03-08-2025

7501CMD303021250021 MD

PHYSICS

1) For given circuit, select correct alternative

Equivalent resistance between A and D is

(1)

(2)
Current through BC is
(3) Current through BC is from C to B
(4) All of these

2) A piece of conducting wire of resistance R is cut into 2n equal parts. Half the parts are connected
in series to form a bundle and remaining half in parallel to form another bundle. These two bundles
are then connected to give maximum resistance. The resistance of the combination is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
R

3) What current flow through the 2 KQ resistor in the circuit shown in the figure.

(1) 3 mA
(2) 6 mA
(3) 12 mA
(4) 36 mA
4) Value of current i in the following circuit is

(1) 13A
(2) 12A
(3) 9A
(4) none of the above

5) What is the reading of voltmeter in the following figure

(1) 3 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 4 V

6) The charge on a capacitor plate in a circuit, as a function of time, is shown in the figure :

What is the value of current at t = 4 s?

(1) zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given network is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 Ω shows a full scale deflection for a current of 3mA. For
it to measure a current of 8A, the value of the shunt should be:

(1) 3 × 10–3Ω
(2) 4.85 × 10–3Ω
(3) 3.75 × 10–3Ω
(4) 2.75 × 10–3Ω

9) A wire of resistance R1 is drawn out so that its length is increased by twice of its original length.
The ratio of new resistance to original resistance is :

(1) 9 : 1
(2) 1 : 9
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

10) In the circuit shown, the internal resistance of the cell is negligible. The steady state current in

the 2Ω resistor is:

(1) 0.6 A
(2) 0.9 A
(3) 1.2 A
(4) 1.5 A
11) A rectangular solid made of carbon has sides of lengths 1.0 cm, 2.0 cm, and 4.0 cm, lying along
the x, y, and z axes, respectively. Determine the resistance for current that passes through the solid

in the x-direction. ρ = 3 × 10–3Ωm.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) 3 identical capacitors are joined in parallel and are charged with a battery of 10V. Now the
battery is removed and they are joined in series with each other in this condition what would be
the potential difference between the free plates in the combination ?

(1) 30V
(2) 10V
(3) 60V

(4)

13) Potential difference across the terminals of the battery shown in figure is : (r = internal

resistance of battery)

(1) 8 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V
(4) 0 V

14) The given circuit shows a uniform straight wire AB of 60 cm length fixed at both ends. In order
to get zero reading in the galvanometer G, the free end of J is to be placed from B at :

(1) 36 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 24 cm

15) In the circuit shown, the point 'B' is earthed. The potential at the point 'A' is :

(1) 14V
(2) 24V
(3) 26V
(4) 50V

16) In the figure shown, the total resistance between A and B is

(1) 12

(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

17) For the circuit shown, the value of current(I) at time t =1.0s, 2.5s and 3.5s will respectively be
________ A.
[Voltage distribution V(t) is shown by Fig. (1) and the circuit is shown in Fig. (2)]

(1) 2.5, 0, 2.5

(2) -2.5, 0, -2.5
(3) -2.5, 0, 2.5
(4) 2.5, 0, -2.5

18) Five equal resistances each of value R are connected in as shown in figure. The

equivalent resistance of the network

(1) Between the points B and D is R

(2) Between the points B and D is 2R
(3) Between the points A and C is R
Between the points A and C is
(4)

19) Two bulbs marked 100 W, 220 V and 200 W, 220 V are connected in series and the combination
is now connected across a 220 V main supply. Total power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 80 W
(2) 40 W
(3) 33.5 W
(4) 66.67 W
20)

A charged parallel plate capacitor is given. Choose most appropriate graph of potential of it. (K1 >
K2)

(Where K represent dielectric constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A 100μF capacitor is charged to 200 volt. It is discharged through a 2 ohm resistance. The
amount of heat generated will be :-

(1) 2 Joule
(2) 4 Joule
(3) 0.2 Joule
(4) 0.4 Joule

22) Total capacity of the system of capacitors shown in the following figure between the points A and
B is:

(1) 1 μF
(2) 2 μF
(3) 3 μF
(4) 4 μF

23) The charge on 4 µF capacitor in the given circuit is .... in µC :-

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 32

24) Half of the space between a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a medium of dielectric constant
K parallel to the plates. If initially the capacity was C, then the new capacity will be:

(1) C (K+1)/2
(2) 2KC/(1+k)
(3) CK/(1+k)
(4) KC

25) The equivalent capacitance of the circuit across the terminals A and B is equal to:

(1) 0.5 μF
(2) 2 μF
(3) 1 μF
(4) None of these

26) If initial charge on all the capacitors were zero, work done by the battery in the circuit shown is-
(1) 0.2 mJ
(2) 200 mJ
(3) 0.4 mJ
(4) 400 mJ

27) Net resistance between X and Y is –

(1) 5 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 15 Ω
(4) 60 Ω

28) A 3 μF capacitor is charged to a potential of 300 V and 2 μF capacitor is charged to 200 V. The
capacitors are then connected in parallel with plates of opposite polarities joined together. What
amount of charge will flow, when the plates are so connected?

(1) 1300 μC
(2) 800 μC
(3) 600 μC
(4) 300 μC

29)

Find the potential difference across the capacitor in volts.

(1) 4 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 1 V
(4) 8 V
30) Assertion (A) : If three capacitors of capacitances C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in series and

parallel, then Cparallel > Cseries. Reason (R) : Cseries= C1 + C2 + C3 and

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

31) In the circuit of adjoining figure the current through 12Ω resister will be :-

(1) 1 A

(2)

(3)

(4) 0A

32) Consider the situation shown in figure. Find the heat developed in the connecting wires, when

the switch S is closed. (C is the capacitance of capacitor)

(1) CV2

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Q1 charge is given to one plate of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and Q2 charge is given
to other plate. The potential difference developed between two plates is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Five parallel infinite wires are placed at the vertices of a regular polygon. Four wires carry
current I0 each. While the fifth wire carries current 3I0 as shown. The resultant magnetic field at the

centre O is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing in negative z direction.
Branch PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F, force

on branch PQR is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD of centre 'O'. ∠AOC
= 60°. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents in ABC and
ADC respectively, the ratio is

(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 1/5

37) Two long straight parallel wires, 10 cm apart, carry currents of 5 A each in opposite directions.
Then the magnetic field at a point midway between them is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2 × 10–4 T
(3) 4 × 10–5 T
(4) 5 × 10–4 T

38) The current loop ABCDEA formed by two circular segments of radii R1 and R2 carries a current i
[Fig.]. Find the magnetic field at the common centre O. What will be the field if angle α = 90° ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) What is the magnetic field at the centre O of the arc in the figure ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two wires are bent (shown as joint-circle) with radius r (in xy plane). The upper half has
resistance of 2R Ω and the lower half of R Ω. A current I is passed into circle as shown. The magnetic

field at centre is :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

41) All straight wires are very long. Both AB and CD arc of the same circle, both subtending right

angles at the centre O. Then the magnetic field at O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A long straight wire, carrying current I, is bent at its midpoint to form an angle of 45º. Magnetic

field at point P, distance R from point of bending is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Two long parallel wires carrying equal currents in opposite directions are placed at x = ± a
parallel to y-axis with z = 0. Magnetic field at origin O is B1 and at P (2a, 0, 0) is B2. Then B1/B2 is :-

(1) 3

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

44) In given figure, infinite conducting rings each having current i in the direction shown are placed
concentrically in the same plane as shown in the figure. The radii of rings are r, 2r, 22r, 23r, ....., .

The magnetic field at the centre of rings will be

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) For the given figure. The magnetic field at central point ‘p’ will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4µ0π

CHEMISTRY

1) Which one is correct statement?

(1)
> CH3 – CH2 – Cl [Rate of SN2]

(2)
[Rate of SN1]

(3)

[Rate of SN1]

(4)

[Rate of SN2]

2) Which of the following cannot undergo E2 reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

3) Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by :-

(1) Swart reaction

(2) Finkelestin reaction
(3) Sand meyer's reaction
(4) 1 & 3 both

4) In the given reaction

Product (Major)
The product will be

(1) Cis-2-butene
(2) Trans-2-butene
(3) 2-butyne
(4) Buta-1, 3-diene

5) Which of the following compound is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis
of their reactivity with cone. HCl + ZnCl2, An hydroxy known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

7) Most reactive toward acid catalyst dehydration is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The reaction of an alkyl halide with sodium alkoxide forming ether is known as :

(1) Wurtz reaction

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Williamson synthesis
(4) Kolbe reaction

9) Name of the reaction given below :

(1) Koble reaction

(2) Carbylamine reaction
(3) Reimer Tiemann reaction
(4) Haloform reaction

10) Which of the following is the product formed when phenol is treated with dilute nitric acid?

(1) o-Nitrophenol
(2) p-Nitrophenol
(3) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
(4) 1& 2 both

11) Depression in freezing point of 0.01 molal aqueous HCOOH solution is 0.02046°C. Assuming
molality equal to molarity and Kf(H2O) = 1.86°C kg mol–1 then pH of HCOOH solution is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) None of these

12) Two different solutions were prepared by dissolving sucrose in water having concentration of 1m

and 2m respectively. Value of (T2–T1) will be:- [Kb = 0.52 K Kg. m–1]

(1) 1 K
(2) 1.86 K
(3) 0.52 K
(4) 1.86° C

13) An aqueous dilute solution containing non-volatile solute boils at 100.052°C. What is the molality
of solution?

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.001
(4) 1.0

14) 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionized. The boiling point of the solution
is (Kb for H2O = 0.52 K Kg/mol) :-

(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25 K

15) Match List - I with List - II.

 List - I List - II

0.001M Na2SO4 and

(a) (i) Hypotonic solution
0.003M glucose at same temperature

0.003M Na2SO4 is _____ with

(b) (ii) iCRT
0.003M glucose at same temperature

0.001M Na2SO4 is _____ with

(c) (iii) Isotonic solution
0.01M glucose at same temperature.

(d) Osmotic pressure (iv) Hypertonic solution

(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

16) An ideal solution is prepared by mixing two volalite liquids A and B. If the vapour pressure of the
solution is 180 mm of Hg, then the mole fraction of B in vapour phase is
(PA°=150 mm of Hg and PB° = 200 mm of Hg)

(1) 0.67
(2) 0.34
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.50

17) How many of the following statements are correct :-

(a) Solution which obeys Raoults law over the entire range of concentration are called ideal
solutions.
(b) Henry's law is applicable for dilute solutions.
(c) Relative lowering in vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solvent.
(d) Both the components of azeotrope boil at constant temperature.
(e) Raoult's law is a special case of Henry's law.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Consider the following statement and select the correct option :-
(A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solvent over a solution is equal to the mole fraction
of a non volatile solute present in the solution.
(B) Decrease in vapour pressure of water by adding 1 mole of sucrose to 1 kg of water is nearly
similar to that produced by adding 1 mole of urea to the same quantity of water at same
temperature.
(C) The solutions that shows large negative deviation from Raoult's law form minimum boiling
azeotrope at specific composition.

(1) (A) and (C)

(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (B)
(4) Only (A)

19) On mixing 10 mL of acetone with 40 mL of chloroform, the total volume of the solution is:

(1) < 50 mL
(2) > 50 mL
(3) = 50 mL
(4) Cannot be predicted

20) The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of barium chloride, sulphuric acid and hydrochloric
acid are 280, 860 and
426 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of barium sulphate is
________S cm2 mol–1(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(1) 222
(2) 211
(3) 266
(4) 288

21) The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm2eq–1 and at
infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2eq–1. The dissociation constant of this acid is :-

(1) 1.25 × 10–5

(2) 1.25 × 10–6
(3) 6.25 × 10–4
(4) 1.25 × 10–4

22) Resistance of a decimolar solution between two electrodes 0.02 meter apart and 0.0004 m2 in
area was found to be 50 ohm. Specific conductance (k) is :-

(1) 0.1 S m–1

(2) 1 S m–1
(3) 10 S m–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 S m–1

23) When 0.004 M Na2SO4 (aq.) solution is isotonic with 0.008 M glucose (aq.) solution, the degree of
dissociation of Na2SO4 is :-

(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 85%

24) If mole fraction of sugar in its aqueous solution is 0.4 then its molality will be :-
(1) 12.5
(2) 21.5
(3) 37
(4) 2.4

25) What is the [OH–] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL
of 0.10M Ba(OH)2 ?

(1) 0.10 M
(2) 0.12 M
(3) 0.40 M
(4) 0.0050M

26) Given below the following statements:-

Statement I : Cryoscopic constant is the elevation in boiling point of one molal solution.
Statement II : Cryoscopic constant is the freezing point of one molal solution.
Statement III : Ebulloscopic constant is the depression in freezing point of one molal solution.
Identify the T/F as initials?

(1) FTF
(2) FFF
(3) FTT
(4) TFT

27) At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution of two volatile liquids A and B is given
by the equation
PS = 120 – 80XB (XB = mole fraction of B)
Vapour pressure of pure A and B at the same temperature are respectively :-

(1) 120, 80
(2) 120, 200
(3) 120, 40
(4) 80, 40

28) 8 g of C6H5 COOH dissolved in 100 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal
to 1.62 K. If molal depression constant of benzene is 4.9 K kg mol–1. The percentage association of
benzoic acid will be approximately. (Suppose benzoic acid forms dimer in benzene)

(1) 50 %
(2) 75 %
(3) 85 %
(4) 99 %

29) Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous glucose solution is 0.6 K and kb for water is 0.52 K/m.
The mole fraction of glucose in the solution is ?

(1) 0.02
(2) 0.03
(3) 0.01
(4) 0.04

30) Maximum boiling point will be shown by :

(1) 0.1m Na3PO4

(2) 0.1m BaCl2
(3) 0.1m NaCl
(4) 0.1m CH3COOH

31) Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators?

(1) Methyl alcohol

(2) Glycol
(3) Nitrophenol
(4) Ethyl alcohol

32) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and (in mol L–1). Correct setting

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)

(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

33) The conductivity of saturated solution of Ag3PO4 9 × 10–6 Sm–1 and equivalent conductance is 1.5
× 10–4 Sm2 eq–1. Calculate Ksp of Ag3PO4.

(1) 432 × 10–20

(2) 432 × 10–28
(3) 432 × 10–3
(4) None of these

34) 0.9 g of a hydrocarbon with molecular formula H2(CH2)n is when dissolved in 180 g of solvent
freezes at 8.48°C. If freezing point of pure solvent is 9°C, calculate molecular formula of
hydrocarbon. (Kf = 12).

(1) C6H14
(2) C8H18
(3) CH4
(4) C3H8

35) 50 ml solution will exactly neutralise. Which of the following solution :

(1)

(2)
25 ml CsOH solution

(3)
50 ml HCl solution

(4)
Solution

36) Different gases have different KH values at the same temperature. Their solubilities will be in the
order.

Gas KH/kbar

He 114.97

H2 69.16

N2 76.48

O2 34.86
(1) O2 > H2 > N2 > He
(2) He > N2 > H2 > O2
(3) He > H2 > N2 > O2
(4) O2 > H2 > He > N2

37) The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0×105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure is

(1) 4.0×10–4
(2) 4.0×10–5
(3) 5.0×10–4
(4) 4.0×10–6

38) For which electrolyte, the evaluation of is not possible by extrapolation of vs curves to
zero concentration?

(1) KCl
(2) NH4OH
(3) NaCl
(4) K2SO4
39) Match the terms given in column-I with their units in column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Molar conductivity (P) Sm–1

(B) Conductance (Q) Sm2mol–1

(C) Conductivity (R) m–1

(D) Cell constant (S) ohm–1(S)

(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R
(3) A → S, B → Q, C → R, D → P
(4) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R

40) A, B, C, D are four liquids having B.P, 40°C, 90°C, 100°C, 150°C respectively. Which will have
highest vapour pressure at same temperature ?

(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A

41) If 20% (W/V) of a urea solution whose volume is 200 mL is mixed with 30% (W/V) of glucose
solution whose volume is 300 mL, then %(W/V) of the final solution is :-

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 26%
(4) 27%

42) Volume strength of H2O2 solution represents :-

(1) Volume of H2O2 solution

(2) Moles of H2O2 solution
(3) Volume of O2 in litre obtained from 1 litre H2O2 solution at STP
(4) Volume of H2 gas obtained at NTP

43) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is
100Ω. The conductivity of this solution is 1.29 S m–1. Resistance of the same cell when filled with
0.02 M of the same solution is 520Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.02 M solution of the electrolyte will
be :-

(1) 124 × 10–4S m2 mol–1

(2) 1240 × 10–4S m2 mol–1
(3) 1.24 × 10–4S m2 mol–1
(4) 12.4 × 10–4S m2 mol–1
44)

The specific conductances in ohm–1 cm–1 of four electrolytes P, Q, R and S are given in brackets :
P (5.0 × 10–5) Q (7.0 × 10–8)
R (1.0 × 10–10) S (9.2 × 10–3)
The one that offers highest resistance to the passage of electric current is

(1) P
(2) S
(3) R
(4) Q

45) Which of the following is correct ?

Conductivity of a solution decreases with dilution, whereas molar conductivity increases with
(1)
dilution
Conductivity of a solution increases with dilution, whereas molar conductivity decreases with
(2)
dilution
(3) Both conductivity and molar conductivity decrease with dilution
(4) Both conductivity and molar conductivity increase with dilution

BIOLOGY

1) According to Neo-darwinism theory which one of the following is not a source of genetic
variation?

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Hybridization
(3) Mutation
(4) Competition

2) Random change of gene/allelic frequencies in a population merely by chance is called :-

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Sewall Wright effect
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Gene recombination

3) Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually
reproducing organism?

(1) Chromosomal aberration

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene Recombination
(4) Mutation

4) What was the feeding habit of orignal species of Darwin finches ?

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Piscivorous
(3) Cactus eater
(4) Seed eater

5) Mutations are while Darwinian variations are

A → Small, directional
(1)
B → Random, directionless
A → Small and directional
(2)
B → Random and directional
A → Random and directionless
(3)
B → Small and directional
A → Random and directional
(4)
B → Small and directional

6) Evolution is not a directed process in sense of determinism. It is a stochastic process which is

based on :-

(1) Chance events in nature & chance mutation in organism

(2) Use and disuse of organs
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Mutation only

7) Pouched mammals in Australia survived and flourished because of -

(1) Large body size

(2) Lack of competition from any other mammals
(3) Many varieties on the same island
(4) Divergent evolution

8) A population is in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium for a gene with only two alleles. If the gene
frequency of an allele A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is

(1) 0.21
(2) 0.42
(3) 0.36
(4) 0.7

9)

In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of homozygous recessive individual is represented by :-

(1) 2q
(2) p2
(3) q
(4) q2
10) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium law states that the relative frequency of alleles in the population of
sexually reproducing organisms remains constant from generation to generation if a. The population
is large enough
b. random mating occurs
c. No mutation occurs
d. No migration occurs

(1) only a, b & c are correct

(2) only a, b & d are correct
(3) only a, b, c, d are correct
(4) only b, c & d are correct

11) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II

Column-I Column-II

Invertebrates
A. (i) 350 mya
formed

Sea weeds &

B. few plants (ii) 65 mya
existed

Jawless fish
C. (iii) 500 mya
evolved

Extinction of
D. (iv) 320 mya
Dinosaurs
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i,D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

12) Excess use of pesticides has resulted in the selection of resistant varieties in much lesser time
scale. This is an example of :

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Evolution by anthropogenic action
(4) Coevolution

13)

The steady increase in body size that occurred during evolution of horse is an example of _______
type of natural selection.

(1) Stabilizing
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Discontinuous
14) Consider the four statements (a-d) about the phenomenon of industrial melanism in England and
select the option which includes incorrect statements only :
(a) Before industrialization white winged moths were more than dark winged moths
(b) After industrialization dark winged moths were more than white winged moths
(c) Predators can’t spot a moth against a contrasting background
(d) Dark winged moths survived due to thick growth of white coloured lichen on trees
Options:

(1) Statements (a) and (b)

(2) Statements (a) and (c)
(3) Statements (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (c) and (d)

15) Which of the following statement represent the above figure -

(1) More individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve
(2) More individuals acquire value other than the mean value & peak shift in one direction
(3) More individuals acquire mean character value
(4) Both (1) & (2)

16) Animal breeding and plant breeding programmes are the examples of :

(1) Co-evolution
(2) artificial selection
(3) mutation
(4) natural selection

17) The cluster of species formed on Galapagos islands are example of all, except

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Founder's effect
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Sympatric speciation

18) Which of the following statements are incorrect for Neanderthal man :-
(a) They had a brain size of 900 C.C
(b) They evolved in near east and central Asia between 10,0000-40,000 years back
(c) They used animal skin to protect body
(d) They made colour painting in cave

(1) Statements (b), (c)

(2) Statement (a), (d)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

19) Which of the following is not correct regarding the primate whose fossils have been discovered
in Ethiopia and Tanzania

(1) Man-like primates walked in Southern Africa

(2) They were probably no taller than 4 feet
(3) They walked upright about 3-4 MYA
(4) They are connecting link between apes and man

20) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The skull of adult chimpanzee is like that of modern adult human
(2) The skull of baby chimpanzee is like that of modern adult human
(3) The skull of baby chimpanzee is exactly similar to that of adult chimpanzee
(4) The skull of baby human is exactly similar to that adult chimpanzee

21) The chronological order of human evolution from recent to the early is :-

(1) Homo sapien sapien → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Ramapithecus
(2) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapien sapien
(3) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapien sapien
(4) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapien sapien

22) Which of the following statements are correct regarding origin and evolution of man ?
(i) About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing.
(ii) Homo erectus probably lived about 1.5 mya which had a large brain around between 650-800cc.
(iii) Pre-historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.
(iv) Agriculture came around 10,000 years back.

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

23) According to oparin and Haldane first form of life comes from :-

(1) Pre-existing living organism

(2) Pre existing non living inorganic compound
(3) Pre existing non living organic molecule like R.N.A and protein
(4) Pre existing non living organic molecule like DNA

24) Statement-I : Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represents homology.

Statement-II : Homology does not indicate common ancestry.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

25) Statement-I : Single step large mutation is saltation.

Statement-II : Saltation was the idea of Darwin.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

26) Statement-I : Branching descent and natural selection are two key concept of Darwinian
Theory of Evolution.
Statement-II : Natural selection is based on certain observation which are factual.

(1) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II correct.
(3) Statement-I correct & Statement-II correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II incorrect.

27) Statement-I : Embryological support of evolution was proposed by Ernst Heckel.

Statement-II : Von Baer noted that embryos always passes through the adult stages of other
animals.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

28) Statement-I : The fitness according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive
fitness.
Statement-II : Those who are better fit in the environment leave less progeny than others.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

29) Statement-I : Wing of bat and flipper of whale are analogous organs.
Statement-II : Analogy is based on divergent evolution.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
30) Identify A,B and C from above figure :-

(1) A-sauropsid, B-therapsid, C-pelycosaurs

(2) A-synapsids, B-pelycosaurs, C-therapsid
(3) A-sauropsid, B-thecodonts, C-pelycosaurs
(4) A-synapsids, B-pelycosaurs, C-thecodonts

31)

Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) caused by a protozoa is :

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital herpes
(3) Trichomoniasis
(4) Chlamydiasis

32) Which is not a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Lactational ammenorrhoea

33) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-

(1) Killing the sperms in uterus

(2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova.
(3) Preventing ovulation
(4) Killing the ova
34)

Copper ion released from copper releasing intra uterine devices(IUDs)

(1) Prevent Ovulation

(2) make uterus suitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of ovum
(4) suppress sperm molility

35) ICSI is a procedure in which :-

(1) A sperm is directly injected into the ovum

(2) Embryo transfer into the test tube
(3) Semen introduced into the vagina
(4) Transfer of an ovum into the fallopian tube

36) Read the following statements

(a) Once a week pill
(b) Non-steroidal preparation
(c) Inhibits ovulation
(d) High contraceptive value
(e) Side effect seen
(f) Male contraceptive pill
How many statements are correct about SAHELI:-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are correct

37) Assertion : Use of condoms has increased in recent years.

Reason : Condoms provides additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and
AIDS.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion : Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle are called fertile period.
Reason : Chances of fertilization during 10 to 17 are very high.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
39) Assertion : ZIFT is zygote intra fallopian transfer.
Reason : Embryo (more than 8 blastomere) is transfer to uterus to complete its further
development.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) Assertion : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 1-2 years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called infertility.
Reason : IVF followed by embryo transfer is commonly known as the 'Test Tube Baby' programme.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

41) Different types of assisted reproductive techniques are given below ?

(a) ZIFT (b) IUT
(c) ICSI (d) GIFT (e) AI
Select correct type of fertilisation in the above techniques :–

(1) In vitro → d,b,c In vivo → a,e

(2) In vitro → a,b,c In vivo → d,e
(3) In vitro → d,e In vivo → a,b,c
(4) In vitro → a,c,e In vivo → b,d

42) If male is impotent (erectile dysfunction) and female is normal, then which of the following
technique is preferred as an ART ?

(1) IUT
(2) ZIFT
(3) GIFT
(4) A.I.

43) Vasectomy is a method of sterilization in which:

(1) A part of fallopian tube is removed or tied up

(2) A small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(3) Testes of male are surgically removed
(4) Ovaries of females are surgically removed

44) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

(1) Sex of the foetus

(2) Down syndrome
(3) Jaundice
(4) Klinefelter syndrome

45) What is the correct arrangement of periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological
time scale ?

(1) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

46)

Read the following four statement (A-D)

(A) Flowers are the morphological and
embryological marvels and the site
of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anther is attached to proximal end
of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent
the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are
variable in flowers of different species

How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

47) List of some plants is given below.

Papaya, Date palm, Castor, Coconut, Maize
How many are dioecious plants?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

48) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called.

(1) Xenogamy
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Chasmogamy

49) One advantage of cleistogamy is :-

(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity
(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

50) In a tetramerous flower with six stamens, 30 pollen mother cells are present in each
microsporangium then how many pollen grains will be produced by this flower?

(1) 120
(2) 2400
(3) 480
(4) 2880

51) Find the incorrect set :-

(1) Megasporangium – Micropyle – Basal region

(2) Egg apparatus – Synergids – Filiform apparatus
(3) Maize – Tassels/ears – Styles and stigmas
(4) Vallisnaria – Hydrophily – On surface of water

52) Given below is the diagramatic sketch of T.S. of mature anther. Identify the labelled parts and
select the right option

Part A Part B Part C Part D

1 Endothecium Sporogenous Tissue Tapetum Connective

2 Tapetum Sporogenous Tissue Endothecium Connective

3 Endothecium Connective Tapetum Sporogenous Tissue

4 Tapetum Connective Endothecium Sporogenous Tissue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53)

If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, Which of the following results would be a likely
effect on the cell ?

(1) There would be an increase in the amount of DNA produced during replication
(2) The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.
(3) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
(4) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.

54) Two genes A & B present on same chromosome show 40% recombination, then what will be the
percentage of gamete (Ab) for the plant having genotype AaBb in cis configuration ?

(1) 40 %
(2) 80 %
(3) 20 %
(4) 10 %

55) In a cross between what is the probability of offsprings who are

phenotypically similar to female parent ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56) Which is true for sporopollenin :-

(1) Most resistant organic material

(2) Tolerate high temperature
(3) Tolerate strong alkali and acid
(4) All of these

57) Embryo sac is to ovule as _____ is to a pollen sac.

(1) Stamen
(2) Filament
(3) Pollen grain
(4) Androecium

58) Given structure marks which stage of dicot embryo development.

(1) Globular embryo
(2) Heart shape embryo
(3) Mature embryo
(4) Proembryo

59) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B] :-

(1) [A] Embryo, [B] Scutellum

(2) [A] Scutellum, [B] Embryo
(3) [A] Endosperm, [B] Scutellum
(4) [A] Scutellum, [B] Endosperm

60) Give the answer with help of figures given below-

(1) a-Typical anatropus ovule

(2) b-Multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil of hibiscus
(3) c-Multicarpellary, apocarpus gynoecium of michelia
(4) d-Multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil of papaver

61) Identify the given below diagram-

(1) Epiblast
(2) Coleoptile
(3) Coleorhiza
(4) Typical dicot embryo

62) Assertion (A) : Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.
Reason (R) : Each cell of sporogenous tissue is a potential pollen or microspore mother cells.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

63) Ploidy of ovary, egg, pollen grain, male gamete and zygote are respectively :-

(1) 2n, n, 2n, n, 2n

(2) 2n, n, 2n , 2n , 2n
(3) 2n, n, n, 2n, 2n
(4) 2n, n, n, n, 2n

64) Given diagram show Morgan experiment between body colour and eye colour, what will be true
for this experiment :-

(1) The strength of linkage between y and w is higher

(2) Crossing over between y and w is higher
(3) The strength of linkage between y and w is low
(4) All the above

65) When a cross is made between a tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and a tall plant with green
seeds (Ttyy), what is true regarding the proportions of phenotypes of the offspring in F1 generation:-

Proportion of Proportion of
Tall and Green Dwarf and Green

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) In TtggRr × TtGgRr, the percentage of recessive individuals for all genes will be :-

(1) 12
(2) 6.5
(3) 25
(4) 3.1

67) In which type of inheritance the results of reciprocal cross will not remain same?

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Quantitative inheritance
(3) Sex linkage & cytoplasmic inheritance
(4) Dominance or co-dominance

68) Which cross yields red, white and pink flowers variety of dog flower:–

(1) RR × Rr
(2) Rr × RR
(3) Rr × Rr
(4) Rr × rr

69) Assertion : Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by failure of the body to
oxidise an amino acid phenyllalanine to tyrosine because of an defective enzyme
Reason : It results in presence of phenylalanine in urine

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

70) Mendel's law of segregration is applicable to

(1) Dihybrid cross only

(2) Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses
(3) Monohybrid cross only
(4) Dihybrid but not monohybrid cross

71) Thalassemia differ from sickle-cell anemia, the former is ____________ problem while later is
____________ problem.

(1) Qualitative, Quantitative

(2) Qualitative, Qualitative
(3) Quantitative, Qualitative
(4) Quantitative, Quantitative

72) Statement A: Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.

Statement B: Mendelian dihybrid test cross has same phenotype and genotype ratio.

(1) Only statement A is incorrect

(2) Only statement B is incorrect
(3) Statement A and B are correct
(4) Statement A and B are incorrect

73)

Match the following:

Column - I Column - II

Affected
(A) (i)
individuals

Parents with
female child
(B) (ii)
affected with
disease

Normal
(C) (iii)
individuals

Sex
(D) (iv)
unspecified

(1) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i

(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii

74) In a plant species, flower colour yellow dominant over white and fruit shape round is dominant
over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines one having yellow flower and round
fruit and another with white flower and elongated fruit. About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. All
plant of F1 were allowed to self fertilize and about 960 plants survived in F2 . If the traits follow
Mendelian inheritance the number of plant would have yellow flower and round fruit in F1 and F2 are
respectively :-

(1) 20, 960

(2) 20, 540
(3) 10, 180
(4) 10, 60

75) Which of following is true for ABO blood group :-

(1) 6-homozygous genotypes and 4-phenotypes

(2) 3 homozygous genotypes and 4 phenotype
(3) 3 heterozygous genotypes and 6 phenotype
(4) 6 genotypes and 6 phenotypes

76) Drosophila has four pairs of chromosome. How many linkage group does it have :-

(1) Eight
(2) Four
(3) One less than the pair of chromosome
(4) One more than the pairs of chromosome

77) Cytosine make up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately
what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine ?

(1) 8%
(2) 16%
(3) 42%
(4) 58%

78) In an experiment, individual homozygous for 'ab' gene, were crossed with wild type. The F1
hybrid was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :-
++ / ab → 896
ab / ab → 880
+ a / ab → 108
+ b/ab → 116
Calculate the distance between a and b gene

(1) 22.4 cM
(2) 44 cM
(3) 11.2 cM
(4) 45 cM

79) Read the following statements and select the correct option :-

(1) Discontinous DNA strand is synthesized on DNA template strand with polarity 3 '→ 5'
(2) Euchromatin is loosely packed and stains dark.
Process of transformation is not affected by RNase, protease and lipase enzyme but is affected
(3)
by DNase enzyme.
(4) Hexose sugar is found in nucleic acid

80) In the following representation A and B is - Streptococcus S Strain → injected into Mice → A
Streptococcus R Strain → injected into Mice → B

A → Mice die
(1)
B → Mice live
A → Mice die
(2)
B → Mice die
A → Mice live
(3)
B → Mice live
 A → Mice live
(4)
B → Mice die

81) Which of the following individuals will inherit an X-linked allele from a man who carries it?

(1) All of his daughters

(2) Half of his daughters
(3) All of his sons
(4) All of his children

82) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

Options :-

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

84) In the DNA double helix, purine always paired with pyrimidine base through H-bonds that lead
to :-

(1) The antiparallel nature

(2) Unifrom length in all DNA
(3) Uniform width throughout DNA
(4) The semiconservative nature

85) Assertion: DNA acts as the genetic material with some exception.
Reason: RNA acts as genetic material in all viruses.
(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

86) Given below structure represent :-

(1) Nucleotide of DNA

(2) Nucleotide of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleoside of RNA

87) What would be the correct base sequence in mRNA for the given DNA strand ?
5'-AATGCCTTAAGC-3'

(1) 5'-AAUGCCUUAAGC-3'
(2) 5'-UUACGGAATTCG-3
(3) 3'-UUACGGAAUUCG-5'
(4) 3'-AAUGCCUUAUCG-5'

88) Nucleosome consists of all, except:-

(1) 400 nucleotides

(2) Basic proteins
(3) Lysine and aspartic acid rich protiens
(4) Histone octamer

89)

A single stranded DNA is present in :-

(1) TMV
(2) Salmonella
(3) ϕ × 174
(4) Bacteria

90) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. transcription unit ?

(1) The terminator is located towards 3'-end (downstream) of the coding strand
(2) The promoter is located towards 5'-end (upstream) of the coding strand
(3) Promoter results transcription termination
(4) A transcription unit is a segment of dsDNA
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 3 1 1 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Req =

iTotal =

iAB = iTotal

iAC = iTotal
iBC = iAC – iAB (from C to B)

= =

2)

Resistance of 1 bundle =

Resistance of 2 bundle =

∴ Req =

3) In the given circuit 4 KW and 2 KW are in series. This combination is in parallel with 3 KW
resistance. Their effective resistance is

4)
5)

Resistance between A and B

So, equivalent resistance of the circuit

Req =
Current drawn from the cell

Reading of voltmeter i.e.

potential difference across

6) clearly, from graph

Current, at t = 4s [Since q is constant]

7)
8) Given G = 10 Ω
Ig = 3mA
I = 8A
In case of conversion of galvanometer into ammeter.

We have IgG = (I – Ig)S

= 3.75 ×10–3Ω

9) Resistance,

10) We also know that resistances 2 Ω and 3 Ω (both in upper arm) are connected in parallel.

Therefore, their equivalent resistance .

Now, R' and 2.8 D are in series combination. Therefore, equivalent resistance of the circuit,
R = R' + 2.8 = 1.2 + 2.8 = 4 Ω
We also know that current drawn in the circuit,

Therefore, potential difference across 2 Ω resistance,

V = IR' = 1.5 × 1.2 = 1.8 V

Thus, current in 2 Ω resistance

11)

12) When these 3 capacitors are joined in series, if p.d. between free plates is V'
∴ V' = (10 + 10 + 10) V
∴ V' = 30V
13)

14)
8 (x) = 12(60 – x)
2x = 180 – 3x 5x = 180 x = 36 cm

15) Current in the given circuit

Potential difference between A and B

16) The last two resistances are out of circuit. Noe 8 is in parallel with (1 + 1 + 4 + 1) .

∴R=8 || 8 = = 4 ; RAB = 4 + 2 + 2 = 8

17) From graph (figure 1) voltage at t = 1.0 s , V =2.5V

At t=2.5s, V= 5V
At t=3.5s, V=7.5V

Current,
18)
Between A and C circuit becomes equivalent to balanced Wheatstone bridge so RAC = R.

19)

When supplied voltage is equal to rated voltage then in series combination, power is given by

0
20) , Electric field in a dielectric falls to where 'E ' is electric field in free space.

21)

C = 100μf V = 200V

Heat generated =

22) D = ∈0KE =

23)

24) ≡
25)

26) W Battery = V Battery × Q transfered

= V × CV
= CV2
= (4mF) (10 V)2
= 4 × 10–4J
= O.4 mJ

27) Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the net resistance between point X and Y in a complex resistive network
involving a combination of series and parallel resistors.
Concept:
To find net resistance, reduce the circuit step-by-step using series and parallel combinations.
Resistors in series add directly; in parallel, we reciprocal sum.
Formula:
Series: Req = R1 + R2 + ....

Parallel:
Final Answer: 15Ω

28)

VCM =

= = 100 V
Qflow = Qinitial – Qfinal
= 3 × 10–6 × 300 – 3 × 10–6 × 100= 600 μC
29)

⇒ i1 =
⇒ VC = 8V

30)

Cparallel = C1 + C2 + C3 and

31) here
VA = VC
∴ no current flows between A and C
(i.e. through resistance of 12 Ω)

32)

33)

34)

If current in all wire are same, then magnetic field at centre will be zero.

35) Length PS = {r = radius of circular part of loop}

FPS = iℓB =
length PQR = 2 r
FPQR =

36) B1 = B2 =
∵ I1α1 = I2α2

so =1

37)

Magnetic field of two wires are in same direction.

=
= 4 × 10–5 T

38)

39) B=

f = 45 d =

⇒ B1 =

B2 = Bnet = 2B1 + B2 =

40)

41)

, B4 = 0, B6 = 0
Bnet =

42)

Here sin45°=
BP = B2 –B3
∴ x = R/

43)

44)
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46) > CH3—CH2—Cl

Rate of SN2

47) β-Hydrogen is absent.

48)

49)

50)

51) 1°,2°,3° Alcohol are distinguished by Lucas test on the basis of the time taken for turbidity
to appear

Reactivity of alcohol towards Lucas reagent

⇒ 3° > 2° > 1° Alcohol

52)
53) Williamson synthesis

54)

55)

56)

∴ ΔTf = iKfm
∴ 0.02046 = (1 + α)× 1.86 × 0.01 ⇒ α = 0.1
∴ (H+) = Cα = 0.01 × 0.1 = 10–3
∴ pH = – log(H+) = – log10–3 = 3

57) ΔTb = iKbm

T2 – T1 = 0.52 K

58)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the molality of a dilute aqueous solution
containing a non-volatile solute, given that its boiling point is slightly higher than pure water.
We need to use the boiling point elevation to determine how concentrated the solution is.

Underlying Concept: When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent like water, it causes
the boiling point of the solution to be higher than that of the pure solvent. This phenomenon is
known as boiling point elevation, a colligative property that depends on the number of solute
particles in the solution. The magnitude of boiling point elevation is directly proportional to
the molality of the solution.

Relevant Formulas: The formula used is , where is the boiling point

elevation (difference between solution boiling point and pure solvent boiling point), is the
ebullioscopic constant of the solvent, and is the molality of the solution in mol/kg.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Calculate as the difference in boiling points:

 2. Substitute values into the formula:

Tips and Tricks: Keep the units consistent and always subtract the pure solvent boiling point
from the solution's boiling point to find . Use known constants for the solvent.

Common Mistakes: Students may forget to convert Celsius differences to Kelvin (though for
temperature differences Celsius and Kelvin scales are the same), or they may mix up molality
with molarity.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like 0.01 or 0.001 molal underestimate the
effect of boiling point elevation given the constant. An answer of 1.0 molal overestimates the
effect, making the elevation far larger than observed.

59)

i = 1 + (n – 1)α
= 1 + (5 – 1) × 0.25
=2
ΔTb = iKbm
= 2 × 0.52 × 1
= 1.04
Tb = 373 + 1.04
= 374.04 K

60)

π = iCRT
(a) 0.001 M Na2SO4 ⇒ π1 = 3(0.001) RT
0.003 M Glucose ⇒ π2 = 1(0.003) RT
π1 = π2 (isotonic)
(b) 0.003 M Na2SO4 ⇒ π1 = 3(0.003) RT
0.003 M Glucose ⇒ π2 = 1(0.003) RT
π1 > π2 (Hypertonic)
(c) 0.001 M Na2SO4 ⇒ π1 = 3(0.001) RT
0.01 M Glucose ⇒ π2 = 1(0.01) RT
π1 < π2 (Hypotonic)
(d) Osmotic pressure
π = iCRT

61)

yA = yB =
 ...(1)
yA + yB = 1 ...(2)
substract eq. (1) - eq. (2)

62)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to determine how many among the given five
statements related to solutions and laws of vapor pressure are correct.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves understanding Raoult's law, Henry's law,
properties of ideal solutions, azeotropes, and the relationship between vapor pressure and
mole fraction in solutions.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Raoult's law is generally about solvent vapor pressure, while
Henry's law relates to gases dissolving in liquids. Also, note that azeotropes have unique
boiling behavior.

Common Mistakes: Confusing mole fraction of solvent with mole fraction of solute in vapor
pressure calculations, or assuming Henry's law applies for all concentrations instead of only
dilute solutions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Statement (c) is incorrect because relative lowering of
vapor pressure equals mole fraction of solute, not solvent. Misinterpreting this leads to wrong
conclusions.

63) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 11, 12, 15, Part-I

64) Acetone and chloroform forms hydrogen bonding so volume decreases.

65) From Kohlrausch's law

= +

= +

–2
= 280 + 860 – 2 (426)
= 288 S cm2 mol–1
66)

A. Question: The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho
cm2eq–1 and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2eq–1. Find the dissociation constant of this
acid.

B. Given Data:

A. Equivalent conductance of M/32 solution (Λm) = 8.0 mho cm2eq–1

B. Equivalent conductance at infinite dilution (Λ°m) = 400 mho cm2eq–1

C. Concentration of the solution = M/32

C. Concept: Kohlrausch's Law

D. Solution -

A. Kohlrausch's Law: For weak electrolytes, the degree of dissociation (α) can be
determined using the following equation: α = Λm / Λ°m

E. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate the degree of dissociation (α): α = Λm / Λ°m α = 8.0 mho cm2eq–1 / 400 mho
cm2eq–1 α = 0.02

B. Calculate the dissociation constant (Ka): Ka = (α²C) / (1 - α) Ka = (0.02)² (M/32) / (1 -

0.02) Ka = (4 × 10⁻⁴) (M/32) / 0.98 Ka ≈ 1.25 × 10⁻⁵ M

F. Final Answer: (1) The dissociation constant (Ka) of the weak monobasic acid is
approximately 1.25 × 10⁻⁵ M.

67)

Specific conductance (κ) =

68)

or 0.008 RT = i × 0.004 RT
i=2
 Na2SO4 ⇌ 2Na+ +
1–α 2α α
i = 1 + 2α = 2
α = 0.50
or 50 %

69)
∴ 2 mol sugar is dissolved in 54 g H2O

and molality

70) V1 = 20mL , N1 = M1 = 0.050

Ba(OH)2 ⇒ V2 = 30mL, N2 = 0.10 × 2
N2 = 0.20

[OH–] =

71)

Explain Question – Find true and false statements.

Concept – This question based on Cryoscopic constant (Kf), Ebullioscopic constant (Kb).

Solution –

Statement I: "Cryoscopic constant is the elevation in boiling point of one molal solution." - This is
False.
Cryoscopic constant relates to freezing point depression.
Statement II: "Cryoscopic constant is the freezing point of one molal solution." - This is False.
It's the depression in freezing point, not the freezing point itself.
Statement III: "Ebulloscopic constant is the depression in freezing point of one molal solution." –
This is False.
Ebullioscopic constant relates to boiling point elevation.

Final Answer – Option (2)

72)

Ps = 120 – 80 XB
For pure B, XB = 1, Ps = p°B = 40

For pure A, XB = 0, Ps = p°A = 120

73)
 So, % α = 99.2 %

74) NCERT Pg. # 51

75) Boiling point of solution ∝ (i × C)

76) Glycol is anti freezing agent which reduces freezing of solution

77) Out of HCl and NaCl, HCl show higher conductance due to lower mass of H+ than Na+.

78) 1.5 = 9 × 10–8 ×

⇒ N = 6 × 10–5

⇒ M= = = 2 × 10–5
Ksp = 2754
Ksp = 27 × (2 × 10–5)4
Ksp = 432 × 10–20

79) –ΔTf = 0.52 = 12 × × 1000

⇒ m2 = 115.4
Also molecular weight of hydrocarbon (M) = 2 + 14n

⇒ n= = =8
⇒ Formula is H2(CH2)8 = C8H18.

80) N1V1 = N2V2

81)

Question Explanation:

The question provides Henry's Law constant (KH) values for different gases at the same
temperature and asks us to determine the order of their solubilities.

Given Data:

Gas KH / kbar
He 114.97
H2 69.16
N2 76.48
O2 34.86

Concept:

Henry's Law: As discussed before, P = KH × x. However, we are dealing with solubility here.

Analysis:

A. Order of KH values (Highest to Lowest): He > N2 > H2 > O2

B. Order of Solubility (Highest to Lowest, opposite of KH order): O2 > H2 > N2 > He

Final Answer:

The correct answer is option 1 : O2 > H2 > N2 > He

82)

P = KH xgas
KH = 105 atm
5 = 105 xgas
xgas = 5 × 10–5

nair = 5 × 10–5 ×
= 5 × 10–5 × 10 = 5 × 10–4

= = 0.8 × 5 × 10–4 = 4 × 10–4

83) vs curves on extrapolating to zero concentration gives for strong electrolytes

but NH4OH is weak electrolyte.

84)

Explain the question

The question asks us to match terms related to electrochemistry (molar conductivity,

conductance, conductivity, and cell constant) with their corresponding units.

Concept :
 A. Molar Conductivity (Λm)

Formulas (for understanding the units)

A. Λm = κ/c (where κ is conductivity and c is concentration)

B. G = 1/R (where R is resistance)

C. κ = G * (l/A) (where l is length and A is area)

D. G = l/A*

Calculation (Matching) :

A. (A) Molar conductivity (Λm):

A. Conductivity (κ) has units of Sm⁻¹

B. Concentration (c) has units of mol m⁻³

C. Λm = κ/c => (Sm⁻¹) / (mol m⁻³) = Sm²mol⁻¹

D. (A) matches with (Q) Sm²mol⁻¹

B. (B) Conductance (G):

A. Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance (R).

B. Resistance has units of ohms (Ω).

C. Conductance has units of ohm⁻¹ (Ω⁻¹) or Siemens (S).

D. (B) matches with (S) ohm⁻¹ (S)

C. (C) Conductivity (κ):

 A. Conductivity is conductance per unit length and area.

B. κ = G * (l/A) => (S) * (m/m²) = Sm⁻¹

C. (C) matches with (P) Sm⁻¹

D. (D) Cell constant (G):*

A. Cell constant is the ratio of length to area (l/A).

B. G* = l/A => m/m² = m⁻¹

C. (D) matches with (R) m⁻¹

Hints :

A. Remember the definitions of each term and how they relate to each other.

B. Use the formulas to derive the units if you're unsure.

Final Answer :

The correct matching is:

(A) → (Q)

(B) → (S)

(C) → (P)

(D) → (R)

Therefore, the correct option is Option 2

85)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the four liquids, labeled A, B, C, and D with
boiling points 40°C, 90°C, 100°C, and 150°C respectively, has the highest vapor pressure
when all are at the same temperature.
Underlying Concept: Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by a vapor in equilibrium with
its liquid phase at a given temperature. A key relationship is that liquids with lower boiling
points generally have higher vapor pressures at the same temperature because they evaporate
more easily.

Tips and Tricks: To quickly decide which liquid has the highest vapor pressure, look for the
one with the lowest boiling point since vapor pressure and boiling point are inversely related.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to think that higher boiling point means higher
vapor pressure. Students might confuse boiling point with vapor pressure directly, rather than
understanding their inverse relationship.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices B, C, and D have higher boiling points than A,
meaning their vapor pressures at the same temperature would be lower than that of A.
Therefore, these options are incorrect.

86)

wglucose =

of final solution =

87) Question Explanation:

We are asked to determine what the volume strength of a hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) solution
represents.
Volume strength is a term used to describe the concentration of hydrogen peroxide in
solution.

Given:
The concept of volume strength is related to the amount of oxygen (O₂) released when
hydrogen peroxide decomposes.

Concept:
Volume strength of H₂O₂ refers to the volume of oxygen gas (O2) produced at STP by the
decomposition of 1 liter of hydrogen peroxide solution.
The decomposition reaction of hydrogen peroxide is:
2H2O2→ 2H2O + O2
From this, for every 2 moles of H2O2, 1 mole of O2 is produced.

Calculation:
The volume strength indicates how much oxygen is released at standard conditions (STP) from
a given volume of H2O2.

Final Answer:
Volume of O2 in liter obtained from 1 liter H2O2 solution at STP (Option 3).

88)
 1.29 =

=
= 12.4 × 10-3 Sm2 mol-1

89)

Explaining Question:
Identify the electrolyte with highest resistance (i.e., lowest specific conductance)
Concept: This question is based on Resistance ∝ 1 / Specific conductance
Solution:
Given specific conductance (S cm–1):

A. P: 5.0 × 10–5
B. Q: 7.0 × 10–8
C. R: 1.0 × 10–10
D. S: 9.2 × 10–3

90)

Explanation :- Identify correct statement

Concept :- This question is based on effect of dilution on conductivity and molar conductivity

Solution :- On diluting the eq. solution of electrolyte no. of ion per unit volume decreases
therefore conductivity decreases but over all no. of ions in the solution increases therefore
molar conductivity in creases.
Answer :- 1

BIOLOGY

91)

Competition

92) NCERT Pg # 121

93)

Gene Recombination
94)

Seed eater

95) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 135

96)

Chance events in nature & chance mutation in organism

97)

Lack of competition from any other mammals

98)

If the gene frequency of an allele A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is 0.42

99)

NCERT Page # 137(E), 147(H)

100)

a. The population is large enough

b. random mating occurs
c. No mutation occurs
d. No migration occurs

101) NCERT XIIth Pg.#138,139,140

102)

NCERT_XIIth Pg. No. 116

103)

NCERT Page # 136

104) NCERT(XII) Pg# 132 Para: 7.3

105) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 136,137

106)
 The correct answer is 2. artificial selection.

A. Artificial selection is the process by which humans selectively breed organisms with desirable
traits. This is done by choosing individuals with specific characteristics to be parents of the
next generation.

107)

Sympatric speciation

108)

(a) They had a brain size of 900 C.C

(d) They made colour painting in cave

109) Module-3 Pg # 148

110) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 141 / Fig. # 7.11

111)

Homo sapien sapien → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Ramapithecus

112)

Question Asking About:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the origin and evolution of man?

Given Data:
Four statements about human evolution are given.

Key Concept:
This question tests knowledge of human evolutionary history, including timelines, key species,
and cultural developments.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
(i) About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Rampithecus were existing: This is correct,
These are considered early ape-like ancestors in the primate lineage, although their exact
relationship to human ancestry is debated.
(ii) Home erectus probably lived about 1.5 mya which had a large brain around between
650-800 cc: This is partially incorrect. Homo erectus did live around 1.5 million years ago, but
their brain size was larger than 650-800 cc. That range is more typical of Homo habilis. Homo
erectus had cranial capacities closer to 900-1100 cc.
(iii) Pre-historic cave art developed about 18000 years ago: This is correct. This period aligns
with the upper Paleolithic and is when cave art like that found in Lascaux and Altamira was
created.
(iv) Agriculture came around 10000 years back and human settlements started. This is correct.
The development of agriculture during the Neolithic Revolution led to settled communities and
 the beginning of civilization.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

113) NCERT Page # 127, Para-7.1

114) The correct answer is option 1: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
Statement-I: Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represents homology.

A. Homology refers to structures that have a common evolutionary origin, even if they may have
different functions. They share a similar underlying structure due to shared ancestry.
B. In the case of thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita, both are modified stems. They
have a similar origin but serve different purposes: thorns for protection and tendrils for
support. This is a classic example of homology.

Statement-II: Homology does not indicate common ancestry.

A. This statement is incorrect. Homology is strong evidence for common ancestry. Structures that
are homologous share a common developmental pathway and are derived from a common
ancestral structure.

115) NCERT Page No. # 135

116) NCERT XII Page No. # 118

117) NCERT Page No. 113

118) NCERT Page No. 129

119) NCERT Page No. 131/143

120)

NCERT : Pg. # 123 (Fig. 6.10)

121)

Trichomoniasis

122)

Vasectomy
 123)

The correct answer is Option 3: Preventing ovulation.

A. Contraceptive oral pills (also known as birth control pills) primarily work by preventing
the release of an egg from the ovary (ovulation).
B. They contain hormones that mimic the natural hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle,
thereby preventing the hypothalamus from releasing hormones that trigger ovulation.

124)

suppress sperm molility

125)

Explanation:

ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is a procedure in which a single sperm is directly

injected into the egg (ovum) to facilitate fertilization. This technique is commonly used in
assisted reproductive technologies.
Correct Answer: (1). A sperm is directly injected into the ovum

126)

Three statements are correct.

127) NCERT Pg. # 60

128) NCERT XII Page # 44

129) Explanation: The Assertion is true because ZIFT involves transferring a zygote into the
fallopian tube.
The Reason is true as well but it more accurately describes embryo transfer (IVF or IUT),
where embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus for further
development. However, because the Reason is not explaining ZIFT specifically, but instead is
talking about a different procedure (embryo transfer), it is not a direct explanation of the
Assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

130) NCERT Pg # 65

131) NCERT Pg No. # 64

132)
 Question Asking About :
Asks which ART technique is suitable when a male has erectile dysfunction (impotence) and
the female is fertile.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

Since the male has erectile dysfunction, the most appropriate technique is to directly
introduce sperm into the female's reproductive tract. Therefore, Artificial Insemination (A.I.) is
the correct option. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4. A.I.

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 45

134) Jaundice is detected by valnes of Bile pigments in Blood.

135)

Allen module

136)

NCERT XII, Page # 20, 21

137) Explaining the Question : Question asking about the select dioecious plants according
to given list.
Concept : Pollination
Solution :
Dioecious plants : If male and female flowers are present on different plant and flowers are
unisexual. e.g. Papaya, date palm.
Monoecious plants : If both male and female flowers are present on same plant but flowers
are unisexual e.g. castor, coconut and maize.

138)

NCERT XII Page # 28

139)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28 (I para)

140) Answer: (4) 2880

Solution:

A. Each stamen has 4 microsporangia.

B. Total number of microsporangia in the flower = 6 stamens x 4 microsporangia = 24
microsporangia.
C. Each pollen mother cell (PMC) undergoes meiosis, producing 4 pollen grains.
D. Pollen grains produced per microsporangium = 30 PMCs x 4 = 120 pollen grains.
 E. Total pollen grains produced by the flower = 24 microsporangia x 120 pollen grains = 2880
pollen grains.

141)

NCERT XII pg.# 25,27,29,

para 2.2.2, 3

142) NCERT XII pg.#22, figure 2.3(a) (E)

143)

The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.

144)

20 percentage of gamete (Ab) for the plant having genotype AaBb in cis configuration

145)

146) NCERT 12 Page # 07

147)

Pollen grain

148)

Globular embryo

149) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 21, Fig. 1.15

150) NCERT-XIIth Pg # 25

151) NCERT-XIIth Pg # 35 (2.4.2)

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 22

153)

2n, n, n, n, 2n
 154)

The strength of linkage between y and w is higher

155)

Explanation: The cross is between TtYy (tall, yellow seeds) and Ttyy (tall, green seeds). The F1
generation will have the following possible phenotypes:

A. Tall and Green: In a proportion of 3/8.

B. Dwarf and Green: In a proportion of 1/8.

Thus, the proportions are 3/8 for Tall and Green, and 1/8 for Dwarf and Green.

The correct answer is 1: 1

156)

In TtggRr × TtGgRr, the percentage of recessive individuals for all genes will be 3.1

157) Module 3 page 201

158)

The inheritance of flower color in dog flowers ( also known as snapdragons) follows incomplete
dominance. In this case:
• R represents the red allele ( dominant but incompletely dominant),
• r represents the white allele.
When Rr (red) is crossed with Rr (red), the offspring will exhibit:
• RR (red),
• Rr (pink, due to incomplete dominance),
• rr (white).

159)

Assertion is true but reason is wrong

160)

Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses

161) Ncert page 74 and 75.

162) Allen module page 62.

163) Allen module.

164)

If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance the number of plant would have yellow flower and
round fruit in F1 and F2 are respectively 20, 540

165)

3 homozygous genotypes and 4 phenotype

166)

Four

167)

Approximately 8% of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine.

168)

the distance between a and b gene is 11.2 cM

169)

Process of transformation is not affected by RNase, protease and lipase enzyme but is affected
by DNase enzyme.

170) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

171)

All of his daughters

172)

Correct Answer: (3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

Explanation: The molecule shown is adenine, which is a purine base found in both DNA and
RNA.

173)

The correct answer is:

3. 1st, 3rd, 7th, and 9th
174)

The correct answer is:

3. Uniform width throughout DNA

175) A nucleotide of DNA

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

177)

5'-AAUGCCUUAAGC-3'

178) NCERT Pg # 99

179)

The correct answer is ϕ × 174

180)

NCERT XII Pg.# 108