MIZORAM PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

TECHNICAL COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR

JUNIOR GRADE OF MIZORAM HEALTH SERVICES (COMBINED) (GDMO
SUB-CADRE) UNDER HEALTH & FAMILY WELFARE DEPARTMENT,
GOVERNMENT OF MIZORAM.
(SEPTEMBER-2025)
TECHNICAL SUBJECT PAPER-II
(ALLOPATHY)
Time Allowed : 2 hours FM : 200
All questions carry equal marks of 2 each.
Attempt all questions.

1. Different phases of Perioperative care include all of the followings EXCEPT:

(a) Postoperative care (b) Palliative care
(c) Preoperative care (d) Follow-up care
2. Liver function test include all of the following EXCEPT:
(a) Serum Bilirubin (b) Serum Creatinine
(c) Serum Albumin (d) Serum Alkaline phosphatase
3. Anchovy sauce pus is a feature of:
(a) Amoebic liver abscess (b) Lung abscess
(c) Splenic abscess (d) Pancreatic abscess
4. Not included in Charcot’s triad:
(a) Fever (b) Pain
(c) Jaundice (d) Gall Bladder Lump
5. C-Reactive Protein (CRP) is an indicator of:
(a) Pyrexia (b) Analgesia
(c) Inflammation (d) Myalgia
6. Not included for pre-operative check-list before operation-
(a) Patient’s name (b) Consent-mark side
(c) All investigations available (d) Social status
7. Gas gangrene is caused by:
(a) Clostridium perfringens (b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Clostridium difficile (d) Clostridium tetani
8. A patient presents in emergency with a cervical spine fracture. First thing to do is:
(a) Locate the fracture by shifting the patient side to side
(b) X-ray of spine
(c) Clear the airway and intubate him
(d) Immobilize the cervical spine
9. After head injury, biconvex, lenticular shape hematoma in CT scan is characteristic of which of the
following:
(a) Extradural hemorrhage (b) Subdural hemorrhage
(c) Intracerebral hematoma (d) Diffuse axonal injury
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10. Management for CSF rhinorrhea is:

(a) Plain x-ray and packing of nose (b) Nasal packing only
(c) Antibiotics and observation (d) Immediate surgery
11. After rupture of middle meningeal artery bleeding occurs in which region:
(a) Subdural bleed (b) Extradural bleed
(c) Intracerebral bleed (d) Subarachnoid bleed
12. First step taken in case of multiple injuries of face & neck:
(a) Blood transfusion (b) IV fluids
(c) Reconstruction (d) Maintenance of airway
13. Best prognostic factor for head injury is:
(a) Glasgow coma scale (b) Age
(c) Mode of injury (d) CT Scan
14. In severe injury, first to be maintained is:
(a) Hypotension (b) Dehydration
(c) Airway (d) Cardiac status
15. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
(a) Marjolin’s (b) Rodent
(c) Melanoma (d) Curlings
16. Which of these does not change or remains same throughout life:
(a) Salmon patch (b) Strawberry angiomas
(c) Portwine stain (d) Capillary hemangiomas
17. Late death in burns is due to:
(a) Sepsis (b) Hypovolemia
(c) Contractures (d) Neurogenic
18. What is the most important aspect of management of burn injury in the first 24 hrs?
(a) Fluid resuscitation (b) Dressing
(c) Escharotomy (d) Antibiotics
19. Most common abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is:
(a) Spleen (b) Liver
(c) Pancreas (d) Stomach
20. Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in blunt trauma abdomen is:
(a) Always midline incision (b) Depending upon the organ
(c) Transverse incision (d) Paramedian
21. Commonest site of peptic ulcer perforation:
(a) Anterior aspect of the 1st part of duodenum (b) Posterior aspect of the 1st part of duodenum
(c) Greater curvature of the stomach (d) Anterior aspect of 2nd part of duodenum
22. Normal portal vein pressure is:
(a) <3 mmHg (b) 3-5 mmHg
(c) 5-10 mmHg (d) 10-12 mmHg
23. A 25 year old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomiting.
Patient’s general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in the right
iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be:
(a) Immediate appendectomy (b) Exploratory laparotomy
(c) Oschner Sherren regimen (d) External drainage
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24. Most common site of hypertrophied keloid is:

(a) Face (b) Leg
(c) Presternal Area (d) Arm
25. Congenital hydrocele is best treated by:
(a) Eversion of sac (b) Excision of sac
(c) Lords procedure (d) Herniotomy
26. What is the most common position of the appendix?
(a) Pelvic (b) Paracolic
(c) Retrocaecal (d) Retroperitoneal
27. Which of the following Vitamin deficiencies is seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection?
(a) Vitamin K (b) Vitamin B 12
(c) Vitamin B1 (d) Folic acid
28. Referred pain to the shoulder in case of acute cholecystitis is:
(a) Murphy’s sign (b) Grey Turner sign
(c) Boa’s sign (d) Cullen’s sign
29. Ileal obstruction due to roundworm obstruction treatment is:
(a) Resection with end-to-end anastomosis
(b) Resection with side-to-side anastomosis
(c) Enterotomy removal of worms and primary closure
(d) Diversion
30. The burn area appears red, has blisters, and is very painful; the burn is categorised as:
(a) Superficial (b) Partial-thickness superficial
(c) Partial-thickness deep (d) Full thickness
31. In a surgical patient, malnutrition is best assessed by:
(a) Hb Level (b) Mid-arm circumference
(c) Serum albumin (d) Triceps skin fold thickness
32. The most common site for Curling’s ulcer is:
(a) Ileum (b) Stomach
(c) Duodenum (d) Oesophagus
33. The thickest skin in the human body is located on the:
(a) Thighs (b) Buttocks
(c) Scalp (d) Palms and soles
34. On the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the:
(a) Chin (b) Eyelids
(c) Post auricular region (d) Neck
35. A solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable, and may be elevated or
deep is called a:
(a) Crust (b) Callus
(c) Tumour (d) Wheal
36. Upward movement of the thyroid gland is prevented due to:
(a) Berry ligament (b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Sternothyroid muscle (d) Thyrohyoid membrane
37. Nerves of the brachial arch are derived from:
(a) Mesoderm (b) Endoderm
(c) Neural crest (d) Neuroectoderm
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38. The most typical type of anal carcinoma is:

(a) Squamous cell carcinoma (b) Adenocarcinoma
(c) Adenoacanthoma (d) Papillary type
39. Rolled up omentum is seen in the case of:
(a) Malrotation of the gut (b) Perforation peritonitis
(c) Peritoneal metastasis (d) Peritoneal tuberculosis
40. Sialolithiasis is common in which gland?
(a) Parotid (b) Sublingual
(c) Submandibular (d) Minor salivary glands
41. Which structure is not preserved in modified radical mastectomy?
(a) Cephalic vein (b) Pectoralis minor
(c) Pectoralis major (d) Branches of the intercostobrachial N.
42. Most crucial diagnostic feature of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
(a) Metabolic alkalosis (b) Non-bilious vomiting
(c) Jaundice (d) Fever
43. For recurrent anal fistula, the most appropriate investigation is:
(a) Endorectal US (b) Colonoscopy
(c) MRI (d) Proctoscopy
44. Choledochal cyst is a dilatation of:
(a) Gall bladder (b) Hepatic artery
(c) Hepatic cyst (d) Bile duct
45. What is intussuscepiens?
(a) The entire complex intussusception (b) The entering layer
(c) The outer layer (d) The process of reducing the intussusception
46. Drainage of cervical abscess is an example of:
(a) Clean contaminated wound (b) Clean an uncontaminated wound
(c) Unclean, uncontaminated wound (d) Dirty infected wound
47. Most tissue reaction is seen in:
(a) Plain catgut (b) Silk
(c) Polydioxanone (d) Chromic catgut
48. In the case of females, the commonest hernia is:
(a) Direct inguinal hernia (b) Femoral hernia
(c) Indirect inguinal hernia (d) Incisional hernia
49. A 65-year-old female presents with a swelling in the neck, diagnosed as a solitary thyroid nodule.
The patient undergoes investigation, and a scan reveals increased iodine uptake. Serum T3 and T4
are elevated. The most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Benign colloid goitre (b) Follicular adenoma
(c) Toxic adenoma (d) Toxic multinodular goitre
50. Neurosurgery is indicated in all, except:
(a) SDH (b) EDH
(c) Intracranial bleed (d) Diffuse axonal injury
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51. On examination, a primigravida who is 7 weeks amenorrhoeic is found to have bluish coloration of
vaginal mucosa. This sign suggestive of pregnancy is called:
(a) Hegar’s sign (b) Palmer’s sign
(c) Goodel’s sign (d) Jacquemiers sign
52. If on per vaginal examination, you find that the sagittal sutures are irreducible and overlapping. What
is the grade of moulding here?
(a) Grade 1 (b) Grade 2
(c) Grade 3 (d) Grade 4
53. On clinical examination per vaginally, you find that ala of sacrum is absent, what is this type of pelvis
called?
(a) Robert’s pelvis (b) Rachitic pelvis
(c) Android pelvis (d) Osteomyelitic pelvis
54. What is the best diagnostic test for iron deficiency in pregnancy?
(a) Serum iron level (b) Transferrin saturation
(c) Total iron binding capacity (d) Serum Ferritin
55. When is the blood volume maximum in pregnancy?
(a) 34th weeks (b) 36th weeks
(c) 32nd weeks (d) 28th weeks
56. All of the following maternal causes can lead to fetal tachycardia except:
(a) Pyrexia (b) Dehydration
(c) Hypothyroidism (d) Hypovolemia
57. Most common chromosomal anomaly in abortion is:
(a) Monosomy (b) Trisomy
(c) Translocation (d) Triploidy
58. A G4P3 female patient who is agricultural worker presents with fatigue at 38 weeks of gestation. On
examination, pallor, mild pedal edema is seen . Her Hemoglobin is 6.8gm%. Name the appropriate
treatment:
(a) Iron sucrose infusion after calculating total dose required
(b) Ferric carboxymaltose injection
(c) Packed RBC transfusion
(d) Iron dextran
59. Site for maximum absorption of iron is:
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum (d) Stomach
60. One 300mcg dose of anti D will neutralize how much of fetal blood?
(a) 15 ml of fetal red cells (b) 40 ml of fetal whole blood
(c) 20 ml of fetal red cells (d) 15 ml of fetal whole blood
61. The most common organism responsible for Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy is:
(a) Klebsiella (b) E coli
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Proteus
62. What is the risk of vertical transmission of HIV during pregnancy and delivery and breastfeeding
without ART?
(a) <10% (b) 10-30%
(c) 30-50% (d) >50%
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63. Which of the malarial drugs is safest in pregnancy?

(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Quinine
(c) Chloroquine (d) Primaquine
64. Consumptive coagulopathy is more likely with:
(a) Revealed abruption (b) Placenta praevia
(c) Concealed abruption (d) Grade 1 abruptio placentae
65. What is the treatment of red degeneration in pregnancy?
(a) Myomectomy
(b) Conservative
(c) Termination of pregnancy by medical induction
(d) Early artificial rupture of membrane
66. The triple test in second trimester screening includes all except:
(a) Alpha fetoprotein (b) Estradiol
(c) bHcg (d) Inhibin A
67. The upper limit of age of gestation for medical termination of pregnancy by one registered practitioner
is:
(a) 12 weeks (b) 20 weeks
(c) 8 weeks (d) 16 weeks
68. Which of the following is not a special measure for a woman with diabetes on insulin during childbirth?
(a) The morning dose of insulin to be withheld
(b) Start monitoring blood glucose level
(c) IV Normal saline to be started and insulin given according to blood glucose level
(d) Give the usual medication on the day as before
69. What dose of misoprostol is used for induction of labour?
(a) 50mg (b) 25mg
(c) 100mg (d) 200mg
70. Time interval between alert line and active line in partograph is:
(a) 6 hours (b) 5 hours
(c) 4 hours (d) 10 hours
71. Which of the following condition is at high risk due to an increased level of estrogen in PCOS?
(a) Hirsutism (b) Endometrial cancer
(c) Sleep apnoea (d) Dyslipidemia
72. Which ovarian tumour can cause thyrotoxicosis due to functioning thyroid tissue?
(a) Carcinoid tumour (b) Theca lutein cyst
(c) Mucinous cystadenoma (d) Struma ovarii
73. A multigravida is in second stage of labour for 2 hours. Per vaginal examination show station at 0 with
caput and +2 Moulding. Sagittal suture in right occipito transverse. Foetal heart rate is 140. Appropriate
management will be:
(a) Emergency LSCS (b) Mid pelvic Forceps delivery
(c) Fundal pressure (d) Vacuum delivery
74. Which manoeuvre is not included in the management of shoulder dystocia?
(a) Mc Robert’s (b) Zavanelli
(c) Fundal pressure (d) Wood’s screw manoeuvre
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75. A 30 year-old pregnant woman has a history of mitral valve replacement. She is on warfarin. At 6
weeks pregnancy, what is the best management?
(a) Continue warfarin as before
(b) Switch to LMWH unit until 12 weeks , then resume warfarin
(c) Switch to aspirin
(d) Stop all anticoagulants
76. In “Anemia Mukt Bharat operational guideline 2018” What is the recommended oral iron and folic
acid supplementation in pregnancy by The Ministries of Health, Govt of India?
(a) Daily 100mg of elemental iron with 500 mg of folic acid from 14 weeks onwards for 100 days
(b) 60 mg of elemental iron with 400 mg of folic acid daily for latter 6 months of pregnancy till 3
months post-partum
(c) 60 mg of elemental iron plus 500 mg of folic acid daily starting from 2nd trimester for 180 days
and to be continued for 180 days after delivery
(d) 100 mg of elemental iron plus 400 mg of folic acid daily for latter 6 months of pregnancy till 6
months post-partum
77. Which of the following test are included in Fetal Biophysical profile?
(a) NST, Liquor volume, Fetal tone, Fetal breathing movement and fetal movements
(b) NST and Liquor volume
(c) NST, fetal breathing movements, fetal position, Fetal tone and doppler study of umbilical vein
(d) Doppler study of umbilical, MCA, Ductus arteriosus and Uterine arteries
78. Which vaccination is not contraindicated during pregnancy?
(a) MMR (b) Varicella
(c) Influenza (d) HPV
79. A sudden bleeding per vagina at 37 weeks which is painless, bright red. On examination, patient is
pale, BP 80/50mmHg, pulse 125/min, and presenting part is unengaged. Management should be:
(a) Immediate resuscitation and termination of pregnancy by LSCS
(b) Immediate resuscitation and wait till due date
(c) Perform artificial rupture of membrane and try vaginal delivery
(d) Do a double set up Pelvic examination at OT after resuscitation
80. A grand multipara complains of scanty, painless, bleeding per vagina at 38 weeks of pregnancy. On
examination, patient is stable, bleeding is not copious, but there is fetal heart deceleration. The likely
cause of bleeding is:
(a) Abruptio placentae (b) Vasa previa
(c) Placenta previa (d) Combined Abruption with placenta previa
81. Symptoms of anemia in pregnancy are all except:
(a) Loss of appetite (b) Headache
(c) Shortness of breath (d) Leucorrhoea
82. Which of the following is not seen in impending eclampsia?
(a) Blurring of vision (b) Occipital Headache
(c) Epigastric pain (d) Lower abdominal pain
83. The Pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia is mainly due to:
(a) Abnormal trophoblastic invasion and remodeling of spiral arterioles
(b) Increased level of estrogen and progesterone
(c) Increased level of aldosterone
(d) Decrease in blood volume
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84. Which of the following congenital anomaly is most commonly seen in pre gestational diabetes?
(a) Cleft lip (b) Cardiac anomalies
(c) Renal agenesis (d) Anencephaly
85. In a patient with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which is the drug of choice for symptom
control and improving fetal outcome?
(a) Cholestyramine (b) Ursodeoxycholic acid
(c) Prednisolone (d) Lactocalamine
86. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is diagnosed with Primary syphilis. What is the choice of
treatment?
(a) Azithromycin (b) Benzathine Penicillin
(c) Doxycycline (d) Ceftriaxone
87. Which of the following infections causes sensori-neural deafness, especially if contracted in the first
trimester?
(a) Rubella (b) Toxoplasmosis
(c) HSV (d) Varicella
88. 25 years old, 10 weeks pregnant woman was found to have 7 cm ovarian cyst with thin wall and clear
fluid on routine ultrasound. Next action would be:
(a) Immediate Surgery (b) MRI Pelvis
(c) Start progesterone support (d) Repeat scan after 6 weeks
89. A 35 year old woman in early pregnancy presents with a large, obstructing cervical fibroid. What
complication is likely during labor?
(a) Uterine rupture (b) Placenta previa
(c) Obstructed labor (d) Preeclampsia
90. Which of the following diameters is considered most important in assessing pelvic inlet adequacy?
(a) True conjugate (b) Transverse diameter
(c) Diagonal conjugate (d) Obstetric conjugate
91. In which diameter of the presenting part is vaginal delivery impossible?
(a) Occipito -frontal (b) Sub Occipito frontal
(c) Sub mento Bregmatic (d) Mento-vertical
92. Which of the following agents is safest for cervical ripening in a case of previous caesarean section?
(a) Misoprostol (b) Dinoprostone gel
(c) Foleys intracervical catheter (d) Mifepristone
93. Abnormal uterine bleeding in adolescent is most commonly due to;
(a) Anovulation (b) Bleeding disorders
(c) Endometrial carcinoma (d) Adenomyosis
94. The most common malignant ovarian tumour in young women under 30 years is:
(a) Serous Cystadenoma (b) Dysgerminoma
(c) Granulosa cell tumour (d) Immature teratoma
95. All are Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing PCOS except:
(a) Oligo-or anovulation (b) Hyperandrogenism
(c) Elevated LH/FSH (d) Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
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96. The most common causative organism in PID are:

(a) E coli and klebsiella
(b) Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
(c) Mycoplasma and ureaplasma
(d) Gardenella Vaginalis and Candida
97. A 36 year old multipara presents at 8 weeks with bleeding per vagina and lower abdominal pain.On
examination, Os is closed, uterus is 8 weeks size and foetal heartbeat is present on USG. What is the
likely diagnosis?
(a) Complete abortion (b) Threatened abortion
(c) Missed abortion (d) Inevitable abortion
98. A 16 years old girl is brought to the clinic with a complaint of fever, foul smelling vaginal discharge,
hypotension and bleeding after MTP done illegally 3 days back. Immediate step of management
would be:
(a) USG to confirm retained products
(b) Stabilise and start broad spectrum antibiotics
(c) Start misoprostol
(d) Schedule evacuation immediately
99. Which of the following is most consistent with uterine perforation during surgical treatment of abortion?
(a) Abdominal pain (b) Loss of resistance
(c) Bradycardia (d) Bleeding
100. A woman presents with bleeding per vagina with severe abdominal cramps. Ultrasound show empty
uterine cavity. Serum Beta HCG is 1500IU/L. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Complete abortion (b) Threatened abortion
(c) Missed abortion (d) Ectopic pregnancy

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