17-08-2025

5301CMD303029250012 MD

PHYSICS

1) A planet of mass M, has two natural satellites with masses m1​ and m2​. The radii of their circular
orbits are R1​ and R2​ respectively. Ignore the gravitational force between the satellites. Define v1​,L1​,K1
and T1​ to be, respectively, the orbital speed, angular momentum, kinetic energy and time period of
revolution of satellite 1; and v2​,L2​,K2​ and T2​ to be the corresponding quantities of satellite 2.
Given m1​/m2​=2 and R1​/R2​=1/4, match the ratios in List-I to the numbers in List-II.

LIST-I LIST-II

(P) V1/V2 1 1/8

(Q) L1/L2 2 1

(R) K1/K2 3 2

(S) T1/T2 4 8
(1) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
(2) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(3) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(4) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1

2) A body is rotating with angular acceleration α = (4t3 – 3t2 + 2t) starting from rest. Find out
angular velocity ω :-

(1) ω = t4 – t3 + t2
(2) ω = t4 – t3 + t2 + 2
(3) ω = 4t4 – 3t3 + 2t2 + 2
(4) None

3) Two fix planet of masses M & 4M are separated by a distance of 6R between their center. A body
is projected from the surface of planet of mass M then what will be the minimum velocity of particle

so that it can reach at the surface of planet of mass 4M.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at 600 rad/sec. for this power of 1.2 KW is used. the
effective torque on stone in N–m will be :–

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) A thin wire of length and uniform linear mass density of 'ρ' is bent into a circular loop with
centre O and radius r as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX' is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The moment of inertia of a lamina plate of mass M, length ℓ and breadth b about an axis passing
through the centre and perpendicular to the plate will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two identical rods each of mass M and length L are kept according to figure. Find the moment of
inertia of rods about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of rods :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle is projected at time t = 0 from a point P on the ground with a speed v0, at an angle of
45° to the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about P at
time t= v0/g.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of

inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) The moment of inertia of a sphere (mass M and radius R) about it’s diameter is I. Four such
spheres are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about axis XX' will
be :-

(1) 3 I
(2) 5 I
(3) 7 I
(4) 9 I

11) The diagram shows a uniform disc of mass M & radius ‘a’. If the moment of inertia of the disc
about the axis XY is I, its moment of inertia about an axis through O and perpendicular to the plane

of the disc is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Calculate the ratio of the times taken by a uniform solid sphere and a disc of the same mass and
the same diameter to move down through the same distance from rest on a smooth inclined plane.

(1) 15 : 14
(2) 1 : 1
(3)
(4)

13) A solid sphere rolls without slipping and presses a spring of spring constant k as shown in figure.

Then, the maximum compression in the spring will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis,
with a constant angular speed ωi. Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the
rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with
a constant angular speed ωf. The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A uniform rod of mass m length ℓ rests on a smooth horizontal surface. Rod is given sharp
horizontal impulse p perpendicular to the rod at a distance ℓ/4 from the centre. The angular velocity
of rod will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Select the correct statement regarding moment of inertia of a body

(1) It has constant value about all axis

(2) It has minimum value about and axis passing through centre of mass of body
(3) It has fixed value about an axis passing through its centre of mass
(4) All of these

17) A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from a metal plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 4r is made from the same metal plate of thickness t/4. If equal
torques act on the discs A and B, initially both being at rest. At a later instant, the angular speeds of
a point on the rim of A and another point on the rim of B are ωA and ωB respectively. We have
(1) ωA > ωB
(2) ωA = ωB
(3) ωA < ωB
(4) the relation depends on the magnitude of the torque.

18) A particle is moving along a straight line parallel to x-axis with constant velocity. Find angular
momentum about the

origin in vector form:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) A massless string is wrapped round a disc of mass M and radius R. Another end is tied to a mass
m which is initially at height h from ground level as shown in the fig. If the mass is released, then its

velocity while touching the ground level will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A uniform rod of length ℓ and mass m is hung from two strings of equal length from a ceiling as

shown.Tension in the two strings are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 1.6 m is pivoted at its end and swings freely in the
vertical plane. Angular acceleration of rod just after the rod is released from rest in the horizontal

position as shown in figure is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A force acts on a body at a point having position vector relative to

origin of co-ordinates on the axis of rotation. The torque acting on the body about the origin is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none of these

23)

A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged about a point as shown in the fig. Initially the rod is
kept horizontal by a massless string as shown. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of
the rod is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) A force of acts on origin, then the torque about the point (1, –1) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Two bodies having same mass m each are placed at a distance r, gravitational force between
them is F. If 75% mass of the body is transfer to the second body and distance between them
becomes half then gravitational force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

26) For a spherical shell of mass M and radius R at centre:-

Field is zero but potential is

(1)

Field is zero but potential is –

(2)

(3) Field and potential both are zero

(4)
Magnitude of field is and potential

27) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% and its mass remaining the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth's surface would :-

(1) Decrease by 2%
(2) Remain unchanged
(3) Increase by 2%
(4) Becomes zero

28) If the earth stops rotating suddenly the value of g at a place other than poles would :-

(1) Decrease
(2) Remain constant
(3) Increase
(4) None of these

29) The radius of two planets are in the ratio 4 : 1 and their mean densities in the ratio 1 : 2. The
acceleration due to gravity on the planets will be in ratio :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

30) Which of the following is curve for gravitational potential and the distance 'r' from the centre of
hollow sphere :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of the earth. The acceleration due to
gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of earth. If the radius of earth is R,
the radius of the planet would be :-

(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) R/4
(4) R/2

32) A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in figure. P is a point on the plane
of the chord. The gravitational field at P due to the upper part is I1 and that due to the lower part is

I2. What is the relation between them :-

(1) I1 > I2
(2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 = I2
(4) None of these

33) Five bodies of mass m,m,m,m,m0 placed at corners of a pentagon as shown in figure. The net

gravitational force on body of mass 'm' placed at centre is–

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the earth. If Me & Re are the mass & radius of the earth
respectively.Then the force on a particle of mass 'm' placed in the tunnel at a distance r from the
centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The gravitational field in a region is given by , then work done by an

external force in carrying a mass of 0.4 kg from point (0, 0) to (3, 4) metre is :-

(1) 22J
(2) –22J
(3) –44J
(4) 44J

36) If the distance between the earth and the sun were half of its present value. The number of days
in a year would have about :-

(1) 64.5
(2) 129
(3) 182.5
(4) 730

37) A small satellite is in elliptical orbit around Earth as shown. If L denotes the magnitude of its
angular momentum about the centre of the earth and K denotes kinetic energy :-

(1) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1

(2) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1
(3) L2 < L1 and K2 = K1
(4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1

38)

A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is :-

(1) gx

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Given that mass of the earth is M and its radius is R. A body is dropped from a height equal to
the radius of the earth above the surface of the earth. When it reaches the ground its velocity will be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the centre of earth
and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become-

(1) 10 h
(2) 80 h
(3) 40 h
(4) 20 h

41) A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The

gravitational potential at a point situated at distance from the center will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A body of mass 'M', placed on earth surface, is taken to a height h = 3R; then change
in gravitational potential energy is :- (R = Radius of earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Three identical point masses, each of mass 1 kg lie in the x-y plane at points (0, 0), (0, 0.2 m) and
(0.2 m, 0). The gravitational force on the mass at the origin is :-

(1) 1.67 × 10–11 ( )N

(2) 3.34 × 10–10 ( )N
(3) 1.67 × 10–9 ( )N
(4) 3.34 × 10–10 ( )N

44) Assertion : Gravitational potential is a scalar quantity but gravitational field is vector quantity
Reason : Gravitational force is attractive in nature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

45) Assertion : In the absence of net external torque, angular momentum is conserved, but not the
rotational kinetic energy.
Reason : Torque, Internal to the system may change the rotational KE but can not change the
angular momentum.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

CHEMISTRY

1) Order of solubility of AgCl in following solutions:

(A) 0.1 M NaCl (B) 0.1 N CaCl2
(C) 0.2 M AgNO3

(1) A = B > C
(2) A > C = B
(3) A > B > C
(4) A > C > B

2) Which of the following is not a buffer solution-

(1) 0.8M H2S + 0.5 M KHS

–
(2) 2M C6H5NH2 + 2M C6H5NH2+Br
(3) 3M H2CO3 + 3M KHCO3
(4) 0.005M KClO4 + 0.05M HClO4

3) Assertion (A) : Acidic buffer solutions resist the change in pH on dilution.

Reason (R) : On dilution the ratio of the species conjugate base [A–] and weak acid [HA] remain
unchanged.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

4) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is alkaline in nature.
Statement-II : Both acetate and sodium ion undergoes hydrolysis in water.
On the basis of above statements, select the correct option :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

5) Assertion (A) : In the process of dissolution of HCl in water, HCl act as acid and H2O act as base.
Reason (R) : When HCl is dissolved in water, it donates a proton to water.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Statement-I : pH of a 1.0 × 10–8 M solution of HCl is 8 at 25°C.

Statement-II : HCl is a strong acid and negative log of H+ concentration is called pH.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

7) The pH of a solution increased from 3 to 6. Its [H⊕] will be :-

(1) Reduced by 1000 times

(2) Increased by 1000 times
(3) Doubled
(4) Reduced to half

8) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column I Column II

(A) Fe(OH)3 (i) Ksp = s2

(B) Ag2CrO4 (ii) Ksp = 27s4

(C) CH3COOAg
5
(iii) Ksp = 108s

(D) Ca3(PO4)2
3
(iv) Ksp = 4s
(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
(4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)

9) Ka for HCN is 5 × 10–10. For maintaining a constant pH of 9, the volume of 5M KCN solution
required to be added to 10 ml of 2M HCN solution is :-

(1) 4 ml
(2) 8 ml
(3) 2 ml
(4) 10 ml

10) The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in order :-

(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl
(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
(4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN

11) 10–6 M HCl is diluted 100 times. Its pH is :-

(1) 6.0
(2) 8.0
(3) 6.95
(4) 9.5

12) What is the pH of a 0.5 M aqueous NaCN solution? (pKb of CN– is 4.70)

(1) 7
(2) 11.5
(3) 4.7
(4) 9.3

13) A monobasic weak acid (Ka = 10–5) reacts with strong base. Then find equilibrium constant of the
reaction.

(1) 10–10
(2) 109
(3) 1010
(4) 10–9

14) What will be the pH and α (degree of hydrolysis) respectively for the salt BA of 0.1 M
concentration? (Given: Ka for HA = 10–6 and Kb for BOH = 10–6)

(1) 5, 1%
(2) 7, 10%
(3) 9, 0.01%
(4) 7, 0.01%

15) The aqueous solution of AlCl3 is acidic due to:-

(1) cation hydrolysis

(2) anion hydrolysis
(3) hydrolysis of both the ions
(4) dissociation

16) Consider the 0.1 M aqueous solutions of :-

(a) NaOH (b) NH4OH (c) NaCl (d) NH4Cl
Increasing order of pH would be
(1) d, c, a, b
(2) d, c, b, a
(3) c, d, a, b
(4) c, d, b, a

17) pH of solution of 0.02 M NaCN will be [Ka = 6 × 10–10] :-

(1) 8.76
(2) 3.40
(3) 10.76
(4) 7

18) The pH of a saturated solution of M(OH)3 [Ksp = 2.7 × 10–11] has been measured. Its pH would be
:-

(1) 11.48
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 3 – log 3

19) At 90°C if [H+] > 10–7 M then possible nature of the solution will be :-

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) All of them

20) Which of the following behaves as both Lewis & bronsted base ?

(1) BF3
(2) Cl–
(3) CO
(4) None

21) Solubility Product of a salt having formula MX2 in water is 4 × 10–12 . Concentration of M2+ in
their solution is -

(1) 4 × 10–8 M
(2) 1 × 10–4 M
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 M
(4) 2 × 10–6 M

22) The value of pH of solution is

(1) 2.7
(2) 1.7
(3) 12.3
(4) 11.3

23) On addition of NaOH to CH3COOH solution, 60% of the acid is neutralised. If pKa of CH3COOH is
4.7 then the pH of the resulting solution is :-

(1) More than 4.7 but less than 5.0

(2) Less than 4.7 but more than 4.0
(3) More than 5.0
(4) Remains unchanged

24) In the following reaction

HC2O4– + PO43– ⇄ HPO42 – + C2O42– . Which are the two Bronsted bases –

– 3–
(1) HC2O4 & PO4
2– 2–
(2) HPO4 & C2O4
– 2–
(3) HC2O4 & HPO4
3– 2–
(4) PO4 & C2O4

25) The values of Ksp for CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10–31, 10–42 and 10–54 respectively. The correct order
of their solubility in water is –

(1) Ag2S > HgS > CuS

(2) HgS > CuS > Ag2S
(3) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(4) Ag2S > CuS > HgS

26) 1M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is :-

(1) not a buffer solution and with pH < 7

(2) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(3) a buffer solution with pH < 7
(4) a buffer solution with pH > 7

27) Solubility of AgI in 0.05 M BaI2 solution is 1 × 10–15 M.The solubility of AgI in water is

(1) 10–8 M
(2) 5 × 10–8 M
(3) 25 × 10–7
(4) 10–7 M

28) What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M ammonium formate ?

Given : pKa = 3.8 and pKb = 4.8

(1) 7.5
(2) 3.4
(3) 6.5
(4) 10.2

29) For two weak acis A and B, the ratio of their percent ionization is 4 : 9. The ratio of their Ka
would be :

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 16 : 81
(4) 3 : 2

30) Which of the following pair constitutes buffer -

(1) HNO2 and NaNO2

(2) NaOH and NaCl
(3) HNO3 and NH4NO3
(4) HCl and KCl

31) Match the column :

Column I : Salt solution
Column II : Nature of solution

Column-I Column-II

(a) NaCl (P) acidic

(b) FeCl3 (q) basic

(c) KCN (r) Neutral

(d) NH4Cl
(1) a→P, b→q, c→r, d→q
(2) a→r, b→q, c→r, d→q
(3) a→r, b→p, c→q, d→p
(4) a→r, b→q, c→p, d→p

32) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : For HCN; pKa of HCN + pKb of CN– = 14 at 25°C.
Statement-II : A strong acid will have a weak conjugate base.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
33) Statement-I :- The concentration of H+ has been found out experimentally as 1.0 × 10–7 M at
298 K in pure water.
Statement-II :- The value of Kw is temperature dependent.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

34) Statement-I :- Upon changing the concentration of H+ in a solution at a given temperature will
change the value of Kw.
Statement-II :- Kw = [H+] [OH–].

(1) Both the statement are true.

(2) Both the statement are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

35) 10 mL of a solution having pH = 4 is added with 990 mL of 0.1 M NaCl solution. pH of resulting
solution is nearly.

(1) 4
(2) 5.5
(3) 6
(4) 6.5

36) The pH of resulting solution obtained by mixing equal volume of 0.2 M HCl and 0.1 M H2SO4 will
be

(1) 0.7
(2) 1.2
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.5

37) Precipitation occurs only if I.P. (ionic product)

(1) Equal Ksp

(2) Exceeds Ksp
(3) Less than Ksp
(4) Is very small

38) Calculate pH of following solutions :

(1) 10–2 N H2SO4 (2) 10–2 M Ba(OH)2

(1) 1.7, 12.3

(2) 2, 12
(3) 1.7, 12
(4) 2, 12.3

39) Which of the following is correct about indicators ?

(1) Acidic indicator releases H+ ions.

(2) Basic indicator releases OH– ions.
(3) Indicators are either weak organic acid or base.
(4) All of these

40) pH of a mixture containing 0.10M NaX and 0.20M HX with pKb (X–) = 10 is-

(1) 4 – log2
(2) 10 – log2
(3) 4 + log2
(4) 10 + log2

41) Which of the following is correct ?

(1) On addition of common ion in saturated solution of a salt its Ksp increases.
(2) The conjugate base of a strong acid is also strong.
(3) On addition of common ion in saturated solution of a salt its solubility increases.
(4) None of these

42) The salt which will have the highest pH in aqueous solution is

(1) NaCl
(2) Na2SO4
(3) NH4Cl
(4) CH3COONa

43)

Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis?

(1) CuSO4
(2) NH4Cl
(3) AlCl3
(4) K2CO3.

44)

How many moles of HCOONa must be added to 1 L of 0.1 M HCOOH to prepare a buffer solution
with pH of 3.4 ?
[Given : Ka(HCOOH) = 2 × 10–4]
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

45) A 0.1 M solution of which salt will have a pH less than 7?

(1) NaCl
(2) NH4Br
(3) KF
(4) NaO2CCH3

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion : The number of mitochondria per cell depends on physiological activity of cell.
Reason : Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

2) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement.
(i) Mitochondria are typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
(ii) The inner compartment of the mitochondria is called stroma and of chloroplast is called matrix
(iii) 'S (Svedberg's unit)' directly measures the size & density of particles.
(iv) Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophylls
(v) Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than prokaryotic ribosome

(1) (ii), (iii) and (v)

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) Only (i)
(4) (i) and (iii)

3) Choose the correct statement about cilia and flagella :-

(1) They are hair-like outgrowths of the cell wall

(2) Eukaryotic flagella are not structurally different from prokaryotic flagella
(3) They orginate from centriole like basal bodies
(4) (1) and (3) are correct

4) Which of the following are present in chromatin ?

(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Histone proteins
(D) Non-histone proteins

(1) A and C only

(2) A,B and C only
(3) A,C and D only
(4) A,B,C and D only

5) Recognise the figure and find out the correct statement(s).

(1) Given figure shows a chromosome with two centromere on surface of it

(2) Given figure shows a chromosome with two kinetochores on surface of it
(3) Given figure shows a chromosome with two chromatids attached at primary constriction
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Statement-I :- The interphase nucleus has highly extended and condensed nucleoprotein fibres
called chromatin.
Statement-II :- During cell division, cells show structured chromosomes in place of the chromatin.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

7) In stem, the metaxylem lies toward ............ and protoxylem lies toward the ............ respectively.

(1) Below, above

(2) Centre, periphery
(3) Periphery, centre
(4) Pith, pericycle

8) Following vascular bundles are found in :-

(1) Monocot root & dicot root respectively
(2) Monocot leaf & dicot leaf respectively
(3) Monocot stem & dicot stem respectively
(4) Dicot stem & monocot stem respectively

9) Find out the correct sequence of labelling :-

A B C
Subsidiary Epidermal
(1) Guard cells
cells cells
Subsidiary Epidermal
(2) Guard cells
cells cells
Epidermal Subsidiary
(3) Guard cells
cells cells
Subsidiary Epidermal
(4) Guard cells
cells cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Choose the correct statement from the following :

(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the
same radii.
(b) Epidermal cell are parenchymatous with large amount of cytoplasm lining the cell wall.
(c) Inner side of epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer.
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem.
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (d) and (e) only

11) Which statement is incorrect about the guard cells ?

(1) They are modified cells of ground tissue

(2) They are chlorophyllous
(3) Their outer wall is thin ( towards stomatal pore) and inner wall is highly thickened.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
I. Ground tissue system comprises stomata, trichomes and hairs.
II. All tissue endodermis, pericycle, vascular bundles and pith constitute the stele
III. When bulliform cells are turgid they make leaves curl outward to minimise water loss

(1) I,II & III correct

(2) II & III correct
(3) Only III correct
(4) All are incorrect

13) Statement-I : The parenchymatous cells which lie between xylem and phloem in roots is called
conjuctive tissue.
Statement-II : Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth place
in cell of innermost layer of cortex.

(1) Statements I & II both are correct

(2) Statements I & II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct
(4) Only statement-II is correct

14) Which one is false about monocot stem?

(I) Vascular bundles are scattered, conjoint, close, surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
and with water cavity
(II) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(III) Peripheral vascular bundles are smaller than centrally placed ones
(IV) Ground tissue is differentiated into cortex, pericycle, pith, etc
(V) large parenchymatous ground tissue

(1) I, III, V
(2) III, IV
(3) IV only
(4) V only

15) Statement-I :- In grasses, certain abaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves
into large empty, coloured cells.
Statement-II :- In leave, the ground tissue consists of thick-walled chloroplast containing cell and is
called mesophyll

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

16) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) In a isobilateral leaf, mesophyll is not differentiated in palisade and spongy tissue
In dicotyledonous stem endodermis is also referred to as starch sheath because cells of
(2)
endodermis are rich in starch grains.
(3) In dicot leaf spongy parenchyma extends to upper epidermis
(4) In dicot leaf adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cell

17) Assertion : The vascular bundles in dicot leaves are variable in size.
Reason : Veins are almost different in thickness in parallel venation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.

18) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the option with incorrect match ?

(1) A = Secondary root

(2) B = Responsible for branch formation
(3) C = Involved in photosynthesis
(4) A = Originated from radicle

19) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Root cap is thimble like structure present at base of root.

(2) Cells of meristematic zone are thin walled and with dense cytoplasm.
(3) Some of epidermal cell of elongation zone form very fine & delicate structure called Root Hair
(4) Both (1) and (3)

20) Given below are two Statements.

Statements-I : The shape, margin, Apex, surface and extent of incision of lamina same in different
leaves.
Statements-II : veins provide rigidity to the leaf petiole and act as channels of transport for water,
minerals and food materials.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct
21) Read the following four statements and select correct statements :-
(a) Axillary bud is present in the axil of simple leaf and axil of leaflet of compound leaf
(b) Alstonia is example of whorled phyllotaxy
(c) Mustard is an example of opposite phyllotaxy
(d) Calotropis is example of alternate phyllotaxy

(1) Statement a, b & d

(2) Statement a & b
(3) Statement a, c & d
(4) Only b

22) Given following figure does not represents -

(1) Arrangement of flowers - Basipetal

(2) Position of flower - Lateral
(3) Growth of floral axis - Limited
(4) Position of flower - Terminal

23) Study the sentences carefully and give the answer.

(A) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves through any plane, it is actinomorphic.
(B) Shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem, internode elongate and axis get condensed
(C) Zygomorphic flowers are found in fabaceae family.
(D) Asymmetrical flowers are present in Bean.

(1) A,B and C are correct

(2) Both A and C are correct
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Both B and D correct

24) Select the incorrect statement-

(1) Paplionaeceous corolla are found in Pea and Trifolium.

(2) In vexillary aestivation, the posterior largest petal overlaps the two smallest anterior petals.
(3) Valvate aestivation is found in Calotropis.
(4) Lady's finger and cotton flowers exhibit twisted aestivation.

25) Identify the position of gynoecium in the given diagram A to C and select the flower in which

they are found :-

(1) A - Epigynous, Mustard ; B - Perigynous, Plum; C - Hypogynous, Guava
(2) A - Hypogynous, Cucumber; B-Perigynous, Rose ; C - Epigynous, Apple
(3) A - Hypogynous, Chinarose ; B-Perigynous, Peach ; C - Epigynous - Cucumber
(4) A - Epigynous, Guava ; B - Hypogynous, Brinjal; C - Perigynous - Rose

26) Answer the following questions (A and B) by using the given diagram :- (A) Type
of placentation?
(B) Example of this placentation

(1) A-Marginal, B = Pea

(2) A = Parietal, B = Argemone
(3) A = Axile, B = Lemon
(4) A = Axile, B = Primrose

27) Variation in the length of filament within a flower occur in

(1) Salvia and Tomato

(2) Mustard and Potato
(3) Salvia and Mustard
(4) Mustard and Tomato

28) In lotus
(a) Gynoecium has single carpel
(b) Gynoecium is apocarpus
(c) Carpels are numerous & united.

(1) Only a is true

(2) Both b and C are true
(3) Only b is true
(4) Both a and c are true

29) Statement-I : Below the hilum is a small pore called micropyle.

Statement-II : In monocot seed the embryo is small and situated in a groove at both end of the
endosperm

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

30)

Find the correct statements :-

(a) The adhesion is Indicated by a line drawn below the symbols of the floral parts.
(b) The bracket represents the "cohesion" in floral formula

(c) Floral formula can show both cohesion and adhesion of stamens
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c only
(3) b, c only
(4) a, b only

31) Read the following statements carefully.

A-Syngenesious stamens
B-Persistant calyx - Pappus
C-Synandrous stamens
D-Inferior ovary & basal placentation.
E-Capsella-Fruit.
Which of the above statements are correct with respect to Asteraceae family.

(1) C and D statements.

(2) A, B and D statements.
(3) A, B and E statements.
(4) A, B, C, D and E statements.

32) Read the following statements and choose the incorrect statement about leaves of fabaceae
family.
(A) Leaves are pinnately compound or simple
(B) Opposite type phyllotaxy is present
(C) Stipules are present
(D) Reticulate venation is present in leaves

(1) C
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A

33) Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination form the options given:

Column-I Column-II Column-III

a. 1. Mesophyll cell K. Elongated

 b. 2. Tracheid L. Round and biconcave

c. 3. Red blood cells M. Amoeboid

d. 4. White blood cells N. Round and oval

(1) a-3-M; b-4-L; c-1-K; d-2-N

(2) a-4-M; b-3-L; c-2-K; d-1-N
(3) a-3-L; b-4-M; c-1-N; d-2-K
(4) a-4-L; b-3-M; c-2-N; d-2-K

34) Starting from the outside of a cell and moving towards the inside of a cell, which of the following
components of a 'typical plant cell' are organised correctly ?

(1) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → Middle lamella → cytoplasm
(2) Cytoplasm → plasma membrane → Middle lamella → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall → middle lamella
(4) Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

35) Read the following statement carefully and identify the correct statements :-
(A) Nuclear pore faciliates movement of protein and RNA between nucleus and cytoplasm
(B) Sieve tube elements do not posses nucleus so they are dead
(C) Outer and inner nuclear membrane is fused at nuclear pore
(D) Nuclear membrane is a continous barrier in between nucleoplasm and cytoplasm

(1) All four

(2) A, C & D
(3) A & C
(4) Only A

36) Read the following four statement (a-d)

(a) The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of protein with in the overall bilayer.
(b) Membrane of R.B.C. has approximately 52% protein and 40% lipid
(c) Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by the process of simple diffusion.
(d) Ratio of protein and lipid varies considerably in similar type of cell.
How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

37) Given below are two statements

Statements-I : In active transport, molecules are transported through the membrane against their
concentration gradient.
Statements-II : Active transport is an energy independent process.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

38) Assertion : One of the most important functions of the plasma membrane is the transport of the
molecules across it.
Reason : Plasma membrane is selectively permeable to some molecules present on either side of it.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39)

Substances that have a ___A___, find it difficult to pass through the membrane; their movement is to
be ___B___.

A B

(1) Hydrophilic moiety Uphill

(2) Hydrophilic moiety Facilitated

(3) Hydrophobic moiety Facilitated

(4) Hydrophobic moiety Downhill

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Cell wall forms an outer covering of fungi and plant cells. Cell wall :-
(i) gives shape to the cell
(ii) helps in cell to cell interaction
(iii) protects the cell from mechanical damage
(iv) provide barrier to undesirable micromolecules
Choose the correct options from the following:-

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

41)

Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

A B C D
Nuclear
(1) Nucleolus Nucleoplasm Nuclear pore
membrane
Nuclear
(2) Nucleoplasm Nucleolus Nuclear pore
membrane
(3) Nuclear pore Nucleoplasm Nucleolus Nuclear membran
Nuclear
(4) Nucleolus Nucleoplasm Nuclear pore
membrane

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Which of the following is correct for middle Lamella of plant cell ?

(1) Middle Lamella and cell membrane may be traversed by plasmodesmata

(2) It mostly consist of Ca-Pectate
(3) It holds different neighbouring animal cells together
(4) All of the above

43) Assertion : ER divides the intercellular space into two distinct compartments i.e., luminal
(inside ER) and extra-luminal (cytoplasm) compartments.
Reason : ER is a network or reticulum of tiny tubular unit membranous structures scattered in the
cytoplasm.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is false and Reason is true

44) Select the wrong match w.r.t. golgi complex :-

(1) cis face - Receives proteins for modification from RER.

(2) convex face - Towards the cell membrane.
(3) convex face - Towards the nucleus
(4) Maturing face - Towards the cell membrane

45) A. These are concentrically arranged near the nucleus.

B. They have distinct faces, but remains interconnected.
C. Size ranges 0.5 µm to 1 µm diameter.
The above features (A-C) are attributed to which of the given components in the cell?

(1) Luminal compartment of Endoplasmic Reticulum

(2) Cisternae of Endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Cisternae of Golgi apparatus
(4) Cristae of mitochondria

46) Read the following four statement (A-D):-

(A) In relax stage thin filament and thick filament both remain overlapped except the center part of
thick filament
(B) The central part of A band remains un-overlapped by thin filament called H-zone
(C) During contraction troponin unmask the active site of actin by the formation of bond with Ca+2
ions.
(D) Globular head of Actin is a active ATPase enzyme which has site for ATP binding and binding site
of myosin. How many sentences are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

47)

Which one of the following statements are incorrect about human skeleton :-
(A) Glenoid Cavity is a depression in which Head of Femur is located
(B) Occipital and parietal bones of the skull are articulated by fibrous joint
(C) The joint between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is Hinge joint
(D) Gout is inflammation of joints, due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) A, C
(4) C, D

48) Which of following statement is incorrect about given below diagram ?

(1) According the diagram maximally relaxation occur

(2) H-zone disappear clearly
(3) Distance between two successive Z-lines will be short
(4) Thin filament slides over the thick filament

49) Which of following joint play a significant role in locomotion ?

(1) Synovial joint

(2) Sutures
(3) Fibrous joint
(4) Cartilaginous joint

50) Fill in the blanks :-

a. The light band contains actin and is called ...1... band.
b. The thick filaments in the ...2... band are held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous
membrane called ...3... line.
c. In the centre of each 'I' band is an elastic fibre called ...4... line which bisects it.
d. The central portion of the thick filament which is not overlapped by thin filaments is called the
...'5'...

(1) 1–Isotropic, 2–'M', 3–'Z', 4–'A', 5–H zone

(2) 1–Isotropic, 2–'I', 3–'M', 4–'Z', 5–sarcomere
(3) 1–'I', 2–'A', 3–'M', 4–'Z', 5–H zone
(4) 1–'I', 2–'A', 3–'M', 4–'Z', 5–sarcomere

51) Select the correct option .

(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.
(2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and
(3)
ventrally to the sternum.
There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of
(4)
vertebral ribs.
52) Put the following statement in proper order to describe muscle contraction.
(1) Signal sent by CNS via motor neuron.
(2) Generation of action potential in the sarcolemma.
(3) Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(4) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine released at motor endplate.
(5) Sarcomere shorterns.

(1) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5
(2) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 5
(3) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 → 5
(4) 5 → 4 → 3 → 2 → 1

53) "Locomotory structure need not be different from those affecting other type of movements".
Which of the following statement explain given sentance.

(1) We use limbs for change in body posture and locomotion as well
(2) In paramoecium cilia help in movement of food through cytopharynx & in locomotion as well
(3) Hydra can use tantacles for capturing its prey and also use for locomotion
(4) All of the above

54) Assertion : White fibres are also called aerobic muscles.

Reason : They contain plenty of mitochondria and utilise oxygen for ATP production.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

55) Monomeric units of myosin are called as

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Meromyosin
(4) Cross arm

56) Assertion A: Smooth muscles are involved in locomotion and voluntary movements.
Reason R: Smooth muscles are found in the walls of hollow visceral organs and are not under
voluntary control.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

57) Choose the incorrect pair of disorders related to muscle and skeleton.
(1) Myasthenia gravis → Auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction
(2) Muscular dystrophy → Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(3) Arthritis → Age related disorder
(4) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid

58) Statement-I : Cardiac muscles cells contract as a unit.

Statement-II : Cell junctions or intercalated discs fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle
cells and make them stick together.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

59) Muscles with characteristic striations & involuntary are

(1) muscles in the wall of alimentary canal

(2) muscles of the heart
(3) muscles assisting locomotion
(4) muscles of the eyelids

60) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer
Statement-A : All voluntary muscles are striated but all striated muscles are not voluntary.
Statement-B : All smooth muscles are involuntary but all involuntary muscles are not smooth.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is incorrect.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect.

61) Muscles of ciliary body and iris develops from

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Embryonic mesoderm
(3) Mesenchyme
(4) Ectoderm

62) Which of the following pair is incorrect ?

(a) Oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions during child birth
(b) ACTH - stimulates release of adrenaline from adrenal medulla
(c) Insulin - Stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
(d) Thyroxine - Support the process of RBC formation

(1) c and d
(2) b and c
(3) c only
(4) b, c and d

63) Which of the statement is correct regarding endocrine gland :- (A) Ductless glands whose
secretions pour directly into blood
(B) Have ducts which straightaway pour secretions into target organs
(C) Have Duct glands whose secretions pour indirectly into blood

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) Only C
(4) Only A

64) Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones. Select the option that correctly fill
the blanks A, B and C ?

Gland Secretion Effect on body

Maintain
A Oestrogen secondary sexual
character

α-cells of islets Raises blood

B
of langerhans sugar level

Oversecretion
Anterior pituitory C
leads to gigantism

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin

Growth
(2) Ovary Glucagon
hormone

(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin

(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Which pair of hormones have antagonistic effects ?

(1) Vasopressin-somatostatin
(2) Estrogen – Progesterone
(3) Thyrocalcitonin – Parathyroid hormone
(4) Epinephrine – Nor epinephrine
66) In the below given diagram name the part shown by "a" :-

(1) Hypothalamic neurons

(2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Portal circulation
(4) Hypothalamus

67) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) Cortisol is also involved in maintaining the cardio-vascular system as well as the kidney functions
(B) Glucorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis and inhibit cellular uptake and
utilisation of amino acids.
(C) Corticoids, which regulate the balance of water and electrolytes in our body are called
mineralocorticoids.
(D) Catecholamines also stimulate the breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased
concentration of glucose in blood.
How many of the above statements are true :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

68)

With increasing age the changes of fractures are increased in females because:

(1) Of decreased secretion of oxytocin

(2) Of decreased secretion of estrogen
(3) Of increased secretion of estrogen
(4) Of increased secretion of oxytocin

69) Which of the following functions are regulated by melatonin/pineal gland:-

(a) Defense capability (b) Pigmentation
(c) Menstrual cycle (d) Metabolism
(e) Diurnal (24-hour) rhythm
(f) Body temperature (g) Sleep-wake cycle

(1) a, d, c, f and g
(2) b, c, d, e, f and g
(3) a, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f and g

70) Following is a diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Which of the following statement does not support the hormone action
depicted.

(1) It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with membrane bound receptors.
(2) It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with intracellular receptors in nucleus.
The hormone regulates chormosome function by the interaction of hormone receptor complex
(3)
with genome.
(4) This hormone does not generate a second messenger

71) Assertion : Diabetic patient are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
Reason : Insulin plays major role in regulation of glucose homeostatis.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

72) Assertion: Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response.
Reason: Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) Statement-I : Four parathyroid glands are present on the back side of the thyroid gland.
Statement-II : PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

74) A neural signal reaching neuromuscular junction releases a neurotransmitter namely :-

(1) Dopamine
(2) Acetylcholine
(3) GABA
(4) Glycine

75) Read the following statement :

(A) Glucagon is secreted by β-cell
(B) Atrial wall of heart produce eythropoietin
(C) GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility
(D) CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder
Choose the correct option :

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) B and D

76)

In human body creatinine is produced by :-

(1) Break down product of creatine phosphate in muscle

(2) By product of uric acid in kidney
(3) By product of urea in kidney
(4) By the product of ammonia in liver

77) Read the following statements

(A) Nervous system provides an organised network of point to point connection
(B) The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormone
(C) The neural organisation is very complex in lower invertebrates as compared to that in
vertebrates
(D) Neuron can detect and receive stimuli but can't transmit.
How many of above statements are false

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

78)
Identify the structure out of A, B, C and D which possess synaptic vesicles containing chemicals
called neurotransmitters.

(1) Both C and D

(2) Only C
(3) Only D
(4) Only A

79) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-

A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80)

Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is :

(1) ACTH
(2) LH
(3) ICSH
(4) Prolactin

81) Read the following statements (A–D) :

(A) In the resting phase of nerve leakage ion channel are closed and potential is found 70mv at
inside
(B) During depolarisation opening of Na+ VGC takes place
(C) Na+ increases more in ECF in depolarisation which cause generation of action potential
(D) The time taken for restoration of resting membrane potential is called refractory period
How many of above statements are incorrect ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
82) Statement A :- The myelinated nerve fibres of CNS are enveloped with Schwann cells.
Statement B :- The gaps between two adjacent nerve cells are called nodes of Ranvier.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Statement A is incorrect
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

83) Select the option with the incorrect matching of the following structures with their location and
functions in our body.

Structure Location Function

Major co-ordinating centre for

(1) Thalamus Fore brain
sensory and motor signaling

Base of Regulate body temperature,

(2) Hypothalamus
diencephalon urge for eating and drinking

Analysis of sound impulses

(3) Auditory cortex Cerebellum
and recognition of sound

Corpora Between
Receivers and integrate visual,
(4) quadrigemina hypothalamus
tactile and auditory inputs
(mid brain) and pons
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Identify the correct match from column I, II & III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Sexual Behaviour
(1) Pons (a) Cerebral cortex (i)
& emotions

Below mid brain and

Association upper Memory &
(2) (b) (ii)
area side of medulla communication
oblongata

Cerebral hemisphere
and
Limbic Pneumotaxic
(3) (c) deep structure like (iii)
system center
Amygdala
and Hippocampus
(1) 1-b-ii, 2-a-i, 3-c-iii
(2) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii
(3) 1-c-iii, 2-b-ii, 3-a-i
(4) 1-b-iii, 2-a-ii, 3-c-i
85) Find out the incorrect match?
A. CNS - made up of white matter and grey matter.
B. Axon - Afferent type
C. Bipolar neuron - found in hydra
D. Resting stage - K+ ions efflux are responsible.

(1) A, B, D only
(2) A, D only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) C, D only

86)

Which one of the following statements are correct ?

(i) Impulse transmission through electrical synapse is slow than a chemical synapse.
(ii) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is commonly found in autonomous and somatic neural systems.
(iii) Visceral nervous system is not the part of CNS.

(iv) Neural organisation is very simple in human beings.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (i) and (iii) are correct
(4) (ii) and (iii) are correct

87) How many of the below given functions are not related to medulla oblongata?
Cardiacegulation, Hunger, Thirst, Human behaviour, Hearing, Speech, Memory, Intelligence,
Respiration, Rage, Gastric secretion.

(1) 9
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 8

88) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :

a-axon, b-synaptic cleft, c-pre synaptic membrane, d-synaptic vesicle, e-receptor, f-post synaptic
(1)
membrane
a-axon terminal, b-synaptic vesicles, c-pre synaptic membrane, d-synaptic cleft, e-post synaptic
(2)
membrane, f-neurotransmitters
 a-synaptic vesicles, b-axon terminal, c-post synaptic membrane, d-neurotransmitter, e-pre
(3)
synaptic membrane, f-receptor
a-axon terminal, b-synaptic vesicles, c-pre synaptic membrane, d-synaptic cleft, e-post synaptic
(4)
membrane, f-receptors

89) Along with the hypothalamus, limbic system is involved is

a. Motivation
b. Expression of emotional reaction (Excitement, pleasure, rage and fear)
c. Sexual behaviour
d. Cardiovascular reflexes

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d

90) In the given diagram which stage of conduction of nerve impulse through nerve fibre is observed

? Extracellular fluid

(1) Polarization
(2) Repolarization
(3) Depolarization
(4) Resting potential
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 2 1 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 2 2 4 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 4 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 3 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 2 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Solution:

2) Question explain
A body starts from rest with a time-dependent angular acceleration. We need to find the
angular velocity as a function of time using integration.
Concept based
Angular acceleration is the time derivative of angular velocity. So, integrating angular
acceleration with respect to time gives angular velocity.
Formula used

w(t) =
where ω is angular velocity and α is angular acceleration.
Calculation
Given: α(t) = 4t3 – 3t2 + 2t

Initial condition: at t = 0, ω = 0
0=0–0+ 0+C⇒C=0
Final answer:
ω(t) = t4 – t3 + t2

3)

Point of zero gravitational force b/w m & 4m

(from M)
Applying energy conservation for m -
4)

Power, P=τ×ω

so, = 2 N-m

5) If mass 'm' and radius 'r',

then, for ring ⇒

Here m = ρℓ, ℓ = 2πr

6)

Question Asking About:

To find moment of inertia of plate of mass M length breadth b about an axis through of mass
and perpendicular to its plane.

Key Concept:
Moment of inertia of a lamina.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

one rod (mass m; length ) ⇒

Now n such rods, make a plate ⇒

Now form perpendicular axis theorem

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

7)

8)
9) M = Mass of the square plate before cutting the holes

Mass of one hole,

∴ Moment of inertia of the remaining portion,
I = Isquare –4Ihole

10)

11)

Now

12) a = gsinθ for both

13) Total KE of sphere

Which is utilised in compression in the spring.

So

14) By conservation of angular momentum

Itωi = (It + Ib)ωf ⇒ ωf =

loss in kinetic energy

=
=

15)
Angular impluse (J) = IΔω

ω=

16)
Angluar momentum conservation about contact point A
muR = (IA)ω

IA = +m =

ω= =

17) τ = I α
τA = τB
IA αA = IB αB
IA < IB
αA > αB
ωA > ωB

18)

Explain:
A particle of mass 'm' is moving along a straight line parallel to the x-axis with constant
velocity 'V'. find the angular momentum of the particle about the origin in vector form.

Concept:
Angular momentum is the cross product of the position vector and the linear momentum
vector.

Formula:
Angular Momentum (L):
Linear Momentum (p): p = mv (where m is mass and v is velocity)
Calculation:
Angular Momentum (L) =
L = rp sin θ = r mv sin θ = mv ( r sin θ ) = mvr⟂ = mvb
L = mvb

Hence, option (2) is correct.

19) mgh = mv2 + Iω2

mgh = mv2 + ×

v=

20)

T1 + T2 = Mg
Taking torque about A

&

21) Initial velocity of each point on the rod is zero so angular velocity of rod is zero.
Torque about O
τ=Iα

20g (0.8) =

⇒ 20g (0.8) =

⇒ = a = angular acceleration ⇒α=

22)

τ=
=

23)
24)
Force acts on origin
so is position vector of origin wrt (1,–1).
Therefore, = ,

25)

F'

26)

Question Explanation:
To wire potential & gravitotional field at the centre of spherical shell.

Concept:
This question is based on Gravitional potential and gravitotional field.

Solution:
For spherical shell.

IC = O

Correct Option: 2

27)

∵g= = 2%
increases by 2%

28) ∵ g' = g – ω2Rcos2θ

due to rotation of earth about it's own axis the value of acceleration due to gravity decreases
at all the places on surface of earth except poles.

29) Question Explanation:

We need to find the ratio of acceleration due to gravity on two planets, given the ratio of their
radii and densities.
 Concept:

This question involves the formula for acceleration due to gravity , where G is the
gravitational constant, M is the mass, and is the radius of the
planet.
Formula Used:

A.

B. The mass M can be related to the density ρ and volume V, with M

Calculation:
Let the radius of the two planets be r1 and r2, and their densities be ρ1 and ρ2·
Given:

For gravity on each planet

The mass and

Now substitute M1 and M2 into the equation for gravity.

Now, taking the ratio of the accelerations:

Substitute the given ratios:

So, the ratio of the accelerations due to gravity on the two planets is 2 : 1.

30)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which graph correctly represents the
gravitational potential as a function of the distance from the center of a hollow spherical shell.
Essentially, it wants to identify how the gravitational potential changes inside and outside the
hollow sphere.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is the gravitational potential due to a spherical
shell or hollow sphere. According to the shell theorem, the gravitational field inside a hollow
spherical shell is zero, which means the gravitational potential inside is constant. Outside the
shell, the potential behaves like that of a point mass located at the center, decreasing as 1/r
with distance.

Relevant Formulas: For a hollow sphere of mass M and radius R: - Outside the shell (r> R):
 - Inside the shell (r where: - is the gravitational constant - is the mass of the
sphere - is the distance from the center

Tips and Tricks: Remember the shell theorem's key consequences for inside and outside the
sphere. Potential is continuous across the boundary at radius R and matches in value.

Common Mistakes: One common mistake is assuming the gravitational potential inside the
hollow sphere changes with r, when in fact it remains constant. Another is confusing
gravitational field (which is zero inside) with gravitational potential.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Graphs that show the potential varying inside the shell
(r

31)

32) ⇒ ⇒

33) If same mass m placed at corners of a pentagon than net force on body of mass 'm' placed
at centre is zero

now one mass is replaced by m0 then net force

Fnet =

Fnet =

34)
35) = 5i + 10j (N/Kg)

= = 0.4(5i + 10j) = (2i + 4j)N

displacement = = (3i + 4j)m
Work done by gravitational force
= 6 + 16 = 22 Joule
Thus work done by external force
= –22 Joule

36)

37)

L = Constant
r2 < r1
v2 > v1
K 2 > K1

38)

For the satellite, the gravitation force provides the necessary centriptetal force, i.e.,

and

39)

⇒v=

40) Use T α R3/2.

41) V = V1 + V2

=
 =

42)

ΔG.P.E. =

43)

=1.67 × 10–9 N

44) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

45) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

CHEMISTRY

46) EXPLANATION: The order of the solubility of silver chloride (AgCl) in three different
aqueous solutions is to be found.

Concept :
Common Ion Effect: The solubility of a salt decreases in the presence of a common ion (an ion
that is also present in the salt).
"The higher the concentration of the common ion, the lower the solubility will be."
CALCULATION :
Solution (A) 0.1 M NaCl :
NaCl dissociates completely into Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions.
The Cl⁻ ion is common to AgCl.
Concentration of Cl⁻ ion is 0.1 M.
Solution (B) 0.1 N CaCl₂:
CaCl₂ dissociates completely into Ca²⁺ and 2 Cl⁻ ions.
The Cl⁻ ion is common to AgCl.
Concentration of Cl⁻ ion is 0.1 M
Solution (C) 0.2 M AgNO₃:
AgNO₃ dissociates completely into Ag⁺ and NO₃⁻ ions.
The Ag⁺ ion is common to AgCl.
Concentration of Ag⁺ ion is 0.2 M
Order of concentrations of common ions = A = B < C
The order of the solubility of silver chloride (AgCl) in three different aqueous solutions is A = B
>C
Final Answer = A = B > C
Correct option = 1

47)

0.005M KClO4 + 0.05M HClO4

48)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

49) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

50)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

51) Fact.

52)

Reduced by 1000 times

53)

(A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)

54)

2 ml

55)

NaCl SASB salt pH = 7

NH4Cl SAWB salt pH < 7
NaCN SBWA salt pH > 7
HCl SA pH <7
56)

= 10–8 + 10–7

57)

NaCN → WASB

pH =
pKa + pKb = pKw
pKa = 14 – 4.70
pKa = 9.30

58)

Ans. 1010

59)

7, 10%

60)

cation hydrolysis

61)

d, c, b, a

62)

10.76

63)

11.48

64)

All of them

65)
Ans. Cl–

66)

1 × 10–4 M

67)

Ans. 1.7

68)

More than 4.7 but less than 5.0

69)

PO43– & C2O42–

70)

Ag2S > CuS > HgS

71)

not a buffer solution and with pH < 7

72) (In BaI2) AgI (S)

KSP = [S] [S + 2C]
KSP = S2 + 2SC {S2 → negligible
KSP = 2SC
KSP = 2 × 10–15 × 0.05 = 10–16 M2
In pure water s = = 10–8 M

73)

Ans. 6.5

74)

ans. 16 : 81

75)
HNO2 and NaNO2

76)

Fact

77) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

NCERT (old) XIth part Heading 7.11.5

78) NCERT, Pg. # 193

79) Kw depends upon temperature only.

80)

Addition of NaCl do not effect pH.

81)

[H+] = 0.2 pH = 0.7

82)

for PPtn, IP > Ksp

83)

(i) 10–2 N H2SO4 = 10–2 M H+

pH = 2
(ii) 10 M Ba(OH)2 = 2 × 10–2 M [OH¯]
–2

pOH = 2 – log2
pH = 12.3

84)

Acidic indicator releases H+ ions.

Basic indicator releases OH– ions.
Indicators are either weak organic acid or base.

85)

4 – log2

86)
 None of these

87)

CH3COONa

88)

K2CO3.

89)

0.05

90) NH4Br is salt of WB and SA

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI Pg#97

92)

NCERT page no. 135

93) NCERT Pg. # 137

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139, Para-8.5.10

95) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139

96) Page # 138 / 139

97) NCERT Pg. # 92

98) NCERT Pg # 90, Fig.-6.5 & Pg. # 93

99) NCERT-XI # Chapter - 6 ; Page No. 89, Fig. 6.4

100) Solution:- Given question asked correct statements regarding vascular bundle
 Here - statements a, b, c, and d are correct but e is incorrect
⇒ Statements (e) concern with number of vascular bundle in monocot root. In monocot root
number of vascular bundle may be 7 - 12. but in given statements express less then 6 vascular
bundle in monocot root so this statements is wrong
So Correct answer will be option 2nd a, b, c, and d only,

101) NCERT Page No. # 89

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 71,72,73 (E), 70, 71, 72 (H)

103) NCERT, Pg. # 74

104) NCERT (XI) Pg # 93

105) Both statements I & II are correct.

between → In the middle of

within → Inside

106)

NCERT XI Pg. # 91,92,93

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93, 94

108) NCERT-XI, Page No. 66

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67

Root cap is thimble like structure root apex is covered by root cap.

110) NCERT Pg # 69

111) NCERT-XI # Chapter - 5 ; Page No. 71

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 72, Fig. 5.12

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

114) NCERT Pg # 64
115)

In given diagram
A-hypogynous flower e.g. china rose
B-Perigynous flowers e.g.peach.
C-epigynous flowers eg;cucumber

116) NCERT Pg. # 75

117) NCERT–XI Pg. # 75, Para-5.5.1.3

118) NCERT Pg. # 75

119) NCERT-XI Pg#77

120)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 67

121)

A, B and D statements.

122) NCERT Pg # 78

123) NCERT Pg # 127

124) NCERT XI, (Eng.), Page # 130

125) NCERT-XI, Page#138, 8.5.10

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

127) NCERT Pg. No. # 94

Key word – across → through, dependent – independent

128) NCERT Page No. 132

129) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 176

130) NCERT Pg. # 132

131) NCERT XI Pg. # 138

132) NCERT Page No. 132

133) NCERT Page No. # 133, 8.5, 3.1

134) NCERT Pg. # 133

Module Pg. # 145

135) NCERT Reference:

Biology-XI, Page No.133

136) Question Explanation :

The question is asking how many of the four statements about muscle contraction and
sarcomere structure are correct.

Concept :
This question is based on mechanism of contraction.

Solution :
(A) Correct – In relaxed state, thin and thick filaments overlap partially, but the center of the
sarcomere (H-zone) has only thick filaments.
(B) Correct – The H-zone is the central part of the A band where only thick filaments are
present, meaning no overlap with thin filaments.
(C) Correct – Troponin binds Ca2+, which causes a conformational change, shifting tropomyosin
to unmask the active sites on actin.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

137)

NEW NCERT XI, Miscellaneous

138)

NCERT - Pg. # 308

139)

Question explanation:
The question is asking which type of joint is most important for movement, specifically for
locomotion in the human body.
 Concept:
This question is based on joints.

Solution:
Synovial joints are freely movable joints found in limbs and play a key role in locomotion (e.g.,
knee, shoulder). Sutures and fibrous joints are immovable, while cartilaginous joints allow
limited movement.

Final answer: 1

140)

NCERT - Pg. # 223

141) Explanation:

A. Vertebrosternal ribs (True ribs): These seven pairs of ribs are directly connected to the
sternum by their costal cartilages.
B. Vertebrochondral ribs (False ribs): These three pairs of ribs (8th, 9th, and 10th) are
indirectly connected to the sternum. They are connected to the cartilage of the ribs above
them.
C. Vertebral ribs (Floating ribs): The last two pairs of ribs (11th and 12th) are not connected
to the sternum at all; they are free at their anterior ends.

Therefore, the correct statement is that there are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, three pairs of
vertebrochondral, and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

142)

NCERT Pg. # 308

143) NCERT Pg. # 217

144)

NCERT-XI, Page # 223

145) NCERT Page No. 220

146) The assertion is false because smooth muscles are not involved in locomotion and
voluntary movements; they are involved in involuntary actions such as the movement of food
through the digestive tract. The reason is true as smooth muscles are indeed found in the walls
of hollow visceral organs like the alimentary canal and are not under voluntary control.
Therefore, A is false but R is true.

147) NCERT Pg. # 227 (17.5)

148) Question Asking About:
Determine the correctness of two statement regarding the contraction and cellular
connections of cardiac muscle.

Solution :
Statement I : Cardiac muscles cells contract as a unit. This statement is correct. Cardiac
muscle cells are interconnected and function as a syncytium, allowing for coordinated
contraction of the heart.
Statement II : Cell junctions or intercalated discs fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac
muscle cells and make them stick together. This statement is also correct. Intercalated discs
are specialized junctions containing gap junctions and desmosomes, which facilitate electrical
and mechanical coupling between cardiac muscle cell.

Therefore, both statement are correct.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

150) NCERT Pg. No: 218, 219

151) Module - 5, Pg - 126

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 243

153)

NCERT XI Pg # 330

154) NCERT XI Pg.# 241,245,246

155) NCERT XIth Page no. # 331

156)

Explain Question : identify the part labelled "a" in diagram

Concept : This question is based on hypothalamus, pituitary gland.

Solution : "a"– portal circulatory system – from hypothalamus some hormones reach the
pituitary gland through a portal circulatory system and regulate the functions of the anterior
pituitary.

Final Answer : option (3)

157) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 335

158) NCERT XI, Pg.# 335

159)

Solution :
The pineal gland primarily secretes melatonin, which plays a significant role in regulating
various physiological functions.
Pigmentation (b): Melatonin can affect pigmentation, particularly in animals, by influencing
the production of melanin.
Menstrual cycle (c): Melatonin influences the menstrual cycle by affecting reproductive
hormones.
Metabolism (d): Melatonin is involved in the regulation of metabolism, though this effect is
secondary to its roles in circadian rhythms.
Diurnal (24-hour) rhythm (e): Melatonin is crucial for regulating the body's circadian
rhythms.
Body temperature (f): Melatonin can influence body temperature regulation as part of its
role in circadian rhythms.
Sleep-wake cycle (g): Melatonin directly regulates sleep-wake cycles by influencing sleep
patterns and promoting sleep onset.

Final Answer : option (4) a, b, c, d, e, f and g

160) Correct Answer

Option (1)
It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with membrane bound receptors.

→ Incorrect statement based on the diagram (hence, the correct answer).

→ Membrane-bound receptors are used by peptide hormones, not lipid-soluble ones. So this
does not support the diagram = Correct answer.

161) NCERT XI Page No. # 336

162) NCERT Pg. # 337

163) NCERT Pg. # 335

164) Acetylcholine
 165) NCERT, Pg # 245, 246

166)

Break down product of creatine phosphate in muscle

167) [NCERT page 315]

168) NCERT Pg. # 232

169) Therefore, the correct option is 3.

170)

Prolactin

171) NCERT E Pg. # 318

172) NCERT Pg. # 232

173) NCERT Pg. # 321

174) NCERT Pg.# 236

175)

A. A. CNS made up of white matter and grey matter: This is correct. The central nervous
system (CNS) consists of both white matter (myelinated axons) and grey matter (neurons'
cell bodies and unmyelinated fibers).
B. B. Axon - Afferent type: This is incorrect. Axons can be either afferent (sensory) or efferent
(motor), but axons themselves are not specifically afferent type. The term "afferent" describes
the direction of impulse, not the axon itself.
C. C. Bipolar neuron - found in hydra: This is incorrect. Bipolar neurons are found in
vertebrates, primarily in sensory organs (e.g., retina, olfactory system). Hydra, a simple
organism, typically does not have neurons with such complex structures. They have nerve nets
instead.

Thus, B, C, and D are incorrect matches. Hence, Option 3 is correct

176)

NCERT Pg. No: 231, 232, 234

177) NCERT Pg. # 320, 321

178)

NCERT Based.

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 321

180) Problem statement : Asking About :

In the given diagram which stage of conduction of nerve impulse through nerve fibre is
observed ?

Concept :
Generation and conduction of nerve impulse

Solution / Explanation : In the given diagram, neuron is in Resting stage. Outside axolemma
has comparably more +ve ions as compared to inner side of axolemma, such a stage is called
polarised (Resting) stage of neuron.