18-08-2024

1803CMD303029240024 MD

PHYSICS

1) Let P and E denotes linear momentum and energy of photon. If the wavelength is decreased :-

(1) Both P and E increase

(2) P increase and E decrease
(3) P decrease and E increase
(4) Both P and E decrease

2)

Which one of the following statements about photon is incorrect?

(1) Photon's rest mass is zero

(2)
Momentum of photon is
(3) Photon's energy is hv.
(4) Photons exert no pressure

3) Only a fraction of the electrical energy supplied to a tungsten light bulb is converted into visible
light. If a 100 W light bulb converts 10% of the electrical energy into visible light (λ = 663 nm), then
the number of photons emitted by bulb per second is:

(1) 2.37 × 1019

(2) 3.3 × 1019
(3) 4.74 × 1019
(4) 6.74 × 1019

4) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 ×
10–3 W. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the source per second is :

(1) 5 × 1014
(2) 5 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1016
(4) 5 × 1017

5) A source S1 is producing 4 × 1020 photons per second of wavelength 10000 Å. Another source S2 is
producing 2 × 1020 photons per second of wavelength 5000 Å. Then the ratio of power of source S2 to
source S1 is equal to :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

6) Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 is completely
absorbed by it. Find out force exerted by beam :-

(1) 14 × 10–5 N
(2) 14 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N
(4) 7 × 10–6 N

7) How many photons of wavelength λ = 6600 nm must strike a totally reflecting screen per second
at normal incidence so as to exert a force of 1N ?

(1) 5 × 1027 photons s–1

(2) 2 × 1030 photons s–1
(3) 1.7 × 1020 photons s–1
(4) 3.4 × 1023 photons s–1

8) If light of wave length 4000 Å falls on a metal surface which has stopping potential 1.4 volt
against photo electric emission then what is the work function of the metal ?

(1) 2.7 eV
(2) 1.7 eV
(3) 3 eV
(4) 2 eV

9) When wavelength of incident photon is decreased then :-

(1) Velocity of emitted photoelectron decreases

(2) Velocity of emitted photoelectron increases
(3) Velocity of photoelectron do not change
(4) Photo electric current increases

10) What is value of frequency at point A :-

(1) 5 × 1014 Hz
(2) 1015 Hz
(3) 5 × 1016 Hz
(4) 1016 Hz

11) When UV rays incident on metal plate the photo electric effect does not occur, it occurs by
incidence of :-

(1) IR rays
(2) X–rays
(3) Visible light
(4) Radio waves

12) The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface
for three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc be the frequencies for

the curves a, b and c respectively :-

(1) fa = fb and Ia ≠ Ib
(2) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(3) fa = fb and Ia = Ib
(4) None

13) When light is incident on surface, photo electrons are emitted. For photoelectrons-

(1) The value of kinetic energy is same

(2) Kinetic energy does not depend on the wave length of incident light
(3) The value of kinetic energy is equal to or less than a maximum energy
(4) None of the above

14) According to Einstein theory of photoelectric effect, light is not behaving like a wave because :

(1) kinetic energy of ejected electrons does not depend on the intensity of light.
(2) energy absorbed by an electron from a spreading wave front is negligible
no electron is ejected if the frequency is not more than threshold frequency whatever may be
(3)
the intensity of light
(4) all the above

15) A caesium photocell with a steady potential difference of 60V across it, is illuminated by a small
bright light placed 1 m away. When the same light is placed 2 m away, the electrons crossing the
photocell :-

(1) each carry one quarter of their previous momentum

(2) each carry one quarter of their previous energy
(3) are one quarter as numerous
(4) are half as numerous
16) In a photoelectric experiment, if both the intensity and frequency of the incident light are
doubled, then the saturation photoelectric current :-

(1) Remains constant

(2) Is halved
(3) Is doubled
(4) Becomes four times

17) The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter
plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photo current is recorded. An electric field is switched

on which has a vertically downward direction. Then

(1) The photo current will increase

(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase
(3) The stopping potential will decrease
(4) The threshold wavelength will increase

18) Find the de-Brogli wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 100 eV :-

(1) 95 pm
(2) 102 pm
(3) 122 pm
(4) 126 pm

19) If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor:-

(1)
(2)
(3) 1/2
(4) 2

20) Two particles of masses m and 2m have equal kinetic energies. Their de Broglie wavelengths are
in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3)
(4)

21) For nuclear reaction :

235
92U + 0n1 → 56Ba144 + ..........+3 0n1

89
(1) 26Kr
 89
(2) 36Kr
90
(3) 26Sr
89
(4) 38Sr

22) The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13Al27 and 52Te125 is approximately :

(1) 6 : 10
(2) 13 : 52
(3) 40 : 177
(4) 14 : 73

23)

The nuclei 6C13 and 7N14 can be described as

(1) Isotones
(2) Isobars
(3) Isotopes of carbon
(4) Isotopes of nitrogen

24) Binding energy per nucleon of 2He4 is 7.07 MeV. Find mass defect :

(1) 0.030 amu

(2) 0.060 amu
(3) 0.090 amu
(4) 0.12 amu

25) If the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and He4 nuclei are respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV,
then energy of reaction Li7 + p → 2 2He4 is :

(1) 19.6 MeV

(2) 2.4 MeV
(3) 8.4 MeV
(4) 17.3 MeV

26)

How much energy is released when 2 mole of U235 is fissioned:-

(1) 1024 MeV

(2) 24×1025 MeV
(3) 1024 J
(4) 1024 kWh

27) For effective nuclear forces, the distance should be:

(1) 10–10 m
(2) 10–13 m
(3) 10–15 m
(4) 10–20 m

28)

Nuclear enregy is released in fusion since binding energy per nucleon is numerically:

(1) smaller for fusion products than for fusing nuclei

(2) same for fusion products as for fusing nuclei
(3) larger for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(4) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller

29)

When uranium (92U238) decays to lead (82U206), the number of α-particles and β-particles emitted are

(1) 6 and 6 respectively

(2) 8 and 8 respectively
(3) 6 and 8 respectively
(4) 8 and 6 respectively

30)

When the radioactive isotope 88R226 decay in series by emission of three α- particles and a β-particle
the isotopes X which remains is

214
(1) 83X
218
(2) 84X
220
(3) 84X
223
(4) 87X

CHEMISTRY

1) The molarity of 73.5% (W/w) H2SO4 solution (d = 1.8 gm/ml)

(1) 18 M
(2) 6 M
(3) 10 M
(4) 13.5 M

2) 360 gm of glucose is added to 324 gm of H2O. The vapour pressure of aqueous solution at 100°C
is

(1) 68.4 torr

(2) 752.40 torr
(3) 684 torr
(4) 75.24 torr

3) If density of 2 molal sucrose solution is 1.68 gm/ml at 25°C. Find osmotic pressure

(1) 40.70 atm

(2) 43.54 atm
(3) 48.93 atm
(4) 49.26 atm

4) The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute solution of K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 0.25

5) Which salt show minimum osmotic pressure in its 0.5 solution

(1) AgNO3
(2) Na2SO4
(3) (NH4)3PO4
(4) MgCl2

6) Which one of the following pairs of solution will be expected to be isotonic under the same temp

(1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M MgCl
(3) 0.15 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.2 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4

7) Which solution has maximum freezing point ?

(1) 0.01 M NaCl

(2) 0.02 M MgI
(3) 0.01 M Urea
(4) 0.05 M glucose

8) During osmosis flow of solvent molecules takes place from :

(1) Pure solvent to solution

(2) Solution to pure solvent
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Flow of solvent molecules does not occur
9) The variation in vapour pressure of pure solvent and 1 molal solution of B with temperature are

given by curve A and B respectively. In the diagram x represents

(1) Cryoscopic constant

(2) Ebullioscopic constant
(3) Henry's law constant
(4) Normal boiling point

10) The solubility of gases in liquids

(1) increases with increase in pressure and temperature

(2) decreases with increase in pressure and temperature
(3) increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
(4) decreases with increase in pressure and increase in temperature

11) Correct statement regarding a solution of two compounds A and B exhibiting positive deviation
from ideal behaviour.

(1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A–A and B–B are stronger than those between A–B
(2) at constant T and P
(3) at constant T and P
(4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A–A and B–B are weaker than those between A–B

12) Assertion : Solubility of solid in liquid increases with increasing pressure.

Reason : Solids are highly incompressible.

(1) Assertion & Reason both correct and Reason is correct explanation.
(2) Assertion & Reason both correct but Reason is not correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is correct Reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion is wrong Reason is correct.

13) 34 g of H2O2 is present in 1120 mL of solution. This solution is called :-

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 40 V
14) Assertion : Azeotropic mixture can't be separated by fractional distillation
Reason : Azeotropic mixtures are constant boiling mixtures

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

15) According to Henry's law the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to
the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution. For different gases the correct statement about
Henry's constant is

(1) higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
(2) higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas
(3) KH is not a function of nature of gas
(4) KH value for all gases is same at a given pressure

16) 0.25 molal prepared in 2.5 kg of water contain x gm of area (NH2CONH2). Where x is

(1) 6 gm
(2) 12 gm
(3) 37.5 gm
(4) 25 gm

17) Statement I : CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 mixture shows +ve deviation from Raoult's law.
Statement II: H-bonding exists between CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 in their mixture
Which of the above statements are correct

(1) Statement-I
(2) Statement-II
(3) Both Statement-I & Statement-II
(4) None of the above

18) Assertion : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of the solvent.
Reason : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is not colligative property.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) Which non-metal can show a disproportion reaction?

(1) P
(2) Cl
(3) S
(4) All of the above

20) In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states

(1) NH4NO3
(2) N3H
(3) N2H4
(4) NH2OH

21) The sum of oxidation state of sulphur in H2S2O7.

(1) –12
(2) +12
(3) +14
(4) +16

22) How many mole of electrons are needed to convert one mole of nitrate ion (NO3–) to hydrazine
(N2H4)?

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3

23) Which of the following can acts as oxidising agent only?

(1) KMnO4
(2) K2MnO4
(3) H2O2
(4) SO2

24) Which species are oxidized and reduced in the reaction ?

FeC2O4 + KMnO4 → Fe3+ + CO2 + Mn2+

(1) Oxidised : Fe, C ; Reduced : Mn

(2) Oxidised : Fe ; Reduced : Mn
(3) Reduced : Fe, Mn ; Oxidised : C
(4) Reduced : C ; Oxidised : Mn, Fe

25) In the reaction

xHI + yHNO3 → NO + I2 + H2O

(1) x = 3, y = 2
(2) x = 2, y = 3
(3) x = 6, y = 2
(4) x = 6, y = 1
26) pOH of 0.002 M HNO3 is :-

(1) 11 + log 2
(2) 11 – log 2
(3) –3 + log 2
(4) None of these

27) Calculate the degree of hydrolysis of a mixture containing 0.1N NH4OH and 0.1N HCN if Ka =
10–4 and Kb = 10–4 :-

(1) 10–4
(2) 10–6
(3) 10–3
(4) 10–8

28) A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. The freezing point of this
solution is

(1) – 0.31°
(2) – 0.45°C
(3) – 0.53°
(4) – 0.90°C

29) In equimolar solution of glucose, NaCl, BaCl2, the 24 order of osmotic pressure is as follow :

(1) Glucose > NaCl > BaCl2

(2) NaCl > BaCl2 >? Glucose
(3) BaCl2 > NaCl > Glucose
(4) Glucose > BaCl2 > NaCl

30) Conjugate base of the H2SO4

(1)
(2)
(3) H2SO3
(4) None of the above

BOTANY

1) Which one of the following is not represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2) Find out incorrect match between Column-I and Column-II.

Column -
Column - II
I

European Federation of
(1) EFB
Biotechnology

Polymerase Chain
(2) PCR
Reaction

Yeast American
(3) YAC
Chromosome

Bacterial Artificial
(4) BAC
Chromosome
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR-322. Find out A, B,

C and D.

A B C D

(1) ampR Ori Sal-I BamH-I

(2) BamH-I Sal-I Ori ampR

(3) Sal-I BamH-I ampR Ori

(4) Ori ampR BamH-I Sal-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) The CORRECT order of steps in PCR is

(1) Extension (72°C), Denaturation (94°C), Annealing (54°)

(2) Annealing (54°C), Extension (72°C), Denaturation (94°C)
(3) Denaturation (94°C), Extension (72°C), Annealing (54°C)
(4) Denaturation (94°C), Annealing (54°C), Extension (72°C)

5) A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram
below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end (+ve) are

(1) Larger and move slower

(2) Larger and move faster
(3) Smaller and move faster
(4) Smaller and move slower

6) To visualize DNA in Agarose gel, a common dye is _____ ?

(1) Ethidium bromide

(2) CaCl2
(3) Acetocarmine
(4) Safranin

7) For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up
of

(1) Silicon or Platinum

(2) Gold or Tungsten
(3) Silver or Platinum
(4) Platinum or Zinc

8) DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with

(1) Isopropanol
(2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room temperature
(4) Chilled chloroform

9) A selectable marker is used to

(1) Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated
(2) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(3) Select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme

10) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin resistance if transferred into E. coli cells and
the host cells are spread on agar plates containing ampicillin, then

(1) both transformed and untransformed recipient cells will die

(2) both transformed and untransformed recipient cell will be grow
(3) transformed recipient cells will grow and untransformed recipient cells will die
(4) transformed recipient cells will die and untransformed recipient cells will grow

11) In r-DNA technology or genetic engineering elution means

(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after centrifugation

(2) The separated band of DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece
(3) Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell
(4) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell

12) How many copies of DNA sample are produced in PCR technique after 3-cycle?

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 16

13) Restriction endonuclease cut the DNA molecule at which site?

(1) Sugar-phosphate back bone

(2) Between two base pairs
(3) Between sugar and base
(4) Between phosphate and base

14) β-galactosidase gene is used to detect

Recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to product colour in the
(1)
presence of chromogenic substrate
(2) Select of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics
(3) Elimination cancerous cells
(4) Tumor in dicot plants

15) Today we know more than _A_ restriction enzyme that have been isolated from over _B_ strains
of bacteria each of which recognise different recognition sequence. Find out CORRECT match w.r.t.
_A_ and _B_.

A B

(1) 230 800

 (2) 900 230

(3) 230 900

(4) 225 880

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following is/are used in recombinant DNA technology ?

(A) Agarose gel
(B) Ethidium bromide
(C) Plasmid
(D) Restriction endonuclease

(1) only A and B

(2) only B and C
(3) only C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

17) In replica plating technique which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) By amp culture medium transformants can be distinguish from non transformants
For separation of recombinants from non recombinants, transformants growing on amp are
(2)
transferred on tet. medium
(3) tetR gene helps in identification of recombinants form non recombinants
(4) Insertional inactivation of tetR gene results in blue colour colony.

18) Plasmid of which of the following bacterium is used for transfer for foreign gene in plant cells?

(1) Agrobacterium tumefasciens

(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Bacillus thuringenesis
(4) Salmonella typhimurium

19) In following figure of gel electrophoresis which lane is showing undigested set of DNA sample ?

(1) lane - 1
(2) lane - 2
(3) lane - 3
(4) lane - 4

20) Which of the following is not a step of PCR :-

(1) Denaturation
(2) Annealing
(3) Extension
(4) Electroporation

21) Which of the following steps should be performed by a person in order to visualize the bands of
DNA fragments by using gel electrophoresis ?

(1) Exposure of DNA fragments to UV radiations

(2) Staining with bromophenol blue followed by exposure to UV radiations
(3) Staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiations.
(4) Person can see the bands without staining.

22) Which of the following is not true about pBR322 vector :-

(1) It was constructed by using DNA derived from naturally occuring plasmids of E.coil
(2) It is a tool of genetics engineering
(3) It was developed by Boliver and Rodriguez
Selectable markers present in it can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the
(4)
basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate.

23) Gel electrophoresis is used for :-

(1) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

(2) Purification of product
(3) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(4) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size

24) Construction of recombinant DNA involves

(1) Cleaving and rejoining of DNA segments with endonuclease

(2) Cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and rejoining with ligase
(3) Cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ligase
(4) Cleaving DNA segments with ligase and rejoining with endunuclease

25) Match the Column-I with Column-II :-

Column - I Column - II

i Primers A PCR
 ii Separation & purification of products B C2H5OH

iii Precipitation of DNA C Gene gun

iv Biolistics D Downstream processing

(1) (i) - A, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - C
(2) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C
(3) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - C, (iv) - B
(4) (i) - A, (ii) - B, (iii) - D, (iv) - C

26) Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) Separation and purification of a product

(2) Microinjection
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material

27) In gel electrophoresis, differential mobility of DNA depends upon :-

(1) Helical nature of DNA

(2) Double stranded nature of DNA
(3) Size of DNA
(4) Hydrogen bonding between bases

28) In restriction enzymes (like Eco RI)

The Roman numbers following the name indicate the :-

(1) Order in which the enzyme were discovered from that strain of bacteria
(2) Order in which the enzyme were isolated from that strain of bacteria
(3) Strain of the bacteria.
(4) Genus of the prokaryotic cell or bacteria.

29) Arrange the following process in the sequence used in rDNA technology.
(A) Isolation of DNA
(B) Fragmentation of DNA by RE
(C) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
(D) Ligation of DNA fragment into vector
(E) Transferring rDNA into host
(F) Culturing host cells in a medium at large scale
(G) Extraction of the desired product

(1) A, B, C, D, E, F, G
(2) A, B, C, D, F, E, G
(3) B, A, C, D, E, F, G
(4) A, B, C, E, D, F, G

30) What is the maximum volume of culture that can be processed in bioreactors?
(1) 10–100 litres
(2) 100–1000 litres
(3) 1–10 litres
(4) 1000–1,00,000 litres

ZOOLOGY

1) A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the presence of
a competitive superior species is found to expand its distributional range dramatically when the
competing species is experimentally removed. This phenomenon is known as

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Interference competition
(4) Resource partitioning

2) The logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one because

(1) Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite
(2) Resource for growth become limiting sooner or later
(3) Resources in a habitat are unlimited
(4) More than one option is correct

3) Assertion : Population is a group of potentially interbreeding individuals living in a well defined

geographical area and share or compete for similar resources
Reason : Group of asexually reproducing individuals is also considered a population for the purpose
of ecological studies

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

4) A population has more young individuals compared to the other individuals. What would be the
status of the population after some years?

(1) It will decline

(2) It will stabilize
(3) It will increase
(4) It will first decline and then stabilize

5) Natality refers to

(1) Number of births in a given geographical area

(2) Number of births in a given time period
(3) Number of births under influence of a given environmental factor
(4) Number of deaths in a given time period

6) Which of the following curve represents more realistic growth curve?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Predation performs all, except

(1) Transfer of energy

(2) Keeps prey population under control
(3) Loss of sense organs
(4) Maintains species diversity

8) Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after _____ were
introduced on the island, because of the greater browsing efficiency of the introduced animals on
the island.

(1) Cows
(2) Buffaloes
(3) Goats
(4) Camels

9) Assertion : The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often based on pug marks
and fecal pellets.
Reason : To estimate population sizes indirectly we are mostly obliged to actually count or to see
individuals.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

10) A J-shaped growth curve depicts

(1) Exponential growth when conditions are limited.

(2) Exponential growth when conditions are unlimited.
(3) Logistic growth when conditions are limited.
(4) Logistic growth when conditions are unlimited.

11) Population size in any given habitat is also known as

(1) Population cluster

(2) Population explosion
(3) Population abundance
(4) Population density

12) When in an association, only one species is benefitted and neither is harmed, is called

(1) Mutualism
(2) Proto-cooperation
(3) Commensalism
(4) Exploitation

13) Sexual deceit is employed by

(1) Figs
(2) Orchid
(3) Yucca
(4) Pinus

14) What is the meaning of K?

(1) Intrinsic rate of natural reproduction

(2) Population density at time zero
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) Population density after time t

15) Connell’s elegant field experiments showed that on rocky sea coasts of Scotland, the larger and
competitively superior barnacle _____ dominates the intertidal area, and exclude smaller barnacle
_____ from that zone.

(1) Chathamalus; Balanus

(2) Balanus; Balanus
(3) Chathamalus; Chathamalus
(4) Balanus; Chathamalus

16) Study the following equation in context of population growth and choose the correct option:
dN/dt=(B-D)xN Substituting r in place of B - D then dNldt=rN Here, r is known as _____ .

(1) Extrinsic rate of natural decrease

(2) Intrinsic rate of natural decrease
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

17) Predators play an important role in

(1) Conduction of energy across trophic levels

(2) Maintenance of species diversity
(3) Control of prey population
(4) More than one option is correct

18) Match Column-I (interspecific relations) with Column-II (their examples) and choose the correct
option.

Column - I Column - II

Phytophagous
(a) Competition (i)
insects

(b) Mutualism (ii) Herbivores

Brood Fig tree and

(c) (iii)
parasitism wasp

Predators on Cuckoo (koel)

(d) (iv)
plants and Crow
 Flamingoes and
resident fishes in
(v)
South American
lakes

(vi) Lichen

(1) (a)-(v); (b)-(iii), (vi); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i), (ii)

(2) (a)-(iii), (iv); (b)-(i),(ii),(v); (c)-(iii); (d)-(v)
(3) (a)-(i), (iii); (b)-(ii), (iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(vi)
(4) (a)-(iv); (b)-(v), ; (c)-(i); (d)-(vi)

19) Choose the odd one out with respect to parasitism.

(1) Parasites show adaptations like loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity
(2) Parasite may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of host
(3) Lifecycles of ectoparasites are more complex
(4) Brood parasitism is seen in birds

20) A population grows rapidly at first and then levels off as carrying capacity of it is

(1) Limited by density dependent factors

(2) Limited by density independent factors
(3) Affected by an opportunistic species
(4) relatively unaffected by limiting factors

21) Assertion : In nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation but
interact in various ways to form abiotic community.
Reason : Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of populations of two similar species

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

22) (a) Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured (camouflaged).
(b) Some animals are poisonous.
(c) Some animals (e.g., monarch butterfly) are distasteful
The above mentioned adaptations are against

(1) Predation
(2) Mimicry
(3) Symbiosis
(4) Protection

23) Fill in the blanks (a), (b), (c) and (d).

 Nature of
Species A Species B
interaction

+ + Mutualism

– – (a)

+ – (b)

+ – Parasitim

+ 0 (c)

– 0 (d)
(+) Beneficial (–) Detrimental (0) Neutral
(1) (a) - Commensalism; (b) - Predation; (c) - Amensalism; (d) - Competition
(2) (a) - Predation; (b) - Parasitism; (c) - Commensalism; (d) - Amensalism
(3) (a) - Competition; (b) - Predation; (c) - Commensalism; (d) - Amensalism
(4) (a)-Competition; (b)-Predation; (c)-Amensalism; (d) - Commensalism

24) Choose correct match from given population growth curve.

(a) (b) More realistic curve

(c) (d) Carrying capacity

(e) Exponential growth

(1) A — (b) and (c)

(2) A - (b) and (e)
(3) C - (c) and (d)
(4) C - (b) only

25) Which of the following is most appropriately defined?

(1) Host is an organism which provides food to another organism

(2) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited whereas the other is unaffected
(3) Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food
(4) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it
26) The association between clown fish and sea anemone is the same as between

(1) Egret and grazing cattle

(2) Cuckoo and crow
(3) Fig and wasp
(4) Cuscuta and hedge plant

27) Through resource partitioning

(1) two species can compete for the same prey

(2) slight variation in niche allow closely related species to co-exist in the same habitat
(3) competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species
(4) two species undergo character displacement that allows them to compete

28) In a field experiment, when all the starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area, more
than __(a)__ species of invertebrates become extinct within a year, because of __(b)__ competition.

(1) (a) - 10; (b) - intraspecific

(2) (a) - 10; (b) - interspecific
(3) (a) - 20; (b) - intraspecific
(4) (a) - 20; (b) - interspecific

29) The age structure of a population influences population growth because

(1) Younger females have more offspring than do older females

(2) Different age groups have different reproductive capabilities
(3) The more individuals that are immature, the slower the population will grow
(4) A shorter generation time results in slower population growth

30) Find out the incorrect statement.

(1) The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter
Majority of the parasites harm the host; they may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction
(2)
of the host and reduce its population density
Many parasites have evolved to the host specific in such a way that both host and the parasite
(3)
end to co-evolve
Monarch butterfly requires chemical that makes it high distasteful to its predator by feeding on
(4)
a poisonous weed in its adult stage,
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 2

BOTANY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 4 4 1 1 4
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 1 3 1 3 1 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

4)

ν = 6 × 1014, λ = = 5000 Å

P = 2 × 10–3W =
ν = 5 × 1024 × 2 × 10–3 × 5000 × 10–10
ν = 5 × 1015

5)

or

=1:1

6) F =

10)
(for )
ϕ = 2eV
At point A

= 2 + 2 = 4 eV

11)
For PEE ; E ≥ ϕ Ex-ray > Euv

16)

17)

In electric field photoelectron will experience force and acceletrate opposite to the field so its K.E.
increases (i.e., stopping potential will increase), no change in photoelectric current, and threshold
wavelength.

CHEMISTRY

38)

From solvent to solution

Solution to pure solvent
So Net Flow solvent towards
Low concentration or dilute solution.

BOTANY

77)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199-200

79)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 190, Fig - 11.3

87)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 198

88)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 196

ZOOLOGY