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CHHATTISGARH LOCAL LAWS

CG EXCISE ACT

1. “Liquor” under the Act includes:

A) Only spirits of wine
B) Only fermented drinks
C) All liquids consisting of or containing alcohol, including beer and tari
D) Only those notified by Central Government
Answer: C
Explanation: Liquor includes spirits of wine, spirit, wine, tari, beer, and any liquid
containing alcohol; the State may notify more.

2. “Manufacture” includes:
A) Only distillation
B) Only blending
C) Any process by which an intoxicant is produced, plus rectification, flavouring,
blending, colouring
D) Only natural fermentation
Answer: C
Explanation: Broadly includes every process producing/rectifying/processing liquor.

3. Which expression refers to “sale” under the Act?

A) Transfer by way of gift
B) Transfer otherwise than by way of gift
C) Lease only
D) Mortgage only
Answer: B
Explanation: Expressions referring to “sale” include any transfer other than gift.

4. “Transport” means:
A) Moving liquor across customs frontier
B) Moving liquor within the State from one place to another
C) Only export to other States
D) Only movement through railways
Answer: B
Explanation: “Transport” = movement within the State.

5. The State Government may declare what shall be deemed “country liquor” or “foreign
liquor” by:
A) Executive order to Collector
B) Gazette notification
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C) Judicial circular
D) Municipal resolution
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 4 empowers the State Government by notification.

6. Retail and wholesale limits are:

A) Fixed by Central Government
B) Fixed by Collector
C) Declared by State Government via notification
D) Set by local bodies
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 5(1) allows the State to declare quantities that mark retail limits.

7. A “wholesale sale” is a sale:

A) Below notified retail limit
B) In excess of the quantity declared as retail limit
C) Only to licensees
D) Only for export
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 5(2) deems sale over the retail limit as wholesale.

8. The Act does not affect which enactments?

A) Sea Customs Act, 1878; Indian Tariff Act, 1894; Cantonment Act, 1910
B) Income Tax Act
C) Motor Vehicles Act
D) Evidence Act
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 6 saves these enactments (with a limited exception noted).

9. Who superintends the Excise Department and collection of excise revenue?

A) District Magistrate
B) Excise Commissioner
C) Chief Revenue Authority
D) State Beverage Corporation
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7(a) provides for appointment of an Excise Commissioner for this
role.

10. The State Government may delegate its powers under the Act to the Chief Revenue
Authority or Excise Commissioner except which power?
A) Power to appoint officers
B) Power to make rules under Section 62
C) Power to license distilleries
D) Power to withdraw powers
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Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7(e) bars delegation of the rule-making power (Section 62).

11. Under Section 7, powers and duties of certain Excise officers can be exercised by:
A) Only police officers
B) Any servant of Government or any other person as ordered
C) Private vendors only
D) Only Judicial Magistrates
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7(d) permits ordering that such powers/duties be exercised by any
Government servant or other person.

12. Flying squads under Section 7A are established to investigate:

A) Only theft cases
B) Evasion of excise revenue or contraventions of the Act
C) Labour disputes in distilleries
D) Environmental violations
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7A(1) targets evasion of revenue and contraventions.

13. Members of a flying squad:

A) Must be only Excise officers
B) Can include Excise officers and other persons appointed
C) Are only police officers
D) Must be judicial officers
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7A(2) permits Excise officers and other persons as appointed.

14. The State Government may, by notification, prohibit:

A) Only export of intoxicants
B) Import, export, or transport of intoxicants
C) Only transport within municipalities
D) Only sale of intoxicants
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 8 authorizes prohibition of import/export/transport and control of
Mahua/base materials.

15. Without State sanction, intoxicants cannot be imported/exported/transported unless:

A) Duty is paid or bond executed and conditions imposed are complied with
B) Only duty is paid
C) Only bond is executed
D) Only Collector’s oral permission is obtained
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 9 mandates duty payment or bond and compliance with conditions.
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16. A pass is required for import/export/transport when quantity:
A) Exceeds the limit the State prescribes by notification
B) Is any quantity whatsoever
C) Is only for export
D) Is for private consumption
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 10 requires passes beyond notified quantities.

17. Who generally grants passes for import/export/transport?

A) District Magistrate
B) Collector, with some categories reserved for Excise Commissioner
C) Superintendent of Police
D) Chief Revenue Authority only
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 11(1): Collector grants passes; for certain intoxicants, Excise
Commissioner only.

18. A pass under Section 11 can be:

A) Only special
B) Only general
C) General for defined periods/kinds or special for specified consignments
D) Only for export
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 11(2) allows general or special passes.

19. The Excise Commissioner may deem passes issued by other authorities in India as passes
under this Act:
A) Never
B) Only with Central approval
C) By general or special order, subject to conditions
D) Only for military supplies
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 12 permits deeming by general/special order with conditions.

20. Which activity requires a licence under Section 13?

A) Bottling liquor for sale
B) Cultivating hemp plant
C) Tapping tari-producing trees (subject to proviso)
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Section 13 covers manufacturing/collecting intoxicants, hemp cultivation,
tapping/drawing tari, bottling, constructing/working distilleries/breweries, and keeping
apparatus—all under licence, subject to notified exceptions.

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21. The State Government may notify that Section 13 does not apply to:
A) Manufacture of foreign liquor for sale
B) Tapping/drawing tari in specified areas, subject to conditions
C) Bottling for wholesale
D) Cultivation of poppy
Answer: B
Explanation: First proviso to Section 13 allows exemption for tari in specified areas, with
conditions.

22. Who may establish a distillery or brewery and license it under conditions?
A) Collector only
B) Excise Commissioner
C) District Magistrate
D) State Beverages Corporation
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 14 empowers the Excise Commissioner to establish/discontinue and
license.

23. Removal of intoxicants from a licensed distillery/warehouse requires:

A) Payment of duty or execution of bond, with State Government sanction
B) Only Collector’s pass
C) Only warehouse fee
D) A municipal permit
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 15 bars removal without duty paid or bond, and without State
sanction.

24. The State may prescribe limits of possession of intoxicants:

A) By Central notification
B) By State notification (different limits allowed for different qualities)
C) By municipal order
D) By court direction only
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 16(1) allows State notification and different limits for qualities.

25. Possession above the prescribed limit is lawful only if:

A) The person is over 21
B) Possession is under a relevant licence/pass/permit
C) The liquor is foreign
D) The liquor is denatured
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 16(2) permits excess possession under licence, pass, or permit.

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26. Section 16(3) exempts certain foreign liquor in possession of:
A) Any adult
B) Any retailer
C) Common carrier or warehouseman as such
D) Any hotel
Answer: C
Explanation: The clause expressly exempts common carrier or warehouseman (as such).

27. The State Government may prohibit possession of any intoxicant:

A) Only in urban areas
B) Only absolutely
C) Either absolutely or subject to conditions, for persons/class/areas
D) Only for vendors
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 16(4) grants broad power to prohibit possession generally or
conditionally.

28. Sale of any intoxicant is permitted only:

A) Under a licence
B) With receipt
C) When below retail limit
D) When for home consumption
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 17(1) requires sale under authority of a licence, subject to provisos.

29. Which sale without licence is permitted by proviso to Section 17?

A) Sale of foreign liquor for profit
B) Sale of tari by the person having the right to draw, to a licensed tari
manufacturer/seller
C) Retail sale of beer by any adult
D) Sale of spirit by a common carrier
Answer: B
Explanation: Proviso (a): person with right to tari may sell without licence to licensed
manufacturer/seller.

30. A person licensed under Section 13 to cultivate hemp may sell certain parts without a
licence to:
A) Any adult
B) Any person licensed to deal in them, or prescribed officer
C) Only to foreign liquor vendor
D) Only for medical use
Answer: B
Explanation: Proviso (b) allows sale to licensed dealers or prescribed officers.

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COURT FEES ACT

31. In Mufassal courts, documents chargeable under the Act can be filed only if:
A) Certified by District Judge
B) Proper ad valorem fee is paid
C) Fee exempted by Collector
D) Parties agree on valuation
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 6 — same principle: schedule fees mandatory.

32. “Appropriate Government” under the Act refers to:

A) Always the State Government
B) Always the Central Government
C) Central Government for fees before its officers, State Government otherwise
D) Determined by High Courts
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 1A — dual definition: Central Government for central officers; State
Government otherwise.

33. Why do states amend Sec. 6 differently?

A) Federal structure allows local adjustments to court-fee regime
B) To appease judiciary
C) Due to population
D) Due to inflation alone
Answer: A
Explanation: Court-fee is a state subject under Constitution.

34. In suits for money, fee is computed:

A) On yearly value
B) On double the claim
C) On amount claimed
D) On market value of property
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 7(i) — simple ad valorem principle.

35. Suits for maintenance/annuities valued at:

A) One year’s claim
B) Ten times one year’s claim
C) Twenty times one year’s claim
D) Five times one year’s claim

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Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 7(ii) — 10 times the annual amount deemed value.

36. In movable property suits with no market value, valuation depends on:
A) Government assessment
B) Collector’s register
C) Plaintiff’s own valuation in plaint
D) Arbitrator’s report
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 7(iv)(a–f) — plaintiff must state value.

37. In suits for possession of permanently settled revenue-paying land, valuation is equal to
A) 20 times the revenue
B) 15 times the revenue
C) 10 times the revenue
D) Net profits multiplied by 10
Answer: A
Explanation: Sec. 7(v)(a) — 20 times the revenue if permanently settled.

38. Why does law use revenue multiples (5 times, 10 times, 15 times)?
A) To simplify record-keeping
B) To reflect long-term earning capacity of land
C) To penalize litigants
D) To avoid inflation
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiples approximate capitalized value of land.

39. For injunctions, plaintiff:

A) Pays fixed fee
B) Pays no fee
C) Values relief himself; fee on that valuation
D) Pays per judge’s direction
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 7(iv)(d) — injunction suits depend on plaintiff’s valuation.

40. In pre-emption suits, valuation is equal to

A) Market price fixed by court
B) Consideration money
C) Value of land/house as per Sec. 7(v)
D) Double stamp duty
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 7(vi) — links directly to possession valuation rule.

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41. Appeals against compensation awards: fee is computed on—
A) Entire award
B) Difference between award & claim
C) Market value of land
D) Annual rent
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 8 — fee on difference only.

42. Why fee is levied only on difference in compensation appeals?

A) To discourage appeals
B) To avoid double taxation of same award
C) To help landlords
D) To encourage litigation
Answer: B
Explanation: Prevents duplicate fee on amount already settled.

43. Court may issue commission to check valuation when:

A) Plaintiff poor
B) Market value/net profits appear wrongly estimated
C) Parties dispute
D) State directs
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 9 — commission to verify valuation accuracy.

44. If under-valuation is discovered, plaintiff must:

A) Pay additional fee
B) Case dismissed automatically
C) Appeal directly
D) Refund money
Answer: A
Explanation: Sec. 10(ii) — must pay balance fee; case stayed till then.

45. In mesne profits suits, decree execution is stayed if:

A) Defendant appeals
B) Decreed profits exceed claim and extra fee unpaid
C) Suit withdrawn
D) Market value disputed
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 11 — ensures correct fee aligns with decree relief.

46. Sec. 12 of the Court Fees Act gives power to decide valuation disputes to:
A) Taxing officer
B) Collector
C) Court where plaint filed
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D) Appellate Tribunal
Answer: C
Explanation: Sec. 12(i) — court of institution decides valuation.

47. Appellate court can intervene in valuation if:

A) Detrimental to revenue
B) Detrimental to parties
C) Delay caused
D) Suit complex
Answer: A
Explanation: Sec. 12(ii) — if wrong decision hurts revenue, appellate can require more
fee.

48. Refund of court fee is possible when:

A) Appeal rejected
B) Appeal is remanded or plaint is rejected but later restored
C) Party loses
D) Party compromises privately
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 13 — refund allowed in specific procedural events.

49. Sec. 14 allows refund in review petitions filed:

A) After 90 days, unless delay caused by laches
B) Before 30 days
C) After 1 year only
D) Only if SC approves
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 14 — refund possible if delay not due to applicant’s fault.

50. Refund under Sec. 15 applies when:

A) Fresh evidence produced
B) Court reverses/ modifies decision due to legal/mistake in fact
C) Party withdraws
D) Arbitrator intervenes
Answer: B
Explanation: Refund arises only if reversal based on mistake, not fresh evidence.

Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011

51. A “Habitual Defaulter” is conceptually a tenant who:

A) Misses rent once in a year
B) Fails to pay rent three or more times within 12 months on the due date
C) Pays partial rent once
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D) Breaks lock-in period
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 2(4) — failure three or more occasions in 12 months to pay in full
on the due date.

52. “Tenant” status on death of the original tenant (residential) is preserved for:
A) Only the eldest son
B) Surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother, father ordinarily residing with him till
death
C) Any relative mentioned in a will
D) Any legal heir irrespective of residence
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 2(14)(ii)(a) narrows successors to specified family members
ordinarily residing in the accommodation.

53. For a commercial tenancy, who may step in as “tenant” on death?

A) Any employee
B) Any partner
C) Surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother, father who ordinarily carried on business
with him
D) Landlord’s nominee
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 2(14)(ii)(b) — family members who were ordinarily carrying on
the business with the tenant.

54. “Social Nuisance” is defined by reference to:

A) Police Act
B) Schedule 4, Serial No. 10
C) Municipal bye-laws
D) Indian Penal Code
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 2(13) — “Social Nuisance” = a tenant who frequently uses the
accommodation to commit acts listed in Schedule 4, item 10.

55. Properties owned by Government departments/Boards/Corporations are:

A) Fully governed by the Act
B) Exempt from the Act
C) Covered only for rent fixation
D) Covered only for eviction
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 3(1) exempts such Governmental accommodations.

56. Government can exempt other buildings by:

A) Administrative circular
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B) Tribunal order
C) Notification in public interest
D) District order
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 3(2) — exemption by Government notification in public interest.

57. After commencement, a valid tenancy requires:

A) Oral contract and witnesses
B) Court registration
C) Written agreement between landlord and tenant
D) Panchayat resolution
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 4(1) mandates written agreements notwithstanding TPA §107.

58. For pre-Act tenancies without written agreement, parties must:

A) Do nothing; old terms continue
B) Execute a written agreement and file before Rent Controller, or separately file
particulars if they can’t agree
C) Seek civil court decree
D) Register a lease deed compulsorily
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 4(2) creates a conversion/filing pathway; failing joint filing, separate
particulars must be filed.

59. The format/manner/time for agreements under Section 4 is set by:

A) Tribunal practice directions
B) Rules
C) District circulars
D) Model forms by Bar Council
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 4(3) — as prescribed (i.e., by rules).

60. The default statutory due date for rent, if not otherwise agreed, is:
A) 1st of the following month
B) 7th of the following month
C) 15th of the following month
D) End of the following month
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 5(2) fixes the 15th as the default deadline.

61. “Rent” excludes, unless agreed separately:

A) Security deposit
B) Charges for amenities
C) Municipal taxes
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D) Interest for delay
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 5(1) — rent is the consideration; amenities charges are separate if
agreed.

62. The Tribunal is constituted under:

A) Article 323-A
B) Article 323-B
C) State List Entry 18
D) Article 227
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 6(1) invokes Art. 323-B (tribunals for certain matters incl. tenancy).

63. Once the Tribunal becomes functional, civil court jurisdiction over its matters is:
A) Concurrent
B) Excluded, save SC under Art. 136 and HCs under Arts. 226/227
C) Remains intact
D) Only District Court excluded
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 6(5) excludes ordinary court jurisdiction except SC/HC constitutional
jurisdiction.

64. Pending cases before courts at the Tribunal’s establishment are to be:
A) Transferred to Tribunal
B) Processed under the old Act
C) Dismissed
D) Frozen until rules
Answer: B
Explanation: Proviso to Section 6(5) — pending cases continue under the old Act.

65. The Tribunal’s contempt power is equated to:

A) District Court
B) Civil Judge Class-I
C) High Court
D) Supreme Court
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 8(2) — Tribunal has contempt powers as if a High Court.

66. Who may be appointed Tribunal Chairperson per substituted provision?

A) Any advocate
B) Retired High Court Judge or serving/retired District Judge (Super Time Scale)
C) Only serving High Court Judge
D) IAS officer
Answer: B
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Explanation: Section 6(2) (substituted) — retired HC Judge or (serving/retired) DJ of
STS.

67. Rent Controllers are appointed as:

A) Judicial officers only
B) Officers not below Deputy Collector rank
C) Panchayat officers
D) Police officers
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7(1) — appointment of Deputy Collector or above.

68. The Controller is institutionally:

A) Superior to Tribunal
B) Subordinate to the Tribunal
C) Independent
D) Under the Collector
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 7(2) — Controller subordinate to Tribunal.

69. Time-standard for concluding proceedings before the Controller is:

A) 30 days
B) 90 days
C) 6 months from first appearance/set-ex parte
D) One year
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 9(2) — six months ordinarily.

70. The Tribunal/Controller are not bound by:

A) Evidence Act
B) CPC procedure
C) Natural justice
D) Their own rules
Answer: B
Explanation: Section 10(1) — not bound by CPC, but guided by natural justice and
vested with civil court-like powers in specified matters.

CG LAND REVENUE CODE

71. Why does the Code define “abadi” separately from “land”?
A) To exclude agricultural use
B) To identify village residential areas distinct from cultivable lands
C) To classify forest land
D) To regulate taxation differently
Answer: B
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Explanation: “Abadi” means village sites for habitation, different from cultivation plots,
for proper demarcation in records.

72. Why is “agriculture” in the Code defined broadly to include poultry, fisheries, and animal
husbandry (beyond 5 km of urban periphery)?
A) To promote industrialization
B) To equate it with manufacturing
C) To cover diverse rural land uses under revenue regime
D) To exempt such activities from revenue
Answer: C
Explanation: Expansive definition ensures non-traditional rural uses still fall under
revenue law regulation.

73. Why is an “agricultural year” fixed from 1 July?

A) To align with fiscal year
B) To match cropping cycles and revenue assessment schedules
C) To simplify urban tax collection
D) Arbitrary colonial inheritance
Answer: B
Explanation: It is tied to agricultural cropping patterns for uniform rent and revenue
assessment.

74. The Board of Revenue is primarily:

A) A criminal court
B) Highest revenue appellate and supervisory authority
C) A department of agriculture
D) A Panchayat body
Answer: B
Explanation: Board functions as apex revenue authority with appellate/revisional powers
and superintendence.

75. Which is not a class of Revenue Officer under the Code?

A) Collector
B) Tahsildar
C) Naib Tahsildar
D) District Judge
Answer: D
Explanation: Judges are judicial officers, not revenue officers.

76. Subordination principle under section 12 of the Revenue Code ensures:

A) Parallel hierarchies
B) Revenue officers are always subordinate to State Govt, Commissioner, and Collector
as per area
C) No chain of command
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D) Panchayat supervision
Answer: B
Explanation: Ensures clear chain of administrative control.

77. Why must proposals to alter district/tahsil limits be published inviting objections?
A) To delay process
B) To ensure public participation and transparency
C) To reduce administrative workload
D) To please political parties
Answer: B
Explanation: Proviso to Sec. 13 mandates public objections before territorial changes.

78. Declaring Revenue Officers as Revenue Courts implies—

A) They can legislate
B) They act quasi-judicially, binding decisions
C) They are criminal courts
D) They cannot summon parties
Answer: B
Explanation: Converts administrative officers into judicial tribunals for disputes.

79. Powers of Revenue Courts to summon are limited by—

A) Political decisions
B) Sections 132–133 CPC (privilege of certain persons)
C) Panchayat rules
D) High Court only
Answer: B
Explanation: Protects privileged classes like women under purdah or govt. officers.

80. CPC applies under the Code —

A) Always
B) When Code is silent on procedure
C) Only in civil suits
D) Never
Answer: B
Explanation: CPC acts as residuary procedure law.

81. First appeals usually lie to—

A) Supreme Court
B) Higher revenue officer in hierarchy (SDO, Collector, etc.)
C) High Court directly
D) Panchayat
Answer: B
Explanation: Code provides tiered appeal structure within revenue hierarchy.

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82. Second appeals limited to—
A) All grounds
B) Only questions of law/usage or substantial procedural error
C) Political grounds
D) Discretion of Collector
Answer: B
Explanation: Like civil law, second appeals restricted to legal grounds.

83. No appeal lies against interim orders mainly because—

A) To save litigants cost
B) To prevent multiplicity and delay in proceedings
C) Interim orders are unconstitutional
D) They are trivial
Answer: B
Explanation: Avoids fragmented litigation.

84. Limitation for appeals under section 47 is

A) 30 days
B) 45 days
C) 60 days
D) 90 days
Answer: C
Explanation: 60 days.

85. Revisionary power exists to—

A) Rehear every case
B) Correct illegality, impropriety, or procedural irregularity by subordinates
C) Abolish appeals
D) Supervise Panchayats
Answer: B
Explanation: Ensures control and legality check.

86. Limitation for revision to Board is

A) 30 days
B) 60 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days
Answer: B
Explanation: Sec. 50(ii) — 60 days to Board.

87. Which of the following provisions of the Revenue Code defines ‘orchard’??
A) Section 2(1)(p)
B) Section 2(1)(q)
C) Section 2(1)(r)
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D) Section 2(1)(s)
Answer: A
Explanation: Section 2(1)(p) defines ‘orchard’.

88. No appeal lies from rejection of stay applications because—

A) Stay orders are interim, not final rights
B) To favour government
C) To reduce burden only
D) Arbitrary
Answer: A
Explanation: Interim stay ≠ substantive adjudication.

89. Which orders cannot be reviewed under Sec. 51 of the CG Revenue Code?
A) Orders pending appeal or revision
B) Orders of subordinate officers
C) Interim orders
D) Orders granting stay
Answer: A
Explanation: To avoid parallel proceedings, review is barred if appeal/revision is already
pending.

90. Which lands are exempt from revenue under Sec. 58 of the Revenue Code?
A) Only forests
B) Special grants/contracts or laws exempting land
C) All abadi always
D) Only Gram Sabha land
Answer: B
Explanation: Liability is universal except for lawful exemptions.

91. Which of the following provisions of the Revenue Code has been omitted in 2023?
A) section 98
B) Section 99
C) Section 101
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Section 101-102 have been omitted in 2023 amendment.

92. Presumption of correctness of entries under section 117 means—

A) Entries are infallible
B) Entries are prima facie evidence unless disproved
C) Civil courts cannot question
D) Patwari immune
Answer: B
Explanation: Shifts burden of proof to challenger, ensuring administrative efficiency.
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93. If Kisan Kitab and khasra entries conflict, whose decision is final?
A) Collector
B) Tahsildar
C) Patwari
D) Gram Sabha
Answer: B
Explanation: Tahsildar has quasi-judicial authority to resolve conflicts.

94. Boundary disputes are decided by—

A) Collector only
B) Tahsildar after local inquiry
C) Patwari
D) Civil Court
Answer: B
Explanation: Tahsildar is first-instance authority for localized disputes.

95. Who decides disputes in demarcation/maintenance of boundary marks adjoining

communal land?
A) Collector
B) Patwari
C) Gram Sabha
D) Civil Judge
Answer: A
Explanation: Collector’s decision is final for communal boundary disputes.

96. Penalty for failure to repair boundary marks is—

A) Rs. 1 only
B) Up to Rs. 100 per mark
C) Seizure of land
D) Jail term
Answer: B
Explanation: 2013 amendment raised penalty to Rs. 100 per mark.

97. Easement disputes are decided with reference to—

A) Patwari’s discretion
B) Previous custom and convenience of parties
C) Gram Sabha votes
D) Panchayat resolution
Answer: B
Explanation: Upholds community customs unless inequitable.

98. Why is Tahsildar empowered to order removal of obstruction in paths/water sources (Sec.
133)?
A) To ensure communal access to essential resources
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B) To punish landowners
C) To expand revenue base
D) Arbitrary police power
Answer: A
Explanation: Protects village commons and mobility.

99. Primary liability under Sec. 138 falls on—

A) Gram Sabha
B) Bhumiswami or lessee
C) Patwari
D) Tenant
Answer: B
Explanation: Person holding rights is liable for revenue.

100. Arrear arises under s. 141when—

A) Revenue unpaid on prescribed date
B) Immediately after 1st April
C) Only when Collector declares
D) At year-end
Answer: A
Explanation: Default status begins post-prescribed date.

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