DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL GHAZIABAD
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION 2022-23
SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS XI CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 Hrs
Max. Marks: 70
Read the instructions carefully
1. There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
2. Section A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
4. Section C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
6. Section E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying five marks each.
7. All questions are compulsory. Internal choices are provided.
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries
1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. The IUPAC name for the compound, CH3CH=CH-CH(CH3)C≡CH is
a. Hept-5-en-1-yne
b. Hept-2-en-6-yne
c. 3-Methylhex-4-en-1-yne
d. 4-Methylhex-2-en-5-yne
2. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose
the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions from the following.
a. q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
b. q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
c. q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
d. q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
3. The Bohr’s radius for H-atom is approximately 0.530 A ͦ. The radius of its first excited state
is
a. 0.13 A ͦ
b. 1.06 A ͦ
c. 4.77 A ͦ
d. 2.12 A ͦ
4. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane
is
a. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is less stable than the staggered conformation even though
in the eclipsed conformation the magnitude of torsional strain is minimum
b. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed as it has no torsional strain.
c. In Newman projection the front carbon has its C-H bonds from the circumference of the circle.
d. Torsional energy is provided by heating the molecule of ethane.
5. The number of water molecules is maximum in
a. 18 molecules of water
b. 18 gram of water
c. 1.8 gram of water
d. 18 moles of water
6. Which out of the following series contains only nucleophiles?
a. H2O, SO3, H3O+
b. NH3, H2O, ROH
c. NH3, H2O, AlCl3
d. CN-, SO3, OH-
7. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom?
a. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
b. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = + ½
c. n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + ½
d. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + ½
8. The correct order of decreasing first ionisation enthalpy is
a. C > B > Be > Li
b. C > Be > B > Li
c. B > C > Be > Li
d. Be > Li > B > C
9. In which pair of species, the O.N of chlorine is same?
a. ClO-, ClO3-
b. ICl, NaCl
c. NaCl, NaClO3
d. ICl, ClF3
10. Enthalpy change for the reaction,
4H (g) → 2H2 (g) is – 869.6 KJ.
The dissociation energy of H—H Bond
a. – 434.8 KJ
b. – 869.6 KJ
c. + 434.8 KJ
d. + 217.4 KJ
11. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:
a. The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
b. Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
c. For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p orbitals and before 4s
orbitals.
d. The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number
along a period.
12. How much water should be added to 500 mL of a 5 M solution to get a 2 M solution?
a. 1250 mL
b. 750 mL
c. 1000 mL
d. 600 mL
Following questions consist of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer the
questions by selecting the appropriate options given below:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
13. Assertion: All the H-atoms in neo pentane are 10 H atoms.
Reason: Neo pentane is an isomer of 2-Methyl butane.
14. Assertion: All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.
Reason: The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the
atom.
15. Assertion: But-2-yne does not react with sodium.
Reason: But-2-yne is non-terminal alkyne.
16. Assertion: Change in enthalpy is always larger than change in internal energy.
Reason: Δ H = Δ U + Δ nRT
SECTION-B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. a. Write the bond line formula of 4-Bromo-2-oxopentanamide.
b. Write the metamer of C4H10O and functional group isomer of C2H4O2.
18. Commercially available concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 38% HCl by mass.
i) What is the molarity of the solution? Given: density of the solution = 1.19 g/mL
ii) What volume of concentrated HCl is required to make one litre of a 0.10 M HCl?
19. Predict the sign of entropy change for each of the following:
i) A liquid substance crystallizes into solid.
ii) Temperature of a crystal is increased.
iii) CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + O2 (g).
iv) N2 (g) (1atm) →N2 (g) (0.5atm)
20. What is the energy in Joules required to shift the electron of the hydrogen atom from first Bohr
orbit to the fifth Bohr orbit?
21. Arrange the following carboxylic acids in increasing order of their acidity. Explain the electron
displacement effect that occurs in it.
(CH3)2CHCOOH, Cl2CHCOOH, Cl2CHCH2COOH, CH3CH2COOH
SECTION-C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. Derive the relationship between heat capacity at constant volume and constant pressure.
23. a. Balance the following equation in basic medium by ion electron method:
N2H4(g) + ClO3-(aq) → NO(g) + Cl-(aq)
b. What is the O.N of the underlined atom in Na4[Fe(CN)6]
OR
23. a. Balance the following equation in acidic medium by ion electron method:
Cr2O72-(aq) + Fe2+(aq) → Cr3+(aq) + Fe3+(aq) + H2O
b. What is the O.N of the underlined atom in Na2B4O7
24. Suggest a reaction, and its name, with necessary condition where iodoethane is converted to
butane. Why is this reaction not preferred for the preparation of alkanes containing odd number
of carbon atoms?
25. Find out whether it is possible to reduce MgO using carbon at 298 K. If not, at what temperature it
becomes spontaneous. For the reaction, MgO (s) + C (s) → Mg (s) + CO (g),
Δ rH = + 491 KJ and Δ rS = + 197.7 JK-1mol-1
26. Explain that equilibrium is (a) dynamic in nature (b) can be attained from either direction, by taking
suitable examples.
27. When 11.0 g of CaCO3(s) is treated with 9.8 g of H 2SO4, precipitate of CaSO4 is formed
along with evolution of CO2 gas.
a. Which is the limiting reagent in the reaction?
b. Calculate the mass of CaSO4 formed.
c. How many grams of the other reactant should be taken so that nothing is left at the
end of the reaction?
28. Determine the solubility of Ag2CrO4 at 298 K, given the solubility product constant of silver
chromate is 1.1 x 10-12. Also determine the molarities of the individual ions.
SECTION-D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries 4
(1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
29. Schrödinger equation, the fundamental equation of the science of sub microscopic phenomena is
known as quantum mechanics. Essentially a wave equation, the Schrödinger equation describes the
form of the probability waves or wave functions that govern the motion of small particles, and it
specifies how these waves are altered by external influences. Schrödinger established the
correctness of the equation by applying it to the hydrogen atom, predicting many of its properties
with remarkable accuracy. The significance of his equations explains that the square of the
amplitude of the given electron wave at any point will give us the intensity of the electron wave at
that point which due to the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle means the probability of finding the
electron at that point. The square of the amplitude of electrons at any point gives the probability of
finding the electron at that point that is electron density at that point. The region around
the nucleus representing the electron density at different points is called an orbital. It helped
chemists to write the electronic configuration of atoms.
Answer the following questions:
a. How many electrons in a fully filled f subshell have ml = 0?
b. If the largest value of ml for an electron is +3, the electron may be present in what type of
subshell?
c. Write down the electronic configuration of Cr(Z=24) and indicate in it the number of orbitals
and number of electrons in M-shell.
OR
c. Based on Hund’s rule, explain the configuration of nitrogen atom. By what two factors can the
extra stability of orbitals be explained?
30. The non-metallic character of an element is directly related to electronegativity and electron gain
enthalpy. The metallic character is directly related to its ionisation enthalpy. The periodic trends
in each period or group are determined by these physical properties which shows either regular or
irregular gradation based on screening effect of electrons. Elements with atomic number greater
than 100 are named using IUPAC convention. From the electronic configuration of elements
their position in the periodic table can be determined.
Answer the following questions:
a. Why do noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpy?
b. Name the element having the lowest ionisation enthalpy and mention its position in the
periodic table.
c. Ca and Zn have same number of electrons in the valence shell. Their valence shell is also
same. But they belong to different groups. Justify.
OR
c. What would be the IUPAC name for the element with atomic number 109. Predict its position
in the periodic table.
SECTION-E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.
31. a. Arrange the following species in order of increasing stability: F2, F2+, F2-.
b. Predict the hybrid state of the central atom and the shape in (i) NO 3- (ii) BF4-.
c. Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic character in the molecules:
LiF, K2O, N2, SO2, ClF3
d. CO2 and SO2 are both triatomic molecules. Do they have same dipole moment? Justify your
answer.
e. Predict the hybridisation state in each carbon in following compound a. H 2C=CH-C≡N
32. a. Generate a mechanism to show that propene yields 1-Bromopropane on reaction with
HBr. Why cannot this reaction take place with HCl or HI.
b. Write the ozonolysis products of 1-Phenylbut-1-ene and give its IUPAC name.
OR
32. a. Write the mechanism for the conversion of benzene to Nitrobenzene.
b. Draw the geometrical isomers of CH 3CH=C(Cl)CH3 and write its IUPAC name. Also comment
on which isomer has higher melting point.
33. a. Explain why pure liquids and solids are ignored while writing the equilibrium constant
expression.
b. One of the reactions that takes place in producing steel from iron ore is the reduction of iron is
FeO (s) + CO(g) ⇋ Fe (s) + CO2 (g) Kp = 0.265 atm at 1050 K
the reduction of iron (II) oxide by carbon monoxide to give iron metal and CO2
What is the equilibrium partial pressure of CO and CO 2 at 1050 K if the initial partial pressures
are: Pco = 1.4 atm and PCO2 = 0.80 atm?
OR
33. a. What are the two governing factors for determining the extent of dissociation in poly basic
acids? Explain the strength of acids down the group and along a period.
b. The ionisation constant of phenol is 1.0 × 10 -10. What is the concentration of phenolate ion in
0.05 M solution of phenol? What will be its degree of ionisation if the solution is also 0.01M in
sodium phenolate?
__________________________________________________________________________________
