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YEAR FOUR EXPRESS MID-YEAR EXAMINATION
BIOLOGY 6093/01
Paper 1 Multiple Choice 6 May 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST
Write in soft pencil.
Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid/tape.
Write your name and index number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for
you.
There are FORTY questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question, there are four possible
answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.
Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.
Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
This document consists of 18 printed pages, including this cover page and one blank page.
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1. Which of the following are correct for a plant cell?
1 energy is released by mitochondria
2 glucose is formed by chloroplasts
3 glucose forms part of the DNA
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
2. The diagram is a drawing from an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.
How many layers of membranes must a molecule of oxygen cross to travel directly from X,
outside the cell, to Y inside the mitochondrion?
A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5
3. When red blood cells are put into pure water they burst (hemolysis).
Which statements explain this hemolysis?
1 The water potential of the surrounding liquid is lower than the water potential of the
contents of the red blood cell.
2 The cell surface membranes of red blood cells are not supported by cell walls.
3 More water moves into the red blood cells by osmosis than leaves the cells.
4 Water enters the red blood cells by osmosis but does not leave the cells.
A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4
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4. Agar cubes can be used to demonstrate the effect of changing surface area to volume ratio on
diffusion.
Three different agar cubes made using a dilute acid were placed into an indicator solution that
diffused into the cubes. When the indicator came into contact with the acid it changed colour.
The volume of the cubes were 1 cm3, 8 cm3 and 27 cm3 and were left in the indicator solution
for 10 minutes. All other variables were kept the same. The results were recorded as
diagrams.
The results for the 8 cm3 cube are shown.
Which diagrams represent the results for the 1 cm3 and the 27 cm3 cubes?
27 cm3
27 cm3
27 cm3
27 cm3
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5. A student carried out tests on the same volume of four different solutions to investigate the
presence of protein, starch and reducing sugar in each.
The results are shown in the table.
solution Benedict’s test biuret test iodine test
1 blue purple yellow
2 orange pale purple blue-black
3 orange purple yellow
4 red pale blue yellow
Which conclusion can be drawn from these results?
A Solution 1 has a lower protein and lower reducing sugar content than solution 2.
B Solution 2 has less starch compared to solutions 1, 3 and 4.
C Solution 3 has the most protein and the least starch.
D Solution 4 has a high reducing sugar content and no starch.
6. The graph shows the progress of a reaction in the presence and absence of an enzyme.
What is the activation energy of the reaction in the presence of the enzyme?
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7. An investigation was carried out on the effect of temperature on an enzyme-catalysed reaction.
The enzyme and its substrate were initially placed into separate test-tubes and raised to the
temperature required. They were then mixed and placed into four tubes A, B, C and D.
These tubes were incubated for the time and at the temperature stated. The mass of the
product formed was then measured.
In which tube was the rate of reaction highest?
incubation time/ s incubation temperature/ ˚C mass of product/ g
A 30 25 2.5
B 30 35 5.0
C 600 25 32.0
D 600 45 10.0
8. The diagram shows the liver and surrounding organs.
If a blockage occurs in the tube at X, what will happen immediately?
A Fat digestion will be inefficient.
B Formation of urea will stop.
C Glycogen will no longer be made from glucose.
D The liver will not break down alcohol.
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9. A person who has coeliac disease has flattened villi in their ileum. If a person with coeliac
disease eats the same quantity and types of food as a disease-free person, they will have
lower levels of glucose and amino acids in their hepatic portal vein.
Which row explains this?
capillaries do not absorb surface area to volume
glucose molecules ratio of ileum is reduced
A ✓ ✓ key
B ✓ × ✓: yes
C × ✓ ×: no
D × ×
10. The diagram represents a cross section of part of a leaf.
How does the oxygen content of the air at X compare to the normal atmospheric air when the
leaf is in the light and when it is in the dark?
in the light in the dark
A higher lower
B higher the same
C lower higher
D lower the same
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11. Which in a leaf would contain most starch when the leaf is exposed to bright sunlight?
A Epidermal cell
B Guard cell
C Palisade mesophyll cell
D Spongy mesophyll cell
12. The diagram shows a potato at different stages of its growth.
1. dormant potato (not growing)
2. sprouting roots and shoots
3. growing roots and shoots
4. making new potato tubers
Which row identifies a stage where a potato tuber acts as a source and a stage where it acts
as a sink?
source sink
A 1 3
B 2 4
C 3 2
D 4 1
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13. The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant with some transport tissues labelled
1–6.
Which tissues mainly transport water and which tissues mainly transport sucrose?
14. In which combination of environmental conditions are the stomata of a plant most likely to
close?
atmospheric humidity soil water potential wind speed
A high low high
B high low low
C low high high
D low low high
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15. The diagram shows pressure changes during the cardiac cycle.
Which arrow indicates ventricular systole?
16. The diagrams show chemicals being exchanged between some cells and a blood capillary.
What could be the identities of chemicals P and Q?
P Q
A amino acids and oxygen carbon dioxide and maltose
B carbon dioxide and glucose alcohol and oxygen
C carbon dioxide and urea oxygen and protein
D glucose and oxygen carbon dioxide and water
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17. Which statement about the blood flow in the cardiac cycle is correct?
A Blood flows into the aorta through the semilunar valve due to contraction of the right
ventricle.
B Blood flows into the left atrium through the pulmonary artery when the wall of the left
atrium relaxes.
C Blood flows into the right atrium through the vena cava when the wall of the right
atrium relaxes.
D Blood flows into the right ventricle through the semilunar valve due to contraction of
the right atrium.
18. What are the products of aerobic and anaerobic respiration in human muscle tissue?
aerobic respiration anaerobic respiration
A carbon dioxide and water ethanol
B carbon dioxide and water lactic acid
C ethanol carbon dioxide and water
D lactic acid carbon dioxide and water
19. How many molecules of carbon dioxide will be produced from the breakdown of two molecules
of glucose in aerobic respiration?
A 2 B 4 C 6 D 12
20. The diagram shows some of the reactions of carbon dioxide when it enters the blood from cells
in a metabolically active tissue.
Which reaction is catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?
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21. A drug reduces mitochondrial activity in kidney nephrons.
Which substance will be present in increased amounts in the urine?
A amino acids B lipids C protein D urea
22. The diagram represents the blood supply to the liver and to the kidneys.
Which vessels contain blood with the highest and lowest concentrations of urea?
highest lowest
A 1 2
B 1 4
C 3 2
D 3 4
23. The diagram shows an organ system in the human body.
In which organ does ultrafiltration take place?
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24. Which set of conditions will result in an increased ADH secretion?
conditions
intensity of physical environmental volume of water
activity temperature consumed
A high high low
B high low low
C low high high
D low low high
25. Which is controlled by homeostasis?
A Alveolar air temperature
B Blood water potential
C Sweat temperature
D Urine water potential
26. Four statements about negative feedback are given below.
1 A nerve or hormone message is generated.
2 A receptor detects a change in the internal environment.
3 Effectors bring about corrective responses.
4 Variation from the norm is counteracted.
What is the correct order of events, as described in the statements above?
A 1, 2, 3, 4 B 2, 1, 3, 4 C 2, 1, 4, 3 D 4, 2, 1, 3
27. Where are receptors found?
A along the length of all neurones
B at both ends of relay neurones
C at one end of motor neurones
D at one end of sensory neurones
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28. The diagram below represents the central nervous system. A, B, C or D, show possible sites
where a local anaesthetic block can be applied. The block prevents nerve impulses from being
transmitted along neurones.
After the anaesthetic was administered to a man, he cannot feel a pinprick on his leg but is
able to move it.
At which site, A, B, C or D, was the anaesthetic block applied?
29. Which part of a human eye initiates nerve impulses when stimulated by changes in light
intensity?
A choroid
B iris
C retina
D sclera
30. The diagram shows the appearance of the iris and pupil in three different light conditions.
1 2 3
Which row shows the size of the pupil of the eye in each light condition?
no light moderate light bright light
A 1 2 3
B 1 3 2
C 2 1 3
D 3 2 1
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31. The photomicrograph shows cells at different stages of mitosis.
Which of the following are correct?
1 Cell T shows metaphase.
2 DNA replication occurs at R.
3 The amount of DNA in cell P is the same as cell T.
4 The correct order of the stages is R → T → P → Q.
A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3, and 4 D 2, 3, and 4
32. The diagram shows a cell at prophase II of meiosis.
What is the diploid number of chromosomes in the cell?
A 3 B 6 C 12 D 18
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33. Some female insects are able to produce offspring that have developed from unfertilised eggs.
Which row describes the type of reproduction and the genetic variation of the offspring?
Type of reproduction genetic variation of offspring
A asexual genetically different
B asexual genetically identical
C sexual genetically different
D sexual genetically identical
34. The diagram shows a flower in longitudinal section.
Which is correct for cross-pollination and self-pollination in this flower?
cross-pollination self-pollination
A 2 and 3 mature at different times 1 and 4 mature at same time
B 2 and 3 mature at different times 2 and 3 mature at same time
C 2 and 5 mature at different times 2 and 3 mature at same time
D 1 and 4 mature at different times 2 and 5 mature at same time
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35. The diagram shows part of a flower after it has been pollinated.
Which labelled structures are diploid and which are haploid?
diploid haploid
A 1 4
B 2 1
C 3 2
D 1 3
36. The diagram shows a woman’s menstrual cycle.
On which day does ovulation occur, and on which day could fertilisation occur?
ovulation fertilisation
A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S
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37. The diagrams below are of two different vertical sections through the lower abdomen of a
human male.
1 3 5
Which labelled structures is the prostate gland?
A 1 and 4 B 2 and 5 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 5
38. In pea plants, the allele for tall stems is dominant to the allele for short stems.
A heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and 100 offspring are produced.
How many of the offspring are likely to be tall?
A 25 B 50 C 75 D 100
39. What is an allele?
A a length of DNA that codes for a gene
B any one of two or more alternative forms of a gene
C a thread of DNA made up of a string of genes
D the genetic make up of an organism
40. A man marries a woman who has a different blood group from him. They have two children.
The children have different blood groups from each other and different blood groups from their
parents.
What are the genotypes of the parent’s blood groups?
A IAIA and IBIB
B IAIA and IOIO
C IAIB and IBIB
D IAIB and IOIO
End of Paper
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Source of images
Q31: 9700_w18_qp12_Q20