10-08-2025

1103CMD303032250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decays according to the scheme

If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively, then what are these
number for A4 ?

(1) 172 and 69

(2) 174 and 70
(3) 176 and 69
(4) 176 and 70

2)

What should be the angle between two plane mirrors so that for all angles of incidence, the incident
ray and the reflected ray from the two mirrors will be parallel to each other ?

(1) 90°
(2) 120°
(3) 135°
(4) 175°

3)

A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a
way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 2.5 cm
(4) 5 cm

4) A concave mirror of focal length f produces a real image n times the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the mirror is–

(1) (n – 1)f
(2) (n + 1)f

(3)

(4)

5) Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window of thickness 4 mm whose refractive indix is 1.5,
is :
(1) 2 ×10–8 sec
(2) 2 × 108 sec
(3) 2 × 10–11 sec
(4) 2 × 1011 sec

6) A transparent solid cylinder rod has a refractive index of It is surrounded by air light ray is
incident at the mid-point of one end of the rod as shown in the figure. the incident angle θ for which

the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For an object kept at the depth ‘h’ inside water of refractive index ‘µ’ the radius of circle through
which the object can be seen will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A ray of light passes from vaccum into a medium of refractive index ‘n’. If the angle of incidence is
twice the angle of refration. The angle of refraction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If the refractive index glass w.r.t. water is & refractive index of glass w.r.t air is then
refractive index of water w.r.t. air

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) When the rectangular metal tank is filled to the top with an unknown liquid, as observer with
eyes level with the top of the tank can just see the corner E; a ray that refracts towards the observer
at the top surface of the liquid is shown. The refractive index of the liquid will be nearly.

(1) 1.25
(2) 1.95
(3) 1.76
(4) 1.98

11) Assertion : Focal length of a lens depends on the wavelength of light used.
Reason : The more the wavelength, less is the focal length.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) A water drop in air refractes the light ray as-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) What should be the angle of incidence at A of the spherical glass placed in air so that so that

grazing emergence of light ray takes place at B?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

14) A convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in the figure. For a point object
placed on its axis, the number of images formed are

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

15) A needle placed 45cm away from a lens forms an image on a screen placed 90cm away on the
other side of the lens. Identify the type of lens and determine its forcal length :

(1) Converging, 30cm

(2) Diverging, 20cm
(3) Converging, 20cm
(4) Diverging, 30cm

16) Two thin lenses of focal lengths F1 and F2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the
combination is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

18) A plane glass slab is kept over various coloured letters; the letter which appears least raised is

(1) blue
(2) violet
(3) green
(4) red

19) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30

cm. The image formed would be

(1) 30 cm left
(2) infinity
(3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

20) What is the value of d for which emergent rays are also parallel :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm

21) A fish and a bird are moving as shown in figure. Find the velocity of bird as observed by fish.

(1) 8 m/s upwards

(2) 8 m/s downwards
(3) 9 m/s upwards
(4) 9 m/s downwards

22) A diverging beam of light from a point source S having divergence angle a, falls symmetrically
on a glass slab as shown. The angles of incidence of the two extreme rays are equal. If the thickness
of the glass slab is t and the refractive index n, then the divergence angle of the emergent beam is

(1) zero
(2) α
(3) sin-1 (1/n)
(4) 2sin-1 (1/n)

23)

When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the
cut-off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If the same source
is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then

(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt

(2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(3) the saturation current will be 0.6 mA
(4) the saturation current will be 3.0 mA.

24)

If λp and λα be the de-Broglie's wavelengths associated with protons and α-particles of equal kinetic
energies, then

(1)
λp=

(2)
λp=
(3) λp = λα
(4) λp = 2λα

25) The graph is showing the photo current with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect

experiment. Then :-

(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & C will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency

26) The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
becomes how many time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

27) When wavelength of incident photon is decreased then :-

(1) Velocity of emitted photoelectron decreases

(2) Velocity of emitted photoelectron increases
(3) Velocity of photoelectron do not change
(4) Photo electric current increases

28) The momentum of a photon of energy hv will be:-

(1) hv
(2) hv/c
(3) hvc
(4) h/v

29)

Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and
Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is :-

(1) Y → 2Z
(2) W → X + Z
(3) W → 2Y
(4) X → Y + Z

30) According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the plot of the maximum kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons from a metal v/s the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line
whose slope :

(1) depends on the intensity of the radiation

(2) depends on the nature of the metal used
(3) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used.
(4) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.

31) The binding energies per nucleon for a deutron and an α - particle are E1 and E2 respectively.
What will be the energy E released in the following reaction ?
2 2 4
1H + 1H ——→ 2He + E

(1) 2 (E1 + E2)

(2) 2 (E2 – E1)
(3) 4 (E1 + E2)
(4) 4 (E2 – E1)

32) The magnitude of saturation photoelectric current depends upon :-

(1) Frequency
(2) Intensity
(3) Work function
(4) Stopping potential
33) Light of frequency 4v0 is incident on the metal of the threshold frequency v0. The maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is :-

(1) 3hv0
(2) 2hv0

(3)

(4)

34) If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha-particle and a proton,
each having the same de-Broglie wavelength, then :-

(1) E1 > E3 > E2

(2) E2 > E3 > E1
(3) E1 > E2 > E3
(4) E1 = E2 = E3

35) A radiation of energy 'E' falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) When the momentum of a proton is changed by an amount P0, the corresponding change in
the de-Broglie wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then, the original momentum of the proton was:-

(1) p0
(2) 100 p0
(3) 400 p0
(4) 4 p0

37) A proton accelerated through a potential V has de-Broglie wavelength λ. Then the de-Broglie
wavelength of an α-particle, when accelerated through the same potential V, is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) An electron with (rest mass m0) moves with a speed of 0.8C. Its mass when it moves with this
speed is :

(1) m0

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that the work function changes from w1 to
w2(w2 > w1). If the current before and after the change are I1 and I2, all other conditions unchanged
and assuming hv > w2 :

(1) I1 = I2
(2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 > I2
(4) I1 < I2 < 2I1

40) A photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because :

(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends only on the frequency of light and not
on its intensity
(C) Above thresold frequency even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons
leave the surface immediately
(D) electric charge of photoelectrons is quantized In the above true statement is :-

(1) A, B, C ONLY
(2) A, B ONLY
(3) A ONLY
(4) B ONLY

41)

The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C is λ. What will be its wavelength at 927°C :-

(1) λ/2
(2) λ/3
(3) λ/4
(4) λ/9

42) An electron of mass m when accelerated through a potential difference V, has de-Broglie
wavelenght λ. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass M, accelerated through
the same potential difference will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In photo electric emission experiment, maximum K.E. of photo electrons is K1. If incident
frequency & work function both are doubled then maximum K.E. is :-

(1) > 2K1

(2) 2K1
(3) < 2K1
(4) K1

44) Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4:3. Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of

(1) 4:3

(2)

(3) 1 : 1

(4)

45) If E and P are the energy and the momentum of a photon respectively then on reducing the
wavelength of photon -

(1) P and E both will decrease

(2) P and E both will increase
(3) P will increase and E will decrease
(4) P will decrease and E will increase

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider following molecule and identify correct option-regarding IUPAC naming :-

(1) Base for selection of parent carbon chain (pcc) is only maximum number of carbon
(2) Sum of locant position in pcc is 6
(3) Base for selection of pcc is maximum number of halogen atom
(4) It has 3 side chain

2) Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 2-Hydroxycyclohex-5-ene carboxylic acid

(2) 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-ene carboxylic acid
(3) 6-Hydroxycyclohex-2-enoic acid
(4) 3-Carboxy-4-hydroxycyclohexene

3) Total number of σ bonds and π bonds in following compound :-

(1) σ = 14, π = 1
(2) σ = 13, π = 2
(3) σ = 14, π = 2
(4) σ = 13, π = 21

4) Total sum of olefinic and Acetylenic bonds in following compound is :-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

5) Common name of will be ?

(1) Methyl propionate

(2) Iso-propyl acetate
(3) Iso-propyl acetic acid
(4) Iso-propyl ethanoate

6) Which of the following statement is true for homologous series?

(1) Same molecular formula

(2) Same general formula
(3) Same physical property
(4) All

7) Correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 3-(Hydroxymethyl)Cyclohex-4-ene carbaldehyde

(2) 5-(Methylhydroxy)cyclohex-3-ene carbaldehyde
(3) 5-(Hydroxymethyl)cyclohex-3- enal
(4) 5-(Hydroxymethyl)cyclohex-3-ene carbaldehyde

8)

What is the sum of 2o & 3o H-atoms in the following compound.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

9) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) Methyl tertiarybutyl acetylene

(2) t–Butyl propyne
(3) 4,4–Dimethyl–2–pentyne
(4) 1,3,3,3–Tetramethyl ethyne
10) Hybridisation of C number (1), (2), (3) is:

(1) sp2, sp , sp
(2) sp3, sp2, sp2
(3) sp, sp2, sp
(4) sp2, sp2, sp

11) The general molecular formula; which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :

(1) CnH2n+2O
(2) CnH2nO2
(3) CnH2nO
(4) CnH2n+1O

12) Correct parent carbon chain selection is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

(1) 1-Cyclobutyl-2-propanol
(2) 1-(2-Hydroxypropyl)-Cyclobutane
(3) 2-Heptanol
(4) 1-methyl-2-cyclobutyl ethanol
14)

Which of the following structure is called cumene :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Statement-I: Functional groups play a major role in deciding physical and chemical properties
of an organic compound.
Statement-II: IUPAC name of HCOOCH3 is methyl formate.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect

16) Select the correct statements with respect to IUPAC nomenclature.

(A) Halogens are always prefix substituents.
(B) Esters in general named as alkoxy alkanes.
(C) Aldehydes have a prefix as formyl.

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C
(3) A, B
(4) B, C

17) Match the structure with correct common name ?

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) Neohexane

 (b) (q) Isopentane

(c) (r) Neoheptane

(d) (s) Isoheptane

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s
(2) a → p, b → r, c → q, d → s
(3) a → q, b → r, c → s, d → p
(4) a → q, b → s, c → r, d → p

18) As we go away from the nucleus, energy of the orbits

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases, then decreases

19) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The angular momentum of electron in an excited H-atom is the kinetic energy of electron will
be

(1) + 13.6 eV
(2) + 3.4 eV
(3) + 0.85 eV
(4) + 0.54 eV

21) The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion is R then radius of its 6th shell will be :-

(1) 2R
(2)

(3) 4R

(4)

22) The kinetic and potential energy of electron in 3rd shell of H-atom in eV are respectively :-

(1) –1.51, –3.02

(2) 1.51, –3.02
(3) –3.02, 1.51
(4) 1.51, –1.51

23) Which species are isoelectronic

(NO3–, CO3–2, ClO3–, SO3)

– –2
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO3
– –2
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–2
(4) CO3 , SO3

24) Ratio of frequency of revolution of electron in the second excited state of He+ and second state
of hydrogen is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) What is the wavelength of the radiation emitted producing a line in the lyman series when an
electron falls from fourth stationary state in hydrogen atom ? (RH = 1.1 × 107 m–1)

(1) 97.25 nm
(2) 969.7 nm
(3) 9.697 nm
(4) None of these

26) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

27)

If change in energy (ΔE) = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of
the light is:-

(1) 6.64 × 103 m

(2) 6.64 × 105 Å
(3) 6.64 × 10–18 m
(4) 6.64 × 1018 Å

28) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

29) Which is not a correct order of energy for 1st, 2nd & 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom :-

(1) E1 > E2 > E3

(2) (PE)1 < (PE)2 < (PE)3
(3) (KE)1 > (KE)2 > (KE)3
(4) '1' & '3' both

30) The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level
corresponding to n = 5 is :-

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

31) Calculate the ratio of ionisation energy of Li2+ & He+, ions : –

(1) 2.25
(2) 5.2
(3) 1.7
(4) none of these

32) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :-
(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)

33) Number of visible lines when an electron return from 5th orbit upto ground state in H–Spectrum.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 10

34) In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is –13.6 e.v, then that in second
excited state is:-

(1) –1.51 e.v

(2) –3.4 e.v
(3) –6.04 e.v
(4) –13.6 e.v

35) The frequency of second line of balmer series in spectrum of Be+3 ion is

(1) 3Rc

(2)

(3) 21Rc
(4) 8Rc

36) Calculate the wave length in Å of a photon having energy 8 × 10–18 J

(1) 2500Å
(2) 25Å
(3) 250Å
(4) 500Å

37) Wave number of radiation of λ = 200 nm is

(1) 5×106 cm–1

(2) 5×108 m–1
(3) 5×1018 cm–1
(4) 5×106 m–1

38) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : In the photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as
the beam of light of frequency greater than threshold frequency strikes the surface.
Reason R : When the photon of any energy strikes an electron in the atom, transfer of energy from
the photon to the electron takes place.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct

39) Assertion : In an atom, velocity of electron in the higher orbits keeps on decreasing.
Reason : Velocity of electron is directly proportional to the orbit number.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

40) Assertion : Total energy of an electron in Hydrogen atom is negative.

Reason : Negative sign indicates electron is bounded towards nucleus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

41) The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He+ ion is –xJ, then that for an electron
in n = 2 state for Be3+ ion in J is

(1) –x

(2)

(3) –4x

(4)

42) The correct decreasing order of priority of functional groups in naming an organic compound as
per IUPAC system of nomenclature is :

(1) —COOH > —CONH2 > —COCl > —CHO

(2) —SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN
—COOR > —COCl > —NH2 >
(3)

(4) —COOH > —COOR > —CONH2 > —COCl

43) How many (i) sp2-hybridized carbon atoms and (ii) π-bonds are present in the following
compound?

(1) 8, 6
(2) 7, 6
(3) 8, 5
(4) 7, 5

44) The correct structure of 2-Ethyl 4-Methyl hexa, 1, 4-diene :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The IUPAC name of tertiary butyl iodide is :

(1) 4-iodobutane
(2) 2-iodo butane
(3) 1-iodo-3-methyl propane
(4) 2-iodo-2-methyl propane

BIOLOGY

1) In Whittaker's 'Five Kingdom Classification', eukaryotes were assigned to :-

(1) Only two of the five kingdoms

(2) Only three of the five kingdoms
(3) Only four of the five kingdoms
(4) All the five kingdoms

2)

Character Monera Protista Fungi

 Body organisation Cellular Cellular (A)

Cell wall Present (B) Present

Sexual reproduction (C) Present Present

What are (A) (B) & (C) in the give table
(A) (B) (C)

(1) Unicellular or multicellular Absent Absent

(2) Multicellular or loose tissue Present in some members Absent

(3) Multicellular or loose tissue Present in all members Absent

(4) only unicelluar Absent in all members Present in some members

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)

In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life

(bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archea ?
(1) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
(3) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(4) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes

4) Match the Kingdoms listed under column I with the characteristics give under column II choose
the answer which give the correct combination.

Column I
Column II characteristics
Kingdom

(A) Animalia (P) Unicellular prokaryotes

( B) Plantae (Q) Multicellular heterotrophs

(C) Protista (R) Multicellular autotrophs

(D) Monera (S) Unicellular eukaryotes

(1) A–S, B–Q, C–R, D–P
(2) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P
(3) A–S, B–R, C–Q, D–P
(4) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P

5) Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 Oxidative
(i) Mesosomes Cell respiration
enzymes

Protein
(ii) Capsule Loose nature
synthesis

Flagellin Helps in genetic

(iii) Flagella
protein recombination
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) only (ii)
(4) Only (i)

6) Which set of disease is caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera, AIDS, tetanus

(2) Cholera, Typhoid, tetanus
(3) Typhoid, tetanus, influenza
(4) AIDS, Mumps, Kuru

7) Choose the correct statement regarding classification :

(i) Aristotle used simple morphological characters to classify plants.
(ii) Aristotle classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.
(iii) Aristotle divided animals into three groups.
(iv) Aristotle divided animals into two groups, those which had red blood and those that did not.
(v) In Linnaeus time a three kingdom system of classification was developed.

(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

8) How many of the following statements are true for classification proposed by Bentham & Hooker
:-
(a) It was mainly based on floral characters
(b) It was a natural classification
(c) It was based on actual observations
(d) It has 165 families of monocotyledonae
(e) Phylogeny was not followed

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

9) Select out correct statement with respect to two kingdom classification of Linnaeus
(a) Donot distinguish prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(b) Donot distinguish autotrophs and heterotrophs
(c) Donot distinguish unicellular and multicellular

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a, b and c

10) Which of the following statements is not correct about cyanobacteria ?

(1) Cell wall is absent in cyanobacteria

(2) They were the first organisms that produced O2 on earth.
(3) They have pigments for photosynthesis.
(4) They are not always of blue green colour

11) Read the given statements carefully and select the correct statement :-
(A) Mycobiont is autotrophic
(B) The RNA of the viroid was of low molecular weight.
(C) Monerans show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
(D) TMV can pass through bacteria - proof filters
(E) Dikaryophase is found in fungi Trichoderma
Select the correct statements :-

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) B and C only
(4) B, C and E

12) Which of the following statement is true about viruses?

(1) They contain both RNA and DNA as genetic material

(2) They are obligate parasites
(3) They are capable of performing metabolic activities of their own outside the living cell
(4) Some of them have cellular structure and are saprophytes

13) In a Gram-negative bacterium cell wall consist of:-

(1) A thick layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane

(2) A thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer thick layer of lipopolysaccharide
(3) Two layers of peptidoglycan with a layer of lipid in between
(4) Cholesterol and peptidoglycan

14)

Study the following statements and give the answer:-

(A) Bacteria reproduce mainly by isogamy
(B) Bacteria produce spores in favourable conditions
(C) The type of gene transfer in bacteria is not a true sexual reproduction
(D) Citrus canker is a disease caused by bacteria
(1) A & B are correct, C & D are incorrect
(2) C & D are correct, A & B are incorrect
(3) A & D are correct, B & C are incorrect
(4) A & C are corect, B & D are incorrect

15) Identify correct option for above figure :-

Structure Function

(1) A is heterocyst Food Storage

(2) A is heterocyst N2 fixation

(3) B is mucilage sheath Reproduction

(4) B is filament to make new sheath

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) How many of the following statements are not true for archaebacteria ?
(i) They live in harsh habitats
(ii) Halophiles grows in extreme salty area
(iii) Some of the archaebacteria live in Rumen of cow (iv) Thermoacidophiles grow in anaerobic &
basic environment

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

17) Read the following statement find out how many statements are/is correct ?
(A) Hundreds of bacteria are present in a handful of soil.
(B) The vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs.
(C) Though the bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour.
(D) Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity.

(1) A, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) Only A
(4) A, B, C & D

18)

Match the column-I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I (Group Protista) Column-II (Example)

(a) Chrysophytes (i) Paramoecium

(b) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena

(c) Euglenoids (iii) Gonyaulax

(d) Protozoans (iv) Diatoms

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

19) Which of the following statements are true about chrysophytes ? (a) They are found in fresh
water as well as in marine enviroments
(b) They are microscopic and float passively in water current.
(c) This group includes diatoms and desmids
(d) They are mostly saprophytic

(1) a, c & d
(2) a, b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) Only c & d

20) Which of the following combination of characters is true for slime moulds ?

(1) Parasitic, plasmodium with walls, spores dispersed by air currents.

(2) Saprophytic, plasmodium with walls, spores dispersed by water.
(3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water.
(4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersal by air currents.

21) Genetic material without nuclear membrane is found in :-

(1) Eubacteria & Mycoplasma

(2) Cynobacteria & Eubacteria
(3) Archaebacteria & Blue green algae
(4) All of the above

22) What is common among Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria and Spirulina ?

(1) They all perform nitrogen fixation within heterocysts.

(2) They all are source of protein
(3) They all have enveloped nucleus
(4) They all fix carbon dioxide into carbohydrates.

23) Basidiomycetes and ascomycetes produce basidiospore and ascospore respectively, there spores
are produced ______.

(1) Exogenously
(2) Endogenously
(3) Exogenous and endogenous respectively
(4) Endogenous and exogenous respectively

24) Which one is not correct about lichen :-

(1) Algae prepare food for fungi and itself also

(2) Fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral and water for its partner
(3) Lichens are very good air pollution indicator
(4) Symbiotic association between fungi and root

25) Protozoans are:

(1) Heterotrophs
(2) Predators or parasites
(3) Believed to be primitive relatives of animals
(4) All of the above

26) Basidiocarp and ascocarp are the fruiting bodies of fungi. They can be seen in :-

(1) Alternaria & Agaricus respectively

(2) Alternaria & Ustilago respectively
(3) Claviceps & Agaricus respectively
(4) Agaricus & Penicillium respectively

27) The figures (a) and (b) are of?

(a) – A B.G.A – Nostoc

(1)
(b) – A phycomycete – Aspergillus
(a) – A green Algae – Nostoc
(2)
(b) – A deuteromycete – Aspergillus
(a) – A red alga – Nostoc
(3)
(b) – An ascomycete – Aspergillus
 (a) – A B.G.A – Nostoc
(4)
(b) – An ascomycete – Aspergillus

28) Which of the following is not a feature of monerans ?

(1) Absence of nuclear membrane

(2) Presence of 70s type of ribosome
(3) Absence of membrane bounded cell organelles
(4) All moneran have cellulosic cell wall

29) Read the statements (A–D) and select the incorrect ones :-
(A) Though the bacterial cell structure is very simple they are very complex in behaviour
(B) Chrysophytes include diatoms, desmids and dinoflagellates
(C) Slime moulds, during suitable conditions, forms fruiting bodies
(D) Lichen, in nature, have two different organisms within them

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

30) According to five kingdom classification of Whittakar the virus, viroids and lichens are placed in
which kingdom?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Not in any kingdom

31) Which character is found in Dinoflagellates and Diatoms but not in Euglenoids :-

(1) Photosynthetic nature

(2) Identical pigments to higher plants
(3) Cellulosic cell wall
(4) Unicellular nature

32)

Division spermatophyte includes :-

(1) Bryophyta & Pteridophyta

(2) Dicotyledonae, gymnospermae & monocotyledonae
(3) Thallophyta, bryophyta & pteridophyta
(4) Only angiosperms

33) Read the following point :- (A) Body septate and branched (B) Decomposers of litter
(C) Help in mineral cycling
(D) Only asexual and vegetative phases are known
Above points are related with which group of organisms

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

34) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones :-
(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in proteins
(b) Diatoms are the chief producers of ocean.
(c) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(d) Spores of moulds are devoid of cell wall.

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, b and c

35) Choose the incorrect statement from followings :-

(1) Dinoflagellates have property of bioluminescence

(2) Euglenoids have two flagella one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air current.
(4) In diatoms the cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells.

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Some bacteria have resistance to certain antibiotics, this ability is provided by the extra
(1)
genomic DNA of bacteria.
(2) Pili and fimbriae do not play any role in motility.
Pili and fimbriae are the surface appendages of bacterial cell, which consists of basal body, hook
(3)
& filament.
(4) Glycocalyx, cell wall and cell membrane form the cell envelope of bacterial cell.

37) Genes for antibiotic resistance as found in bacteria are located on :-

(1) Nucleiod
(2) Plasmid
(3) Chondrioid
(4) Plastid

38) 'Diatomaceous earth' is used in :-

(1) polishing
(2) filtration of syrups
(3) filtration of oils
(4) all of these

39) Match the following :-

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

40) In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is :-

(1) plasma membrane

(2) nucleus
(3) chloroplast
(4) cell wall

41) Asexual reproduction takes place in fungi with the help of :-

(1) Ascospores, basidiospores and zoospores

(2) Zoospores, sporangiospores and conidia
(3) Zoospores, oospores and basidiospores
(4) Oospores, ascospores, basidiospores

42) Examine the figure A,B,C and D. In which one of four options all the items A,B,C and D are
correct ?
 A B C D
(1) Slime mould TMV Dinoflagellate Euglena
(2) TMV Euglena Slime mould Dinoflagellate
(3) TMV Dinoflagellate Bacteriophage Euglena
(4) Diatoms Euglena TMV Dinoflagellate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) The figure given below shows the structure of a bacteriophage. Identify its parts labelled as A, B,
C and D.

A B C D

(1) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar

(2) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres

(3) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

(4) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic.

Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Assertion : Spores of slime mould can survive for many years in unfavorable environment.
Reason : Spores of slime moulds are formed during unfavorable conditions.

(1) Assertion & Reason both are false

(2) Assertion and Reason both are true and R is correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true but R is not correct explanation of Assertion

46) Which element is present in very less amount in Earth crust?

(1) Si
(2) O
(3) N
(4) Mg

47) A list of different metabolites is given below in this list find out the number of primary &
secondary metabolites, respectively & choose the correct option: Alkaloids, Abrin, Ricin,
Carotenoids, Amino acids, Glucose, Fructose, Fatty acids, Thymine, Uracil, Lectins, Drugs.

(1) Five and Six

(2) Six and Six
(3) Seven and five
(4) Four and Eight

48) Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of :-

(1) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and 1, 6
(3)
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond
49) Identify the following:

(1) Glycine
(2) Valine
(3) Leucine
(4) Methionine

50)

(1) It is an example of hexose sugar

(2) Structure is α–D–Glucose
(3) Reduces fehling and Benedict solution
(4) All of the above

51) What is correct about given structure ?

(1) Content of DNA

(2) It is pentasaccharide
(3) It is aldose type sugar
(4) Both 1 & 3

52) is :-

(1) Amphipathic
(2) Zwitter ion
(3) Hydrophobic
(4) Both (1) & (3)

53) Which one is an amino acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54) structure represent :-

(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Serine
(4) Valine

55)

How many amino acid in the list given below are sulphur containing?

Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Cysteine, Proline, Methionine, Valine, Serine.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

56) Which of the following pair is non-reducing sugar ?

(1) Glucose & fructose

(2) Sucrose and maltose
(3) Sucrose & glycogen
(4) Sucrose and fructose

57) Match the column I with column II and choose correct option :-
 Column-I Column-II

(a) Inulin (i) Hormone

(b) Curcumin (ii) Homopolysaccharide

(c) Collagen (iii) Protein

(d) IAA (iv) Drug

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

58) Which of the following does not show rotation of PPL?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

59) Correct order of abundance of oxygen, sulphur, magnesium and calcium in the earth crust is ___

(1) O > Ca > Mg > S

(2) S > O > Mg > Ca
(3) Ca > O > S > Mg
(4) Mg > Ca > S > O

60) Inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are also seen in the :

(1) Acid insoluble fraction

(2) Acid soluble fraction
(3) Retentate
(4) All of these
61) Which element is not present in the structure of serine amino acid ?

(1) C
(2) N
(3) P
(4) O

62) A polypeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 120 then what
will be the molecular weight of that polypeptide ?

(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 528

63) Match column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II
A. Cotton fibre I. Chitin
B. Exoskeleton of cockroach II. Glycogen
C. Liver III. Starch
D. Peeled potato IV. Cellulose
(1) A–I; B–IV; C–III; D–II
(2) A–IV; B–I; C–II; D–III
(3) A–IV; B–I; C–III; D–II
(4) A–I; B–IV; C–II; D–III

64) Monosaccharide unit of sucrose is :-

(1) α-Glucose + α-Glucose

(2) α-Glucose + β-Fructose
(3) β-Galactose + β-Glucose
(4) α-Fructose + β-Fructose

65) Which one is the second most abundant element in human body ?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen

66) What is the percentage of water in total cellular mass ?

(1) 40-50%
(2) 50-60%
(3) 60-70%
(4) 70-90%

67) Fill in the blanks :-

1. Based on the nature of ....a.... there are 20 amino acids.
2. Based on number of ....b....and ....c.... groups, there are acidic, basic and neutral amino acids.
3. The R group in serine is ....d.... .

(1) a–amino, b–R group, c–carboxyl, d–methyl

(2) a–carboxyl, b–amino, c–R group, d–Hydroxy methyl
(3) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–hydroxy methyl
(4) a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–methyl

68) A protein is imagined as a line, the left end is represented by first amino acid and the right end
is represented by the last amino acid. The first and last amino acids are called as :-

(1) N–terminal amino acid C–terminal amino acid, respectively

(2) C–terminal amino acid N–terminal amino acid, respectively
(3) O–terminal amino acid C–terminal amino acid, respectively
(4) Carboxy terminal amino acid and Amino terminal amino acid, respectively

69)

Which of the following statements are correct about alpha 1-4 o glycosidic bond

(1) It is present between carbon 1 and carbon 4 of within a single monosaccharide

(2) It is present between carbon 1 and 4 between two monosaccharide
(3) It is present between carbon 3 and 4 within a single monosaccharide
(4) It is present between carbon no. 5 and 1 within two monosaccharide

70) Biomolecules are :-

(1) Inorganic compounds

(2) Organic compounds
(3) All the carbon compounds obtained from living tissues
(4) Only DNA and RNA

71) In animal world, the most abundant protein is____ while in the whole biosphere the most
abundant protein is_____ :-

(1) Antibody, collagen

(2) Collagen, RuBisCo
(3) RuBisCo, collagen
(4) Collagen, oxidase

72) Which one is correct ?

 Basic Neutral
Acidic
amino amino
amino acids
acids acid

Glutamic
(1) Lysine Valine
acid

Glutamic
(2) Lysine Valine
acid

Glutamic
(3) Valine Lysine
acid

Glutamic
(4) Lysine Valine
acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Find out the correct match from the following table

Column I Column II Column III

Acid
(i) Polysaccharide Biomacro molecule
Insoluble fraction

Acid
(ii) Lipid Biomacro molecule
soluble fraction

Acid
(iii) Protein Biomicro molecule
insoluble pool
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

74) Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 ions to Cu+ state. On that basis which of the
following can be considered as a non-reducing sugar ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

75) Polymer which is form by N-acetyl glucosamine:-

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

76) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

(I) Pigments (a) Vinblastin, Curcumin

(II) Alkaloids (b) Abrin, Ricin

(III) Toxins (c) Carotenoids, Anthocyanins

(IV) Drugs (d) Morphine, Codeine

(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(3) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

77) Epimer of glucose are :-

(1) Mannose & Sucrose

(2) Galactose & Fructose
(3) Galactose & Sucrose
(4) Galactose & Mannose

78) Cotton fibres are made up of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycogen
(3) Chitin
(4) Starch

79) Inulin is a polymer of

(1) Fructose
(2) Glucose
(3) Mannose
(4) Ribose

80) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-

(1) a-Cysteine, b-Glutamic acid, c-Tyrosine

(2) a-Glutamic acid, b-Tyrosine, c-Cysteine
(3) a-Tyrosine, b-Cysteine, c-Glutamic acid
(4) a-Tyrosine, b-Phenylalanine, c-Proline

81) Which of the following statement is true with regards to polysaccharide?

(1) Polysaccharides are components of cell wall in plant and fungi.

(2) Polysaccharides are components of the exoskeleton of arthropods.
(3) They are storage forms of energy.
(4) All of the above

82) Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen –

A = 1-4 α–glycosidic bonds,

(1)
B = 1-6 α–glycosidic bonds
A = 1-6 α–glycosidic bonds,
(2)
B = 1-4 α–glycosidic bonds
A = 1-1 α–glycosidic bonds,
(3)
B = 1-1 α–glycosidic bonds
A = 1-4 α–glycosidic bonds,
(4)
B = 1-4 α–glycosidic bonds

83) Study the flow chart given below and identify X and Y according to the statements (i-v) provided:

(i) Monomers are present.

(ii) Polymers are abundant.
(iii) Molecular weight more than 800 Daltons.
(iv) Molecular weight between 18-800 Daltons.
(v) Amino acids, nucleotides, monosaccharides.

X Y
(1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (v)
(4) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Two statements A & B are given. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.
Statement A :- Amino acids are amphoteric in nature
Statement B :- Except glycine all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.

(1) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct.

(2) Both the statements A & B are wrong
(3) Both the statements A & B are correct
(4) Statement A is correct, Statement B is wrong

85) Which of the following is also known as substituted methane?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Fatty acid

86) Assertion : Cellulose does not give I2 test.

Reason : Cellulose does not contain complex helices.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) Assertion (A) : The acid soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
Reason (R) : Macromolecules and composition of acid soluble pool together they represent the
entire chemical composition of living tissues.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

88) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-
 a–cysteine, d–tyrosine,
(1)
c–glutamic acid, b–serine
b–cysteine, c–tyrosine,
(2)
d–glutamic acid, a–serine
d–cysteine, a–tyrosine,
(3)
b–glutamic acid, c–serine
c–cysteine, b–tyrosine,
(4)
a–glutamic acid, d–serine

89) Assertion (A) : At isoelectric point, the amino group does not migrate under the influence of
electric field.
Reason (R) : At isoelectric point, amino acid exists as a zwitter ion.
Choose the correct answer given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) is not correct.

90) Read the following statements and choose the option which have all correct statements :-
(a) The molecular weight of lipids exceed 800 Dalton
(b) Chlorophyll pigment is an example of secondary metabolites.
(c) Some secondary metabolites can be used as drugs for the treatment of human diseases.
(d) The first amino acid in a protein is called as N-terminal amino acid
Options :-

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 1 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 1 3 2 2 3 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

172 and 69

2)

Mirrors XY and YZ are held at 90°

Angle of incidence at one mirror (XY) = i

Angle of incidence at other mirror (YZ) = (90 – i)
Hence incident ray and final reflected ray after second mirror have sum of interior angles as
180°. Hence they are parallel to each other for all angles of i.

3)

Here, f = –10 cm
For end A, uA = –20 cm

Image position of end A,

or
vA = –20 cm
For end B, uB = –30 cm

Image position of end B,

or
vB = –15 cm
Light of the image = |vA| – |vB| = 20 cm – 15 cm = 5 cm
4) Since image is real and inverted m = –n
Let u = –x

v = –nx

5)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how much time sunlight takes to travel through a
glass window that is 4 mm thick, given the window's refractive index is 1.5. Essentially, it
wants to find the duration light spends passing through the material.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of the speed of light in different
media. Light travels slower in materials with a refractive index greater than 1. The refractive
index relates the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in that medium. Using this, we
can find how long light takes to cross a given thickness.

Relevant Formulas: 1. Speed of light in medium: where is the speed of light in

vacuum and is the refractive index. 2. Time taken by light: where distance
is the thickness of the window and speed is the speed of light in the medium.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Convert thickness to meters: Step 2:

Calculate speed of light in window: Step 3: Calculate time

taken:
Tips and Tricks: Converting units carefully and remembering the relation between speed,
distance, and time helps avoid confusion in these problems.

Common Mistakes: 1. Forgetting to convert thickness from millimeters to meters. 2. Using

speed of light in vacuum directly instead of adjusting for the refractive index. 3. Mistaking the
refractive index as speed rather than a ratio.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options with large positive exponents (like 2 ×
10^{8} sec or 2 × 10^{11} sec) are unrealistically long; light travels extremely fast, so the
time must be very small. Very small or negative-exponent answers with incorrect powers can
occur if there's a unit conversion mistake.

6)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the angle of incidence at which a light ray
entering a transparent solid cylindrical rod will travel inside in such a way that it just grazes
(or travels along) the curved surface of the rod without passing out of it. The rod has a
refractive index , and it is surrounded by air. We need to find this incident angle on the
flat end of the rod.

Underlying Concept: This problem uses the principles of refraction of light, specifically
Snell's law and the concept of critical angle. Light bends when passing from one medium into
another with a different refractive index. The critical angle is the angle of incidence inside a
denser medium beyond which light undergoes total internal reflection. Here, the light ray just
grazes the rod's curved surface, meaning it hits exactly at the critical angle.

Relevant Formulas: Snell's law: where , are refractive indices, and

, are the respective angles of incidence and refraction.
Also, the relationship between complementary angles is used: .

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: At the curved surface (interface inside rod to air), the ray
just grazes the surface, implying the refracted ray angle = .
Apply Snell's law: \[ \mu \sin(90^\circ - r) = 1 \times \sin 90^\circ \] Since ,
this becomes: \[ \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \cos r = 1 \implies \cos r = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \]
Calculate : \[ \sin r = \sqrt{1 - \cos^2 r} = \sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)^2} =
\frac{1}{2} \]
Step 2: At the flat entrance surface, apply Snell's law (air to rod): \[ \sin \theta = \mu \sin r =
\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \]
Therefore, \[ \theta = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right) \] This matches the fourth option
in the question.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the critical angle occurs when the refracted ray in the less
dense medium travels along the interface (90 degrees). Use complementary angle identities to
simplify expressions when needed.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the angles inside and outside the rod, or forgetting to use the
complement relationship ( ). Also, mixing up the indices of refraction or
incorrectly applying Snell's law at the wrong interface.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving or correspond to

angles not consistent with the critical angle condition for grazing at this refractive index.
is invalid since it exceeds 1 and thus cannot be an angle.

7) Question explanation:
Find radius of visible circular region at water surface from which submerged object at depth
hhh is seen due to refraction.

Concept: Light rays escape water only within critical angle forming a cone; its base is the
visible circle.

Formula:

Calculation:

Final answer: Option 1

Question level: Moderate

8)

9)

∴
Ans 4

10) Question Explanaton:

To find out the refrance index of lequard so that ray of light flollow TIR as per given fesene

Concept:
Total internal reflection

Formula: sin iC =
Visual AID:

Solution:
By integral ABC

⇒ sin IC =

for TIR sin IC =

μ = 1.25

Answer: (1)

11)

Assertion is true reason is false

12) A water drop in air behaves as converging lens

13)
Angle of refraction at A = angle of incident at B
Angle of incidence at A = Angle of refraction at B which is 90° for grazing emergence

14)
Explanation:
To find the number of masses formed by given lens.

Concept:
This question is based lens (number of images)

Solution:

Focal length depends on the μ (reperative index) here, lens Is made of three materials hence,
It will havve three focal length and lens will behave as three individual lens.

Final Answer:
Option (2)

15)

Converging, 30cm

16)

17)

Yellow, orange, red

18)

red

19)

30 cm left

20) A. QUESTION EXPLANATION:

We are given two convex lenses with focal lengths 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. A parallel
beam of light is incident on the first lens. We need to find the distance d between the lenses
such that the emergent rays from the second lens are also parallel.
B. CONCEPT:
• Convex Lens and Parallel Beam: A parallel beam of light entering a convex lens converges at
its focal point.
• Parallel Beam from Second Lens: For the light emerging from the second lens to be parallel,
the light converging from the first lens must effectively be at the focal point of the second lens.
C. FORMULA:
• There are no specific formulas needed for this problem. The core concept is understanding
how convex lenses treat parallel beams of light.
D. CALCULATION:
First Lens (L1): A parallel beam entering the first lens (focal length 10 cm) will converge at
its focal point, 10 cm away from the lens.
Second Lens (L2): For the beam to emerge as a parallel beam from the second lens (focal
length 20 cm), the converging beam from the first lens must be at the focal point of the second
lens. This means the focal point of the first lens must be 20 cm in front of the second lens.
Distance (d): The distance d between the two lenses is the sum of the focal length of the first
lens and the focal length of the second lens.
d = f1 + f2
d = 10 cm + 20 cm
d = 30 cm
E. ANSWER:
3. 30 cm

21) Here xbf = µy + x

⇒ vbf = 8 m/s upward

22) Glass slab produces zero deviation, so angle of divergence does not change.

23)

Stopping potential depends on the wavelength of the radiation and does not change with
distance between the source and the photoelectric cell. Intensity of illumination varies
inversely as the square of distance.
Therefore

24)

λp =

λα = =

λp = 2λα

25) Saturation current is proportional to intensity while stopping potential increases with
increase in frequency. Hence A & B same intensity. B & C same frequency. Therefore, the
correct option is (1)

26) ....(i)
As K.E'. = 3 K.E.

∴ λ' = ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

27) Explain the question:

When the wavelength of incident photons is decreased, the energy of the photons increases,
which affects the velocity of the emitted photoelectrons.

Concept:
Decreasing the wavelength increases photon energy, which increases the kinetic energy and
velocity of emitted photoelectrons.

Formula:
Photon energy:

Kinetic energy of photoelectron:

Calculation:
As wavelength decreases, photon energy increases. This increases the kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons, resulting in a higher velocity. Hence, the velocity of the emitted
photoelectron increases.

Answer :
Velocity of emitted photoelectron increases.
Hence, option (2) is correct.

28)

hv/c

29) Energy is released in a process when total Binding energy (B.E.) of the nucleus is
increased or we can say when total B.E. of products is more than the reactants. By calculation
we can see that only in case of option (c), this happens.
Given W → 2Y
B.E. of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeVand
B.E. of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV
i.e. B.E. of products > B.E. of reactants.

30)

By Einstein's equation
E=K+ϕ
⇒ K=E–ϕ
⇒ K = hν – ϕ
slope = h = Planck's constant

31) Given E1 the binding energy (BE) per nucleon of deutron (2-nucleons)
So, the BE of deutron = 2E1
Also, given BE per nucleon of an a-particle (4-nucleons) = E2
So, the BE of a-particle = 4E2
In the given nuclear reaction,
1H2 + 1H2 ——→ 2He4 + E
Using energy conservation law,
2E1 + 2E1 = 4E2 + E
or E = 4E1 – 4E2 = 4(E1–E2)
∴ Energy E released = –E = 4(E2–E1)

32)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which factor among frequency, intensity, work
function, and stopping potential affects the magnitude of the saturation photoelectric current
when light shines on a metal surface.

Underlying Concept: The photoelectric effect involves electrons being emitted from a metal
surface when light of sufficient frequency shines on it. The saturation photoelectric current is
the maximum steady current obtained when all emitted electrons are collected. This current
depends on the number of electrons emitted per second, which is linked to the number of
incident photons (related to intensity). Frequency affects the energy of electrons, not their
number; the work function is the minimum energy needed to eject electrons; stopping
potential affects electron kinetic energy and current flow, but not the emission count.
Relevant Formulas: Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons is given by \[
K_{\text{max}} = h\nu - \phi \] where - = maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons, -
= Planck's constant, - = frequency of incident light, - = work function of the metal.

Tips and Tricks: Keep in mind: Intensity controls the number of photons (and thus electrons),
frequency changes electron energy, work function sets the emission threshold, and stopping
potential controls electron flow after emission.

Common Mistakes: Confusing frequency's effect on kinetic energy with its effect on the
number of electrons; assuming work function or stopping potential affects emission rate rather
than energy.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Frequency affects only the energy of emitted electrons,
not their quantity; work function determines if emission is possible but does not affect current
once emission occurs; stopping potential influences whether electrons reach the collector but
not the initial emission rate.

33)

3hv0

34) ⇒

λ → same ⇒
me < mp < mα
E1 > E3 > E2

35)

36)

400 p0

37) ....(1) for proton

....(2) for α-particle

or λα =

38)
 39)

I1 = I2

40)

Theory based

41)

λ/2

42)

43)

2K1

44)

Radius of nucleus

Density of nucleus

Where m : mass of proton or neutron

0
ρ∝A
Hence density of nucleus is independent of mass number

45)

P= E=
λ ↓ then P, E ↑

CHEMISTRY

46)
Br, Cl and isopropyl

47) Explanation:
What is the correct IUPAC name of given compound
Concept: This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature of cyclic compound
Solution:

Identify the PFG :- carboxylic acid will PFG and it is attached to close chain, so carbon of PFG
will not included in PCC there fore suffix carboxylic acid will used Identification of PCC :- close
chain will PCC and it contain 6C and one double bond, so we write the complete name
cyclohexene Numbering starts from the carbon where -COOH is attached and moves towards
left side so that multiple bond gets lowest number Hydroxy present as a subs at position 6 Aa.
to IUPAC format the name is 6-Hydroxycyclohex -2-ene carboxylic acid
Answer :- (2)

48) Question Explanation :-

Find out the total number of σ- bonds and π-bonds in following compound.

Given Data :-
Concept :-
Single bond ⇒ σ-bond
Double bond ⇒ σ-bond + π bond
Triple bond ⇒ σ bond + 2π bond
Draw complete structure and count them.

Explanation :-

σ bond ⇒ 13
π bond ⇒ 2
 Final Answer : Option 2

49)

Explanation :- Find out the total sum of olefinic and acetylenic bonds in following
compound.

Concept :- This question is based on Olefinic and Acetylenic bonds.

Solution :- Olefinic bond :- Double bond b/w c and c

Acetylenic bond :- Triple bond b/w c and c

No of olefinic bond = 2
No of Acetylenic bond = 1
Total sum of O.B and A.B = 3
Answer :- 3

50)

Isopropyl acetate

51) Concept -

A. Compounds having same functional group are arranged in increasing order of their mol.
weight a series is formed which is known as Homologous series.
B. The member of Homologous series are represented by single General formula.
C. The different in two successive member of series is -CH2- group. So mol. formula of Homologue
is not same.
D. Due to different molecular weight of Homologous they have different physical properties.

Final Answer - option 2

Level - Easy

52)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

IUPAC Name of given compound

Key Concept:
Rules for giving IUPAC Name

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Here principle functional group is -CHO and is attached directly to ring
∴ Special suffix carbaldehyde is used.
∴ Its general IUPAC name is alkane carbaldehyde.
Longest carbon chain is of six carbon and is cyclic.
Numbering should be done from that side from where principal functional group is
nearest. After that preference is given to multiple bond & then substituent.
Multiple bond (Double bond) is at 3rd carbon and substituent -CH2OH having prefix
"Hydroxy methyl is at 5th carbon.
\ Its IUPAC Name is:
5-(Hydroxy methyl) cyclohex-3-ene carbaldehyde.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

53)

54)

IUPAC name :-
4, 4–Dimethylpent-2-yne.
or
4,4-Dimethyl-2-pentyne

55)
56)
So [CnH2n+2O]

57)

Principle Carbon chain contains maximum number of functional group.

58)

59)
Isopropyl benzyne is called cumene.

60)

IUPAC name of HCOOCH3 is methylmethanoate.

61) Esters in general named as alkyl alkanoate.

62) Solution:
Explanation: We have to match structure (Column-I) with their common name (Column-II)
Concept:

(a) → Isopentane

(b) →Neoheptane

(c) →Isoheptane

(d) →Neohexane
 63)

E1 < E2 < E3

64)

First line of Balmer series ⇒ 3 → 2

65) K.E. = 13.6 × eV/atom

66)

r= Å

⇒∴

67) Explanation
The potential energy is negative and twice the magnitude of the total energy because the
electron is bound in the electric potential of the nucleus.
Given Data
Principal quantum number (n): 3 (third shell)

Energy of the electron in the nth shell of the hydrogen atom:

Concepts
1. Kinetic energy (KE): In the Bohr model, the magnitude of the kinetic energy of the electron
is equal to the magnitude of its total energy but opposite in sign:
KE=-En
2. Potential energy (PE): The potential energy of the electron in the Bohr model is:
PE = 2 x En
Calculation
1. Total Energy (En): Substituting n=3 into the total energy formula:

Kinetic Energy (KE): Using the relation KE = - En:

KE = -(-1.51 ) = 1.51 eV
2. Potential Energy (PEPE): Using the relation PE=2xEn:
PE = 2x(-1.51 ) = -3.02 eV
Answer

A. Kinetic Energy (KE): 1.51 eV

B. Potential Energy (PE): -3.02 eV

68)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which given species are isoelectronic, meaning they have the same total
number electrons.

Concept:
Isoelectronic species have equal total electron count, regardless of atom types.

Solution:
Count total electrons for each species:
-

So, only and have the same number of electrons (32).

Final Answer: Option (1)

69)

70) ΔE =

= 972.5 Å
= 97.25 nm

71)

Maximum wavelength = Minimum energy

(for lyman series)
n1 = 1, n2 = 2

72)
73)

=2:1

74)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify which given order of energy-related
quantities for the first three orbits of a hydrogen atom is incorrect. Specifically, it tests
understanding of how total energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy vary across the 1st,
2nd, and 3rd energy levels.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves the energy levels of the hydrogen atom as
explained by the Bohr model. The total energy of the electron in a given orbit depends on the
principal quantum number n and is negative, indicating a bound state. Potential energy and
kinetic energy also relate to the total energy through specific relationships derived from the
virial theorem.

Relevant Formulas: 1. Total energy of the n-th orbit: 2. Kinetic Energy (KE)

related to total energy: 3. Potential Energy (PE) related to total energy:

where

Step-by-Step Calculation: Calculate energies for each orbit: - For :

- For :

- For :

From these values: - Total energy order is

(since values are negative and closer to zero means higher energy) - Kinetic
energy order is - Potential energy order is

Tips and Tricks: Focus on the sign and magnitude of energies rather than just the numerical
absolute values. Remember: - Total energy is negative and inversely proportional to -
Kinetic energy in orbit equals the magnitude of total energy - Potential energy is twice the
total energy and negative

Common Mistakes: Confusing the order of total energy by ignoring the negative sign leads to
thinking when, in fact, it's . Another mistake is mixing up potential
energy and kinetic energy relations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The option is incorrect because total
energy values are negative and their magnitude decreases with increasing n. The correct
order, considering sign, is . Options regarding potential and kinetic energy
orders are correct as per the virial theorem.

75) E = = –0.54 eV

76)

77) Explanation : Relation between 1 & 2

Given data :
E1 = 25ev , E = 50 ev

Concept :

Calculation :
Final Answer : λ1 = 2λ2
Correct option : 2

78) n2 – n1 = no. of lines

5–2=3
for balmer (visible lines) (n1 = 2)

79) Second excited state n = 3

E3 = –13.6 × = –1.51 e.v

80)

= 3RC

81) E =

λ= = 0.250 × 10–7 m
= 250 × 10–10 m
= 250 Å

82) Question Explanation :

We are wavelength λ = 200 nm and need to calculate the wave number ( = 1/λ)

Concept :
Wave number : = 1/λ.

Solution :
l = 200 nm = 200 × 10–9m = 2 × 10–7 m
= 1 / (2 × 10–7) = 5 × 106 m–1

Final Answer :
Option (4)

83) There is a characteristic minimum frequency, or “threshold frequency,” for each metal
below which the photoelectric effect is not seen. The ejected electrons leave with a specific
amount of kinetic energy at a frequency with an increase in light frequency of these
electron kinetic energies also rise.

84)

85)

NCERT Page No. # 42

86)

87) —SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN

88)
 (i) No. of sp2 carbons =

(ii) No. of p-bonds =

Thus, option (2) is correct.

89)
2-Ethyl-4-methyl hexa 1,4 diene

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question : The question is asking how many of the five kingdoms in Whittaker's
classification include eukaryotic organisms.

Concept : This question is based on Five Kingdom Classification

Solution : The correct answer is 3 – Only four of the five kingdoms.

Eukaryotes are found in:
Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia – 4 kingdoms

Final Answer : option (3) Only four of the five kingdoms

92)

(2) Multicellular or loose tissue Present in some members Absent

93)

Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
94) NCERT Pg. # 17

95)

Only (i)

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 20

97)

(i), (ii) and (iv)

98)

Four

99)

a, b and c

100)

Cell wall is absent in cyanobacteria

101)

B, C and D

102)

They are obligate parasites

103)

A thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer thick layer of lipopolysaccharide

104)

C & D are correct, A & B are incorrect

105) Question Explanation :

The question is asking you to match the labeled part (A and B) of the given diagram (likely of a
cyanobacterium like Nostoc) with their correct names and functions.
Concept :
cyanobacteria.

Solution :
The correct answer is 2. A is heterocyst – N2 fixation
Explanation :
Heterocyst (A) : A specialized thick-walled cell in filamentous cyanobacteria used for nitrogen
fixation under anaerobic conditions.
Mucilage sheath (B) : A protective, gelatinous covering around the filament, but not involved
in reproduction or forming a new sheath directly.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

106)

One

107) NCERT Pg. # 18,19

108) NCERT XI, Pg # 20

109)

a, b & c

110) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 21, Para-2.2.4

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 17 Tab. 2.1

All these are prokaryotes

112)

They all fix carbon dioxide into carbohydrates.

113) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 23, 24

114)

Ncert Page 27.

115)

All of the above

116)

Agaricus & Penicillium respectively

117) NCERT Pg. # 19 & 23

118)

All moneran have cellulosic cell wall

119) NCERT Pg.#20,21,27

120)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which kingdom viruses, viroids, and lichens belong to
according to Whittaker's five kingdom classification system.

Underlying Concept: The five kingdom classification by Whittaker classifies living organisms
into Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia based on traits like cell type and nutrition.
Viruses and viroids are not considered living organisms, and lichens are symbiotic associations
rather than single organisms, so they do not fit into any of these kingdoms.

Tips and Tricks: Associate kingdoms with characteristics like cell type and mode of nutrition
to quickly exclude viruses and viroids which lack cells.

Common Mistakes: Assuming viruses or viroids fit into Monera because they are infectious
agents or placing lichens in Fungi ignoring their dual nature.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Monera includes only prokaryotic cellular life forms,
which viruses and viroids are not. Protista and Fungi are cellular and living organisms, so
viruses and viroids do not belong there. Lichens are not single organisms and hence not
classified as a kingdom.

121)

Cellulosic cell wall

122)

Dicotyledonae, gymnospermae & monocotyledonae

123)

Deuteromycetes

124)

a, b and c

125)

Euglenoids have two flagella one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.

126)

Pili and fimbriae are the surface appendages of bacterial cell, which consists of basal body,
hook & filament.

127)

Plasmid

128)

All of these

129)

a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

130)

Eubacteria are prokaryotic but eubacteria are enclosed by plasma membrane like eukaryotic
cells.

131)

Zoospores, sporangiospores and conidia

132)

A B C D
(2) TMV Euglena Slime mould Dinoflagellate

133)

A B C D

(3) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres

134) Explaining the Question:

This question asks you to what defines prokaryotic cells through Assertion Reason.

Concept:
Prokaryotes cells

Solution:
Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic. (True)
Reason : Bacteria do not posses true nucleus and membrane bound organelles. (True)

And yes this Reason correctly explains why bacteria are classified as prokaryotes

Correct Answer:
Option (1)

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

136) NCERT, Page No. 105

137)

Question Explanation : Primary and secondary Metabolites.

Concept : This question is based on Metabolites

Solution :
→ Primary → Amino acids, Glucose fructose, fatty acids, thymine, uracil (6)
→ Secondary → Alkaloids, Abrin, Ricin, Carotenoids, Lectins, Drugs. (6)

Final Answer : option (2)

138) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond

139)

Explain Question : Identify the diagram

Concept : This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution : The given diagram is of Glycine

Final Answer : option (1)

140)

Question Explanation :

Identification →

Concept :
This question is based on Monosaccaride - Carbohydrate.

Solution :
→ It is a hexose.
→ µ-D-Glucose.
→ Reduction in Fehling and benedict solution.
→ All are correct.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : All of the above

141)

Explanation:
• The structure suggests an aldose sugar due to the presence of an aldehyde (-CHO) group.
• It is likely deoxyribose, a sugar found in DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid).
• Since it is both an aldose and a content of DNA, option 4 is correct (Both 1 & 3).

142)

Explanation:

Zwitterion: The molecule has both a positive (NH3+) and a negative (COO-) charge, making it
a zwitterion.

The correct answer is 2. Zwitter ion.

143)

Question Explanation :
Amino acid
Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

144)

Question Explanation :
structure-Identification

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Serine

145) Solution/Explanation:

A. Tyrosine: Does not contain sulfur.

B. Phenylalanine: Does not contain sulfur.

C. Cystine: Contains a disulfide bond (S-S) between two cysteine residues, so it contains
sulfur.

D. Proline: Does not contain sulfur.

E. Methionine: Contains sulfur in its side chain.

F. Valine: Does not contain sulfur.

 G. Serine: Does not contain sulfur.

Therefore, the sulfur-containing amino acids in the list are Cystine and Methionine.

The correct answer is option 3 (Two).

146) Explanation:

A. Reducing sugars are sugars that can donate electrons or reduce other compounds. They
typically have a free aldehyde or ketone group.
B. Non-reducing sugars do not have a free aldehyde or ketone group and therefore cannot reduce
other compounds.

The correct answer is Option 3: Sucrose and glycogen.

147)

he correct matches are:

(a) Inulin - (ii) Homopolysaccharide
(b) Curcumin - (iv) Drug
(c) Collagen - (iii) Protein
(d) IAA (i) Hormone
There fore, the correct answer is 1

148) Option 4 is correct because:

Explanation:
Option 1 (H2N - C-COOH) represents an amino acid with a peptide bond that does not rotate
freely due to its rigid (resonance), limiting rotation.
Option 2 (H-C-OH) (C-O) (H-C-OH) shows groups that can rotate around the C-C bonds.

Correct option: (4)

149) Explanation:

A. Oxygen (O) is the most abundant element in Earth's crust.

B. Calcium (Ca) is more abundant than magnesium and sulfur.
C. Magnesium (Mg) comes next.
D. Sulfur (S) is the least abundant among these four elements.

Correct Answer: O > Ca > Mg > S

150)

Question Explanation : Inorganic compounds-present

Concept : This question is based on Chemical Analysis of Cell

Solution : sulphate, phosphate are present in Acid soluble fraction.

Final Answer : option (2)

151)

Explaining the Question: Element Not present in structure

Concept: Amino acid

Solution: Serine → Amino acid

phosphorous Absent
Final Answer: Option_3

152)

Explaining the Question: One amino acid = 120 molecular weight of polypeptide chain

Concept: Polypeptide chain → Protein

Solution:

→ 1 Amino acid = 120

5 Amino acid = 120 × 5 = 600

approx. → 528
Final Answer: Option_4

153)

A–IV; B–I; C–II; D–III

154)

The correct answer is 2.

α-Glucose + β-Fructose: This is the correct combination for sucrose

155)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which element is the second most common by
amount in the human body from the given options.

Underlying Concept: The human body is primarily composed of a few key elements. Oxygen
is the most abundant due to its presence in water and organic molecules. Carbon is the next
most abundant element because it forms the backbone of all organic molecules essential for
life.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the acronym CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen)
which represents the four most abundant elements in living organisms, with Carbon usually
after Oxygen in abundance.

Common Mistakes: Confusing hydrogen as the second most abundant, because it is common
in water, but it's actually less abundant than carbon in the human body by mass.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Oxygen is the most abundant, so it cannot be second.
Hydrogen is abundant but less than carbon when considering mass. Nitrogen is significant but
less abundant than carbon.

156)

Explanation:

Water makes up a significant portion of the total cellular mass in most organisms.

The answer is 4 (70-90%).

157)

Explanation

A. a: The 20 standard amino acids are defined by their different R groups.

B. b and c: The acidic, basic or neutral property of an amino acid is based on the amount of
carboxyl and amino groups that are present in the amino acid's R group.

C. d: The R group of Serine is a hydroxy methyl group.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is (3) : a–R group, b–carboxyl, c–amino, d–hydroxy
methyl.

158)

Question Explanation : First and last Amino acid

Concept : This question is based on Amino acid polypeptide chain ?

Solution :
→ First → N-terminal
→ Last → C-terminal
respectively.
Final Answer : option (1)

159)

An alpha 1-4 glycosidic bond connects the first carbon (carbon 1) of one sugar molecule to the
fourth carbon (carbon 4) of another sugar molecule.

The correct answer is 2. It is present between carbon 1 and 4 between two

monosaccharide.

160)

Old NCERT XI #143

161)

Concept

A. Collagen: The most abundant structural protein in animals.

B. RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase): The most abundant protein

in the biosphere due to its crucial role in photosynthesis.

Explanation

A. Within the animal world, collagen is the most abundant protein, providing structural
support to tissues.

B. In the entire biosphere, RuBisCO is the most abundant protein, as it is essential for
carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 2. Collagen, RuBisCo.

162)

Concept

A. Acidic Amino Acids: These have an extra carboxyl group (–COOH) in their side chain (R
group), making them negatively charged at physiological pH. Glutamic acid is a good
example.

B. Basic Amino Acids: These have an extra amino group (–NH2) in their side chain, making
 them positively charged at physiological pH. Lysine is a good example.

C. Neutral (Nonpolar/Polar) Amino Acids: These have side chains that are neither acidic nor
basic. Valine is a neutral, nonpolar amino acid.

Explanation

A. Glutamic acid has an extra carboxyl group, so it's acidic.

B. Lysine has an extra amino group, so it's basic.

C. Valine has a nonpolar aliphatic side chain, so it's neutral.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 1. Glutamic acid, Lysine, Valine.

163)

Explaining the Question: Correct match of table

Concept: Biomolecule

Solution: Poly saccharide → Acid insoluble fraction

Bimacromoleucles

Lipid → Biomicromlecule → Acid insoluble fraction

Final Answer: Option_1

164)

Explaining the Question: Non reducing sugar

Concept: Monosacceride-Carbo hydrates

Solution: → sucrose → do not convert Cu+2 into Cu+

→ Glucose + fnuctose

→ Both functional groups used in bonding.

Final Answer: Option_1

165)

NCERT Pg. # 149

 166)

Concept

A. Pigments: Substances that impart color.

B. Alkaloids: Nitrogen-containing organic compounds with physiological effects.
C. Toxins: Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
D. Drugs: Substances used to treat or prevent disease.

Explanation

A. (I) Pigments: Carotenoids and anthocyanins are well-known plant pigments. So, I matches
with (c).
B. (II) Alkaloids: Morphine and codeine are alkaloids derived from the opium poppy. So, II
matches with (d).
C. (III) Toxins: Abrin and ricin are potent toxins produced by plants. So, III matches with (b).
D. (IV) Drugs: Vinblastin and curcumin are used as drugs, vinblastin for cancer treatment and
curcumin for its anti-inflammatory properties. So, IV matches with (a).

Final Answer
Therefore, the correct option is 3. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a.

167)

Concept
Epimers: Carbohydrates that differ in configuration at only one specific carbon atom (other
than the carbonyl carbon).

Explanation
Glucose and mannose differ only in the spatial arrangement of the hydroxyl (–OH) group at the
second carbon (C-2).

A. Glucose and galactose differ only in the spatial arrangement of the hydroxyl (–OH) group at
the fourth carbon (C-4).

Final Answer
The correct answer is 4. Galactose & Mannose.

168)

Correct Answer: (1) Cellulose

Cotton fibers are composed primarily of cellulose, a polysaccharide made of β-D-glucose units
linked by β(1→4) glycosidic bonds.
Cellulose is the structural component of plant cell walls and provides strength and flexibility to
cotton fibers.

169)

Inulin is a polymer of Fructose.

 170)

a-Cysteine, b-Glutamic acid, c-Tyrosine

171) Concept :
• Polysaccharides : Long chains of monsaccharides linked together.

Explanation : 1. Polysaccharides are components of cell walls in plants and fungi :

This is true. Cellulose is a polysaccharide that forms the cell walls of plants, and chitin is a
polysaccharide that forms the cell walls of fungi.
Answer is option (4): All of the above.

172)

A = 1-4 α–glycosidic bonds,

B = 1-6 α–glycosidic bonds

173) NCERT XI, Pg. # 142, 143

174)

Concept:

A. Amphoteric nature of amino acids

B. Chirality and enantiomers

C. Glycine structure

Explanation:

A. Statement A: Amino acids are amphoteric in nature.

A. This statement is correct. Amphoteric substances can act as both acids and bases.
Amino acids have both an amino group (–NH2) and a carboxyl group (–COOH),
allowing them to donate or accept protons depending on the pH of the
environment.

B. Statement B: Except glycine, all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.
 A. This statement is also correct. Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are non-
superimposable mirror images of each other. This occurs when a carbon atom is
chiral, meaning it is bonded to four different groups.

B. In amino acids, the alpha carbon is chiral, except in glycine. Glycine has two
hydrogen atoms attached to the alpha carbon, making it achiral. Therefore, it does
not have enantiomers.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Final Answer: 3 Both the statements A & B are correct

175)

Amino acids

176) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Polysaccharide
Solution :- The iodine test is typically used to detect the presence of starch due to its helical
structure, which traps iodine and gives a blue color. Cellulose does not give a color change
with iodine. Cellulose has a straight, unbranched $\beta-1,4-$ glucan chain with extensive
hydrogen bonding between chains, resulting in a rigid, linear structure, not a helix.
Answer :- 1

177)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking assertion and reason.

Concept :
This question is based on Analysis of chemical composition.

Solution :

The acid-soluble fraction includes small biomolecules (e.g., sugars, amino acids, nucleotides)
typically found in the cytoplasm. Living tissues contain both macromolecules (proteins, nucleic
acids, polysaccharides, lipids) and small molecules (acid-soluble pool). The reason is not a
direct explanation that the acid-soluble pool represents cytoplasmic composition.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct
explanation of Assertion.

178)

Allen Module
179)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

180) NCERT XI Pg.# 146,149 (E/H)