04-12-2024

6201CMD30303124RT011 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Three copper wires are there with lengths and cross-sectional areas as and

. Resistance will be :-

Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area

(1)

(2) Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area A

(3) Minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area 2A
(4) Same for all the three cases.

2) Shown in the figure below is a meter - bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer

The value of the unknown resistor R is

(1) 13.75Ω
(2) 220 Ω
(3) 110 Ω
(4) 55 Ω

3) Find out the work done by battery when switch is closed :-

(1) 30 µJ
(2) 60 µJ
(3) 120 µJ
(4) Zero

4) In the given figure, all the batteries are ideal.

List-I List-II

(P) Potential of point A is (1) –5V

(Q) Potential of point B is (2) 1V

(R) Potential of point C is (3) –3V

(S) Potential of point D is (4) 2.5V

(1) P→1, Q→2, R→3, S→4
(2) P→4, Q→1, R→2, S→3
(3) P→2, Q→3, R→4, S→1
(4) P→3, Q→1, R→4, S→2

5)

The value of current i for the given circuit is :-

(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 2.5 A
(4) 20 A
6) VA – VB will be :-

(1) 20 V
(2) 40 V
(3) 70 V
(4) 100 V

7) In the following figure the current through 4 ohm resistor is :-

(1) 1.4 amp

(2) 0.4 amp
(3) 1.0 amp
(4) 0.7 amp

8) For the given figure, graph is drawn in between terminal potential difference (V) of a cell of emf E
and of internal resistance r as function of current (I), flowing through it, during charging of the cell.
The slope of graph and intercept are respectively :-

(1) –E and r
(2) E and r
(3) –r and E
(4) r and E

9) RAB = ?

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)
10)

If a current i passes through the frustum shape as shown in figure, the electric field at A and B are
related as -

(1) EA > EB
(2) EB > EA
(3) EA = EB
(4) there is no relation

11) Statement I : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature
of the wire is increased.
Statement II : On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

12)

In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20 V respectively. The
meters are non-ideal, then R is

(1)
(2) Less than
(3) Greater than

(4) Between

13)

Determine the currents I for the network shown below (Fig.) :-

(1) 3A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 1 A

14) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon.

(1) The distance between the plates.

(2) Area of plates.
(3) Medium between the plates.
(4) Metal of plates

15) Find capacitance of given capacitor if without dielectric capacitance is C.

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) 3C
(4) 4C

16) Match the pairs :-

Arrangement Ceq

(A) (i) C

2
(B) (ii)
C

3
(C) (iii)
C

10
(D) (iv)
C

A B C D
 (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius r is proportional to-

(1) r
(2) 1/r
(3) r2
(4) 1/r3

18) In the figure given below, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 3.75 µF
(2) 5.25 µF
(3) 6.5 µF
(4) 10.5 µF

19) The equivalent capacity between the points A and B in the following circuit (Figure) will be :

(1) 6μF
(2) 1μF
(3) 24μF
(4) 12μF

20)

In the following circuit the resultant capacitance between A & B is 1µF. Find the value of C :
(1)
µF

(2)
µF

(3)
µF

(4)
µF

21) Work done by battery to charge a capacitor C to a potential V is :-

(1)
CV2
(2) CV2
(3) 2CV2
(4) Zero

22)

A battery supplies energy 12 mJ to the capacitor of capacity 4 μF. The energy stored in the capacitor
is

(1) 12 mJ
(2) 6 mJ
(3) 4 mJ
(4) zero

23) Eight uniformly charged spherical drops coalesce to form a larger drop. If capacity of each
smaller drop is C then find the capacity of larger drop :-

(1) 2C
(2) 3C
(3) 4C
(4) C

24) Two blocks A & B each of mass m are connected by two massless springs and a constant force F0
acts on block B and the given system is in equilibrium on smooth horizontal surface. Just after force
F0 is removed acceleration of blocks A and B are aA and aB respectively then:
(1) aA = 0, aB = 0

(2)
aA = , aB =

(3)
aA = 0, aB =

(4)
aA = , aB = 0

25) In given circuit switch SW1 is closed and SW2 is open. After long time SW1 is opened and SW2 is

closed. Calculate charge on each capacitor.

(1) 18μC, 12μC

(2) 15μC, 15μC
(3) 10μC, 30μC
(4) 5μC, 25μC

26) A car is moving horizontally with acceleration . A body inside the car is found at rest with the
help of two horizontal and two vertical strings attached to it as shown in the figure. F1, F2, F3 and F4
are the tension in the four strings.
If F1 = 40N, F2 = 28N, F3 = 20N and F4 = 4N, then find the acceleration of the car in m/s2.

(1) 5.5
(2) 6.5
(3) 7.5
(4) 8.5

27) Seven resistances are connected as shown in the figure.The equivalent resistance between A and
B is:–
(1) 3 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 4.5 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

28) A block of mass 10 kg is hold on a vertical wall of lift which is going upward with acceleration of
2 m/s2. Find minimum value of F so that we can hold the block w.r.t. lift. Friction coefficient between

block & wall of lift is 0.5 :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 60 N

29) Assertion : In the shown circuit if lamp B or C fuses then brightness of lamp A decreases.

Reason : It is due to decrement in voltage on bulb A.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

30) The resistance of a metallic conductor is 50Ω at a temperature of 100°C. If its temperature
coefficient of resistance is 0.005°C–1, then its resistance will become 150 Ω at a temperature of :-

(1) 300°C
(2) 400°C
(3) 700°C
(4) 1000°C

31) Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 at 0° C have temperature coefficients of resistance α1 and α2
respectively. These are joined in series. The effective temperature coefficient of resistance is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Match the pairs

Circuit RAB

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii) 4Ω

(D) (iv)

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
(4) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)

33) Reading of ammeter A1, A2 and A3 will be respectively :-

(1) 1A, 0A, 1A

(2) 2A, 1A, 1A
(3) 1A, 0.5A, 0.5A
(4) None of these

34) A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a
deflection of one division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 volts,
it should be connected with a resistance of

(1) 2500 Ω as a shunt

(2) 2450 Ω as a shunt
(3) 2550 Ω in series
(4) 2450 Ω in series

35) Assertion :- When a capacitor is charged by a battery, both the plates receive charges equal in
magnitude, no matter whether the sizes of plates are identical or not. Reason :- The charge
distribution on the plates of a capacitor is in accordance with the charge conservation principle.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

SECTION - B

1) In the given figure the coefficient of friction between 4kg and 5 kg blocks is 0.2 and between 5 kg

block and ground is 0.1 respectively. Choose the correct statements :-

(1) Minimum force needed to cause system to move is 17 N

(2) When force is 4N static friction at all surfaces is 4N to keep system at rest
(3) Maximum acceleration of 4kg block is 2m/s2
(4) Slipping between 4kg and 5 kg blocks start when F is > 17N

2) Two large metal plates are placed parallel to each other. The inner surfaces of plates are charged
by +σ and –σ (Coulomb/m2). The outer surfaces are neutral. The electric field is ..... in the region
between the plates and ..... outside the plates :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Three 150 W, 220V bulbs are connected first in parallel and then in series. Each time the
combination is connected to a 220 V supply. The power drawn by the combination in each case
respectively will be :-

(1) 450 W, 50 W
(2) 50 W, 450 W
(3) 100 W, 3000 W
(4) 300 W , 100 W

4) In an insulated parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C, the four surfaces have charges Q1, Q2, Q3

and Q4 as shown. The potential difference between the plate is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

5) For given circuit, voltage across 3μF is :

(1) 4 volt
(2) 6 volt
(3) 10 volt
(4) None of these

6) If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is doubled
then the capacitance will become :-

(1) Half
(2) Two times
(3) Four times
(4) Remains the same

7)

A parallel plate condenser with oil between the plates (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a
capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes :-

(1)
(2) 2C

(3)

(4)

8) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be :-

(1) 3C, 3V

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The momentum p of an object varies with time (t) as shown in figure. The corresponding force (F)-
time (t) graph is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 being connected with a light spring of stiffness k are driven
with forces F1 and F2 on a smooth horizontal plane. If the blocks move with same acceleration a0, the

value of a is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) decided by the stiffness of the spring

11) Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. The
reaction of the 4th coin (counted from the bottom) on the 5th coin is

(1) 4 mg
(2) 5 mg
(3) 6 mg
(4) 7 mg

12) Statement-1 : Rocket moves forward by pushing the surrounding air backwards
Statement-2 : Every action has an equal and opposite reaction :-

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

13) Figure shows the position time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. Let the force on the particle for t

< 0, 0 < t < 4, t > 4s be F1 , F2 , F3 respectively, then.

(1) F1 = F2 = F3 = 0
(2) F1 > F2 > F3
(3) F1 > F2 = F3
(4) F1 < F2 < F3

14) To get maximum current through a resistance of 2.5 Ω, one can use m rows of cells, each row
having n cells. The internal resistance of each cell is 0.5 Ω. What are the values of n and m if the
total number of cells is 45 ?

(1) m= 3, n = 15
(2) m = 5, n = 9
(3) m = 9, n = 5
(4) m = 15, n = 3

15) A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, are connected to a 220 V source, as shown in
Figure. Now P1, P2 and P3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then:
(1) P1 > P2 = P3
(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P1 < P2 = P3
(4) P1 < P2 < P3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) The correct decreasing order of stability of following carbocation?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) II > III > I

2) Which of the following act as electrophile ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of the above

3) Which of the following compound/species does not show hyperconjugation effect ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is

Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons
(1)
are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons
(2)
are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
(3) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines
(4)
is sp-hybridized.

6) Statement I : CH3—CH2—COOH is less acidic than Cl—CH2—COOH.

Statement II : +I nature of alkyl group increases acidic strength of alkylcarboxylic acids.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

7) The total number of +M groups among the following are

(a) –OH (b) –NH2 (c) –COOH

(d) (e) –NO2

(f)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 0

8) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : has more s-character than .

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

9) Which of the following is a temporary effect?

(1) Resonance effect

(2) Hyperconjugation effect
(3) Inductive effect
(4) Electromeric effect

10) Arrange the following derivative of carboxylic acid in their correct order of their acidity.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) The correct decreasing order of C–O bond length is

(1) a > b > c

(2) c > b > a
(3) c > a > b
(4) b > a > c

12) The correct decreasing order of +I effect is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Which of the following is least stable resonating structure ?

(1) CH2=CH–CH = CH–NH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Sum of α- hydrogen in

(i) (ii)
(i) + (ii) = ?

(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

15) The least carbon-chlorine bond length present in

(1) Methyl chloride

(2) Allyl chloride
(3) Ethyl chloride
(4) Vinyl chloride

16) Which of the following is not a nucleophile ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) In which of the following species positive charge is not involved in resonance?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) CHCl3 is more acidic than CHF3 because

(1) Cl has more-I than that of F

(2) Cl has vacant d-orbital, therefore conjugate base of CHCl3 is resonance stabilized
(3) CHCl3 has more pKa than CHF3
(4) Both (2) and (3)

19) The correct decreasing order of resonance energy of the following compounds is

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III
(3) II > III > I
(4) I > III > II

20) Assertion : has more basic strength than .

Reason : has more inductive effect (+I effect) than .

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct.

(2) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct

21) Statement-I: The difference in energy between the actual structure and lowest energy
resonance structure is called resonance energy.
Statement-II: The more the number of important contributing structures the more is the resonance
energy.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

22) Assertion : Phenyl group shows +M as well as –M effect.

Reason :- In , Phenyl group shows –M effect.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

23) Assertion :- is more stable than . Reason :- CH3O – (methoxy) group

show -I as well as +M effect in .

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

24) Assertion : Nucleophiles act as lewis base.

Reason :- Nucleophiles are electron deficient species.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

25) Assertion :- Phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide ion.

Reason :- Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilise while ethoxide ion is not resonance stabilised.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

26) Hyperconjugation is best described as

(1) Delocalisation of π electrons into a nearby empty orbital

(2) Delocalisation of lone pair electrons into a nearby empty orbital
Electrondonating effect of alkyl group having α C–H σ bond, when present in conjugation with
(3)
empty orbital or p-orbital of bond.
(4) The migration of a carbon or hydrogen from one carbon to another carbon in carbocation.

27) Assertion : HCOOH is more acidic than C6H5COOH.

Reason : CH3COOH is less acidic than C6H5COOH.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

28) Resonance effect involves

(1) Delocalization of π-electrons along a conjugated system

(2) Delocalization of lone pair along a conjugated system
(3) Delocalization of negative charge along a conjugated system
(4) All of the above.

29) The correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Wurtz reaction is

(1) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl

(2) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl
(3) R–Br > R–I < R–Cl
(4) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br

30) Kolbe's electrolysis of a mixture of potassium propanoate and potassium 3-Methylbutanoate

gives

(1) Butane and isobutane

(2) Only Butane and 2,5–dimethylhexane
(3) Butane, 2,5-dimethylhexane and isohexane
(4) Only Butane and isohexane

31) When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes Wurtz reaction which is not obtained ?

(1) n-butane
(2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane
(4) isobutane

32) What is product Q ?

(1) isobutane
(2) isopropane
(3) tert. butyl chloride
(4) propane

33) Which of the following reactions does not involve a C—C bond formation ?
(1) Hydrolysis of a Grignard reagent
(2) Combination of two alkyl free radicals
(3) Corey-House synthesis of alkanes
(4) RNa + R–Br R–R + NaBr

34)

The monochlorinated products (excluding stereo-isomers) obtained from the reaction is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

35) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(Organic compound) (Effect of substituent)

(a) (p) +I and +H

(b) (q) –M and –I

(c) (r) +M and –I

(d) (s) +I only

(1) a - p, b - q, c - r, d - s
(2) a - s, b - p, c - q, d - r
(3) a - r, b - q, c - p, d - s
(4) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p

SECTION-B
1) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acidic strength of nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron
withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they
have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)

Which of the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are possible for (exclude stereo isomers)

(1) n-butane
(2) 2, 4-Dimethyl pentane
(3) Benzene
(4) 2-Methyl butane

4)
Total possible monochloro products possible excluding stereoisomers are?

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1

5)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Rank the following free radicals in order of correct decreasing stability.

(1) I > II > III > IV > V > VI

(2) VI > V > IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > IV > VI > III > V
(4) I > IV > VI > V > II > III

7) Identify the correct decreasing order of Kb.

(1) B > A > C > D
(2) A > B > C > D
(3) A > B > D > C
(4) B > D > C > A

8) Which of the following is most stable alkene ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

Which of the following alkane have highest boiling point ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

Which of the following is formed by decorboxylation of sodium propionate ?

(1) Propane
(2) Ethane
(3) Butane
(4) Methane

11)

Reactivity of alkyl halide for Wurtz reaction

(1) 1° > 2° > 3°

(2) 3° > 1° > 2°
(3) 1° > 3° > 2°
(4) 2° > 3° > 1°

12) The product obtained on heating n-hexane with Cr2O3– Al2O3 at 600°C is

(1) Cyalohexane
(2) Cyclohexane
(3) Benzene
(4) Toluene

13) CH3Br + CH3CH2Br Alkanes

The alkane which is not formed in the above reaction ?

(1) C2H6
(2) C5H12
(3) C3H8
(4) C4H10

14) Which of the following halogen is most reactive towards halogenation of alkane ?

(1) F2
(2) Cl2
(3) Br2
(4) I2

15) Catalyst used in the given reaction.

(1) Zn-Hg / dil HCl

(2) Red P / HI /Δ
(3) AlCl3 / HCl
(4) Al2O3 – SiO2

BOTANY
 SECTION - A

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Chrysophytes ?

(1) They include both diatoms and desmids

(2) They are microscopic and float passively in water current
(3) They belong to kingdom Protista
(4) Most of them are heterotrophs

2) 'Suffix’ used for classification in plants to indicate taxonomic category family is

(1) -ales
(2) -onae
(3) -aceae
(4) ae

3) The process by which organisms are grouped into convenient categories based on some easily
observable characters, is called

(1) Taxonomy
(2) Identification
(3) Classification
(4) Nomenclature

4)

Law of limiting factor was proposed by

(1) Sachs
(2) Blackmann
(3) Hans Kreb
(4) Kortschak

5)

Out of the following how many structures are formed during sexual reproduction in fungi ?
[Oospores, Ascospores, Basidiospores, Basidium, Conidia, Sporangium]

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

6) The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of
ruminant animals, include the

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Methanogens

7) Match the List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Albugo (i) Rust fungus

(b) Puccinia (ii) Genetic experiments

(c) Ustilago (iii) Smut fungus

(iv) Parasitic fungi on

(d) Neurospora
mustard
(1) a–ii; b–iii; c–i; d–iv
(2) a–iii; b–iv; c–ii; d–i
(3) a–iv; b–i; c–iii; d–ii
(4) a–ii; b–i; c–iii; d–iv

8) The following symptoms of plants

Mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing occurs due to

(1) Fungi
(2) Viruses
(3) Bacteria
(4) Prions

9) Match the following.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Smallest living cell (i) 3 to 5

(b) Bacteria (ii) 7.0 in diameter

(c) Largest isolated

(iii) 0.3 in length
single cell

(d) Human RBC (iv) Nerve cell

(v) Egg of an ostrich

(1) a–iii; b–i; c–v; d–iv
(2) a–iii; b–ii; c–iv; d–i
(3) a–ii; b–iii; c–i; d–iv
(4) a–iii; b–i; c–v; d–ii

10) In the membrane of erythrocytes ....A....% of protein & ....B....% of lipid is present.

(1) A = 40%, B = 62%

(2) A = 52%, B = 40%
(3) A = 40%, B = 52%
(4) A = 50%, B = 50%

11) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’ shows maximum absorption in :

(1) Blue region

(2) Yellow region
(3) Green region
(4) Yellow and violet regions

12) Which one is incorrect ?

(1) The C3 and C4 plants respond similarly to CO2 concentration.

(2) At low light conditions neither C3 nor C4 plants respond to high CO2 concentration.
C4 plants attain saturation at much lower CO2 concentration (about 360 ) than C3
(3)
plants (only beyond 450 )
(4) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to the C3 plants

13) Select the false statement :

(1) ATP or NADPH is not formed during photorespiration.

(2) C4-pathway of photosynthetic CO2 fixation was first discovered by Hatch and Slack.
(3) Photorespiration results in maximum production of ATP.
(4) In C4-plants, phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) acts as CO2 acceptor.

14) Light harvesting complexes (LHC) are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to
proteins. In LHC, reaction centre is formed by

(1) A single chlorophyll-a molecule

(2) All the pigments except chlorophyll-a molecule
(3) Carotenoids and xanthophylls
(4) Both (2) and (3)

15) Glycolysis occurs in _____; the TCA cycle occurs in _____; and ETC occurs in ______.

(1) Mitochondrial matrix, cytosol; mitochondrial inner membrane

(2) Cytosol; mitochondrial matrix; mitochondrial inner membrane
(3) Mitochondrial outer membrane; cytosol; mitochondrial inner membrane
(4) Cytosol; mitochondrial matrix; inner chamber of mitochondria

16) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the

(1) Outer surface of the inner membrane of mitochondria

(2) Inner surface of the outer membrane of mitochondria
(3) Inner surface of the inner membrane of mitochondria
(4) Outer surface of the outer membrane of mitochondria

17) Assertion : The reduced ubiquinone (ubiquinol) is oxidised with the transfer of electron
to cytochrome-c via cytochrome-bc1 complex (complex III).
Reason : During electron transport, proton accumulates within inner membrane of mitochondria.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

18) In which of the following steps of glycolysis a water molecule is released ?

(1) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose 1, 6-diphosphate

(2) 2-Phosphoenol pyruvate → Pyruvic acid
(3) Glucose → Glucose 1, 6-disphosphate
(4) 2-Phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenol pyruvate

19) Ground tissue consists of

(1) All tissues internal to endodermis only

(2) All tissues external to endodermis only
(3) Epidermis and cortex only
(4) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

20)

Which of the following (labelled as A, B, C, D) shows conformational change for the synthesis of
energy packed molecule during chemiosmosis ?

(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) B

21) Cell attaining their maximum size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic
modifications belong to

(1) Meristematic phase

(2) Elongation phase
(3) Maturation phase
(4) Dedifferentiation phase

22) Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the
following.

(1) Due to opening of stomata

(2) Due to flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Due to shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
(4) Due to vessels in xylem

23) A phytohormone used for thinning of fruits in cotton, cherry and walnut is

(1) A gaseous plant hormone

(2) Responsible for closure of stomata during water stress condition
(3) A derivative of adenine
(4) Alkaline in nature

24) Formation of meristems like interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from parenchyma cells
is

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

25) Water containing cavities are seen inside vascular bundles of

(1) Dicot root

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot stem
(4) Monocot root

26)

Plant cells that are photosynthetically active are found in the ________ part of leaf and are _______
cells.
(1) Epidermis, collenchymatous
(2) Mesophyll, parenchymatous
(3) Mesophyll, sclerenchymatous
(4) Phloem, collenchymatous

27) During cell division in plants, the formation of new cell wall begins with the formation of
a simple precursor called

(1) Micro filaments

(2) Cell plate
(3) Microtubule
(4) Axoneme

28) All of the following are considered to be the event concerned with cell cycle, except

(1) DNA replication

(2) Glucose synthesis
(3) Cytoplasmic increase
(4) Genome duplication

29)

Read the following (a–d) options:

(a) Leptotene → Chromosome longest → Compaction of chromosome.
(b) Zygotene → Bivalent → Synaptonemal complex.
(c) Pachytene → Tetrad → Non sister chromatids exchange their parts.
(d) Diakinesis → Dyad → Chiasmata formation.
How many option are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

30) Select the incorrect match.

Compaction of
(1) Leptotene
chromosome begins

Bivalents clearly
(2) Pachytene
appears as tetrads

Dissolution of
(3) Zygotene
synaptonemal complex

Appearance of
(4) Diplotene
chiasmata
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Assertion (A) : Enzymes of lysosome optimally active at basic pH.

Reason (R) : Lysosomes are single membrane bound structure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

32) There is an extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm through membrane bound organelles in

all of the following except :-

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Diatoms
(3) Plant and fungi
(4) Animals

33) Stamens are united into two bundles in

(1) China rose

(2) Pea
(3) Citrus
(4) Solanum

34) Select the correct match.

(1) Axile placentation Primrose

(2) Epiphyllous stamen Lily

(3) Free central placentation Lemon

(4) Hypogynous flower Plum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Mark True (T) or False (F) for the statements given below.
(I) Only the sexual phases of imperfect fungi are known.
(II) The mycelium is septate and branched in Deuteromycetes.
(III) Members of Deuteromycetes help in mineral cycling.

(1) I – T; II – T; III – F
(2) I – F; II – T; III – T
(3) I – F; II – F; III – T
(4) I – T; II – F; III – F

SECTION - B

1) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Mobilization of nutrients (i) Auxin

(b) Eradication of weeds (ii) Cytokinin

(c) Induce seed dormancy (iii) GA3

(d) Stimulate synthesis of

hydrolytic enzymes during (iv) ABA
seed germination
(1) a – iv; b – ii; c – ii; d – i
(2) a – iii; b – iv; c – i; d – ii
(3) a – ii; b – i; c – iv; d – iii
(4) a – iv; b – iii; c – ii; d – i

2) In which of the following plants, the underground stem spreads to new niches and form new
plants when older parts die ?

(1) Eichhornia
(2) Pistia
(3) Strawberry
(4) Pea

3) Identify for correct set of statements from followings.

(a) In meiosis-I, division of centromere take place.
(b) Usually meiosis-I is called reduction division.
(c) Meiosis occur in those cells which take part in gametogenesis.
(d) The gap between meiosis-I and meiosis-II is called interkinesis.
Choose the correct answer from the given options below.

(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

(2) (b), (c) & (d) only
(3) (c) & (d) only
(4) (d) only

4) Assertion (A) : Fluid mosaic model is most widely accepted model of plasma membrane.
Reason (R) : It states that protein icebergs are present in mosaic pattern in the sea of glycolipid.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

5)

If the pollen grain of plant has 40 pg of DNA in its nucleus, then how much DNA would a cell of
the same organism have in metaphase-I of meiosis ?

(1) 40 pg
(2) 120 pg
(3) 160 pg
(4) 80 pg

6) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Amoeboid protozoa (i) Plasmodium

(b) Ciliated protozoa (ii) Trypanosoma

(c) Sporozoa (iii) Entamoeba

(d) Flagellated protozoa (iv) Pramoecium

(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

7) Match the List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Algal fungi (i) Deuteromycetes

(b) Sac fungi (ii) Basidiomycetes

(c) Club fungi (iii) Phycomycetes

(d) Fungi imperfecti (iv) Ascomycetes

(1) a–ii; b–iii; c–i; d–iv
(2) a–iii; b–iv; c–ii; d–i
(3) a–iv; b–ii; c–i; d–iii
(4) a–ii; b–i; c–iii; d–iv

8) Identify the incorrect one for plasmids.

(1) These are extrachromosomal DNA

(2) They are dsDNA
(3) Unlike genomic DNA they are linear type
(4) They have genes that confer certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria
9) Select the odd one w.r.t. functions of auxin.

(1) Induces rooting in stem cuttings

(2) Apical dominance
(3) To speed up the malting process.
(4) Phototropism

10) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by _________.

(1) Budding
(2) Fission
(3) Regeneration
(4) Fragmentation

11) Stem tendrils are found in

(1) Cucumber
(2) Pumpkins
(3) Grapevines
(4) All of these

12) Floral formula of tomato/tobacco is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Identify types of vascular bundles in given figures A, B and C.

A – Radial; B – Conjoint closed;

(1)
C – Conjoint open
 A – Conjoint closed; B – Conjoint open;
(2)
C – Radial
A – Conjoint open; B – Conjoint closed;
(3)
C – Radial
A – Bicollateral; B – Concentric;
(4)
C – Radial

14) Assertion : Stroma lamellae have both PS-I and PS-II but the membrane of grana lack PS-II as
well as NADP reductase.
Reason : Cyclic photophosphorylation also occurs when only light of wavelength below 680 nm
is available for excitation.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

15) For fixation of 12 molecules of CO2 into sugar by rice plant, the assimilatory power ATP and
NADPH required respectively is

(1) 36, 24
(2) 18, 12
(3) 3, 2
(4) 60, 24

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) How many of the following structure given below are not supported by incomplete cartilagenous
rings in the human respiratory system ?
[Trachea, Secondary bronchi, Alveoli, Atria, Primary bronchi, Initial bronchioles, Alveolar duct,
Alveolar sac]

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

2) In the figure given below identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D and select the correct option
about them :
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Pharyngeal
1 Notochord Nerve cord Notochord
gill slits

Pharyngeal
2 Nerve cord Post Anal tail Notochord
gill slits

Pharyngeal Pharyngeal
3 Post Anal tail Nerve cord
gill slits gill slits

Pharyngeal
4 Nerve cord Notochord Post Anal tail
gill slits
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a. 1.
junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b. Gap junctions 2. to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

c. Tight junctions 3. communicate with
each other
(1) a–3, b–2, c–1
(2) a–2, b–3, c–1
(3) a–2, b–1, c–3
(4) a–1, b–3, c–2

4) Smooth muscles are

(1) Voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleate

(2) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(3) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(4) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
5) The outline of principal event of urination is given below in disordered manner.
(I) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send signal to the CNS.
(II) The bladder fills with urine and becomes distended.
(III) Micturition
(IV) CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate the contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
The correct order of step for urination is :-

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) IV → III → II → I
(3) II → I → IV → III
(4) III → II → I → IV

6)

a. Muscular dystrophy (i) Age Related disorder

b. Myasthenia gravis (ii) Autoimmune disorder

c. Osteoporosis (iii) Genetic disorder

d. Gout (iv) Joint inflammation

(1) a-(iii) b-(ii) c-(i) d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii) b-(ii) c-(iv) d-(i)
(4) a-(iii) b-(iv) c-(ii) d-(i)

7) Origin of Pituitary, Pineal, Pancreas and Parathyroid gland is respectively –

(1) Ectoderm, Endoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm

(2) Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm
(3) Endoderm, Ectoderm, Endoderm, Endoderm
(4) Ectoderm, Ectoderm, Endoderm, Endoderm

8) The prosthetic group can be distinguished from other cofactors of enzymes because prosthetic
groups :-

(1) Are organic in nature

(2) Are tightly bound to the apoenzyme
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Are inorganic in nature and are loosely bound to the apoenzyme

9)

Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Earthworms I Trachea
 B Aquatic arthropods II Lungs

C Molluscs III Gills

D Terrestrial Organisms IV Moist cuticle

E Insects
(1) A= I, B= II, C= III, D= IV, E= III
(2) A= IV, B= III, C= III, D= II, E= I
(3) A= IV, B= II, C= I, D= III, E= III
(4) A= IV, B= II, C= III, D= I, E= III

10) Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed as extensions of :-

(1) Cortex in medulla

(2) Cortex in pelvis
(3) Medulla in pelvis
(4) Pelvis in ureter

11) Choose the correct option in descending order of their percentage present in blood.
(A) Neutrophil, (B) Lymphocyte,
(C) Monocyte, (D) Acidophil, (E) Basophil

(1) E → D → C → B → A
(2) E → D → B → C → A
(3) A → B → D → C → E
(4) A → B → C → D → E

12) A jawless fish, which lay eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoete larvae after metamorphosis
return to the ocean is:

(1) Petromyzon
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Myxine
(4) Shark

13) Given below is a figure showing digestive system of frog and labelled A, B, C and D.

(1) A – Liver, B – Rectum, C – Cloaca, D – Intestine

(2) A – Intestine, B – Liver, C – Cloaca, D – Rectum
(3) A – Liver, B – Cloaca, C – Rectum, D – Intestine
(4) A – Cloaca, B – Liver, C – Intestine, D – Rectum

14) Assertion(A): The hormones which interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not
enter the target cell.
Reason(R): These hormones generate second messengers which in turn regulate the cellular
metabolism.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

15) The functional connection between two neurons is called :-

(1) Synapse
(2) Synapsis
(3) Chiasma
(4) Chiasmata

16) Assertion : Repeated contraction of the muscles can lead to fatigue.

Reason : Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

17) Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, mark the conditions in which that curve
will shift from A to B.
a. Increase in body temperature
b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
c. Low temperature
d. Increase in pH

(1) b and c
(2) a and b
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

18)

On an average, _______ ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly
______ of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.

(1) 500-600, 1/5th

(2) 1100-1200, 1/3rd
(3) 500-600, 1/3rd
(4) 1100-1200, 1/5th

19) During relaxed state, cross bridge breaks due to

(1) ATP unavailability

(2) ADP not removed from myosin
(3) A new ATP bind again with myosin head
(4) Ca+2 binds with myosin head

20) Term corpora quadrigemina is used for

(1) 4 myelinated longitudinal fibers present in anterior side of mid brain

(2) 4 lobes present in posterior part of mid brain
(3) 4 lobes present in anterior part of mid brain
(4) 4 myelinated longitudinal fibers present in posterior side of mid brain

21) The body of Balanoglossus is divisible into

(1) Proboscis, tunic and trunk

(2) Collar, trunk and tunic
(3) Proboscis, collar and trunk
(4) Proboscis, stomochord and trunk

22) How will you distinguish a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?

(1) By presence of Anal cerci

(2) By presence of Anal styles
(3) By presence of antennae
(4) By presence of compound eyes

23)

In male frog, pair of testes adhered to upper part of kidneys by ______ .

(1) Mesovarium
(2) Mesosalpinx
(3) Mesorchium
(4) None of the above

24) The three diagrams (A, B and C) are given, which represent three different types of muscles
found in human body. Which option gives correct information about type of muscle, its location and

nature?

Type
Location Nature
of muscle

(1) B Skeletal muscle Heart Voluntary

(2) A Visceral muscle Limbs Involuntary

(3) C Cardiac muscle Heart Involuntary

(4) B Visceral muscle Intestine Voluntary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Sliding filament theory can be explained as :-

(1) Actin & Myosin filaments slide pass each other and they don't shorten.
(2) Actin & Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
Actin & Myosin filaments slide pass each other and Myosin filaments shorten while Actin
(3)
filaments don't shorten.
Actin & Myosin filaments slide pass each other and Actin filaments shorten while Myosin
(4)
filaments don't shorten.

26) Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Medulla oblongata

27) Human heart is myogenic, but cardiovascular reflexes are controlled by brain. Which part of
brain is responsible for it?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Pons
(4) Thalamus

28) Ascent of high mountains may cause altitude sickness in people. Prime cause of this is:-

(1) Excess of CO2 in blood

(2) Decreased effeciency of haemoglobin
(3) Decreased partial pressue of oxygen
(4) Decreased proportion of oxygen in air

29) Match column - I and column - II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tidal volume (i) 1200 ml

(b) Vital capacity (ii) 2500 ml

(c) Residual volume (iii) 4800 ml

Functional residual
(d) (iv) 500 ml
capacity
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv
30) In heavy smokers the alveoli of the lungs are enlarged and damaged which reduces the surface
area of the exchange of respiratory gases. This condition is called :

(1) Asthma
(2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Insomnia

31)
Which wave marks the depolarisation of ventricles in standard ECG?

(1) P-wave
(2) Q-wave
(3) QRS-wave
(4) T-wave

32) Which one of the following is a matching pair ?

Sharp closure of
AV valves at the
(1) Lubb –
beginning of
ventricular systole

Sudden opening of
semilunar valves
(2) Dup – at the beginning of
ventricular
diastole

Pulsation of the Valves in the blood

(3)
radial artery – vessels

Initiation of the
(4) Purkinje fibres
heart beat –
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
33) Identify 'A' :-

(1) Parathyroid visible from dorsal side

(2) Parathyroid visible from ventral side
(3) Parafollicular cells visible from dorsal side
(4) Parafollicular cells visible from ventral side

34) Which of the following is not strictly a biomacromolecule?

(1) Proteins
(2) Lipids
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Nucleic acid

35) ............. of an enzyme is a crevices or pocket into which substrate fit.

(1) Inactive site

(2) Active site
(3) Allosteric site
(4) Any of these

SECTION - B

1) Match the column-I, II and III and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Feathered and
(A) (i) Macropus (p) non-glandular
skin

Hairy, glandular
(B) (ii) Catla (q)
skin
 Dermal scales
(C) (iii) Chameleon (r)
on skin

Epidermal
(D) (iv) Psittacula (s)
scales on skin

Options :-
(1) A–iv, p; B–iii, q; C–ii, r; D–i, s
(2) A–iii, r; B–iv, p; C–i, q; D–ii, s
(3) A–iii, s; B–iv, p; C–i, q; D–ii, r
(4) A–iii, q; B–ii, p; C–i, r; D–iv, s

2) Enzymes in our body generally work at

(1) Same pH and temperature optima

(2) Same pH but different temperature optima
(3) Different pH but same temperature optima
(4) Different pH and different temperature optima

3) Identify the statements (i to v) as true (T) and false (F) w.r.t the animal shown below in the figure.

(i) Scales are absent completely.

(ii) Skin is dry, without glands excepts oil gland at base of tail.
(iii) Endoskeleton is fully ossified.
(iv) Gizzard is present for grinding of food but lacks crop.
(v) Long bones are pneumatic.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(1) F T T F T

(2) T T T F T

(3) F T F T F

(4) F F T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

(1) a–1–M, b–2–N, c–4–K, d–3–L

(2) a–2–N, b–1–M, c–3–L, d–2–K
(3) a–1–M, b–2–N, c–3–K, d–2–L
(4) a–2–N, b–1–N, c–3–K, d–4–M

5) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
a. True ribs 1 Attached to vertebral column dorsally and to seventh rib ventrally.
b. False ribs 2 Are not connected ventrally
c. Floating ribs 3 Attached to vertebral column dorsally and to sternum ventrally.
(1) a–1 b–2 c–3
(2) a–3 b–1 c–2
(3) a–1 b–3 c–2
(4) a–3 b–2 c–1

6) The below figure related with principal endocrine glands in human identify A to G.
(1) A-pineal, B-pituitary, C-Thyroid & Parathyroid D-Thymus, E-Adrenal, F-Testis, G-Ovary
(2) A-pituitary, B-pineal, C-thyroid & Parathyroid D-thymus, E-Adrenal, F-Testis, G-Ovary
(3) A-pituitary, B-pineal, C-thyroid & Parathyroid D-thymus, E-Kidney, F-Testis, G-Ovary
(4) A-pituitary, B-pineal, C-Thymus, D-Thyroid & parathyroid, E-Adrenal, F-Testis, G-Ovary

7) Alary muscles are found in ___(A)____ and help in maintaining ___(B)____. Identify A and B :

(1) A – Pheretima ; B – Respiration

(2) A – Rana ; B – Excretion
(3) A – Periplaneta ; B – Blood circulation
(4) A – Palamneus ; B – Digestion

8) In which phylum polyp and medusa forms occur?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Coelenterata

9) Which of the following hypothalamic hormone is responsible for the synthesis and release of a
pituitary hormone that stimulates secretion of androgens?

(1) Luteinizing hormone

(2) Oxytocin
(3) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
(4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

10) Which acts as the command and control system of the body ?

(1) Brain
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pituitary gland

11) In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron given below, different parts have been indicated
by alphabets choose the answers in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the
parts which they indicate.

A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies,

C = Nucleus, D = Dendrites,
(1)
E = Naked portion of axon
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies,
C = Naked portion of axon,
(2)
D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies,
C = Naked portion of axon,
(3)
D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies,
C = Dendrites, D = Nucleus
(4)
E = Naked portion of axon,
F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier

12) In the above diagram A, B, C, D are-

A B C D
(1) Tibia Fibula Metatarsals Tarsals
(2) Tibia Fibula Tarsals Metatarsals
(3) Fibula Tibia Metatarsals Tarsals
(4) Fibula Tibia Tarsals Metatarsals
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
13)

Which of the following prevent collapsing of trachea?

(1) Muscles
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Ribs
(4) Cartilaginous rings

14) ‘Dup’ sound is produced during closure of :-

(1) Semilunar valves

(2) Bicuspid valve
(3) Tricuspid valve
(4) Both (2) and (3)

15) Substance release by JG cells of human kidney is :

(1) Renin
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ACE
(4) Rennin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 4 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 1 4 1 3 4 4 1 1 3 4 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 4 4 1 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 2 1 3 4 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)
R = 220 Ω

3) Q1 = 3 × 5 = 15 µC
Q2 = 6 × 2 = 12 µC
V1 + V2 = EMF

Wbattery = Qflow EMF

= 6 × 10
= 60 μJ

4)

VA – 6 × 1/2 + 6 = 0 ⇒ VA = –3V
VB – 4 × 1/2 + 4 = VA = – 3 ⇒ VB = –5V
0 – 2 × 1/2 + 2 – 3 × 1/2 + 3 = VC = 2.5V
0 – 2 × 1/2 + 2 = VD ⇒ VD = 1V

5)

6) VA – 15 – 5 × 2 – 10 – 5 × 6 – 5 = VB
VA – VB = 70V

7)
Its a balanced WSB

I4 = × 1.4

I4 = ×1.4 = 1A

8) during charging of cell

V = E + Ir ⇒ V = rI + E
comparing with y = mx + C
m=r;C=E

9)

RAB =

10)

11)

On increasing temperature of wire the kinetic energy of free electrons increase and so
they collide more rapidly with each other and hence their drift velocity decreases. Also
when temperature increases, resistivity increase and resistivity is inversely proportional
to conductivity of material.

12)

Effective resistance in the branch of R and voltmeter is;

Also in parallel effective resistance is less than the individual resistance.
Value of R must be greater than .

13)

14)

Conceptual.

15)

17) Capacitance C = 4πεR

18)
20)

CAB = ⇒C=

22) Energy supplied by battery = QV = 12 mJ.

Energy stored in capacitor =

24) (Fnet)A = 0
(Fnet)B = F = maB

25)

When is closed & is open

Q3µF = C × V
= 3 × 10 = 30 µC
When is opened & is closed :

So,
Now,
Q2µF = CVcm = 2 × 6 = 12 µC

26) F4 + mg = F3, F1–F2 = ma

27) Wheatstone bridge is in balance condition

28)

µF = m(g + a)
0.5 × F = 10 (10 + 2)
⇒ F = 240 N

30)

RT = RO (1 + αT)
50 = RO [1 + α(100)] ...(i)
150 = RO [1 + α(T)] ...(ii)

(ii)/(i) ⇒ ⇒ 3 + 300 α = 1 + αT
α(T – 300) = 2

T – 300 = = 400 ⇒ T = 700°C

31) R'1=R1(1+α1θ); R'2 = R2 (1+α2θ)

Rnet = R'1 +R'2 = R1(1+α1θ) + R2(1+α2+θ)
= R1 + R2 + θ (R1 α1 + R2 α2)

= (R1 + R2)
compair this equation R =

32)

(A)
(B) refer class notes
(C)

(D)

33)

A3 ⇒ = 0.5 A

A1 ⇒ =1A
A2 ⇒ 1 – 0.5 = 0.5 A

34)

Ig = 25 × (4 × 10–4)
= 10–2 A
 RH =
RH = 2500 – 50 = 2450 Ω in series

36) So block ‘Q’ is moving due to force while block ‘P’ due to friction.
Friction direction on both P & Q blocks as shown.

First block ‘Q’ will move and P will move with ‘Q’ so by FBD taking ‘P’ and ‘Q’ as system
F–9=0 ⇒F=9N
When applied force is 4 N then FBD

4 kg block is moving due to friction and maximum friction force is 8 N.

So acceleration = = 2 m/s2 = amax.

Slipping will start at when Q has +ve acceleration equal to maximum acceleration of P i.e. 2
m/s2.
F – 17 = 5 × 2 ⇒ F = 27 N.

37)

Between plate ,

outside plate σ = 0 E' = 0.

38)

Case- I : Power in single bulb parallel combination

P= ⇒ = 150 W
Total power P1 = 150 × 3 = 450 W in parallel
in series combination
Total power

P2 = . = 50 W
39)

41)

= 4C

43)
Maximum potential drop across combination = 3V
Ceq = C/3

44)
From t = 0 to t = 2 second slope is constant and positive
From t = 2 to t = 6 second slope is zero
From t = 6 to t = 8 second slope is constant and negative

45)
both the blocks can be choosen as a system, thus,

49)

For maximum current, ...(i)

mR = nr ...(ii)
Given that mn = 45
Hence, m × 2.5 = n × 0.5
or n = 5m ...(iii)
From equation (ii) and (iii), 5m2 = 45 or m = 3
⇒ n = 15

50) P= so, R= ∴ R1 = & R2=R3 =

Now, P1 = and

P2 = and
 P1:P2:P3 = 15:25 :64 ⇒ P1 < P2 < P3

CHEMISTRY

51)

52) is electrophile

53) Electronrich
Hyper conjugation not possible

54)

In the given structure I which is tropylium ion is most stable among the given carbocations as
it is aromatic has 6 electrons which are in delocalisation with positive charge present in the
ring.

55)
* Delocalized lone pair of nitrogen
* less basic

56)
57)

All the lone pair containing groups are electron donating group (EDG) and shows +M effect

Example:-

58)

% s character is more so E.N. of sp carbon is more and Θve charge on more electronegative
atom is more stable.

59) Electromeric effect is temporary effect.It operates only in the presence of attacking
reagents.

60)

61)

Double bond Partial S.B/D.B Partial S.B/D.B

(Localized) less reso. more reso.
Single bond > Partial double bond > double bond
c>b>a

62) is most electon donating due to less electronegativity of C atom. –O– is more electron
donating than –COO– because negative charge of –COO– group is dispersed due to resonance
–C(CH3)3 is least electron donating because it is not having negative charge (lone pair) which
can be donated.
63) Stability of RS ∝ No. of covalent bonds (π Bonds)

64)

⇒ 10αH + 3αH
⇒ Total 13αH

65) Due to conjugation in

66)

67)

68)
Cl has vacant d-orbital, therefore conjugate base of CHCl3 is resonance stabilized.
CHCl3 has less pKa than CHF3

69) Extended resonance > Cross resonance

70) Basic strength of amines ∝ +I effect of the alkyl group attached to the amine group.

71) Ncert, Class11th , Part-1 , Article No:8.7.6 , Pg .No: 275 , Edition-2023-24.

72)

73)
Octet incomplete,

CH3O – group shows – I as well as + M in

74)

Nucleophiles are electron rich species.

75)

Due to resonance phenoxide ion is more stable than ethoxide ion.

76)

Ncert, Class11th , Part-1 , Article No:8.7.7 , Pg.No:277 , Edition-2023-24.

77) Ncert, Class12th , Part-2, Article No:8.9.1 , Pg.No:251 , Edition-2023-24.

78)

Ncert, Class11th , Part-2 , Article No:8.7.6 , Pg.No:276 , Edition-2023-24.

79)

Bond strength
80)

81)

82)

Acid base reaction.

83)

84)
85)

86)

o, m and p- nitrophenol have different acidic nature.

87)

Boiling point Molar mass of organic compound.

88)

89)

90)
The reaction occur via free radical pathway and 3° free radical is most stable.

91) Stability decided by more resonance (RHI).

92)

Basic strength (or) Kb decreases with –M effect.

93)
 Stability of alkene number of -hydrogens.

94)

Boiling point of alkenes Molar mass of alkane.

95)

96)

Order of reactivity of different alkyl halides towards Wurtz reaction is as follows:

1° > 2° > 3°
if the reaction takes place through carbanion mechanism.

97)

98)
C5H12 does not form.

99)

The order of reactivity of halogens towards halogenation of alkane is

100)

Isomerisation of alkanes only is used as catalyst.

BOTANY

101) NCERT Page no. 20

102) NCERT Page no. 9

103) NCERT Page no. 7

104)

NCERT Page no. 222

105)

NCERT page no 23, 24.

106) NCERT Page no. 19

107) NCERT Page no. 23, 24

108) NCERT Page no. 26

109) NCERT Based.

110) Old, NCERT Page no. 131

111) Old, NCERT Page no. 210 (Graph)

112) Old, NCERT Page no. 223

113) Old, NCERT Page no. 219, 220

114) Old, NCERT Page no. 211

115) NCERT Page no. 228 to 233

116) Old, NCERT Page no. 233

117) Old, NCERT Page no. 233

118) Old, NCERT Page no. 299, Fig. 14.1

119) Old, NCERT Page no. 89

120)
NCERT Page no. 214

121) Old, NCERT Page no. 242

122) Old, NCERT Page no. 94

123) NCERT Page no. 250

124) Fact, NCERT Page no. 245

Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed by dedifferentiation.

125) Fact, NCERT Page no. 94

126)

NCERT Page no 93.

127) NCERT Page no. 166

128) NCERT Page no. 162

129)

NCERT page no. 168

130) NCERT Page no. 168

131) NCERT Based.

132) NCERT Page no. 126

133) NCERT Page no. 75

134) NCERT Page no. 73, 75, 76

135) NCERT Page no. 24

136) Old, NCERT Page no. 248, 249, 250, 251

137) NCERT Page no. 69

 138) NCERT Page no. 167, 168, 169

139) NCERT Page no. 131

140)

NCERT page no 168.

141) NCERT Page no. 21, 22

142) Old, NCERT Page no. 22, 23, 24

143) NCERT Page no. 128

144) NCERT Page no. 248

Speed up malting process in barley is function of GA.

145) NCERT Page no. 4

146) NCERT Based.

147) NCERT Page no. 80

148) NCERT Page no. 90

149) Old, NCERT Page no. 213

150) 1 CO2 require 3 ATP, 2 NADPH in C3 plants

Hence 12 CO2 → 12 × 3 = 36 ATP
12 × 2 = 24 NADPH
→ Rice is C3 plant.

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT Page no. 184

152) NCERT Pg # 55, Fig 4.16 para 4.2.11

153)

NCERT Page no. 102

154) NCERT Page no. 105

Allen Module

155) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

156)

NCERT Page no. 227

157)

Allen module (Topic - Gland)

158) NCERT XI Eng. Page no. # 159 (Topic - Cofactors = 2nd para)

159)

NCERT Page no. 183

160)

NCERT Page no. 207

161)

NCERT BASED.

162)

NCERT Page no. 47

Allen module Page no. 36

163) NCERT Pg. # 117, fig-7.20

164)

NCERT pg no.340

165) MODULE- Neuron, Nerve impulse, transmission

166) NCERT Pg # 308 (E & H)

167)

NCERT Page no. 189

168)

NCERT Page no. 208

169) Allen module Page no. 135

Topic - Muscles

170)

NCERT Page no. 236

171)

NCERT Page no. 45

172)

Old, NCERT Page no. 112

Allen module Page no. 123

173)

Ncert Page 119.

174)

NCERT Page no. 105

175)

NCERT Page no. 221

176)

NCERT Page no. 236

177)

NCERT Page no. 236

178)

NCERT Page no. 226

179)

NCERT Page no. 186

180)

NCERT Page no. 190

181)

NCERT Page no. 201

182)

NCERT Page no. 200

183)

NCERT Page no. 243

184)

NCERT Page no. 109

185)

NCERT Page no. 113

186) NCERT Page no. 50

187)

NCERT Page no. 113

188)

NCERT Page no. 49

189)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 103, Figure-7.4 (a,b)

Figure-7.5 (a,b)

190)

NCERT Page no. 225

191) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 331

192) Module-5 Pg.#132

193) NCERT Pg. # 50

194)

NCERT Page no. 240

195)

NCERT Page no. 235

196)

NCERT Page no. 232

197)

NCERT Page no. 226

198)

NCERT Page no. 180

199)

NCERT Page no. 200

200)

NCERT Page no. 209