration of which anesthetic drug is B. Distal esophagus

most painful among the following? C. Tympanic membrane
A. Methohexital D. Nasopharynx
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol 37. After correct placement Point A in image lies
D. Etomidate at-

31. A patient is undergoing MRND for laryngeal

malignancy; while dissecting the venous
tributaries the surgeon elevated the internal
jugular vein for ligation. Suddenly the patients
EtC02 dropped from 38 mmHg to 12 mmHg and
the patient developed hypotension along with
cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following is
most likely cause?
A. Sympathetic overactivity
B. Vagal stimulation
C. Venous air embolism A. At epiglottis
D. Carotid body stimulation B. At level of vocal cords
C. At thyroid cartilage
32. What is the correct order of suctioning during D. Above esophagus
neonatal resuscitation?
A. Mouth nose 38. Drug which undergoes Hoffmann elimination?
B. Mouth nose trachea A. Atracurium B. Pancuronium
C. Nose mouth C. Vecuronium D. Succinylcholine
D. Trachea nose mouth
39. Sevoflurane will be able to deliver another
33. A Patient brought to emergency department inhalational agent if it is having similar?
was intubated, opens eyes to pain and shows A. Oil gas partition coefficient
abnormal flexion. What is the GCS score? B. Blood gas partition coefficient
A. E2VNTM3 C. Vapor pressure
B. E2VTM3 D. Molecular weight
C. E2VIM3
D. E2VTM4 40. Allergic reactions occurring during the
immediate perioperative period is due to
34. Technique for Ryle’s tube insertion: administration of
A. Supine with neck flexed A. Local anaesthetics
B. Sitting with neck flexed B. Neuromuscular blockers
C. Supine with neck extended C. Opioids
D. Sitting with neck extended D. Induction agents

35. A snap just before entering epidural space, 41. All of the following act on neuromuscular
during epidural anaesthesia, is due to piercing junction except
of which ligament? A. Piper curium
A. Supraspinous ligament B. Dantrolene sodium
B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Succinyl choline
C. Ligamentum flavum D. Mivacurium
D. Interspinous ligament
42. In sepsis, management of fluid involves
36. Ideal site for internal temperature recording administration of?
during anaesthesia is? A. Colloids B. Crystalloids
A. Pulmonary artery C. Hydroxyethyl starch D. None
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(AIIMS & NEET - Memory Based Questions) ANESTHESIA “QUESTIONS”

43. Complication of massive blood transfusion? 51. Which side effect is associated with
A. Hypercalcemia halothane?
B. Hypermagnesemia A. Hypertension
C. Hyperkalemia B. Malignant hyperthermia
D. Hyperthermia C. Tachycardia
D. Uterine contraction
44. Reason of difficult intubation in an obese
patient is? 52. The preferred mask induction drug is?
A. Difficult visualization A. Halothane
B. Decreased safe apnea time B. Sevoflurane
C. Lower tidal volume C. Desflurane
D. All of the above D. Ether

45. Preferred mask induction drug is? 53. ASA grading is to assess?
A. Halothane A. Cardiac status
B. Sevoflurane B. Respiratory status
C. Desflurane C. Risk factors
D. Ether D. Mental status

46. Cylinder with black body &white shoulder is 54. MRP 2 associated with which of the following?
used for which of the following gases? A. Rotor syndrome
A. Air B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Co2 C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
C. Oxygen D. Gilbert syndrome
D. Nitrogen
55. Which of the following is the most common
47. Transdermal patch for chronic pain contains method used to know depth of anaesthesia?
which of the following opioid? A. BIS
A. Fentanyl B. Oesophageal contractility
B. Morphine C. Depressed responses
C. Pentazocine D. Hypotension
D. Alfentanyl
56. Which of the following is not cardio
48. ASA grading is anesthesia is done for? depressive?
A. Mental status A. Propofol
B. Physical status B. Thiopentone
C. Respiratory status C. Ketamine
D. Socio-economic status D. Etomidate

49. Which of the following is not a property of

propofol?
A. Pain on injection
B. Anticonvulsant effect
C. Increase chances of infection
D. No muscle relaxant property

50. Capnography is used for?

A. Oxygen saturation of blood
B. Amount of C02 transported in blood
C. Diagnosing malignant hyperthermia
D. Myocardial perfusion

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