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The document provides instructions for candidates taking the AUAT 2025 examination for a 2-Year M. Tech in Civil Engineering. It details the exam format, including the number of questions, marking scheme, and rules regarding the OMR answer sheet. Candidates are advised to follow strict guidelines, including not opening the question booklet until instructed and prohibiting electronic devices during the exam.
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Save mtech_solved For Later Roll No. of the Candidate: 25). 2/7 OOS
Dae offmminntion: 22.06.25
Name of Examination Centre; Otiah Onwererly Ned
Signature of the Candidate :
AUAT — 2025
2-Year M. Tech, in
- in Civil Engineering (P21)
(TEST BASED on McQ )
‘Duration : 2 Hours:
Signature of the Invigilator on!|
[Verification
aa
ra *
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
‘until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
:
‘The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, -0-25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.
OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means, Any untoward /irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.
Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet,
No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the exabithree
Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
éplate load test on a
nless soil under an intensity
ding of 0:2N/mm?. The
nent of a prototype shallow
° 1m square under the same
intensity of loading is
ja) 1Smm
JB) between 15mm to 25mm
25mm
[D] greater than 25 mm
2. The flownct for an earthen dam with
30m water depth consists of 25
potential drops and 5 flow channels.
‘The coefficient of permeability of dam.
material is 0:03mm/sec. The
discharge per meter length of dam is
fA] 0-00018 m°/sec
[B]_ 0-0045 m?/sec
0-18 m9/sec
[D] 0-1125 m?/sec
}. If at section away from the ends of
the beam, M represents the bending
moment, V the shear force, w the
intensity of loading and y represents
the deflection of the beam at the
section, then
dM
ig
pv:
Mew
dw
fy May
Choose the correct option(s) from the
ions given :
9h ana fae core
[B] Wand (ii) are correct
{C] (i) and (id) are correct
[D] @, (i) and (ii) are correct
A) as
|B] decreases first and
increases
AG) increases monotonically
[D] increases first and then
The maximum shear stress at d
neutral axis for a circular secti
given by
1B) Fa
. A collapsible soil subgrade sample w
tested using Standard Caliform
Bearing Ratio apparatus, and
observations are given below :
SLNo.[ Load | Penetration
1 |605Skg[ 25mm
2 |[8055kg[ 50mm
Taking the standard assumpti
regarding the load penetration
the CBR value of the sample will
taken as
[A] 39%
ID) 55%Relate the figure with following options
and choose the correct answer :
JA] The structure is unstable
The structure is stable and
determinate
{C] The structure is unstable but
determinate
[D] The structure is stable and
indeterminate
14. A perfect plane frame having m
number of members and,j number of
joints should satisfy which of the
following relations?
JA) _m<2j-3
ye m=2j-3
[ce] m>2j-3
[D] m=3-2)
15. How many equilibrium equations are
there for a rigid plane frame?
{Al 2
17. The given figure shows a portal f
with one end fixed and other
‘The ratio of the fixed and
M,
Ut due to side sway will be
ico
pos 1 2
8
A 10
1B) 0-5,
(c] 2
[D] 0-25
18. CPM is
[A] time-oriented technique
IB] event-oriented technique _A statically determinate structure
JA] cannot be analyzed without the
correct knowledge of modulus of
elasticity
B) must necessarily have roller
‘support at one of its ends
ires only static equilibrium
equations for its analysis
[D) will have zero deflection at its ends |
22. If design bond stress = 1-5 N/mm? is
assumed, then the development
length of an Fe 500 HYSD bar of
nominal diameter 12mm, which is
fully stressed in tension will be
io) x
is ee
24, For M20 of
ratio would be ’
i 13-33
[B) 15-54
[c] 12:89
[D} 11-56
25. The Prandti mixing length is
a zero at the pipe wall
{B] maximum at the pipe wall
{C] independent of shear stress
JP None of the above
26. IS 1343 : 1980 limits the
characteristic strength of p
concrete for post-tension work
Pre-tension work as
[A] 25 MPa, 30 MPa
[8] 25 MPa, 35ee
39. Turbidity of raw water measures
[A] hardness
[B] dissolved oxygen
[C] acidity of water
De» suspended solids
40. Which of the given statements is
correct? 7
6
7.
5
7
a
7
3
E
is the rainfall intensity (mm/hr)
epic ne formula: even By ‘The coefficient of permeability &
Dee es eee
(i) void ratio of the soil
(ii) duration of ow
(iii) diameter of the soil grain
(iv) shape of the particle
xy (9, (i), (ii), (tv); 2
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