TNPSC – 2023

ENGLISH MEDIUM PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

S. NO SUBJECT PAGE NO.

1. UNIT – 1 Physics 1 - 10
Chemistry 11 - 17
Biology 18 - 28
2. UNIT – 3 = Geography 29 - 49
3. UNIT – 4 = History 50 - 73

4. UNIT – 5 = Polity 74 - 113

5. UNIT – 6 = Economics 114 - 137

6. UNIT – 7 = INM 138 - 16

7. UNIT – 8 = UNIT – 8 164 - 212

8. UNIT – 9 = Development Administration In 213 - 241

Tamil Nadu
9. UNIT – 10 = Aptitude 242 - 295
 TNPSC – 2023
Physics
UNIT – 1 PHYSICS - Q.324
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. Which of this is the wrong answer?
1 metric tone is
A) 10 quintal B) 1000 kg
A) (1) only B) (2) only C) Both (1) and (2) D) Neither (1) nor

2. If a man has a mass of 50 kg on Earth, then what is his weight?

A) 490 N B) 490 kg C) 50 Kg D) 50 N

3. Natural Satellite of Earth is

A) Andromeda B) Moon C) Sputnik D) Milk way

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. Escape velocity is
A) Constant for all planets B) Varies planet to planet
C) Smaller in inner planets than outer planets D) It is applicable only in earth

2. Octane Number is zero for

A) 𝒏 −Heptane B) Isooctane C) 𝑛-Hexane D) Isoheptance

3. Which of the following is a conservative force?

A) Electrostatic Force B) Gravitational Force
C) Frictional Force D) Both (A) and (B) are Correct

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-

DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. ____________________ is the ability to remember the material at a later time
A) Retention B) Questioning C) Reply D) Answering

2. The rate of change of velocity is

A) Speed B) Acceleration C) Momentum D) Displacement

3. Which gas in the atmosphere saves us from the ultraviolet rays of the sun?
A) Oxygen B) Ozone
C) Nitrogen D) Carbon monoxide

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Physics
05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023
1. The power of lens is measured in
A) Diopter B) Aspheric C) Newton D) Gauss.

2. Rapid Collapsing of massive stars are generating very high heat then the wident explosion is
called.
A) White Dwarf B) Photon Diffusion
C) Steller evolution D) Supernova explosion.

3. Which telescope captured a magnetic field image around a black hole in M87 galaxy?
A) Hubble telescope B) Event horizon telescope.
C) Magella telescope D) Thirty – meter telescope.

4. Using a website to pour out one‘s grievances is called.

A) Cyber venting B) Web hate C) Web anger D) Cyber abuse.

5. Memorization of Information based on repetition is called

A) Conceptual learning B) Rote learning.
C) Meaningful learning D) Active learning.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

1. In the southern Hemisphere the milkyway appears much.
A) Darker B) Brighter C) Larger D) Smaller.

2. Atom bomb used in Nagasaki incident.

A) Little Boy B) Fat man C) Phoenix D) Little Girl.

3. All liquid drops assume spherical shapes, on account of

A) Elasticity B) Surface tension.
C) Viscosity D) Gravitation.

4. How the Thanjavur doll is performing a dance like continuous moving without fall?
A) Centre of mass
B) Centre of acceleration.
C) Centre of gravity
D) None of these.

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Physics
5. Read the following passage and answer the item. Your answer based on passage only.
In India the Environment, clothing, Festivals, Skin colour etc. differ from region to region. There
are several difference often within the same state. But there is one thing that is common out
nationality. There are 22 major language, 122 other language and roughly 1599 dialects in our
country.
Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?
A) It implies the national economy.
B) Increased the growth of population.
C) It is based on the India‟s “Unity in diversity”
D) In Indicate trade and commerce.

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. Choose the correct order of studying scientific method
1. Empirical Test 2. Hypothesis
3. Observation 4. Conclusion
A) 3> 2> 1> 4 B) 2> 3> 1> 4 C) 1> 2> 3> 4 D) 3> 1> 2> 4

2. The term ‗Scientific temper‘ was used by

A) Mahatma Gandhi in ‗Autobiography‘ B) Nehru in „Discovery of India‟
C) Kautilya in ‗Arthashastra‘ D) Bipan Chandra in ‗History of Modern India‘

3. Skills that are developed by learning science

A) communication skill and creativeness B) creativeness and curiosity
C) writing skill and open mindedness D) open mindedness and communication skill

4. Thinking with reasoning is

A) Creating new ideas B) Linking past experience with cause
C) Developing open - mindedness D) Predicting future

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. Which of the following are correct?
The condition at which the amplifier behaves as an oscillator is
(i) Amplifier should have a positive feedback
(ii) A𝛽= 1
(iii) A𝛽= 0
(iv) Amplifier should have a negative feedback
A) (i) and (ii) are correct B) (i) and (iii) are correct
C) (ii) and (iv) are correct D) (iii) and (iv) are correct

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Physics
2. The colours exhibited in soap bubbles due to the _____ of light.
A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Interference D) Diffraction

3. Kepler‘s second law of planetary motion is also known as.

A) Law of unequal velocity B) Law of equal momentum
C) Law of equal area D) Law of inertia

4. Assertion (A): Light incident on a surface at a polarizing angle 40 0 will have the same angle of in-
cidence 400
Reason (R): Polarising angle is the angle of incidence for which the reflected light is completely
plane polarised
A) (A) is true but (R) is false
B) (A) is False (R) is True
C) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D) Both (A) and (R) are False

5. Resistance Movements are mainly focus on

A) being traditional B) being modern
C) being others D) resist to change

6. The six one pillars of scientific temper is __________

A) Scientific Research
B) Scientific Action
C) Scientific Movement
D) Scientific Attitude

7. ‗Thinking out of bos‘ is related to

i) Logical Thinking ii) Creative Thinking
iii) Critical Thinking iv) Analyzing Ability
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (iii) only C) (iv) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

8. The binary number 110000111101 corresponds to a hexadecimal number.

A) CFD16 B) D3C16 C) DBF16 D) C3D16

9. The Unconscious sorting of an arrangement of facts and ideas learnt after a period of time is
called
A) Association B) Consolidation
C) Reminiscence D) Perseveration

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Physics
09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL
SERVICE – 2023

1. Heat transfer in a transparent solid is by.

i) Conduction.
ii) Convection.
i) Radiation.
A) I, ii and iii B) I and ii only C) iii only D) I and iii only.

2. The method of building Nano materials by assembling atoms is called.

A) Top down approach B) Bottom up approach.
C) Cross down approach D) Diagonal approach.

3. What are the characteristics of rote learning?

i) Passive Process ii) Parasitic learning iii) Active learning
iv) Teacher – Centered.
A) iv and ii only B) I and ii only C) I,ii and iv only D) iii and iv only.

4. Assertion (A) : In the case of a sphere floating in a liquid, a tilt one way or other does not change
the shape of the displaced liquid and said to be in neutral equilibrium.
Reason ( R) : Meta centre (M) Coincides with centre of gravity (G) all the time and it continues to
float in all positions.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false, R true.
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

5. Water rises upto a height h in a capillary tube of a certain diameter. The capillary tube is replaced
by a similar capillary tube of half the diameter. The water will rise to a height of.
A) 4 h B) 3 h C) 2 h D) 1 h

6. The Contraction of volume when ice melts can be attributed to

A)Partial collapse of tetrahedral structure B) Formation of Hydrogen bond
C) Water starts to vapourise D) None of the above

7. Arrange the following four steps based on Wallas creativity Theory.

1. Incubation 2. Illumination.
3. Preparation. 4. Verification.
A) 3,1,2,4 B) 3,2,1,4 C) 2,3,1,4 D) 2,1,4,3

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Physics
8. Which of the following is incorrect?
As rain drop descends towards earth.
1) Upward air drag forces increases.
2) It comes with zero acceleration
3) It comes with zero net force.
4) It comes with zero terminal velocity.
A) 4 only B) 1 and 2 C) 3 only D) 3 and 4

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Rote learning is a
A) Passive learning B) Active Learning
C) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect D) Both (A) and (B) are correct

2. 1. Selection 2. Training 3. Interview 4. Appointment

5. Advertisement 6. Application
Arrange the above words in a meaningful sequence
A) 5,6,3,1,4,2 B) 5,3,1,6,4,2
C) 5,6,1,3,4,2 D) 5,6,3,1,2,4

3. Stepwise thinking with a purpose or goal in mind is defined as

A) Concept formation B) Reasoning
C) Intelligence D) Creativity

4. Rote learning is:

i) Used to memorize formulae in maths and science
ii) Memorization technique based on repetition
iii) Does not require understanting of stored data
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

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Physics
12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-
PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 5 kg whose linear momentum is 2.5 Kg ms -1
A) 0.2 kPtp-1 B) 0.7 kPtp-1 C) 0.5 kPtp-1 D) 1.2 kPtp-1

2. An electric heater of resistance 5Ω is connected to an electric source. If a current of 6 A flows

through the heater, then find the amount of heat produced in 5 minutes.
A) 9000 J B) 25000 J C) 54000 J D) 84000 J

3. Match the following measuring instruments with the physical quantities they can measure:
a) Hydrometer 1. Density of sugar in liquid
b) Saccharometer 2. Levels of alcohol in spirit
c) Lactometer 3. Relative density of liquid
d) Alcoholometer 4. Creaminess of milk
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 1 3 4 2

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. The Inertia of a body depend on.
A) Shape of the body. B) Velocity of the body.
C) Momentum of the body. D) Mass of the body.

2. Super nova is a massive explosion of

A) An asteroid B) A dying Star. C) A black hole D) A comet.

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Who proposed the geocentric model of the universe?
A) Tycho Brahe B) Nicolaus Copernicus
C) Ptolemy D) Archimedes

2. Repetitive to and fro motion of an object at regular interval of time about a point is
A) Linear motion B) Circular motion
C) Oscillatory motion D) Random motion

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Physics
15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL
SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Active learning concept was first developed by
A) Bonwell B) Elson
C) Weltman D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau

2. How do you develop ―Scientific Temper‖ among students?

i) Give extra coaching to the students
ii) Encourage them to ask questions and allow them to seek out answer on their own
iii) Motivate to apply the methods of Science in day to day life
iv) Provide well prepared science study materials to them
A) i only B) ii and iii only C) i, ii and iii only D) i, ii, iii and iv only

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. 'Ceres' is a/an
A) meteor B) star C) planet D) Asteroid

2. The mass of a body is measured on Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius half
that of the earth, then its value will be ______kg.
𝑀
A) 4M B) 2M C) 1M D)
4

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. Essential part of a book is _______
A) Knowledge B) Education C)Pages D) Pictures

2. In order to increase organizational efficiency, the "Rule of Thumb‖ method should be substituted
by the methods developed through scientific analysis of work. Rule of thumb means decisions
taken by manager as per their personal judgements. According to Taylor, even a small produc-
tion can be scientifically planned. This will help in saving time as well as human energy.
Which one of the following is not implied in this passage?
A) Scientific methods increase organizational efficiency
B) Saving of time as well as human energy is possible through scientific analysis
C) Personal judgement is called "Rule of Thumb"
D) "Rule of Thumb” method initiated by Taylor increases organizational efficiency

3. This book was written by Isaac Newton during 1685 and 1686
A) Novum Organum B) Two chief world systems
C) Physica D) Principia Mathematica

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Physics
4. Which of the following is explained by the sentence, "My way is not the only way"?
(i) Honesty (ii) Rationality (iii) Open Mindedness (iv) Creativity
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (iii) only D) (iv) only

5. Hubble's law is based on

A) Hooke's law B) Gauss law C) Coulomb's law D) Doppler Effect

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service.
Paper-II

1. Honey is separated from bees wax with help of

A Centrifuge B) Centripetal C) Polarizer D) Analyzer

2. If 'g' is absent in the Universe, which of the following statement is True?

A) It leads to the sensation of weightlessness
B) It leads to complete destruction
C) We have day and night
D)Both (A) and (B) are correct

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. _______and________ bands are used for transmission of TV programmes.
A) THF, VHF B) THF, UHF C)SHF, VHF D) VHF, UHF

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. The theory of use and disuse was given by
A) Stebbins B) Lamarck C) Aristotle D) Charles Darwin

2. Which among the following will improve scientific knowledge?

A) Observation B) Assumption C) Superstition D) Intolerence

3. The largest division of geological time is

A) Eon B) Era C) Period D) Mesozoic Era

4. Sun is now in which of the following stages?

A) Main sequence star B) Red giant star
C) White dwarf D) Black hole

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Physics
21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES
1. Gray is the unit of______.
A) 𝛼 -Range of particles B) Radiation dosage
C) Number of disintegrations D) Half life of a substance

2. Which one of the following is the most effective method to develop conceptual learning in stu-
dent?
A) Understood on their own B) Memorize the concept
C) Reasoning by comparison D) Punishment until acquiring the concept

3. In winter, why do birds sit with their wings spread out?

A) To enclose a lot of air B) to receive heat energy from sun
C) To make balance in winter D) None of the above

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. Identify the characteristic which is not associated with scientificattitude?
A) Critical observation B) Open mindedness
C) free from superstition D) biased

2. Which of the following are the primary colours in a colour TV System?

A) Blue, green, Yellow B) Yellow, Green, Violet
C) Red, Yellow, Violet D) Red, Green, Yellow

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. Assertion [A] : Necessity is the mother of invention
Reason [R]: Those who do not learn from the past are doomed to repeat its mistakes.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

2. While some predators learn to avoid eating certain potential prey because of their colora-
tion, other specie shave evolved mechanisms to imitate this coloration to avoid being eaten,
even though they themselves may not be unpleasant to eat or contain toxic chemicals. This
phenomenon is called
A) Toxicity B)Biofouling C) Mimicry D) Adaptation

3. The unit of electric current is ______________

A) volt B) mole C) candela D) ampere

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Chemistry
UNIT – 1 CHEMISTRY
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. The adulterant added to coffee powder is
A) Chalk Powder B) Sand Grit
C) Tamarind Poder D) Metanil Yellow

2. Due to its great commercial importance, it is called ‗Black Gold‘.

A) Petroleum B) Coke C) Coal Tar D) Ammonia

3. The element that combines with other elements to make medicine for treating diarrhea
A) Bismuth B) Zinc C) Calcium D) Gold

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. Which among the following is an acid?
A) CaO B) BaO C) SiO2 D) Na2O

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN

TAMIL NADU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. The ignition quality of diesel fuel is expressed by ________number.
A) Octane B) Cetane C) Isopentane D) Iodine

2. A compound as hard as diamond is

A) Silicon Carbide B) Silicontetra Chloride
C) Silica D) Silico ethane

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. Which halo carbon has long atmospheric lifetime?
A) Chlorofluoro Carbons B) Hydro Chlorofluoro Carbons.
C) Methyl Bromides D) Methyl Chloroform.

2. Gammexane is the trade name of which of the following?

A) Benzene hexachloride B) Ascorbic acid.
C) Chloramine – T D) DDT.

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Chemistry
3. Cadmipone is a mixture of which of the following?
i) Cadmium sulphide. ii) Barium Sulphate.
iii) Cadmium chloride. iv) Cadmium Sulphate.
A) I and ii only B) ii and iii only
C) ii and iv only D) I, ii and iv only.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

1. The Most vital three elements (Primary Nutrients) for the growth of plants are.
A) K,P and N B) N,P and Mg
C) Fe, P and N D) ca, Mg and Fe

2. The Conjugate bases of Hydrochloric acid and acetic acid are ________ and ________
A) H+ and H- B) Cl – and CH3COO –
C) Cl + and CH3COO- D) Cl – and CH3COO+

3. The compound used in breath analysis test for drunken driving is

A) KMnO4 B) CuSO4.5H2O C) H2O2 D) K2Cr2O7

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. Which among the following is known for the high quality of lignite?
A) Bituminous B) Lignite C) Anthracite D) Beat

2. Which type of Iron ore is called oxide of iron?

A) Haematite B) Magnetite C) Limonite D) Siderite

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. Which of the following petroleum product act as rust inhibitor additives?
A) Alkyl nitrates B) Amino Alkyl phosphates
C) Zinc dithio phosphates D) Ethylene glycol

2. Which of the following act as amphiprotic ions?

A) H2CO3 B) S2- C) PO43- D) HS -

3. Ammonia is prepared by_________

A) Solvay‘s Process B) Haber‟s process
C) Deacon process D) Mulliken process

4. India‘s first fertilizer plant was setup at

A) Ballarpur B) Sindri C) Belagola D) Rajahmundry

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Chemistry
09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL
SERVICE – 2023
1. Match the following:
a) Carrageenin 1. Insulation of boilers.
b) Diatomite 2. Dental impression.
c) Kelps 3. Irish moss
d) Alginic acid 4. Brown Algae.
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 4 1 3 2
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 3 1 4 2

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023
1. Choose the one which is not a Heptahydrate.
i) Green vitriol ii) White Vitriol. iii) Blue Vitriol iv) Red Vitriol.
A) I and II only B) III only C) Iv only D) III and Iv only

2. The insecticides that act as a nerve poison is

A) Endrin B) Ethylene dichloride C) Malathion D) Lead Arsenite.

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Which of the following molecule(s) causes food to cook in a microwave oven?
A) CO2 B) OCS C) H2O D) NH3

2. In 2011, ONGC discovered India‘s first shale gas reserve in which of the following states?
A) Assam B) Gujarath C) West Bengal D) Maharashtra

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
1) Monosomy - 2n – 2
2) Trisomy - 2n + 1
3) Tetrasomy - 2n + 2
4) Nullisomy - 2n + 3
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 1 and 4

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Chemistry
2. Among the following which is a nitrogenous fertilizer?
A) Urea B) Potassium Sulphate C) Bone ash D) Gypsum.

3. Aluminium reacts with sodium hydroxide to give.

A) Sodium Oxide + Alumina + Hydrogen.
B) Sodium Meta Aluminate + water.
C) Metallic Sodium + Aluminium Hydroxide.
D) Sodium Meta aluminate + Hydrogen.

4. Cane sugar is made up of three elements ______, _______ and _______

A) Carbon, Nitrogen and oxygen B) Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen
C) Carbon, Calcium and oxygen D) Carbon, Hydrogen and Iron

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. The octane rating for premium gasoline is
A) 70 B) 91 to 94 C) 100 D) 0

2. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

i) Beryllium - Crookesite.
ii) Thalium - Colemanite.
iii) Aluminium - Bauxite.
iv) Germanium - Germanite.
A) (i) and (iv) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (iii) and (iv) only

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. If the pH of a solution is 4, Its (OH-) ion Concentration is
A) 1X10-4 M B) 4 M D) 10 M D) 1X10-10 M

2. The Metal/Metals which excel in the conduction of heat and electricity

A) Copper and Tungsten B) Copper and Silver
C) Silver and Tungsten D) Copper alone

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Which one of the following is the Natural Nanomaterial?
A) Peacock feather B) Peacock beak
C) Grain of sand D) Skin of the whale

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Chemistry
2. The gas which turns lime water milky is
A) Nitrogen B) Water vapour C) Carbon di oxide D) Oxygen

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. _______is the only non-metal that is liquid at room temperature.
A) Mercury B) Bromine C) Gallium D) Sulphur

2. Potash alum is a mixture of

A) Potassium sulphate and copper sulphate
B) Potassium sulphate and aluminium sulphate
C) Potassium sulphate and potassium chloride
D) Potassium chloride and aluminium sulphate

3. NPK stands for

A) Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorous B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
C) Neon, Potassium, Phosphorus D) Neon, Phosphorus, Potassium

17. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service.
Paper-II
1. Which of the following is/are not an allotrope of Carbon?
(i) Diamond (ii) Carborundum (iii) Graphite (iv) Fullerene
A) (i) and (iii) B) (ii) and (iv)
C) (ii) alone D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

2. Which of the following compound is used as a fertilizer?

A) Ammonium Chloride B) Ammonium Bromide
C) Ammonium Fluoride D) Ammonium Oxide

3. If pH of any Aqueous Solution at 25°C is 8, then its pOH is equal to

A) 1 B) 7 C) 0 D) 6

18. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. Which among the following chemical is mixed with LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) in LPG cy-
linders?
A) Sulphur dioxide B)Ethyl Mercaptan
C)Mercapto ethanol D) Nitrogen dioxide

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 TNPSC – 2023
Chemistry
2. Assertion [A] : Atmospheric turbulence is characterised by different size eddies.
Reason [R]: Eddies are primarily responsible for diluting and transporting the pollutants injected
into the atmosphere
A) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
B) (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is true, but [R] is false [A]
D) [A] is false but [R] is true [A]

3. Which one of the following is not a Lewis acid?

A) BF3 B) NH3 C) AICI3 D) BH3

4. Assertion [A]: A good fertilizer should be basic.

Reason [R]: Slightly basic soil is must for proper growth of plants.
A) [A] is false; [R] is true B) [A] is true; [R] is true
C) [A] is true; [R] is false D) Both [A] and [R] are false

19. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. According to the research study published in Journal Environmental Science and Technology
rainwater is no longer potable as it is contaminated with forever chemicals. Find out the forever
chemical from the following.
A) Polyfluoroalkyl substances B) Polyamines
C) Alkyl substances Polyhydroxy butyrated substances

20. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. The fertilizer which contain highest nitrogen content is
A) Ammonium sulphate B) Calcium ammonium nitrate
C) Urea D) Sodium nitrate

2. A recently discovered fossil "Eophylica Priscastellata” from Myanmar was a

A) Butterfly B) Fern C)Flower D) Rhinoceros

21. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. Which of the following statements are true about biogas plant?
1. Difficult to handle the effluent slurry
2. Gas forming methanogenic bacterias are sensitive
3. Easy to handle the gas collection
4. PH plays major role
A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1,2,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3

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Chemistry
2. Which gas is maximum available in Sun?
A) Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Helium D) Nitrogen

3. The element needed to increase the straw of cereal crops is

A) Nitrogen B) Phosphorous C) Calcium D) Iron

4. ________is the ratio of Helium-Neon mixture in the He : Ne Laser.

A)1: 5 B) 5 : 1 C) 1 : 10 D) 1 : 1

22. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. Which of the following is the correct order of basicity of hydride compounds?
A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 B) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
C) SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 D) SbH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < NH3

2. Assertion [A] : Diamond is used for cutting glass

Reason [R]: Diamond has a high refractive index
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is true but [R] is false
D) [A] is false but [R] is true

3. Match the following

a) Pesticide residues 1. Globalwarming
b) Nitrogen dioxide 2. Biomagnification
c) Carbondioxide 3. Bluebabysyndrome
d) Nitratein drinking water 4. Respiratory disorders
a b c d
A) 1 4 3 2
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 4 1 3

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Biology
UNIT – 01 BIOLOGY
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. __________ is a tough and thick white sheath that protects the inner parts of the eye.
A) Sclera B) Conjunctiva C) Cornea D) Iris

2. Caudal Vertebrare and Vermiform appendix are example for

A) Secondary Organs B) Analogous Organs
C) Homologous Organs D) Vestigial Organs

3. Identify the incorrectly matched deficiency disorder

A) Vitamin B3 – Pellagra B) Vitamin B6 – Dermatitis
C) Vitamin B2 - Beriberi D) Vitamin B12 – Perinicious Anaemia

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. Natural selection theory was proposed by
A) Lamarck B) C.D Darlington C) Charles Darwin D) Henslow

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-

DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023

1. CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) is an autonomous body registered under the
A) Registration of Societies Act of 1860 B) Registration of Indian Act of 1860
C) Registration of Civil Act of 1860 D) Registration of Developmental Act of 1860

2. The two major components of an Ecosystem are

A) Ecologic and Edaphic B) Water and land
C) Abiotic and Biotic D) Air and Water

3. The term ‗Emasculation‘ refers to

A) Removal of flowers B) Removal of anthers
C) Removal of carpels D) Removal of Perianth

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. The genotypic ratio for monohybrid cross is.
A) 3 : 1 B) 9 : 7 C) 1:2:1 D) 9:3:3:1

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Biology
06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023
1. Germ plasm theory was proposed by.
A) Charles Darwin B) August Weismann.
C) Gregor Johann Mendel D) Hugo Devries.

2. ‗The Origin of Species‘ book written by

A) Lamark B) De vries. C) Darwin D) Oparin.

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. The prokaryotes are included in the kingdom
A) Fungi B) Monera C) Animalia D) Plantae

2. Which one of the following is not marine ecosystem?

A) Estuary B) Coral reefs C) Sea D) Lake

3. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?

A) Gonorrhoea B) Tuberculosis C) Dysentry D) Mumps

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. ________is the dynamic process by which an organism maintains and controls its internal envi-
ronment despite disturbances from external forces.
A) Hemostasis B) Peristasis C) Homeostasis D) Peristalsis

2. The excess quantities of _________ leads to cause of Breast cancer in our body.
A) Melatonin B) Diapause C) Serotonin D) Adrenin;

3. As a renewable source, air replenishes by______ process

A) Respiration ) Weather C) Climate D) Tides

4. Assertion (A): Recent study shows that pregnant women and the foetus can be affected indirectly
by pesticides exposed in the environment.
Reason (R): The Children between 0-9 years whose parent had occupational exposure to pesti-
cides, developed Acute Lymphoblastic Anaemia [ALA]
A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is false but (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

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Biology
09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL
SERVICE – 2023
1. Which Biopesticide has been proven to be very effective in controlling locusts?
A) Metarhizium acridum B) Bacillus Thuringiensis.
C) Trichoderma viride D) Pseudomonas Fluorescens.

2. Match the following and choose the correct option:

a) A non toxic glue for plywood 1. Chitin in crab shells.
b) For long term Medical monitoring 2. Glucose oxidase enzyme and iron oxide nano
Particle.
c) High performing lithium –ion batteries 3. Glucose and Citric acid.
d) ‗Greener‘ way to clean waste water
Treatment filters. 4. Sugar cubes dipped in poly dimethyl siloxane.
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 4 3 2 1

3. The theory of use and disuse of organs was put forward by.
A) Darwin B) Weismann C) Oparin D) Lamarck.

4. Forest Survey of India (FSI) was created with effect from.

A) June 1, 1981 B) June 11,1981 C) July 1, 1981 D) July 11,1981.

5. Colour blindness is a ______ disease.

A) Iron deficiency B) Air borne infection C) Vitamin deficiency D) Hereditary.

6. Match the following:

a) Anilinopyrimidines 1. Herbicide.
b) 2, 4D 2. Rodenticide.
c) Zinc Phosphide 3. Funicide.
d) Parathion 4. Insecticide.
a b c d
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 1 2 4 3

7. Enclosed and essentially self sufficient (but not necessarily isolated) experimental environment or
ecosystem that is on a larger scale is known as
A) Mesocosm B) Microcosm C) Macrocosm D) Macrophyte.
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Biology

8. Assertion (A) : Atelectasis means collapse of the alveoli.

Reason ( R) : Total obstruction of the airway and lack of surfactant in the fluid lining of the alveoli.
A) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is correct.
B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but reason ( R) does not explain Assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are wrong.
D) Assertion (A) and Reason ( R) are correct, Reason (R) explains Assertion (A).

9. The Chief function of Velamen tissue in plants.

A) Storage of food materials.
B) Absorption of moisture from air.
C) Synthesize of food materials.
D) Conduction of food material.

10. ‗Guttation‘ takes place through.

A) Hydathode B) Lenticel C) Stomata D) Cuticle.

11. The largest ecosystem in the world is.

A) Desert ecosystem B) Ocean ecosystem.
C) Grassland ecosystem D) Forest Ecosystem.

12. Which of the following event s occur during hibernation in animals?

i) Oxygen Consumption rate is reduced.
ii) Heart beat rate of animal is increased.
iii) The body temperature falls 1-2℃ below the environmental temperature.
A) I and ii are correct B) I and iii are correct.
C) ii and iii are correct D) iii only correct
.
10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-
GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023
1. The system of classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus is.
A) Natural System B) Phylogenetic system.
C) Modern system D) Artificial system.

2. Identify the incorrect statement with reference to prokaryotic cell.

A) Lack of membrane bound genetic material.
B) Presence of 70S Ribosomes.
C) Presence of Mesosomes.
D) Presence of membrane bound organelles like chloroplast and mitochondria.

3. In the body wall of ascaris, the correct sequence of layers from outside towards inner side is.
A) Cuticle, Epidermis, longitudinal muscles.
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 TNPSC – 2023
Biology
B) Cuticle, epidermis, longitudinal and circular muscles.
C) Epidermis, Longitudinal and Circular muscles, Cuticle.
D) Epidermis, Cuticle, longitudinal muscles.

4. Which of the following statement will fit for Lamprey?

i) Lives in sea and migrates to the rivers for spawning.
ii) Endoparasites.
iii) Jawless animal
A) I and ii only B) ii only. C) I and iii only D) iii only.

5. Arrange the hormones in order during the female reproductive cycle.

1) Luteinizing hormone 2) Progesterone.
3) Prolactin 4) Follicle stimulating hormone.
A) 2 4 1 3 B) 4 1 2 3 C) 3 4 1 2 D) 1 4 2 3

6. Insulin was discovered by.

A) Alex and Nicholas B) Mayer and Wilson.
C) Banting and Best D) Robert and Jacob.

7. Read the following passage and answer the item that follows:
Populations that occupy separate geographical areas. Because of their geographical separa-
tion, they can not interbreed, but would be expected to do so if the geographic barrier between
them were removed. The separated populations evolve independently and adapt to their respec-
tive environments, generating reproductive barriers between them as a result of their separate
evolutionary paths.
This passage is insisting.
A) Allopatric speciation B) Peripatric speciation.
C) Sympatric speciation D) Parapatric speciation.

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE –
2023
1. The ‗Operon model‘ for Gene regulation was proposed by
A) Messelson and Stahl B) Watson and Crick
C) Jacob and Monod D) Avery and Mccleoid

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Biology
12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-
PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. The National Flower of India, Lotus is botanically known as
A) Centaurea B) Nelumbo Nucifera C) Acacia D) Lisianthus.

2. The Causative Organism Bordetella pertussis affecting the respiratory tract causes _______
disease.
A) Diphtheria B) Tuberculosis
C) Polio Myelitis D) Whooping Cough

3. Among the following animals, whose saliva contains the bio-chemical substance used for the
preparation of pharamaceutical drugs that can treat hypertension.
A) Oryctolagus Cuniculus B) Calotes versicolor
C) Rana Hexadactyla D) Hirundinaria granulose

4. ______ converts the light rays into impulses and sends the signals to the brain through the Optic
nerve.
A) Retina B) Cornea C) Sclera D) Lens

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. Brood pouch is found in
A) Male seahorse B) Sucker fish C) Female seahorse D) Female shark.

2. Mule is a hybrid of
A) Sheep and Donkey B) Horse and pig.
C) Donkey and cow D) Horse and Donkey.

3. _____ is the eco friendly agricultural practices.

A) Organic farming B) Shifting Cultivation.
C) Culivation of high yielding varieties D) Growing plants in glass houses.

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION – 2023
1. Which of the following factors necessary for photosynthesis?
A) Sunlight, Xanthophyll, Carbondioxide, Water
B) Carbondioxide, Water, Sunlight, Heat
C) Sunlight, Sulphur dioxide, Water, Chlorophyll
D) Sunlight, Sulphur dioxde, Water, Chlorophyll

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Biology
2. The Only block that contains all three types of elements in Periodic Table
A) S – Block B) P – Block C) D – Block D) F –Block

3. Match the following:

Radio-Isotope Treatment
A) Radio Sodium-Na24 - 1.Skin diseases
B) Radio Iodine-I131 - 2. Diagnose Anaemia
C) Radio Iron-Fe59 - 3. Effective functioning of heart
D) Radio Phosphorous-P - 4. Cure goiter
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 4 2 3 1

4. As per UNO, a child is a person who has not completed the age of ______ years
A) 12 years B) 14 years C) 15 years D) 18 years

5. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of
A) Photosynthesis B) Assimilation C) Respiration D) Decomposition

6. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

1. NCPCR – National Cooperation for Protection of Child Rights
2. NIDDM – Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellites
3. ELISA – Enzyme Linked Insulin Sorbent Assay
4. NACO – National AIDS control organization
A) 2 and 3 B) 1 and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 4

7. Assertion [A] : Gymnosperms are naked seed plant

Reason [R] : The ovules are enclosed by Ovary in Gymnospermic plants.
A) Both [A] and [R] are True
B) Both [A] and [R] are False
C) [A] is False, [R] is True
D) [A] is true but [R] is False

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Father of Zoology is
A) Aristotle B) Carlos Linnaeus C) Haeckel D) Bateson

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Biology
2. It is a condition in which the Immune system mistakenly attacks body‘s own cells and tissues
Normally, body has the tolerance against self antigen. However, in some occasions the tolerance
fails or becomes incomplete against self antigen. It leads to the activation of T Lymphocytes or
production of B Lymphocytes. The disease is produced when body‘s normal tolerance decreased
and the immune system fails to recognize the body‘s own tissues as ―Self‖.
This passage signifies the following condition :
A) Auto craft Rejection B) Auto Immune Disease
C) Auto Antigen Disorder D) Acquired Immune Disease

3. Xylem tissue is composed of

A) Tracheids, Fibres and Companion Cells
B) Tracheids, Vessels and Sieve Elemens
C) Tracheids, Parenchyma, Fibres and Companion Cells
D) Tracheids, Fibres, Vessels and parenchyama

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Amazon forest is the largest rain forest in the world. It is known as
A) Heart of the planet B) Eyes of the planet
C) Lungs of the planet D) Brain of the planet

2. William Beaumont was a surgeon who was known as

A) Father of Neuro Surgery B) Father of Gastric Physiology
C) Father of Heart Surgery D) Father of Nephrology

3. Glycolysis takes place in

A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria C)Cytoplasm D) Ribosome

4. Assertion [A] : Bryophytic plants are prevent soil erosion. Economically Sphagnam is more valu-
able.
Reason [R]: Sphagnam can absorb large amount of water, hence it is used by the gardeners in
nursery. Peat is a valuable fuel like coal is obtained from Sphagnam
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) [A] is false, [R] is ture
C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

5. Which are the statements are true about the insufficient in nutrition and health?
1. Anaemic 2. Underweight 3. Enough micronutrient
A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 3 only C)1 and 2 only D) 2 only

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Biology
17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY
1. It includes claimed reception of information not gained through the recognized physical senses,
but sensed with the mind.
The above definition is Apt for
A) Brain cognition B) Extra sensory perception
C) Super Brain D) Artificial Intelligence

2. Which one of the following bacterium involved for food poisoning?

A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Rhizobium meliloti D) Clostridium botulinum

3. The environmental laps rate during day time is governed by

(i) Wind speed (ii) Sunlight
(iii) Topographical features (iv) Cloud cover
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only D) (i) and (iv) only

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service.
Paper-II
1. A food web consists of
A) a portion of a food chain
B) producer, consumer and decomposers
C) interlocking food chains
D) a set of similar consumers

2. In evolution, "use and disuse theory' was proposed by

A) Charles Darwin B) Alfred Wallace C) Lamarck D) Hutten

3. The main component of the food which helps our body to fight against infections is
A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Fat D) Starch

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. The lowest category in Taxonomic hierarchy is
A) Kingdom B) Family C) Genus D) Species

2. Kala azar is caused by

A) Leishmania tropica B) Leishmania donovani
C) Leishmania brasiliensis D) Trypanosoma cruzi

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Biology
20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. Darwin, during his voyage in 1835 studied the Flora and Faura of
A) Greenland B) Channel Islands
C) Galapagas Islands D) Queen Elizabeth Islands

2. The site for Kreb's cycle is

A) Grana of Chloroplasts B) Matrix of Mitochondrian
C)Stroma of Chloroplast D) Inner Mitochondrial membrane

3. The chemical name of 2, 4, 5 T is

A) 2,4-dinitro-5-dipropyl difluro methyl benzene B) 2,4,5-trichloro phenoxy acetic acid
C) 2,4-dichloro, 5-Fluro phenoxy acetic acid D) 2,4-dinitro-5-butylphenol

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. The number of chromosomes found in Turner syndrome' is
A) 44 B) 45 C) 46 D) 47

2. Genetic drift is also called as

A) Sewall Wright effect B) Founders principle
C) Gene flow D) Crossing over

3. Which is an example of sex linked inheritance in man?

A) Tuberculosis B) Typhoid C) Nausea D) Haemophilia

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. In meiosis, recombination occurs in
A) Metaphase I B) Prophase I C) Metaphase II D) Prophase II

2. Duplication of mitochondrial DNA takes place during

A) G1 - Phase B) S – Phase C) G2 – Phase D) G0 - state

3. Individuals with _____blood group is called universal Donor.

A) AB B) O C) A D) B

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. The largest organelle within a eukaryotic cell is____________
A) Mitochondria B) GolgiApparatus
C) Nucleus D) Ribosome

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Biology
2. The Blue print for making ultra durable synthetic material is mimicked from
A) Lotus leaf B) Morpho butterfly
C) Parrot Fish D) Peacock feather

3. Match the following:

A) Carpotroche caceresiae 1. Guardian of the forest of EBO
B) Victoria boliviana 2. Berta coceres
C) Ímpatiens banen‘ 3. Sweet potato
D) Ipomoea aequatoriensis 4. Kew's Herbarium
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1

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 TNPSC – 2023
Geography
UNIT – 3 GEOGRAPHY
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES - 2023
1. Drop, cover, hold‘ is a mock drill a vowal for
A) Fire B) Tsunami C) Earthquake D) Riot

2. Which of the following is not a cash crop?

A) Sugarcane B) Coffee C) Tobacco D) Cotton

3. Which is longest peninsular river?

A) Mahanadi B) Godavari C) Krishna D) Narmada

4. International airports in Tamil Nadu are _______________ in number

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1

5. ___________ Metro railway system and services are operational in India in the year 2022
A) 13 B) 14 C) 15 D) 16

6. Yaas cyclone was formed in

A) Arabian Sea B) Bay of Bengal C) Red Sea D) Dead Sea

7. Where did the first sub- urban railway started in India?

A) Kolkatta B) Chennai C) Delhi D) Mumbai

8. Which is the India‘s oldest fold mountain range?

A) Zaskar Range B) Karakoram range C) Aravalli Range D) Ladakh Range

9. Which nuclear power plant is located in Tamil Nadu?

A) Naron B) Kudankulam C) Tarapur D) Narora

10. Which one of the following is the second largest port in India?
A) Mumbai B) Mangalore C) Chennai D) Cochin

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES

IN EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Chipko movement was held under the leadership of
A) Kailash Vidyarthi B) Medha Patkar
C) Anna Hazare D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

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Geography

2. A layer of lose, heterogeneous material covering solid rock, is

A) Batholith B) Regolith C) Granite D) Marble

3. The river Cauvery divides itself into two channel at _____________ Coleroon and Cauvery
A) Viluppuram B) Tiruchirapalli C) Srirangam D) Madurai

4. Identify the incorrect justification for the statement given below: India;s population is in a stage,
where birth rate is falling, death rate also falling and population continues to grow:
A) Family Planning B) Increase in social responsibility
C) Increase in standard of living D) Changing status of women

5. In our planet, the flowering plants dominate in which region?

A) Polar Region B) High Mountain Region
C) Plain and Hill Regions D) Dry Desert Region

6. Which one of the following device is used for controlling particulate emission at power plants,
cement and paper mills?
A) Electrostatic Precipitator B) Catalytic Converter
C) Trickling Filter D) Sand Filter

7. Match the following:

Festivals States
1.Losar - Telengana
2. Bonalu - Ladakh
3. Pooram - Asom
4. Bihu - Kerala
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 3 2 1 4

8. In the region of moderate rainfall, the average temperature in the month of January and July Va-
ries Between
A) 16oC - 30oC B) 18oC - 32oC C) 20oC - 34oC D) 22oC - 36oC

9. The oldest inhabitants of India are considered to be

A) Mongoloids B) Negritoes C) Indo-Aryans D) Mediterraneans

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03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-
DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Globally wetlands are conserved with the designation of _______________ which was signed in
Iran, 1971.
A) Ramsar Sites B) National Parks
C) Sanctuaries D) Mega biodiversity centers

2. Butterflies are recognized as sensitive indicators of an environmental change and as an umbrel-

la species whose targeted conservation benefits wider communities of lesser known, threatened
species. According to the IUCN Red list categories the majority of the Umbrella species as being
A) Endangered or threatened B) Extinct
C) Least Concern D) Data deficient and not evaluated

3. The average temperature of March 2022 is India‘s highest temperature in the last 122 years and
it was very difficult to predict in advance. The reason behind this is
A) Climate Change B) La-Nino
C) Abelian D) Perihelion

4. Assertion [A] : Caste can be defined as a closed rank status group, with a set of values, beliefs
and practices.
Reason [R] : Nowadays, though caste system has disappeared due to education, occupation,
status etc to a certain extent, it exists in all groups still
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false and [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true

5. Largest mangrove forest region found in India is at

A) Sundarbans B) Pichavaram
C) Godavari - Krishna Mangrove D) Baratang island

6. In which state Bandipur Tiger reserve Located in India?

A) Andhra Pradesh B) Karnataka
C) Kerala D) Tamil Nadu

7. In India, __________ is located at the confluence of river Ganga and Yamuna

A) Allahabad B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Aurangabad D) Punjab
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8. Where Lahaul and Spiti are located in Himalayas?

A) Sikkim Himalayas B) Himachal Himalayas
C) Kashmir Himalayas D) Assam Himalayas

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. Which river in the southern peninsula has the second largest basin covering 10% of the area of
India?
A) Godavari B) Ganga C) Narmada D) Cauvery.

2. Which among this is defined as the forestry of the people for the people and by the people?
A) Community forestry B) Social Forestry.
C) Agro - Forestry D) Commercial forestry.

3. Chambal river is a tributary of

A) Ganga B) Yamuna C) Indus D) Brahmaputra.

4. North - west of Udaipur the Aravalli hills are called as

A) Jarga Hills B) Kaimur Hills
C) Khasi Hills D) Baba - Bidan Hills.

5. The Phenotype classification of human races have broadly divided on the basis of
A) Colour of their Skin B) Mental quality of a person.
C) Emotions, interests and manner D) Quality and quantity of food intake.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE - 2023

1. “Preventive measures that can be taken for protecting the water-shed, Construction of dam and
prevention of human encroachment on catchment area‖. Which one of the following catastrophic
disaster prevention is referred in the above statement?
A) Flood B) Valcanoes C) Earthquakes D) Tsunami

2. Assertion (A) : India has been divided into 20 river basins/ group of river basins, Comprising 12
major basins and eight composite river basins.
Reason (R) : Each of these basins has a drainage area below 10,000 sq.km.
A) A is true, but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true; and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false , R is true.
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. Which of the following is /are wrongly matched?

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a) Namdapha National park - Arunachal pradesh.
b) Keibul Lamjao National park - Meghalaya.
c) Nokrek National park - Manipur
d) Similipal National park - Odisha.
A) a and b B) b and C C) d only D) a only.

4. Which is not in the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram in Tamilnadu?

A) Arjunas Penance B) Shore Temple
C) Five Rathas D) Aayi Mandapam.

5. According to 2001 census the lowest population density of 13 persons per sq.km was found in
which state of India?
A) Arunachal pradesh B) Megalaya.
C) Mizoram D) Sikkim.

6. Match the following:

List I List II
a) Nokrek - 1.Odisha.
b) Simlipal - 2.Meghalaya.
c) Panchmarhi - 3.Arunachal pradesh.
d) Dehang - Dibang - 4.Madhya pradesh.
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 3 4 1 2

7. In India, the largest freshwater lake Loktak is situated in

A) Kerala B) Uttaranchal C) Manipur D) Rajasthan.

8. The Average annual rainfall less than 20 cm is recorded in which part of Rajasthan?
A) Eastern Rajasthan B) Western Rajasthan.
C) Southern Rajasthan D) Northern Rajasthan.

9. Name the states with no tribes have been scheduled in

A) Punjab and Haryana B) Bihar and Jharkhand.
C) Karnataka and Andhra pradesh D) Answer not known.

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07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
SERVICE - 2023
1. The head quarters of the south western Railways is located in
A) Hubli B) Allahabad C) Bhubaneshwar D) Jabalpur

2. Which type of Iron ore is called oxide of iron?

A) Haematite B) Magnetite C) Limonite D) Siderite

3. The first Meterological Director General of India was

A) V.P.Subramanyam B) R.L.Singh C) K.L.Rao D) H.E. Bland Ford

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE - 2023
1. Which among the following is known as ―Terror of Bengal‖?
A) Algal Bloom B) Eichhornia plant
C) Increased BOD D) Eutrophication

2. Which of the following statement is /are incorrect?

i) Pyramids of energy shape is always upright.
ii) Nilgiris bioreserve covering Tamil nadu, Kerala and Karnataka States.
iii) Namdapha bioreserve is located in Andhra Pradesh
iv) Nandadevi bioreserve is located in Uttar pradesh
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (iii) only C) (iv) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

3. The type of drought which lead to a famine, widespread disease and death from starvation is
A) Meterological drought B) Hydrological drought
C) Agricultural drought D) Socio economic drought

4. Assertion (A): The Prime objective of the Government is the overall development of the tribal
community
Reason (R): Proper and effective implementation of schemes is of paramount importance.
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

5. The Food security has the following three components:

(i) Accessibility (ii) Allocation (iii) Availability (iv) Absorbtion
A) (i), (ii), (iii) B) (i), (iii), (iv) C) (ii), (iii), (iv) D) (i), (ii), (iv)

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6. Which is the highly populated race in the states of Nagaland and Megalaya?
A) Meladia B)Aryans C) Mongoloid D) Turko

7. Indian traders sailed to the region stretching from Burma to Indonesia called.
A) Suvarnabhumi B) Land of silver
C) Land of Precious stones D) Land of Diamond

8. Choose the wrong statement

Survival of Indus cultural features on modern Indian society
A) Models of cart as toys remains in India
B) Foot-wheel pottery remains in North-west India
C) The Indus technology of making beads from semi-precious stones remaind today
D) The Citadel system of town planning remains today

9. Match the following:

List - I List - II
A) Earth quakes - 1) Harbour wave
B) Soil erosion - 2) Measured in Richter scale
C) Flood - 3) Top soil removed by running water, flowing wind or
moving ice at faster rate
D) Tsunami - 4) Water borne diseases
a b c d
A) 2 4 3 1
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 2 3 4 1

10. Assertion (A): Areas ofhigh density of population in India are well watered, arable Low lands of
fertile soils and easy transportation.
Reason (R): High density areas also contain old settlements
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true

11. The world‘s lightest satellite launched by India with 64 gms of weight is
A) Kalpanasat B) Kalamsat C) Kaviyansat D) Kesansat

12. One of the following state do not come under ChotaNagpur Industrial Belt
A) Jharkhand B) Bihar C) Odisha D) Chhattisgarh

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13. Wind Energy potentials in Tamil Nadu are

(i) Palghat Pass, Coimbatore (ii) Shencottai Pass, Tirunelveli
(iii) Aralvoymozhi Pass, Kanniyakumari (iv) Arupukottai Pass, Virudhunagar
Choose the correct one:
A) (i),(ii),(iv) B) (i), (iii), (iv) C) (ii), (iii), (iv) D) (i), (ii), (iii)

14. The length of the Son River is

A) 843 Km B) 784 Km C) 719 Km D) 900 Km

15. The tributary which is not in connection with Kaveri

A) Herangi B) Shimsa C) Kabani D) Kolar

16. National centre for Antarctic Ocean Research is situated in

A) Mumbai B) Goa C) Kochi D) Vizag

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE - 2023
1. Which is the florist region of India which has the species of Camamus Vininalies and Camamus?
A) Ganga plain B) Deccan Region
C) Malabar Region D) Andaman - Nicobar Region.

2. Sir Herbert Risley classified Indian races into ________ types.

A) 5 B) 7 C) 3 D) 4

3. Which of the following statements are true about India from the following information which one is
correct?
i) The world‘s second most populous country.
ii) The Fifth largest country in area.
iii) In 2011, population density of 382 persons per sq.km.
A) I only B) I and iii only C) I and ii only D) ii and iii only

4. The term used for the event, which causes death and injuries due to sudden rush of crowd is
A) Stampede B) Procession C) Riot D) Natural disaster

5. Find the mismatched linguistic group and language:

i) The Indo - European family - Arya.
ii) The Dravidian family - Dravida.
iii) Austric family - Kannada.
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iv) Sino -Tibetan family - Kirata.
A) I and II only B) II and III only C) III only D) I, II and IV only

6. Arrange the population density in descending order based on 2011 census.

1) Bihar 2) West Bengal 3) Kerala 4) Uttar pradesh.
A) 4,1,2,3 B) 1,2,4,3 C) 2,1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4

7. The main land of India extends between.

A) 8° 4‟ North Latitude to 37°6‟ North latitude.
68.7‟ East Longitude to 97°25‟ East longitude
B) 8°4‘ North latitude to 36°6‘ North latitude.
68°7‘ East longitude to 97°25‘ East longitude.
C) 9°3‘ North Latitude to 37°5‘ North Latitude.
68°7‘ East Longitude to 97°25‘ East longitude.
D) 8°4‘ North Latitude to 37°6‘ North Latitude.
68°7‘ East Longitude to 95°25‘ East longitude.

8. The ‗Yanadi‘ tribal people of India live in the ______ state India.
A) Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka C) Andhra Pradesh D) Kerala

9. Match the following:

Dams State
a) Obra Dam - 1. Maharashtra.
b) Tawa Dam - 2. Uttar pradesh.
c) Hiraud Dam - 3. Madya pradesh.
d) Kadakwasla - 4. Orissa.
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 2 4 3
D) 3 1 4 2

10. Match the following states with its National Highways (km) under Bharathmala Scheme:
States Bharatmala Scheme NH (Km)
a) Nagaland - 1.193
b) Mizoram - 2.361
c) Assam - 3.512
d) Manipur - 4.607
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
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B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 2 4 3 1

11. Match the following and choose the correct option:

a) Environment Protection - 1.India REACH
b) Insurance for Employees - 2.FSSAI
c) Chemical Management and Safety - 3.Umbrella Act.
d) Food Safety - 4.ESIC
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 2 3 4 1

12. In which City of Tamil Nadu, a floating solar power plant with 25.3 MW DC/22 MW AC capacity
was inaugurated in March 2022?
A) Thoothukudi B) Chennai C) Ramanathapuram D) Kanyakumari.

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE - 2023
1. Vallanadu wildlife sancturary is located at.
A) Coimbatore B) Thoothukudi
C) Erode D) Ooty.

2. Identify the wrongly matched pair.

1. Bodoland people‘s front - Jharkhand.
2. Hill state people‘s democratic party - Assam.
3. Lok Jansakthi party - Bihar.
4. Rashtriya Loktantrik party - Rajasthan.
A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 3 and 4

3. Choose the rightly matched pair.

River Length in Km
a) Godaveri - 1.1565
b) Krishna - 2.1400
c) Narmada - 3.1310
d) Mahanadi - 4.1205
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 2 and 3 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct.
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4. Which among the following separates greater and lesser Himalaya?

A) Karol Basin B) Main Central thrust
C) Dun Valley D) Kathmandu Valley

5. Which one of the following Indian states is the leading producer of silver?
A) Andhra pradesh B) Tamil Nadu.
C) Kerala D) Bihar.
6. Which one is the pioneer satellite of India?
A) Bhaskara B) Aryabhata C) PSLV D) INSAT

7. Consider the following statements and choose the right option for what under – population means.
Statement 1: A situation where the number of people that can be supported is the same as
the available resources.
Statement 2 : A situation where by the population is considered too large for the available
resources.
Statement 3 : A situation where the population is less than the available resources of a country.
A) Statement I,II and III are right.
B) Statement I is correct and II and III are incorrect.
C) Statement II is correct and I and III are incorrect.
D) Statement III is correct and I and II are incorrect.

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Largest area of Iand is used to cultivate_______ crop in TN.
A) Paddy B) Sugarcane C) Groundnut D) Coconut

2. Match the following:

List I List II
A) Hydrosphere - 1. Lies above 50 km the thermosphere
B) Lithosphere - 2. Earth‘s crust and a lower portion of the mantle
C) Biosphere - 3. Earth‘s water which exists in both fresh and saline form
D) Ionosphere - 4. Lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere in which living
organism live
a b c d
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 1 3 4 2
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C) 4 1 3 2
D) 2 4 1 3

3. National Waterway 1 (NW1) connects the cities of _______ and _________

A) Allahabad – Haldia B) Dhubri - Sadiya
C) Muktiyala - Vijayawada D) Chennai - Puducherry

4. The year in which wild life protection act was enacted in India.
A) 1975 B) 1872 C) 1972 D) 1982

5. ______ is the largest salt water lake in India

A) Renuka lake B) Sambhar lake C) Pulicat lake D) Chilka lake

6. The circulation of upper air jet streams in the

A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Thermosphere

7. The Central Institute of Indian language is located at

A) New Delhi B) Mumbai
C) Kolkatta D) Bangalore

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ

DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEER-
ING SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023

1. The headquarter of pavan - Hans Helicopter Ltd. Is

A)Kolkatta B) Mumbai C) NewDelhi D) Chennai.

2. The Caucasoid is known as __________ race.

A)Asian B) European C) African D) Australian.

3. Match the following:

a) Karakoram pass 1. Himachal Pradesh.
b) Zojila pass 2. Sikkim.
c) Bamdila pass 3. Jammu and Kashmir.
d) Nathula pass 4. Arunachal pradesh.
a b c d
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 1 4 3
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4. Assertion (A) :The Arabian Sea branch of South West Monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west
Coast of India.
Reason (R) : It is located in the windward side of the west ernghats.
A) (A) is true but ( R) is false
B) (A) is false, (R) is true
C) Both (A) and ( R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

5. Which of the following wild life sanctuary is located at Tirunelveli District?

A) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary B) Mundanthurai Wildlife Sanctuary
C) Indira Gandhi wildlife Sanctuary D) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary

6. Which states are benefited from Tungabhadra Project?

A) Andhra pradesh and Tamil Nadu. B) Andhra pradesh and Karnataka.
C) Andhra pradesh and Maharashtra D) Andhra pradesh and Odisha.

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. When will be rainfall called cloudburst?
A) Level of rainfall is equal or greater than 100mm.
B) Level of rainfall is lower than 20mm.
C) Level of rainfall is between 20-50mm.
D) Level of rainfall is between 50-70mm.

2. The atmosphere is divided into four layers. Of which the layer in contact with the surface of the
earth is called.
A) Stratosphere B) Troposhere C) Mesosphere D) Ionosphere.

3. The geographical regions of India broadly follow the physical features which are grouped into fol-
lowing regions:
i) Himalaya regions ii) Indo – Gangetic plain
iii) Peninsular regions iv) Western Ghats.
A) I, ii and iv only B) I,iii and iv only
C) I,ii and iii only D) ii, iii and iv only.

4. _______ is popularly known as the forest man of India.

A) Jadav paying B) Sudhir kumar.
C) Sundaralal Bahuguna D) Saravanan.

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5. Which state is known for the highest population density in India?
A) Uttar pradesh B) Bihar C) Punjab D) Hariyana.

6. Of the total forest area of the country, how many percentage the protected forest occupy?
A) 25% B) 29% C) 35% D) 39%

7. The River that flows westwards through a Rift Valley between the Vindhyan Range on the North
and Satpura range on the South is
A) Chambal B) Betwa C) Narmada D) Son

8. The height of Anaimudi from the mean sea level is

A) 2690 m B) 2695 m C) 2685 m D) 2705 m

9. The energy source which can reduce global warming is

A) Petroleum B) Coal
C) Natural gas D) Geothermal energy

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION -

2023
1. Choose the right answer : The North-East monsoon period in Tamil Nadu
A) August - October B) September - November
C) October - December D) November - March

2. The first software company in India

A) Cognizant B) L and T C) TATA consultancy D) Infotech

3. The ___________ ocean is the youngest ocean

A) Indian B) Southern C) Arctic D) Atlantic

4. Which state is not the beneficiary of Sardar Sarover Project?

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Maharashtra C) Punjab D) Rajasthan

5. Which is the longest, the west flowing rivers of India?

A) Tapti B) Narmada C) Mahanadi D) Ganga

6. Which is the first communication satellite in INSAT series?

A) EDUSAT B) INSAT 1B C) GSAT D) HAMSAT

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7. Which of the following statements are correct about Eastern coastal plain?
i) It lies between Eastern Ghats and the Arabian sea.
ii) The Coastal plain between Mahanadi and Krishna river is known as the Northern circars
iii) The Coastal plain lies between Krishna and Kaveri rivers is called Coromandal coast.
A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only B) (i) and (ii) only C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i) and (iii) only

8. Which of the following is correctly paired?

Biosphere Reserves State
A) Manas - Gujarat
B) Simlipal - Odisha
C) Sundarbans - Assam
D) Kachch - West Bengal

9. Sardar Sarover project is built across________ river.

A) Krishna B) Narmada C) Mahanadi D) Sutlej

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Choose the right answer :
Which one among the following places does not have a Thermal station?
A) Tuticorin B) Ennore C) Ranipet D) Mettur

2. Which of the following four major metros are connected under the Scheme of Golden Quadrilater-
al?
A) New Delhi, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai
B) New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Bengaluru
C) New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai
D) New Delhi, Nagpur, Bengaluru and Kilkata

3. What is the length of the India‘s land frontier?

A) 87263 km B) 54560 km C) 15200 km D) 8000 km

4. Vattaparai waterfall is located in ______ didstrict.

A) Kanyakumari B) Virudhu Nagar C) Theni D) Sivagangai

5. Soil with high moisture retention capacity is

A) Red Soil B) Regur soil C) Lateritic soil D) Bhangar soil

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6. Chhota Nagpur plateau is called the heart of industrial India, Because it is
A) Near to major iron and steel centers
B) A big link of roads and railways
C) Rich in minerals and power fuels
D) Very fertile for industrial crops

7. The headquarters of Central Inland Water transport corporation limited is located in

A) New Delhi B) Kolkata C) Noida D) Guwahati

8. India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of RAMSAR sites to make a total of ______ Ramsar sites
covering an area of 13, 26, 677 ha in the year 2022.
A) 75 B) 79 C) 50 D) 56

9. Glycolysis takes place in

A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria C) Cytoplasm D) Ribosome

10. According to census of 2011, the union territory has the lowest density of population is
A) Daman and diu B) Lakshadweep
C) Andaman and nicobar islands D) Dadar and nagar haveli

11. The _________________ soil is internationally known as tropical chernozems; are the third lorg-
est soil group in india.
A) Desert soil B) Alluvial soil C) Red soil D) Black soil

12. The ______________ River that does not originate in india

A) Beas B) Sutlej C) Chenab D) Ravi

13. Which type of climate is having the following characteristics?

1) Mean annual temperature is above 18OC 2) Monsoon rainfall (Summer season)
3) Stretches over the rain shadow region
A) Semi arid steppe climate B) Hot desert climate
C) Mesothermal climate D) Tropical moist climate

14. Ozone layer concentrates mainly above 10 to 15 km from the earth‘s surface. This layer is
known as
A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere D) Ionosphere

15. Choose the correct options among the following major tribes in tamil nadu
A) Kurumbas B) Paniyan C) Toda D) Bhaina
A) (i), (ii) and (iv) B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (ii) and (iii) D) (iii) and (iv)
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16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER
1. Match the following hills with their locations.
a) Villupuram - 1. Pachai malai
b) Perambalur - 2. Mahendragiri malai
c) Kanyakumari - 3. Gingee hills
d) Tirunelveli - 4. Marunthuvazh malai
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 2 4 3 1
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 4 3 1 2

2. Match the following

a) Sambar Lake - 1. Odhisha
b) Pulicat Lake - 2. Kerala
c) Chilka Lake - 3. Rajasthan
d) Vembanad Lake - 4. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
a b c d
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 3 1 2 4

3. Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan get benefited by _________project.

A) Chambal Valley project B) Tungabhadra project
C) Indira Gandhi Canal project D)Kosi project

4. In which State, Gir National Park is located?

A) Gujarat B) Karnataka C) Kerala D) Uttarkhand

5. Which is the least populous State of India?

A) Rajasthan B) Jharkhand C) Telangana D) Sikkim

6. Which one is wrongly matched?

(Railway zone and Headquarters)
A) Central Railway - Chennai B) Eastern Railway - Kolkata
C) Northern Railway - New Delhi D) Western Railway – Mumbai

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17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY
1. OSCC will facilitate access to following services:
(i) Emergency Response and Rescue Service.
(ii) Psycho-social support/counselling.
(iii) Focus on education of girl children.
(iv) Differently abled women
A) (i) Only B) (i) and (iii) only C) (ii) and (iv) only D) (i) and (ii) only

2. Primitive form of agriculture in which absence of plough is called_____

A) Hoe Farming B) Dry Farming
C) Wet Farming D) Organic Farming

3. Which is the major tree species of tidal forest?

A) Olive B) Sundri C) Pine D)Sandal

4. Panna district of Madhya Pradesh is famous for which mineral?

A) Diamond B) Dolomite C) Mica D) Bauxite

5. Which is the highest straight gravity dam in India?

A) Bhakra dam B) Hirakud dam C) Narmada Sagar dam D) Tehri dam

6. Kangra valley is located in____Himalayas.

A) Himadri B) Himachal C) Kumaun D) Miri

7. Choose the wrong answer

The objectives of the forest department are
A) Environmental stabilization and enhancement of forest productivity
B) Deforestation and Habitat destruction
C) Preserving natural forests and wildlife
D) Conservation of eco systems and their genetic diversity

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service.
Paper-II
1. Bandipur Wildlife Sanctuary situated at
A) Mudumalai B) Mysore C) Kerala D) Rajasthan

2. According to census of 2011, the union territory has the lowest density of population is
A) Daman and Diu B) Lakshadweep
C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands D) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
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Geography
3. The soil is internationally known as tropical chernozems; are the third longest soil group in India.
A) Desert soil B) Alluvial soil C) Red soil D) Black soil

4. The_________ River that does not originate in India

A) Beas B) Sutlej C) Chenab D) Ravi

5. Which type of climate is having the following characteristics?

(i) Mean annual temperature is above 18°C.
(ii) Seasonal Rainfall (in Summer).
(iii) Stretches over the rain shadow region.
A) Semi Arid Steppe Climate B) Hot desert climate
C) Mesothermal climate D) Tropical Moist Climate

6. Ozone layer concentrates mainly above 10 to 15 km from the earth's surface. This layer is
known as
A) Troposphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Ionosphere

7. Choose the correct options among the following major tribes in Tamil Nadu
(i) Kurumbas (ii) Paniyan (iii) Toda (iv) Bhaina
A) (i), (ii) and (iv) B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) C)( i), (ii) and (iii) D) (iii) and (iv)

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. Which type of forests are found in the deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers?
A) Mangrove forests B) Coastal forest C) Alpine forests D) Reverine forests
2. Which river flows towards the west in India?
A) Sindhu B) Ganga C) Narmadha D) Cauvery

3. Non-renewable sources of energy and renewable sources of energy come under the ministry of
A) Non-Convention Energy, India
B) Environment. Forest and Climate change (GOI)
C) Coal and Petroleum, India
D) Conventional energy, India

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. An example of Conventional energy resource is
A) Geothermal energy B) OTEC energy
C) Dendrothermal energy D) Coal energy

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2. Which easterly river of the peninsular India built fertile bird foot delta?
A) The Godavari B)The Kaveri C) The Krishna D) The Pennar

3. Which of the following is the relict of the world's oldest mountain?

A) Satpura Range B) Aravali Range C) Vindhya Range D) Sahyadris

4. On the basis of the recommendations of the Ford Foundation, the Government of India intro-
duced IADP in connection with Green Revolution in 1960 in Seven districts were selected from 7
States out of the following 4 States. Which state wasn't selected for rice Production?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Uttar Pradesh C) Andhra Pradesh D) Madhya Pradesh

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. Chhattisgarh and the Bastar region are all the major_______ fields of India.
A) Iron ore B) Manganese ore C) Copper ore D) Bauxite ore

2. Narmada Rift valley River in India forms

A) Delta B) Estuaries C) Waterfalls D) Cascades

3. The longest border of India is with

A) Bangladesh B) China C) Pakistan D) Nepal

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. The term ‗Operation Flood‘ is related to
A) Green Revolution B) White Revolution
C) Blue Revolution D) Poly House Revolution

2. Cotton cultivation predominates in Regur Region of North West India. The Narmada, Tapi, Pu-
ma and Sabarmati River Valley region are basically heartland of cotton cultivation. It always as-
sociated with one food grain cultivation refereably jowar, Bajra and oil seeds.
Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?
A) Black soil is favour for cotton cultivation
B) Cotoni sthe commercial crop
C) Cotton cultivation mostly in North West India
D) Cotton always associated with food grain

3. Which river is called the sorrow of Bihar?

A) Kosi B) Sharavati C) Narmada D)Tapti

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4. Clear sky, pleasant weather, low temperature and humidity, high range of temperature, cool
and slow northern winds are the chief characteristics of ______season.
A) South West monsoon B) North East monsoon
C) Winter season D) Summer season

5. National Fossil Wood park in Tamilnadu is located in

A) Villupuram B) Madurai C) Tirunelveli D) Tuticorin

6. ―Work for food‖ scheme implemented by Central Government in the year1972. This programme
yearly provides
I. 10,000 tonne Wheat
II. 60,000 tonne rice
III. 10 lakhs Agricultural instrument
IV. Rs.10 crore subsidy for marginal labour
A) I,II B)II, III C) III,IV D) IV, I

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. In the Koppen's classification of climate As type of climate represents
A) Tropical Savana type B) Tropical monsoon type
C) Tropical moist type D)Hot desert type

2. Arrange in chronological order the milestones of the development of communication tech-

nology in India:
1. First wireless telegraphs station established between Sagar island and Sandheads.
2. First Automatic Exchange installed in Shimla.
3. Radiotelephone system inaugurated between UK and India.
4. First satellite earth station for domestic communication established at Secunderabad A.P
A) 1, 4, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 2, 1, 4, 3 D) 3,2,1,4

3. Which among the following is the longest river in India?

A) Ganga B) Brahmaputra C) Sindhu D) Narmadha

4. In world network of biosphere reserves ______ and ______of Tamilnadu have been included to
protect the flora and fauna.
A) Great Nicobar and The Nilgiris B) Gulf of Mannar and The Nilgiris
C) Gulf of Mannar and Agasthyamalai D) Great Nicobar and Agasthyamalai

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UNIT – 4 HISTORY
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01. COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. ___________________is called as the ―Museum of human race‖.
A) England B) India C) America D) China

2. Pick the odd one out

A) Chalukyas – Badami B) Chalukyas – Vengi
C) Chalukyas – Nandhi D) Chalukyas – Kalyani

3. Pick the odd one out

A) Horse and iron were unkown to the Indus people
B) Indus people used the red quartz stone to design jewellery
C) Silk dresses were in common use in Indus Culture
D) Ornaments were popular among men and women of Indus Culture

4. The mention of the word ‗Meluhha‘ in the ___________ script is considered to refer to the Indus
region
A) pictographic B) Cuneiform C) Brahmi D) Hieroglyphic

5. Which one of the following mosque is best known for its tower of victory?
A) Begumpuri Mosque B) Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque
C) Moti Ki Masjid D) Jamali Kamli Mosque

6. Timur invaded India during the year

A) 1396 B) 1398 C) 1414 D) 1451

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. During Delhi Sultanate period ―Kharaj‖ was a type of tax levied on
A) House B) Agricultural land
C) Religion D) Trade

2. Who was the founder of Bahmani kingdom?

A) Malik Kafur B) Bukka
C) Harihara D) Alauddin Hasan Bahmani Shah

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3. Who is called as the ‗Indian Shakespeare?
A) Kalidasa B) Vishakhadatta
C) Shudraka D) Shudraka

4. Match the List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the codes given below in the Lists:
List-1 List-2
A) Buland Darwaza, Fatehpur Sikri - 1. Alauddin Khilji
B) Alai Darwaza, Delhi - 2. Akbar
C) Moti Masjid, Delhi - 3. Shahjahan
D) Moti Masjid, Agra - 4. Aurangazeb
Codes:
A B C D
A 1 2 3 4
B 2 1 4 3
C 1 2 4 3
D 4 1 3 2

5. The Malik-Fakhr-ud-din-juna was the original name of the Sultan

A) Malik Kafur B) Mohamed Bin Tughlaq
C) Mujahid D) Nizam Shah

6. Secular in real sense means

A) One religious State B) Does not have a state religion
C) Two religious State D) Multi religious State

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-

DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
07. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL
SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Hampi is located on the banks of river
A) Krishna B) Godavari C) Tungabhadra D) Narmada

2. Name the Delhi Sultan who introduced the silver tanka and the copper jital the two basic coins
during Sultanate period
A) Qutb-ud-din Aibak B) Iltumish
C) Sultana Raziya D) Ghiyas-Ud-Din Baldan

3. Dashabodha was written by

A) Namdev B) Jnanesvar C) Nimbarka D) Ram Das

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4. Name the religious Guru of Shivaji
A) Eknath B) Varman Pandit
C) Ram Das D) Sur Das

5. The Bahmani kingdom and vijaynagar empire clashed frequently over the territory of
A) Madurai B) Warrangal C) Malabar D) Raichur Doab

6. Muhammad Shah III of Bhamini Sultan‘s Vizier was

A) Humayun B) Malik Hasan
C) Mohamed Gawan D) Nizam Shah

7. Name the Sultan of Delhi who assumed the title of Sikandar-i-Sani

A) Qutb-din Aibak B) Firozshah Tughlaq
C) Ala-ud-din Khilji D) Balban

04. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. _________ was the first musician to use the word Raga.
A) Matanaga B) Vidyaranya C) Rurandardasa D) Tyagaraja.

2. Harisena engraved an inscription on the stone pillar of

A) Samudra Gupta B) Asoka
C) Bindusara D) Chandra Gupta -I

3. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
a) Ziauddin Barani 1. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri.
b) Amir Khusrau 2. Tarikhi –i- Firuz shahi.
c) Alberuni 3. Miftah ul Futuh.
d) Minhaj – us – Siraj 4. Tarikh Al Hind.
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 4 1 2

4. Who was the first Maratha king in Thanjavur?

A) Shivaji B) Venkoji C) Serfoji –I D) Tukoji.

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5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Emperors Nobles
A) Babur : Tardi beg
B) Humayun : Bairamkhan.
C) Jehangir : Sawai Jai singh.
D) Aurangazeb : Jaswant Singh.

6. The big stupa was constructed at Bharhut in Nagod state during the period of.
A) Sungas B) Mauryas C) Guptas D) Kushanas.

05. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

rd
1. In the 3 Century B.C. the _______ served as the common language of the people in India.
A) Prakrit B) Sanskrit C) Hindi D) Pali

2. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jizya on the Brahmins?

A) Balban B) Firoz Tughlaq
C) Allauddin Khilji D) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq.

3. The price of a first grade horse fixed by Ala-ud-din was.

A) 100 – 120 tankas B) 120 – 140 tankas.
C) 140 – 160 tankas D) 160 – 180 tankas.

4. The Only Hindu Courtier of Akbar who accepted Din-e-Ilaki was

A) Raja Todarmal B) Raja Birbal
C) Raja Mansingh D) Tansen

5. Which one of the following pallava rulers assumed the title of ―Vatapikondan‖?
A) Mahendravarman – I B) Mahendravarman – II
C) Narasimhavarman – I D) Narasimhavarman – II

6. ―The king was freed from his people and they from their king‖.
On whose death did Badauni Comment thus.
A) Mohamed – bin – Tuqlaq B) Ghiya Sudin Tuqlaq.
C) Rajab D) Zafar Khan

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06. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY
SERVICE – 2023
1. Arrange the Gupta rulers in chronological order:
1. Samudra Gupta 2. Sri Gupta 3. Kumara Gupta – II 4. Rama Gupta
A) 2> 1> 4> 3
B) 2> 3> 4> 1
C) 4> 2> 3> 1
D) 4> 3> 1> 2

2. Match the discovery with their corresponding period.

1. Discovery of iron a) Mesolithic
2. Discovery of Bronze b) Neolithic
3. Beginning of agriculture c) Indus civilization
4. Discovery of fire d) Aryans
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 1 2 3 4

3. Match correctly the Battles with their corresponding year.

a) First battle of Panipat 1. 1527
b) Battle of Ghaghra 2. 1529
c) Second battle of Panipat 3. 1526
d) Battle of Khanwa 4. 1556
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 2 1 3
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 3 1 2 4

4. Who among the following rulers was called Kaviraja?

A) Kumaragupta - I
B) Chandragupta - I
C) Chandragupta Vikramadhitya
D) Samudragupta

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08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-
VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. Find out the False Statement regarding Gupta Art
1. Gupta Artists were normal and Natural
2. There was a keen sense of aesthetic culture
3. Nudity is entirely eliminated
4. Not based on religious and spiritual ideals
A) (1),(2) and (3) are True, (4) is False B) (2) is True, (1), (3) and (4) are False
C) (3) is True, (1) (2) and (4) are False D) (4) is True, (1),(2) and (3) are False

2. ―The Music of India is the finest in the World‖ Who said this?
A) Amir Khusrau B) Aurangzeb
C) Minhaj Us siraj D) Barani

3. Kalibangan is situated on the banks of River?

A) Ravi B) Sutlej C) Beas D) Ghaggar

4. Choose the right answer:

Which of the following statements are true about Qutub-ud-din
(i) He was the real founder of the Turkish dominion in India
(ii) He oraganised the ‗Group of Forty‘
(iii) He started the construction of Qutub Minar
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i) and (iii) only

5. Reason and Assertion type

Assertion (A): Akbar introduced the Mansabdari System
Reason (R): This system was borrowed from Iran
A) (A) is true (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is false (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

6. Which foreign traveler mention that ―The circumference of the Vijaya Nagar city was sixty miles‖
A) Edoardo Barbosa B) Nicolo Conti
C) Abdur Razzaq D) Damingos poes

7. Alla sani Peddana was the greatest and he was often described as
A) Andhra Bhoja B) Andra Kavita -Pitamaha
C) Hasan Gangu D) Gajabentakara

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8. The most famous Calligraphist at Akbar‘s court was Muhammad Husain Kashmiri and he was
given _________ title
A) Zarin Qalam B) Abul Fazl C) Ustad Ahmad D) Abdur Rahim

9. Arrange the successors of Shivaji in Chronological order

(i) Sahu –I (ii) Shivaji – II (iii) Raja Ram- I (iv) Sambhaji
(v) Ram Raja
A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i), (v)
B) (ii), (i), (v), (iii), (iv)
C) (v), (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
D) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)

10. The agriculture department Diwan-i-Kohi was constituted by

A) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlak B) Muhammad-bin Tughlak
C) Firoz Tughlak D) Ghazi Mohammad

11. Assertion (A): The Gupta period is rightly called the ‗Golden Age‘ of literature and art.
Reason (R): There was deterioration in the position of women, decline of the urban centres, in-
crease in social disorder and subinfeudation in the later Gupta times
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) Explains (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explains (A)
C) Only (A) is correct
D) Only (R) is correct

12. The most important evidence of trade with Afghanisthan comes from an isolated Harappan trad-
ing outpost at.
A) Hajjar B) Shortughai C) Oman Penninsula D) Hissar

13. Until A.D. 1425_____ served as the capital of Bhamani state.

A) Golconda B) Gulbarga C) Bidar D) Ahmednagar

14. Hindi language is belongs to

A) The Indo-European family B) The Dravidian family
C) Austric family D) Sino-Tibetan family

15. A Buddhist Monastery, dating back to 2nd and 4th century A.D. was excavated at ___________
city of Gujarat state by the Archaeology department.
A) Vadodra B) Ahmedabad C) Surat D) Vadnagar

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09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL
SERVICE – 2023
1. Before the second battle of panipat, in Delhi _______ has assumed the title of ‗Raja Vikramjit‘.
A) Bairam Khan B) Salim Khan
C) Hemu D) Kiya khan

2. _________ accepted Akbar‘s Din-i-Ilahi

A) Birbal B) Mansingh C) Todar Mal D) Tansen.

3. According to the view of B.C. pal ______ was the prophet of Indian Cultural Renaissance.
A) Bankim Chandra B) Aurobindo Ghose
C) Hem Chandra Banerjee D) Navin Chandra Sen
4. Name the epic poem written by padmagupta the court poet of paramara empire.
A) Nava – Sahasankah – Charita B) Naisadhacharita.
C) Trikalingadhipati D) Kalingattuparani.

5. Assertion (A): Paninian Sanskrit though simpler than Vedic is still a very complicated language.
Reason (R): Every beginner finds great difficulty in Surmounting panini‘s rules of euphonic com-
bination (Sandhi) the elaboration of tendencies present in the language even in vedic times.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true: and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false ; R is true.
D) Both A and R are true ; but (R) is not the correct explanation of A.

6. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

a) Kavalgar 1. Police officer.
b) Talara 2. Superintendent.
c) Begara 3. Watchman.
d) Senateova 4. Village Accountant.
A) b and c B) a and d C) a and b D) b and d

7. Choose the right matches among the following :

1) The Forty - The Chalisa.
2) Razia Begum - Ruknuddin.
3) Diwan-i-ariz - Finance Minister
4) Balban - Barids.
A) 4 and 3 are correct B) 2,3 and 4 are correct.
C) 1 and 3 are correct D) 1,2 and 4 are correct.

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8. Match the following :
Historians Books
a) Alberuni 1. Qiran – Us – Sa‘Dain
b) Minhaj Siraj 2. Tarikh – I- Firoshahi.
c) Amir Khusrau 3. Tabaqat – I – Nasiri.
d) Barani 4. Tarikh – I – Hind
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 4 3 1 2

9. The maitraka clan established a kingdom in Gujarat with its capital at _______, which soon be-
came a seat of a learning and culture.
A) Malava B) Valabhi C) Gauda D) Kamarupa.

10. According to whom, the Harappan script is not alphabetical but mainly pictographic in nature.
A) J.P. Joshi B) S.R.Rao C) R.S. Sharma D) N.G.Majumdar.

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023

1. In whose reign did the Sultanate reach its maximum geographical limit?
A) Ala – Ud – Din Khilji B) Mubarak Shah Khilji
C) Muhammed – Bin – Tughlak D) Ghiyasuddin Tugalak

2. Which of the following statements are true about the Harappan people?
i) The Harappans were the phallus worshippers.
ii) They worshipped gods in the form of human beings.
iii) They placed their gods in temples.
A)I only B) I and iii only C) I and ii only D) ii and iii only

3. Name the Mughal ruler who initiated a programme of builliding sea-going vessels.
A) Babur B) Akbar C) Shahjahan D) Aurangazeb

4. Name the rulers who had organized a military department called Kandachara.
A) Vijayanagar rulers B) Bahmini sultans
C) Marathas D) Mughals

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5. The Priniciple Construction material used by Shahjahan to built Jumma Masjit at Delhi.
A) Yellow Sand stone B) Red Sand Stone
C) Metal D) Metal.

6. Which of the given statements is/are correct?

i) Amir Khusroe, Abul Fazal, Ziauddin Barani were famous Persian Historians in Medieval period.
ii) Tughlaq Nama, Akbar Nama, Tarik Firoz Shahi are the books written by them respectively.
A)I and ii are wrong B) I correct ii wrong
C) Both I, ii are correct D) I wrong ii correct

7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I List II
a) Vishakhadatta 1. Nitisastra
b) Kamandaka 2. Niyaya Bhashya
c) Asanga 3. Mudraraksha
d) Vatsyayana 4. Bhumi Sastra
a b c d
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 1 3 2 4

8. Devi Chandra Guptam deals with the life history of

A) Chandra Gupta I B) Chandra Gupta II
C) Samudra Gupta D) Skanda Gupta

9. Choose the wrongly matched pairs:

1) Ashtapradhan - Council of Eight Ministers
2) Sardeshmukhi - Tax on territories
3) Chauth - Custom duty
4) Amatya - Foreign Minister
A) 1 and 2 are correct.
B) 3 and 4 are correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct
D) 1 and 4 are correct

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11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-
CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Name the Chola ruler, who was the first to send an embassy to Chinese Court.
A) Rajendra - I B) Rajendra – II
C) Rajaraja -I D) Kulottunga -I

2. Under whose guidance the sites of Mohenjodaro and Harappa were excavated?
A) Mortimer Wheeler B) Sir.J.Marshall
C) Alexander Cunningham D) S.R.Rao

3. The fundamental principles of Buddhism as given by the Four Noble Truths does not include
which of the following?
A) Suffering B) Cause of Suffering
C) Cessation of Sorrow D) Immortality of Soul

4. The Vesara style of architecture is also known as

A) The Chola Style B) The Pallava style
C) The Chalukya style D) The Pandya style

5. Who wrote Tarikhi – i – Sher shah?

A) Abul Fazal B) Hasan Nizami
C) Abbas khan Sarwani D) Nizamuddin Ahmad

6. Which of the following statements are true about IItumish?

(i) He was a slave of Qutubuddin – Aibek
(ii) He established zil – i
(iii) He built the main portions of Qutub Minar
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (i) and (iii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

7. Which among of the following scholars was the first do discover the traces of the Harappan Civi-
lization?
A) Martimer Wheeler B) R.D. Banerjee
C) A. Cunnihgham D) Daya Ram Sahni

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12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-
PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Which is the first metal that prehistoric man has started using for many purposes?
A) Iron Ore B) Gold C) Silver D) Copper

2. Match correctly the following Indus Valley Civilization sites with its locations.
a) Harappa 1. Sindh
b) Mohenjadaro 2. Gujarath
c) Kalibangam 3. Punjab
d) Lothal 4. Rajasthan
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3

3. Kamran, Askari, Hindal are brothers of

A) Akbar B) Humayun C) Shajahan D) Aurangzeb

4. Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of pulakesin II?

A) Aihole B) Saranath C) Sanchi D) Junagath

5. Choose and Match the correct answer:

Author Literary works
a) Dhanvantri 1. Surya Siddantha
b) Varahamihira 2. Amara Kosha
c) Aryabhatta 3. Brihad Samhita
d) Amarasimha 4. Ayurveda
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 4 3 2 1

6. ‗SATRIYA‘ dance was famous in

A) Manipur B) Kashmir C) Assam D) Odissha

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13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. Who among the following excavated Arikkamedu?
A) K. Rajan B) Mortimer Wheeler.
C) S.R.Rao D) Alexander Rea.

2. The name Telangana is derived from the word Trilinga Desa, earned due to the presence of three
ancient shiva temples at _____ places.
i) Kaleswaram ii) Sri sailam iii) Draksharaman iv) Kapaleeswara.
A) i,ii,iii only B) i,ii, iv only C) ii,iii,iv only D) I, iii,iv only

3. The Ajanta and Ellora caves were designated as a UNESCO world Heritage Site in the year.
A) 1980 B) 1981 C) 1982 D) 1983

4. The Gupta Era was founded by

A) Chandra Gupta – II B) Samudra Gupta
C) Skanda Gupta D) Chandra Gupta – I

5. ‗Indian Society of Oriented Art‘ was founded by.

A) Nihar Ranjan Roy B) Narendra Mohan Mukherjee
C) Abanindranath Tagore D) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

6. Who was succeeded to the throne of Marathas the Third Battle of Panipat?
A) Narayan Rao B) Madhav Rao
C) Ragoba D) Tukoji Holkar.

7. Who was the most powerful peshwa?

A) Balaji Baji Rao B) Baji Rao – I
C) Madhava Rao – I D) Balaji Vishwanath.

8. Match the following:

List – I List – II
a) Simhavishnu 1. Chalukya
b) Jayasimhan – I 2. Pallava.
c) Aditya – I 3. Satavahana.
d) Satakarni 4. Chola.
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 4 3 2 1
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9. Iltumish administered by a governing class of nobility known as
A) Naib – i – mamlakat B) Diwani – i – ariz
C) Niyabat – i – Khudai D) Turkan – i – Chahalgani

10. Amir Hasan Dehlui was the Sufi poet in the _______ kings court.
A) Muhammad – Bin – Tughlaq B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
C) Nasir – ud – din Muhammad Tughlaq D) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq.

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Harappa was first visited by __________ in 1826 CE(AD)
A) Amri B) Charles Mason
C) Alexander Burnes D) Sir John Marshal

2. The National calendar of India is_____

A) Gregorian calendar B) Vikram Savanth calendar
C) Hindu calendar D) Saka Calendar

3. A copper statute of the Buddha about________ feet high at Nalanda in Bihar.

A) 16 feet B) 23 feet C) 50 feet D) 18 feet

4. ‗Sur‘ dynasty founded by______

A) Akbar B) Sher Shah C) Babur D) Tej Bagadur

5. In the Ashtapradhan of Shivaji Cabinet Chief Justice was called as

A) Nyayadhish B) Panditrao C) Sumant D) Pant Pradhan

6. The Court of Akbar and was popularly known as the blind bard of Agra is
A) Tuka Ram B) Mirabai C) Sur Das D) Ramananda

7. From the following, find out the wrong pair:

A) Babur Nama - Auto biography
B) Konark - Siva Temple
C) Qutb Minar - Victory power
D) Muhammed Iqbal - Urdu Poet

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15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL
SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Methods of measuring lands such as Are, Nivarthanam and Pattigai were followed during which
King's period?
A) Cholar period B) Cherar period C) Pandiar period D) Pallavan period

2. _______founded the Nalanda University.

A) Samudragupta B) Kumara Gupta I
C) Skanda Gupta D) Chandragupta I

3. Reason and Assertion type:

Assertion [A]: The Indo-Gangetic plain comprises almost the whole of North India from Punjab to
Bengal. The richness and fertility of land account for the multiplicity.
Reason [R]: It was the seat of Great Empires of India.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false, [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

4. Which one among the following is described as "The cradle of the Indian Architecture"?
A) Aihole B) Kailasa
C) Virupaksha D) Papanatha

5. Who founded the Adilshahi Kingdom of Bijapur?

A) Mahmud Gawan B) Mahmud Shah
C) Nizham Shah D) Yusuf Adil Shah

6. Arrange in chronological order :

1) Revolt of Prince Khusrau 2) Battle of Chausa
3) Bubonic Plague in Punjab 4) Battle of Kanwah
A)(4), (2), (1), (3)
B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
C) (2), (3), (1), (4)
D) (3), (1), (2), (4)

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7. A passage of information - Question from it :
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answers to this item should be
based on the passage only.
Amir Khusrau's in his advice to his daughter asks her not to leave the thread of the spinning wheel
and always to keep her face towards the wall of the house and her back towards the door so that
nobody might be able to look at her.
Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?
A) Poet's inadequate appreciation of women's dignity
B) Poet as a Protector of female chastity
C) Looking at women's face was considered as inauspicious
D) Women were treated with great respect

8. What is the meaning of ‗Loth‘ in Lothal in Gujarat language?

A) Mound B) Black Bangles C) Dead D) Articles

9. Which metal was not used during the Harappan Civilization?

A) Gold B) Copper C) Iron D) Bronze

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. _______had a planned town, built on a planned town, built on a platform.
A) Lothal B) Harappa C) Mohenjo daro D) Kalibangan

2. Which of the following is correctly paired?

1. Hoysala - Devagiri
2. Yadavas - Dwarasamudra
3. Kakatias - Warangal
4. Pallavas - Madurai
A) (1) and (2) B) (3) and (4) C) (3) only D) (1), (2) and (4)

3. Choose the wrong matches type :

1. Qutbuddin Aibak - Lak Baksha
2. Iltumish - Malik Kafur
3. Muhammad bin Tughlaq - Token currency
4. Firoz Tughlaq - The forty system
A) (2) and (4) B) (2) and (3) C) (1) and (2) D) (D) (1) and (3)

4. ________was the last battle of Babar fought against the Afgans.

A) Battle of Chanderi B) Battle of Ghagra
C) Battle of Kanauj D) Battle of Chausa

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5. Fines are mentioned in the Kasakudi plates of
A) Nandivarman B) Narasimhavarman
C) Paramesvaravarman D) Dantivarman

6. (i) Chola period was famous for rock sculptures.

(ii) Pallava period was famous for Vimanas
A) (i) is True B) (ii) is True C) (i) True and (ii) False D) Both are False

7. "The Architectural Sculpture of the South India Temple" written by "

A) K.A. Nilakanta Sastri B) Burton Stein
C) Crispin Branfoot D) Abraham Eraly

8. The term Secularism is derived from the________ word Saeculum

A) Tamil B) Latin C) English D) Greek

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. Choose the right answer:
Among the Gupta rulers who adopted the title "Maharajadhiraja"?
A) Sree Gupta B)Chandra Gupta - I
C) Samudra Gupta D) Kumara Gupta

2. Which writer is credited with having written 'Milinda-Panha"?

A) Asvaghosha B) Nagasena
C) Buddhaghosha D) Dhammapala

3. Pugalur Inscription refers to which dynasty?

A) Cheras B) Cholas C) Pandyas D) Pallavas

4. Which are the pairs are correctly matched?

1. Tomb of Itmud- Uddaula - Nurjahan
2. Mosque at Sambal - Babur
3. Jama Masjid - Shajahan
4. Kabuli Bagh Mosque at Panipat - Aurangazeb
A) 1,2,3 B)1,2,4
C)1 & 2 D)1,2,3,4

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5. Assertion [A] : In 1299, Ala-ud-din Khalji decided to capture Malwa and Gujarat and sent a large
army under two of his generals.
Reason [R]:He had strong reasons for this expedition, as not only were these areas fertile and po-
pulous, but also controlled the Western Sea-Ports and Trade-Routes - connecting them with Gan-
ga valley.
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] does not explain [A]
C) Only [A] is true
D) Only [R] is true

6. Assertion [A] : The Indus people did not use coins.

Reason [R]: They did not have the technology to make metallic coins.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per-II
1. Name the type of government existed during the gupta period.
A) Polyarchy B) Monarchy
C) Anarchy D) Autarchy

2. Khwaja jahan was the wazir of the following sultan

A) Mohamed bin tuglaq B) Firoz tughlaq
C) Mohamed I D) Tuglaq shah II

3. Which among the following dynasties levied the tax known as ―Chauth‖?
A) Marathas B) Cholas C) Chandellas D) Maurryas

4. The last ruler of sangama dynasty _________________

A) DevaRaya I B) MallikarjunaRaya C) Virupaksha II D) DevaRaya II

5. Konark sun temple is also called as _________________

A) Blue pagoda B) Golden pagoda
C) Black pagoda D) White pagoda

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6. An astronomical observatory near Dauladabad was built by
A) Alauddin hasan gangu B) Mohamed gawan
C) Humayun shah D) Firoz shah bahmini

5. The battle that gave a severe blow to the vijayanagar empire and there by paved the way for the
transfer of capital from vijayanagar to Penukonda was _____________
A) Battle of talaikotta B) Battle of toppur
C) Thiru purambiam war D) First purambiam war

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. During the rule of the Khalji dynasty, the merchants had to bring all their goods for sale to____
A) Sarai-e-Adl B) Karkhana C) Kotwal D) Iqta

2. ______the ruler of Vijayanagar constructed a huge dam on the river Tungabhadra.

A) Harihara – II B) Bukka-II C) Virupaksa – II D) Devaraya - II

3. Which of the following is true about the finance and revenue system under Shivaji?
(i) The Chauth and the Sardeshmukhi
(ii) Village officials were Deshmuks and Patil's
(iii) The Revenue Officer appointed by Shivaji was called Karkuns
(A) (i) only B) (i) and (iii) only C) (i) and (ii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

4. Which of the following are correctly paired?

1. Abul Qasim Khan Namkin - Munshat-i-Namkin
2. Inayatullah Khan - Kalimat-i-Tayyakat
3. Muhammed Sadiq - Nigarnama-i-Munshi
4. Malikzada - Adam-i-Alamgiri
A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 1 and 3 are correct
C) 2 and 4 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct

5. On behalf of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb who signed the treaty of Purandhar with Shivaji?
A) Mansingh B) Jai Singh C) Shaista Khan D) Afzal Kha

6. Which of the following statements is true about the Vijayanagar Empire?

(i) Sea Trade was ignored
(ii) The Famous Persian Ambassador Abdur Razzaq was invited by Devarayar II
(iii) Vijayanagar Kingdom was founded by Harihara I
(iv) Vijayanagar forces were defeated by Bahmani armies
A) (ii) and (iv) B)(i) and (ii) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i) and (iv)

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7. Point out the wrong statement of the following :
I. The Indus Seals have not been deciphered so far.
II. Indus civilization was a notable urban culture.
III. Indus people used large number of weights.
IV. Indus people knew the art of using the metal iron.
A) I B) II C) III D) IV

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. Which policy weakened the central authority of the Delhi Sultanate?
A) Jagir system B) Blundering policy C) Plundering policy D) Murdering policy

2. Name the ruler who was called as 'Akbar of Kashmir 'among Delhi Sultanate rulers.
A) Zain-ud-Abidin B) Husain Shah C) Shah Mirza D) Jalol-ud-din

3. Who ascended the throne after the death of Aurangazeb in 1707?

A) Bahadur Shah I B) Farukh Shiyar C) Muhammad Kam D) Alam Shah

4. Who was the Author of Book "Indo-Sumerian Seals Deciphered"?

A) Sir John Marshall B) Dr. A.P. Agarwal
C) Robert H. Brunswig D) Laurence Waddell

5. Harrappan deals how the picture of

1. Rhinoceroses 2.Elephants 3.Tigers 4.Camel
A) 1 only B)1, 2 only C)1, 2, 3 only D) 1, 2, 3, 4

6. Which one of the following is not correct about Guru Nanak?

A) Nanak laid emphasis on the unity of God
B) Nanak believed in Vedas and Quran
C) Nanak believed in the Doctrine of Karma
D) Nanak attacked caste system

7. A Man died without a successor, then all his property should be utilized in the development of
schools and colleges was ordered by
A) Akbar B) Humayun C) Jahangir D) Aurangzeb

8. Who introduced the idea of ―Sulh-i-kul' which means universal peace?

A) Akbar B) Sada shiva Rao C) Rafi-ud-Daullat D) Shivaji

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21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES
1. The province of Mohammed Bin Tughlaq's empire in the valley of the Tapti river was
A) Daulatabad B) Khandesh C) Kashmir D) Nanderbar

2. Which one of the statement is incorrect regarding Samudragupta?

(i) He was the third ruler of the Gupta dynasty
(ii) His territory extended from Himalayas to river Narmada
(iii) He assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja
(iv) He printed six different type of coins.
A) (i), (iv) only B) (i), (iii) only C) (i), (ii) only D) (i), (ii), (iii) only

3. Question are of matching type question select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List - II
a) Samudragupta - 1. Paharpur Copper Plate
b) Chandragupta II - 2. Eran Stone Pillar
c) Buddhagupta - 3. Udayagiri Caves
d) Skandagupta - 4. Junagarh Rock
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 3 1 2 4
D) 2 1 4 3

4. What was the original name of Alauddin Khilji?

A) Jamaluddin B) Jainulabdin C) Jalaluddin D) Ali Gurshap

5. Assertion [A] : The temporary eclipse of the Rajputs facilitated Babur to establish his rule in India.
Reason [R] :The Battle of Khanua resulted in the defeat of Rajput confederacy
A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false, but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

6. Assertion [A] : Akbar approached his subjects with liberal ideas

Reason [R] : Akbar's tutor Abdul Lateef taught the principle of Sulh-I-Kul to Akbar
A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false, but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

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7. "Amuktamalyada‖ the work of Krishnadevaraya deals with the life of
A) Perialvar B) Devaraya II C) Saluva Narashima D) Krishnadevaraya

8. What was the name given to the Rural officials during the Mauryan administration?
A) Astonomai B) Agronomoi C) Amatyas D) Nagarikas

9. Assertion [A] : The Gandhara School of Art bears the mark of Hellenistic.
Reason [R]: Hinayana form was influenced by that art
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
D) [A] is false, but [R] is true

10. In connection with Indus valley civilization which of the following is incorrect?
Material Site
(i) Shell - Nageshwar
(ii) Lapis Lazuli - Shortughai
(iii) Carnelian - Oman
(iv) Steatite - Rajasthan
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii)
C) (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. Which one of the statement is correct?
(i) Humayun Nama compiled by Gulbadan Begum
(ii) Baduni translated the Bagavatha purana into Persian
(iii) Todarmal translated the Bagavatha purana into Persian
(iv) Haji Ibrahim Sir hindi translated Atharvaveda
A) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) only
B) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct (ii) only incorrect
C) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct (iii) only incorrect
D) All are correct

2. Assertion [A] : Firoz Shah Tughlaq did not levy Jizya tax
Reason [R] : His influential Minister Khan-i-Jahan Maqbul was aconverted Hindu
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not a correct explanation of (A)
C) [A] is true but [R] is false
D) [A] is False but [R] is true

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3. Which one of the following is incorrectly paired?
Folk dance State
A) Karama - Bihar
B) Kathi - Bengal
C) Maya shavari - Orissa
D) Natha Ras - Assam

4. During Mughal rule _______ were the assistants of Subhadar in the maintenance of peace.
A) Amin B) Diwan C)Kotwal D) Faujdar

5. Select the order which gives the correct chronological order of the GuptaEmperors.
1.Kumaragupta 2. Samudragupta 3.Ghatotkachagupta 4.Skandagupta
A) 3, 2, 1, 4 B) 1, 3, 2, 4 C)1, 2, 3, 4 D) 4, 3, 2, 1

6. India earned the title called ‗Ethnological Museum‘ because

A) Multi-racial society B) Multi-linguistic society
C) Multi-religious society D) Multi-cultural society

7. Ala-ud-din Hasan Shah was succeeded by

A) Muhammad Shah I B) Ahmad Shah
C) Firoz Shah D) Jafar Khan Ala-ud-din II

8. Which of the following Statements is / are not correct about Akbar?

a) Akbar was influenced by his mother
b) Akbar took Roopmathi from Baz Bahadur
c) Bairam khan was‗killed by Akbar
d) Akbar attacked Chitoor to get the treasure
A) (a) and (b) are correct; (c) and (d) are wrong
B) (b) and (d) are correct; (a) and (c) are wrong
C) (b) and (c) are wrong; (a) and (d) are correct
D) (a) is correct; (b), (c) and (d) are wrong

9. Name the King, who introduced the Asvamedha types of Gold Coinsbearing the figures of
Lakshmi and Ganga.
A) Samudra Gupta B) Chandra Gupta II
C) Kumara Gupta D) Skanda Gupta

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23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING
1. The Mehrauli Iron pillar is currently located in ____________
A) Delhi B) Allahabad C) Mehrauli D) Saranath

2. Akbar appointed his Foster brother, Mirza Aziz Kokah as the Governor of ___________
A) Bengal B) Bihar C) Kabul D) Jaunpur

3. Pickouttheincorrectmatchedfromthefollowing:
A) Muhtasibs - Censor of Public Morals
B) Waqia Navis - News Reporters
C) KhufiaNavis - SecretletterWriters
D) Harakarah's - JudicialInspector

4. In 1573,Todarmal conducted his famous systematic survey of all the ____________

A) Gujarat B) Bengal C) Bihar D) Orissa

5. Match the following:

a) Rashtrakutas 1.Large number of forts
b) Cholas 2. Villageself-government
c) Pallavas 3. Patronage of architecture
d) Chalukyas 4. Vesara Style of Architecture
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 3 4 1 2

6. The evidence of the disposal of the dead at Harappa was named as __________
A) Cemetery R-37 B) Cemetery S - 77 C) Cemetery T- 67 D) Cemetery U – 87

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Polity
UNIT - 5 POLITY
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01. COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES - 2023
1. According to which Article, the elections to the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of every State shall
be conducted on the basis of Adult Suffrage?
A) Article - 234 B) Article - 263 C) Article - 326 D) Article - 363

2. Which year the right to property was removed from the list of fundamental Rights?
A) 1976 B) 1972 C) 1978 D) 1975

3. Which of the following Constitution is written and Lengthiest in the World?

A) USA B) India C) England D) Irish

4. Assertion (A) : Indian Constitution provides for an Independent Election Commission

Reason (R) : To ensure free and fair elections in the country.
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] does not explains[A]
C) [A] is correct and [R] is false
D) [A] is false and [R] is true

5. Which one of the following comes under Political Equality?

A) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy
B) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste
C) All are equal before the law.
D) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law.

6. Which State implemented first the Panchayati Raj System?

A) Rajasthan B) Bihar C) Kerala D) Tamil Nadu

7. Who said Indian Constitution as Cooperatinve Federalism?

A) Granville Austin B) Dr.Amdedkar
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Wheare

8. The River Boards Act was passed in the year

A) 1956 B) 1954 C) 1952 D) 1950

9. Which day is celebrated as Human Right day universally?

A) 9th December B) 10th December C) 11th December D) 12th December

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10. Which year the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council was abolished?
A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1987 D) 1988

11. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by?
A) The President of India B) The Attorney General
C) The Governor D) The Prime minister of India

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Which State was first formed on the basis of Linguistics in India?
A) Kerala B) Andhra C) Karnataka D) Tamil Nadu

2. Money Bill:
1. Cannot be introduced in the Council of states
2. Needs to be certified as such by the Speaker
3. Can be amended by the Council of States
4. President has to assent it without delay
Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only D) 1 and 4 only

3. Which of the following is true about women Empowerment?

(i) Increase involvement of women in Decision Making.
(ii) Encouragement of Women Entrepreneurship
(iii) Initiation of measures to improve working conditions of women in the informal sector
A) (i) Only B) (i) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. Match the following:

High Court Year
A) Allahabad - 1. 1884
B) Karnataka - 2. 1916
C) Patna - 3. 1866
D) Madras - 4. 1862
abcd
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 4 1 3 2
D) 1 4 2 3

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5. The Juvenile Justice Act 2015 - came into force on
A) January 14, 2016 B) January 15, 2016
C) January 16, 2016 D) January 17, 2016

6. Which of the following States has a Bicameral Legislature?

1. Bihar 2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka 4. Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only D) 1 and 4 only

7. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?

A) Part - II B) Part - III C) Part - IV A D) Part V

8. The writ of ‗Mandamus‘ means

A) To have the body of B) To Forbid
C) To Certify D) We Command

9. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on

A) 26 December 1949 B) 26 January 1950
C) 26 November 1949 D) 30 November 1949

10. From which of the following Constitutional Amendments ‗Education‘ was transferred from State
List to Concurrent List?
A) 24th Amendment Act B) 25th Amendment Act
C) 42nd Amendment Act D) 44th Amendment Act

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-

DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. The number of languages recognized by the Indian constitution is
A) 43 B) 22 C) 31 D) 27

2. The article of the constitution of India related to the conserve the people of distinct languages and
culture is
A) Article 22 B) Article 29 (1) C) Article 31 (2) D) Article 32 (2)

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3. What was the first name of the All India Court established under the Act of 1935?
A) All India Court B) Supreme Court of India
C) Federal Court of India D) All India Supreme Court

4. Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-state council to

A) Effect co-ordination between the states and between centre and states
B) Co-ordinate the planning activities of various states
C) Divide the revenues between the centre governments and the state
D) Enable development of trade

5. Consider the following:

1) Ashok Mehta Committee
2) LM Singhvi Committee
3) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Give the chronological sequence of above mentioned Committees.
A) 3, 1 and 2 B) 3, 2 and 1
C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 2, 1 and 3

6. Which of the following articles provide for the impeachment of the President?
A) Art 52 and 61 B) Art 53 and 61
C) Art 56(1) (b) and 61 D) Art 58 and 61

7. Which Article enumerates Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

A) Article 12- 35 B) Article 51 A
C) Article 36-50 D) Article 19

8. Article 5 of the Constitution of India deals with

A) Nature of the Indian Parliamentary system B) Formation of States
C) Indian Citizenship D) Amendment procedures

9. The enactment of Right to Information Act in India is supposed to inculcate a sense of

A) Social Justice B) Economic Justice
C) Social Inclusion D) Culture of informed citizenry

10. Which of the following is called ―Mini Constitution‖?

A) Government of India Act, 1935 B) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
C) 44th Constitutional Amendment D) Government of India Act, 1919

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05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023
1. Match the following:
a) 1953 - Mandal Commission.
b) 1979 - Kalelkar Commission.
c) 1976 - National Backward class Finance and Development Corporation.
d) 1992 - Protection of Civil Rights Act.
abcd
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 2 4 1 3

2. Political parties are allotted symbols by.

A) The Government of India B) The Election Commission
C) The Constitution of India D) Party leaders.

3. Who acts as the Chairman of the Tamil Nadu state Planning Commission?
A) Minister of Planning B) Secreatary of the planning Commission.
C) Minister of state of planning D) Chief Minister.

4. Article 51A(h) has stated.

A) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture .
B) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the sprit of inquiry and reform.
C) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
D) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

5. Who presented the first union Budget in 1947?

A) Indira Gandhi B) John Mathai.
C) R.K. Shankukham Chetty D) Shankar Rao Chavan

6. Which of the following is an essential attribute of the state Nation?

A) Democracy B) Secularism C) Sovereignty D) Socialism.

7. ________ in Part XI of the Indian Constitution deal with the administrative relations between the
centre and the states.
A) Articles 245 to 255 B) Articles 264 to 263
C) Articles 256 to 263 D) Articles 294 to 300

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8. ___________ was the first state to establish panchayati Raj.
A) Maharashtra B) Rajasthan
C) Bihar D) Kerala.

9. ________ acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

A) The president B) The prime minister
C) The Chief justice of Supreme Court D) The Vice - President.
10. What does Article 351 of the Indian Constitution refer to?
A) It shall be the duty of the union to promote the spread of the Hindi Language and
heritage of our Composite culture.
B) Defend the Country.
C) Safeguard public property.
D) Develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

11. Which committee was constituted to assess the profitablitiy of public sector banks?
A) Kelkar Committee B) Narasimhan Committee
C) Jha Committee D) Raja Chelliah Committee.

12. The state shall try to secure the improvement of public health is according to which of the follow-
ing article?
A) Article 47 B) Article 48 C) Article 43 D) Article 45.

13. Which among the following commissions recommended the reorganization of Indian states on lin-
guistic basis?
A) Fazal Ali Commission B) K.M. Panikkar Commission.
C) Bhanu Pratap singh Commission D) Upendra commission.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE - 2023

1. Time limit for RTI Reply, from the receipt of application by the public authority.
A) 20 days B) 25 days C) 30 days D) 40 days

2. By which Act the name Uttranchal was changed into Uttarakhand?

A) The Uttranchal (Alternation of Name) Act, 2006.
B) The Uttranchal (Alternation of Name) Act, 2000.
C) The Uttranchal (Alternation of Name) Act, 2001.
D) The Uttranchal (Alternation of Name) Act, 2003.

3. How many official languages are recognized in India?

A) 14 B) 15 C) 22 D) 18

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4. Who is the architect of ―Rule of Law‖?
A) A.V.Dicey B) Harold Laswell.
C) Aristotle D) G.D.H.Cole.

5. Which of the following is not listed under the union list?

A) Corporation Tax
B) Income Tax other than agricultural Income.
C) Capitation Tax.
D) Customs Duty.

6. Choose the right matches about panchayat Raj from the following:
1) K. Santhanam Committee - Panchayat Raj Elections.
2) R.K.Khanna Committee - Nyaya Panchayats.
3) Smt. Daya Choubey Committee - Panchayat Raj Finances.
4) G.Ramachandran Committee - Panchayat Raj Training Centres.
A) 1 and 4 are correct B) 2 and 3 are correct.
C) 1 and 3 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct.

7. Which of the following Article is related to the Duties of the prime Minister?
A) Article 75 B) Article 76 C) Article 77 D) Article 78

8. The Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens are incorporated in

A) Part I of the Constitution
B) B) Part II of the Constitution.
C) Part III A of the Constitution
D) Part IV A of the Constitution.

9. The Fundamental rights are enshrined in _________ of the Indian Constitution.

A) Part II B) Part III C) Part I D) Part IV

10. The Dowry Prohibition Act was enacted in the year.

A) 1962 B) 1960 C) 1961 D) 1963

11. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9th December, 1946 _______ Presided over
the inaugural session.
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B) B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
D) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

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07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL
HUSBANDRY SERVICE - 2023
1. The Chairman of the council of scientific and industrial research is
A) Home Minister B) Minister of Industry
C) Prime Minister D) Finance Minister

2. Match the constitutional article with the respective rights of women for their social justice:
Article Rights
a) Article 14 1. Equal opportunity of employment
b) Article 15 2. Freedom of speech
c) Article 16 3. Non - discrimination
d) Article 19 4. Equality
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 4 3 2 1

3. Arrange the following Chief Election Commissioners of India in chronological order:

1. Sunil Arora
2. Rajiv Kumar
3. Navin Chawla
4. Sushil Chandra
A) 3, 1, 4, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 2,1 D) 1, 2, 4, 3

4. Among the states listed below, the one that has the largest number of Lok Sabha seats is
A) West Bengal B) Gujarat C) Assam D) Rajasthan

5. Meghalaya state came into existence in the year

A) 1968 B) 1970 C) 1972 D) 1973

6. Another bold feature of the constitution is that it seeks to establish a secular state which of the fol-
lowing statements does not relate to the idea of a secular state?
A) Religious equality has been provided
B) Cultural heritage of the minorities has been protected
C) Untouchability has been done away
D) Some of its ideas are against the idea sovereignty

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7. The amendment act related to the word ―Socialist‘ in the preamble of the constitution of India is
A) 24th Amendment Act B) 28th Amendment Act
C) 42nd Amendment Act D) 44th Amendment Act

8. The institution of ombudsman was first created in

A) India B) Finaland C) Sweden D) Norway

9. Which of the following is not the requirement to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court?
(i) Should be a Citizen of India
(ii) Should have worked as a judge for 5 years in one or more High Courts in Succession
(iii) Should have worked as an advocate for 15 years in one or more High Courts in Succession
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) only D) (iii) only

10. Articles from 264 to 300A are in Part __________ of the Indian Constitution.
A) IX B) X C) XI D) XII

11. Given below are the High Courts and their year of establishment Identify the wrongly matched
pair.
High Court Year of establishment
A) Madras - 1862
B) Karnataka - 1884
C) Allahabad - 1954
D) Kerala - 1958

12. Which of the following statements are correct about the Rajya Sabha?
(i) It is a permanent body
(ii) At the end of every second year one- third members retired.
(iii) This shows the unstable nature of the house
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (iii) only

13. Which of the following reflects the social ideology of the directive principles of state policy?
A) Organising village panchayats B) Encouraging cottage industries
C) Providing adequate means of livelihood D) Protection of monuments

14. ―No person Shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procdure estab-
lished by law‖. Which article of the Indian constitution says like this?
A) Article 20 B) Article 21 C) Article 22 D) Article 23

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15. The text of the preamble of Indian constitution resembles which of the following constitutions?
A) Constitution of France B) Constitution of USA
C) Constitution of Germany D) Constitution of Ireland

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE - 2023
1. The Statutory body which is constituted to deal with the cases related to crime against women is
A) State Resource Centre for Women B) State Commission for Women
C) One Stop Crisis Centre D) Mahila Sakthi Kendra

2. Indian Constituion makes a clear division of fiscal powers between the states and the centre gov-
ernment under which Articles?
A) Article 462 and 392 B) Article 642 and 932
C) Article 264 and 293 D) Article 426 and 329

3. Which of the following statements about the time limit to get the information is/are true?
i. 30 days from the date of application
ii. 48 hours for information concerning the life or liberty of a person
iii. 5 days shall be added to the above response time incase the application for information in
given to APIO
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. Which of the following statements about the time limit to get the information is/are true?
i. Assisting the prime minister in respect of his overall responsibilities
ii. Maintaining liaison with president, Governors and foreign Representatives in the country
iii. Settles disputes between the ministries
A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) (i) and (iii) only

5. Which of the following statements are true about Balwant Raj Mehta Committee?
i. Establishment of three-tier panchayati Raj System
ii. Village panchayath should be constituted with directly elected representatives
iii. The district collector should not be the chairman of the Zila Parishad
A) (i) only B) (i) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

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6. Assertion (A) : Corruption emanates at the top political and administrative levels.
Reason (R): The Top level involvement makes eradication of corruption nearly impossible.
A) (A) is true but (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is fasle (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

7. The state in India were re-organised on which of the following the basis of
A) Cultural and lingual homogeneity
B) Administrative Convenience
C) Culture and traditions
D) Language of the people

8. The Slogan, ―Voice of people may be the voice of God‖ is suitably associated with
A) Popular sovereignty B) Citizen participation
C) Democratic Decentralization D) Prevention of corruption

9. Consider the following statements:

Choose the correct answer:
(i) Protection of Human Rights Act was passed in 1993
(ii) Protection of Human Rights Act was amended in the year 2003
(iii) Human Rights courts in the district can be set up by the concurrence of the Governor of the
state.
(iv) An Advocate of seven years experience may be appointed as a special public prosecutor for a
Human Rights
A) (i) and (iii) only B) (i) and (iv) only
C) (iii) and (i) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

10. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

(i) Santhanam Committee - Anti Corruption
(ii) Balwantrai Mehta Committee - Local government
(iii) S.R. Das Commission - Distric Administration
(iv) Sarkaria Commission - Inquiry commission on corruption
A) (i) and (iii) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (iii) and (iv) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

11. The Lokpal bill was introduced for the first time in Loksabha in the year
A) 1968 B) 1971 C) 2011 D) 2013

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12. Match correctly the writs with their meanings
a) Mandamus - 1.To stop
b) Habeas corpus - 2.To Certify
c) Certiorary - 3.To command
d) Prohibition - 4.To have the body of
abcd
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 1 4 3 2

13. _____________ is responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for a parliamentary/assembly
constituency.
A) Chief Electoral officer B) Returning Officer
C) Electoral registration officer D) Presiding Officer

14. Read the following, Choose the correct option given below.
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India is not an absolute Federal Constitution.
Reason (R): The structural-functional balance is in favour of the supremacy of the union.
A) (A) is true (R) is false
B) (R) is true (A) is false
C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

15. The Executive officer of the Cantonment Board is appointed by

A) Mayor B) District Collector
C) Home Ministry D) The President of India

16. Match the following:

a) Article 156 - 1) Pardoning power of the Governor
b) Article 155 - 2) Term of office of the Governor
c) Article 157 - 3) Appointment of the Governor
d) Article 161 - 4) Qualification for appointment as Governor
abcd
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 4 2 1

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17. Estimates committee of Parliament consists of _______members.
A) 20 B) 12 C) 27 D) 30

18. Who described Directive Principle of State policy as a ‗novel feature‘ of Indian Constitution?
A) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Pylee D) Mountbaten

19. Which of the following statements are true about secular democracy?
(i) State will not be controlled by any religion
(ii) Discriminaiton will be shown by the state against any person on acoount of his/her religion
(iii) State Guarntees to everyone the right to progess whatever religion one chooses to follow.
A) (i) and (iii) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i) only

20. Which of the following statement is true about the last line of the Preamble of the Indian Constitu-
tion?
A) Do hereby adopt, Enact and give to the nation this Constitution
B) Do hereby adopt, Enact and give to ourselves this Constitution
C) Do hereby adopt, Enact and dedicate to the country this Constitution
D) Do hereby adopt, Enact and dedicate to the nation this Constitution

21. Of the following three statements identify the true Statement(s) on Indian Constitution.
(i) Indian Constitution is a socially constructed document
(ii) Indian Constitution is unwritten customs and practices
(iii) Indian Constitution is a text subject to interpretative practices of both parliament and judiciary
A) (i) only B) (i) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

22. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the Constitution not only for the Indians but
also for the foreigners
A) (A) is true (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is false but (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

23. The political party founded by Shri Jayaprakash Narayan in 1977 was
A) Praja Socialist party B) Bharathiya Janatha party
C) Rashtirya Janatha dal D) Janatha Party

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24. Modern Odisha was formed in the year.
A) 1932 B) 1934 C) 1936 D) 1938

25. Gram Panchayat Development Plan Award was introduced during the year
A) 2016 B) 2017 C) 2018 D) 2019

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE - 2023
1. Which article of Indian Constitution mention about the development of scientific temper?
A) Article 51 B) Article 60 A C) Article 51 A (h) D) Article 61 A

2. Which of the following statement/s is /are true about the Council of Minister and the cabinet?
i) A Cabinet ministers is the head of one or more departments.
ii) The ministers meet jointly and frame the policies of the government
iii) Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers do not have a share in the formation of Government
policies.
A) I and II only B) III only.
C) II and III only D) I, II and III

3. Match the following:

Match correctly the borrowings to Indian Constitution from other countries:
a) Parliamentary Democracy 1. USA.
b) Fundamental Rights 2. UK
c) Directive principles of state policy 3.Canada.
d) Federalism 4. Ireland.
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 2 1 4 3

4. Which of the following statement/s is/are true in connection with fundamental Duties?
i) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India tran-
scending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory
to the dignity of women.
ii) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
iii) Maintain just and honourable relations between nation.
A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) I, II and III

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5. The Supremacy of the constitution is maintained by.
A) Independent Judiciary B) Parliament.
C) Co-operative Federalism D) Procedure established by law.

6. Though the country and the people may be divided into different states for the convenience of
administrative activities, the country is one integral whole? Who said this?
A) Rajendra Prasad B) Jawaharlal Nehru.
C) Bhimrao Ambedkar D) Vallabhai patel.

7. In India the real executive authority rests with.

A) The president B) The prime Minister.
C) The Council of Minister D) The Civil Servants.

8. Match the following (with respect to Directive principle of state policy):

a) Socialistic principles 1. Uniform Civil Code.
b) Gandhian Principles 2. To protect and improve the environment.
c) Liberal principles 3. Community development.
d) New Directive principles 4. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
abcd
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 1 2 4 3

9. Match the following statement I and II:

List I List II
a) Heart and Soul of constitution - 1. Article 24.
b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences - 2. Article 23.
c) Prohibition on human trafficking
and forced labour - 3. Article 20
d) Prohibition of employment of children in
Factories etc., - 4. Article 32
abcd
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 4 3 2 1

10. Pluralism is the keystone of Indian ______.

A) Culture B) Democracy C) Religion D) Federation.

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11. Which of the following are correctly matched:

1) Habeas Corpus - To Command.
2) Certiorary - To Certify.
3) Mandamus - To bring the body.
4) Prohibition - To prevent.
A) 1 and 4 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 3 and 4 are correct D) 2 and 4 are correct.

12. Who among the following called the ‗Preamble‘ of the Indian Constitution as ‗Identity Card of the
Constitution‘?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Sardar Patel.
C) N.A. Palkhivala D) Subhas Chandra Bose.

13. Match the following:

President Tenure
a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahamed - 1. 24.08.1969 - 24.08.1974.
b) V.V. Giri - 2. 25.07.1977 - 25.07.1982
c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy - 3. 24.08.1974 - 11.02.1977
d) Zakir Hussain - 4. 13.05.1967 - 03.05.1969
abcd
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 1 2 4
D) 1 3 4 2

14. ―The right of Citizenship cannot be taken away from a citizen except through an express parlia-
mentary Legislation‖. This is related to.
A) Ebrahim Wazir V state of Bombay Case.
B) Hukam singh V state of Punjab Case.
C) M.C.mehta V Union of India case
D) Ramchandra V Union of India Case.

15. Assertion (A) : Judicial activism is inherent in judicial review.

Reason (R) : The Scope of judicial review has extended beyond the domain of rights to include
executive policies and legislative in action.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false ; R is true.
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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16. Match the following:
Doctrine Nature / Tendency
a) The Doctrine of Colourable legislation - 1. Supremacy of parliament in legislation.
b) The Doctrine of non- Obstante Clause - 2. Competeting entries interpreted liberall
and need harmoniously.
c) The Doctrine of Harmonious Interpretation - 3. Determining the true character of
legislation.
d) The Doctrine of pith and Substance - 4. Tendency towards centralization.
abcd
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 4 1 2 3

17. Consider the following function of the process of the parliament and choose the correct answer:
1) Money Bill represents the will of the people.
2) Delegated legislation is not subject to review of parliament
3) Power of amending the provision of the constitution rests with the Parliament.
4) The parliament can assume legislative power exclusively referred for the state subject.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only
C) 4 and 1 only D) 3 and 4 only.

18. How long can the Rajya Sabha delay a money Bill?
A) 14 days B) 21 days
C) 31 days D) 10 days

19. Consider the following statements:

In the words of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar, Directive Principles of state policy are the ―Novel Feature‖ of
the Indian Constitution because,
I. These principles are in the nature of general direction or guidance to the state.
II. They embody the principles or objectives and ideals which Union and state Governments must
bear in mind while formulating policy and making laws.
Which is the statements given above is/are correct.
A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

20. _________ Defence Minister of Interim Government of India in 1946, A.D.

A) Sardhar Vallabhai patel
B) B) Baldev Singh
C) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D) Bala Gangadhara Thilak.

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21. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Minimum Wages Act - 1949.
2. National Textile policy - 2000
3. Steel Authority of India Limited - 1968
4. Workmen‘s Compensation Act - 1923
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 and 4

22. The 86th Amendment of the constitution led to the inclusion of a new _______ that made free and
Compulsory education to all children of 6-14 years of age.
i) Article 21-A ii) Article 22-B iii) Article 23-C
A) i only B) I and iii only C) I and ii only D) ii and iii only.

23. _______ of Constitution gives special status to Jammu and Kashmir from 1954 to 2019.
A) Article 230 B) Article 370 C) Article 480 D) Article 560

24. Identify the article in the constitution which provides reservation in services to the scheduled
castes and Scheduled tribes for not being adequately represented.
A) 331 B) 332 C) 334 D) 335

25. Who is not the member of recommending Committee in the appointment of Chief Information
Commissioner by the President of India?
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Union Cabinet Ministers nominated by the prime Minister

26. A welfare state can be characterized in terms of the following functions:

1) It guarantees individuals and families a minimum income irrespective of the market value of
their work or property.
2) It narrows the extent of insecurity by enabling individuals and families to meet certain social
contingencies.
3) It ensures that all citizens without distinctions of status or class are offered the best available
social services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I and II B) I and III
C) I, II and III D) None of the above.

27. Article that deals with prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
A) Article 47 B) Article 17 C) Article 16 D) Article 23

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28. Find the correct and incorrect matches among the following:
1) Article 338 - 1 - National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
2) Article 333 - Representation of the people of the Anglo - Indian Community in the
Legislative Assemblies of the states.
3) Article 331 - National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
4) Article 330 - Reservation of seats for scheduled Castes and scheduled tribes in Lok
Sabha.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct B) 1, 2, 4 are correct 3 is incorrect
C) 2, 3, 4 are correct but 1 is incorrect D) 1, 3, 4 are correct but 2 is incorrect

29. Article 15(4) clearly speaks about.

A) Socially and educationally backwards.
B) Inadequate representation in backward a class services.
C) Free and Compulsory education.
D) Weather sections of the people and includes the expression the SCs and STs

30. Match the following judgement with its pairs:

A class of Citizens and if the caste as a whole is socially and educationally backward, reservation
can be made in favour of such a caste on the ground that it is a socially and educationally back-
ward class of citizens within the meaning of Art.15(4).
A) Periya Karuppan Vs State of Tamilnadu.
B) M.R. Balaji Vs State of Mysore.
C) P. Rajendran Vs State of Tamilnadu.
D) U.S.V. Balram Vs State of Andhra Pradesh.

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE - 2023
1. Match the political parties with their founding years.
a) Indian National Congress - 1. 2013
b) All India Trinamool congress - 2.1925
c) National people‘s party - 3.1885
d) Communist party of India (CPI) - 4.1998.
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 1 4 3 2

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2. Which one of the following is NOT a qualification to become a president?
A) He must have completed 35 years of age.
B) He must be qualified to become a member of Rajya Sabha
C) He must be a citizen of India.
D) He should not hold any office of profit.

3. What sort of democracy would the Right to Information promote?

A) Direct Democracy B) Representative democracy.
C) Procedural democracy D) Participatory democracy.

4. The states Reorganisation Commission was appointed in the year.

A) 1953 B) 1960 C) 1950 D) 1952

5. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the
Constituion?
A) Right to freedom of Religion. B) Right to property.
C) Right to Equality. D) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

6. The verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of Citizens Submitted its report in the year.
A) 1997 B) 1998 C) 1999 D) 2000

7. Which of the following statements about Right to Information is Correct?

A) All public Authorities covered under RTI must appoint their public Information officer.
B) The RTI was adopted by the Indian Parliament in 2004.
C) The PIO has to reply the request within 35 days.
D) The nominal fees for filing a request is Rs.25

8. The number of members of the Rajya Sabha, Nominated by president of India are
A) 2 B) 10 C) 12 D) 15

9. Consider the following statements:

i) Functions of state Human Rights Commission are mainly recommendatory in Nature.
ii) The recommendation of state Human Rights Commission are binding on the state Government.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
A) I only B) ii only C) Both I and ii D) None.

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11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-
CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Article 335 of the Indian Constitution provides reservation
A) In Government service for SCs/STs
B) Of seats in Lok Sabha for SCs /STs
C) Of seats in Vidhan Sabha for SCs/STs
D) Of seats in Educational Institutions for SCs/STs

2. Which is not a characteristic feature of party system in India?

A) Personality cult
B) Presence of an effective, strong and organized opposition party
C) Faction and defections
D) Regional parties

3. Which of the following is not correct about ‗Directive principles of State Policy‖?
A) Enforceable through law courts
B) Promotes cottage industries and organization of Village Oanchayats
C) Free and compulsory education for children below 14 years of age
D) Betterment of scheduled castes and tribes

4. The Lok Ayuktha presents its Annual Report to

A) The Governor B) The Chief Minister
C) The Parliament D) The Corporation

5. Choose the right match:

1. Article 226 - High Court
2. Article 32 - Supreme court
3. Article 40 - Fundamental Right
4. Article 51A - Directive principles of State policy
A) (1) and (3) only B) (1) and (2) only
C) (2) and (3) only D) (3) and (4) only

6. Which of the following is True about Rajamannar Committee?

1. Rajamannar committee was constituted in the year 1968
2. The Committee submitted it‘s report in 1971
3. The committee was constituted to study the centre-state relation
A) (1) only B) (2) only C) (2), (3) only D) (1),(2) and (3)

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7. Arrange the following organizations in ascending order
1. Zilla parished
2. Village panchayat
3. Gram Sabha
4. Pachayat Samiti
A) 1,2,3,4 B) 3,2,4,1 C) 3,1,4,2 D) 1,4,2,3

8. Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should
be based on the passage only
The deputy speaker who presides over the house in the absence of the speaker in elected in the
same manner in which the speaker in elected by the House. He can be removed from office also
in the same manner. One of his special privileges is that when he is appointed as a member of a
parliamentary committee, he automatically becomes it‘s chairman. Which of the following is best
implied in the passage?
A) Deputy speaker provides over the house
B) The Deputy speaker is elected by the members
C) He is the ex- officio chairman if he is a member of parliamentary committee.
D) He can be removed by the parliament.

9. In Which case, the Supreme Court gave judgement that directive principles cannot override the
fundamental rights?
A) State of Madras Vs. Champakam Dorairajan (1951)
B) Bennet Coleman and Co Vs. Union of India (1973)
C) Ramesh Thapar Vs.State of Madras (1950)
D) Prabha Dutt Vs.Union of India (1982)

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Mandal Commission was appointed by Morarji Desai Government
2. Reservation for OBC in Government services was implemented in 1993
3. Indira Sawhney Vs union of India is a case on Reservation issue.
Which of these is /are true?
A) (1) only B) (1) and (2) only C) (1), (2) and (3) D) (3) only

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. In India, the political parties are given official recognition by.
A) The president B) Parliament
C) Election Commission D) All party parliamentary Committee.
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2. How many members are being nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha?
A) 21 B) 12 C) 18 D) 20

3. The word ‗Secularism‘ was added into the preamble by the 42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
A) 1950 B) 1947 C) 1976 D) 1956

4. Which Article and part of the Constitution of India deals with loss of Indian Citizenship?
A) Part III B) Part II Article 5 - 11 C) Part II Article 5 - 6 D) Part IV Article 12

5. Choose the False statement with respect to the qualification for the election of Indian president.
A) He / She should be a citizen of India.
B) He / she must have completed the age of forty years.
C) He /She must not hold any office of profit under the union State or Local Government.
D) He/She should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Loksabha.

6. Which of the following statements are correct about Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha?

I) He was the oldest member elected as the temporary President of the Assembly.
II) He was elected as the Vice-President of the Assembly.
III) He was elected as the president of the Assembly.
A) I only B) I and III only C) I and II only D) II and III only.

7. Which does not take relationship between the Centre and the states are?
A) Legislative relations B) Administrative relations
C) Financial relations D) Public relations.

8. Who among the following decides whether a bill is a money Bill or not?
A) Speaker of Lok sabha B) Attorney General.
C) Parliament Affairs Minister D) Finance Secretary.

9. The Universal declaration of Human Rights was proclaimed by the Untied Nations General As-
sembly in which place?
A) Paris B) Europe C) USA D) Canada.

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. Which article deals with the setting up of Commission for Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes?
A) section 338 B) section 335 C) section 332 D) section 334

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2. A registered party is recognized as a national party only if it wins ______ percent of the total num-
ber of seats in the Loksabha from atleast three different states.
A) 2% B) 3% C) 4% D) 5%

3. In which part of the Indian Constitution have been made for National Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Anglo Indians?
A) section XI B) section XVI C) section XXI D) section XIII

4. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1) He is appointed by the president of India.
2) He must have the same qualification on par with the judge of the Supreme Court.
3) He must be a member of either house of parliament.
1) He can be removed by impeachment by parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2,3 and 4 only D) 3 and 4 only

5. The mechanism for balancing the financial might of the centre and the needs of the states are:
i) Parliamentary standing Committee on finance.
ii) NITI Aayog.
iii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
iv) Finance Commission.
A) I and II only B) I and II only
C) II and IV only D) II, III and IV only

6. First Municipal Corporation in India was set up at.

A) Madras B) Bombay C) Calcutta D) Delhi

7. Which one of the following president of India was elected unopposed?

A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Dr. Radhakrishnan.
C) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy D) K.R. Narayanan.

8. The Concept of public Interest Litigation has its origin in the

A) United States of America B) England.
C) Germany D) Denmark

9. The constitutional status of the Right to Information is ensured in the Indian Constitution under the
A) Article 19(1) (a) B) Article 19(1) (b)
C) Article 19(1) (c) D) Article 19(1) (d).

10. Which of the following about the meaning of RTI is correct?

i) Demanding information from the government.
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ii) Getting information from media.
iii) Freedom of people to have access to government information.
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only.

11. By Which amendment, the words ‗secular‘ and ‗Socialist‘ were introduced in the preamble of the
constitution?
A) 41st Amendment B) 42nd Amendment C) 43rd Amendment D) 44th Amendment.

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. For a political party to be recognized as a National Party, it has to receive what percentage of va-
lid votes cast in any four or more states in the last general election to the Loksabha?
A) 2% B) 4% C) 6% D) 8%

2. Find the odd one out

A) Right to freedom B) Right to Religion
C) Right to constitutional Remedies D) Right to property

3. How can the fundamental Rights be suspended?

A) If the Supreme Court so desires
B) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
C) If the President orders it during the National Emergency
D) All of the above

4. Choose the correct statements:

I. Raja mannar commission on centre-state relation was established by the Tamil Nadu Govt in
1983
II. The Seventh schedule of the constitution contains the three lists
III. The centre -state relations revolve around the fulcrum of distribution of powers between centre
and state
IV. The powers are distributed between the union and state governments territorially.
A) (i), (ii) and (iii) B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) D) (i), (iv) and (iii)

5. Who defines Human Rights as, ―The right inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, gend-
er, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion or any other status. Everyone is entitled to these rights
without discrimination‖?
A) WHO B) UNO C) UNESCO D) UNDP

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6. Assertion (A): The Legislative Assembly is the real centre of power in the state.
Reason (R) : It makes the important appointments of the Heads of Departments.
Choose the correct option from the following codes:
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct.

7. Dispute between two states of India come to the Supreme court under:
A) Judicial review B) Original jurisdiction
C) Advisory jurisdiction D) Appellate jurisdiction

8. Which State implemented women ancestral Property Act in 1989?

A) Andhra B) Kerala C) Tamilnadu D) Goa

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. The office of the Directorate of Public Grievances is situated in the
A) Prime Minister‘s Office B) Cabinet Secretariat
C) Ministry of Personnel and Public Grievances D) Central Vigilence Commission

2. Which of the following is the guardian of Fundamental rights?

A) Constitution of India B) President of India
C) High Courts in India D) Supreme Court of India

3. Assertion (A) : The Union Executive can transform the federation into a Univetary State.
Reason (R) : The central government is vested with a variety of powers to extend its authority
over the states.
Read and choose the correct option given below:
A) (A) is true ; but (R) is false
B) (A) is false ; (R) is true
C) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

4. Consider the pairs on parliamentary committees

i) Committee on food, consumer
Affairs and Public distribution - Standing Committee
ii) Committee on Petitions - Adhoc Committee
iii) House Committee - Adhoc Committee

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iv) Committee on Ethics - Standing Committee
Which pair is not correct?
A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are not correct B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are not correct
C) (i) and (iii) are not correct D) (i) and (ii) are not correct

5. Which of the following sessions of Parliament is/are incorrect?

A) Budget session : February to May B) Monsoon session : July to September
C) Winter session : November to January D) Winter session : November to December

9. Which of the following Amendments made Elementary Education a fundamental right?

A) 42nd Amendment Act B) 44th Amendment Act
C) 86th Amendment Act D) 74th Amendment Act

10. Which one of the following is incorrectly paired?

1) Abolition of Titles - Article 18
2) Supremacy to Directive
Prinicples of state policy over Fundamental rights - Article 31 B
3) Abolition of Untouchability - Article 17
4) All are equal before law
and equal protection of law - Article 14
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 4 only

11. The 42nd Constitional Amendment Act added three new words to the Preamble of the Indian Con-
stitution. Which among the following is the incorrect one?
A) Socialist B) Secular C) Democratic D) Integrity

12. Garibi Hatao is the slogan of ______ five year plan for proverty alleviation programme.
A) First five year plan B) Second five year plan
C) Fifth five year plan D) Eight five year plan

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : The preface of the Constitution is the preamble.
Reason [R]: According to it, India is a sovereign, socialist, Secular, democratic, republic.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false, [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

2. Fundamental duties are given in which part of the Constitution?

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A) Part II B) Part III C) Part IV D) Part IVA

3. Match the following :

a) The Community Development Programme - 1.1882
b) National Extension Service - 2. 1952
c)The Great Charter on Panchayat Raj - 3. 1953
d) Introducing the local self Government - 4.1957
abcd
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 4 2 1 3
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 2 3 4 1

4. Which of the following committee was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985?
A) Balwant Rai Mehta B) Ashok Mehta
C) G.V.K. Rao D) L.M. Singhvi

5. From which of the following countries India has adopted its electoral system?
A) Russia B) U.S.A. C) United Kingdom D) Canada

6. Which of the following statements are true?

I. The State Human Right Commission was established is 1993.
II. It can also recommend compensation.
III. It has the power of a civil court.
IV. It's power extend beyond the state.
A) I and IV true I B) I, II and III true C) II, III and IV are true D) I only true

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. Which article declares that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of
the age 6-14 years?
A) Article 21 B) Article 14 C) Article 21 A D) Article 17

2. Which article empowers the state to appoint a separate minister for Tribals?
A) 46 B) 319 C) 164 (1) D) 329

3. Article 30, of Indian constitution assures the right of minorities to establish _________of their
choice.
A) Political parties B) Educational institutions
C) Political organisations D) Religious association

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4. "The Governor under the constitution has no functions which he can discharge by himself" and
that he has only "certain duties to perform". Whose statement is this?
A) Biswanth Das B) Rohini Kumar Chaudhri
C) H.V. Kamath D) B.R. Ambedkar

5. Consider the following statements and identify the correct ones about political parties.
1. Political parties create political consciousness among the voters.
2. Bi party and multi party systems are necessary for the protection of democracy.
3. Political parties create cooperation between the executive, and legislature.
A) 1 and 2 B)2 and 3 C) 1 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3

6. Religious equality in the Indian Constitution has been provided in____

A) Article 15 B) Article 25 C) Article 26 D) Article 27

7. The institution of Lokayuktha was established first in

A) Odisha B) Maharashtra C) Rajasthan D) Bihar

8. "Delegated Legislation‖ belongs to the realm of

A) Administrative law B) Natural law
C) Parliamentary legislation D) Judicial Pronouncements

9. Which of the following is not placed under the Union List?

1. Corporation Tax 2. Currency and coinage 3.Public Debt 4. Capitation Tax
A) 1 and 4 only B) 2 and 4 only C) 4 only D) 3 and 4 only

10. Choose the wrong matches:

1. DDA - Delhi Development Authority
2. PRI - Panchayat Raj Institutions
3. CDP - Community Development Programme
4. NES - National Extension Services
A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 3 and 4 only D)1 and 4 only

11. Choose the wrong statements:

1. President is the head of the Government
2. Prime Minister is the Real Executive
3. Proportional Representation is Associated with Prime ministerial Election
4. The executive power of the Union is vested with the president but he is only a nominal head.
A) 1 and 3 only B)2 and 3 only
C) 4 and 2 only D) 1 and 2 only

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12. Which of the following is not a directive principle's of State Policy?

A) Securing equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B) Improving working conditions
C) Upliftment of SCs/STs
D) Abolition of untouchability

13. Ways of Acquisition of citizenship

A) Birth B) Descent C) Registration D) Naturalisation
A) (a) and (b) only B) (b) and (c) only
C) (a), (b) and (c) only D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

14. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from options given below :
List I List II
A) Art. 110 - 1. All India Services
B) Art. 312 - 2. Equality before law
C) Art.280 - 3. Money bill
D) Art. 14 - 4. Finance commission
abcd
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 4 2 1 3
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 3 2 4 1

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per- II
1. Every person has the right to freely practice his or her faith established and maintain Religious
and Charitable Institutions.
A) Rights to Freedom B) Rights to Equality
C) Cultural and Educational Rights D) Rights to Freedom of Religion

2. Who described "Administrative Law as contrary to the Rule of Law''?

A) P.C. Jain B) A.V. Dicey C) Ivor Jennings D) C.F. Strong

3. The aim of appointing the Sarkaria Commission was to make recommendations on

A) Eradicate corruption B) Centre-State relation
C) Develop Local Administration D) Study the Levels of Administration

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4. Which article of the Indian constitution states that the Executive Power of the state shall be vested
with the Governor?
A) Article 153 B) Article 154 C) Article 155 D) Article 156

5. Which of the following is not matched correctly?

A) The Protection of Civil Rights Act - 1955
B) The Wildlife Protection Act - 1972
C) The Forest Conservation Act - 1980
D) The Representation of People's Act - 1957

6. Which of the following statements are true about fundamental duties?

i) To provide free and compulsory education to children between the age 6 -14 years
ii) To safeguard public property
iii) To develop Scientific Temper
A) (i) only B) (ii) and (i) only C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i),(ii) and (iii)

7. (i)The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the constitution from Article 12 to 35.
(ii) Part III of the constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i) and (ii) D) None of the above

8. The foundational objective of enacting the Right to Information Act is to ensure_____

A) Social Justice
B) Economic development
C) Efficiency and effectiveness of governance
D) Accountability and transparency in governance

9. Delhi has emerged as the National Capital territory with a legislature and a council of ministers by
A) 65th Constitutional Amendment B) 67th Constitutional Amendment
C) 69th Constitutional Amendment D) 71st Constitutional Amendment

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE

MEDICINE DEPARTMENT
1. In order to get the status of registered political party, all political parties have to conduct periodic
and regular election to all positions of office-bearers and organs of the party at least once in
A) 4 years B) 5 years C) 8 years D) 10 years

2. Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answers to this item should be
based on the passage only :

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Corruption in India is basically Politico-Administrative. It pervades both the political and the
administrative levels in government. It runs deep, is well organized and systematic. Secondly it
often emanates at the top political and administrative levels. This top level involvement makes
it's eradication nearly impossible. According to the passage what is the reason for impossibility
of eradication of corruption.
A) Corruption prevails in India
B) Corruption is found both in Administration and in politics
C) Corruption is systematic and deep rooted
D) Corruption deeply rooted out the Higher Levels of the Administration and Politics

3. Consider the followings statements :

The concepts of "Separation of Power" and "Independent Judiciary" were upheld by the Supreme
Court in the case of
A) State of Bihar Vs Bal Mukund, Sah B) Minerva Mill Vs Union of India
C) Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain D) Dharward Employees Vs State of Karnataka

4. Who was the Chairman of the Second Commission on centre-state Relations?

A) Madan Mohan Punchhi B) R.S. Sarkaria
C) Morarji Desai D) P.V. Raja Mannar

5. Choose the correct states from the following which have upper house in the State Legislature
A) Bihar, U.P., Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andrapradesh, Telangana
B) Rajasthan, Hariyana, Assam, M.P., Kerala, Orissa
C) Gujarat, Nagaland, Punjab, West Bengal, Manipur
D) Tripura, Himachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Mizoram

6. Who Presides over the joint sitting of the parliament?

A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha B) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D) President of India

7. Which of the following Articles says that the Directive Principles cannot be enforceable by any
court?
A) Article 37 B) Article 38 C) Article 39 D) Article 40

8. In an Emergency the fundamental rights of citizens

A) May be suspended
B) Stand automatically suspended
C) Can be enjoyed approval of the Supreme Court
D) Can be enjoyed with the approval of the High Court

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9. Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly was elected by indirect election by the members of the
Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
Reason (R): Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assemblies elect their rep-
resentatives by the method of proportional representation by single transferable vote
Choose the correct option from below :
A) [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
B) [A] is true but [R] is false
C) [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
D) [A] is false and [R] is true

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. By which constitutional amendment did Delhi get the Legislative Assembly?
A) 67th B) 69th C) 71st D) 79th

2. Which of the following statements is True regarding Indian states.

(i) Bombay and Gujarat were separated in 1960
(ii) Janagath was ruled by a Hindu King
(iii) Tara Singh fought for Haryana
(iv) Sikkim became the 22nd state of the union
A) (i) and (iii) true (ii) and (iv) false B) (i) and (ii) true (iii) and (iv) false
C) (i) and (iv) true (ii) and (iii) false D) (i) and (iv) false (ii) and (iii) true

3. The objective of the Article 15 of the Indian Constitution is ______

A) The state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of race, caste, sex, place
of birth etc.
B) Beggary is prohibited
C) Prohibition of children in factories below the age of 14 years
D) Abolition of untouchablility

4. Consider the following statements :

1) Ombudsman is a government official who investigates citizens complaints against the high
government functionaries
2) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is designed to inquire into allegations by
administrative officials of the State Government as well as Union Government
Which of the statement given above is /are correct?
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Match the following :

Law Year

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a) Preventive Detention Act - 1.1980
b) National Security Act - 2. 2002
c) Prevention of Terrorism Act - 3. 1971
d) Maintenance of Internal Security Act - 4.1950
abcd
A) 4 1 2 3
B) 1 3 2 4
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 1 4 3

6. Match the following :

Subject Related Article
a) Adequate Means of Livelihood - 1. Article-38
b) Decent Standard of Life - 2. Article-41
c) Report to Work - 3. Article-43
d) People's Welfare - 4. Article-39
abcd
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2

7. Consider the following Statements and find the incorrect statements :

The Rationale of Right to Information Implies.
(1) Governance and Development (2) Ensuring official Secrecy
(3) Transparency and Accountability (4) Prevention of Corruption
A) (1) and (4) only B) (1) and (2) only
C) (2) only D) (2) and (3) only

8. Match the following :

Amendment Subject
a) 53 - 1. Statehood for Goa
b) 56 - 2. Statehood for Sikkim
c) 55 - 3. Statehood for Mizoram
d) 36 - 4. Statehood for Arunachal Pradesh
Choose the correct option:
a b c d
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 1 2

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D) 3 1 2 4

9. The Nature of ―Socialist Principles" embodied in the constitution of India is based on the
1) Influence of socialist Ideas on state activity
2) Aims at establishing a Democratic socialist state
3) Collective socialist state pattern of Eastern Europe
4) Influence of Complete Marxism
A) (1) and (3) only Correct B) (3) and (2) only Correct
C) (4) and (1) only Correct D) (1) and (2) only Correct

10. The Preamble and the Directive Principles of state policy of the constitution of India comprises the
Ideology of
A) Egalitarianism B) Utilitarianism
C) Liberalism D) Communism

11. Which of the following come under the purview of Independent Judiciary?
(i) Judges have Security of services and salaries
(ii) The Judges are appointed by the president based on merit
(iii) The salaries and allowances of the Judges are charged upon the consolidated fund of India
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. Match correctly the articles of the Indian Constitution with their corresponding constitutional doc-
trines :
a) Article 13 1. Doctrine of Territorial nexus
b) Article 31 2. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
c) Article 245 3. Doctrine of Eclipse and severability
d) Article 246 4. Doctrine of Eminent Domain
abcd
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 3 1 2 4
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 4 3 1

2. Consider the following statements, and choose the incorrect answer :

a) The president is a constituent part of parliament.
b) He may sit (or) participate in the discussion in either of the two houses
c) The president cannot promulgate ordinance having the same effort and effect on the law
passed by the parliament.
d) When both the houses of parliament are not in session, the president can promulgate

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ordinance.
A) (b) and (c) only B) (c) and (d) only
C) (a) and (c) only D) (a) and (d) only

3. Which of the following statements are true about the two houses of Parliament?
1) The two houses of Parliament enjoy equal rights except financial matters.
2) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
3) Rajya Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial statement but it has no power to vote the
Demand for grants
A) (1) only B) (1) and (2) only C) (2) and (3) only D) (1), (2) and (3)

4. Match the following :

International Conventions Year
a) Convention on the Rights of child - 1. 1984
b) Declaration on the Rights to Development - 2. 1979
c) Convention on the Elimination all forms of
discrimination against women - 3. 1986
d) Convention against Torture cruel, inhuman Treatment - 4. 1989
a b cd
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 4 2 3 1
D) 3 2 1 4

5. Assertion (A): Right to Information is necessary to empower the people in India.

Reason (R) : Reduces scope of corruption in Public Administration.
A) (A) is true but (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true; and [R] is the correct explanation is (A)
C) (A) is false, (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

6. Assertion [A]: Indian Constitution is a rationally deliberated moral document.

Reason [R] : Indian Constituent Assembly was a site where different interest groups debated for a
negotiated settlement.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) [A] is false, [R] is true
C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation is [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

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7. Which of the following Articles given below provide for a council of ministers to aid and advice the
Governor of a state?
A) Articles 160 B) Articles 162 C) Articles 163 D) Articles 164

8. Which of the following is in-correctly paired :

1) Right to Information Act - 2005 2) Freedom of Information Act - 2002
3) Official Secret Act -1920
A) (1) and (2) only B) (1) and (3) only C) (1) only D) (3) only

9. Arrange in chronological order

Arrange the following Presidents of India in chronological order
1. K.R. Narayanan 2. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
3. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma 4. R. Venkataraman
A) 2,4,1,3 B) 3,2,1,4 C) 4,3,1,2 D) 1,3,4,2

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. In the below schemes, which is related to improve the nutritional andhealth status of the children
in the age group 0-6 years
A) Integrated Child Development Scheme
B) National Rural Employment Programme
C) Nutrition Programme
D) Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

2. Match correctly the Folk dramas with their corresponding states.

a) Kathakali - 1. Bengal
b) Yatra - 2. Maharashtra
c) Ainkiya Nat - 3. Kerala
d) Tamasha - 4. Assam
a bc d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 2 4 3 1

3. Consider the statement about collective responsibility, choose the correct answer from the op-
tions given below :
Assertion (A): Collective responsibility, in ―Parliamentary Democracy‖ is to make the whole
body and persons holding Ministerial office collectively, rather than individually.
Reason (R): Collective responsibility ‘implies consensus buildingmachine among ministers

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A) [A] is true [R] is wrong
B) [A] is false [R] is true
C) [A] and [R] are true, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]

4. Match the following:

Case law Subject
a) Bandhua Mukti 1. The Difference between Article32
Morcha Vs Union of India and Article 226 Explained
b) Salem Advocate Bar 2. Environmental Direction issued
Association Vs union of india
c) M.C. Metha Vs union of India 3. Speedy Trial applies to civil mat-
ters
d) Smt. Poonam Vs Sumit 4. Healthy environment included in
Tanwar Right of life

5. Match correctly the Committees with the year of their set up

a) Balwantrai Mehta Committee - 1.1977
b) Ashok Mehta Committee - 2.1985
c) L.M.Sing MCommittee - 3.1986
d) G.V.K.RaoCommitee - 4. 1957
abcd
A) 4 1 3 2
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 2 1 3 4

6. Which of the following is true about the Lok Sabha?

(i) Lok Sabha is commonly known as Lower House of the Indian Parliament.
(ii) Members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
(iii) 44th Amendment Act increased the number of Lok Sabha membersto 545
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (iii) only D) (i) and (ii) only

7. Which of the following statements are true about the Cabinet?

(i) Cabinet system enforces responsibility of the executive to the Legislation
(ii) Cabinet consists of the Prime Minister and his/her senior ministerswith important portfolio
(iii) The head of the Cabinet is the Prime Minister
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only C) (i) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

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8. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
1. Ashok Mehta Committee - Social Audit
2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - 3 tier system of PRI
3. L.M. Singhvi Committee - District Collector to be the Chairman of Zila Parishad
4. G.V.K. Rao Committee - Abolition of the post of District Development
Commissioner
A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 3 and 4 only

9. ―Ralegan Siddhi‖ a famous place in India is well known for elimination of the evil of
A) Poverty in Rural Area B) Corruption in Administration
C) Criminalisation of Politics D) Human Rights violations

10. Identify the Constitutional Amendment Act that reduced the age of voting from 21 years to 18
years?
A) 60th Amendment Act B) 61st Amendment Act
C) 62nd Amendment Act D) 62nd Amendment Act

11. __________became the 23rd state of the Indian Union in February 1987.
A) Mizoram B) Odisha C) Punjab D) Uttarkhand

12. From which of the following constitution, the source of ―Directive principles of state policy‖ of con-
stitution of India, was derived
A) Ireland B) Ice land C) Netherland D) Poland

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. When a recognized political party gets split up into splinter groups, the power of
recognizing one such faction or group as original political party is vested with
A) Supreme Court of India B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Speaker of Legislative Assembly D) Election Commission of India

2. Which of the following statements are true abou the Lokpal?

(i) Chair person and members of the Lokpalare selected by aselection committee
(ii) Not less than 50 percent of the members of the search committee shall be from amongst
the persons who belong to SC/ST, OBC, Minorities and women.
(iii) The term of office is 3years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
A) Only (i) B) (i) and (ii) Only
C) (i) and (iii) Only D) (ii) and (iii) only

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3. Consider the following statements:
1. An ex-judge of the Supreme Court may act as a Supreme Court Judge again.
2. If there is a need, Supreme Court can function from any part of India.
3. Article144 deals with advisory juris diction of Supreme Court.
4. Only Supreme Court can issue Habeas Corpus writ.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct B) 2,3 and 4 are correct
C) 1 and 2 are correct D) 2 and 3 are correct

4. Under which Act the States have the power to borrow out side India with the consent of the cen-
tre?
A) Government of India Act,1909 B) Government of India Act,1919
C) Government of India Act,1935 D) Government of India Act,1919

5. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the constitution a State Legislative assembly must sit atleast twice a year.
2. No tax can be withdrawn without the approval of the legislative assembly.
3. The five year term of legislative assembly can be extended bya Parliamentary law.
4. Legislative Assembly controls the finance of the state.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 2, 3 and 4 are correct B) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

6. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of which of following Parliamentary
Committees?
(i) Business Advisory Committee (ii) General Purpose Committee
(iii) Rules Committee (iv) Estimates Committee
A) (i) and (ii) Only B) (i), (ii) and (iii) Only
C) (i) and (iv) Only D) (iii) and (iv) only

7. Match the following:

a) Art 350A - 1. Mother tongue at Primary School level
b) Art 351 - 2. Spread and development of Hindi
c) Art 335 - 3. Appointments of SC and ST
d) Art 51 - 4. Promotion of International Peace
a bcd
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 2 3 4 1
th
8. The right to property was taken away as a Fundamental Rights by the 44 Amendment Act
1978 and converted as a legal Right Under Article:
A) 300 A B) 206 A C) 200 A D) 400 A

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UNIT – 6 ECONOMICS
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. Which one is an example for Agro based Industry?
A) Sugar Mill B) Cement C) Steel Factory D) Mining

2. Assertion and Reason type

A) Assertion [A] : In the unorganized sector the employment terms are not fixed
B) Reason [R] : This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own
and doing small jobs.
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] does not explain [A]
C) [A] is correct and [R] is false
D) [A] is false and [R] is true

3. According to the Growth rate the successful five year plans are
(i) First five year plan (ii) Third five year plan
(iii) Fifth five year plan (iv) Seventh five year plan
A) (i), (ii) and (iii) B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (iii) and (iv) D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

4. India is the home to _______________

A) 12 B) 18 C) 22 D) 20

5. Who was the first Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

A) Osborne Smith B) N.K Singh C) A.K. Chanda D) C. Rangarajan

6. Tax levied on personal income is

A) Indirect Tax B) Wealth Tax C) Direct Tax D) Regressive Tax

7. Which of the following statement are true about Central

i) The issuer of Currency
ii) The issuer of Industrial license
iii) Banker to the Government
A) (i) Only B) (i) and (ii) Only
C) (i) and (iii) Only D) (ii) and (iii) Only

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02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Goods & Service Tax (GST) _________________
A) Consumption of Goods & Services B) Consumption of Agricultural Commodity
C) Saving Pattern D) Consumption of Industrial Commodity

2. ____________ Bank acts as Banker to the central and state governments in India.
A) Developmental Banks B) State Bank of India
C) Centre – State Co-operative Banks D) Reserve Bank of India

3. __________ model was the basis of fourth five year plan.

A) Harrod-Domar Model B) CELP Model
C) Mahalanobis Model D) Chakravarty‘s Model

4. Match correctly the findings with the corresponding scientists:

A) Visvesvaraya - 1. Fabrication of ultralight aircraft
B) Venkatraman Radhakrishnan - 2. Automatic sluice gates
C) Chandrasekhar - 3. Instrument to measure the weight and pressure of solar rays
D) Meghnadsaha - 4. Radiation of energy from stars
(a)(b) (c) (d)
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 2 4 3

5. Expand PURA
A) Public Utilities Regulatory Authority
B) Public Utilities Regulatory Act
C) Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
D) Philippine Urology Residents Association

6. The LPG Model of development was introduced by

A) Rajiv Gandhi B) Dr.Manmohan Singh
C) V.P. Singh D) Vajbhai

7. India‘s First Five Year Plan was based on

A) Harrod Domer Model B) Alfred Marshal Model
C) Paul Samuelson D) A.K.Sen Index Model

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-

DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023

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1. The chairman of the first Finance Commission of India was
A) Dr.P.V. Rajamannar B) Shri. A.K. Chanda
C) Shri. K. Santhanam D) Shri K.C. Neogy

2. The period of stagnant population occurred in

A) 1901 – 1911 B) 1911 – 1921 C) 1921 – 1931 D) 1901 – 1921

3. As per census – 2011, 54.6percentage of labourers in India was engaged in ________ sector.
A) Agricultural B) Industrial C) Service Sector D) IT

4. 100 Days of Employment Programme is assured under

A) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
B) National Rural Emloyment Guarantee Scheme
C) Employment Assurance Scheme
D) None

5. Which of the following are associated with land reform measures?

(1) Abolition of intermediaries (2) Tenancy legislation
(3) HYV Seeds (4) Ceiling on land Holdings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) (1), (2) and (4) only B) (1), (3) and (4) only
C) (2) and (4) only D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

6. __________ was the World‘s First Country/S to implement the GST law in the year 1954
(i) United States of America (ii) France
(iii) Germany (iv) Italy
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only C) (ii) only D) (iii) only

7. Fiscal Reform Facility was introduced by the Central Government through which finance Com-
mission?
A) IX B) X C) XI D) XII

8. Expand NITI Aayog

A) National Institution for Transforming India
B) National Institute for Technology India
C) National Indian Transforming Institute
D) National Information Technology of India

9. In 1944, The Gandhian Plan was formulated by

A) Mr.M.N. Rao B) Sir. M. Visheshvraya

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C) Shri Sriman Narayan D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

10. Jawahar Rozgar Yojna programme was announced in the year

A) 1966 B) 1989 C) 1991 D) 1996

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. The bank log of unemployed persons during the Eleventh plan (2007 – 12) was around
A) 28 million B) 37 million C) 42 million D) 48 million

2. Which one of the following pair is not matched correctly?

A) SANKALP - Ministry of Skill Development.
B) STRIVE - Ministry of MSME
C) SAMPADA - Ministry of food processing
D) SAUBHAGYA - Ministry of power

3. Dr.Y.V. Reddy was appointed the Chairman of the

A) Eleventh Finance Commission B) Twelfth finance Commission.
C) Thirteenth Finance commission D) Fourteenth Fianance Commission.

4. Which one of the followings is not the main objective of monetary policy?
A) Full employment B) Encourage Capital Market.
C) Price stability D) Maintaining Balance of payments.

5. _____ Economy is completely incorporated into the principles of Karl Marx.

A) Socialist B) Capitalist C) Mixed D) Dulaistic.

6. Match the following:

List I List II
a) Green Revolution 1. Fish production.
b) White Revolution 2. Oil seeds.
c) Blue Revolution 3. Food crops
d) Yellow Revolution 4. Milk.
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 3 2 1 4

7. Match correctly the expenditure with their corresponding items:

a) Captial expenditure 1. Energy and Transport development.

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b) Revenue expenditure 2. Bridges and Hospitals construction.
c) Sectoral expenditure 3. Salaries Pension and Interest.
d) Deferred expenditure 4. Advance payment for goods and services
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 4 1 2 3

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

1. The share of Agricultural and allied sectors in total GDP (At 2004 – 05 Prices) was _______ dur-
ing 2010 – 2011 in India.
A)12.9 percent B) 32.4 percent C) 16.4 percent D) 14.4 percent

2. According to Jawaharlal Nehru, the development of _________ is important for rapid economic
development.
A)Modern Agriculture B) Heavy Industries.
C) Rural Development D) Medical Facilities.

3. For the Fulfillment of the objectives of Land Reforms the major steps adopted under the pro-
gramme are:
i) Abolition of Intermediaries.
ii) Regulation of Land lord – tenant relationship and redistribution of land by placing ceiling on
land holdings.
iii) Consolidation of scattered holdings.
iv) Updating and Computerisation of land records.
A)I and II only B) iii and iv only C) I, ii and Iv only D) I, ii, iii and iv.

4. Goods and Service Tax (GST) is a _______.

A)Direct Tax B) Indirect Tax C) Proportional Tax D) Regressive Tax.

5. ________ System of note-issue is followed by RBI.

A)Maximum Reserve B) Minimum Reserve.
C) Proportional Reserve D) Fixed Fiduciary

6. During the great depression _________ system failed to respond to the needs of the people.
A)Capitalist System B) Socialist system.
C) Demogratic system D) Mixed Economic System.

7. During second five year plan the targeted growth rate was _________.

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A)4.5% B) 5.5% C) 3.5% D) 6.0%

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. The Second Five Year Plan was based on ____________ model.
A) Harrod - Domar modal B) Mahalanobis model
C) Schumpeter model D) Nurkse model

2. According to 2011 Census, in India the lowest literacy rate was in the state of
A) Jharkhand B) Bihar
C) Arunachal Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu
3. Select the correct answer, the sources of revenue of the government are:
(i) Tax revenue
(ii) Non tax revenue
(iii) Surplus from public undertaking
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (i) and (ii) D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. The chairman of NITI Aayog is

A) President of India B) Prime Minister of India
C) Finance Minister of India D) Vice President of India

5. Human Development Index, embodies Amartyasen‘s ―Capabilities Approach‖ to understand

A) Education B) Human well being
C) Happiness D) GDP

6. ________ guarantees work and income for the rural work force
A) MGNREGA B) SBM C) CSC D) SSA

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. Which one of below is related to poverty alleviation programmes?
(i) The Nehru Rozgar Yojana (ii) National social Assistance programme
(iii) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (iv) Swarna Jayanthi Shahari Rozgar Yojana
A) (i) is correct B) (iii) is correct
C) (i) and (ii) is correct D) (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) are correct

2. Which stage of demographic transitation is characterized by ―low birth rate and low Death rate‖?
A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV

3. Which is the correct criteria for declaring an enterprise as ―Micro‖?

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(i) The investment in plant and Machinery does not exceed Rs.25 lakh
(ii) The enterprise should fall in the category of manufacturing sector and not service sector
Select correct answer by using the code given below:
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) Both (i) and (ii) D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

4. The population growth rate during 1911-21 was negative due to epidemics like
(i) Cholera (ii) Plague
(iii) Influenza (iv) Famines
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) D) (ii), (i), (iv), (ii)

5. Consider the following statement

(i) Reserve Bank of India is a custodian of forex
(ii) Reserve Bank of India was formed on April 1 1934
(iii) Reserve Bank of India also called ―Lendor of first Resort‖
(iv) Reserve Bank of India collects receipts of funds and makes payments as behalf of the Gov-
ernment out of these, which are correct statement?
A) (ii) and (iv) B) (i) and (iv) C) (i) and (ii) D) (ii) and (iii)

6. Who is the chairman of central board of directors of RBI?

A) RBI Governor B) Finance Minister
C) Prime Minister D) Home Minister

7. Nehru Mahalanobis model was based on

(i) a high rate of savings so as to boost investment to a higher level
(ii) It preferred a heavy industry bias to develop the industrial base of the economy
(iii) It opted for the protectionist path so as safeguard infant industry
(iv) It encouraged import substitution so as to achieve self reliance
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (ii) and (iv) only D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

8. Why was the NITI Aayog formed?

(i) to promote co-operative federation
(ii) to decentration the planning
(iii) to control the population growth
(iv) to settle inter-sectoral/Inter state conflicts
A) (ii) and (iii) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (i) and (iv) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

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9. Green Revolution has been most successful in which of following pairs of crops?
A) Wheat and rice B) Wheat and oil seeds
C) Sugarcane and cotton D) Wheat and pulses

10. Which of the following is/are related to the land reforms programmes in India?
(i) Ceiling on land holdings (ii) Consolidation of holdings
(iii) Cooperative farming (iv) Zamindari abolition
A) (ii) only B) (i) and (iv) only
C) (i),(ii) and (iv) only D) (i),(ii), (iii) and (iv)

11. ‗Garibi Hatao‘ and ‗Growth with social Justice‘ related to which five year plan in India?
A) Second five year plan B) Third five year plan
C) Fourth five year plan D) Fifth five year plan

12. Which of the following is incorrect?

(i) NPF – National Provident Fund
(ii) DARE – Department of Agricultural Research and Education
(iii) NCIP – Net consumer index price
(iv) WBCIS – World Bank Crop Insurance Scheme
A) (i) and (ii) B) (i), (iii) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i) and (iii)

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE – 2023
1. Which of the following statement/s is/are true of the Agriculture of India?
i) India is the world ‗s largest producer of tea, sugarcane and some oil seeds.
ii) The sources of ―Green Revolution‖ have made India self – sufficient in food.
A) I only B) ii only
C) Both I and ii D) None of the above

2. According to the NITI Aayog, CWM1, 2018; 21 Indian Cities may face Day zero in coming years.
Day zero refers to the day a place is likely to have _________.
A) No Drinking water of its own.
B) No water in the cities.
C) No water for industrial untility.
D) No discharge from industries.

3. Assertion (A) : Under Export promotion of India, interest equalization scheme was formulated.
Reason ( R) : Exporters are getting the benefits in the interest rates being charged by the banks in
their export credits.
A) (A) is true but R is false.
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B) Both A and R are true
C) A is false but R is true.
D) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

4. The next stage of growth for India‘s fintech will come from.
A) Income, Investments, Insurance and Institutional Credit.
B) Income, Consumption and Trade.
C) Investment, Exports and Banking.
D) Credits, Repayments and Income.

5. Assertion (A) : Govt of India approved the National Policy for farmers (NPFs).
Reason ( R) : Many of the provisions of the NPFs are operationalized through various Schemes of
the Central Government.
A) A is true but R is false
B) A is false but R is true
C) Both A and R are true; R is the correct explanation of A.
D) Both A and R are true; R is not a correct answer of A.
6. The Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP) was lauched by the Ministry of
A) Health and Family welfare. B) Finance
C) Industry D) Rural Development

7. The Public private partnership in India is systematically mean for investments in ________
Choose the correct options:
A)High – priority public utility services. B) Increasing infrastructural facilities.
C) Both A and B D) National Defence alone.

8. What basic need does IAY fulfill?

A) Water B) Clothing C) Housing D) Food.

9. The major objective of pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinzhayee Yojana (PMKSY) is to achieve.
A) “More Crop per drop” B) Agricultural credit available to farmers.
C) Crop Insurance D) Crop Improvement.

10. With reference to the government‘s welfare schemes. Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains are available to the poorest of the poor
families at Rs.2 per kg for wheat and Rs.3 per kg for rice.
2. Under the National Old Age pension Scheme, the old and destitute are provided Rs.75 per
month as Central.
Which of these statements are correct?
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A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 correct D) Both incorrect

11. The whole village was treated as a unit as far as payment of land revenue is concerned. The sys-
tem is
A) Ryotwari B) Zamindari C) Mahalwari D) All the above

12. The rationale for setting up of UPPAL Committee is

A) For accelerated rural electrification programme.
B) To resolve problems in cattle fodder.
C) Integrated pest management.
D) Survey of waste land.

13. Who is the Chairman of Fifteenth Finance Commission of India?

A) N.K. Singh B) Dr. Y.V. Reddy. C) K.C. Neogy D) K.C. Pant

14. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. High birth rate and low death rate is known as population explosion.
2. The ratio between working and non working population is dependency ratio.
3. National Family planning programme was launched in 1948.
A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 1 and 3 D) 2 and 3

15. The Book ‗planning and the poor‘ is written by

A) Shriman Narayanan B) M.N. Roy
C) MahatmaGandhi D) B.S.Minhas.

16. Match the Lit I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
a) Employment generation programme 1. Minimum needs Programme.
b) Social Assistance programme 2. Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana.
c) Human Development programme 3. National Family benefit Scheme.
a b c
A) 2 1 3
B) 1 3 2
C) 3 1 2
D) 2 3 1

17. The Gandhian model aims at the reform of ______ as the most important sector in Economic
planning in India.
A) Agriculture Sector B) Industry Sector.
C) Service Sector D) IT Sector.

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18. The major objective/s of the government to setup the planning Commission in India are.
i) To promote a rapid rise in the standard of Living of the people by efficient use of the resources
of the Country.
ii) Helps to increase the production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service
of the Country.
iii) Do not have the responsibility of making assessment of all resources of the country.
A)I only B) I and ii only C) ii only D) I and iii only.

19. _______ is not the main objectives of special economic zone.

A) Generation of Addition Economic activity. B) Promotion of Export goods and services.
C) Creation of employment opportunity. D) Reduction of Income Inequal

20. Who referred the Sarvodaya Movement Philosophy as a fuller and richer Concept of peoples de-
mocracy than any we have yet known?
A) Vinoba B) J.P.Narayan C) Anima Bose D) Sankarro Deo

21. Which one of the statement is not true of ―Beti Bachoa Beti Padhao‖. The objectives of the
schemes are?
i) Prevention of gender biased, sex selective elimination.
ii) Ensuring survival of the girl child.
iii) Ensuring education and participation of the girl child.
i) To provide only Self – employment to women.
A) I and ii only B) I, ii, iii only C) ii, iii, iv only D) iv only

22. _______ scheme for prevention of trafficking and Rescue, Rehabilitation and Reintegration of vic-
tims of trafficking and Commercial sexual exploitation.
A) Vatsalya B) One step centre
C) Ujjawala D) Kishori Shakti Yojana.

23. Which of the following is true about the Abolition of Bonded Labour system?
i) Persons kept as bonded labour are released and rehabilitated by providing financial assistance
of Rs.20,000
ii) House site pattas, drinking water and Bank loan assistance are provided to them.
A) I only B) ii only C) I and ii true D) I and ii false.

24. Match correctly the states with their achievements of sustainable development goal.
a) Tamil Nadu 1. Gender equality.
b) Chattisgarh 2. Zero hunger.
c) Kerala 3. No poverty
d) Odisha 4. Climate Action

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a b c d
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 4 1 3

25. Choose the correct answer:

Assertion (A) : Development increases the quality of life.
Reason (R) : People will have higher income, better education, better health and nutrition, less
Poverty.
A) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
B) Both A and R are true and R does not explain A
C) A is correct and R is false.
D) A is false and R is true.

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023
1. The relationship between gross domestic product and unemployment is represented by.
A) Gini Coefficient B) Okun‟s Law
C) Lorenz Curve D) Phillips Curve.

2. The principles of income tax of the Govt. of India based on

i) Ability to pay
ii) Taxable capacity.
iii) Canon of equality.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
A) I and ii are correct B) ii and iii are correct
C) I only is correct D) iii alone is correct.
3. In India GST came into effect from
A) 1 July 2014 B) 1 July 2016 C) 1 July 2017 D) 1 July 2015

4. According to the 2011 Census National Average Literacy rate in India was.
A) 74.04% B) 74.02% C) 74.08% D) 74.10%

5. The apex bank of rural creadit is

A) NABARD B) RBI C) IDBI D) RRB.

6. What was the need for land reforms in India?

i) Agricultural holding was get divided.
ii) The sown area of land per person are increasing

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iii) Productivity decreased.
A) I is true but ii and iii are false.
B) I and iii are true but ii is false.
C) I is false but ii and iii are true.
D) All are true.

7. A scheme having Cultivable command area (CCA) of more than 10,000 hectares of irrigated area
is known as
A) Major Irrigation Schemes B) Medium Irrigation Schemes.
C) Minor Irrigation schemes D) Tiny Irrigation schemes.

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. The National Development Council came into existence on
A) 5th June 1952 B) 5th July 1952
C) 6th August 1952 D) 6th September 1952

2. The Second Five year plan was based on

A) Indira Gandhi Model B) Mahalanobis Model
C) Harod Domar Model D) 20 point model

3. ________ is the Chairperson of the Tamilnadu state planning commission.

A) The Finance Minister B) The Chief Minister
C) The Member secretary D) The Governor

4. In Tamil Nadu, Agri-Export zones are located at:

(i) Hosur (ii) Ooty (iii) Nilakottai (iv) Madurai
A) (ii) and (iv) B) (i) and (ii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii) D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5. The Vision of $5 trillion dollar economy of India has fixed the target in the year of
A) 2021 – 22 B) 2024 – 25 C) 2026 – 27 D) 2030 – 31

6. The theory that incorporates the concept that ―population grow in geometric progression (multipli-
cation) while food supply grow in arithmetic progression (addition)‖ is called
A) Theory of demographic transition B) Karl Marx Theory
C) Malthusian Theory D) Supply Theory

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7. In India Goods and Service Tax (GST) Act came into effect on
A) July 1, 2017 B) January 1, 2015
C) January 26, 2018 D) November 8, 2016

8. The Government of India has decided to merge Railway Budget with Union Budget from the
budget year
A) 2015 – 16 B) 2016 – 17 C) 2017 – 18 D) 2018 – 19

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. In which year 15th Finance Commission established?
A) 2015 B) 2017 C) 2019 D) 2021

2. Components of GST are of

A) 3 types B) 2 types C) 5 types D) Multiple types

3. Self – Help Groups Bank Linked Programme (SBLP) started in.

A) 1996 B) 2006 C) 1992 D) 2002

4. Match:
a) Year of Great Divide 1. 2011
b) Year of small Divide 2. 1961
c) Year of population Explosion 3. 1951.
d) Demographic transition 4. 1921.
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 3 2 1

5. Choose the incorrect statement about the strengths of Indian Economy.

A) India has a mixed economy.
B) Industries plays the keys role
C) India has a fast growing economy.
D) Fast growing service sector.

6. The current Employment trends are.

i) There has been a growth in part time employment.
ii) Increasing Self – Employment

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iii) Full employment.
iv) Firms using fewer full time employees and tending to offer more short term contracts.
A) (i), (ii),(iv) only B) (ii),(iii),(iv) only C) (i),(ii),(iii) only D) (i), (iii),(iv) only

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. In Tamil Nadu there are/is ________ Regional Rural Banks Functioning. They are/it is
__________.
A) Three, Pandyan Grama Bank, Pallavan Grama Bank and Cholan Grama Bank.
B) Two, Pallavan Gram Bank and Pandyan Grama Bank.
C) Four, Pandyan Grama Bank, Pallavan Grama Bank, Cholan Grama Bank and Tamil Grama
Bank.
D) One, tamil Grama Bank.

2. Micro Finance refers to

A) The Provision of financial services to domestic exporters.
B) The provision of financial services to low income groups.
C) The provision of financial services to Domestic importers.
D) The provision of financial services to international trade.

3. Arrange Chronologically the Chairman of the finance commission:

1) Y.B.Chavan 2) K. Santhanam.
3) K.C. Pant 4) Mahavir Tyagi
A) 4,1,2,3 B) 2,4,1,3 C) 2,1,3,4 D) 1,3,2,4

4. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was constituted on.
A) 17th Jan 2000 B) 1st Jan 1949 C) 1st July 1964 D) 12th July 1982

5. NITI Aayog was established on.

A) Jan 1,2014 B) Jan 1, 2015 C) Jan 26, 2014 D) Jan 26, 2015

6. Which of the following statements on social dualism is/are correct?

1) The Concept was developed by Prof. Myint.
2) It is based on the Indonesian development experience.
3) The Concept was developed by Boeke.
A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. Choose the right matches among type:
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1. Father of Capitalism - Alfred Marshall
2. Father of Socialism - Karl Marx
3. Author of Welfare - Adam Smith
4. Author of Scarcity - Lionel Robbins
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct
C) 2 and 4 are correct D) 2 and 4 are correct

2. When was Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)

A) September 2021 B) September 2022
C) August 2021 D) August 2022

3. Who si the chairman of 15th Finance Commission?

A) Y.V. Reddy B) K.C. Pant C) N.K. Singh D) K.C. Neogy

4. Which among the following are not the source of Union Government?
A) Capitation tax
B) Foreign loans
C) Corporation tax
D) Taxes on income other than agricultural income

5. Match the following type:

A) Integrated Rural Development
Programme (IRDP) - 1. 1983
B) Training Rural youths for
Self Employment (TRYSEM) - 2. 1980
C) National rural employment
Programme (NREP) - 3. 1979
D) Rural Landless employment
Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) - 4. 1976
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 3 4 1 2
D) 3 4 1 2

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Which banks do not come under NABARD?
A) State Cooperative Banks B) Regional Rural Banks

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C) Export Promotion Banks D) District Central Copperative Banks

2. Garibi Hatao is the slogan of _______ five year plan for poverty alleviation programme.
A) First five year plan B) Second five year plan
C) Fifth five year plan D) Eighth five year plans

3. ______ is to accelerate the sanitation coverage in rural areas so as to comprehensively cover the
rural community.
A) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan B) National Rural Health Mission
C) Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme D) Pradhan Mantri Gramadoya Yojana

4. Janani Suraksha Yojana is a

A) Maternity protection schme B) Free food for poor
C) Employment opportunity scheme D) Free gas scheme

5. ______ committee proposed GST in India.

A) Rangarajan Committee B) Kelkar Task Force Committee
C) Narshiman Committee D) Arjun-Sen Gupta Committee

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Which of the following statements are true about Indian Economy?
1. Indian economy is a typical example of Capitalist Economy
2. Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India
3. Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries
4. Adequate employment generation
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (iii) and (iv) only D) (i) and (iv) only

2. Assertion [A]: The Planning Commission has been replaced by the Niti Aayog.
Reason [R]: Niti Aayog does not serves as a knowledge hub and monitors progress in the im-
plementation of policies and programmes of the Govt. of India.
A) [A] is false, but [R] is correct
B) Both [A] and [R] are correct
C) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
D) [A] is true But [R] is false

3. Which one of the following statement are correct about Finance Commission?
1. Non-Judicial Body 2. Quasi-Judicial Body
3. Complete-Judicial Body 4. None of the above
A) 2 only correct B) 1 and 3 are correct
C) 1 and 2 are correct D) 4 only correct

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4. When GST was came into effect?

A) July 1, 2017 B) July 10, 2017 C) July 29, 2017 D) July 1, 2018

5. The Green Revolution was confined only to high yielding varieties cereals mainly
1. Rice and wheat 2. Maize and Jowar 3. Pulses and Sugarcane
4. Oilseeds and Sugarcane
A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1 and 4 only

6. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on

A) 10th May 2010 B) 15th May 2015 C) 10th April 2020 D) 12th April 2005

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. During the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79) the government introduced the slogan of "Garibi Ha-
tao", Mention the meaning of the slogan.
A) Removal of poverty B) Move towards self-Reliance
C) Socialistic pattern of society D) Generate employment

2. As per World Bank Guidelines 2017, the extreme poverty line is set at
A) $ 1.2 per day B) $ 1 per day C) $ 1.5 per day D) $ 1.90 per day

3. The New Industrial Policy 1991 concentrated on:

(i) Liberalisation (ii) Privatisation (iii) Globalisation
Select the correct answers from the codes given below:
A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iii) D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

4. Which one of the followings is not a part of central office departments in Reserve Bank of India?
A) Department of Banking Operations and Development
B) Department of Currency Management
C) Department of Recruiting Human Resources
D) Department of Economic Analysis and Policy

5. Jawaharlal Nehru, the former Prime Minister of India set up the planning commission in____
A) 1950 B) 1951 C) 1952 D) 1953

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per-II
1. Which is a sign of Economic recession?
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(1) Rising Wages. (2) Rise in Unemployment
(3) Rapid Industrialization (4) Stable Political Conditions
A) (2), (3),(1), (4) B)(1), (3), (4), (2) C) (4), (3), (2), (1) D) 3), (1), (4), (2)

2. Who wrote the book "Communist Manifesto"?

A) Lenin B) Stalin
C) Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels D) Adam Smith

3. Arrange the following Events in Chronological Order

1) Regional Rural Banks
2)Seeds Bill
3) Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme
4) Kisan Credit Card
A) (3), (1), (2), (4) B) (2), (3), (4), (1) C) (1), (3), (4), (2) D) (4), (2), (3), (1)

4. Which one tax is not related to direct tax?

A) Gift Tax B) Wealth Tax C) Income Tax D) Customs Duty

5. Which of the following function/s is/are performed by the Reserve Bank of India?
1) Issue of currency 2) Control of Bank Credit
3) Bankers to the Government 4) Control of Exchange rate
A) (1) only B) (2) only
C) (1), (2) and (4) only D)(1), (2), (3) and (4)

6. Atal Innovation Mission was developed by__________.

A) NASSCOM B) Niti Aayog
C) Bharat Interface for Money App D) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

7. State whether the statements are true or false.

i) In Mixed Economy, both Public and Private Sector Co-existence
ii) Mixed Economy followed by India
A) Both (i) and (ii) are true B) Both (i) and (ii) are false
C) (i) is true but (ii) is false D) (i) is false but (ii) is true

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. Which one of the following development strategy is used for the Minimum Need Programme?
A) Nagpur Plan B) Twenty - Year Road Plan
C) Rural Development Plan D) Central Road Fund

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2. Which scheme was launched by the Government of India to connect more and more peoples
from the banking services?
A) Make in India B) Skill India Mission
C) PM Mudra Yojana D) PM Jan Dhan Yojana

3. Why the Reserve Bank of India is called the Lender of last resort?
(i) It private the currency notes
(ii) It mints the coin
(iii) At times of crisis, it is the only source capable of lending for commercial bank
(iv) At times of crisis, Banks lend to Reserve Bank
A) (i) and (ii) B) (iii) and (iv) C) (iii) only D) (iv) only

4. Which of the following is a Refinance Institution?

A) Life Insurance Corporation of India
B) Unit trust of India
C) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D) State Financial Corporation

5. Match the following :

(a) Indirect tax -1 Canon of Elasticity
(b) Bonds and Securities - 2. Principle of Accountability
(c) Direct Tax - 3. Custom duty
(d) Federal Finance - 4. Internal Public debt
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 1 3 4 2

6. Which one of the following plan was used in Tenth Five Year plan?
A) Reform plan B) Resource plan C) Rolling plan D) National plan

7. The source of non-tax revenue are

A) Commercial Revenues and Public Administrative Revenues
B) Income Tax and Corporate Income Tax
C) Death duty
D) Excise duty

8. "Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model is emerging as a rule for future development of Infra-
structure" - is the objective of

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A) Finance Commission B) Niti Ayog
C) Labour Commission D) Planning Commission

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. The Seventh Five year plan was mainly focused on
A) The Development of village and small scale Industries.
B) Food, work and Productivity.
C) Health and Family planning.
D) Economic reforms and Liberalisation

2. The Eighth Finance commission introduced a new formula for distribution of the income tax
among the states as
(i) 10 Per cent distributed on the basis of collection of income Tax
(ii) 90 Per cent distributed on the basis of population and per capita income.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
A) (i) Only B) (ii) Only
C) Both (i) and (ii) D) None of these above

3. Tax revenue of the Central Government consists of :

(i) Individual Income taxes (ii) Corporate tax
(iii) Commodity taxes or taxes on goods and services
A) (i) Only B) (i) and. (iii) Only
C)(i) and (ii) Only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) Only

4. Assertion (A): Disguised unemployment Prevails in India

Reason [R]: Marginal Productivity of disguised unemployed labour is Zero.
A) (B) Both [A] and [R] are incorrect B) Both [A] and [R] are Correct
C) [A] is correct; [R] is incorrect D) [A] is incorrect; [R] is correct

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. Match the following :
a) C. Rangarajan -1. 13th Finance Commission
b) N.K. Singh - 2. 14th Finance Commission
c) Dr. Y.V. Reddy - 3. 15th Finance Commission
d) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar - 4. 12th Finance Commission
a b c d
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4
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D) 1 3 4 2

2. As per the 2011 census, the Sex Ratio in India was 2011
A) 927 B) 972 C) 940 D) 964

3. National Food Security Act was introduced in the year

A) 2012 B) 2013 C) 2014 D) 2015

4. Economic development will be sustainable only if it is pursued in a manner which protects

A) The Energy B) The Agriculture
C) The Employment D)The Environment

5. The industrial policy Resolution 1956 was adopted in order to achieve the aim of
A) Capitalism B) Socialism C) Mixed Economy D) All of the above

6. C. Rangarajan Committee has fixed the poverty line as

A) Rs.25 for rural and Rs.50 for urban per day
B) Rs.30 for rural and Rs.60 for urban per day
C) Rs.32 for rural and Rs.47 for urban per day
D) None
22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE
1. What is the period for the 14th Finance Commission has made itsrecommendations?
A) 2013-2018 B) 2015-2020 C) 2014-2019 D) 2012-2017

2. The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was setup under

A) RBI B) NABARD C) SIDBI D) IDBI

3. The main objectives of monetary policy are

1. Exchange rate stability 2. Economic growth
3. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments 4. Neutrality of money
Which of the above is correct statement?
A) (1) and (2) B) (2) and (3) C) (l), (2) and (4) D)(3) and (4)
4. Mahalanobis four sector model was applied for which of the following Five Year Plan?
A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

5. Garibi Hatao and ‗growth with social Justice‘ related to which five yearPlan in India?
A) Fifth Five year plan B) Fourth Five Year Plan
C) Third Five Year Plan D) Second Five Year Plan

6. Major issues in Information Technology Sector consists of the followings

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(i) Infrastructure and services (ii) Electronic governance
(iii) Education (iv) Mass campaign for IT awareness
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (i) and (iv) only
C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

7. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

1. GSDP – Gross state Domestic product
2. GDP – Gross Domestic Price
3. SIPCOT – State Industrial promotion Corporation of Tamil nadu
4. SEZ – Special Employment Zone
A) 1 and 3 are Incorrect B) 2 and 4 are Incorrect
C) 2 and 3 are Incorrect D) 3 and 4 are Incorrect

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. Which of the following is correct with respect to inflation?
A) rise in budget deficit B) rise in demand for money
C) rise in general price index D) rise in prices of consumer goods
2. Which type of unemployment that largely exist in the agricultural sector is?
A) Voluntary unemployment B) Involuntary unemployment
C) Structural unemployment D) Disguised unemployment

3. Which Act empowers the Central Government to take promotional and regulatory meas-
ures for the orderly development of industrial sector?
A) Industries Promotion and Establishment Act
B) Sick Industrial Companies Act
C) Small Industries Services Act
D) Industries Development and Regulation Act

4. The functions of Finance Commission in India are

A) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Union and the
States and the allocation of shares of such proceeds among the States.
B) The Principles which should govern the payment by the Union of grants in aid to the
revenue of the states.
A) (a) is correct (b) is false B) (a) is false (b) is correct
C) (a) and (b) are correct D) (a) and (b) are false

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5. What is meant by Repo rate?
A) The rate of interest charged by the RBI to commercial banks
B) Bank rate
C) Discounting rate
D) Rationing of Credit

6. Consider the following statement

Blue Economy deals with
1. Raising of fish production
2. Youth to be involved in Fishery extension activities
3. Raising of honey production
4. Fishery exports to be raised
A) 3 Only B) 1 and 2 C) 1 and 4 D) 3 and 2

7. Which of the following is not a Maharatna Industry in India?

A) GAIL B) BHEL
C) Coal India Limited D) Airport Authority of India

8. Who is the Chairperson of Niti Aayog?

A) Finance Minister B) President of India
C) Prime Minister D) RBI Governor

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UNIT - 7 INM
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES - 2023
1. Match the following:
A) Champaran Satyagraha - 1. 1922
B) Communal Award - 2.1932
C) Ahmedabad Mill strike - 3.1918
D) Bardoli Resolution - 4. 1917
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 4 3 2 1

2. The Karachi Session in 1931 of the Indian National Cogress was Presided over by
A) Abul kalam Azad B) Vallabai Patel
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Sarojini

3. Kattabomman was hanged to death was executed by

A) Col. Heron B) Major Bannerman
C) Edward Clive D) John Cradock

4. The autobiography ‗The Race of my life‘ is related to

A) P.T. Usha B) Milkha Singh
C) Kapil Dev D) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

5. Who was the first woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws during the Civil Disobedience
Movement in Tamil Nadu?
A) Rukmani Lakshmipathi B) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
C) Muvalur Ramamirtham D) Annie Besant

6. The Fort that was not controlled by pulithevar is

A) Nerkattumseval B) Vasudevanallur
C) Panayur D) Sivagiri

7. Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by

A) Bhagat Singh B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Veer Savarkar D) Chandrashekhar Azad

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02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN
EXAMINATION - 2023
1. ‗The National Social Conference‘ was organized by
A) Pandita Ramabai B) M.G.Ranade
C) Dhondu Kheshave D) Virasalingam Pantulu

2. Cripps Mission proposal was a ―Post-dated cheque‖ was said by

A) Nehru B) M.A.jinnah C) Gandhiji D) Sardar patel

3. Who was the President of Madras Session of Congress in 1914?

A) Bhupendra Nath Bose B) Madan Mohanmalviya
C) Vijaya Ragavachariyar D) M.A. Anjari

4. Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) V.D Savarkar - 1857 Sepoy Mutiny
B) Vallabhai Patel - First Prime Minister
C) Annie Besant - Arya Samaj
D) C.R Das - Simon Commission

5. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?

A) Anandibhai Joshi B) Annie Besant
C) Pandita Ramabai D) Swarnakumari

6. Annie Beasant with the support of Arundale and Wadia formed the Home Rule League at Madras
in the year?
A) 1912 B) 1914 C) 1915 D) 1916

7. Jinnah announced his 14 points on

A) December 13, 1928 B) December 31, 1928
C) December 13, 1929 D) December 31, 1929

8. What mode of movement contributed much to the birth of Gandhian Nationalism?

A) Militant Movement B) Left-leaning Movement
C) Peasant Movement D) Tribal Movement

9. Lala Lajpat Rai was died on

A) 17, November, 1926 B) 17, November, 1927
C) 17, November, 1928 D) 17, November, 1929

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10. _________ movement was termed as ‗Congress Rebellion‘.
A) Non-Co-Operation Movement B) Simon Commission / Boycott Movement
C) Civil disobedience Movement D) Quit India Movement

11. Name the Tamilian who challenged the Maritime Might of the British Imperialism and the East In-
dia Company.
A) Krishnamachari B) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
C) E.V. Ramasamy D) C. Rajaji

12. Who is the Reforming Luther of Hinduism?

A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy B) Dayananda Saraswathi
C) Swami Vivekanand D) Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU FISHERIES

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. When was purna Swaraj declared?
A) 26 January 1930 B) 15 August 1930
C) 26 November 1930 D) 29 January 1930

2. Which one of the following was India‘s first Satyagraha Movement?

A) Champaran Satyagraha B) Dhandi March
C) Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha D) Kheda Satyagraha

3. The Dandi March of Gandhi from Sabarmathi Ashram Started on

A) 12th March 1930 B) 12th March 1931
C) 12th February 1932 D) 12th February 1933

4. Who was responsible for the establishment of the Asiatic society of Bengal in 1784?
A) William Jones B) Macaulay C) George Thomson D) G.V. Joshi

5. Non Co-Operation movement in Tamil Nadu was led by

A) V.O. Chidambaram B) Rajaji C) Subramaniya Siva D) Subbarayan

6. When Gandhiji visited Tamil Nadu in 1927, Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy met Gandhiji and discussed
about her ‗Social Welfare Schemes‘, Those were published by Gandhiji in which magazine?
A) Anandha Vikatan B) Desabhimani
C) Young India D) Swadeshamithran

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7. According to the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, when did the first direct election held in the
Madras Presidency?
A) 1919 B) 1920 C) 1921 D) 1922

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. Sir Stafford Cripps, respresented the war cabinet of
A) Labour party B) Conservative party C) Democratic party D) Liberal party.

2. Who among the following brought out the weekly newspaper ‗Al Hilal‘?
A) Abul Kalam Azad B) Hasan Imom.
C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah D) Ajmal Khan.

3. Stri Purush Tulana was written and published by.

A) Pandita Ramabai B) Begum of Bhopal.
C) Begum Rokeya Sakhwat Hussain D) Tarabai Shinde.

4. Which one of the following pair is not correct?

A) Cripps Mission - 1942 B) Pakistan Resolution -1940.
C) Gandhi - Irwin pact - 1931 D) Nehru Report -1946.

5. When did the British Paliament enact the Indian Independence Act?
A) March 1947 B) June 1947 C) July 1947 D) August 1947.

6. Who launched the independent labour party in 1936?

A) Subhas Chandra Bose B) Bhagat Singh.
C) B.R.Ambedkar D) Chandrashekhar Azad.

7. The separate electorate was introduced in India for the first time under
A) The Act of 1909 B) The Act of 1919
C) The Act of 1935 D) None of the above.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE - 2023

1. Which of the following statements is true about Bhagat singh?
1) Michal O‘ Dwyer was murdered by him
2) He shot dead John saunders, the police official responsible for the lathi charge in Lahore.
A) Only 1 is correct B) Only 2 is correct
C) Both 1 and 2 are correct D) None of the above

2. Members of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946 were.

A) Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V. Alexander.

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B) Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Simon, Stafford Cripps.
C) Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Simon,A.V. Alexander.
D) Stafford Cripps, Sir Simon, A.V.Alexander.

3. The Quit India movement resolution was drafted by.

A) Gandhiji B) Subash Chandra Bose
C) C.R. Das D) Jawaharlal Nehru.

4. The Newspaper ‗Harijan‘ was started by.

A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar B) Gandhiji.
C) M.C.Raja D) Jawaharlal Nehru.

5. Choose the correctly matched pairs:

1) Rajaji formed his ministry - 1939.
2) Vedaranyam Sathyagragha - 1930.
3) Reorganised educational system - 1958
4) C.R.Formula - 1944
A) 1 and 3 B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 4 D) 3 and 4

6. The Poona pact in 1932 was signed between Mahathma Gandhi and
A) Tilak B) Vinoba Bhave C) Chandrasekhar Azad D) Ambedkar.

7. The Indian national congress was founded in

A) 1884 A.D. B) 1885 A.D. C) 1886 A.D D) 1887 A.D

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBAN-

DRY SERVICE - 2023
1. ‗Satyagraha in South Africa‘ was published by Mahatma Gandhi in the year
A) 1928 B) 1927 C) 1926 D) 1930

2. Which award did Gandhi return during the Non - Co - operation Movement?
A) Knighthood B) Raj Bahadur
C) Kaiser - e - Hind D) Hind Kesari

3. Sales Tax was introduced in TamilNadu by

A) Rajaji B) C.N. Annadurai
C) Kamarajar D) Bhaktavachalam

4. The Political Party started by Ambedkar was

A) Republican Party of India B) Communist Party

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C) Ghadar Party D) All India Forward Bloc

5. In which session of the Indian National congress was the National song ‗Vante Mataram‘ sung for
the first time?
A) Mumbai - 1896 B) Varanasi – 1896 C) Lahore - 1896 D) Kolkatta - 1896

6. Who was the first to give the call for ‗Swaraj‘ as ‗India for Indians‘?
___________.
A) Swami Vivekanand B) Swami Dayanand Saraswathi
C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Dadabhai Nauroji

7. The Political Guru of Kamarajar was

A) Nehru B) Gandhiji C) Sathyamoorthy D) Annadurai

8. Who is the founder of Satya Shodak Samaj?

A) Gandhi B) Ambedkar
C) Jyotirao Phule D) Raja Ram Mohan

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE - 2023
1. Arrange the following events in chronological order
(i) British India society was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji
(ii) Dadabhai Naoroji was elected to the British House of Commons
(iii) President of the 22nd Calcutta congress session
(iv) President of the 9th Lahore congress session
A) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
C) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the objectives of the All India Muslim
League?
(i) Immediate reforms should be introduced in Frontier provinces and Baluchistan
(ii) To Promote the interests and safeguard the political rights of the Muslims
(iii) To promote against friendly feelings between the muslims and other communities in India to
the extent possible
(iv) To Promote among Indian Muslim feelings of loyalty towards the British Government
A) (i) and (ii) are correct B) (ii) and (iv) are correct
C) (i),(ii) (iii) are correct D) (i) and (iv) are correct

3. The name ‗Pakistan‘ or ‗Pak-stan‘ was coined by a Punjabi student at Cambridge who was he?
A) Mohammed Ali Jinnah B) Asaf Soukath ali
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C) Choudhry Muhammad Ali D) Choudhry Rahmat Ali

4. Who led the civil Disobedience movement after Mahatma Gandhi‘s arrest is 1930?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Abdas Tyabji
C) Sarojini Naidu D) Subash Chandra Bose

5. Which among the following, was not suggested by the Nehru report?
A) Propose Dominion status for India
B) A committee of defence was proposed at the centre
C) Fundamental Rights were to be incorporated in the Constitution
D) Abolition of diarchy in the provinces

6. The Organisation formed by Indian students residing in Germany during first world war (1914 –
1918) was
A) Indian National Committee
B) Indian Independence Committee of Nationalists
C) Indian Independence committee
D) Indian National Forum of Germany

7. British Journalists ridiculed___________as the, ―Kindergarten stage of Revolution‖.

A) Dandi March B) Non Cooperation Movement
C) Quit India Movement D) Bardoli Sathyagraha

8. Who put forward the fourteen points programme in the Muslim league meeting held at Delhi?
A) Abul Kalam Azad B) Muhammed Ali Jinnah
C) Muhammad Iqbal D) Asadullah Khan

9. How did Slogan Inquilab Zindabad was very popular?

A) Voice of the Indians B) Slogan of the teachers
C) Slogan of the workers D) Voice of Bhagat Singh

10. Who exploded bombs on the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929?

A) Rajguru and Jai Gopal B) Bhagat Singh and Batukesvar Datta
C) Udham Singh and Bhagat Singh D) Sukhdeva and Yatindranath

11. Arrange the following events in Chronological order:

(i) Vaikkom Satyagraha
(ii) Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam Controversy
(iii) Anti Hindi Agitation
(iv) Individual Satyagraha

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A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) B) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

12. In the Year A.D. 1817 Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Radhakanta dev and others founded Mahapatsala
at
A) Bombay B) Delhi C) Kolkatta D) Bengal

13. Match the following congress session with the respective year
A) Calcutta Session - 1.1885
B) Allahabad Session - 2. 1886
C) Madras Session - 3. 1887
D) Bombay Session - 4. 1888
abcd
A) 2 4 3 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 4 3 2

14. Choose the wrong matches:

Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
i) British Indian Association - 1. 1851
ii) Land Holders Society - 2. 1838
iii) Madras Native Association - 3. 1883
iv) Indian Association - 4. 1816
A) (iii) and (iv) B) (ii) and (i) C) (i) and (iii) D) (ii) and (iii)

15. Who was the president of 1887 Indian National Congress conference that was held in Madras?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji B) Pheroshah Mehta
C) Badruddin Tyabji D) W.C. Bannerji

16. Consider the following statement:

(i) Mahalwari system, was introduced by William Bentick
(ii) Mahalwari system was introduced in the year 1833
(iii) The owner of the land is Government in Mahalwari system
(iv)The Village committed was held responsible for collection of taxes in Mahalwari system
From there which are correct statement?
A) (i),(ii) and (iii) B) (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (ii) and (iv) D) (i) and (iv)

17. Which one of the statements is correct regarding the Subramaniya Siva?
1. He started dharma Paripana Samajam at Trivandrum
2. He participated the Coral Mill Strike at Tuticorin

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3. He started ―Gnana Panu‖, a monthly journal at Chennai in 1913
4. He started ―Bharatha Asiramam‖ in Karaikudi in 1921
A) 1, 2, 3 are correct 4 only incorrect B) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
C) 1, 3, 4 are correct 2 only incorrect D) 1, 2, 3, 4 not correct

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCA-

TIONAL SERVICE - 2023
1. ―In a sense Akbar might be considered to be the father of Indian Nationalism. At that time when
there was little nationality in the country and religion was a dividing factor. Akbar placed the ideal
of a Common Indian Naitonhood above the claims of separatist religion‖.
Who said the above statement?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Motilal Nehru.
C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Subash Chandra Bose.

2. Read the following passage and answer the question whose religious view is expressed here:
―If I found myself entirely absorbed in the service of the community, the reason behind it was my
desire for self realization. I have made the religion of service my own, as I felt that God Could be
realized only through service and service for me was the service of India. Because it came to me
without my seeking, because I had an aptitude for it‖.
A) Swami Vivekananda B) Mahatma Gandhi.
C) Rabindranath Tagore D) Rajaram Mohan Roy.

3. Who among the following published the first newspaper in English language in India?
A) Gangadhar Bhattacharya B) Rabindranath Tagore.
C) James Augustus Hicky D) Ram Mohan Roy.

4. Which of the following resulted due to the frequent famines in British India?
A) Retarded Agricultural Growth.
B) Mass migration of population from Famine stricken regions.
C) Serious tensions between the zamindars and the peasants.
D) Utter lack of agriculture surplus.

5. Read the following passage and answer to the question based on the passage.
Passage 1:
Mahatma Gandhi Said, ―I deplore the criminal indifference of parents who keep their daughters ut-
terly ignorant and illiterate and bring them up only for the purpose of marrying them off to some
young man of means‖.
Select the best implied from the following regarding the afore – said passage.
A) Strong measures need to be taken by parents for the overall progress of their daugh-
ters.

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B) The working condition of young men needs to be improved for marrying women.
C) The working condition of young women needs to b e improved for marrying men.
D) The women facing dowry problem.

6. The appeal from the Federal Court of India established by the Government of India Act, 1935 was
taken by.
A) Viceroy of India B) Secretary of state for India.
C) King of England D) Privy Council.

7. _________ was the first Indian to go to jail for having discharged the duty of a journalist.
A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak B) W.C.Banerjee
C) Lala Lajpat Rai D) Surendranath Banerjee.

8. ―At the stroke of midnight hour when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom.‖ Said
by.
A) Mahatma Gandhiji B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Bala Gangadhar Tilak D) Subhash Chandra Bose.

9. Assertion (A) : Muslim League celebrated the day of deliverance on 22 December 1939.
Reason (R) : All the Congress Ministries in the provinces resigned in protest of the viceroy‘s
announcement on India joining the Second world war without consulting the Congress.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are false.
C) Both A and R are true and R is the right explanation.
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the right explanation

10. Where was Hindustan Republican Association reorganized into Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association?
A) Delhi B) Bombay C) Lahore D) Bhopal

11. ―Acharya Vinobha Bhave, was selected as a first Sathyagrahi by Mahatma Gandhi‖ after he
completed the speech on
A) On 17th October 1939, when he was delivering speech in a village, near Lucknow.
B) On 17th October 1940, when he was delivering speech in a village near Wardha.
C) On 17th October 1941, when he was delivering speech in a village near Gandhinagar.
D) On 17th September 1942, When he was delivering a speech in a Village, near Kolkatta.

12. As a lawyer Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi, got his first fees of Rs.30, but he refunded that to
his client in ________ court.
A) Bombay B) Delhi C) Rajkot D) Durban.

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13. Which of the following about Kamaraj are true?
i) He was arrested under Section 74 of Salt Act.
ii) He was released on March 12, 1931
iii) He came to be closely associated with Rajaji during the election of 1926
A) I only B) II and III C) I and II D) I and III

14. At London Museum, Dr.B.R. Ambedkar‘s statue was attached with the statue of
A) Vincent Churchill B) Abraham Lincoln C) Karl marx D) Lord Bentinck.

15. British arrested Subash Chandra Bose on 24th October 1924 A.D. and sent him to _____ Jail.
A) Tihar B) Andhaman C) Kolkatta D) Mandalay.

16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
a) New India 1. Lala Lajpat Rai
b) The people‘s Friend 2. Bipin Chandra pal.
c) Vante Mataram 3. Dadabai Naoroji.
d) Rast Goftar 4. A.O.Hume
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 1 3 4

17. Match and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
a) Bala Gangadhar Tilak 1. Voice of India.
b) Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Madras Time
c) Macaulay 3. Kesari.
d) William Digby 4. Minute on Indian Education.

a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 1 3 2 4
D) 4 2 3 1

18. During the Quit India Movement in Tamil Districts:

i) The workers and common people participated in the movement.
ii) In Madras, the women observed Hartals.
iii) The workers of Buckingham and Carnatic mill involved in the strike.

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iv) The Madras port trust, Madras Corporation workers participated in the strike.
A) I is correct B) I and II are correct
C) I, II and III are correct. D) I, II, III and IV are correct

19. Assertion (A) : Extremism arose along with the swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Reason (R) : The leaders of the Swadeshi movement became Leaders of the people, whose
speeches and writings aroused the masses.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true; and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) Both A and R are true; but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D) A is false, R is true.

20. Which of the following was organised to educate by the Madras Mahajana Sabha in 1884?
A) Social Education B) Economic Education.
C) Political Education D) Cultural Education.

21. The Marathi fortnightly newspaper ‗Bahishkrit Bharat‘ was started by

A) Ambedkar B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Jyotirao Phule D) Kaivartas.

22. Iswar Chandra Gupta‘s remarkable Journal _______ was the training ground of many distin-
guished writers.
A) Nil Darpan B) Amrita Bazarika C) Samvad Prabhakar D) Kailasham

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE - 2023
1. Which of the following statements are true about kamaraj?
i) The Political guru of Kamaraj was satya murti
ii) In 1937, he was elected to the legislature from salem.
iii) Kundah River project came into existence due to his effort.
A) I only B) I and ii only C) I and iii only D) ii and iii only

2. Assertion (A) : ―Vande mataram‖ was adopted as the slogan for an agitation.
Reason (R) : It was adopted during the swadeshi Movement in protest against partition of
Bengal.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false, R is true.
D) Both A,R are true , but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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3. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?
i) Mahakavi Bharathiar was a pioneer of modern Tamil Poetry and is considered one of the
greatest tamil literary figures of all time.
ii) Bharathiar was the forerunner of a forceful kind of drama that combined classical and Con-
temporary elements.
A) I only B) ii only
C) Both I and ii D) None of the above.

4. Who laid the foundation of Khadhi movement in Rajapalayam?

A) I.P.Arangasamay Raja B) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
C) T.M.Nair D) P. Varadarajulu.

5. At which Railway station in South Africa Gandhiji was evicted from a train?
A) Pietermaritzburg B) Johannesburg.
C) Kroonstad D) Hatfield.

6. Name the earliest and best known mutinies before the ‗Revolt of 1857‘
A) The Native Infantry Mutiny (1824). B) Indian Soldiers Mutiny at vellore (1806)
C) Sholapur Mutiny (1838). D) Assam Soldiers Mutiny (1824)

7. Choose the right matches among the following:

1) Hindu widow‘s Remarriage Act - 1856
2) Bengal Sati Regulation - 1829
3) Madras Non - Brahmin Association - 1919
4) Hindu Religious Endowment Act - 1821
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 2 and 3 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct.

8. Name the female speaker at the congress Radio who possessed a startlingly rich voice and sharp
expression.
A) Kokila Ben B) Kamala Ben C) Usha Mehta D) Anita Ben

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Wavell plan 2. Mountbatten plan
3. Cabinet Mission plan 4. Simla Conference
A) 3,2,1,4 B) 4,3,2,1 C) 1,4,3,2 D) 2,4,3,1
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2. Vallabhai Patel Was bestowed the title of Sardar by the peasants of

A) Kheda B) Bardoli C) Dhandi D) Champaran

3. Arrange the following events in a correct sequence of Indian National Movement.

I. Foundation of Indian National congress
II. Simon Commission
III. Home Rule Movement
IV. Cabinet Mission
A) I, III, II, IV B) III, I, IV, II C) I, II, IV, III D) I, IV, III, II

4. Who Founded the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha?

A) M.G. Ranade B) Dadhabhai Naoroji
C) Surendranath Banerjee D) Badruddin Tybji

5. On the suggeston of Rabindranath Tagore, the date of Partition of Bengal was celebrated as
A) Raki Bandhan day B) Independence day
C) Solidarity day D) Black day

6. When was Kattabomman hanged by the British?

A) October, 1799 B) December, 1799 C) October, 1801 D) December, 1801

7. Who wrote the book ‗India wins Freedom‘?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) B.R. Ambedkar D) Maulana Abulkalam Azad

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Swadeshi movement led by _______ in Tamilnadu.
A) V.O.C B) V.V.S
C) Vanjinathan D) Neelaganda Brahmachari

2. In which year was the Vernacular press Act passed by Lord Lytton.
A)1875 B) 1885 C) 1877 D) 1878

3. What is the name of Bhagatsingh‘s mother?

A) Lilavati B) Vidyavati C) Bhuvaneswari D) Lakshmi Kaur.

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4. Which National Leader of India who died on 27 May 1964?
A)B.R.Ambedkar B) E.V.Ramasamy
C) Abulkalam Azad D) Jawaharlal Nehru

5. Name the major tribal revolt took place in Chotanagpur region.

A) Wahhabi Rebellion B) Santhal Hool.
C) Kol Revolt D) Munda Rebellion.

6. Assertion (A): Gandhiji opposed the ‗Communal Award‘ of Ransay MacDonald,

Reason (R) : To get Dominion status from the British.
A) Both A and R are correct.
B) A is wrong but R is correct.
C) A is correct but R is wrong.
D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation.

7. ―Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection‖ who said this?
A) S. Satyamurthy B) A. Subbarayalu
C) Annie Beasant D) Rukmani Lakshmipathi

8. ______ voiced the interest of the depressed clauses in the Round Table Conferences.
A) T.M. Nair B) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
C) M.C. Rajah D) Pandithar Iyothee Thassar

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUB-

ORDINATE SERVICES - 2023
1. V.O.Chidambaram started swadeshi steam navigation company in the year.
A) 1905 B) 1906 C) 1907 D) 1908

2. Where is the headquarters of the Theosophical Society located?

A) Triplicane B) Adayar C) Madurai D) Tirunelveli.

3. Choose the right matches among the following:

I) Bhagat sigh - Reorganization of the Hindustan Socialist Repulican Association (HSRA).
II) Subash Chandra Bose - Give me blood, I will give you freedom.
III) Sisir kumar - Founder of Indian National Army.
IV) Sucheta Kripalani - Advisor to Non cooperation Movement.
A) I and iii are correct B) I and ii are correct
C) iii and iv are correct D) ii and iv are correct

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4. Gandhi - Irwin pact was signed on
A) 5th March 1931 B) 5th May 1931
C) 5th June 1931 D) 5th September 1931

5. Match the following:

a) Champaran Satyagraha - 1.1919
b) Rowlatt Satyagraha - 2.1922
c) Chauri Chaura - 3.1930
d) Dandi Satyagraha - 4.1917
a b c d
A) 4 1 2 3
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 2 3 1
D) 1 4 2 3

6. When was the first non-co-operation movement started in India?

A) 1921 B) 1920 C) 1922 D) 1925

7. The Swadeshi steam Navigation Company was started by V.O.Chidambaram with the aim of
A) Developing the Indian trade.
B) Promoting the shipyard.
C) To challenging the British monopoly in Sea Transport.
D) Serving the Commuters at a cheaper rate.

8. In 1920 Picketing the toddy shops was conducted in TamilNadu by.

A) M.singaravelar B) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy.
C) Annadurai D) Kamaraj

9. The ―Bubonic plague‖ broke out in Bombay in the year

A) 1896 A.D B) 1898 A.D C) 1899 A.D D) 1891 A.D

10. Who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875?

A) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar B) Dayananda saraswati
C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) M.G. Ranade.

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. ‗National Education Day‘ is to commemorate the birth anniversary of
A) Kamaraj B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Vallabhai Patel D) Abul Kalam Azad

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2. Allan Octavian Hume presided over the meeting of the theosophical society in Madras in the year
A) December 1884 B) October 1885 C) November 1887 D) March 1888

3. ―Why I am Atheist‖ written by

A) Aravindar B) V.D.Savarkar C) Kishan Singh D) Bhagat Singh

4. In 1976, Kamarajar was awarded with

A) Tamil Chemmal B) King Maker C) Bharat Ratna D) Kalaimamani

5. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood immediately after the

A) Chauri chaura incident B) Mappillai Revolt
C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre D) Calcutta Riot

6. State the following statements are True (or) False.

1. Allan Octavian Hume was the founder of the Indian National Movement
2. Gopala Krishna Gokhale was the founder of Indian association agitation for political reforms
3. Swadesi Movement started in India during Anti-Bengal partition agitation
A) (1), (2) is wrong (3) is correct B) (2), (3) is wrong (1) is correct
C) (1), (2) is correct (3) is wrong D) All these above correct

7. Who declared that ―Land belongs to God‖ and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
A) Shariatullah B) Dudu Mian C) Titumir D) Noah mian

8. Who ran clandestine radio operations at Bombay during the Quit India movement?
A) Usha Mehta B) Preeti Waddadar C) Aruna Asaf Ali D) Captain Lakshmi

9. Assertion [A] : Rettaimali Srinivasan was honoured with such titles as Rao Sahib, Rao Bahadur,
and Divan Bahadur for his selfless social services.
Reason [R] : He fought for social justice, equality and civil Rights of the Marginalised people
A) [A] and [R] are Correct, but R is not the correct explanation of [A]
B) [A] and [R] are correct, R is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is wrong, [R] is correct
D) Both [A] and [R] are wrong

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. The third session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by:
A) W.C. Bannerjee B) Badruddin Tyabji
C) M. Vijayaragavachariar D) Gokhale

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2. Choose the ones that ar correctly matched :

1. Narayan - Chittaranjan Das
2. Unhappy India - Mrs. Annie Besant
3. Common wheel - Lala Lajpat Rai
4. Abhyudaya - Pt. Madan Mohan Malaviya
A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 2 and 3 are correct
C) 1 and 4 are correct D) 2 and 4 are correct

3. Chauri Chaura incident took place in the present day state of

A) Orissa B) Uttar Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Bihar

4. Name the committee that recommended the abolition of Zamindari system in 1948 in Tamil Nadu?
A) J.C. Kumarappa Committee B) Prakasam committee
C) Sarkaria Commission D) V.R. Krishna Iyer Committee

5. The Indian Independence league in 1928 was founded by

A) Subhas Chandra Bose along with Jawaharlal Nehru and Srinivasan Iyengar
B) Subhas Chandra Bose along with C.R. Ray and Sardar Patel
C) Subhas Chandra Bose along with Jawaharalal Nehru and V.O. Chidambaranar
D) Subhas Chandra Bose along with Jawaharlal Nehru and Subramania Iyer

6. Who was elected as the first Indian Member to the British House of Commons?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Madan Mohan Malawiya
C) Damodar Savarkar D) Dadabhai Naoroji

7. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A) ―Go back to the Veda‖ - Dayananda Sarswathi
B) ―Untouchability is a crime‖ - Ganhiji
C) “Delhi Chalo” - Bhagath Singh
D) Long years ago we have - Jawaharlal Nehru

8. Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the events?

I. Dandi March II. Champaran Satyagraha
III. Ghadar Movement IV. Khilafat Movement
A) I, II, III, IV B) I, III, IV, II C) III, I, IV, II D) III, II, IV, I

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Choose the right answer among type : :
The major objectives and demands of INC were :

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i) It demanded Indian representation in the Government.
ii) It would promote the feeling of National unity in the country.
iii) To train and organize public opinion in the country.
A) (i) only B) (i) and (iii) only C) (i), (ii) and (iii) D) (ii) and (iii) only

2. Where is Dr. Ambedkar Law University located?

A) Maharastra B) Tamilnadu C) Bihar D) Uttarpradesh

3. Assertion [A]: Swadeshi Navigation shares were open only to Asian Nationals.
Reason [R]: Arabind Ghose lauded the Swadeshi efforts and helped to promote the shares of
the company.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A].
C) [A] is false [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

4. Rabindranath Tagore composed National Anthem for India and

A) Bangladesh B) Pakistan C) England D) Srilanka

5. Choose the correct answer :

Vanchinathan was one of the members of a radical group called
A) Anandmath B) Dawn society
C) Bharata Mata Association D) Pacific Coast Hindustan

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. "The Asiatic Society' was changed and renamed as, "The Asiatic Society of Bengal" in the year.
A) 1935 A.D. B) 1936 A.D C) 1937 A.D. D)1938 A.D.

2. Assertion [A]: Gandhiji decided to withdraw the non-cooperation movement.

Reason [R]: Various incidents of violence perpetrated by the masses, especially the Chauri-
Chaura incident took place in 1922
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) [A] is false, [R] is true
C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation

3. Choose the right answer:

Which one of the following is not Bharathiar's poem?
A)Puratchi Kavi B) Kannan Pattu
C) Kuyil Pattu D) Nilavum Vanminum Katrum

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4. Who published the Tamil Newspaper, 'Thozhilalan'?

A) M.C. Raja B) M. Singaravelar
C) Rettaimalai Srinivasan D) Dr. C. Natesanar

5. India's National Anthem ―Janagana mana" first sung in

A) 1911 at INC Bombay Session B) 1912 at INC Delhi Session
C) 1911 at INC Calcutta Session D) 1912 at INC Karachi Session

6. The first Fort constructed by the British in India was

A) Fort. St. William B) Fort St. George C) Agra Fort D) Fort St. David

7. Arrange the following events in Chronological order

(I) Cripps Mission (II) Dandi March (III) Gandhi Irwin Pact
(IV) First Round Table Conference
A) II,III, IV,I B) II, IV, III, I C) I, II, III, IV D) III, II, IV, I

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service.
Paper- II
1. ____________ with their blood sacrificed, these heroes have established traditions, which the fu-
ture soldiers of free India shall have to uphold".
Who delivered this statement to the soldiers on 18th March 1944?
A) Subhash Chandra Bose B) Pattabhi Sittaramayya
C) Captain Lakshmi Sahgal D) Rash Behari Bose

2. The famous Patriotic song "Sare Jahanse Acha" was composed

A) Mohammed Iqbal B) Nehru C) Tagore D) Syed Ali

3. The "Do or Die" campaign became popular through_________

A) Khilafat Movement B)Non Co-operation Movement
C) Civil Disobedience Movement D) Quit India Movement

4. Who was known as the Heroine of Quit India Movement?

A) Aruna Asaf Ali B) Madam Cama C) Annie Besant D) Ambika Charan

5. Rajaji started the civil disobedience movement on___________

A) March 12, 1930 B) April 13, 1930 C) April 29, 1930 D) April 30, 1930

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6. Sardar Bhagat Singh was hanged at_________.
A) Delhi B) Lahore C) Calcutta D) Chittagong

7. Choose the right answer:

In which place Lord Canning published the Queen's Proclamation on 1858?
A) Allahabad B) Delhi C) Bengal D) Kanpur

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE

DEPARTMENT
1. Why did the Queen Hazrat Mahal Begum of Lucknow fight against the British?
A) Refused to pay tax to the British B) Against the Doctrine of Lapse
C) Against the Revenue Policy D) To expel the British

2. In A.D. 1891, the Dravida Mahajana Sabha was founded and organized its first conference at
A) Madurai B) Salem C) Nilgiris D) Chengalpattu

3. The theory of Pakistan was inspired by

A) Muhammad Ali Jinnah B) Sir Syed Ahamad Khan
C) Muhamad Iqbal D) Maulane Abdulkalam Azad

4. Match the following :

a) Chittagang Armed Raid - 1. M.N. Roy
b) Kanpur Conspiracy case - 2. Benjamin Bradley
c) Lahore Conspiracy case - 3. Kalpana Datta
d) Meerut Conspiracy case - 4. Bhagat Singh
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 1 2 4 3

5. "With the death of Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru India and the whole mankind had lost an eminent states-
men who was held esteem throughout the world as leader in the struggle for peace and interna-
tional understanding". Who said this?
A) Dr. Radha Krishnan B) Dwight D. Eisenhower
C) Dr. Heinrich Lubake D) Duke of Devonshire

6. Which one of the following is the earliest organised labour agitation against British Government in
India?
A) Champaran Movement B) Mill Workers Strike at Ahmadabad

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C) The Coral Mill Strike D) The Kheda Struggle

7. "A day will drawn when the Indians will have to follow the Maharashtrian way for the regaining of
freedom. They will have to copy the example of Great Shivaji". Who said it?
A) Bal Gangadar Tilak B) C.R. Das
C) Subash Chandra Bose D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

8. "British imperialism in India gave her a political unity under a third party in spite of the many dis-
cordant elements in Indian Society". Who said the above statement?
A) Prof. Moon B) Monier-Williams C) Colebrooks D) M.G. Ranade

9. Name the social reformer who submitted a memorial for the free press in the Supreme Court?
A) M.G. Ranade B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C) Jothiba Phule D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. 'Nil Darpan', a play portrayed Indigo planters oppression, was written by
A) Dinbandhu Mitra B) Debi Singh C) Dadabhai Naoroji D) Diodorus

2. "Arisa Pitha" a traditional sweet pan cake is associated with_________community.

A) Todas B) Madigas C) Pindaris D)Santhals

3. Regarding the changes of venue of the first session of the Indian National Congress from Poona
to Bombay, which of the following statements is true.
A) Poona was affected by the outbreak of Cholera
B) Bombay has necessary funds
C) Bombay a thickly populated region
D) The British government suggested the venue

4. Consider the following events :

In 1885, Indian National Congress was established with the objectives
(1) To Promote Indian Nationalism
(2) To establish a closer relation between Indian and England
(3) To remove unjust and harmful laws.
(4) To remove the discontent among the educated classes
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
A) 1-2-3-4 B) 2-3-4-1 C) 3-1-2-4 D) 4-3-1-2

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5. Choose the right matches among the following types :
1) Nana Sahib - General Henry Havelock
2) Rani Lakshmi Bai - Sir Huge Rose
3) Tantia Tope - General William
4) Kunwar Singh - General Acton
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct
C) 1 and 4 are correct D) 2 and 4 are correct 2

6. The newspaper "Al Hilal" which propagated the rationalist and nationalist ideals was started in
1912 by
A) M.A. Jinnah B) Moulana Mohamed Ali
C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan D) Moulana Abul Kalam Azad

7. Rast Goftar was an Anglo Gujarati newspaper operating in Bombay that was started in A.D. 1854
by Dadabhai Naorgoji. Rast Goftar Means:
A) Truth Teller B) Truth Seeker
C) The Factful D) Realistic Teller

8. Who among the following described Amravati session of the Indian National Congress held in
1897 as a 'three days tamasha'?
A) Surendranath Banerjee B) Aurobindo Ghosh
C) Ashwini Kumar Dutt D) Satis Mukherjee

9. All-Bengal Civil Disobedience Council was formed by _____

A) Surya sen B) Premananda Dutta
C) Ambika Chakrabarty D) J.M. Sengupta

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. Which tribal uprising is known as 'Ulgulan'?
A) Santhal rebellion B) Kol Uprising
C) Munda Rebellion D) Sanyasi Rebellion

2. The British Cabinet Mission was headed by________ in the year 1946.
A) Sir Stafford Cripps B) A.V. Alexandar
C) Clement Attlee D)Pethick Lawrence

3. Name the youngest person, who was elected as the president of the Indian National congress in
1923?
A) Motilal Nehru B) Abul Kalam Azad C) Lala Lajpat Rai D) M.M. Malaviya

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4. 'Incase of the Indian national congress party were put into power in 1946, the result would be the
declaration of complete independence by Bengal and the setting up of a parallel government'.
Who said this?
A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
C) Suhrawardy D) Liaquat Alikhan

5. The Social reformer who represented a synthesis of the thought of East and West
A) Rajaram Mohan Roy B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Dayananda Saraswathi D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

6. Which of these legislations banned Sati and made it Illegal?

A) Bengal Regulation XXI of 1975 B) Act of 1870
C) Sharda Act 1930 D) Regulation Act XVII of December 1829

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. Assertion [A]: Macaulay argued for Western education in the English language.
Reason [R]: Macaulay intension was to educate the people of India not in Sanskrit or Persian
Language.
A) [A] is correct but [R] does not explain [A]
B) [A] is correct and [R] is incorrect
C) [A] is correct and [R] is a correct explanation of [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are wrong

2. Whose writings inspired Gandhi, for the Civil Disobedience movement in south Africa.
A) Henry David Thoreau B) David Ricordo
C) Leo Tolstoy D) Bertrand Russell

3. _______ accompanised subash Chandra Bose during his secret journey in a German U-boat
submarine and reached South of Madagascar.
A) Maulvi Ziauddin B) Bhagat Ram
C) Mohan Singh D) Abid Hussain

4. Which among the following journal published the interview of Gandhiji on the popular historical
event ―Gandhi Jinnah Talks‖ that made a serious impact on society?
A) News Chronicle of London on July 4, 1944
B) Indian Mirror on June 30, 1944
C) Bengal Gazette on July 14, 1943
D) Commonweal on June 12, 1942

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5. ―I do not like what some people say, that we are Indians first and Hindus afterwards or Muslims
afterwards. I am not satisfied with that... I want all people to be Indians first, Indians last and no-
thingelse but Indians‖Who said this?
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
C) B.R. Ambedkar D) Jawaharlal Nehru

6. (i) When the general elections were held in February 1937, Jawaharlal Nehru made a
whirlwind tour of the country and carried everywhere the message of the Congress.
(ii) The success of the Congress in the elections was very much due tothe efforts of
Gandhiji.Which of the above statement/s is/are true?
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) None of the above

7. Assertion [A] : The Small Scale Industry of India was ruined due to the attitude of the Britishers
Reason [R]: British Government declared the policy of free trade in the year 1833.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false, but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

8. Which of the following is/are true with reference to the impact o f M r s . A n n ie B e sa n t ‘ s e f -

f o r t s?
i) She founded the central Hindu College at Benares.
ii) Her paper ‗New India‘ spread the theosophical ideas.
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) Both (i) and (ii) D) None of the above

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. Father Thomas Stevens, a Jesuit from Oxford, arrived in _________and remained there for forty
years.
A) Pondicherry B) Goa C) Cambay D) Bengal

2. Bethvan School was established by Pandit Ishwarchandra Vidya Sagar in the year at
Calcutta.
A) 1843 B) 1845 C) 1847 D) 1849

3. Who said the following statement ―Swaraj must spring from the wishes of the people of India as
expressed through their freely chosen representatives‖?
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) B.R. Ambedkar
C) Nelson Mandela D) Jawaharlal Nehru

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4. Who described the Hindus and Muslims as ―two eyes of the beautiful bride that was Inda‖?
A) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan B) Sir Mancherjee Bhownaggree
C) Dr.Lal Bahadur D) Madan Mohan Malaviya

5. Arrange the launching of the following events in chronological order:

(i) The Champaran Satyagraha (ii) The Mahad Satyagraha
(iii) The Dandi Salt Satyagraha (iv) The Kheda Satyagraha
A) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) B) (iii),(ii),(i),(iv) C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

6. ―What fifty thousand well-equipped soldiers could not do, the Mahatma has done-he has
brought peace .He is one-man boundary force‖;who said this?
A) Louis Fischer B) Lord Halifax
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad D) Lord Mountbatten

7. was the select committee member who observed during Liquor prohibition debate
that prohibition was not suitable policy to be adopted in any country including India.
A) T.T. Krishnamachari B) M.C. Raja
C) William Wright D) Vaidyanathar

8. Identify the Indian who secured fourth place in Indian Civil service Exam in1920 but resigned
before completing hisprobation
A) Anandh Mohan Bose B) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
C) Subash Chandra Bose D) Chitranjan Doss

9. ___________Was possibly the first Indian writer to write about Socialism and Bolshevism?
A) Manabendira Nath Roy B) Lala Lajpat Roy
C) Nalini Gupta D) S.A. Dange

10. Who was the Governor of Madras Presidency when Vellore Mutiny took place in 1806?
A) William Medows B) Sir Charles Oakeley
C) William Bentinck D) Sir George Barlow

11. Which of the following statements about the economic causes for South Indian Rebel-
lion are False?
(i) Taxes were raised upto 25% in Dindigul
(ii) 50%ofTaxeswerespentforthewelfareofthepeople
(iii) British got loans from Kings
(iv) There was a famine in 1978
A) (i) and (ii) are True (iii) and (iv) are false
B) (iii) and (iv) are True (i) and (ii) are false
C) (i) and (iv) are True (ii) and (iii) are false
D) (ii) and (iii) are True (i) and (iv) are false
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UNIT – 8
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. _____________ hoisted the National Flag atop of Fort St.George on 26 th January, 1932
A) Tiruppur Kumaran B) Arya (Bhashyam)
C) T.Prakasam D) K.Nageswara Rao

2. ____________ spread Theosophical ideas through her newspapers called ―New India‖ and
―Common Weal‖.
A) Annie Besant B) Savitri Bai
C) Ayyan Kali D) Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan

3. The play ‗Manonmaniam‘ was written by

A) Meenakshi Sundaranar B) P.Sundaranar
C) U.V. Swaminathar D) C.W Damotharan

4. Keezhadhi excavation suggests that _____________ century onwards urbanization has been
occurred in Tamil Nadu.
A) 3rd Century BCE B) 4th Century BCE
C) 5th Century BCE D) 6th Century BCE

5. What removes inner negativity of a mankind like a lamp according to Valluvar?

A) Lamp with truth‟s pure radiance B) Light of the family
C) Blessed Lamp D) Lamp of Penance

6. How does Valluvar portray meat eaters?

A) Irregular B) Unkind C) Ignorant D) Penniless

7. ―The fire outside can envelop one to eternal sleep;……. But… when cannot one sleep?
A) One cannot sleep in the crisis of poverty B) One cannot sleep with the hoard of riches
C) One cannot sleep in continuous misery D) One cannot sleep in continuous misery

8. Who ccording to Valluvar becomes happy to be together but despairs separation?

A) Profession of Poets B) Agricultural Industry
C) Medical Field D) Trade and Commerce

9. Who among the following poet had relations with Odhisa country?
A) Kamban B) Sekkilar C) Ottakuthar D) Jayamkondan

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10. Whose enmity should be avoided?
A) Hatred of Warriors B) Hatred of Word Ploughers (Writers)
C) Hatred of loved ones D) Hatred of righteous men

11. According to Valluvar under which king will the citizens prosper happily?
A) The one who sustain good words B) The one who bears bitter criticism
C) The one who cannot sustain harsh words D) The one who triumphs vengeance

12. ―Azhukkaarutaiyaan kan Aakkampondru illai‖. What is the meaning of ―Azhukkaaru‖?

A) Wrath B) Absence of anger C) Envious D) Evil

13. To what does Valluvar denote the timely benefit rendered in the kural ―Kaalaththi Naarseydha
Nandri‖?
A) Bigger than Knowledge B) Greater than the Ocean
C) Greater than the World D) Higher than Sky

14. What helps virtue and also guards us from all evil?
A) Patience B) Love C) Pride D) Education

15. Moovalur Ramamirdham was born in the district of

A) Cuddalore B) Mayiladuthuraai C) Thanjavur D) Kanniyakumari

16. ‗Periyar‘ the title was conferred on him by tamil Nadu Women Conference held in Madras on
A) 1936 B) 1937 C) 1938 D) 1939

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. The Dravidian Movement led to the formation of Dravida Kazhagam under the leadership of
A) C.N. Annadurai B) M.Karunanidhi
C) E.V. Ramasamy D) M.G.Ramachandran

2. King Karikalan of Chola dynasty constructed a dam on River Cauvery. It is known as

A) Vaigai Dam B) Papanasam Dam
C) Kallanai D) Sathanoor Dam

3. In Tamil Nadu ‗Stone Alignment Burial‘ is found in

A) Kodumanal B) Kanchipuram C) Adhichanallur D) Keezhadi

4. Marudu Pandiyars hanged at

A) Virupakshi B) Kalaiyar Kovil C) Tiruppathur D) Kayatharu

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5. Which English Army Officer attacked the Panchalamkurichi Fort in 1783?
A) William Flint B) William Fullerton
C) Bannerman D) Collin Maucaulay

6. Marudu Pandyan and Vella Marudu were executed at the fort of

A) Tiruppatur B) Vellakottai C) Thirumayam D) Dindigul

7. Name the Captain of ‗Udayal Padai‘ of Queen Velu Nachiyar of Sivaganga

A) Vellachi B) Lakshmi C) Kuyili D) Muthathal

8. Who participated in the ―International Women‘s Suffrage Alliance Congress‖ held on 1926
A) Annie Besant B) Maniyammai
C) Rukmani Lakshmipathy D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

9. Who among the following was considered as the first individual satyagrahi in Tamil Nadu?
A) Dr.T.S.S Rajan B) Vinoba Bhave
C) K.Kamaraj D) S.Satyamurthy

10. During Vellore Mutiny the Indian soldiers hoisted the flag of
A) Tipusultan B) Arcot Nawab C) Marathas D) Marudu Pandiyar

11. The enquiry commission which enquired the Ramanathapuram incident (Collector Jackson and
Kattabomman) consist of
(i) William Brown (ii) William Orm (iii) John Casmayor (iv) S.R.Lushington
A) (i), (ii) only B) (ii), (iii) only
C) (iii), (iv) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

12. The coins of Sangam Cholas were unearthed by the archaeologists at

A) Arikkamedu B) Karur C) Thanjavur D) Uraiyur

13. Which Poligar did not made alliance with Virapandya Kattabomman?
A) Poligar of Saptore
B) Poligar of Elayiram Pannai
C) Poligar of Kadalgudi
D) Poligar of Sivagiri

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03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NA-
DU FISHERIES SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023
1. ‗Atmiya Sabha‘ was established by
A) Swami vital Maharaj B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
C) Dayanand Saraswathi D) Aurobindo Ghosh.

2. At first who translated a few parts of Tirukkural in English?

A) Constantine Josep Beschi B) Francis whyte Ellis.
C) George Uglow pope D) Nathaniel Edward kindersley.

3. The word ‗Parivadini‘ in Kudimiyanmalai Inscription denotes.

A) A teacher B) A raga C) Veena D) Mridangam

4. Which one was not included in the forehead ornaments of the women during the sangam period?
A) Vayanthakam B) Pullagam
C) Makarappakuvai D) Muttarai

5. In which major Rock Edict of Asoka, the reference about the kings of Cheras, Cholas and pan-
dya‘s are mentioned?
A) XIII Rock edict B) I Rock edict. C) VI Rock Edict D) IX Rock edict.

6. _____________ inscription of the Cholas mentioned about the administration in a village.

A) Utteramerur inscription B) Bhattiprolu inscription.
C) Meenakshipuram inscription D) Tiruvisalur inscription.

7. The Word ‗Yavana Priya‘ denotes

A) Pepper B) Turmeric C) Ginger D) Cardamom.

8. Padaiyachiyar were a class of

A) Musicians B) Dancers C) Hunters D) Militants.

9. Match the following land divisions with animals:

a) Kurinji 1.Sheep
b) Palai 2.Buffalo
c) Mullai 3.Tiger
d) Marutham 4.Jackal
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 3 2 1 4
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10. Where did the oldest Microlithic relics find in TamilNadu?
A) Chengalpattu B) Thanjavur. C) Tiruvannamalai D) Thoothukudi.

11. Which of the following was not a leader of the Mullai land?
A) Annal B) Tonral C) Nadan D) Verpan.

12. The six stages of Hero stone worship were mentioned in which literature?
A) Silapathikaram B) Manimekalai.
C) Thirukkural D) Tolkappiyam.

13. ‗Alvilai Piramana isaivu tittu‘ means

A) Export duty B) Import duty.
C) Tax on slaves D) Sales document of the slaves.

14. The existence of barter system during sangam period is mentioned in.
A) Kurunthogai B) Pathitrupatthu C) Paripadal D) Kalithogai.

15. Who established the earliest Brahmodayas in Tondaimandalam?

A) Nandivarman I B) Nandivarman II
C) Nandivarman III D) Vishnugopa.

16. Which of the following was considered as the foremost virtue of Tamil women?
A) Kindness B) Charity C) Chastity D) Braveness.

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

1. Who stated Indus script is related to Old Tamil?

A) I. Mahadevan B) R. Nagasamy C) Yu.Knovozov D) A.Veluppillai.

2. Who was the war god mentioned in the Sangam Literature?

A) Thirumal B) Siva C) Murugan D) Indra.

3. What is meant by ‗Ambanam‘ in the Sangam period?

A) A musical instrument B) A measurement of paddy.
C) A kind of dance D) A kind of festival.

4. Kudimiyanmalai inscription describes about.

A) Music B) Drama
C) Local Self Government D) Dance.

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 TNPSC – 2023
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5. Which of the following is (are) not matched correctly?
i) Megalithic burial site - Sittanavasal.
ii) Urn Burial - Mallapadi.
iii) Glass Industry - Karaikadu.
iv) Music inscription - Arachalur
A) I only B) ii and iv only C) iii and iv only D) iv only

6. Match the following:

Literature Life style of the people.
a) Silapathikaram 1.Urimai Sutram.
b) Kalithogai 2.Branding of Slaves.
c) Malaipadukadam 3.Luxurious equipments in the palace.
d) Nedunal Vadai 4.Food Habits of the people.
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 1 2 3 4

7. Which of the following inscription mentions about the destruction of the ‗Tamil Confederacy‘?
A) Allahabad Pillar Inscription.
B) Hathigumpa Inscription of Kharavela.
C) Junagadh Rock Inscription.
D) Mehrauli Pillar Inscription.

8. Choose the right matches from the following:

1) Perumpalai - Dharmapuri District.
2) Mayiladumparai - Thoothukudi District.
3) Sivakalai - Krishnagiri District.
4) Thulukkarpatti - Tirunelveli District.
A) 1 and 4 are correct B) 2 and 3 are correct.
C) 1 and 2 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct.

9. The Archaeological site of Ovamalai is located at

A) Madurai B) Tirunelveli C) Sivaganga D) Tanjore.

10. The stone tools found at Athirapakkam belongs to

A) Paleolithic Age B) Meolithic Age
C) Mesolithic Age D) Megalithic Age.

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UNIT – 8
11. Primitive stone tools are
1) Spears 2) Round stones with sharp ends.
3) Knives with sharp edge 4) Egg shaped sharp tools.
A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) 1,2 and 3 only D) 1,2,3 and 4

12. Which one of the following inscription mention the ‗Confederacy of Tamil Kings‘?
A) Hathigumpha Inscription. B) Velvikkudi Copper plates.
C) Thriukovilur Inscription. D) Chinnamannur Copper plate Inscription.

13. Alangulam archeological site is located in __________ District.

A) Ramanathapuram B) Madurai.
C) Tirunelveli D) Tanjore.

14. Match the following archaeological sites:

a) Adichanallur 1. Sivagangai.
b) Mankulam 2. Thoothukudi
c) Kodumanal 3. Madurai
d) Keeladi 4. Erode.
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 2 3 1 4

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. Fill in the Blanks
Seena misiram yavanaragam - innum
Desam Palavum pugazhveesi - Kalai
Gnanam padaithozhil Vanibamum - miga
Nandru Valartha ______________
A) Tamil Nadu B) Desiya Thirunadu C) Navalam Nannadu D) Thainadu

2. ‗Senthamizh Thenee, Sindhukku Thandhai

Kuvikkum Kavidhai Kuyil! Innattinai
Kavizhkkum Pagaiyai Kavizhkkum Kaviyarasu‘
Who are the two poets associated with the lines above?
A) Barathiyaar, Abdul Raguman
B) Kalaignar Karunanidhi, Vairamuthu
C) Kannadasan, Pattukkottai Kalyana Sundaram
D) Barathiyaar, Baradhidasan
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 TNPSC – 2023
UNIT – 8
3. Who is called as ―Sundharan‖ in Ramayanam?
A) Raman B) Lakshman C) Vibhishnan D) Hanuman

4. Who is called as Rousseau of Tamil Nadu?

A) Rajaji B) Sathyamorthy
C) C.N.Annadurai D) Thanthai Periyar

5. Who was the Minister of Agriculture under the Ministry of C.N. Annadurai?
A) Nedunchezhian B) Madavan C) Sadiq patsha D) Govindasamy

6. Who presided over the first Self Respect Movement conference at Chengalpat by February 17,
1929?
A) Dr. B. Subbarayan B) E.V. Ramasamy
C) P.T. Rajan D) Pangal Raja

7. In Madras Presidency, Justice party was in the rule for __________ years.
A) 10 years B) 13 years C) 15 years D) 16 years

8. Fill in the blanks:

Nerunal Ulanoruvan Indrillai Ennum _____________ Utaiththuiv Vulaku.
A) Perumai - (Pride) B) Porunar - (Might)
C) Kadumai - (Relentless) D) Sirumai - (Pettiness)

9. ―The Guest arrived he tends, the coming guest expects to see;

To those in heavenly homes that dwell a welcome guest is he!‖
What is the ―relentless duty‖ related in this Thirukkural?
A) Making money B) Doing charity
C) Hospitality D) Protecting the family

10. Friendship with learned people is compared to the waxing moon by Valluvar, then friendship with
whom is like a waning moon to him?
A) Learned people (Arivudaiyaar) B) Ignorant people (Arivillathoor)
C) Loved ones (Anbudaiyor) D) Unloving (Anbilathor)

11. Who eulogises Thirukkural as follows:

―Ellaa porulum ithanpallula ithanpal
illatha epporulum illaiyaal‖?
A) Avvaiyar B) Erichaloor Maladannar
C) Madurai Tamil Naganaar D) Mangudi Marudhanaar

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12. Didactic old mocking proverbs in Tamil are called _________ in oral literature
A) Vidukadhai B) Salavadai
C) Pisi (Sublime) D) Proverbs (Pazhamozhi)

13. Who is the founder of Thirupanandhal Kasi Mutt?

A) Kalamega Pulavar B) Gnana Sambandhar
C) Arunagirinadhar D) Kumarakurubarar

14. Among ―Pathupattu‖ what are the ―Sempaathi‖ texts called as?
A) Aga Noolgal B) Pura Noolgal
C) Aatrupadai Noolgal D) Agapura Noolgal

15. What is meant by the Greek Physician Hippocrates as ―Indian Medicine‖?

A) Pepper B) Turmeric C) Neem D) Cinnamon

16. Who established and led the Paraiyar Mahajan Sabha which later became Adi - Dravida Mahaja-
na Sabha
A) Ayothidasar B) Rettamalai Srinivasan
C) M. C. Rajah D) None of the above
Mjp jpuhtpl kfh[d rig vd;W gpd;ehl;fspy; miof;fg;gl;l giwah; k`h[d rigia
Njhw;Wtpj;J topelj;jpath; ahh;?
A) mNahj;jp jh]h; B) nul;lkiy rPdpthrd;
C) M. C. uh[h D) Nkw;fz;ltw;Ws; vJTkpy;iy

17. Which one of the following is not a palaeolithic site?

A) Salem B) Madurai C) Vallam D) Pallavaram

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. The first Old Stone Age tool was discovered at Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu by
A) Robert Bruce Foote B) Alexander Flemming
C) Joseph Prestwich D) Henry Geoghegan

2. Where a large number of polished stone cults are found in Tamil Nadu.
A) Paiyampalli B) Pudukkottai C) Tirunelveli D) Tiruvannamalai

3. _______travelled to Soviet Union and was admired by its speedy progress through five year plans
and through the application of modern science and technologies.
A) Singaravelu B) Jeevanandam
C) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru D) E.V.Ramaswamy

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4. The Editor of Desabhaktan was
A) V.O. Chidambaram B) S. Satyamurthi
C) Thiru Vi.Ka D) Bharathiyar

5. Dr. Muthulakshmi was the first woman legislator in India because of

A) Minto Morley Reforms
B) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
C) Resolution of 1921
D) Government of India Act of 1935

6. _________ was a doctor who organized the underground activities and even operated a wireless
station during Quit India Movement
A) Ammu Swaminathan B) Krishna Bai Nimbkar
C) Devaki Ammal D) Manjubashini Subramaniam

7. Vira Pandiya Kattabomman was the one who fought against the British, hanged to death at.
A) Kayattaru B) Nagalapuram C) Pudukottai D) Panchalankurchi

8. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
1) Neelakanda Brammachari (a) Ananda Vikadan
2) G.A. Natesan (b) Suryodhyam
3) R. Krishnamoorthy (c) Thinamani
4) T.S. Chokalingam (d) Indian Review
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A) a b c d
B) b d a c
C) b a d c
D) b d c a

9. ―Even weak ones mightily prevail,_________,_______,________ offence‖

What is the adive of Thiruvalluvar even a weak king to conquer his enemies?
A) To a mass gold and money B) To Find appropriate place and protect
C) To charity, Meidtate/Penance D) To remove weakness to be an ambassador

10. Serathu iyalvathu naadu..

What are the 3 evils that pester the people who live according to the Kural that ends like this:
A) Poverty, Illiteracy, Unemployment
B) Hunger, Starvation, Famine
C) Hunger, Disease, Enmity
D) Rain, Sun, Frost

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11. Thiruvalluvar says one should never do the deed that sages condemn in any circumstance.
What is the circumstance referred to here?
A) When suffering under diseases
B) When not able to study
C) When not able to earn money
D) When your mother is starving

12. According to Thiruvalluvar which one of the following saves us from all disasters?
A) Education B) Knowledge C) Gold D) Wealth

13. What is the meaning of ‗Aaru‘ in Aatruppadai literature?

A) One who guides others B) River
C) Gift D) Patron

14. ―Peyakandu Nanjundu amaivar nayathakka

Nagarigam Vendubavar‖
These lines occur in
A) Nattrinai B) Akananuru C) Thirukkural D) Purananuru

15. What does ―Oppuravu‖ (Duty to Society) in Thirukkural mean?

A) Cleanliness (Thooyimai) B) Comparatives (Uvamai)
C) Integrity (Vaaimai) D) Aide (Udhavi)

16. Falsehood may take the place of truthful word,

As per the above Thriukkural when can falsehood be considered to take the place of truthful word.
A) Whe falsehood can produce blameless good
B) when it does nothing good
C) When it does evil
D) When falsehood is uttered in anger

17. ‗Nanba Unakku Oru Venba‖ – what is the meaning of this line by Vairamuthu?
A) AIDS Awareness
B) Significance of love
C) Social upliftment
D) Significance of friendship

18. Who is the author of the play ―Baliyaadugal‖?

A) Pralayan B) Mangai
C) Veli. Rengarajan D) K.A. Gunasekaran

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UNIT – 8
19. Choose the correctly matched pairs:
1) Bharathidasan - Kuyil pattu
2) Thiru Vi. Kalyana Sundaram - The Navasakthi
3) Subramaniya Siva - Editor of Swedeshamitran
4) Jeevanandam - Mookkandi
A) (1) and (2) are correct B) (1) and (4) are correct
C) (2) and (3) are correct D) (2) and (4) are correct

20. Choose the right pairs:

1) Colonel Maxwell - Maruthu Brothers
2) Collector W.C.Jackson - Kattabomman
3) Colonel Agnew - Gopal Nayak
4) Colonel Innes - Velu Nachiyar
A) (1) and (2) are correct B) (1) and (4) are correct
C) (2) and (3) are correct D) (2) and (4) are correct

21. Which are the correct statements about Jeevanandam?

i) Jeevanandam founded an ashram Unmai Vilakka Nilayam
ii) He did not participated in the temple entry struggle at Susindram
iii) Jeevanandam did not establish Gandhi ashram in Siruvayal
iv) He was involved in Vaikkom Struggle
A) (1) and (2) only B) (3) and (4) only C) (2) and (3) only D) (1) and (4) only

22. Match the following with regard to Self Respect Movement:

1) Gudiyatham Self Respect Meeting - (a) R. Chinnain
2) 2nd Self Respect Conference - (b) Altonshalash
3) Christian conference - (c) Abdul Khareem Shahib
4) Satyagraha Committee - (d) Mr. Jayakar
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A) C D B A
B) A C D B
C) C B A D
D) A D B C

23. In 1925, E.V. Ramaswamy Started the self respect movement.

i) The aim of the movement was the promotion of rational thinking, self-respect and self-
confidence in the people
ii) It enable them to enjoy the benefits of political and social freedom
Which statement is correct?
A) (i) B) (ii)
C) (i) and (ii) D) None of the above

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24. Name the person who established on Ashram in Nandhi Hills after his political participation.
A) Sir Sankaran B) Nilakanda Brahmachari
C) S.S.Chidambaram D) Sathiya Moorthi

25. Which one of the following is not a part of Thirukkural?

A) Not to dirnk liquor B) Sin
C) Poverty D) The word “Tamil”

26. Name the person who presided over the nineth conference of the Madras constituency of the All
India Women‘s Conference of the year 1934.
A) Dr.Muthulakshmi Reddy B) Mrs. Margaret Cousins
C) Begum Shareegah Hamid Ali D) Mrs. Annie Besant

27. What is the First Explanatory writer among the four for the book Thriukkural?
A) Dharmar B) Parimelazhakar C) Mu.Va. D) Manakkudavar

28. A tender flower (Anitcha) withers when one breaths even Identif the meaning for the term ―Anit-
cham‖ from the following:
A) A Fruit B) An unripe fruit C) A Tender Flower D) Flower

29. ―The term ―virtue‖ has got eight different meanings in Tamil‖. Find out the author of the statement.
A) Thirukkural Munusami B) Mu.Varatharajan
C) K.T. Thirunaavukkarasu D) Kavingnar Vairamuthu

30. What is the Tamil Name for ―Haikku‖ Poerm?

A) Seyyul B) Pudhukkavithai
C) Kurumpaa D) Vasanakavithai

31. Who is the Author of the Novel ―Malarum Sarukum‖?

A) Agilan B) D.Selvaraj C) N.Parthasarathy D) Jayakanthan

32. According to Thirumoolar one should control his five sense like a
A) Lion B) Elephant C) Tortoise D) Earthworm

33. On what basis did this case arise?

―Yaayaiyam Paadi Kovai Paadu‖
(Sing all the songs then sing Kovai)
A) Uyarvana Ilakkiyam (high class literature)
B) Kadavulodu Thodarbupaduthuvathu (Communication with God)
C) Kadina IIakkiya Vagai (The genre of hard literature)
D) Payirchi Iruthal Veandum (Practice is must)
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UNIT – 8
34. Who sang the Holy verse ―Paavai Padia Vaayaal Kovai‖?
A) Thirugnana Sambanthar B) Thirunavukkarasar
C) TortoiseSundharar D) Manickkavasakar

35. Srilankan tamil professor K.Sivathambi says the Characteristics of Semmozhi (Classical Tamil
Language) are __________, _________,________.
A) Antiquity, Continuity, Richness
B) Antiquity, excellence, individuality
C) Antiquity, naturalness, individuality
D) Antiquity, continuity, excellence

36. ―Vaiyagam Panippa Valanerbu Valaiip‖

-Which Pathupattu song begins with this line?
(unfailing clouds climbed to the right……)
A) Nedunalvaadai B) Kurunchippattu C) Mullaippattu D) Pattinappalai

37. Identify from the following one head ornament of the women wear on the hair during the Sangam
period.
A) Toyyakam B) Pullakam C) Vayantakam D) Valampuri

38. Choose the right matches from the following pairs:

(i) Reform Movement - Women‘s Liberation Movement
(ii) Revolutionary Movement - Brahmo Samaj
(iii) Resistance Movement - Anti –Hindi Movement
(iv) Utopian Movement - The Sarvodaya Movement

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE – 2023
1. Match the Column-I (Archaeological Sites) with their districts in Column II.
Column – I Column – II
a) Kodumanal 1. Thoothukudi.
b) Porunthal 2. Villupuram.
c) Tiruvakkarai 3. Erode.
d) Adichanallur 4. Dindigul.
a b c d
A) 1 3 2 4
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 1 2 4 3

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UNIT – 8
2. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct option(S) from below:
This town is located on the left bank of Nambi river in Tirunelveli district. An excavation was car-
ried out to search for the roots of the Iron Age culture along the Nambi river banks. It is a fertile
archeological site and is known for its antiques.
A) Thulukkarpatti B) Keezhadi C) Vembakottai D) Perambalur.

3. Match the following :

a) Silent Spring 1. Edward O.Wilson.
b) The mismeasure of man 2. Carl Sagan.
c) The Insect Societies 3. Stephen J.Gould.
d) The Cosmic Connection 4. Rachel Carson.
a b c d
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 4 2 3 1
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 4 3 1 2

4. ―The Great Tragedy of Indian Partition‖ was written by.

A) R.K.Sharma B) S.S. Sharma C) V.D.Mahajan D) S.N. Mehta

5. Match the List I with List II:

List I List II
a) Puli Thevar 1.Siruvayal
b) Marudu Brothers 2.Dindigul.
c) Gopala Nayak 3.Anamalai.
d) Yadul Nayak 4.Nerkattumseval.

6. At which district conference Justice party was converted into ‗Dravidar Kazhagam‘?
A) Salem B) Kanchipuram C) Vellore D) Kovai.

7. Which of the following activities were associated with the justice party?
i) It gave representation to Dravidian Communities in the public services.
ii) The Government took over the power of appointing District Munsifs.
iii) Poramboke lands were not allotted to the people.
A) I and iii are correct
B) ii and iii are correct.
C) I and ii are correct
D) I and iii are not correct.

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UNIT – 8
8. Match the following Editors to their Magazines:
Editors Magazines
a) Thiru. Kalyanasundharanar 1.Deepam
b) Bharathiyar 2.Desabakthan.
c) Bharathidasan 3.Vijaya.
d) Na.Parthasarathy 4.Kuyil
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 4 3 2 1

9. Thirukkural says that it is a weapon that destroys the strength of the king‘s army; which is it?
A) Stringency and Punishment. B) Harshly speaking and Tyranny.
C) Anger and Tax of the subject. D) None of the above.

10. Which association later became justice party?

A) Madras Dravidian association.
B) Madras United league.
C) Non – Brahmin movement.
D) South Indian liberal federation.

11. ―__________ Kaalam Karuthi veruppil

Venduba vetpach cholal‖
According to the above Thirukkural, what is the essential deed on action that one should train to
imbibe?
A) Gauge B) Taking C) Maintain D) Avoid.

12. Match the following books with its author:

Book Author.
a) Parthiban Kanavu 1. Suradha.
b) Tamizh Solai 2. Tamizh oli.
c) Thenmazhai 3. Kalki
d) Vazhippayanam 4. Thiru.Kalyanasundharanar
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 1 4 2 3

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UNIT – 8
13. The Self – Respect Movement represented, the Dravidian reaction to liberate the society, from
which evil practice?
A) Religious customs, practices and Conventions.
B) Religious Customs, Practices and caste system.
C) Religious Conventions and Caste system.
D) Religious customs, practices and Superstitions.

14. Which of the following statements about Thillaiyadi Valliammai are correct?
i) She participated in the protest against the policy of Apartheid in South Africa at the age of 16.
ii) She worked with Gandhi in his early years.
iii) She died during the anti – apartheid agitation.
A) I is correct B) I, ii and iii are correct.
C) I and ii are only correct D) ii and iii are only correct.

15. Valluvar rightly compares those saints who cannot control the mind and enter into actions not
suitable to their saintliness says the following:
1) Puliyin thol porthuthu Meithatru.
2) Puthar Marainthu Vaettuvan pul simil Thatru.
A) comparison 1 alone is correct
B) Comparisons 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C) Comparison 2 alone is correct
D) Comparisons 1 and 2 are correct.

16. Idea denoted in the following kural is Aakaaru Alavittai Thaayingung Ketillai Pokaaru Akalaak ka-
tai.
A) The kural denotes how bureaucrats should treat the people.
B) This kural propounds that our Goal should be big in life.
C) This kural brings out the formation of friendship.
D) This kural is deeply connected to the economic thoughts.

17. Statement (A) : Peelipey Saakaatum Achchirum Appentanjch Chaala mikuththup peyin.
Reason ( R) : The Kural hints at stating that if a king considers his enemies as small and weak
and figh against them.These small and considered weak will gather their force together to become
strong and powerful and thus defeat him. Valiyarithal chapter carries this Kural.
A) Statement (A), Reason ( R) are correct, But the reason ( R) is not a correct explanation.
B) Statement (A), Reason ( R) are correct but Reason (R) is a correct explanation.
C) Statement (A) Kural is incorrect; reason R is correct.
D) Statement (A) Kural is correct; Reason ( R) is incorrect.

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UNIT – 8
18. Match of the following:
a) Iraththalum edhale polum 1.Avaranna Oppari Yankanda dhil.
b) Irappan Irapprai Ellam 2.Irappir Karappar Iravanpin enru.
c) Makkale polvar kayavar 3.Karaththal kanavilum Thetradhar mattu.
d) Seerudai Selvar Siruthuli 4.Mari Vara Koornthu Thalaiyai Thulaithu.
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 4 3 1 2

19. Match the following:

a) Thaneer 1.Thoppil Mohammed Meeran.
b) Karippu Manigal 2.Asoka Mithran.
c) Kal Maram 3.Rajam Krishnan.
d) Saiyvu Naarkaali 4.Thilagavathi.
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 3 1 2 4

20. Who is praised ( and celebrated) in the following quotation?

‗Vasana nadai Kaivandha Vallalar‘
‗Vaidhalum Vazhuvindri Vaivare‘
A) Vallal Ramalingam Adigal B) Aarumuga navalar.
C) Paridhimar Kalaignar D) U.V.Swamynadhar.

21. Match the following:

a) Sarukkam 1.Seevaga Sinthaamani.
b) Ilambagam 2.Bharatham.
c) Padalam 3.Silapadhikaram.
d) Kaandam 4.Kambaramayanam.
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 2 4 1

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UNIT – 8
22. Choose the correct answer.
1) The author of ‗Chivaga Chinthamani‘ Thiruthakka Thevar belonged to the Chozha dynasty and
he chose to become a saint.
2) Chivaga Chinthamani is the first Tamizh epic written in the form of ‗Virutham‘
3) Thiruthakka Thevan is also the author of book, ―Nari Virutham‖
4) Chivaga Chinthamani Consists of 12 Kalambagam 2000 poems.
A) 1,2 and 3 are right 4 is wrong.
B) 1,3 and 4 are right, 2 is wrong.
C) 1 and 2 are right, 3 and 4 are wrong.
D) 1 and 3 are right, 2 and 4 are wrong.

23. ―Koorvael Kuvaieeya moiymbin

Thaervan paarithann parambu naadae‖
In which poem do these lines appear?
A) Pathitrupathu B) Patinapaalai C) Puranaanooru D) Aganaanooru.

24. The literature that reveals kanchi had become a centre of Buddhist learning is.
A) Manimegalai B) Purananuru C) Silappadikaram D) Ahananuru.

25. Which flower triggers the debate of accepting ―Nedunelvaadai‖ as that of belonging to ―Agam‖ or
―Puram‖?
A) Palmyra flower B) Neem flower C) Fig flower D) Ixora/vetchi.

26. Which is the sub – plot that is not narrated in silapathigaram?

A) Porkai pandian Kathai B) Aadhirai Varalaru.
C) Nalangadi poodha Kadhai D) Urvasi saba varalaru.

27. In the Thamizh literary world, what is know as ‗Pariksha‘?

A) N.Muthusami‘s Koothu-p-pattarai
B) Gnani‟s drama troupe.
C) Amshan Kumar‘s ‗Cinema Rasanai Kuzhu‘
D) C.S.Chellappa‘s ‗Ezhuthu Ilakkiya Kuzhu‘

28. Who was the archeologist, who first excavated the pandya‘s pearl market?
A) Nagasamy B) Caldwell
C) K.V. Raman D) S.Paranavitana.

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UNIT – 8
29. Reason and Assertion type:
Assertion (A) : Tamil rulers patronized Tamil and Tamil poets in their courts.
Reason (R) : The words mandram, Avai, Ambalam and Mandru were used for kings Courts.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false, R is true.
D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE – 2023
1. As per the context mentioned in Kalingathupparani, the word ‗yoga‘ means
A) Doing exercise B) Reciting mantras
C) Worshipping D) Concentration

2. The earliest copper plate inscriptions of Cholas discovered in Tamil Nadu are
A) Thiruvalangadu copper plates. B) Velvikkudi Copper plates
C) Velur palayam plates D) Chinnamanur Copper plates.

3. Which Azhwaar sang devotional songs in the guise of folk songs?

A) Aandaal B) Thiruppan azhwaar.
C) Thirumazhisai azhwaar D) Thirumangai azhwaar.

4. Pickout the correct pair from the pairs given.

A) City Lights - Epic movie
B) The great Dictator - Comedy Actor.
C) Charlie Chaplin - Award winning movie.
D) Modern Times - Reasearch Movie.

5. Who wrote the book ―Manumurai kanda vasakam‖?

A) U.Ve.Saminathar B) Ramalinga Adigal
C) Dhamodar D) Vaikunda swamigal

6. Who was the first and the only Governor – General From Madras Presidency in the Dominion of
India?
A) C. Rajagopalachariar B) R.K.Shanmugam Chetti
C) M.Bhakthavatchalam D) Lord Mountbatten.

7. Ilangovadigal, who wrote silappathikaram was a

A) Buddhist monk B) Jain Monk C) Hindu Saubt D) Christian

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UNIT – 8
8. Match the following from List I with List II and choose the correct option.
List I List II
a) Kurinji 1.Indra
b) Mullai 2.Murugan.
c) Marudam 3.Thirumal.
d) Nevdal 4.Varuna.
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 3 1 2 4

9. Choose the right answer among type which of the following statements are true about justice par-
ty?
i) In order to safeguard the interest of non-Brahmins, in August 1917 to organize a party called the
South Indian Liberal Federation.
ii) South Indian Liberal Federation popularly known as Justice party.
iii) Justice party is considered as the start of Dravidian Movement.
A) I only B) I and iii only C) I and ii only D) I, ii and iii only

10. Which Tamil writer is adulated as: ―Kaadu kamazhum, Karpoora sorko karpanai Ootraam Kad-
hayin Puthaiyal?
A) Bharathiyar B) Bharathidasan C) Suradha D) Vanithasan

11. Which was the first Collection of modern poetry released in Tamil?
A) Kakitha Pookkal B) Puthukkuralgal
C) kaatrile Mithantha Kavithai D) Merkuri Pookkal

12. Who wrote: ―Evvazhi Nallavar Aadavar

Avvazhi Nallai: Vaazhiya Nilanae!‖?
A) Baranar B) Kabilar
C) Avvaiyar D) Velliveedhiyaar

13. Among the Kadaiyelu Vallal who offered Neelamani and Nagam Thantha Kalingam to the Sivan?
A) Kaari B) Oori C) Aai Andiran D) Nalli

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UNIT – 8
11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF
AGRICULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU
AGRICULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL
SERVICE - 2023

1. Which literature in Tamil is called as ―Irumbu Kadalai‖?

A)Natrinai B) Pathitrupathu C) Paripaadal D) Puranaanooru

2. Which one of the following does not come under the genre of historical novel?
1. Sivagamiyin Sabadham 2. Yavana Rani
3. Sembiyan Selvi 4. Sundhari
A)1 B)2 C)3 D) 4

3. Whose songs were mentioned as ―the origin of Literature‖ by Sekkizhar?

A)Thirunavukarasar B) Thirugnanasambandar
C) Sundarar D) Manikavasagar

4. ―Hindu Marriages (Tamil Nadu) Amendment Bill‖ was introduced in the year 1967 by
A)Rajaji B) Kumarasamy Raja
C) Kamarajar D) C.N. Anna Durai

5. During 1962 election, in which constituency Anna was defeated?

A) Chennai B) Kanchipuram C) Salem D) Nagar koil

6. In which year South Indian Liberal Federation was formed?

A) 1914 B) 1915 C) 1916 D) 1917

7. Periyar E.V. Ramasamy organized the Superstition eradication conference at salem in the year.
A) 1968 B) 1969 C) 1971 D) 1973

8. Subramaniya Bharathiar was gifted with poetic talents right from his childhood. He received a
tittle ―Bharathi‖ from which of the following king gave this title and at what age?
A) King of Ramnada at the age of 10
B) King of Ettayapuram of the age of 11
C) King of Sivaganga at the age of 12
D) King of Pudukkottai at the age of 13

9. Which is the book that stands before Thirukkural with the title ‗the most translated‖ book?
A) Dhammapada B) The Bible C) Manu-Smriti D) Quraan

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UNIT – 8
10. In which literature does the word ―Kudumbam‖ appears for the first time in Tamil?
A) Naaladiyaar B) Iniyavai Naarpathu
C) Thirukkral D) Mudhumozhikaanji

11. Kural: Anthanar enbor Aravor matru evuiyurkkum senthanmai poondu ozhuga laan.
Meaning: Each country has its own rules for righteousness. Whether a Brahmin follows and re-
members the Vedas or not is contesting version in Tamil Nadu. It is to be considered whether
the follows the ―Aram‖ spelled out by Tamil Text. Hence his hierarchy is decided based on the
Tamil Texts.
A) The Kural and the meaning are correct
B) The Kural and its meaning is incorrect
C) Kural talks about discipline, where as the explanation talks of indiscipline
D) Kural talks of Divine Nature; the explanation talks of the Discipline of the Brahmins

12. Who kindled the spirit of patriotism through the play ―Kadarin Vetri‖?
A) Pammal K. Sambandam B) Sankaradas Swamigal
C) The. Po. Krishnaswamy D) Thi. Ka. Shanmugam

13. Assertion 1 : Pingalandhai was written by Pingala Munivar.

Assertion 2 : Pingala Munivar is the son of Diwakara Mudhalvar
A) A1 is right; A2 is wrong B) A1 is wrong; A2 is right
C) A1 is wrong; A2 is wrong D) A1 is right; A2 is right

14. How many Chapters and sections does Tolkappiyam Have?

A) 2 Chapters and 18 Sections B) 3 Chapters and 27 Sections
C) 4 Chapters and 27 Sections D) 3 Chapters and 18 Sections

15. South Indian liberal foundation was created to promote

A) The Political interest of non- Brahmins
B) The economic interests
C) The social Status
D) None of the above

16. Mark the institutions established for the educational reformation by vallalar.
1. Sanmarga bothini
2. Samarasa vedapadasalai
3. Jeevakarunya padasalai
4. Samarasa Kalvi nilayam
A) 2, 3 B) 3, 4 C) 1, 2 D) 3, 1

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UNIT – 8
17. Birju Maharaj was conferred with Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in the year_______ and Pad-
ma Vibhushan in_______.
A) 1958 and 1972 B) 1960 and 1978
C) 1962 and 1980 D) 1964 and 1986

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Match the following:
a) Dravidian Home 1.Maraimalai Adigal.
b) Thozhilalan 2.Rettaimalai Srinivasan.
c) Tani Tamil Iyakkam 3. Singaravelan
d) Jeeviya Saritha Surukkam 4. Natesanar.
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 2 4 1
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 2 1 3 4

2. What is the most sweetest thing that makes men happy? From the Kural ―Mannuyirk Kellaam In-
dihu‖?
A) Benefits a father confers on his son.
B) Benefits a son confers to his parents.
C) Knowing that the progeny excels them in knowledge.
D) Hearing the son as great Hero.

3. Where was Captain Lakshmi Sehgal born?

A) Chennai B) Calcutta C) Tanjavur D) Singapore.

4. What according to Valluvar is the way that will not destroy one‘s own wealth?
A) Avoid theft B) Being free from covetousness.
C) Shun false hood D) Be unfriendly.

5. Which statement is true about the practice of sati?

i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy took the oath to abolish the Sati.
ii) He helped William Bentinck to abolish this practice.
iii) The practice of Sati a punishable offence was declared in 1829.
A) Only (i) B) Only (ii) C) Only (iii) D) (i),(ii) and (iii)

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UNIT – 8
6. What is compared to the herbal tree grown at the center of a home town in the Kural?
A) Knowledgeable person B) Generous Man.
C) Noble person D) King.

7. Which of the following pairs is not correct?

i) Ilanjetchenni - Chenguttuvan.
ii) Mangulam - Tamil Brahmi inscription.
iii) Uruttirankannanar - Pattinappalai.
iv) Velir Chieftains - Thithiyan
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) IV only

8. ________ was the Jain name of Appar.

A) Dharmasena B) Harisena
C) Theerthankara D) Sivagnana Sithiyar.

9. Assertion and Reason Type:

Assertion (A) : Pulithevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R) : Hyder Ali could not help pulithevar as he was already in a serious conflict with
the Marathas.
A) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are wrong.
C) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
D) A is wrong and R is correct.

10. Name the Tamil book was published in Goa in the year 1578.
A) Viracholiyam B) Ilakkana vilakkam.
C) Thambiran Vanakkam D) Tolkappiyam.

11. To whom does Valluvar compare the wrong doing ascetics?

A) Actor B) Fradulent C) Sinner D) Hunter

12. What is compared by Valluvar to the sweet music of Veena (Yaazh)?

A) Child‘s Babble B) Parrot‘s speech C) Beloved‘s word D) Poet‘s words.

13. One who possess these are considered as lion among kings
i) Army, Subjects, Wealth.
ii) Ministers, Allies, Fort.
iii) Fearlessness, Charity and Education.
A) I alone is correct B) I and II are correct.
C) I and III are correct D) III alone is correct.

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UNIT – 8
14. What are the three things to be shunned in order to dispel pain and sorrow?
A) Lust, wrath and Delusion B) Knowledge, Love, Affection.
C) Fear, Shyness, Blindness D) Happiness, Wrath, Sorrow.

15. Ettuthogai and Pathupattu are the Collection of _______ poems.

A) 2400 B) 3400 C) 4400 D) 5400

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. The Sangam poets and Literature were patronized by
A) Cholas B) Pallavas C) Pandyas D) Cheras

2. In which year, Periyar E.V.Ramasamy was elected as the leader of the justice party.
A) 1936 B) 1938 C) 1940 D) 1941

3. Which of the following Drama was written by Annadurai?

A) Neethi Devan Mayakkam B) Kadal
C) Chanakyan D) Thenali Raman

4. Why did E.V. Ramaswamy periyar quit from the Congress party?
A) Having quarrel with Gandhi.
B) Having quarrel with C.Rajagopalachari.
C) Separate dining for Brahmin and Non-Brahmin students in Congress sponsored
schools.
D) Having quarrel with V.V.S. Iyer.
5. What is given the most emphasis in Thirukural by Thriuvalluvar?
A) Education (Kalvi) B) Friendship (Natpu)
C) Listening (Kelvi) D) Discipline (Ozhukkam)

6. Though well –read men might be; they will be considered as ________ if they do not have good
rapport with people in the society as said by valluvar.
A) uneducated B) Ignorant C) Blind D) Dead one.

7. ―Aalum Velum; Pallukkuruthi.

Naalum Irandum; Sollukkuruthi!‖
To what does ―Naalum‖ and ―Irandum‖ refer to?
A) Nalaiyira Divya Prabhandam, Naladiyaar
B) Nanmanikkadigai, Iniyavai Naarpathu
C) Iniyavai Naarpadhu, Innaa Naarpathu
D) Naladiyaar, Thirukkural

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8. What suffering will not come near people who abstain themselves from Lust, Anger and Confusion
according to Valluvar?
A) Spouse Suffering (Thunaiviyaar Thunbam)
B) Congenital Malformation (Piravi Thumbam)
C) Ancestor suffering (Munnor Vazhi Thunbam)
D) Suffering from hunger (Pasi Thunbam)

9. Who are the ―Gnanapeed ― awardees among Tamil Wrtiers?

A) Jeyakanthan, Pudumaipithan
B) Pudumaipithan, Akilan.
C) Akilan,so.Dharman
D) Jeyakanthan, Akilan.

10. Who are hailed as ‗Four Saivasamaya Kuravar‘?

A) Poykaiyazhwar, Boothathazhwar, Peyazhwar, Nammazhwar.
B) Periyazhwar, Aandal, Nammazhwar, Kulasekarar.
C) Sambandar,Navukkarasar, Sundarar, Manikkavasakar.
D) Tirumoolar, Appar, Sundarar, Sambandar

11. Which is the literature that has been sung only in ―paadaan Tinai‖?
A) Pathitrupathu B) Puranaanooru
C) Madurai Kanchi D) Malaipadukadam

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION -

2023
1. Even the God of Death will hesitate to do his duty when they come to these people. Who are
they according to Valluvar?
A) Uneducated B) Wicked
C) One who never kills D) Defeated

2. Who becomes the ornaments of a well-knit family according to Valluvar?

A) Good Parents B) Good Children
C) Good Friends D) Good Relatives

3. What according to Valluvar is the foster mother of ―Grace‖?

A) Humility B) Patience C) Dignity D) Riches

4. What blessing will be upon men of clear vision and free of delusion according to Valluvar?
A) Suffering B) Passion C) Bliss D) Excellence

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UNIT – 8
5. ‗Nalayira Divyaprabandam‘ was comiled by
A) Nadamuni B) Nammalvar C) Sundarar D) Sekkilar

6. Choose the correct answer : The Madras Native Association was founded in the year
A) 1845 B) 1852 C) 1862 D) 1875

7. Which of the following magazine is not associated with Peryar E.V.R?

A) Kudi Arasu B) Puratchi C) Desabakthan D) Revolt

8. To which flower does Valluvar compare the difference in hospitality of guests?

A) Kuvalai Flower B) Anicham Flower C) Lily D) Lotus

9. ___________ gives a vivid account of Karikalan reign.

A) Maduraikanchi B) Pattinappalai C) Patitruppathu D) Paripadal

10. Choose the right matches among the type

1. Mahabharath - Valmiki
2. Umaruppulavar - Seerapuranam
3. Veeramamunivar - Thembavani
4. Manimegalai - Ilango Adigal
A) 2 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 3 are correct
C) 3 and 4 are correct D) 2 and 1 are correct

11. Choose the correct answer about Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

A) Doctor B) Engineer C) Teacher D) Advocate

12. Choose the correct statement from the following

1. Periyar had participated in the non-cooperation programme as a congressman.
2. The Justice party held the self-respecting wedding
3. Periyar title was conferred by UNESCO
4. He ran the ‗Liberation‘ press in English
A) 1 is correct B) 2 and 4 are correct
C) 1 and 2 are correct D) 2,3,4 are correct

13. Choose the correct statement from the following

A. Kattabomman - 1. Col. Bon Jour
B. Maruthu Brothers - 2. Captain Campbell
C. Yusuf Khan - 3. Colin Macaulay
D. Muthu Vadugar - 4. Bannerman
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 4 3 2 1
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14. Who will be respected by all life on this earth according to Valluvar?
A) Men of wisdom
B) Men of Virtue
C) Men who would not kill and burt any apecies for their food
D) Men of riches

15. Who according to Valluvar will not be pained by the pangs of Hunger?
A) People who do penance
B) People who are graceful
C) Renowned people
D) People who share food with others

16. Choose the correct statement:

i) Hero stones of the Sangam Age can be found at Porpanaikottai in Pudukkotai district.
ii) Arikkamedu is a Sangam Age Port
iii) The Indian Treasure Trove Act was passed in 1878
iv) Roman coins are concentrated in the Thirunelveli regions
A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
C) (ii), (iii) are correct
D) (ii) and (iv) are correct

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
1. Choose the correct assertion about Drama from the following: நாடகம் பற்றிய செய்தியில் மிகச்
A) Drama is meant to be enacted
B) Drama is meant to be read
C) Drama is meant to be watched
D) M.Varadharasan classifies drama into three categories Drama meant only to be enacted,
Drama meant only to be read and Drama meant both to be enacted and to be read

2. "Inbath Thamizhkalvi Vavarum kattravar Endruraikkum Nilai Eithivittal Thunbangal Neengum, Su-
gam Varum Nenjinil Thooimai Yundaagividum, Veeram Varum" - Whose lines are these?
A) Bharathiyaar B) Bharathidhasan
C) Pattukkottai Kalyana Sundaram D) Suradha

3. Methods of measuring lands such as Are, Nivarthanam and Pattigai were followed during which
King's period?
A) Cholar period B) Cherar period C) Pandiar period D) Pallavan period

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4. "Perarignar Anna Award' for the year 2021 was awarded to
A) Nanjil Sampath B) Bharathi Krishna Kumar
C) Dr. M. Rajendran D) Suki Sivam

5. The main aim of the Hindu Marriages Tamil Nadu Amendment Act of 1967 is
A) Safeguarding Hindu Marriages
B) Granting legal sanction to the self respect marriages in Tamil Nadu
C) It fixed the ages of brides and bridegrooms
D) It gave special status to Hindu marriages

6. _____ session of 1944 changed the name of Justice Party into Dravidar Kazhagam.
A) Trichy B) Salem C) Virudhunagar D) Erode

7. Who among the following earned the title of the 'Hero of Vaikkom'?
A) T.M. Nair B) A. Subbarayan
C) E.V. Ramasamy D) C. Rajagopalachari

8. The third session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by:
A) W.C. Bannerjee B) Badruddin Tyabji
C) M. Vijayaragavachariar D) Gokhale

9. To whom does Thiruvalluvar compare the Toddy drinkers (Kalunpor)?

A) Paalunpor (Milk taking habits)
B) Thaenunpor (Honey taking habits)
C) Nanjunpor (Poison taking habits)
D) Amudhunpor (Heavenly Nectar taking habits)

10. "Thelivu Kuruvin Thirumeni Kandal'- This line is taken from which poem?
A) Thirukkural B) Thirumanthiram
C) Aasarakkovai D) Pazhamozhi Nanooru

11. Manaththukan Maasilan Aadhal Anaiththuaran

Aakula Neera Pira Based - on this kural
Statement [A]: Thoughts, words and deeds of a person would be pure if the mind and heart is
pure
Reason [R]: Outward appearance becomes insignificant if the mind is pure. If the mind is
impure, then the outward appearance is just a show thus the outward
appearance is just a show of arrogance. -
A) Statement [A] and Reason [R] are both incorrect. It does not explain the kural
B) Statement [A] is correct; Reason [R] is incorrect
C) Statement [A] is incorrect, Reason [R] is correct
D) Statement [A] and Reason (R] both correct and explains the kural aptly

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12. Method of narrating old epics and legendary stories through modern poetry is called
A) Padimam B) Thonmam
C) Kuriyeedu D) None of the above

13. Choose the right answer:

1) 'Vaiyan dhagaliya Vaarkadale Neyyaga' - This poem was written by Poigaiyazhvaar
2) 'Thirukanden, Ponmeni Kanden' This poem was written by Boothathazhvaar
3) 'Anbe Dhagaliya Aarvame Neiyyaga' This poem was written by Peiyazhvaar
4) Poigaiyazhvaar, Botthathazhvaar and Peiyazhvaar belong to the same age (contemporaries)
A) (1) and (3) are right, (2) and (4) are wrong
B) (1) and (4) are right, (2) and (3) are wrong
C) (1) and (2) are right, (3) and (4) are wrong
D) (1) and (2) are wrong, (3) and (4) are right

14. Which flower is the symbol of chastity for women in Tamil Society?
A) Jasmine B) Rose C) Mullai D) Lily

15. Which of the following sangam literature gives exclusive references about the sangam cheras?
A) Paripadal B) Pathitrupattu C) Kalithogai D) Purananuru

16. I) One of the reasons for the non-brahmin movement in South India was that the brahmins took
more advantage of modern education and hence secured more government jobs.
II) Therefore there were demands for reservation in government jobs and educational institution
Which of the statements is/are true?
A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) None of above

17. I.The Self Respect Movement functioned as a forum and political platform
II. Its objective got fulfilled when DMK attained power and formed a government of non-brahmin in
Tamilnadu.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
A) I only B) II only
C) Iand II D) None of the above

18. The first SC person from Tamil Nadu to represent Tamils in the Legislative Council in 1920 was
A) M.C. Rajah B) R. Veeraiyan C) Chinnaswamy D) Dr. Subbarayan

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16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. Major Bannerman - The Siege of Panchalamkurichi
2. Colonel Agnew and Innes - Maruthu Brothers
3. Colonel Heron - Puli Thevar
4. Chief Sir John Cradock - Vellore Revolt 1806
A) 1, 2 are corréct B) 1, 3, 4 are correct
C) 1, 2, 3 are correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct

2. "...Plucking an unripe fruit when there are ripe ones"?

- In this Kural what is referred to as 'unripe fruit'?
A) Meaningless words B) Harsh words
C) Words without love D) Slang words

3. Who according to Valluvar gains loveable place in the minds of all?

A) Men who speak truth B) Men of sweet speech
C) Men of beauty and richness D) Men who are at others wits end

4. What will happen to the wealth that has been required by fradulence according to Valluvar?
A) Perish little by little B) Perish a little
C) Perish without growth D) Will result in limitless ruin

5. What should we do to the wealth that comes without grace and love according to Valluvar?
A) Gather it B) Avoid as evil C) Spend it D) Accept it

6. What according to Valluvar breaks the cycle of rebirth?

A) Philanthropy B) State of detatchment
C) A kind heart D) Compassionate

7. In Tamil Nadu Neolithic culture site found in

A) Kanniyakumari B) Paiyampalli
C) Kodumanal D) Adichanallur

8. ______was the Tamil drama based on the English story "The Secret Way".
A) Shakuntala Vilasam B) Nandanar Charitram
C) Ratnaveli D) Manonmaniam

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9. Assertion [A]: The Fort of Sivagiri was eminently suited both for offensive and defensive opera-
tions.
Reason [R]: It is at the fort of western Ghats with formidable barriers around it.
A) [A] is correct, [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are wrong (B)
C) [A] is correct, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
D) [A] is wrong, [R] is correct

10. Find out the wrong statement :

i) Velu Nachiyar was the daughter of Chellamuthu Sethupathy, the Raja of Ramanathapuram.
ii) Pagoda was a gold coin of Vijayanagar descent.
iii) In 1801 Marudhu Brothers issued the Tiruchirapalli proclamation
iv) On 16, May 1761, Puli Thevar's three major forts Nerkattumseval Ramanathapuram, Sattur
came under the control of Maruthu brothers.
A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) and (iv) C) (i) and (iii) D) (iv) only

11. Name the commander of the Rani of Jhansi regiment of the Indian National Army.
A) Aruna Asaf Ali B) Usha Mehta C) Dr. Lakshmi D) Kalpana Dutt

12. Who established the Satya Dharma Salai Vadalur?

A) Ramalinga Adigal B) Iyotheethoss Pandithar
C) Maraimalai Adigal D) Arumuga Navalar

13. Match the following :

a) Prarthana Samaj - 1. 1828
b) Samrasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam - 2. 1875
c) Brahmo Samaj - 3. 1865
d) Arya Samaj - 4. 1875
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 1 4 2 3

14. ________was established by the Justice Party Government for the selection of Government offi-
cials in 1924.
A) Staff Selection Commission
B) Public Service Commission
C) Staff Selection Board
D) Provincial Staff Recruitment Board

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15. Choose the correct answer about the Devadasi system :
I. Dr. Muthulakshmi dedicated herself for the cause of abolishing this practice.
II. She was the first woman doctor in India.
III. She proposed the bill in 1945.
A) Only I and II B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III

16. Choose the correct answer about Hindu Widow's Remarriage Act, 1856:
A) Female Infanticide B) Abolition of Sati
C) Permitted widow remarriage D) Age at marriage raised

17. Maintenance and Welfare of parents and senior citizens act was passed in which year
A) 2005 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2017

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. Match the following:
Book Lines
(a) Kurinchipattu 1. 103
(b) Mullaipattu 2. 261
(c) Nedunalvaadai 3. 583
(d) Malaipadukadaam 4. 188
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 1 2 3 4

2. Who authored the book,

"The Tamils-Eighteen Hundred Years ago"?
A) K.K. Pillai B) K.S. Srinivasa Pillai
C) Kanakasabhai Pillai D) Bavanandham Pillai

3. Match the following:

List I List II
(a) Irattaiyarkal 1. Kanthar Anthaadhi
(b) Kachiyappa Munivar 2. Thiruvaanaikka Ula
(c) Kaalamega Pulavar 3. Thillai Kalambagam
(d) ArunakiriNathar 4. Thanigai Puranam
a b c d
A) 1 4 3 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 3 2 4 1
D) 2 3 1 4

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UNIT – 8
4. "One Rupee Padiarisi Thittam" was implemented in______and cities.
A) Madras and Coimbatore B) Madras and Madurai
C) Madras and Tanjore D) Madras and Salem

5. The Maharaja of Travancore issued the Temple Entry proclamation as a result of______
A) Champaron Satyagraha B) Bardoli Satyagraha
C) Channar Revolt D) Vaikom Satyagraha

6. The Third Self Respect Movement conference was held at ____

A) Chengalpat B) Erode C)Virudunagar D) Coimbatore

7. The first conference of justice party was held at _______

A) Coimbatore B) Kadappai C) Vijayavada D) Tirunelveli

8. What does the Kural reveals?

Arulennum Anpeen Kuzhavi Porulennum
Selvach Cheviliyaal Untu
A) Mercy - Mother; Love - Infant; Wealth - Bounteous Nurse
B) Love - Mother; Mercy – Infant; Wealth - Bounteous Nurse
C) Mercy – Mother; Wealth - Infant; Love - Bounteous Nurse
D) Love - Mother; Wealth - Infant; Mercy - Bounteous Nurse

9. Under what part does the Thirukkural contains the experience of exploring the pleasures and
practices of worldly life?
A) Arathuppal B) Porutpal C) Kamathuppal D) Paayirappirivu

10. Who according Valluvar, though a person might be sharp as a sword and intelligent; if he does not
possess humaneness, he is as good as_____
A) Animal (Vilangu) B) Plant (Chedi) C) Tree (Maram D) Snake (Paambu

11. "Porutthal Irappinai enrum......

……………………..
The above Thirukkural tells us what to do with the mistakes others make in life?
(i) Tolerance of the faults of others
(ii) Forgetting the mistakes of others
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (i) and (ii) D)Noneof the above

12. Which is the first children‘s Magazine published in Tamil?

A) Bala Vinodhini B) Gokulam C)Bala Deepigai D) Ambulimama

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13. Who is the protagonist of the epic "Thembaavani‖?
A) Joseph B) Peter C) Jesus D) Vincent

14. Archaeology through literary evidence confirms the presence of a 'Roman Factory' in the neigh-
bourhood of Pondicherry during the first century A.D. and where was it located?
A) Arikkamedu B) Poombuhar C) Mahabalipuram D) Kodumanal

15. Name the ruler who gave 1,600,000 gold coins to Kadiyalur Rudran Kannanar for his poem Patti-
napalai?
A) Cheran Senguttuvan B) Karikalan
C) Malaiyaman D) Nedunjeral Adan

16. Vaikom Satyagraha was an agitation to demand

A) Right to build a temple for non-brahmins
B) Right to entry of temple for non-brahmins
C) Right to vote
D) To oust the Brahmins out of Temple

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per-II
1. Adichchanallur site was first excavated by
A) John Marshall B) Andew Jagor C) Bruce Foote D) Cunning Ham

2. What does the word 'Sangam' denotes?

A) Assembly of Elders B) Assembly of Artists
C) Assembly of Tamil Poets D) Assembly of Tamil Kings

3. On 2nd November 1927, the Manimegalai Sangam, a Devadasi Women's Association organised
a meeting at Coimbatore under the presidentship of________
A) Choudri V. Konambal B) Dr. Muthulakshmi
C) Mrs. Annamma Raja D) Mrs. Annie Besant

4. Who among the following personalities introduced the 'Self Respect Marriage Protection Act' in
1968?
A) Perarignar Anna B) Rajaji C) Bhaktavatchalam D) Kamarajar

5. C.N. Annadurai join the Justice Party in________

A)1925 A.D. B) 1935 A.D. C) 1940 A.D. D)1947 A.D.
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6. Why EVR Periyar started Self-respect movement?
A) To abolish caste system B) To abolish religious
C) To abolish Brahmanism D) To abolish Congress

7. As what animal should we become while doing a work; from the Kural "Kokoka Koombum Paru-
vathu‖?
A) Crane B) Turtle C) Rabbit D) Ant

8. What are the vices of the King according to Thirukkural that makes the King not liked or offen-
sive?
A) Unwanted Pleasure B) False honor
C) Stinginess D) All three

9. True saints need not show so by their outward appearance, if they abstain from things that are
universely considered wrong would automatically lead them to Sainthood State the Kural with
this meaning.
A) Vaanuyar Thotram Evanseyyum Thannenjam Thaanari Kutrap Patin.
B) Purangundri Kantanaiya Renum Akagundri Mukkir Kariyaar Utaiththu.
C) Manaththadhu Maasaaka Maantaar Neeraati Maraindhozhukku Manthar Palar.
D) Mazhiththalum Neettalum Ventaa Ulakam Pazhiththathu Ozhiththu Vidin.

10. What action is greater than the world itself?

A Timely help B) Help in anticipation of benefit
C) Assistance in a timely manner D) Useful help

11. Who wrote the drama titled ―Yaarukkum Vetkamillai‖?

A) Mouli B) Crazy Mohan C) Cho. D) S.V. Sekar

12. Which of the Azhwar is very much involved in Ramavataar?

A) Kulasekarar
B)Periyalwaar
C) Aandaal
D) Thirumazhisaiyalwaar

13. Who is the author of "Mullai Paattu"?

A) Nallanthuvanaar B) Nathathathanaar
C) Nakeerar D) Napboothanaar

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14. Match the following:
(i) Nazhigai Vattil 1. Smaller measure
(ii) Nazhi 2. Larger Cubic content
(iii) Ambaram 3. Measuring horse gram
(iv) Padhakku 4. Hour gram
i ii iii iv
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 1 2 4 3

15. Match the following:

Association Party Year of the formation/ Establishment
i) Madras Dravidian Association 1.1916
ii) Self Respect Movement 2.1925
iii) South Indian Liberal Federation 3. 1944
iv) Dravida Kazhagam 4. 1912
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 2 4 1 3

16. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched by V.O. Chidambaranar at Thoothukudi.
He purchased two ships _______and and plied them between ______and________.
(A) Galia and Lavo; Thoothukudi and Colombo
(B) Tania and Galia; Thoothukudi and Burma
(C) Tania and Lavo; Poombhukar and Burma
(D) Galia and Tania; Thoothukudi and Indonesia

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. With none to console, tears of hapless citizens will
A) ruin the country
B) kill human beings
C)destroy the wealth
D) reduce strength

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UNIT – 8
2. Match the following
Books Special Titles
a) Tirumurukatruppadai -1. Malaipadukadaam
b) Kootharatrupadai -2. Nenjaatrupadai
c) Agananooru -3. Pulavaraatrupadai
d) Mullaipattu - 4. Nedunthogai
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 2 3 4

3. Match the following

a) Sirupanjamoolam -1. Epic Literature
b) Kudumpa Vilakku -2. Sangam Literature
c) Seevaga Sinthamani -3. Moral Literature
d) The Kalithokai - 4. Contemporary Literature
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 1 2 3

4. To what is the Humane Quality of person compared in Thirukkural as :

"Maandhar Ullathin Uyarvu''
A) Vellathanaiya Malar Neetam B) Kadalin Anna Aazham
C) Vanathalavu Uyarvu D) Nilathai Pondra Parappu

5. Choose the correct answer:

1. Pagalvellum Kookaiyai Kakkai
2. Nedum Punalul Vellum Mudhalai
3. Peelipei Sagadum Achchirum
4. Kaalal Kalarin Nariyadum
A) 1 and 2 Kaalam Arithal; 3-Idam Arithal; 4-Valiyarithal
B) 1-Kaalam Arithal; 2 and 4 -Idam Arithal; 3-Valiyarithal
C) 1-Kaalam Arithal; 2 and 3-Idam Arithal; 4-Valiyarithal
D) 1 and 4 Kaalam Arithal; 2-Idam Arithal; 3-Valiyarithal

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UNIT – 8
6. How did Seethalai Sathanaar say to Ilango Adigal after he had narrated the story of Kovalan and
Kannagi?
A) Neerae Adigal Aruluga B) Aruluga Adigal Neerae
C) Neerae Aruluga Adigal D) Adigal Neerae Aruluga

7. "It is an indubitable fact that the South Indian Brahmi epigraphs are all associated with the
Buddhists... Little wonder therefore that the inscriptions are dominated by Prakrit element." Who
said this?
A) Dr. K.A. Nilakanta Sastri B) N.P. Chakravarti
C) Dr. K.K. Pillay D) Dr. T.V. Mahalingam

8. Which book is referred to as 'Porutkalavai Nool"?

A) Padhitrupathu B) Natrinai C) Iyngurunooru D) Paripaadal

9. How many chapters are there in the section of virtue in Thirukkural (Arathupal)?
A) 38 B) 48 C) 58 D) 68

10. Which novel of Jeyaganthan is centered on Oedipus Complex?

A) Sila Nerangalil Sila Manithargal B) Valkai Alaikirathu
C) Rishimoolam D) Samugam Yenbathu Naaluper

11. Match correctly the Authors with their works

(i) E.V.R. Periyar 1. Kamalambal Charithiram
(ii) C.N. Annadurai 2. Padmavathi Charithiram
(iii) Madavaiya 3. Kudiyarasu
(iv) Rajam Aiyar 4. Velaikkari
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 3 4 2 1

12. When and where Periyar came out of congress and stated the Salt Respect Movement?
A) Kanchipuram - 1925
B) Chengalpet - 1929
C) Erode - 1930
D) Viruthunagar - 1937

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UNIT – 8
13. Where did the Brahmi inscription mentioning musical svaras belong to the 2nd century A.D. has
been discovered?
A) Arachalur B) Arikkamedu C) Adichanallur D) Vangiri

14. Which one is not matching correctly?

(i) Kurinji - Punarthal
(ii) Mullai - Iruthal
(iii) Marudam - Udal
(iv) Neydal - Pirithal
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (iii) only D) (iv) only

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. Assertion [A]: Palai is one of the habitable regions.
Reason [R]: The people of palai domesticated animals
A) [A] and [R] are true
B) [A] is true, but [R] is false
C) [A] is false, but [R] is true
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

2. Which statements are correct as far as Justice Party was is concerned?

(i) It sought to do away with corruption in religious endowments.
(ii) Primary education was extended to depressed classes through fee concession.
(iii) Provided credit to small industries.
(iv) Claimed reservation for Muslims.
A) (i) and (iii) are correct B) (iii) and (iv) are correct
C) (i) and (ii) are correct D) (iv) only correct

3. Who appreciated Thirukkural as follows:- "Anuvai Thulaitthu Ezhkadal pugatti kurugga tharitha
kural"?
A) Kalladar B) Avvaiyaar C) Thirumoolar D) Manakkudavar

4. Identify the wrong statement about 'Aazhvaargal' from the options given.
A) 'Painthamizh Pinchendra Pachchai Pasunkondale'. In this line, Kumarakurubarar Praises Thi-
rumazhisai Aazhvaar.
B) Nammazhvaar is called Sadagobar for he won over 'Vayu' alais 'sadam'
C) Kulasegarazhvaar has written the'poem 'Kanninun'sirudhambu' on Nammazhvaar.
D) Periyazhvaar is also called 'Pattabiraan'

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 TNPSC – 2023
UNIT – 8
5. Fill in the blanks :
Viththum Italventum kollo
A) Virundhombi Michchil Misaivaan Pulam
B) Matraiyaan Sethaarul Vaikka Padum
C) Thakkarkku Velaanmai Seithar Poruttu
D) Sakkadum Viththagarkku Kallal Aridhu

6. Reason and Assertion type.

Assertion [A]: VeluNachiyar is called India's 'Joan of Arc'
Reason [R]: She was a great warrior who fought against British
A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false [R] is true (C)
D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

7. Who wrote the literature piece titled "Thirukkural Neethi Ilakkiyam" which has also won the Sahi-
thya Akademy Award?
A) Ka.tha. Thirunavukkarasu B) V. C. Kulandaiswamy
C) K. A. Neelakanda Sasthri D) A. Sa. Gnanasambandan

8. Assertion and Reasoning questions:

Assertion [A]: Women's liberation was one of the important objectives of the Self-Respect
Movement.
Reason [R]: The Movement provided a space for women to share their ideas
A) Both [A] and [R] are wrong
B) [A] is correct but [R] is wrong
C) Both [A] and [R] are correct; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
D) Both [A] and [R] are correct, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

9. Who is the Author of "Aasarakkovai"?

A) Poothanjsenthanar B) Pullangkadanar
C) Poigaiyar D) Peruvayin Mullaiyar

10. Among the pillaitamil paruvangal which one is suitable for the age "Ammanai"?
A) 17-18 B) 19-20 C) 21-22 D) 23-24

11. Which among the following inscriptions mentioned that gold was brought from India and used for
decorative purpose?
A) Rabatak inscription B) Hathigumpha Inscription
C) Halmidi Inscription D) Chaldean Inscription

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21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES
1. Match the following :
Movement Reformers
(a) Brahmo Samaj - 1. Natesan
(b) SNDP - 2. E.V. Ramaswamy
(c) Justice party - 3. Sri Narayana Guru
(d) Self Respect movement - 4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 2 3 4 1

2. Revolutionary movement mainly focuses on

A) Adoption of new models
B) Adoption existing model
C) Reverse the current trends
D) Adoption cultural model

3. Choose the right answer among type :

Which of the following statements are true about M.S.A. Rao?
(i) He was the prominent Indian sociologists
(ii) He point out, social movements includes two characteristics are collective action and
oriented towards social change.
(iii) He started a social reform movement called the "Non-Brahmin movement".
A) (i) only B) (i) and (iii) only C) (i) and (ii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

4. Who translated the book, Thirunelveli Charithiram' into English?

A) Rhenius Iyer B) Ellis Durai C) Caldwell D) Ziegenbalg

5. Which of the following statements are true about Kattabomman?

(i) Jackson agreed to meet Kattabomman at Ramalinga Vilas in Ramanathapuram
(ii) Katatbomman was hanged by the British
(iii) He was defeated at Kalakkadu Battle
(iv) He was a brother of Velu Nachiyar
A) (iv) only correct B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
C) (iii) and (iv) are correct D) (i) and (ii) are correct

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6. Who was the founder of Kanchi Mahila Parishad in Kanjeepuram?
A) Dr. Muthulakshmi B)Smt. Parvati Devi
C) Smt. Rukmani Devi D) Smt. Valliammal

7. Which of the following is not related to Palani conspiracy?

(i) Rebels decided to attack Coimbatore
(ii) Colonel K. Macalister Launched an offensive attack
(iii) Khan-i-Jah Khan took the command of horses
(iv) The cavalry of Rani Lakshmibai took part in Palani conspiracy
A)(iv) only B) (i) and (ii) only C) (ii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

8. Choose the right answer :

Which of the following statements is true about the trade activities of ancient Tamilagam?
(i) Kaveri Pumpattinam was also known as Anuradhapuram
(ii) There were two kinds of markets such as Allangadi and Nallangadi
(iii) Yavanars had trade contracts with ancient Tamils
A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (i) and (ii) only D) (i) and (iii) only

9. Which literature describes Pasumpoon Pandiyan, the Sanga King to have had white flags flying
on his Elephants?
A) Agananooru B) Purananooru C) Kalithogai D) Paripaadal

10. Which of the following books was not written by Viramamunivar?

A) Thirukavalur Kalambakam B) Satyaveda Keerthanai
C) Annai Alungal Anthaathi D) Adaikkala Maalai

11. If morality rules the household; what are the benefits of such an household?
A) Wealth B) Makkatperu C) Fame D) Competition

12. What kind of knowledge can be learnt from 'Sirupanjamoolam'?

A) Knowledge of Maths B) Knowledge of Science
C) Knowledge of Medicine D) Knowledge of Astronomy

13. What constitutes Integrity? what are the constitutes of "Vaimai kudikku uriyana"?
A) laughter, charity, good words not condemning
B) Truth, veracity, lie, calmness
C) Hospitality, humility, self-respect, pride
D) Learnedness, duty, help, friendship

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14. Who is called as "Madhanubangi"?
A) Thirumoolar B) Thirunavukkarasar
C) Thirugnanasambandar D) Thiruvalluvar

15. Who said "Annaium Pithavum Munari Theivam"?

A) Avvaiyaar B) Athi Veerarama Pandiar
C) Ulaganathar D) Bharathiar

16. Which of the following statement about Ayothidasa panditar true?

(i) He founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Shabha
(ii) He established Sakya Buddhist Society
(iii) He joined servants of untouchables society
(iv) He published 'One Paise Tamilan' News Paper
A) (i) and (iv) B) (i) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iv) D) (iii) and (iv)

17. It was at this state that the communalists declared that muslims 'Muslim culture' and Islam and
Hindus, 'Hindu culture' and Hinduism were in danger of being suppressed and exterminated. It
was also at this stage that both the Muslim and Hindu Communalists put forward the theory that
Muslims and Hindu constituted separate nations whose mutual antagonism was permanent and ir-
resolvable. The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha after 1937 and the Rashtriya Swayam-
sevak Sangh (RSS) increasingly veered towards exteme or Fascistic communalists.
Which one of the following is best implied in the passage.
A) Separate nations for Hindus and Muslims were felt
B) The Muslim League; Hindu Mahasabha and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak sangh were re-
sponsible for the extreme communalism
C) Communalists of both groups suspected each other for the development of communism
D) People of both religions realized that country and national welfare. were greater than religion

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. Match the following.
A) Thiru. V. Kalyanasundaram 1. National School
B) E.V.R. Periyar 2. Saiva Siddhanta school
C) V.V. Subramaniyam Aiyar 3. Kudi Arasu
D) Sami Venkatachalam 4. Navasakthi
a b c d
A) 4 1 2 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2

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2. Match the %llowing :
A) V.O. Chidambaram -1. Alagammai AsiriyaVirutham
B) Bharathi - 2. Sangoli
C) Namakkal Kavignar Ramalingam - 3. Swadeshi Navigation company
D) Kavimani Desiga Vinayagam - 4. Bala Bharat
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 1 4 3

3. From 1757 to 1833 India witnessed________

1. Different regions in India began to draw closer
2. Old hierarchy of Social groups began to disintegrate
3. The caste system tended to relax
4. Village economy lost its character of self-sufficiency and isolation
A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) All the above

4. Which songs of a particular Tinai are not found in Purananooru?

A) Padaan Tinai B) Kanchi Tinai C) Vaagaith Tinai D) Uzhignai Tinai

5. Which archeological excavation illustrates the extent and richness of themaritime trade be-
tween Tamil Nadu and Rome?
A) Keezhadi B) Arikkamedu C) Mauriyakudi D)Sengalpattu

6. Match the following.

A) Ninaivuppathai 1. Aathavan
B) Kakitha Malargal 2. Vannanilavan
C) Thandira Bhoomi 3. Nagulan
D) Kadalpurathil 4. Indira Parthasarathy
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 1 4 3 2
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 2 4 3 1

7. What does the following Kural depict?

―Kudambai thaniththozhiya Pul paranthatrae‖
A) Happiness is transient B) Youth is transient
C) Wealth is transient D) Life is transient

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UNIT – 8
8. Pick out the correct pair from the following.
1. Anbalippu — Ku. Azhagirisamy
2. Kadavulum Kandasamy Pillaiyum — Pudhumai Pithan
3. Yugasanthi — Jeyakanthan
4. Thirudan Magan Thirudan — Kalki
A) 1, 3, 4 alone is correct B) 3 and 4 alone is correct
C) None of the above is correct D) 1,2,3,4 all are correct

9. Rani Velunachiyar lived under the protection of Gopala Nayakkar _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ atnear Din-
dugal.
A) Kannivadi B) Thandikkudi C) Virupachi D) Aayakkudi

10. Who lived in the name of ―Dharmasenar‖?

A) Thirugnana Sambanthar B) Thirunavukkarasar
C) Sundarar D) Manickavasagar

11. From which book is the line ―Kutram paarkin Sutram Illai‖ is taken?
A) Aathi Soodi B) Thirukkural C) Proverb D) Kondraiventhan

12. Assertion [A]: Non-Brahmins with minimum educational qualification should be provided with em-
ployment opportunity and be appointed in all government services.
Reason [R]: Communal Representation Decree was passed in the year 1921.
A. [A] is True [R] is False
B. Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C. [A] is False, [R] is True
D. Both [A] and [R] are True, but [R] is not the correct explanationof [A]

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. What can be said about the oral traditions that in the Tamil Society?
(i) Paan legacy
(ii) Paanar Legacy
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i) and (ii) D) None of the above

2. Fill in the blanks:

Vetchi niraikavardhal meettal karandhaiyam vatkar melselvadu ________________ yarn, utka-
thu edhinoondral ____________.
A) Vanchi, Kanchi B) Thumbai, Vagai C) Nochi, Uzhignai D) Mullai, Palai

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3. ―If does your dress does slip‖.The hands do rush in to help so does ___________Should be says
Thiruvalluvar.
A) Love (Anbu) B) Friendship (Natpu)
C) Character (Panbu) D) Compassion (Karunai)

4. Fill in the blanks:

Thalla vilaiyoolum thakkarum Thazhvilaa selvarum Servathu ___________.
Pal Kuzhuvam Paazhseyum uttpagaiyum vendhalaikkum kol kurumbum illathu__________
A) Nagaram, Naadu B) Naadu, Naadu
C) Nagaram, Nagaram D) Naadu, Nagaram

5. Who or what adds vitality to the fundamental worldly life?

A) King B) Paddy C) Water D) All three;

6. Which one of the following was educational centre(s) under the cholas?
1. Ennayiram 2. Thirubhuvanam 3. Thirumukkudal 4. Thiruvetriyur
A) 1,2 only B) 2,3 only C) 4 only D) All the above

7. Name the text which is also called as scripture of Agriculture (Velaan Vedam)
A) Thirukadugam B) Elaathi C) Iniyavai Narpathu D) Naladiyar

8. According to Thiruvalluvar when does one‘s body not require medicines?

A) By eating limited food
B) By eating cooked food only
C) By eating food that your body accepts
D) By eating only after proper digestion of food

9. Which novel by Indira Parthsarathy was based on the Venmani incident?

A) Kaala vellam B) Pulliya marathon kathai
C) Nithiya kanni D) Kuruthipunal

10. ________organised the Madras Youth league, a Pro-congress Organisation

A) M. Mohamed Aysha Gani B) K. Angachiammal
C) Krishnabhai Nimbkar D) T.V. Janaki Ammal

11. E.V.R. Periyar started Dravida Kazhagam in

A) 1944 B) 1945 C) 1947 D) 1951

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12. Who took measures to discontinue the teaching of Hindi in Government schools in Tamil Nadu?
A) C.N. Annadurai B) Ms.J.Jayalalithaa
C) M.Karunanidhi D) M.G.Ramachandran

13. Which one of the following statements is/are correct regarding Adichanallur Excavation?
1) Adichanallur locates in Tirunelveli District
2) Robert Bruce Foote mode excavation in Adichanallur
3) The iron spear and bronze cock flag found in Adichanallur
4) The gold lids found in Adichanallur
A) (1) only B) (2) only C) (1), (2), (3) only D) (1), (2), (3), (4)

14. The Book entitled Chatur Dandi Prakasika was written by__________.
A) Venkata Mukhi B) Shama Sastriyar
C) Muthusamy Dikshitar D) Vedanayakam Pillai

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 TNPSC – 2023
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UNIT- 9 DEVELOPMENT ADMINISTRATION IN TAMIL NADU - Q. 97
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES – 2023
1. Innuyir Kaapoom – Nammai Kaakkum 48 scheme was launched in Tamil Nadu with the aim of
A) Reducing death due to cancer
B) Reducing death due to road accidents
C) Reducing death due to corona
D) Reducing death due to mal nutrition

2. The concept of social justice arose in the

A) 16th Century B) 18th Century C) 19th Century D) 21st Century

3. Who has termed justice as fairness?

A) Samuel Freeman B) Thomas Mertens
C) Robert K.Merton D) John Rawls

4. In Tamil Nadu the lowest sex ration has recorded in the district of
A) Vellore B) Cuddalore C) Nilgiri D) Dharmapuri

5. Makkalai Thedi Maruthuvam (Health care serices at people‘s doorsteps) was first launched in
which of Tamil Nadu?
A) Dharmapuri B) Madurai C) Krisnagiri D) Theni

6. Tamil Nadu is placed _________ in health index as per the NITI AAYOG report (2018)
A) 1st B) 8th C) 5th D) 3rd

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. Rehabilitation of victims of alcoholism and Rehabilitation of beggars are the responsibility of
A) Department of Human Resource
B) Department of Labour and Employment
C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D) None

2. Which district in Tamil Nadu has the lowest child sex ratio as per the census in 2011?
A) Madurai B) Theni C) Vellore D) Cuddalore

3. Among the following states, which State has literacy rate (2011) higher than that of the National Average.
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu D) Kerala

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 TNPSC – 2023
UNIT – 9
4. Which of the following, our Honourable Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu Thiru M.K.Stalin on behalf of the In-
dustries Department on 16.11.2021, introduced a new high grade cement.
A) Dalmia Cement B) Maha Cement C) Valimai Cement D) Ramco Cement

5. Which of the following organization calculates Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India?
A) National Statistical Office B) State Statistical Office
C) Indian Statistical Office D) Reserve bank of india

6. __________ was the major sources of irrigation in Tamil Nadu during 2020-21
A) Canal Irrigation B) Tank Irrigation
C) Tube well Irrigation D) Open well Irrigation

7. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

(i) Mettur - Hydro electric project
(ii) Neyveli - Thermal project
(iii) Kalpakkam - Ceramics
(iv) Tirupur - Leather products
A) (i) only correct B) (i) and (ii) are correct
C) (i) and (iii) are correct D) (iii) and (iv) are correct

8. The Cradle Baby Scheme was launched in ____________ by the Government of Tamil Nadu.
A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1993 D) 1994

9. Which of the following is responsible for checking genuiness of community certificates?

A) VAO alone B) Tahsildar alone
C) District Employment Office D) District level Vigilance Committee

03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU FISHERIES

SUBORDINATE SERVICE – 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Tamil Virtual University (TVU) was renamed in the year 2010 as
A) Tamil Virtual Education B) Tamil Virtual Universe
C) Tamil Virtual Literacy D) Tamil Virtual Academy

2. ___________ State is the largest producer of wind energy in India as per

A) Tamil Nadu B) Kerala
C) Karnataka D) Gujarat

3. The level of total food grains production in Tamil Nadu during 2021-22
A) 125 (lakh metric tones) B) 150 (lakh metric tones)
C) 160 (lakh metric tones) D) 110 (lahk metric tones)

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 TNPSC – 2023
UNIT – 9
4. What is the objective / objectives of ―Exclusive Budget for Agriculture‖
(1) To encourage farming as an enterprising and remunerative activity
(2) To increase the welfare of farmers in Tamil Nadu
(3) To curb the mechanization in Agriculture
A) (i) only B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (ii) only D) (i) and (iii) only

5. NFHS-5 2019-21 Indian Report says, the Birth weight of a child less than 2.5 kg regardless of ges-
tational age is called
A) High Birth weight B) Moderate birth weight
C) Standard Birth weight D) Low birth weight

6. Social Justice day celebration in Tamil Nadu on

A) 20 February B) 21 February C) 22 February D) 25 February

7. _____________ protection scheme is aimed at preventing gender discrimination by empowering

and protecting right of girl children through direct investment from government.
A) Cradle Bady B) Girl child literary
C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao D) Girl Child

8. According to 2011census the following district possess highest literacy rate in Tamil Nadu.
A) Namakkal B) Coimbatore
C) Kanniyakumari D) Tirupur

9. Which district lags behind according to the Human Welfare and Development Index?
A) Ariyalur B) Perambalur C) Villupuram D) Theni

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE - 2023

1. The term ‗Human Resource‘ refers to.

A) Investment on poor people
B) Expenditure on agriculture.
C) Investment on assets
D) Collective abilities of people.

2. _________ is not an industrial developing Agency.

A) TIDCO B) SIDCO C) MEPG D) SIPCOT

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 TNPSC – 2023
UNIT – 9
3. Match correctly the expenditure with their corresponding items:
e) Captial expenditure 1. Energy and Transport development.
f) Revenue expenditure 2. Bridges and Hospitals construction.
g) Sectoral expenditure 3. Salaries Pension and Interest.
h) Deferred expenditure 4. Advance payment for goods and services
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 4 1 2 3

4. Which district of Tamil nadu has not yet been bifurcated?

A) Vellore B) Kanchipuram C) Kanyakumari D) Dharmapuri

5. Expansion for TNUHP

A) TamilNadu Urban Health Care project.
B) TamilNadu Urban Health programme.
C) TamilNadu Under Helath Programme.
D) Tamil Nadu Urban Helath proposal

6. Who established the Tamilarasu party in the year 1947 for the welfare of the Tamil people?
A) Ma. Pae. Sivangnanam B) S.B.Athithan.
C) E.V.K. Sampath D) Kannadasan

7. TamilNadu women welfare and Development Corporation was established in the year?
A) 1986 B) 1987 C) 1988 D) 1989

8. Which one of the following employment schemes is the most momentous to strengthen the livelih-
ood resource base of rural poor?
A) Atmanirbhar Bharat.
B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
C) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana.
D) PLI Scheme (Production Linked Incentive)

9. Among the political parties of India listed below, which one of them has the Elephant as the sym-
bol?
A) National Congress party B) Communist party of India.
C) Bahujan Samaj party D) Rashtriya Janata Dal

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UNIT – 9
10. _________ is the state flower of TamilNadu.
A) Jasminum grandiflorum B) Curcuma longa.
C) Gossypium arboreum D) Gloriosa superba

11. The density of population in TamilNadu as per 2011 census.

A) 450 Persons per Sq.Km B) 455 persons per Sq.Km
C) 550 persons per Sq. Km D) 555 persons per Sq. km

12. _______ district tops Human Development Index 2017 in Tamilnadu.

A) Madurai B) Kanyakumari C) Chennai D) Trichy

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE – 2023

1. __________ is the highest food grain producing district in Tamil Nadu as per 2020 – 21.
A) Villupuram District B) Thanjavur District
C) Salem District D) Madurai District

2. The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was launched on 15 th August
1983 with the objective of
A) Generating gainful employment and Creating productive assets in rural areas.
B) To Strengthen the female education in rural areas.
C) To generate employment opportunities for rural youth.
D) To maximize income of the small and marginal farmers.

3. The National programme of Nutritional support to primary Education (NP-NSPE) was launched on.
A)15th August 1995 B) 16th August 1995. C) 15th July 1995 D) 16th July 1995

4. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Digital India Initiatives?

A) Digitally transformed services for business.
B) Making financial transactions electronic and cashless.
C) Seamless integration of all government services online.
D) Reduced cost of online transactions and services.

5. Which one of the following is not a trait of the caste system?

A) Division of society into segments.
B) Based on a hierarchical system.
C) Allows free movements with other layers.
D) Based on ascribed status.

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6. Expansion for TNRRIS:
A) Tamil Nadu Rural Road Investment Scheme.
B) Tamil Nadu Rural Road Improvement Scheme.
C) Tamil Nadu Rural Reform Introduction Scheme.
D) Tamil Nadu Rural Reform Investment Scheme.

7. Among these, Socio – economic factor responsible for high birth rate in India is.
A) Low literacy rate B) Large scale poverty
C) Dowry system D) Unemployment

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE – 2023
1. ____________ district is not with high human development Index
A) Kanyakumari B) Tiruneveli C) Thoothukudi D) Madurai

2. Which of the following are correctly paired?

1. GSDP - Government Special District Programme
2. GSVA - Gross State Value Added
3. RKVY - Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
4. PMKSY - Prime Minister Krishi Suraksha Yojana
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct

3. As per 2020-21 Statistics, the largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu comes from
A) Agriculture B) Industry C) Mining D) Services

4. ‗ASHA‘ stands for

A) Accredited social Health Activist B) Accredited Self Help Activities
C) Ayush Sanitation and Hygiene Activities D) Association for Social Health Activities

5. Find the Chief Minister who introduced five eggs/bananas per week with nutritious noon meal
scheme.
A) Kamaraj B) Rajaji C) Anna D) Karunanithi

6. Tamil Nadu is rich in

A) Forest resources B) Human resources
C) Mineral resources D) Water resources

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 TNPSC – 2023
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7. Assertion [A]: Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
Reason [R]: The state has very high quality of off- shore wind energy.
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] does not explain [A]
C) [A] is true but [R] is false
D) [A] is false but [R] is true

8. Match the following

Programmes Year
a) National Rural Health Mission 1. 1992
b) National AIDS Control Programme 2. 2019
c) The National Medical Commission Act 3. 1939
d) TamilNadu Public Health Act 4. 2005
a b c d
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 4 1 2 3

9. Who is the founder of Satya Shodak Samaj?

A) Gandhi B) Ambedkar
C) Jyotirao Phule D) Raja Ram Mohan

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE – 2023
1. Which Government has established the Tamil Nadu Slum Clearance Board as an autonomous
body?
A) DMK B) AIADMK C) Janata Party D) Congress

2. Match the following:

A) Women‘s Liberation Movement (1) Utopian Movement
B) Indian National Freedom Movement (2) Reform Movement
C) Anti-Hindi Movement (3) Revolutionary Movement
D) Hare Krishna Movement (4) Resistance Movements
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 4 1 3 2
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3. Match the following Industry Clusters in Tamil Nadu.
A) Thiruchengode (1) Sago
B) Salem (2) Coah - Building
C) Rajapalayam (3) Bore – well drilling
D) Karur (4) Surgical cotton products
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 3 2 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 1 4 3

4. According to NITI Aayog Health Index of 2021 of Tamil Nadu Stands______ among the Indian
States.
A) First B) Third C) Second D) Eighth

5. The Government of India established the ‗National Policy of Child Labour‘ in

A) August 1987 B) August 1985 C) August 1947 D) August 1975

6. _________ Scheme to provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence,
both in Private and Public space under a roof.
A) ‗SAKTHI‘ B) „SAKHI‟ C) ‗SHANTAM‘ D) ‗SANTHOSM‘

7. E.V.R. Maniammaiyar Ninaivu Marriage. Assistanc Scheme is implemented to help.

A) Orphan girls B) Intercaste married couples
C) Widows to remarry D) Daughters of poor widows

8. Which of the following schemes was funded by World Bank?

A) Pudhu Vazhvu Scheme B) Amma Scheme
C) Cradle bady Scheme D) Meetpu scheme

9. What is the ―App‖ used for the agriculturist to disseminating technological information?
A) Kavalan B) Uzhavan C) Farmer D) Vellalar

10. ________ is the Infant Mortality rate of (per thousand live births) Tamil Nadu in the year 2018
A) 15 B) 14 C) 34 D) 44

11. The aim of Operation Digital Board (ODB) is

A) To provide two smart classrooms for every secondary schools in all states by March
2023
B) To stop smart classrooms in all states
C) To provide smart classrooms by March 2025
D) To provide two smart classrooms in Colleges

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12. Why the E-challan system introduced by the Tamil Nadu home department?
A) To increase the revenue
B) To Monitor and reduce the traffic violations
C) To monitor and Control the law and order
D) To reduce the crime rate

13. B.M. Birla Planetarium, Periyar Science and Technology is located in

A) Tanjavur B) Madurai C) Dindigul D) Chennai

14. The town ―Sivakasi‖ was fondly called as ―Little Japan‖ by

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Indira Gandhi D) Moraji Desai

15. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

A) Magnesite - Salem
B) Molybdenum - Karadikuttam
C) Iron Ore - Kajamalai
D) Lignite - Kaniyakumari

16. Where does the ―Export promotion Industrial Park‖ is located in Tamilnadu?
A) Gummidipoondi B) Chengalpet
C) Tambaram D) Ambattur

17. ________ district is Tamil Nadu has the lowest child sex ratio in 2011 census.
A) Theni B) Cuddalore C) Dharmapuri D) Ariyalur

18. Home Based Care for young child (HBYC) was implemented in TamilNadu, in the following Dis-
tricts under Phase I?
A) Ramanathapuram & Chennai B) Virudhunagar & Chennai
C) Ramanathapuram & Salem D) Virudhunagar & Ramanathapuram

19. The percentage of reservation given to Backward class Muslims is ______ is TamilNadu
A) 7 B) 5.5 C) 6 D) 3.5

20. Which was the first state to establish Third Gender Welfare Board?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka C) Kerala D) Vellalar

21. Indices of Human Development Index are:

(i) Income (ii) Education (iii) Industrial (iv) Health
(v) Infrastructure
A) (iii), (iv), (v) B) (ii), (iii), (iv) C) (i), (ii), (iii) D) (i), (ii), (iv)
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22. Three –tier health infrastructure of Tamilnadu comprise
A) Hospitals, Primary Health Centres, Community Health Centres
B) Industries, Hospitals, Schools
C) Colleges, Hospitals, Banks
D) Hospitals, Medicals colleges, Banks

23. How is IMR (Infant Mortality Ratio) is calculated?

A) Birth of 100 Child and number of deaths in below 1 year in a particular period of time
B) Birth of 1000 Child and number of deaths in below 1 year in a particular period of time
C) Birth of 2000 child and number of deaths in below 1 year in a particular period of time
D) Birth of 3000 child and number of deaths in below 1 year in a particular period of time

24. Which of the following dimensions are used in the concept of multidimensional poverty index?
(i) Health (ii) Education (iii) Living standards (iv) Income levels
A) (ii) and (iv) B) (i),(ii) and (iii) only
C) (ii),(iii) and (iv) only D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

25. Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS) wa launched in

A) 1970 B) 1971 C) 1972 D) 1973

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE – 2023
1. Who among the following is/are the beneficiaries of the Education at Home Scheme launched by
the Government of Tamil Nadu?
i) Students studying in Class XI to XII. ii) Students studying in Class IX to X.
iii) Students studying in Class I to VIII. IV) Students studying in pre school.
A) I only B) I and iii only C) iii only D) iv only

2. Which among the following statements is not associated with women in Engineering, Science and
Technology (WEST) initiative?
A) The WEST initiative is launched by ministry of women and child development.
B) WEST initiative will provide training for women with Science and Technology Backgrounds.
C) WEST is launched to inspire girls and women to seek and remain in engineering, Science and
technology related education and career.
D) Under WEST a digital Consortium for discussion has been established.

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3. Which among the following is/are correctly paired?
I) Mission Vatsalya - Comphrehensive rehabilitation of transgender persons.
II) Mission Shakti - Provision of citizen centric life cycle support to women.
III) Mission Poshan 2.0 - Addressing the challenges of malnutrition in children and
girls.
IV) Smile Scheme - Comprehensive rehabilitation of persons engaged in begging
A) I and III only B) I,II and IV only
C) II,III and IV only D) I,III and IV only

4. Which one of the following is launched for a unified citizen- centric llifecycle support for women
and to unshackle women as they progress through various stages of their life?
A) Mission Vatsalya B) Mission Shakti
C) Mission Saksham D) Mission Poshan 2.0

5. Identify among the following statements that is/are true about political parties in modern democrat-
ic states?
1. Conservative parties believe in status –quo.
2. Political parties are classified as per India ideologies.
3. In India, Communist party of India (CPI) and Communist part of India (Marxist) CPI(M) are ex-
amples of rightist parties.
4. Radical parties are rightist Conservatives parties are leftist and liberal parties are centrist.

6. What is the full form of CERC?

A) Customer Education and Research Centre.
B) Consumer Education and Research Centre.
C) Consumer Education and Relief Centre.
D) Customer Education and Retail Centre.

7. I) Tamil Nadu slum Clearance Board set up to improve the lives of the poor.
ii) It is now known as Tamil Nadu Urban Habitat Development Board.
iii) It provides housing for all in Urban areas.
Which of the above statement is/are true with regard to Tamil Nadu Slum Clearance Board?
A)I only B) ii only C) I and ii only D) ii and iii only

8. Assertion (A) : Social movements have varied in scope.

Reason (R ) : Many movements are limited to Local policies while others have been international
in their focus.
A) A is true R is false.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C) A is false, R is true.
D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

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9. Choose the right answer:
Total Fertility rate measures.
A) The number of live births occurring during the year per thousand population.
B) The total number of deaths per year per thousand population.
C) The number of women of reproductive.
D) The number of children born to women during her entire reproductive period.

10. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

I) TNSWAN - Tamil Nadu State Wide Area Network.
II) TNDRC - Tamil Nadu Disaster Reconstruction Centre.
III) TNeGA - Tamil Nadu e-Governance Agency.
IV) TNSDC - Tamil Nadu State Disaster Centre.
A) I and II B) II and III C) II and IV D) III and IV

11. Choose the right matches:

1) TANCEM - 1976
2) SIPCOT - 1965
3) TANSI - 1970
4) TIIC - 1949
A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 1 and 4 are correct.
C) 2 and 3 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct

12. How many features of the immunization programme issued by the Central Government of India on
19th March 2020 are being actively followed by the Government of Tamil Nadu?
A) 13.6 B) 9 C) 10 D) 12

13. Match correctly the socio Economic indicators of Tamil Nadu and their corresponding contribution
as per 2011 Census:
Economic Indicators Tamil Nadu (2011 Census)
a) Decaded Growth rate 1. 48.40
b) Sex ratio 2. 946
c) Child 0-6 years (Female per 1000 males) 3. 996
d) Urban Population percentage 4. 15.61
e) a b c d
f) A) 3 2 1 4
g) B) 4 1 3 2
h) C) 4 3 2 1
i) D) 4 2 3 1

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14. Who is the author of the book ―Social movements in India‖?
A) T.K. OOman B) M.S.A.Rao C) M.N. Srinivas D) Ram Ahuja.

15. I) In April 2008, Tamil Nadu Transgender Welfare Board was formed as the nodal body to address
the social protection needs of Transgender.
II) The Board addresses the social Protection needs of Transgender people such as income assis-
tance, housing, education, employment and health care.
iii) It is a platform to bring various section of the society and private sectors together to discuss
what can be done to address the basic needs of transgender community.
Which of the above statements is/are true with regard to Transgender Welfare Board?
A) I only B) I, ii only C) I, iii only D) ii, iii only

16. Which of the following are/is true with reference to the impact of social movement?
i) Social movements attempts to negotiate with state, Market and Civil Society.
ii) The outcome of the movement could be seen in terms of social, political and economic change
but not structural.
iii) The state has the power to formulate new policies or modify existing public policy as per the
demands of the Social movements.

17. Preliminary stage in the formation of social movements is related to

A) Crucial Stage B) Unrest Stage C) Final stage D) On Going Stage.

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL

PSYCHOLOGIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE - 2023
1. Which of the following is NOT a priority for Social Welfare Schemes of the Government?
A) Protection of Women B) Protection of the Aged
C) Protection of Children D) Protection of Environment

2. When was the Madras state renamed as Tamil Nadu and who was appointed as the Chief Minis-
ter of Tamil Nadu?
A) 1965 Subbarayalu Reddiyar B) 1967 Kamaraj
C) 1969 Annadurai D) 1972 Annadurai

3. According to Census 2011, _________ district of Tamilnadu has the lowest child sex ratio.
A) Ariyalur B) Cuddalore C) Madurai D) Theni.

4. Which Indian City is called as ―Detroit of Asia‖?

A) Delhi B) Mumbai C) Bangalore D) Chennai

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5. Which is not the non – Commercial energy resource of villages and towns?
A) Fuel Wood B) Agricultural wastes
C) Hydro Energy D) Animal Dung.

6. Which state has the highest percentage of Urban population in India as per 2011 census?
A) Kerala B) Tamilnadu C) Gujarat D) Maharashtra

7. Kaya kalp award is related to which field?

A) Education B) Public health care C) Sports D) Yoga

8. The Concept of __________ concentrates on deprivation in longlively knowledge and a decent

living standard of human life.
A) Gender Inequality Index (GII) B) Human Poverty Index (HPI)
C) Gender Development Index D) Human Resource Index.

9. Assertion (A) : Tamilnadu is entirely dependent on rain for recharging its water resources.
Reason (R) : The Failure of monsoon lead to acute water scarcity and Severe Drought in
Tamilnadu.
A) A is True, R is False.
B) Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false, R is True.
D) Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

10. In Tamil Nadu, The Digital Accelerator Scheme is aimed __________

A) To start Educational Institutions B) To start New Industries
C) To open number of Banks D) To eradicate Crimes

11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-

CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. The largest Mangrove forest in Tamil Nadu is located in…………… district
A) Ramanathapuram B) Nagapattinam
C) Cuddalore D) Theni

2. Which is the health scheme, comprising of Indian medicines and Homeopathy which was im-
plemented to control and prevent the Covid-19 pandemic in TamilNadu?
A) State health mission B) Arokkiyam
C) Novel Corona virus programme D) Amma clinic

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3. For tribal society, marriage is a
A) Sacrament
B) Contract
C) Both a sacrament and contract
D) Neither a sacrament nor a contract

4. In Tamilnadu which one of the following Industry is not a Union Govt. Undertaking?
A) Hindustan Photo films
B) Neyveli lignite corporation
C) Salem steel plant
D) Tamilnadu Industrial Investment Corporation Ltd.,

5. __________ is the reason why students studying class III could not read class I books
A) Quality of Education often was not up to the mark
B) Icrease in attendance
C) Parents are not Educated
D) Annual status of Education report

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Who said that ―To call woman the weaker sex is a libel: it is man‘s injustice of woman?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi.
C) Swami vivekanandar D) Savitribai phule.

2. The Government of TamilNadu announced that 2713 Government_____ will get hi-tech computer
labs.
A) Primary Schools B) Middle Schools.
C) Secondary schools D) Higher Secondary schools.

3. Choose the wrong statement about Education policy in the British Rule.
i) Divided into 4 periods.
ii) Commenced with Sir Charles Wood‘s Despatch in 1845.
iii) It is also called ― Magna Carta‖
A) Only I B) Only II C) Only I and II D) Only III.

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4. Which of the following is wrong statement?
i) Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of coffee next to Karnataka.
ii) Coffee plants are grown ony in the hills of Western Ghats.
iii) Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of Tea in India next to Assam.
A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) I and III only

5. The Sharda Act raised the minimum age marriageable for girls _________ years.
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 18

6. The kavalan SOS App was launched by which Government?

A) Government of India B) Government of TamilNadu.
C) Government of Kerala D) Government of Karnataka.

7. The Quantum of Groundnut production in Tamil Nadu is.

A) About 7 lakh tonnes B) About 11 lakh tonnes.
C) About 15 lakh tonnes D) About 21 lakh tonnes.

8. TamilNadu is the highest producer of

A) Rice and pulse B) Banana and Coconuts.
C) Coconut and ragi D) Banana and Pulses.

9. Assertion (A): The Ahobila Mutt and Many others have made distinctive contribution to the cause
of education.
Reason ( R) : The Medieval period saw the founding of many religious mutt as the cause of
education.
A) A is true but R is false.
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) A is false, R is true.
D) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-

NATE SERVICES - 2023
1. Human Development Index measures the average achievement in basic dimensions of human
development.
I) A long and healthy life as measured by life expectancy at birth.
II) Productivity as measured by energy requirements.
III) Knowledge as measured by the adult literacy rate.
IV) A decent standard of living as measured by GDP per Capita.
A) I,II and; IV B) II,III and; IV C) I,III and; IV D) I,II and; III

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2. _______ was India‘s first Woman Governor, a Political Activist, member of the Indian National
Congress and a poet.
A) Vijayalakshmi pandit B) Sarojini Naidu.
C) Muthulakshmi Reddy D) Annie Besant.

3. Which of the following is correctly matched?

I) Karur - Bus body building
II) Thoothukudi - Major Chemical producer.
III) Salem - Steel city.
IV) Erode - Automobile spare parts.
A) I and II B) II and; III C) II and; IV D) I,II and; III

4. Choose the correct match:

A) Madras Refineries Limited - 1966
B) Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited - 1962
C) Madras Fertilisers Limited - 1968
D) Ordance Factory, Tiruchirapalli - 1960

5. National Tobaco Control programme is implemented in TamilNadu, Since.

A) 2005 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2008

6. Assertion (A) : The first all women police station was setup in 1992.
Reason ( R): To specifically cater to the complaints and grievances of women.
A) A is false R is true.
B) A is true R is false.
C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct expalanation of A.
D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct expalantion of A

7. Social movement is one of the major forms of

A) Collective Behaviour B) Religious Behaviour
C) Cultural Behaviour D) Individual Behaviour

8. ______ district is not a district with low human development Index in TamilNadu.
A) Theni B) Nagapattinam C) Perambalur D) Ariyalur.

9. _______ is the female literacy rate of India according to cenusus 2011.

A) 93 B) 74 C) 82.5 D) 65.46

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14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN
EXAMINATION - 2023
1. The Department of School Education has announced that the English language lads will be setup in 6029
A) Primary Schools B) Middle Schools
C) High and Higher Secondary Schools D) Colleges

2. Assertion [A] : 1956, Midday Meal programme was introduced in schools

Reason [R] : To avoid drop-outs in schools
A) [A] is True but [R] is false
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
C) [A] is false [R] is true
C) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

3. Tamil Nadu has a coastline of _____________

A) 656 B) 1076 C) 1254 D) 1300

4. Which pair of district and waterfall is not correctly paired?

A) Dharmapuri - Hogenakkal
B) Namakkal - Agayagangai
C) Theni - Kumbakkarai
D) Coimbatore - Siruvani

5. Choose the correct answer:Education in the British rule can be divided into four periods as follow
1. Early days to 1813 2. 1813 – 1853
3. 1854 – 1920 4. 1921 -1947
A) Both 1 and 2 B) Both 1 and 3 C) Both 2 and 4 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. When was Chief Minister‘s comprehensive health insurance scheme launched?

A) 9th January 2009 B) 10th January 2009
C) 9th December 2012 D) 11th January 2012

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Tamil Nadu State Commission for women, a statutory body was constituted to deal with the cases
related to crime against women
Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. It was adopted in the year 1993
II. It consists of a chair person and 8 members
A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

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2. I. Government of India proposed a special scheme named 'Sakhi' which is a one stop cure centre.
II. Objective is to provide assistance to women affected by violence.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
A) I only B) II only
C) I and II D) None of the above

3. Tamil Nadu Backward Classes Commission has been constituted as a permanent body under ar-
ticle
A) 16 (3) B) 16 (4) C) 16 (5) D) 16 (7)

4. The free supply of sewing machine scheme in Tamilnadu is implemented in the name of Am-
maiyar.
A) Sathiyavanimuthu B) Dharmambal
C) Moovalur Ramamirtham D) Muthulakshmi Redd

5. Find out the wrong match :

a) Akali Dal - Religious base
b) Communist parties - Economic base
c) Nazi party - Racial base
d) Socialist parties - Gender base
A) (a) and (b) B) (b) only C) (c) and (d) D) (d) only

6. ______ is to accelerate the sanitation coverage in rural areas so as to comprehensively cover the
rural community.
A) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan B) National Rural Health Mission
C) Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme D) Pradhan Mantri Gramadoya Yojana

7. Janani Suraksha Yojana is a

A) Maternity protection scheme B) Free food for poor
C) Employment opportunity scheme D) Free gas scheme

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. Ahobila mutt was located in which places
A) Tanjore B) Madurai C) Srirangam D) Cochin

2. Choose the correct answer :

1. The Madras University was founded in 1857
2. It was the first university in Tamil Nadu.
3. Annamalai University was founded in Tanjore in 1929.
A) Only I B) Only II C) Only I and II D) Only III

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3. How many agro climatic zones are in Tamil Nadu?
A) Six B) Four C) Seven D) Five

4. Wild Life Protection Act was passed in the year

A) 1980 B) 1986 C) 1972 D) 1974

5. Which district was the highest sex ratio in Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census?
A) Dharmapuri B) Chennai C) Nilgiris D) Salem

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute (TRRI) is located in _______.
A) Coimbatore B) Thanjavur C) Adutthurai D) Nagapattinam

2. The following states have achieved the sustainable development goal target in maternal mortali-
ty rate during 2019-20 are
(i) Kerala (ii) Punjab (iii) Himachal Pradesh (iv) Tamil Nadu
A) (i) Only B) (ii) and (iv) C) (i) and (iv) D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

3. The state of Tamil Nadu had only ________districts at the time of its formation.
A) 13 B) 23 C) 10 D) 20

4. The foundation for the Non-Brahmin movement was laid by

A) E.V. Ramasamy
B) Mahatma Jyothirao Phule
C) Dr. Ambedkar
D) Veerasalingam Pantulu

5. In 2020-21 the overall performance of Tamil Nadu in the sustainable development was ___
A) 1 rank B) 2 rank C) 3 rank D) 4 rank 4

6. Which of the following statements about Ram Mohan Roy are True?
1. He fought against child marriage
2. He campaigned against the practice of Sati and succeeded in getting it abolished by the British
Government.
3. He opposed the Hindu system of Idolatry and cult.
4. He fought for the spread of Traditional education through the medium of Sanskrit.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B)1, 2, 4 C) 1,2,3 D) 2,3,4

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18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per-II
1. Tamil Nadu State Commission for women, a statutory body was constituted to deal with the cases
related to crime against women
Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. It was adopted in the year 1993
II. It consists of a chair person and 8 members
A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

2. I. Government of India proposed a special scheme named 'Sakhi' which is a one stop cure centre.
II. Objective is to provide assistance to women affected by violence.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
A) I only B) II only
C) I and II D) None of the above

3. Tamil Nadu Backward Classes Commission has been constituted as a permanent body under ar-
ticle
A) 16 (3) B) 16 (4) C) 16 (5) D) 16 (7)

4. The free supply of sewing machine scheme in Tamilnadu is implemented in the name of Am-
maiyar.
A) Sathiyavanimuthu B) Dharmambal
C) Moovalur Ramamirtham D) Muthulakshmi Reddy

5. Find out the wrong match :

a) Akali Dal - Religious base
b) Communist parties - Economic base
c) Nazi party - Racial base
d) Socialist parties - Gender base
A) (a) and (b) B) (b) only C) (c) and (d) D) (d) only

6. ______ is to accelerate the sanitation coverage in rural areas so as to comprehensively cover the
rural community.
A) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan
B) National Rural Health Mission
C) Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme
D) Pradhan Mantri Gramadoya Yojana

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7. Janani Suraksha Yojana is a
A) Maternity protection scheme
B) Free food for poor
C) Employment opportunity scheme
D) Free gas scheme

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. Consider the following statement about Learning Enhancement Programme's methods
(i) English Tamil Picture Dictionary (ii) Teacher Geometry Box
(iii) Story DVD (iv) Twinning of Schools
Which one of the above statement is/are true with regard to Learning Enhancement programme
methods?
A) (i), (ii) B) (i), (ii) and (iii) C) (i), (ii) and (iv) D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

2. Name the Award to the Boys and Girls who secure the first and second rank in the 12th Public
examination in each district
A) Peraringar Anna Memorial Award B) M.G. Ramachandran Memorial Award
C) M. Karunanithi Memorial Award D) J. Jeyalalitha Memorial Award

3. Chennai is the_____ largest electronic hardware manufacturing hub in India.

A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth

4. Tamilnadu e-governance Agency has been registered under _____

A) Right to Information Act B) Right to Education Act
C) Societies Act D) Companies Act

5. Match the following :

As per the 2011 census, the juvenile sex ratio in the following districts are lower than the state
average (943)
(i) Namakkal - 1. 916
(ii) Cuddalore - 2. 914
(iii) Salem - 3. 891
(iv) Ariyalur - 4. 896
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 1 3 2 4
C) 4 1 3 2
D) 3 2 1 4

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UNIT – 9
6. The first women driver who appointed for 108 Ambulance Van for the first time in the country
A) Tmt. Jeyalakshmi B) Tmt. Mahalakshmi
C) Tmt. Veeralakshmi D) Tmt. Muthulakshmi

7. The Kothari Commission (1964-66) suggested the following objectives for reforms in education
(i) Employability of education (ii) Achieve Social and National Integration
(iii) Accelerate the process of modernization (iv) Cultivate social, moral and spiritual values
Which of the above are correct?
A) (i), (iii), (iv) B) (ii), (iii), (iv) C) (i), (ii), (iv) D) (i), (ii), (iii)

8. 2019, Sahitya Akademi Award was won by Cho Dharman for his book _____which talks about
the importance of____.
A) Sool, 'Water bodies'
B) Koogai, 'Caste less ness society'
C) Dhoorvai, 'Modernization and industrialization impact'
D) Marundhu, 'Story teller's feeling'

9. Jai Shakthi Abiyan launched with the objectives :

i) to capture rain water
ii) to enhance the quality of school education
iii) to extend the creamy norms to economic backwardness
iv) for building recharge wells
v) to include the excluded
vi) to increase the enrollment ratio
A) (ii), (vi) correct B) (i), (iv) correct
C) (iii), (v) correct D)(ii), (v), (vi) correct

10. Select the variable which is not included in the calculation of composite HDI in UNDP :
A) Adjusted real GDP per capita (PPP) B) A deprivation index
C) Life expectancy index D) Educational attainment index

20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. The Government of Tamil Nadu is committed in empowering the differently-abled persons for the
reservation in employment by ______%
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

2. Tamil Nadu Urban Health Care project in implemented with the support of
A) Japan B) China C) France D)America

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UNIT – 9
3. The Human Development Index (HDI) does not take into account the following dimension is its
calculation
A) Gender Ratio B) Health Level C) Education Level D) Income Level

4. In the first general election held in 1952, the number of women candidates who were elected
was?
A) 22 B) 33 C) 2 D) 222

5. Find the correct Assertion :

Assertion [A]: Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as the textile valley of Tamil Na-
du.
Reason [R] : They contribute a major share to the state economy through textiles.
A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] explains [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true but, [R] does not explain [A]
C) [A] is true but [R] is false
D) [A] is false but [R] is true

6. In which year was the Tamil Nadu Manual workers Act passed?
A) 1982 B) 1985 C) 1992 D) 2000

7. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

(i) TACTV – Tamil Nadu Authority Cable TV Corporation Ltd.
(ii) PACCS – Primary Agricultural Co-Operative Credit Societies.
(iii) VPRCs - Village Poverty Reduction Committees.
(iv) CSCs Central Service Centres.
A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) and (iii) C) (iii) and (iv) D) (i) and (iv)

8. A social movement is generally oriented towards the purpose of

A) Social progress B) Social change
C) Social development D) Cultural change

9. ______refused remarriage and fought for an education, becoming an educationist for 35 years
during the British Raj.
A) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy B) Dr. S. Dharmambai
C) Ms. R. Lilavati D) Ramabai Ranade

10. ______is a type of social movement that aims to gradually change or improve certain aspects of
society such as education or health care.
A) Freedom Movement B) Reform Movement
C) Cultural Movement D) Historical Movement

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UNIT – 9
11. Which of the following is not a scheme for higher education under the Adi Dravidar Welfare De-
partment of Tamil Nadu?
A) Post Matric Scholarship
B) Ph. D. Scholarship
C) Post Doctoral Fellowship
D)Overseas Scholarship for Post graduate and Research

12. The recent revelation of the study conduted by oxford Economics marked several Indian cities in
top ten categories of fastest growing cities of the world. In India, the sixth fastest growing city is
A) Thiruchirappalli B) Tiruppur C) Chennai D) Madurai

13. As per the Human Development Report of 2021-2022, India's HDI was _____and ranked_____.
A) 0.633 and 132 B) 0.678 and 123 C) 0.633 and 123 D) 0.623 and 132

14. MGNREGS seeks to provide at least _______ days of guaranteed wage employment in a finan-
cial year to at least ______ members of every rural household.
A) 100 Days, 2 members B) 150 Days, 2 members
C) 150 Days, 1 member D) 100 Days, 1 member

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. Choose the correct statement :
Tamil Nadu Higher education Assurance scheme 2022 provides :
i) Financial assistance to the girls
ii) Financial assistance to the boys and girls
iii) Financial assistance to the third gender
iv) Financial assistance to the parents
A) (i) and (iv) B) (ii) and (iv) C) (i) only D) (ii) only

2. In India E-Governance was started in______State

A) New Delhi B) Kerala C) Tamil Nadu D) Karnataka

3. Which of the following is wrongly paired?

1. National Dairy Development Board - NDDB
2. National Food Development Board - NFDB
3. Indian Council of Art Research - ICAR
4. Tamil Nadu Electricity Board - TNEB
A) 1 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 4 are correct
C) 2 and 4 are correct D) 3 and 4 are correct

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UNIT – 9
4. Identify the personality :
a) She has been appointed as the "first woman Director General of Council of Scientific and Indus-
trial Research (CSIR)
b) She is an Electrochemical Scientist
A) Sellappan Nirmala
B) Nallathamby.Kalaiselvi
C) T.S. Kanaka
D) Radha Balakrishnan

5. Which one of the following is launched to promote inter-ministerial, inter-sectoral convergence to

create gender equitable and child centered legislation, policies and programmes?
A) Mission Vatsalya B) Mission Shakti
C) Mission Sambal D) Mission Samarthya

6. The main aims of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural Livelihoods Mission are
(i) To reduce poverty by enabling poor households
(ii) To develop profitable self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities
(iii) To improve income and quality of life
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (iii) and (i) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

7. EOS-04 Earth Observation Satellite was injected by India's _____rocket

A) PSLV - C53 B) PSLV – C52 C) PSLV – C51 D) PSLV – C50

8. A recently discovered fossil "Eophylica Priscastellata” from Myanmar was a

A) Butterfly B) Fern C)Flower D) Rhinoceros

9. In soil, the biodegradation process occurs quickest when the content of oxygen in soil's air is
A) higher than 0.2 mg O2/l B) higher than 2 mg O2/l
C) higher than 0.2 mg/mol D) higher than 2 mg/mol

10. Match List-I to List-II and answer using the codes given :
List-I List - II
a) Recreational Town - 1. Panaji
b) Administrative Town - 2. New Delhi
c) Industrial Town - 3. Jameshedpur
d) Religious Town - 4. Madurai
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 4 3 1
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UNIT – 9
22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE
1. Autobiography of ―Fall of Sparrow‖ was written by
A) Vineetha Menon B) Balachandran C) Laxmikanth D) Salim Ali

2. ‗Empowerment of Women‘ policy focus/s on

(i) Poverty Eradication (ii) Micro Credit
(iii) Women and Economic development
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3. (i) The study of the SNDP and the yadava movements illustrate the emergence of large ethnic
blocs on the basis of ideology through political Mobilization
(ii) These movements had well-defined ideology on the basis of identity.
Which of the statements is / are true?
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i) and (ii) D) None of the above

4. Assertion [A]: Non-Brahmins with minimum educational qualification should be provided with em-
ployment opportunity and be appointed in all government services.
Reason [R]: Communal Representation Decree was passed in the year 1921.
E. [A] is True [R] is False
F. Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
G. [A] is False, [R] is True
H. Both [A] and [R] are True, but [R] is not the correct explanationof [A]

5. Assertion [A] :The prime objective of the government is the over all Development of the tribal
community
Reason [R] : Proper and effective implementation of schemes is ofparamount importance
A) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not the correct explanation
C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
D) [A] is false but [R] is true

6. Choose the wrong matches.

1. Tamilnadu Tourism Development Corporation —1971
2. Make in India —1920
3. Mid day meal scheme — 2014
4. Old age pension —1983
A) Both 1 and 2 B) Only 3 C) Both 3 and 4 D) Both 2 and 3

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7. Which of the following is NOT the reason for the provision of reservationfor SCs and STs?
A) Right to equality B) Right to dignity
C) Right to liberty D) Right to livelihood

8. In 2017 ___________district was a top rank in Gender Inequality Index of Tamilnadu.

A) Chennai B) Namakkal C) Nilgiris D) Vellore

9. An amount of Rs.1,000/- will be deposited in the bank accounts of girl students enrolled and stu-
died in government school announced on
A) March 16, 2022 B) March 17, 2022
C) March 18, 2022 D) March 19, 2022

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. Consider the following statements about ‗vibrant villages programme‘ and choose the right
option:
A) Providing fundsfor Flood prone villages
B) Providing relief for famine affected village
C) Providing infrastructure for earth quake prone regions
D) Developing infrastructure along northern land border of the country

2. Intends to reach out to the masses and spread awareness about substance abuse through
various activities.
A) Drug Awareness Movements B) Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
C) Narcotic Awareness D) Alcohol Awareness

3. The world largest single solar power plant is located in the state of in India.
A) Kerala B) Karnataka C) Andhra Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu

4. Who introduced cradle baby scheme?

A) Arignar Anna B) M.G. Ramachandran
C) M. Karunanithi D) J. Jayalalithaa

5. The first committee report submitted for an integrated approach to health services is_______.
A) Mukerji Committee
B) Sir C.V. Raman Committee
C) Sir John Marshall committee
D) Sir Joseph Bhore Committee

6. According to NSDP, 2019-2020, Tamilnadu Occupied ___rank in per capita income.

A) Third B) Fourth C) Fifth D) Sixth

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UNIT – 9
7. The central leather research Institute is located in
A) Dindigul B) Vellore C) Erode D) Chennai

8. The main objective of Krishi Shramik Samajik Suraksha Yojana is _______.

A) to give social security benefit to agricultural labourers on hire in the age group of 18
to 60 years.
B) To ensure availability of appropriate quality of food grains
C) To give educational allowance of Rs.100 per month to each child of parents living below
poverty line.
D) To give advance loans to the poor at very low rate of interest.

9. Choose the wrong statement:

Services of Integrated child Development Scheme (ICDS) includes:
(i) To improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age group 0-6 years
(ii) To improve the health, nutrition and education of the target community
(iii) Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination.
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (i) only D) (iii) only

10. Assertion [A]: The information and communication Technology Academy of Tamilnadu (IC-
TACT) launched
Reason [R]: Helps to conduct training programme for only industries.
A) [A] is true but [R] is false
B) [R] is the exact explanation for [A]
C) Both [A] and [R] are true
D) Both [A] are [R] are false

11. Main aim of Tamil Nadu village Habitations Improvement scheme

A) Provide Electricity
B) Provide drinking water facility
C) Provide minimum basic requirement infrastructure facilities to the inhabitants
D) Overcome the uneven distribution of resources.

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APTITUDE
UNIT – 10 APTITUDE - Q.324
TNPSC - 2023 - PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
01.COMBINED CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION- III IN GROUP- III.A
SERVICES - 2023
1. The next term of the sequence 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ______?_____ is
A) 32 B) 60 C) 62 D) 64

2. If SQUARE is denoted by 1917211185, then RECTANGLE is denoted by

A) 1753201147125 B) 1853201114126 C) 1853201147125 D) 1953201147125

3. If ‗Clock‘ is related to ―Time‘, what word is related to Thermometer?

A) Heat B) Radiation C) Energy D) Temperature

4. What is the probability that leap year selected at random will contain 53 Saturdays?
A) 1/7 B) 2/7 C) 3/7 D) 4/7

5. Akash can complete a work in 3 days, whereas Radha can complete it in only 6 days. If they
work together, in how many days, can the work be completed?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

6. The Dimensions of a brick are 24 cm x 12 cm x 8 cm. How many such bricks will be required to
build a well of 20 m length, 48 cm breadth and 6 m height?
A) 25,000 B) 20,000 C) 30,000 D) 22,500

1
7. Find the compound interest for 2 2 years on Rs.4,000 at 10% p.a. if the interest is compounded
yearly
A) Rs.1,024 B) Rs.1,032 C) Rs.1,050 D) Rs.1,082

8. Find the Simple Interest on Rs.35,000 at 9% per annum for 2 years.

A) Rs.6,300 B) Rs.6,000 C) Rs.7,400 D) Rs.6,800

9. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is 3:2 Which one of the following could be the actual number
of members?
A) 16 B) 18 C) 24 D) 25

10. If 7:5 is in proportion to x: 25 then the value of x is

A) 35 B) 25 C) 175 D) 125

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APTITUDE
11. Pari needs 4 hours to complete a work. His friend yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the same
work. How long will it take to complete if they work together?
A) 2 hours 20 minutes B) 2 Hours 40 minutes
C) 2 Hours 24 minutes D) 2 Hours 44 minutes

12. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables together is
Rs.4,000. Find the total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables.
A) Rs.3,500 B) Rs.3,750 C) Rs.3,840 D) Rs.3,900

13. The next term in the sequences 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ……..?

A) 74 B) 75 C) 76 D) 82

14. The mirror image of the word ―STILL‖

A) B)
C)
D)

15. If BAY = 28 then WON=?

A) 46 B) 52 C) 67 D) 89

16. A man repays a loan of Rs. 65,000 by paying Rs.400 in the first month and then increasing the
payment by Rs. 300 every month. How long it will take for him to clear the loan?
A) 10 months B) 15 months C) 25 months D) 20 months

17. A river 2 metres deep and 45 metres wide is flowing at the rate of 3km/hr, then the amount of
water that runs into the sea per minute is
A) 3000 m3 B) 3500 m3 C) 4500 m3 D) 27000 m3

18. Find the sum in which amounts to Rs.2,662 at 10% p.a. in 3 years, compounded yearly?
A) Rs.1,500 B) Rs. 1,800 C) Rs. 2,000 D) Rs. 2,500

19. In simple Interest, if a sum of money doubles in n years then in which year it will become m
times?
A) 𝑚 B) 𝑚𝑛 C) (𝒎 − 𝟏)𝒙𝒏 D) 𝑚𝑛 − 1

20. If 15 chart papers together weigh 50 grams then the number of same type of chart in a pack of
1
2 2 kilogram is
A) 750 B) 700 C) 680 D) 720

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APTITUDE
21. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds
and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m., at what time will they
change simultaneously again?
A) 07:12 B) 12:07 C) 07:12:07 D) 07:07:12

22. ‗A‘ alone can do a piece of work in 35 days. If ‗B‘ is 40% more efficient than ‗A‘, then ‗B‘ will
finish the work in how many days?
A) 15 days B) 25 days C) 35 days D) 45 days

23. If 20% of (P+Q) = 50% of (P-Q) then find P : Q

A) 2:5 B) 3:7 C) 7:3 D) 5:2

24. If the H.C.F of 450 and 216 is expressible of the form 23x-51 then find the value of x
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

25. The are four mobile phones in a house in a house in a house. At 5 am all the four mobile phones
will ring together. Thereafter, the first one rings every 15 minutes, the second one rings every 20
minutes, the third one rings every 25 minutes and the fourth one rings every 30 minutes. At what
time, will the four mobile phones ring together again?
A) 7 O‘ Clock B) 1 O‘ Clock C) 8 O‘ Clock D) 10 O‟ Clock

02. COMBINED STATISTICAL SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN EXAMINATION - 2023

1. If a principle is getting doubled after 4 years, the calculate the rate of interest
A) 5% B) 15% C) 25% D) 35%

2. Supposing a clock takes 7 seconds to strike 7, how long does it take for the same clock to strike
10?
A) 16.5 Seconds B) 14.5 Seconds C) 12.5 Seconds D) 10.5 Seconds

3. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3:2 If the area of the field is 3456m2
find the cost of fencing the field at Rs. 3.50 per metre
A) Rs. 12,096 B) Rs. 2,016 C) Rs. 84 D) Rs.840

4. A metallic sphere of radius 16 cm is melted and recast into small spheres each of radius 2 cm.
How many small spheres can be obtained?
A) 496 B) 512 C) 672 D)
768

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APTITUDE
5. The LCM of 𝑥 3 − 𝑎3 and (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 is
A) 𝑥 3 − 𝑎3 (𝑥 + 𝑎) B) (𝑥 3 − 𝑎3 (𝑥 − 𝑎)2
C) 𝒙 − 𝒂 𝟐 (𝒙𝟐 + 𝒂𝒙 + 𝒂𝟐 ) D) 𝑥 + 𝑎 2 (𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎2 )

6. Complete the series: 1,1,1.5,3,7.5,________________

A) 11 B) 25.5 C) 22.5 D) 10.5

7. HCF of 𝑎𝑚 +1 , 𝑎𝑚 +2 , 𝑎𝑚 +3 𝑖𝑠
A) 𝑎𝑚 +3 B) 𝑎𝑚 +2 C) 𝒂𝒎+𝟏 D) 𝑎𝑚

8. A milk man has 175 litres of cow‘s milk and 105 litres of Buffalow‘s milk. He wishes to sell the
milk by filling the two types of milk in cans of equal capacity. Calculate the highest capacity of a
can.
A) 15 litre B) 17 litre C) 25 litre D) 35 litre

9. A1, C3, F6, J10, O15?

A) U21 B) V21 C) T20 D)
U20

10. Ages of two persons are in the ratio 1:3, product of their ages is 48. What is the difference of
their ages?
A) 2 B) 12 C) 8 D) 4
11. A mat of length 180m is made by 15 women in 12 days. How long will it take for 32 women to
make a mat of length 512 m ?
A) 16 days B) 12 days C) 18 days D) 24 days

12. A student gets 31% in an Examination but fails by 12 marks. If the pass percentage is 35%. Find
the maximum marks of the Examination.
A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 350

13. In how many years will Rs.2000 become Rs.3,600 at 10% p.a. simple interest?
A) 2 years B) 16 years C) 8 years D) 10 years

14. If Meena gives an interest of Rs.45 for one year at 9% per annum and she has borrowed the
amount of Rs.4x, then find x
A) 500 B) 250 C) 125 D) 75

15. A London monument is marked as follows : MDCLXVI What number does it represent?
A) 1666 B) 11166 C) 111516 D) 1515151

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APTITUDE
16. At what time will a sum of Rs. 3,000 will amount to Rs.3,993 at 10% p.a compounded annually.
A) 4 years B) 1 years C) 2 years D) 3 years

17. A garden roller whose length is 3 m long and whose diameter is 2.8 m is rolled to level a garden.
How much area will it cover in 8 revolutions?
A) 212.2 m2 B) 252.2 m2 C) 211.2 m2 D) 211.5m2

18. If the sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm, then the area is
A) 3 cm2 B) 6 cm2 C) 9 cm2 D) 12 cm2

19. If 1+2+3+ …+ k=325, then find 13 + 23 + 33 + ⋯ + 𝑘 3

A) 105625 B) 52065 C) 67714 D) 12730

20. The missing term of the series : 1, 8, 27, ?, 125, 216

A) 49 B) 100 C) 64 D) 46

21. Study the following sequence and answer : D*=8Q+$O-@z%6d#A?7>GB Which element is 8th to
the left of 17th element, if the above sequence is written in reverse order?
A) - B) d C) 6 D) %

22. Iniyan bought 5 dozen eggs. Out of that 5 dozen eggs, 10 eggs are rotten. Express the number of
good eggs as percentage.
A) 1.2% B) 83.33% C) 8.33% D) 10%

23. A dealer allows a discount of 10% still gains 10%. What is the cost price of the book which is
marked at Rs.220?
A) Rs.120 B) Rs.150 C) Rs.180 D) Rs.220

2
24. The sum of two number is 116 3 % of the second number. Then, the ratio of first number to
second number is
A) 1:6 B) 3:7 C) 7:3 D) 7:4

25. 6 pipes are required to fill a tank in 1 hour 20 minutes. How long will it take if only 5 pipes of the
same type are used?
A) 1 hour 36 minutes B) 1 hour 26 minutes
C) 1 hour 50 minutes D) 1 hour 56 minutess

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APTITUDE
03. SUB- INSPECTOR OF FISHERIES IN FISHERIES DEPARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU FISHERIES
SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
04. JUNIOR REHABILITATION OFFICER IN TAMILNADU GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE - 2023

1. Calculate the Simple Interest at 8% rate of interest, one year and

A) Rs. 600 B) Rs. 900 C) Rs. 1,800 D) Rs. 8,400

2. A certain amount of money when invested on a simple interest basis double in 8 years, what is
the % rate of interest?
A) 10% B) 11.5% C) 12% D) 12.5%

3. What principal will yield Rs. 60 as simple interest at 6% p.a. in 5 years?

A) Rs. 800 B) Rs. 600 C) Rs.400 D) Rs.200

4. Calculate the rate of interest when we get Rs. 1,680 as a simple interest for the principal amount
Rs. 7,000 in 16 months.
3
A) 14 % B) 1.5% C) 𝟏𝟖% D) 32%

5. What is the time 100 hours after 7 a.m.?

A) 7 a.m. B) 4 a.m. C) 3 a.m D) 11 a.m.

6. Moni is daughter of Sheela. Sheela is wife of my wife‘s brother. How Moni is related to my wife?
A) Cousin B) Niece C) Sister D) Sister-in-law

7. Find the difference between S.I and C.I for Rs.12,000 at 𝑟 = 8% for 3 years.
A) Rs. 236.54 B) Rs. 336.54 C) Rs. 226.54 D) Rs. 326.54

8. The length of a rectangular Park is 14 m more than its breath. If the perimeter of the part is 200
m, what is its length? Find the area of the park.
A) 75 m, 3225 m2 B) 57 m, 2451 m2 C) 34 m, 1938 m2 D) 43 m, 2550 m2

9. If the radii of the circular ends of a frustum which is 45 cm high are 28 cm and 7 cm. Find the vo-
lume of the frustum?
A) 48510 cu. Units B) 48410 cu. Units
C) 47510 cu. Units D) 46510 cu. Units

10. The length and breadth of a window are in 1 m and 70 cm respectively. The ratio of the length to
the breadth is
A) 1 : 7 B) 7 : 1 C) 7 : 10 D) 10 : 7
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APTITUDE
11. There is a circular path around a sports field. Sonia takes 18 minutes to drive on round of the
field, while Ravi takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose the both start at the same point and at
the same time, and go in the same direction, after how many minutes will they meet again at the
starting point?
A) 20 min B) 28 min C) 36 min D) 48 min

12. Find the next two terms of the sequence 5, 10, 26, 50, …….
A) 65, 82 B) 82, 100 C) 100, 122 D) 122, 170

13. The next term in 1,2,5,-2,9,-6,13, is

A) 17 B) -8 C) -10 D) 21

14. Find the sum of first 40 terms in the series1, 3, 5……

A) 1640 B) 1600 C) 800 D) 400

15. 71,59,48,38,29, ___________

A) 16 B) 28 C) 21 D) 35

16. The GCD and LCM of two polynomials are 𝑥 + 1and 𝑥 6 − 1 respectively. If one the polynomials
is 𝑥 3 + 1 find the other one.
A) 𝑥 3 − 1 (𝑥 − 1) B) 𝒙𝟑 − 𝟏 (𝒙 + 𝟏)
C) 𝑥 3 + 1 𝑥 + 1 D) 𝑥 3 + 1 (𝑥 − 1)

17. What is the greatest number that will divide 62, 78 and 109 leaving remainders 2, 3 and 4 re-
spectively?
A) 12 B) 20 C) 15 D) 18

18. Study the following letter-number sequence and answer the question given below :
E7GBM4NKH2ACZSV3FIJLQ5PR If every third letter / number starting from the right replaces
successive days of the week starting from Monday, Which letter will replace Thursday?
A) A B) S C) F D) Z

19. If the word PHONE is coded as SKRQH; How will RADIO be coded?
A) SCGNH B) VRGNG C) UDGLR D) SDHKQ

20. A get double of what B gets and B gets double of what of what C gets. Find the ratio of B : C?
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 1 D) 4 : 1

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16
21. Which is not an equivalent ratio of 24
6 12 10 𝟐𝟎
A) 9 B) 18 C) 15 D) 𝟐𝟖

22. A can do a work in 24 days. If A and B together can finish the work in 6 days. B alone can finish
the work in how many days?
A) 6 days B) 8 days C) 12 days D) 18 days

23. X, Y and Z can do a piece of job in 4, 6 and 10 days respectively. If X,Y and Z work together to
complete, then find their separate shares if they will be paid Rs. 31,000 completing the job.
A) X=6,000; Y=15,000; Z=1,000 B) X=10,000; Y=15,000; Z=6,000
C) X=9,000; Y=16,000; Z=6,000 D) X=15,000; Y=10,000; Z=6,000

24. If 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 2, 𝑧 = 3 then 𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 − 𝑧 3 + 3𝑥𝑦𝑧 is

A) 𝒙 + 𝒚 − 𝒛 B) 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 C) 𝑥 + 𝑦 D) −36

25. 0.07% is
7 7 7 𝟕
A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 𝟏𝟎,𝟎𝟎𝟎

05. HEALTH OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU PUBLIC HEALTH SERVICE – 2023

1. Sathish Kumar borrowed Rs.52,000 from a money lender at a particular rate of simple interest.
After 4 years he paid Rs.79,040 to settle his Debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the mon-
ey?
A) 13% B) 26% C) 23% D) 16%

2. 219 Days = ________ year.

73 73 5 𝟑
𝐴) B) 122 C) 3 D) 𝟓
4

3. In a certain code language, if Bread is called Butter, Butter is called Milk, Milk is called Shirt, Shirt
is called Shoe is called Bicycle,Bicycle is called watch, watch is called Aeroplane and Aeroplane is
called ship. Then which of the following indicates time in that language?
A) Watch B) Ship C) Bicycle D) Aeroplane.

4. What is the probability of getting more than 4. When a dice is thrown?

1 𝟏 2 1
A) B) 𝟑 C) 3 D) 6
2

5. At what rate percentage p.a. will Rs.5,625 amount to Rs. 6,084 in 2 years at compound interest?
A) 4% B) 6% C) 8% D) 10%

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6. If the curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 704 Sq.cm and height is 8 cm, find the vo-
22
lume of the cylinder (𝜋 = )
7
A) 4928 cu.cm B) 2464 cu.cm C) 1088 cu.cm D) 3646 cu.cm

7. Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 180 cm.

A) 15 3 cm2 B) 600 3 cm2 C) 900 𝟑 cm2 D) 3600 3 cm2

8. If every side of a rectangle is doubled, then its area becomes ______ times.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 3

9. The area of the rhombus is 128 sq.cm and the length of one diagonal is 32 cm. The length of the
other diagonal is.
A) 12 cm B) 8 cm C) 4 cm D) 20 cm

10. Find the LCM of (5x – 10), (5x2 – 20)

A) 5 (x2 – 4) B) 5(x-2) C) 5(x2 + 4) D) 5(x+2)

11. Complete the Series 4>5>9>16>26> __________________

A) 39 B) 28 C) 38 D) 58

12. How many terms of the series 5 + 9 + 13 + … must be taken so that their sum is 189?
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11

13. The next term of the series 2>5>10>17>26>37>50 is

A) 65 B) 43 C) 54 D) 72

14. Find the HCF: a2 – 8a + 16, (a+3) (a-4) (a2 – a – 12).

A) (a-3)2 B) (a – 4)2 C) (a+3)2 D) (a+4)2

15. Find the HCF of the numbers 400 and 560.

A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 80

16. Find the next term in the series BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?
A) LMN B) SOV C) SOW D) KSU.

17. T 49 S 64, R 81 Q 100, P 121 O 144, ?

A) N 169 M 196 B) N 160 M 190 C) N 164 M 194 D) U 36 T 46

18. If a : b = 2 : 5> then the value of 5a – b : a + b.

A) 1 : 1 B) 5 : 2 C) 5 : 7 D) 7 : 5

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19. The ratio of 1m to 50 cm is
A) 1 : 50 B) 50 : 1 C) 2 : 1 D) 1 : 2

1 2
20. P alone can do of a work in 6 days and Q alone can do of the same work in 4 days. How
2 3
3
many days will they finish 4 of the work , working together?
A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 4 days D) 5 days.

21. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B and C can do it in 15 days, whereas A and C
can do it in 20 days. How along each take to do the same work?
A) A – 20 days, B – 30 days, C – 60 days. B) A – 30 days, B – 60 days, C – 30 days.
C) A – 30 days, B – 20 days, C – 60 days. D) A – 60 days, B – 20 days, C – 30 days.

22. Simplify /
1 1 1 3 1
1 - x -4 ÷ -2 =
2 2 4

A)1/2 B) 3/4 C) 1/4 D) -1/2

23. 25% of 75% of 80 = ?

A) 15 B) 20 C) 60 D) 80

24. The percentage of literacy in a village is 47% .Find the number of illiterates in the village if the
population is 7500.
A) 3975 B) 3925 C) 3775 D) 3525

06. BURSAR IN TAMIL NADU EDUCATIONAL SERVICE - 2023

1. A sum of money triples itself at 8% per annum over a certain time. Find the number of years.
A) 5 years B) 15 years C) 25 years D) 35 years.

2. A sum of Rs.48,000 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 2 years and 3 months the
total amount was Rs.55,560. Find the rate of interest per year.
A) 6% B) 8% C) 7% D) 7.5%

3. Find the simple interest and the amount due on Rs.6,750 for 219 days at 10% per annum.
A) Rs.415 B) Rs.395 C) Rs.425 D) Rs.405

4. You are walking along a street. If you just choose a stranger crossing you, what is the probability
that his birthday will fall on a Sunday?
A)5/7 B) 4/7 C) 3/7 D) 1/7

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5. Compute / (100-1) (100-2) (100-3) …. (100+1) (100+2) (100+3) = ?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 100 D) 1000

6. Find the compound interest on Rs.1,000 at the rate of 10% per annum for 18 months when inter-
est is compounded half yearly.
A) RS.1,157.63 B) Rs.157.63 C) Rs.167.73 D) Rs.157.36

7. The difference between simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at
2% p.a is Rs.1. The sum of money is
A) Rs.2000 B) Rs.1500 C) Rs.3,000 D) Rs.2,500

8. If the lateral surface area of a cube is 600 cm2. Find the total surface area of a cube.
A) 150 cm2 B) 400 cm2 C) 900 cm2 D) 300 cm2

9. If total surface area of a cube is 486 Cm2, then find its lateral surface area.
A) 234 cm2 B) 324 cm2 C) 432 Cm2 D) 342 cm2

10. The ratio of the volumes of two cones is 2:3 Find the ratio of their radii if the height of second cone
is double the height of the first.
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 𝟑 C) 3: 3 D) 2 : 3

11. The LCM of two co- prime numbers is 5005. One of the numbers is 65, then the other number is
A)99 B) 88 C) 77 D) 66

12. The next term in the sequence 1,8,9,64,25,… is

A) 144 B) 36 C) 169 D) 216

13. Find the number of terms in the progression 2,4,8,16,…1024

A)9 B) 11 C) 12 D) 10

14. The missing term of the series 1,2,3,5,8,?,21 is

A) 9 B) 11 C) 13 D) 15

15. Find the length of the longest rope that can be used to measure exactly the ropes of length 1m
20cm, 3m 60cm and 4m
A) 40 cm B) 4 m C) 20 cm D) 2 m

16. Find the GCD of (a-b)2, (b-c)3,(c-a)4

A)(c-a)4 B) (a-b)2 C) 0 D) 1

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17. When the digits within the number are multiplied with each other then the product of which number
set is the lowest? 728, 412, 901, 632
A) 412 B) 632 C) 728 D) 901

18. If ―GIVE‖ is coded as 5137 and ―BAT‖ is coded as 924. How is ―GATE‖ coded?
A)2547 B) 5247 C) 5427 D) 5724

1 3
19. In a recipe making, every 12 Cup of rice requires 24 Cups of water. Express this in the ratio of rice
to water.
A) 1:2 B) 3 : 11 C) 6 : 11 D) 3:8

20. A line is to be divided into 4 sections in the ratio of 1:2:3:6 If the line is 960mm long. Find the
length of each part.
A) 100mm : 140mm: 240 mm : 480 mm B) 100mm : 160 mm: 260 mm : 440 mm
C) 80 mm : 160 mm : 240 mm : 480 mm D) 80 mm : 200 mm : 240 mm : 440mm

21. The ratio of sides of two cubes is 2:3, then the ratio of surface area is (Lateral Surface Area).
A) 4 : 6 B) 4 : 9 C) 6 : 9 D) 16 : 36

22. In a day 14 workers assemble 42 units. How many units would 23 workers assemble?
A) 60 B) 65 C) 69 D) 68

23. If 25% of A is equal to 40% of B. What percent of A is B?

A) 65% B) 15% C) 67.5 % D) 62.5%

24. Akila scored 80% in an examination. If her score was 576 marks, find the maximum marks of the
examination.
A) 750 B) 830 C) 720 D) 870

25. Find x3 – y3, if x-y = 5 and xy = 14.

A) 225 B) 335 C) 325 D) 330

07. VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON IN TAMIL NADU ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

SERVICE - 2023
1. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a doublet is
A) 1/36 B) 1/3 C) 1/6 D) 2/3

2. The ratio of copper and zinc in an alloy is 5:3. If the weight of copper in the alloy is 30.5 grams.
Then the weight of zinc in the alloy is
A) 15.8 gram B) 16.5 gram C) 18.3 gram; D) 50.8 gram

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3. What percentage is 2 minutes in an hour?
1 𝟏 1 1
A) 3 2 % B) 𝟑 𝟑 % C) 3 4 % D) 3 5 %

4. When 12 + 10 = 1205
11 + 8 = 885
then 14 + 15 = ?
A) 1005 B) 120 C) 710 D) 2105

5. Find out the Pythagorean Triplet.

A) (20, 22, 29) B) (20, 21, 28) C) (20, 21, 29) D) (22, 21, 29)

2
6. P alone can do 1/2 of a work in 6 days and Q alone can do 3 of the same work in 4 days. In how
3
many days will they finish 4 of the work, working together?
A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) 15

7. The area of the biggest circle cut out from the square of ‗a‘ units is (approx).
𝟏𝟏 3 3 9
A) 𝒂𝟐 𝐬𝐪. 𝐮𝐧𝐢𝐭𝐬 B) 𝑎2 sq. units C) 𝑎2 sq. units D) 𝑎2 sq. units
𝟏𝟒 14 7 14

8. Find the compound interest on Rs.15, 625 for 9 months at 16% per annum compounded quarterly.
A) Rs.1851 B) Rs.1941 C) Rs.1951 D) Rs.1961

9. In a certain time, a sum becomes 4 times at the rate of 5% per annum. At what rate of simple in-
terest, the same sum becomes 8 times in the same duration?
3 𝟐 3 2
A) 11 5 % B) 𝟏𝟏 𝟑 % C) 12 5 % D) 12 3 %

10. Find x
x: 26 : : 5: 65
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

11. The LCM of two numbers is 432 and their HCF is 36. If one of the numbers is 108, then the other
number is
A) 36 B) 108 C) 144 D) 432

12. Find the LCM of -9a3 b2, 12a2 b2 c

-9a3 b2, 12a2 b2 c - ,d; kP.ngh.k fhz;f.
A) -36 a2 b2 c B) -36 a3 b2 c C) 36 a3 b2 c D) 36 a5 b4 c

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13. How many terms of the series 1+4+16+… make the sum 1365?
1+4+16+… vd;w njhlhpd; vj;jid cWg;Gf;fis $l;bdhy; $Ljy; 1365 fpilf;Fk;?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 3

14. A clock seen through a mirror shows quarter past three. What is the correct time shown by the
clock?
A) 9 hours 45 minutes B) 9 hours 15 minutes
C) 8 hours 45 minutes D) 3 hours 15 minutes

15. Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting different faces on the coins?
1 𝟏 1 1
A) B) C) D)
8 𝟐 36 4

16. The dimensions of a fish tank are 3.8 m x 2.5 m x 1.6 m. How many litres of water in can hold?
A) 1520 1 B) 15200 1 C) 15.2 1 D) 152 1

17. The smallest number that can be divided by 254 and 508 which leaves remainder 4 is
A) 6 B) 258 C) 512 D) 1024

18. Find the unit digit of the numeric expression 1000010000 + 1111111111
A) 0 B) 3 C) 1 D) 5

19. Cholan walks 6 kms in 1 hour at constant speed. Find the distance covered by him in 20 mins at
the same speed
A) 1 km B) 2 kms C) 3 kms D) 4 kms

20. If the deposited amount is Rs. 5,000, the rate of Compound Interest is 12% per annum and com-
pound interest is calculated every half year, then the total amount after one year is
A) Rs.5,648 B) Rs.5,618 C) Rs.5, 678 D) Rs. 5, 668

21. In how many years will a sum of Rs.5,000 amount to Rs.5,800 at the rate of 8% per annum?
A) 2 years B) 4 years C) 3 years D) 5 years

22. If A : B = 2: 3 and B: C= 4: 5 then the ratio of C : A is

A) 5:4 B) 5:20 C) 8:15 D) 15:8

23. The LCM of 156 and 124 is

A) 4836 B) 3846 C) 8346 D) 4683

24. If 3logx 5=1 then find the value of x

A) 5 B) 25 C) 125 D) 625

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25. The rain water that falls on a roof of area 6160 m2 is collected in a cylindrical tank of diameter 14
m and height 10 m and thus the tank is completely filled. Find the height of rain water on the roof
A) 25 cm B) 25 m C) 0.25 cm D) 250 cm

26. Find the odd number pair

A) 23:29 B) 19:25 C) 13:17 D) 3:5

08. ASSISTANT CONSERVATOR OF FORESTS INCLUDED IN GROUP-IA SER-

VICE IN TAMIL NADU FOREST SERVICE - 2023
1. Find the compound interest on Rs.3,200 at 2.5% p.a. for 2 years, compounded annually
A) Rs. 148 B) Rs. 162 C) Rs.157 D) Rs.165

2. What number will represent A in the following pattern?

2, 5, 11, 23, A
A) 43 B) 45 C) 47 D) 49

3. Find the missing number:

4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ______, 64
A) 343 B) 256 C) 144 D) 121

4. Find the value of ‘𝑥’

3, 7, 14, 23, 36, 49, 𝑥
A) 64 B) 65 C) 66 D) 67

5. In a Certain Code RANGE is Coded as 12345 and RANDOM is coded as 123678, then the code
for the word MANGO would be
A) 82346 B) 82347 C) 82357 D) 84563

6. In a Certain Code ALGEBRA as BKHDCQB then GEOMETRY is coded as

A) HDPLFUSX B) HDPLFSSX C) HFPLFUSX D) HFPLFUSZ

7. How many 2 digit natural numbers contain the number 7?

A) 10 B) 18 C) 19 D) 20

8. If 57 + 57 + 57 + 57 + 57 = 5y then y
A) 5 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

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9. ‗A‘ Can do a work in 45 days. He works at it for 15 days and then, ‗B‘ alone finishes the remaining
work in 24 days. Find the time taken to complete 80% of the work, if they work together
A) 20 days B) 24 days C) 16days D) 36 days

10. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the same work in
12 days. If all the 10 men and 15 women work together, in how many days will the work get com-
pleted?
1 𝟐 2
A) 6 B) 6 3 C) 𝟔 𝟑 D) 73

11. An aircraft can accommodate 280 people in 2 trips. It can take______ trips to take 1400 people.
A) 8 B) 9 C) 𝟏𝟎 D) 12

12. A garden roller whose length is 3m long and whose diameter is 2.8 m is rolled to level a garden.
How much area will it cover in 8 revolutions?
A) 211.02m2 B) 211.2m2 C) 211m2 D) 212 m2

13. Find the number of lead balls each 1 cm in diameter that can be made from a sphere of diameter
12cm
A) 1726 B)1728 C)1626 D) 1736

14. The bacteria in a culture grows by 5% in the first hour, decreases by 8% in the second hour and
again increases by 10% in the third hour. Find count of bacteria at the end of 3 hours if its initial
count was 10,000
A) 13,000 B)13,500 C) 12,626 D) 10,626

15. Find the difference in C.I. and S.I for P = Rs.8000, r = 5% p.a. n = 3 years is
A) RS.60 B)Rs.20 C) Rs.21 D) Rs.61

16. What sum of money will earn Rs.500 as simple interest in 1 year at 5% per annum?
A) 50000 B)30000 C) 10000 D) 5000

17. If Meena gives an interest of Rs.45 for one year at 9% rat. What is the sum she has borrowed?
A) 1000 B) 1500 C) 500 D) 1200

18. In three vessels of 10L capacity mixture of milk and water is filled the ratio of milk and water are
2:1, 3:1 and 3:2 in the respective vessels. If all the three vessels are emptied into a single large
vessel, find the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture.
A) 121 : 41 B) 117 : 22 C) 127 : 41 D) 121 : 59

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19. If 𝑥 + 1 : 8 = 3.75 ∶ 7, then the value of 𝑥 is
2 2 2 2
A) 1 7 B) 2 7 C) 37 D) 47

20. A heater uses 3 units of electricity in 40 min. How many units does it consume in 2 hours?
A) 10 units B) 9 units C) 8 units D) 11 units

21. Find the LCM of: 9𝑎3 𝑏 2 , 12𝑎2 𝑏 2 𝑐

A) 36 𝑎𝑏𝑐 B) 12 𝑎2 𝑏𝑐 C) 24 𝑎2 𝑏 2 𝑐 D) 𝟑𝟔 𝒂𝟑 𝒃𝟐 𝒄

22. Find the LCM of: 4𝑥 2 𝑦, 8𝑥 2 𝑦 2

A) 4𝑥 2 𝑦 B) 𝟖𝒙𝟑 𝒚𝟐 C) 8𝑥 2 𝑦 D) 32 𝑥𝑦

23. Find the H.C.F. of: 𝑚2 − 3𝑚 − 18 and 𝑚2 + 5𝑚 + 6

A) 𝒎 + 𝟑 B) 𝑚 − 6 C) 𝑚 + 2 D) 𝑚 − 3

24. Find 𝑥 − 6 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 24 and 𝑥 2 − 𝐾𝑥 − 6 then the value of K is

A) 3 B) 𝟓 C) 6 D) 8

25. If 𝑥% 𝑜𝑓 𝑥 = 25, 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑥 =

A) 𝟓𝟎 B) 25 C) 55 D) 20

26. 30% of a 3 -digit number is 190.8 what will be 125% of that number?
A) 636 B) 𝟕𝟗𝟓 C) 975 D) 735

09. DISTRICT EDUCATIONAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU SCHOOL EDUCATIONAL

SERVICE - 2023
1. The least prime number is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

2. Find out the missing figure /

A)
B) C) D)

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APTITUDE

3. Various positions of a dice are given below What will be the digit on the face opposite to the face
having digit 1?

A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

4. The next number in the following sequences: 0,6,24,60,120,210,?

A) 240 B) 290 C) 336 D) 504

5. Find the sum of 1+3+5+….to 40 terms

A) 800 B) 4000 C) 1600 D) 8000

6. The next term of the Alpha numeric series 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, is
A) 27U24 B) 45U15 C) 47U15 D) 47V14

7. ‗A‘ Can do a certain job in 12 days. ‗B‘ is 60% more efficient than ‗A‘ How many days does ‗B‘
alone take to do the same job?
1 𝟏
A) 8 days B) 82 days C) 7 days D) 7𝟐 days

8. If 48 men working 7 hours a day can do a work in 24 days, then in how many days, if 28 men
working 8 hours a day can complete the same work?
A) 38 days B) 36 days C) 35 days D) 34 days.

9. If the radii of two spheres are in ratio 1:2, then ratio of their surface areas will be.
A) 1:2 B) 1:4 C) 1:8 D) 1:16

10. A cubical tank can hold 64,000 litres of water. Find the length of the side in metres.
A) 40 m B) 80 m C0 8 m D) 4 m

1
11. The amount is to be repaid on a loan of Rs.12,000 for 12 years at 10% per annum compounded
half yearly is
A) Rs.13,891.50 B) Rs.12,888.50 C) Rs.13,210.50 D) Rs.12,955.50

12. Find the compound interest that Rahul would receive if he invests Rs.8,000 for 18 months at 10%
p.a, the interest being compounded half – yearly.
A) Rs.1,061 B) Rs.1,160 C) Rs.1,260 D) Rs.1,261
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13. If a principal becomes Rs.17,000 with simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum, in 3 years,
then the principal is
A) Rs.11,000 B) Rs.11,500 C) Rs.12,000 D) Rs.12,500

14. Which rate of interest, yields an interest of Rs.200 for the principal amount of Rs.2,000 in one
year?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 5% D) 15%

15. In how much time will the simple interest on Rs.3,000 at the rate of 8% per annum be the same as
simple interest on Rs.4,000 at 12% per annum for 4 years?
A) 6 years B) 7 years C) 8 years D) 9 years.

16
16. The ratio which of the following is not an equivalent ratio of 24
A) 10/15 B) 12/18 C) 20/28 D) 6/9

17. Kumaran has Rs.600 and wants to divide it between Vimala and Yazhini in the ratio 2:3 who will
get more and how much?
A) Vimala gets Rs.240 more than yazhini.
B) Yazhini gets Rs.240 more than Vimala.
C) Vimala gets Rs.120 more than Yazhini.
D) Yazhini gets Rs.120 more than Vimala.

18. Malarvizhi, Karthiga and Anjali are friends and natives of the same village. They work at different
places Malarvizhi comes to her home once in 5 days. Similarly, Karthiga and Anjali come to their
homes once in 6 days and 10 days respectively; Assuming that they met each other on the 1 st Oc-
tober, when will all the three meet again?
A) 31st of October B) 30th of October C) 10th of October D) 1st of November.

19. There are four mobile phones in a house. At 5a.m all the four Mobile phones will ring together.
Thereafter, the first one rings every 15 minutes, the second one rings every 20 minutes, the third
one rings every 25 minutes and the fourth one rings every 30 minutes. At what time, Will all the
four Mobile phones ring together again?
A) 7.00 a.m B) 8.00a.m C) 10.00a.m D) 11.00a.m

20. A book seller has 220 Maths Books, 380 Tamil Books, 420 English Books. He wants to sell the
books in a box, subject-wise in equal numbers. What will be the greatest number of boxes re-
quired?
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

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21. The LCM of 78 and 39 is 78. Find their GCD.
A) 39 B) 48 C) 59 D) 78

22. A man purchased a cycle for Rs.600 and sold it for Rs.480. Find the loss percent.
A) 20% B) 120% C) 60% D) 80%

23. In a school, 820 are Boys and 60% are Girls. Find the number of Girls.
A) 1225 B) 1230 C) 1231 D) 1235

24. A man has 532 flower pots. He wants to arrange them in rows such that each row contains 21
Flower pots. Find the number of completed rows and how many flower pots are left over?
A) 21,7 B) 25,7 C) 26,5 D) 19,2

10. ASSISTANT PROFESSOR OF PSYCHOLOGY - CUM - CLINICAL PSYCHOLO-

GIST IN TAMIL NADU MEDICAL SERVICE - 2023
1. 35 Cycles were produced in five days by a company then the number of cycles that can be pro-
duced in 21 days is __________.
A) 170 B) 150 C) 147 D) 100

2. At what rate of Simple Interest will Rs.350 amount to Rs.455 in 6 years?

A) 15% B) 25% C) 10% D) 5%

3. Find the wrong number in the series : 3>8>15>24>34>48>63

A) 15 B) 24 C) 34 D) 48

4. Find the next number in the given sequence. 1>1>2>3>5>8>13>321>34

A) 50 B) 55 C) 60 D) 65

5. 1 + 2 + 3 + … + n = K then 13 + 23+ 33 + … + n3 is equal to.

𝐾(𝐾+1)
A) K2 B) K3 C) D) (K+1)3
2

6. In the following sequence of instructions 1 stands for run, 2 stands for stop, 3 stands for go, 4
stands for sit and 5 stands for wait . If the sequence were continued, which instruction will come
next? 4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3
A) Wait B) Sit C) Run D) Stop

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APTITUDE
7. If MACHINE is coded as 19 – 7 – 9 – 14 – 15 – 20 – 11 how will you code DANGER =
______?
A) 11 – 7 – 20 – 16 – 11 – 24 B) 13 – 7 – 20 – 9 – 11 – 25
C) 10 – 7 – 20 – 13 – 11 – 24 D) 11 – 7 – 20 – 10 – 11 – 25

8. The product of Kumaran‘s age (in years) two years ago and his age four years from now is one
more than twice his present age. What is his present age?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

9. Siva Kumar is 7 times as old as his daughter Preethi. After 5 year he will be 4 times as old as his
daughter. What are their present ages?
A) 5, 35 B) 6, 36 C) 7,42 D) 4,32

10. 8 farmers can plough a field in 18 days. Find the number of days required for 12 farmers to plough
the same field.
A) 22 days B) 12 days C) 10 days D) 15 days

11. 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 3 men and 2 boys can do the same
work in 8 days. In how many days can 2 men and 1 boy do the work?
𝟏 1
A) 12 𝟐 days B) 12 days C) 13 2 days D) 13 days

12. The dimensions of a hall is 10m x 9m x 8m. Find the cost of white washing the walls and Ceiling at
the rate of Rs.8.50 per m2
A) Rs. 2, 250 B) Rs.3,320 C) Rs.3,349 D) Rs.4,449

13. If the total surface area of a cube is 726 cm2 then find its volume.
A) 627 cm3 B) 276 cm3 C) 1331 cm3 D) 3311 cm3

14. The compound interest as Rs.3,000 for 3 years at 10% per annum. Compounded annually is.
A) Rs.900 B) Rs.933 C) Rs.963 D) Rs.993

15. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on Rs.1,200 for one year at 10%
per annum, reckoned half yearly is
A) Rs.2.50 B) Rs.3.00 C) Rs.3.75 D) Rs.4.00

16. Which among the following rate of interest yields an interest of Rs.200 for the prinicipal of
Rs.2,000 for one year?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 5% D) 15%

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APTITUDE
17. In simple Interest, a sum of money amounts to Rs.6,200 in 2 years and Rs.6,800 in 3 years. Find
the principal and rate of interest.
A) Rs.4,000, I = 15% B) Rs.5,000, I = 12%
C) Rs.6,000, I = 10% D) Rs.3,000, I = 20%

18. The reciprocal ratio of 9 : 121 is

A) 3 : 11 B) 6 : 22 C) 11 : 3 D) 121 : 9

19. The ratio of the volumes of a cylinder a cone and a sphere if each has the same diameter and
same height is
A) 1 : 2 : 3 B) 2 : 1 : 3 C) 1 : 3 : 2 D) 3 : 1 : 2

20. The Product of two numbers is 432 and their LCM and HCF are 72 and 6 respectively. If one of
the numbers is 24 then the other number is
A) 16 B) 18 C) 22 D) 36

21. The LCM of two number is 6 times their HCF . If the HCF is 12, and one of the number is 36. Then
the other number is
A) 72 B) 36 C) 24 D) 12

22. The greatest number that will divide 62,78 and 109 leaving reaminders 2,3 and 4 respectively.
Find the HCF.
A) 15 B) 16 C) 12 D) 13

23. Find the ratio of the HCF and LCM of the numbers 18 and 30
A) 1 : 18 B) 1 : 30 C) 18 : 30 D) 1 : 15

24. What percent of 850 metres is 225 metres?

A) 26.49% B) 26.48% C) 26.47% D) 26.46%

25. Among the residents of a street, 65% speak Tamil, 52% speak Hindi, 40% speak Malayalam, 30%
speak both Tamil and Malayalam, 32% speak both Tamil and Hindi, 25% speak both Hindi and
Malayalam. If 10% speak languagues other than these three languages, then what is th percen-
tage of residents who speak all three languages?
A) 10% B) 80% C) 90% D) 20%

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APTITUDE
11. AGRICULTURAL OFFICER (EXTENSION), ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF AGRI-
CULTURE (EXTENSION) & HORTICULTURAL OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU AGRI-
CULTURAL EXTENSION SERVICE & TAMIL NADU HORTICULTURAL SERVICE -
2023
1. If the curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 704 sq.cm and height is 8 cm, find the vo-
lume of the cylinder.
A) 5048cm3 B) 4928 cm3 C) 5442 cm3 D) 4864 cm2

2. Highest common factor of 25𝑏𝑐 4 𝑑3 , 35𝑏 2 𝐶 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 45𝐶 3 𝑑 𝑖𝑠

A)1575𝑏 2 𝑐 5 𝑑 3 B) 45 𝑏𝑐𝑑 C) 25𝐶 3 D) 𝟓𝑪𝟑

3. An alloy contains 15% copper. What quantity of alloy is required to get 600 gram of copper.
A) 2000 grams B) 4000 grams C) 6000 grams D) 8000 grams

4. Which of the given letters is exactly midway between only letter following between C and 5
AB7CD9zy*P2M©KS3↑5 NT@
A) K B) M C) P D) Y

5. A square carpet, Covers an area of 1024 m2 of a big hall. If it is placed, in the middle of the hall,
what is the length of a side of carpet?
A) 22m B) 32m C) 38 m D) 42m

6. Two taps can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 40 minutes. Another tap can empty it in 24 minutes. If
the tank is empty and all the three taps are kept open, in how much time the tank will be filled?
A) 60 minutes B) 46 minutes C) 94 minutes D) 24 minutes

7. The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is 1/3 of its height is
9𝜋𝑕 2 𝟖𝝅𝒉𝟐 56𝜋𝑕 2
A) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 B) 24𝜋𝑕2 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 C) 𝒔𝒒. 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕𝒔 D) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
8 𝟗 9

8. A certain sum at a rate of compound interest 4% for 2 years becomes Rs.2028 then find the
principal
A) Rs.1578 B) Rs.1785 C) Rs. 1875 D) Rs. 1800

9. Riya bought Rs.15,000 from a bank to buy a car at 10% simple interest. If she paid Rs.9,000 as
interest while clearing the loan, find the time for which the loan was given.
A) 3 years B) 4 years C) 6 years D) 5 years

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APTITUDE
10. The cost of uniforms for twelve students is Rs.3,000. Then the number of students can get uni-
form for Rs.1,250 is
A) 6 students B) 8 students C) 5 students D) 7 students

11. Find the LCM of 𝑎𝑚 +1 , 𝑎𝑚 +2 , 𝑎𝑚 +3

A) 𝒂𝒎+𝟑 B) 𝑎𝑚 +6 C) 𝑎𝑚 +2 D) 𝑎𝑚 +1

12. Find the least common multiple (LCM) of the given expressions 9𝑎3 𝑏 2 𝑐 2 , 12𝑎2 𝑏 2 𝑐 2
A) 36 𝑎2 𝑏 3 𝑐 B) 𝟑𝟔 𝒂𝟑 𝒃𝟐 𝒄𝟐 C) 36 𝑎3 𝑏 2 𝑐 D) 36 𝑎2 𝑏 3 𝑐 2

3 1 1 1
13. Find the next term of the sequence 16 , 8 , 12 , 18
1 𝟏 2 1
A) 24 B) 𝟐𝟕 C) 3 D) 81

14. Find the missing letters 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐵, 𝐷, 𝐶, 𝐹, 𝐷, 𝐻, 𝐸, ? , ?

A) 𝐸, 𝐹 B) 𝐹, 𝐺 C) 𝐹, 𝐼 D) 𝑱, 𝑭

15. What is the time 100 hours after 7 a.m?

A) 7 : 00 a.m B) 11 : 00 p.m C) 11: 00 a.m D) 7 : 00 p.m

16. The Capacity of a water tank of dimensions 10 M x 5M x 1.5M ______.

A) 75 litres B) 750 litres C) 7500 litres D) 75000 litres

17. Two numbers are there in the ratio 3: 5. If the sum of the numbers is 144 then what is the larger
number?
A) 48 B) 54 C) 72 D) 90

18. If 9 times 9th term is equal to 15 times 15th term in an arithmetic progression, then find the 24th
term.
A) 1 B) -1 C) 0 D) Cannot be found

19. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for Rs.5000, at the rate of inter-
est 4% for 2 years is
A) Rs.8 B) Rs.10 C) Rs.6 D) Rs.12

20. The simple interest for the principal of Rs.1000 for one year is Rs.100. Find the rate of interest.
A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

21. If 𝑥 ∶ 24 ∶ : 3 ∶ 8 then the value of 𝑥 is

A) 1 B) 8 C) 9 D) 3

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APTITUDE
22. If, HCF of given two numbers 96 and 404 is 4, then LCM of given two numbers is________.
A) 384 B) 9696 C) 1616 D) 38, 784

23. Find the Greatest Common Divisor for 21𝑥 2 𝑦, 35𝑥𝑦 2

A) 𝟕𝒙𝒚 B) 105𝑥 2 𝑦 2 C) 7𝑥 2 𝑦 2 D) 105 𝑥𝑦

2 −3 1 3 1 2
24. Simplify : x − 6 x 2 + 14 x 5
5 7
75 𝟏𝟏 105 1
A) − B) − C) 140 D) − 4
140 𝟐𝟖

25. The number of literate persons in a city increased from 5 lakhs to 8 lakhs in 5 years. What is the
percentage of increase?
A) 60% B) 40% C) 80% D) 50%

26. The average age of 10 members in the family is 21 years and due to the death of one family
member the average age is reduced by 2 months. The age of the member who died is?
A) 20 years 10 months B) 20 1/3 years
C) 22 years D) 19 1/3 years

12. ROAD INSPECTOR IN RURAL DEVELOPMENT AND PANCHAYAT RAJ DE-

PARTMENT IN TAMIL NADU PANCHAYAT DEVELOPMENT ENGINEERING SUB-
ORDINATE SERVICE - 2023
1. Simplify / 20 + [8 x 2 + {6𝑋3 - 10÷5}]
A) 44 B) 50 C) 52 D) 56

2. Find the HCF of 867 and 255

A) 03 B) 51 C) 17 D) 255

3. If m = 25 x 37 x 510 and n = 27 x 38 x 712. Find the HCF of m and n.

A) 27 x 37 B) 25 x 38 C) 27 x 38 D) 25 x 37

4. If 0.75: x : : 5:8 then x is.

A) 12 B) 1.2 C) 0.12 D) 120

5. If 3 × x = 4 x y then x:y is
A) 4:3 B) 3:4 C) 9:12 D) 12:16

6. Arun has paid simple Interest on a certain sum for 3 years at 15% per annum is Rs.450. Find the
sum.
A) 800 B) 900 C) 1,000 D) 2,000
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APTITUDE
7. A Principal becomes Rs.2028 in 2 years at 4% p.a. compound interest. Find the prinicipal.
A) Rs.1600 B) Rs.1875 C) Rs.1900 D) Rs.2000

8. A man takes 15 days to finish a job whereas a woman takes 20 days to finish the same job to-
gether they worked for 6 days and then the man left. In how many days will the woman complete
the remaining job.
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10

9. A works 3 times as fast as B and is able to complete a task in 24 days less than the days taken
by B. Find the time in which they can complete the work together.
A) 3 days B) 9 days; C) 12 days D) 24 days;

10. Probability of getting a job for a person is x/3 and the probanility of not getting a job is x/5, then
the value of x is.
8 𝟏𝟓 3 3
A) B) C) 5 D) 4
15 𝟖

11. Find the simple Interest for Rs.20,000 for 4 years at 10% p.a.
A) Rs.7,000 B) Rs.8,000 C) Rs.9,000 D) Rs.4,000

12. Find the sum of 0.40 + 0.43 + 0.46 + ….. + 1

A) 14.7 B) 15.7 C) 16.7 D) 17.7

13. Find the least positive integer n such that 1 + 6 + 62 + …. + 6n > 5000
A) n = 5 B) n = 4 C) n = 6 D) n = 7

1
14. Write the equivalent fraction of 64%?
A) 1/8 B) 1/12 C) 1/16 D) 1/18

15. Find the single discount in percentage which is equivalent to two successive discounts of 25%
and 20% given on an article?
A) 55% B) 60% C) 75% D) 40%

16. Find the LCM of 156 and 124

A) 4326 B) 4386 C) 4826 D) 4836

17. Find the LCM of the pair a2 + 4a – 12 and a2 – 5a + 6 whose GCD is a - 2.

A) (a+6) (a – 2) (a – 3) B) (a – 6) (a+2) (a-3)
C) (a+6) (a+2) (a+3) D) (a-6) (a-2) (a-3)

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18. If the ratio of Green, Yellow and Black balls in a bag is 4:3:5, then if there are 40 black balls in it,
then the total number of balls is.
A) 72 balls B) 84 balls C) 96 balls D) 108 balls

19. A bank pays Rs.240 as interest for 2 years for a sum of Rs.3000 deposited as savings. Find the
rate of interest given by the bank.
A) 3% B) 4% C) 5% D) 6%

20. The bacteria in a culture grows by 5% in the first hour decreases by 8% in the second hour and
again increases by 10% in the third hour. Find the count of the bacteria at the end of 3 hours if its
initial count was 10,000.
A) 10,700 B) 10,800 C) 10,376 D) 10,626

21. If the total surface area of a cone of radius 7 Cm is 704 Cm 2, then find its slant height.
A) 32 cm B) 23 cm C) 25 cm D) 52 cm

22. Find the lateral surface area of a cube of side 12cm.

A) 144 cm2 B) 196 cm2 C) 576 cm2 D) 664 cm2

23. If ‗-‗ means ‗multiplied by‘

‗x‘ means ‗plus‘
‗+‘ means ‗divided by‘
and ‗÷‘ means ‗minus‘ then find the value of 14 – 10 x 4 ÷ 16 + 8
A) 6 B) 142 C) 134 D) -2

24. Which colour is in opposite to the plane having blue colour?

A) Yellow B) Purple C) Orange D) Green

25. Find the sum of 2+4+6+ ….+ 80

A) 820 B) 1620 C) 1640 D) 1660

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APTITUDE
13. COMBINED LIBRARY EXAMINATION IN TAMIL NADU STATE AND SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICES - 2023

10. If a person pays an interest of Rs.750 for 2 years on a sum of Rs.4,500 Find the rate of interest.
1 𝟏 1
A) 6% B) 7 2 % C) 8 𝟑 % D) 94 %

11. A sum of Rs.6000 amounts to Rs.7,200 in four years under simple interest. What is the percen-
tage rate of interest?
A) 4% B) 4.5% C) 5% D) 5.5%

12. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs.8,880 in 6 years and Rs.7,920 in 4 years respectively.
Find the principle.
A) Rs.5,000 B) Rs.5,500 C) Rs.6,000 D) Rs.6,500

13. In how many years will a particular amount becomes three times of its principal at 8% rate of in-
terest?
A) 20 years B) 25 years; C) 30 years; D) 35 years

14. How many 4‘s are there in the following series which are just preceded by 7 but not immedeiately
followed by 3? 5432174362741537428743
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

15. A fair die is rolled find the probability of getting an even number or multiple of 3?
A) 5/6 B) 1/3 C) 2/3 D) 1/6

16. If 48 man working 7 hours a day can do a work in 24 days. Then in how many days will 28 men
working 8 hours a day can complete the same work?
A) 36 B) 16 C) 12 D) 48

17. The area of a rhombus is 100 cm2 and the length of one of its diagonals is 8 cm. Find the length of
the other diagonal.
A) 12 cm B) 25 cm C) 40 cm D) 52 cm

18. A rectangular paper of width 14 cm is rolled along its width and a cylinder of radius 20 cm is
22
formed. Find the volume of the cylinder (𝜋 = )
7
A) 17600 cm2 B) 17600 cm3 C) 1760 cm2 D) 1760 cm3

19. In a parallelogram the base is three times its height. If the height is 8 cm then the area is
A) 64 r.nrkP B) 192 r.nrkP C) 32 r.nrkP D) 72 r.nrkP

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APTITUDE
20. The LCM of 2y - 6, 2y2 – 18 is
A) 2(y+3) B) 2(y-3) C) 2(y-3) (Y+3) D) 2(y-6)(y+6)

21. A person saved money every year, half as much as he could in the previous year. If he had totally
saved Rs.7,875 in 6 years then how much did he save in the first year?
A) 2600 B) 3000 C) 1500 D) 4000

22. The next term of the series 2>6>14>30 is __________

A) 42 B) 38 C) 36 D) 62

23. Find the sum of 3>7>11>… 40 terms

A) 2340 B) 3240 C) 3640 D) 3140

24. Find the 12th term from the last term of the A.P -2>-4>-6>…- 100
A) 78 B) -73 C) -78 D) 87

25. The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF. If the HCF is 12 and one of the number is 36 then
find the other.
A) 24 B) 42 C) 12 D) 36

26. Find the HCF of 27,45 and 81

A) 27 B) 9 C) 15 D) 45

27. D =4 and COVER = 63 then what is the value of BASIS?

A) 49 B) 50 C) 54 D) 55

28. The monthly income of A and B are in the ratio 3:4 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio
5:7. If each saves Rs.5,000 per month. Find the monthly income of A,B?
A) 30,000, 40,000 B) 40,000,30,000
C) 40,000, 50,000 D) 50,000,70,000

29. A mother is five times as old as her daughter. After 2 years, the mother will be four times as old as
her daughter. What is the present age of mother?
A) 40 years B) 20 years C) 35 years D) 60 years

30. In a village of 121000 people, the ratio of men to women is 6:5 Find the number of men in the vil-
lage?
A) 55000 B) 66000 C) 77000 D) 81000

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31. The shadow of a pole with the height of 8 m is 6 m. If the shadow of another pole measured at the
same time is 30m, find the height of the pole?
A) 50 m B) 45 m C) 40 m D) 35 m

32. A soap factory produces 9600 soaps in 6 days working 15 hours a day. In how many days will it
produce 14,400 soaps working 3 more hours a day?
𝟏 1
A) 7𝟐 days B) 15 days C) 82 days D) 17 days

33. By selling a flower pot for Rs.528 a woman gains 20%. At what price should she sell it to gain
25%?
A) Rs.500 B) Rs.550 C) Rs.553 D) Rs.573

34. A family went to hotel and spent Rs.350 for food and paid extra 5% as GST. Calculate SGST.
A) 8.25 B) 8.75 C) 8.20 D) 8.27

14. COMBINED ENGINEERING SUBORDINATE SERVICES IN

EXAMINATION - 2023
1. When 240 is decreased by 15%, what will you get?
A) 276 B) 204 C) 200 D) 36

2. 4% of 400 – 2% of 800=?
A) -4 B) 0 C) 2 D) 16

3. A man has 532 flower pots. He wants to arrange them in rows such that each row contains 21
flower pots. Find the number of completed rows
A) 32 B) 25 C) 21 D) 7

4. LCM is not always _________ the largest of the given numbers.

A) Greater than B) Equal to C) Multiple of D) Smaller than

5. If A:B = 7:13, and B:C = 65: 25 find the ratio of A:B:C is

A) 7:13:25 B) 7:13:5 C) 7:65:25 D) 7:5:25

6. The ration of 20 miles to 25km is

A) 4:5 B) 6:5 C) 32:25 D) 33:50

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7. In what time will Rs.2,000 amount to Rs.2,420 at 10% per annum compound interest?
A) 4 years B) 3 years C) 2 years D) 1 year

8. What is compound Interest on Rs.5,000 at 12% per annum for 2 years compounded annually?
A) RS.1,227 B) RS.1,272 C) RS.2,172 D) RS.2,721

9. A mat of length 80m is made by 6 men in 15 days. How long will it take for 16 men to make a
mat of length 256 m?

10. P alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and Q alone in 8 days. P and Q undertook the work for
Rs.4,800. With the help of R, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is R‘s share?
A) Rs.580 B) Rs.585 C) Rs.590 D) Rs.600

11. In the given Pie-chart A,B,C,D,E and F-represents schools in a town. If the total number of stu-
dents are 16,000, then the ration of 2 schools which is equal to the B:d is

A) F and C B) C and F C) F and D D) D and F

12. If the price of orid dhall after 20% increase is Rs.96 per kg, then find the original price of orid dhall
per kg?
A) Rs.100 B) Rs.80 C) Rs.116 D) Rs.76

13. The length, breadth and height of a room as 825 cm, 675 cm and 450 cm respectively. Find the
longest tape which can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly?
A) 44550 cms B) 14850 cms C) 75 cms D) 1350 cms

14. What is the smallest 5 digit number that is exactly divisible by 72 and 108?
A) 10000 B) 10152 C) 10072 D) 10108

15. 6 Women or 8 men can construct a room in 86 days. Then the time taken for 7 women and 5 men
to do the same type of room is_____
A) 48 days B) 84 days C) 42 days D) 24 days

16. A certain sum of money amount to Rs.8,880 in 6 years and Rs. 7,920 in 4 years respectively. Find
the principal and rate percent?
A) Rs.8,500,12% B) Rs.7,000, 6% C) Rs.7,500,8% D) Rs.6,000,8%
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17. In what time will Rs.13,000 amount to Rs.15,080 at 8% simple interest per annum?
A) 2 years B) 3 years C) 4 years D) 5 years

18. The area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 10 cm and 12 cm is

A) 30 cm2 B) 60 cm2 C) 120 cm2 D) 240 cm2

19. Two identical cubes of side 7 cm are joined end to end. Find the Total surface area of the new re-
sulting cuboid
A) 294 cm2 B) 360 cm2 C) 490 cm2 D) 560 cm2

20. The Value of 152+162+172+……282 is

A) 6600 B) 6699 C) 77000 D) 77114

21. A person saved money every year, half as mush as he could in the previous year. If he had totally
saved Rs. 7,875 in 6 years then how much did he save in the first year?
A) Rs.3,000 B) Rs. 4,000 C) Rs. 5,000 D) Rs.6,000

22. Find the value of 𝑥, 3 ∶ 27 ∶∶ 4 ∶ 𝑥

A) 36 B) 64 C) 16 D) 8

23. Two Dice has the numbers 1,2,2,2,2,2 on its sides. Two dice are thrown, what is probability to get
different numbers?
30 10 5 25
A) 36 B) 36 C) 36 D) 36

24. Kannan on seeing a boy said, that, he is the son of his father‘s only son, who is Kannan to that
boy?
A) Son B) Grand Son C) Grand Father D) Father

25. If ∶ 𝑦 = 3 ∶ 4 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 (4𝑠 + 5𝑦) ∶ (5𝑥 – 2𝑦) = ?

A) 32 : 7 B) 36 : 5 C) 34 : 7 D) 35 : 8

15. ASSISTANT JAILOR (MEN & WOMEN) IN TAMIL NADU JAIL

SUBORDINATE SERVICE - 2023

1. At what rate percent compound interest will Rs.625 amount to Rs. 900 in 2 years?
A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

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2. Find the HCF of 252525 and 363636?
A) 10110 B) 11010 C) 10101 D) 10011

3. If the price of Orid dhall after 25% increase is Rs.1875 per bag. Find the original price of orid dhall
per bag?
A) Rs. 1450 B) Rs. 1550 C) Rs. 1500 D) Rs. 1600

4. In a certain code, ‗MEDICINE‘ is coded as ‗EOJDJEFM‘, then how is ‗COMPUTER‘ written in the
same code?
A) CNPRVUFQ B) CMNQTUDR C) RFUVQNPC D) RNVEFTUDQ

5. If ‗@‘ mean ‘𝑋’ ‘𝑐’ means ′ ÷ ′ ′%′ means ‗+‘ amd $ means ′ − ′ then 6%12𝑐3@8$3 =?
A) 33 B) 35 C) 37 D) 39

6. A and B together can do a piece of work in 8 days, but A alone can do it in 12 days. How many
days would B alone take to do the same work?
A) 4 days B) 20 days C) 24 days D) 8 days
7. A solid sphere of radius 𝑥 cm is melted and cast into a shape of a solid cone of same radius. The
height of the cone is _______
A) 3𝑥 𝑐𝑚 B) 𝑥 𝑐𝑚 C) 𝟒𝒙 𝒄𝒎 D) 2𝑥 𝑐𝑚

8. Find the principal which amounts to Rs. 169 in 2 years at 4% per annum in compound interest
A) Rs. 150.50 B) Rs. 154.75 C) Rs.156.25 D) Rs.158

9. Find the simple interest for 2 years on Rs. 4,000 at the rate of interest 5% per annum
A) Rs. 300 B) Rs. 500 C) Rs. 400 D) Rs. 200

10. Three numbers are in the ratio 4:5:6 and their average is 25. Then the largest number number is
A) 45 B) 40 C) 35 D) 30

11. Find the smallest square number which is divisible by each of the numbers 6, 9 and 15.
A) 900 B) 800 C) 400 D) 100

12. A geometric series consists of even number of terms. The sum of all terms is 3 times of the sum of
odd terms. Find the common ratio.
A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5

13. How many terms of the arithemetic series 24+21+18+15+….., be taken continuously so that their
sum is -351
A) 25 B) 24 C) 23 D) 26

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14. The mean of the data is 12𝑥, 28 is 18. Find the value of 𝑥.
A) 14 B) 16 C) 18 D) 22

15. The clock is set at 7 a.m. If the clock slows down two minutes every hour. Find the time shown by
the clock at 6 p.m.?
A) 5 hours 38 minutes B) 6 hours 38 minutes
C) 5 hours 22 minutes D) 6 hours 22 minutes

16. What is 25% of 30% of 400?

A) 80 B) 30 C) 40 D) 60

17. If 3𝐴 = 5𝐵 = 6𝐶 then find 𝐴: 𝐵: 𝐶

A) 10:6:5 B) 6:5:10 C) 5:6:10 D) 5:10:6

18. Find the smallest number by which 10985 should be divided so that the quotient is a perfect
square?
A) 55 B) 65 C) 75 D) 13

19. Calculate the compound interest on Rs.5,000 for 1 1 2 years at 4% per annum, interest being
compounded half yearly.
A) Rs.306.02 B) Rs.306.03 C) Rs.306.04 D) Rs. 306.05

20. In what time will Rs.5,600 amount to Rs.6,720 at 6% per annum?

1 𝟏
A) 3 years B) 3 2 years C) 𝟑 𝟑 years D) 4 years

21. The America‘s famous Golden Gate bridge is 6480 ft. long with 756 ft tall towers. A model of this
bridge (in proportion to the original bridge) exhibited in a fair is 60 ft long with ______ feet tall
tower.
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

22. Find the least number that is divisible by the first ten natural numbers
A) 2530 B) 2520 C) 2510 D) 2500

23. Find the highest common factor of 0 and 6 ______

A) 0 B) 3 C) 6 D) Undefined

24. The population of a village increases by 5% annually. If the present population is 50,000, what will
be its population after 2 years?
A) 65678 B) 65677 C) 55677 D) 55676

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25. Simplify 20 + 8 × 2 + (6 × 3 − 10 ÷ 5
A) 1 B) 5 C) 25 D) 52

16. POST OF ASSISTANT TRAINING OFFICER

1. The income of a person is increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. How much percent
does he lose?
A) 1% B) 2% C) 5% D) 7%

6.5 x 4.7 + (6.5 x 5.3)

2. Simplify : 1.3 x 7.9 − (1.3 x 6.9)
A) 50.15 B) 10.5 C) 1.5 D) 50

𝑥 2 − 16 ÷𝑥−4
3. Simplify :
𝑥+4 𝑥+4
A) (𝒙 + 𝟒) B) (𝑥 − 4)
C) 𝑥 + 4 (𝑥 − 4) D) (𝑥 2 − 42 )

4. Find the greatest number consisting of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 24, 15,36
A) 999360 B) 999720 C) 999540 D) 999900

5. Kalai wants to cut identical squares as big as she can from a piece of paper measuring 168 mm
by 196 mm. What is the length of the side of the biggest square?
A) 28 mm B) 56 mm C) 14 mm D) 168 mm

6. The LCM of two numbers is 432 and their HCF is 36. If one of the number is 108, then find the
other number
A) 124 B) 144 C) 120 D) 146

7. Find the (LCM) Lowest Common Multiple of 24𝑥 2 𝑦, 36𝑥𝑦 2 and 48𝑥𝑦
A) 24𝑥 2 𝑦 2 B) 144𝑥 4 𝑦 4 C) 24𝑥 4 𝑦 4 D) 𝟏𝟒𝟒𝒙𝟐 𝒚𝟐

8. Divide 180 in the ratio 10:8

A) 100 : 80 B) 50 : 25 C) 18 : 2 D) 1 : 8

9. A book has 70 pages with 30 lines of printed matter, on each page. If each page is to have only 20
lines of printed matter, then the number of pages that the book have is
A) 210 B) 140 C) 105 D) 60

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10. An office opens at 9.00 a.m. and closes at 5.30 p.m. with a lunch interval of 30 minutes. Then
the ratio of lunch interval to total period in the office is
A) 1 : 17 B) 17 : 1 C) 3 : 18 D) 2 : 17

11. A principal becomes Rs. 10,050 at the rate of 10% in 5 years. Then find the principal?
A) Rs.2,350 B) Rs.3,350 C) Rs.3,450 D) Rs. 3,650

12. Find the SI for Rs. 2,000 at 5% p.a. for 2 years.

A) Rs.200 B) Rs. 400 C) Rs.500 D) Rs. 600

13. In how many years will Rs. 1,600 becomes Rs. 1,852.20 at 5% per annum where interest com-
pounded annually?
A) 2 years B) 2 ½ Years C) 3 years D) 4 years

14. The population of a town is increasing at the rate of 6% per annum. It was 2,38,765 in the year
2018. Find the population in the year 2016.
A) 2,00,125 B) 2,01,250 C) 2,12,500 D) 2,21,500

15. Find out the circumference of a circle whose diameter is 21 cm?

A) 66 cm B) 33 cm C) 65.94 cm D) 62 cm

16. Find the surface area of a spherical ball of diameter 14 cm.

A) 416 sq.cm. B) 600 sq.cm. C) 610 sq.cm. D) 616 sq.cm.

17. A can do a work in 24 days. If A and B together can finish the work in 6 days, then B alone can
finish the work in how many days?
A) 10 days B) 8 days C) 6 days D) 4 days

18. Carpenter A takes 15 minutes to fit the parts of a chair while carpenter B takes 3 minutes more
than A to do the same work. Working together, how long will it take for them to fit the parts for 22
chairs?
A) 55 minutes B) 120 minutes C) 160 minutes D) 180 minutes

19. Which one of the following is true?

i) If A is a brother of B, then B is a brother of A
ii) If A likes B and B likes C then A likes C
iii) If A ≠B and B≠C then A ≠C
A) Both (i) and (ii) B) ii only
C) All the three D) None of three

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20. M is the daughter of N, O is son of N, also father of P, what is the relation between P and N?
A) Grandmother B) Mother C) Aunt D) Sister

21. Count the number 7 present in the 2 digit numbers.

A) 10 B) 18 C) 19 D) 20

22. The difference between simple interest and compound interest for a sum of Rs. 8,000 lent at
10% p.a. in 2 years is
A) Rs.60 B) Rs.70 C) Rs. 80 D) Rs. 90

23. Find out the wrong term from this series :

89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83
A) 83 B) 86 C) 82 D) 78

24. How many numbers are there between 300 and 600 which are exactly divisible by 7?
A) 34 B) 43 C) 35 D) 44

25. If a clock strikes once at 1 O'clock, twice at 2 O'clock and so on, how many times will it strikes in
a day?
A) 48 B) 78 C) 156 D) 300

17. RESEARCH ASSISTANT IN THE INSTITUTE OF VETERINARY

1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 16 days and A alone can do it in 48 days. How long
will B take to complete the work?
A) 12 B) 16 C) 22 D) 24

2. If LCM of two numbers a and b is c, then what is the GCD (HCF) of 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏?
𝒂𝒃 𝑎𝑐 𝑏𝑐 𝐶
A) B) C) D) 𝑎𝑏
𝒄 𝑏 𝑎

3. A tank can hold 150 litres of water at present it is only 40% full. How many litres of water will fill
the tank so that it is 70% full?
A) 35Lit B) 45 Lit C) 50 Lit D) 601

4. If 𝑃 denotes ÷, 𝑄 denotes ×, 𝑅 denotes +, 𝑆 denotes -, then what is the value of

18 𝑄12𝑃4𝑅5𝑆 6?
A) 36 B) 53 C)59 D)65

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5. Praveen recently got the registration number for his new-two wheeler. Here, the number is given
in the form of mirror-image. Encode the image and find the correct registration number of Pra-
veen's two-wheeler.

A) B)

C) D) 9852H21NT

6. A man bought 75 mangoes for 𝑅𝑠. 300 and sold 50 mangoes for Rs. 300. If he sold all the man-
goes find his profit or loss.
A) Rs.150 B) Rs.250 C) Rs.100 D) Rs.50

7. Find the Altitude of Equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 48 cm.

A) 27.712 cm B) 10.392 cm C) 11.312 cm D) 13.856 cm

8. A sum invested for 2 years at the rate of 15% p.a. compounded annually will fetches a com-
pound interest of Rs. 3,225. Find the sum
A) Rs.5,000 B) Rs.10,000 C) Rs.20,000 D) Rs.10,000

9. What will be the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs.16,800 in 9 months at the rate of
64% per annum?
A) 787.50 B) Rs. 812.50 C) Rs.860.00 D) Rs.25,000

10. What is the ratio 40 minutes to 1 hour?

A) 40:1 B) 1: 40 C) 2:3 D) 3: 2

11. The LCM of 𝑥 3 − 27, 𝑥 − 3 2 , 𝑥 2 − 9 is

A) (𝒙 − 𝟑)𝟐 𝒙 + 𝟑 (𝒙𝟐 + 𝟑𝒙 + 𝟗) B) (𝑥 − 3)2 (𝑥 + 3)2 (𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 9)
C) (𝑥 − 3)2 (𝑥 + 3)2 D) (𝑥 − 3)2 (𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 9)

12. The LCM of two numbers is 2002 and their HCF is 22. If one of the number is 154, then find the
other number.
A) 268 B) 286 C) 278 D) 276

13. Find the value of 𝑘, if 13 + 23 + 33 + ⋯ … . + 𝑘 3 = 4356

A) 11 B) 10 C) 12 D) 9

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3𝑦 −3 7𝑦 −7
14. ÷ is
𝑦 3𝑦 2
𝟗𝒚 9𝑦 3 21𝑦 3 − 42𝑦 +21 7(𝑦 2 − 2𝑦 +1)
A) B) C) D)
𝟕 (21𝑦 −21) 3𝑦 3 𝑦3

15. 𝐴 and 𝐵 can do a piece of work in 60 days and 75 days respectively. Both begins together but
after a certain time, A leaves off. In such case, B finishes the remaining work in 30 days. After
how many days did A leave?
A) 20 B) 21 C) 24 D) 25

16. The volume of the largest sphere which can be carved out of a cube of side 6 cm is
A) 113.14 cm3 B) 166 cm3 C) 179.66 cm3 D) 188.52 cm3

17. Find the L.C.M. of 35 𝑎2 𝑐 3 𝑏, 42 𝑎3 𝑐𝑏 2 , 30 𝑎𝑐 2 𝑏 3

A) 210 𝑎2 𝑏𝑐 B) 𝟐𝟏𝟎 𝒂𝟑 𝒄𝟑 𝒃𝟑
C) 210 𝑎𝑐 2 𝑏 2 D) 210 𝑎3 𝑐 3 𝑏 2

18. The unit digit of 4631 is

A) 6 B) 4 C) 2 D) 8

19. The value of a motor cycle 2 years ago was Rs.70,000. If depreciates at the rate of 4% p.a. Find
its present value.
A) Rs.64,400 B) Rs.64,512 C) Rs.65,500 D) Rs.66,500

20. Kumar borrowed Rs. 8,500 from a bank at a particular rate of simple interest. After 3 years, he
paid Rs. 11,050 to settle his debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the money from bank.
A) 8% B) 9% C)10% D) 11%

21. The cost of 15 chairs is Rs. 7500. The number of such chairs that can be purchased for Rs.
12,000 is
A) 15 B) 20 C) 24 D) 30

1
22. The sum of given two numbers is 45 and their difference is 9 of their sum. Then the LCM of giv-
en two numbers is_______
A)100 B)150 C)200 D) 50

23. The HCF of two numbers is 36 and their LCM is 432. If one of the number is 108, then find the
other number.
A) 132 B)152 C) 144 D) 126

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24. 12% of 250 litres is the same as 𝑥% of 150 litres. Find 𝑥
A) 10% B)15% C) 20% D) 30%

25. Among 120 students of a group, there are 2/5 part of students like mathematics, 3/8 part of stu-
dents like science and remaining like social science. Then find the ratio of them.
A) 12:9:5 B) 4 : 3 : 1 C) 16:15:9 D) 8 : 5: 3

18. Posts of JAILOR (Men) and JAILOR (Special Prison for Women) in Prisons &
Correctional Services Department included in the Tamil Nadu Jail Service. Pa-
per- II
1. Lokesh invested Rs.10,000 in a bank that pays an interest of 10% per annum. He withdraw the
amount after 2 years and 3 months. Find the interest he receives
A) Rs.1,750 B) Rs.2,000 C)Rs. 2,250 D) Rs.2,500

2. If a principal is getting doubled after 4 years, then calculate the rate of Simple interest
A) 20% B) 25% C) 30% D) 50%

3. In how many years will a sum of Rs.5,000 amount to Rs.5,800 at the rate of 8% per annum?
A) 2 years B) 2 ½ years C) 3 years D) 1 year

4. Two dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting a doublet or sum of faces as 4.
1 4 5 𝟐
A) 9 B)9 C)9 D)𝟗

5. A man has two children and atleast one of them is a girl. What is the probability that both child-
ren are girls?
𝟏 1 1 3
A) 𝟑 B)2 C)4 D)3

6. At what rate percent per annum, compound interest will Rs.10,000 amount to Rs.13,310 in three
years?
A) 9% B) 7% C) 8½% D) 10%

7. In a Laboratory, the count of bacteria in a certain experiment was increasing at the rate of 2.5%
per hour. Find the bacteria at the end of 2 hours if the count was initially 5,05,600.
A) 531196 B) 539611 C) 511396 D) 539116

8. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are increased by 10%. Then the volume of the cubo-
id is increased by. ______%.
A) 30% B) 33% C)33.1% D)33.3%

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9. The surface area of a sphere is 154 sq.m. Find its diameter.
A) 7 m B) 10.5m C)14m D) 21 m

10. The volume of a cylindrical water tank is 1.078 × 106 litres. If the diameter of the tank is 7 m find
its height.
A) 28 m B) 7 m C)78m D)18m

11. If the HCF of two numbers 36 and 156 is 12, then its LCM is
A) 468 B)452 C) 152 D)156

12. If 𝑡𝑛 is the 𝑛𝑡𝑕 term of A.P., then 𝑡2𝑛 − 𝑡𝑛 is_____.

A) 𝒏𝒅 B) 𝑛 + 1 𝑑 C) 𝑛 − 1 𝑑 D)𝑛𝑑 + 1

13. Next term in the sequence 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, is

A) 39 B)41 C) 43 D)45

14. Find the value of (13 + 23 +33 +.... + 153) - (1 + 2 + 3+……+15)

A) 14400 B)14200 C)14280 D) 14520

15. Find the GCD of the following: (𝑥 3 − 27), (𝑥 − 3)2 , (𝑥² − 9)

A) (𝒙 − 𝟑) B) (𝑥 + 3) C) (𝑥 − 3)2 D) (𝑥 – 9)

16. The product of 2 two digit numbers is 300 and their HCF is 5. What are the numbers?
A) (15,20) B) (10,30) C) (50, 60) D) (25,12)

17. Study the following and answer: 4 − 1 ÷ 32 × 2 + 10 ÷ 7 ÷ 3 − 8 × 4 − 7 = ?

In the above mentioned problem, If all are +,all are x, all + are -, all x are then, what will be the
result?
A) 210 B) 260 C) 300 D) 840

18. If AT = 20, BAT = 40 then What will be equal to CAT?

A) 30 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

19. 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 can do a piece of work in 4, 6 and 10 days respectively. If 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 work together to
complete the work, then find their separate shares if they will be paid Rs.3,100/- for completing
the job.
A) 1500 : 1000 : 600 B) 600 1000 : 1500
C) 700 1100: 1300 D) 1300 1100 : 700

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20. Madhavi and Anbu bought two tables for Rs.750 and Rs.900 respectively. What is the ratio of
the Prices of tables bought by Anbu and Madhavi?
A) 3 : 4 B) 4 : 3 C) 5 :6 D) 6 : 5

21. If the ratio of Green : Yellow : Black balls in a bag is 4 : 3 : 5, then how many balls in total are
there in the bag, if you have 40 black balls in it?
A) 12 B) 56 C) 64 D) 96

22. 60 workers can spin a bale of cotton in 7 days. In how many days will 42 workers spin it?
A)11 B) 15 C) 12 D) 10

23. 4 typists are employed to complete a work in 12 days. If two more typists are added, they will
finish the same work in days.
A) 11 B) 15 C) 12 D) 10

24. A number when decreased by 20% gives 80. Find the number.
A) 200 B) 100 C) 300 D) 400

14𝑝 5 𝑞 3 12𝑝 3 𝑞 4
25. Simplify: −
2𝑝 2 𝑞 3𝑞 2
3 2
A) 11𝑝 𝑞 B) 3𝑝6 𝑞 4 C) 𝟑𝒑𝟑 𝒒𝟐 D) B) 11𝑝6 𝑞 4

19. MASS INTERVIEWER IN PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE DE-

PARTMENT
1. If 1 + 2 + 3 + ⋯ + 𝑘 = 325 then find the value of 13 + 23 + 33 + ⋯ . . +𝑘 3
A) 103425 B) 105605 C) 105625 D) 106625

2. In a flower bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the third, and so
on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. How many rows are there in the flower bed?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 13 D) 15

3. Find x such that 3𝑥 +2 = 3𝑥 + 216

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

4. Arrange the digits of each of the given numbers in ascending order and find the smallest.
435, 876, 923, 574
A) 435 B) 876 C) 923 D) 574

5. The algebraic statement for 5 less to 2 times ′𝑝′

A) 5𝑝 − 2 B) 𝟐𝒑 − 𝟓 C) 2 − 5𝑝 D) 5 − 2𝑝
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APTITUDE
6. In a survey of university students 64 had taken mathematics course, 94 had taken computer
science course, 58 had taken physics course, 28 had taken mathematics and physics, 26 had
taken mathematics and computer science, 22 had taken computer science and physics course
and 14 had taken all the three courses. Then the number of students who had taken one course
only is
A) 216 B) 154 C) 140 D) 106

7. Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting different faces on the coins?
1 2 1
A) ½ B) 6 C) 3 D) 3

8. In class VIII, a math club has four members M, A, T and H. Find the number of different ways,
the club can elect.
(i) A leader
(ii) A leader and an assistant leader
A) 12,8 B) 4,12 C) 4,16 D) 12,4

9. If 30 men can reap a field in 15 days, then in how many days can 20 men reap the same field?
A)10 B) 12 C)15 D) 22.5

10. 60 workers can spin a bale of cotton in 7 days. In how many days will 42 workers spin it?
A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25

11. 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 can do a piece of job in 4, 6 and 10 days respectively. If 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 work together to
complete, then find their separate shares if they will be paid =3,100 for completing the job.
A) 1000 : 1500 : 600 B) 1500 : 600 : 1000
C) 1500 : 1000: 600 D) 600 : 1000: 1500

12. The volume of cylinder is 448 𝜋 cubic. c.m. and the height is 7 cm. Find its lateral surface area?
A) 352 𝜋. 𝑐. 𝑚2 B) 𝟏𝟏𝟐 𝝅. 𝒄. 𝒎𝟐 C) 128 𝜋. 𝑐. 𝑚2 D) 240 𝜋. 𝑐. 𝑚2

13. Find the volume of a cylinder whose height is 2 m and whose base area is 250 m2
A) 300 𝑚3 B) 250 𝑚3 C) 𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝒎𝟑 D) 400 𝑚3

14. The present height of a tree is 847 cm. Find its height two years ago if it is increase at 10% p.a.
A) 400 cm B) 800 cm C) 500 cm D) 700 cm

15. Find the rate of compound interest at which a principal becomes 1.69 times itself in 2 years?
A) 69% B) 60% C) 30% D) 3%

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16. What will be the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs.16,800 in 9 months at the rate of
1
6 4 % p.a?
A) 787.50 B) Rs.812.50 C) Rs.860 D) 887.50

17. In what time will = 5,600 amount to ± 6,720 at 6% per annum?

𝟏 1
A) 𝟑 𝟑 𝒀𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒔 B) 3 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 C) 2 2 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 D) 2 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

18. An aircraft can accomodate 280 people in 2 trips. It can take trips to take 1400 people.
A) 8 B) 10 C) 9 D) 12

19. A farmer has enough food for 144 ducks for 28 days. If he sells 32 ducks, how long will the food
last?
A) 36 B)72 C) 38 D) 27

20. LCM of 𝑥 3 + 1, 𝑥 2 − 1, 𝑥 + 1 2
A) (𝑥 + 1)2 B) 𝑥 − 1 (𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1)
C) 𝑥 − 1 2 (𝑥 − 1)2 (𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 1) D) 𝒙 − 𝟏 𝟐 (𝒙 − 𝟏) (𝒙𝟐 − 𝒙 + 𝟏)

21. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 8. Which one of the following can never be their LCM.
A) 24 B) 48 C) 56 D)60

22. Find the highest common factor (HCF) 16𝑥³𝑦², 24𝑥𝑦³𝑧.

A) 24𝑥𝑦³𝑧 B) 48𝑥𝑦³ C) 16𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 D) 𝟖𝒙𝒚𝟐

23. Find the HCF of 396,504,636.

A) 1 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24

24. A cloth shrinks 0.5% when washed what fraction is this?

1 1 1 𝟏
A) B) C) D)
5 20 50 𝟐𝟎𝟎

25. Find the value of 27 + 12

A) 39 B) 5 6 C) 𝟓 𝟑 D) 3 5

26. A man ate 100 grapes in 5 days. Each day he ate 6 more graphes than those he ate on the ear-
lier days. How many grapes did he eat on the first day?
A) 8 B) 12 C) 54 D) 76

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APTITUDE
20. TAMIL NADU TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING AND GENERAL SUBORDI-
NATE SERVICE
1. At what rate percentage p.a. will Rs. 5625 amount to Rs. 6084 in 2 years at compound interest?
A) 2% B) 2.08% C) 4% D) 4.08%

2. When two dice are rolled, what is the probability that the sum of the faces added up is less
than9?
13 18 𝟏𝟑 12
A) 36 B) 36 C) 𝟏𝟖 D) 18

1
3. The Value of 4 + 1 + + … … . . + ∞ 𝑖𝑠
4
𝟏𝟔 4 32 64
A) B) 3 C) D)
𝟑 3 3

4. The length and breadth of a rectangular plot are 5×105 and 4x104 metres respectively. Find the
area of a rectangle.
A) 9 x 101 𝑚2 B) 9 x 109 𝑚2 C) 2 𝐱 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎𝒎𝟐 D) 20 x 1020 𝑚2

5. Find the sum of the following 6 + 13 + 20 + ⋯ … . +97

A) 721 B) 724 C) 727 D) 750

6. Given 𝐹1 = 1, 𝐹2 = 3, 𝐹𝑛 = 𝐹𝑛 −1 + 𝐹𝑛−2 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝐹10 𝑖𝑠

A) 29 B) 322 C) 199 D) 123

7. (i) Diagonals of a rhombus always bisect each other.

(ii) Diagonals of a rhombus always cut at right angles
A) (i) and (ii) both are correct B) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong
C) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct D) (i) and (ii) both are wrong

8. On folding the given paper which of the following cube can not be formed?

1) 2) 3) 4)
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 B) 1, 2 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1,3 and

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9. Kamal can do a work in 15 days. Bimal is 50% more efficient than Kamal. The number of days
Bimal will take to do the same work is
A) 10.5 days B) 15 days C) 12 days D) 10 days

10. 5 boys or 3 girls can do a science project in 40 days. How long will it take for 15 boys and 6 girls
to do the same project?
A) 12 B) 8 C) 10 D) 16

11. The radius of a cylinder is one third of its height, then the total surface area of the cylinder is
𝟖𝝅𝒉𝟐 9𝜋𝑕 2 56𝜋𝑕 2
A) B) C) 24𝜋𝑕2 D)
𝟗 8 9

12. If a quarter of circular paper of diameter 28 cm is made into a cone, find the slant height and
C.S.A of the cone
A) 14cm, 154 cm2 B) 28cm, 154 cm2 C) 28cm, 308 cm2 D) 14cm, 308cm2

13. Find the compound interest for the data given below :
1
Principle = Rs. 5,000, r = 4% p.a., n=12 years, interest compounded half – yearly.
A) Rs.306.50 B) Rs. 310.50 C) Rs.307 D) Rs.306.04

14. The bacteria in a culture grows by 5% in the first hour, decreases by 8% in the second hour and
again increases by 10% in the third hour. Find the count of the bacteria at the end of 3 hours. If
its initial count was 10,000.
A) Rs. 10,626 B) Rs. 10,620 C) Rs. 10,660 D) Rs. 10,266

15. A sum of Rs. 46, 000 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 1 year 9 months, the total
amount was Rs. 52,440. Find the rate of interest per year
A) 6% B) 8% C)10% D) 4%

16. Sheela has paid simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 9.5% per annum is Rs. 21,280.
Find the sum
A) Rs.60,000 B) Rs.58,000 C) Rs. 56,000 D) Rs.54,000

17. Simple interest on Rs. 1,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is
A) Rs.2,000 B) Rs.1,000 C) Rs. 200 D) Rs.100

18. 60 workers can spin a bale of cotton in 7 days. In how many days will 42 workers spin it?
A) 13 days B) 15 days C) 10 days D) 14 days

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19. A family cleans a house for Pongal celebration by dividing the work in the ratio 1: 2:3. Express
each portion of work as percentage
A) 10%, 20%, 30% B) 12%, 24%, 36%
2 1 𝟐 𝟏
C) 203 %, 413 %, 62% D) 16𝟑 %, 33𝟑 %, 50%

20. Find the LCM of the following 24𝑥 2 𝑦 3 𝑧 4 , 8𝑥 3 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 , 16𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 3

A) 8𝑥 3 𝑦 3 𝑧 3 B) 48𝑥 3 𝑦 3 𝑧 3 C) 𝟒𝟖𝒙𝟑 𝒚𝟑 𝒛𝟒 D) 48𝑥 2 𝑦 3 𝑧 4

21. Find the LCM of 8𝑥 4 𝑦 2 , 48𝑥 2 𝑦 4

A) 6𝑥𝑦 B) 𝟒𝟖𝒙𝟒 𝒚𝟒 C) 96𝑥 2 𝑦 2 D) 384𝑥 6 𝑦 6

22. The HCF of 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 12 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6 𝑖𝑠

A) 𝒙 − 𝟐 B) 𝑥 + 2 C) 𝑥 + 6 D) ) 𝑥 − 3

23. A book seller has 175 English books, 245 science books and 385 mathematics books. He wants
to sell the books in a box, subject wise in equal numbers, what will be the greatest number of the
boxes required?
A)77 B) 63 C) 49 D) 35

24. Simplify : 3 75 + 5 48 − 243

A) 25 5 B) 15 3 C) 𝟐𝟔 𝟑 D) 26 5

25. An item marked at Rs. 840 is sold for Rs. 714. What is the discount %?
A) 20% B) 15% C) 10% D) 5%

21. JUNIOR SCIENTIFIC OFFICER IN TAMIL NADU FORENSIC SCIENCES

1. The traffic lights at three different road junctions change after every 40 seconds, 60 seconds and
72 seconds respectively. If they changed simultaneously together at 8 a.m. at what time will they
simultaneously change together again?
A) 8.40a.m B) 9.06 a.m C) 8.06 a.m D) 8.6 a.m

2. A tank can hold 50 litres of water. At present only 30% of the tank is filled. How many litres of
water is required to fill 50% of the tank
A) 5 ltr B) 10 ltr C) 15 ltr D) 25 ltr

3. If A → 1, B →2, C → 3 ..... Z → 26
H.C.F of (I, X) : L.C.M. of (C, P) = ?
A) 16 : 1 B) 3 : 2 C) 1:16 D) 2: 3

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A → 1, B →2, C → 3 ………Z →26

4. Find the 21st term of an A.P 2, 3 ½ , 5, 6 ½ ,...

A) 32 B) 30 ½ C) 28 D) 31 ½

5. Find the sum of first 28 terms of an Arithmetic progression (A.P) whose n th term is 4n - 3.
A) 1045 B) 1054 C) 1450 D) 1540

6. The temperature at 12 noon at certain place was 18° above zero. If it decreases at the rate of 3°
per hour at what time it would be 12° below zero?
A) 12 mid night B)12 noon C) 10a.m D) 10 p.m

7. If a mirror is placed below the word HIDE, what word will you see?

A) B) C) HIDE D)

8. A and B under take to do a piece of work for Rs. 1200. A alone can do it in 8 days, while B can
do it in 6 days. With the help of C, they complete it in 3 days. Find C's share?
A) Rs.150 B) Rs.100 C) Rs. 450 D) Rs.300

9. If 6 men or 8 women can finish a work in 12 days. In how many days 9 men and 12 women will
finish the work?
A) 4 days B) 3 days C) 6 days D) 5 days

10. A solid sphere of radius x cm is melted and cast into a sphere of a solid cone of same radius.
The height of the cone is
A) 3𝑥 𝑐𝑚 B) 𝑥 𝑐𝑚 C) 𝟒𝒙 𝒄𝒎 D) 2𝑥 𝑐𝑚

11. Find the volume (in cm³) of the greatest sphere that can be cut from a cylindrical log of wood of
radius 1cm and height 5 cm.
𝟒 10 20
A) 𝝅 B) 𝜋 C) 5𝜋 D) 𝜋
𝟑 3 3

12. One side of a right angled triangle is twice the other, and the hypotenuse is 10 cm. The area of
the triangle is
1
A) 20 cm2 B) 33 3 𝑐𝑚2 C) 40 𝑐𝑚2 D) 50 𝑐𝑚2

13. The difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at
2% p.a is t. 1 the sum of money is
A) Rs.2,000 B) Rs.1,500 C) Rs.3,000 D) Rs.2,500

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APTITUDE
14. Find the principal, if the amount compounded annually for two years at the rate of 10% per an-
num is Rs. 6,050
A) Rs.3,025 B) Rs.3,500 C)Rs.4,000 D) Rs.5,000

15. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on Rs.1,500 for one year at 10%
per annum reckoned half yearly is
A) Rs.3.50 B) Rs.3.25 C) Rs.3.75 D) Rs.3.80

16. Anita took a loan of Rs.9,000 from a money lender, who charged interest at the rate of 15% per
annum. After 3 years, Anita paid him Rs.12,500 and a wrist watch to clear the debt. What is the
price of the watch?
A) Rs.600 B) Rs.550 C) Rs.500 D) Rs.450

17. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days and 20 days respectively. They started to work to-
gether and B left after some days of work and A finished the remaining work in 4 days. After how
many days from the start did B leave?
A) 8 B)7 C) 6 D) 5

18. If a 𝑥 ∶ 𝑦 = 2: 3 find the value of (3𝑥 + 2𝑦) ∶ (2𝑥 + 5𝑦)

A) 2 : 3 B) 19: 12 C) 3 : 2 D) 12: 19

19. Find the LCM of the given polynomials 5𝑥 2 − 10𝑥, 𝑥 2 − 4, (𝑥 − 2)2

A) 5𝑥 (𝑥 2 − 2𝑥) (𝑥 − 2)2 B) 5𝑥(𝑥 2 + 2𝑥)(𝑥 − 2)2
C) 𝟓(𝒙𝟐 + 𝟐𝒙)(𝒙 − 𝟐)𝟐 D) 5(𝑥 2 − 2𝑥)(𝑥 − 2)2

20. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3: 5 and their L.C.M is 900, then their HCF is equal to
A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 150

21. GCD of 𝑥 3 − 27, (𝑥 − 3)2 , 𝑥 2 − 9 is

A) 𝒙 − 𝟑 B) 𝑥 + 3
C) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 9 D) None of these

22. HCF of 25𝑎𝑏 3 𝑐, 100𝑎2 𝑏𝑐, 125𝑎𝑏𝑐 is

A) 𝟐𝟓𝒂𝒃𝒄 B) 53 𝑎𝑏𝑐 C) 25 𝑎3 𝑏𝑐 D) 25 𝑎𝑏 2 𝑐

23. During Aadi sale the price of shirt decreases from Rs. 90 to Rs.50. What is the percentage of
decrease?
𝟒
A) 40% B) 𝟒𝟒 𝟗 % C) 50% D) 44%

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APTITUDE
24. What percent of 25 kg is 3.5 kg?
A) 41% B) 14% C) 140% D) 5%

25. Ram bought 36 mangoes, of the mangoes that were rotten? What is the percentage mangoes
were rotten?
A) 31.88% B) 13.88% C) 13.89% D) 13.7%

22. COMBINED GEOLOGY SUBORDINATE

1. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B and C can do it in 15 days whereas A and C
can do it in 20 days. How long will B take to do the same work.
A) 10 days B)15 days C) 30 days D) 20 days

4
2. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal and the number of years is equal
9
to the rate percent per annum then find therate per annum.
1 𝟐 1 2
A) 6 3 % B) 𝟔 𝟑 % C) 5 3 % D) 5 3 %

3. If the ratios formed using the numbers 2, 5, 𝑥, 20 in the same order inproportion, then ′𝑥′ is
A) 50 B) 4 C) 10 D) 8

4. 𝐼𝑓 𝐴 = 2 65 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = 2 64 + 263 + 2 62 + … . . + 2 0 Which of the following is true?

𝐴 = 2 65 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = 2 64 + 263 + 2 62 + … . . + 2 0
A) 𝐵 𝑖𝑠 264 𝑚𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑎𝑛 𝐴 B) 𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙
C) 𝐵 𝑖𝑠 𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑕𝑎𝑛 𝐴 𝑏𝑦 1 D) 𝑨 𝒊𝒔 𝒍𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆𝒓 𝒕𝒉𝒂𝒏 𝑩 𝒃𝒚 𝟏

5. How many rectangles are there in standard chess board?

A) 204 B) 240 C) 1296 D) 1290

6. If 48 men working 7 hours a day can do a work in 24 days then in how many days will 28 men
working 8 hours a day can complete the samework?
A) 28 days B) 30 days C) 32 days D) 36 days

7. The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then find the new va-
riance.
A) 3 B) 15 C) 5 D) 225

8. In a certain code language ‗ANIMALS‘ is written as ‗SLAMINA‘. How isONLINE .written in that
code?
A) ENILNO B) OLINEN C) LNOINE D) NNLOIE

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9. If 5 persons can do 5 jobs in 5 days. Then 50 persons can do 50 jobs indays.
A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20

10. A cement factory makes 7000 cement bags in 12 days with the help of 36 machines. How many
bags can be made in 18 days using 24 machines?
A) 4320 B) 2880 C) 6480 D) 7000

11. A Cubical tank can hold 64,000 litres of water. Find the length of its side in metres.
A) 64m B) 8m C) 4m D) 16m

12. The ratio of the volumes of two cones is 2 : 3. Find the ratio of their radii iif the height of
second cone is double the height of the first.
A) 𝟐 ∶ 𝟑 B) 2 ∶ 3 C) 2 ∶ 3 D) 2 ∶ 3

13. The value of a motorcycle two years ago was Rs. 70,000. It depreciates atthe rate of 4% p.a.
Find its present value.
A) 64510 B) 64150 C) 64512 D) 64251

14. Which of the following is.true?

A) A - B = A∩B B) A - B = A∪B
C) 𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 ′ = 𝐴′ ∪ 𝐵′ D) 𝑨 ∩ 𝑩 ′ = 𝑨′ ∪ 𝑩′

15. Find the simple interest on Rs. 25,000 at 8% per annum for 3 years?
A) Rs. 4,500 B) Rs.5,000 C) Rs.5,500 D) Rs.6,000

16. If Rs. 1,600 is divided among A and B in the ratio 3 : 5 then, B‘s share is
A) Rs.480 B) Rs.800 C) Rs.1,000 D) Rs.200

17. For every 12 Mangoes that I buy, 3 turn out to be rotten. At this rate,how many rotten mangoes
will I have if I buy 100 mangoes?
A) 24 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35
18. The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF. If the HCF is 12 and oneof the numbers is 36,
then find the other number
A)8 B) 48 C)16 D) 24

19. L.C.M. of 𝑥 4 − 16, 𝑥 4 − 4𝑥 + 4 𝑖𝑠

A) 𝒙 − 𝟐 𝟐 𝒙 + 𝟐 𝒙𝟐 + 𝟒 B) 𝑥 − 2 𝑥 + 2 2 𝑥 2 + 4
C) 𝑥 − 2 2 𝑥 + 2 (𝑥 2 + 4) D) 𝑥 − 2 𝑥 + 2 𝑥 2 + 4

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APTITUDE
20. The L.C.M of 148 and 185 is
A) 690 B) 760 C) 1010 D) 740

21. HCF of 24𝑥 2 𝑦 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 16𝑥 3 𝑦 4 𝑖𝑠

A) 23 𝑥 3 𝑦 3 B) 32 𝑥 3 𝑦 2 C) 𝟐𝟑 𝒙𝟐 𝒚𝟑 D) 𝑥 3 𝑦 2

22. If (𝑥 – 6) is the HCF of 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 24 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 − 6 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑘 𝑖𝑠

A) 3 B) 𝟓 C) 6 D) 8

4
23. Find the value of 63% of 3 7
A) 2.25 B) 2.40 C) 2.50 D) 2.75

24. Ranjith‘s total income was Rs.7,500 He saved 25% of his total income, find the amount saved by
him
A) 2.25 B) 2.40 C) 2.50 D) 2.75

23. JUNIOR ANALSYT IN THE DRUGS TESTING

1. In a theatre, there are 20 seats in the front row and 30 rows were allotted. Each successive row
contains two additional seats than its front row. How many seats are there in the last row?
A)76 B) 78 C) 80 D) 82

2. 𝐼𝑓 13 + 23 + 33 + ⋯ … + 𝑛3 = 8281, 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 1 + 2 + 3 + ⋯ . . +𝑛

A) 91 B) 81 C) 901 D) 93

3. Find the next term in the below Alpha Numeric Series.

Z1A, X2D, V6G, T21J, R88M, P445P,?
A) N 2676S B) N 2676 T C) T 2670N D) T 2676N

4. J2Z, K4X, 17V, ________, H16R, M22P find the missing term.
A) I 11T B) L 11S C) L12 T D) L 11 T

5. Two unbiased dice are rolled once. How many possible outcomes for getting a doublet (equal
numbers on both dice)
A) 6 B) 12 C) 36 D) 18

6. In a March past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left of R but right to P.O is
standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is
standing in the middle?
A) P B) Q C) R D) O

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7. A can do a piece of work in 12 hours, B and C can do it 3 hours whereas A and C can do it in 6
hours. How long will B alone take to do the same work?
A) 6 hours B) 12 hours C) 4 hours D) 10 hours
8. 10 Farmers can plough a field in 21 days. Find the number of days reduced if 14 farmers
ploughed the same field?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

9. The total surface area of a hemi-sphere is how much times the square of its radius?
A) 𝜋 B) 4𝜋 C) 𝟑𝝅 D) 2𝜋

10. If the radius of the base of a cone tripled and the height is dounbled, then the volume of the
cone increases
A) 6 times B) 12 times C) 18 times D) 24 times

1
11. The compound interest on Rs.20,000 at 15% per annum for 2 3 years
A) Rs.7272.50 B) Rs.7722.50 C) Rs.7772.50 D) Rs.7777.70

12. A principal amounts to Rs.2028/- in 2 years with 4% P.A. Compounded annually. Then the prin-
cipal is
A) Rs.1875 B) Rs.1612 C) Rs.1800 D) Rs.1825

13. In how much time will the Simple Interest on Rs.3,000 at the rate of 8% per annum be the same
as simple interest on Rs.4,000 at 12% per annum for 4 years?
A) 2 years B) 8 years C) 4 years D) 6 years

14. Basha Borrowed Rs.8,500 from a bank at a Particular rate of simple interest. After 3 years he
paid Rs.11,050 to settle his debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the money?
A) 10% B) 8% C) 11% D) 9%

15. If a principal is getting doubled after 4 years, then rate of interest is

A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

16. 𝑥 Varies inversely as twince of 𝑦. Also when 𝑌 = 6. The value of 𝑥 is 4. When 𝑦 = 8, then the
value of 𝑥 is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6

17. 𝐼𝑓 4𝑎 = 5𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 7𝑏 = 9𝑐 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑎: 𝑏: 𝑐 𝑖𝑠

A) 28 : 36 : 45 B) 36 : 28 : 45
C) 44 : 33 : 28 D) 45 : 36 : 28

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 TNPSC – 2023
APTITUDE
18. 𝐼𝑓 7 ∶ 5 𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑡𝑜 𝑥: 25, 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 ′𝑥 ′ 𝑖𝑠 ________
A) 27 B) 49 C) 35 D) 14

19. Find the largest number which divides 1230 and 1926 leaving remainder 12 in each case
A) 6 B) 174 C) 522 D) 696

20. Find the LCM of 𝑃2 − 3𝑝 + 2, 𝑃2 − 4

A) (P-1) B) (P-2) C) (P +2) D) (P-1) (P-2) (P+2)

21. LCM of two numbers is 180. Then, which of the following is not the HCF of the numbers?
A) 45 B) 60 C) 75 D) 90

22. Find the HCF of the numbers 18,24 and 30.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

23. 270 Candidates appeared for an examination, of which 252 passed. What is the pass percen-
tage?
1 1 𝟏 1
A) 80 3 % B) 83 3 % C) 𝟗𝟑 𝟑 % D) 98 3 %

24. Use BIDMAS and put the correct operator in the box for
2□6 − 12 ÷ 4 + 2 = 10
A) + B) − C) 𝐱 D) ÷

2
25. A fruit-seller bought some mangoes of which 10% were rotten. He sold 46 3 % of the rest. If he
still has 192 mangoes. Find the total number of mangoes originally bought by him.
A) 375 B) 425 C) 400 D) 450

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