Series : 2FEHG Set – 3

Q.P. Code 2/2/3

Roll No.
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

ENGLISH
(Language and Literature)
Time allowed : 3 hours *ENGLISH-LAN. AND LIT.* Maximum Marks : 80

• Please check that this question paper contains 19 printed pages.

• Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on
the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-book
at the given place before attempting it.
• 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper
will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the candidates
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period. #

General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper contains three sections :
Section A – Reading Skills
Section B – Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C – Literature Text Book
(iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

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 SECTION A
Reading Skills 20 marks
1. Read the following passage carefully : 10
(1) Cinnamon is a spice obtained from the inner bark of several tree
species from the genus Cinnamomum. Cinnamon is made by cutting
the stems of cinnamon trees. The inner bark is then extracted and the
woody parts removed. When it dries, it forms strips that curl into
rolls, called cinnamon sticks. These sticks can be ground to form
cinnamon powder. The spice, consisting of the dried inner bark, is
brown in colour and has a delicately fragrant aroma and a warm
sweet flavour. The distinct aroma and flavour of cinnamon derive
from its essential oil and principal component, cinnamaldehyde, as
well as numerous other constituents including eugenol.
(2) There are two main types of cinnamon: Cassia and Ceylon. The two
have different nutritional profiles. Ceylon cinnamon comes from Sri
Lanka. Some people call it “true cinnamon.” Cassia cinnamon, on the
other hand, originates from southern China. Cassia is cheaper than
Ceylon cinnamon. Cassia cinnamon has a robust, rich, somewhat
bitter flavour while Ceylon is sweeter and lighter in flavor.
(3) Cinnamon was once more valuable than gold. In Egypt it was sought
for embalming and religious practices. In medieval Europe it was
used for religious rites and as a flavouring agent. Later it was the
most profitable spice in the Dutch East India Company trade.
(4) Cinnamon is widely used as an aromatic condiment and flavouring
additive in a wide variety of cuisines, sweet and savoury dishes,
breakfast cereals, snack foods, bagels, teas, hot chocolate and
traditional foods.
(5) Cinnamon is a spice that has been prized for its medicinal properties
for thousands of years. In recent years, modern science has started to
confirm many of the potential health benefits associated with
cinnamon. Cinnamon has antimicrobial and antifungal properties,
which is why it’s often found in dental-hygiene products and is sold as
cinnamon supplements. It is also a good source of antioxidants,
substances that inhibit the effect of free radicals (reactive atoms that
can damage cells). Due to its anti-inflammatory nature, cinnamon is
currently being researched for its potential to fight Alzheimer’s
disease and decrease symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and colon
cancer.

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 (6) Studies also suggest that cinnamon has anti-diabetic properties, and
may offer protection from cancer and cardiovascular disease, among
other conditions. However, more evidence is needed to confirm
cinnamon’s benefits. In the short term, consuming moderate amounts
of cinnamon as a spice or as a supplement seems to be safe for most
people. However, cinnamon contains coumarin. This is a natural
flavouring, but it also plays a role in creating warfarin, the common
blood-thinning drug. Consuming too much coumarin can lead to liver
damage and affect coagulation.

Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

(i) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The characteristic aroma and flavour of cinnamon originate from

its essential oil, primarily composed of ___________. Paragraph (1)

(ii) Based on the reading of the passage, examine, in about 40 words,

how cinnamon derived from the trees is made fit to be used as a
spice. Paragraph (1) 2

(iii) Mention one point of difference between Ceylon cinnamon and

Cassia cinnamon. Paragraph (2) 1

(iv) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The author says that cinnamon was once more valuable than gold
because ___________. Paragraph (3)

(v) What is the tone of the writer in the given lines from
paragraph (5) ? Rationalize your response in about 40 words. 2
“Cinnamon is a spice that has been prized for its medicinal
properties for thousands of years.’’

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 (vi) The writer’s use of the phrases ‘modern science has started to
confirm’ in paragraph (5) and ‘more evidence is needed to confirm’
in paragraph (6) suggests that the benefits of cinnamon are : 1

1. proven

2. scientific

3. uncertain

4. controversial

5. harmful

Select the correct option :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 4

(C) only 3

(D) only 5

(vii) Which of the following statements about cinnamon and its health
benefits is true ? 1

(A) Modern science has evidence to prove that cinnamon has

many anti-diabetic properties, and it offers complete
protection from cancer and cardiovascular disease.

(B) Cinnamon lacks antimicrobial and antifungal properties,

making it unsuitable for dental hygiene products.

(C) Antioxidants found in cinnamon have no effect on free

radicals in the body.

(D) Cinnamon’s anti-inflammatory properties are being

researched for its potential benefits in Alzheimer’s disease,
irritable bowel syndrome and colon cancer.
Paragraph (6)
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 (viii) Which of the following statements best describes the author’s
attitude toward cinnamon and its uses ? 1
(A) Finds cinnamon to be a prized condiment which can be used
in almost all food items.
(B) Believes that cinnamon should be used by everyone,
everyday.
(C) Recognizes that cinnamon has many useful properties,
including health benefits.
(D) Believes that cinnamon should only be used as a medicinal
supplement.

2. Read the following passage carefully : 10

(1) When planning vacations, Indians typically prioritize domestic

destinations, as shown by Ministry of Tourism data indicating
1.7 billion domestic tourist visits within India compared to 21 million
international departures in 2022. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan,
Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka stand out as the top
states for domestic tourism. Reasons for domestic tourism are many,
some travel because it suits their budget while others love to explore
the historical, cultural diversity. The government today is focussing
on tourist-friendly infrastructure which is making travel more
convenient for the domestic traveller.

(2) In terms of outbound tourism, a significant proportion of Indian

travellers, totalling 5.9 million, visited the United Arab Emirates in
2022, comprising 28 percent of total outbound tourist travel. Other
Gulf states such as Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Kuwait also rank
among the top destinations, with 2.4 million, 880,000, and 830,000
Indian visitors, respectively. Additionally, countries like the United
States and the United Kingdom attract a considerable number of
Indian tourists because these countries offer a mix of traditional and
contemporary experiences along with enjoying unique cuisines and
diverse landscapes.

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 (3) The popularity of Gulf States and the U.S. may be influenced by
migration trends. The current issue of the International Organization
for Migration’s (IOM) World Migration Report highlights significant
migration flows from India to the United Arab Emirates, the United
States, and Saudi Arabia. For instance, the Emirates hosted
approximately 3.6 million Indian migrants as of August 2023. Only
via two corridors have more people transferred from one country to
another as of 2020 according to the IOM: Mexico to the United States
with around 11 million and Syria to Turkey with approximately
4 million. These migration corridors rank among the top ten globally.

Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

(i) What does the use of the phrase ‘prioritise domestic

destinations’ by the writer, in paragraph (1) imply ? 1
(A) Indian tourists prefer places in the country itself.
(B) Indian tourists like to stay at home.
(C) Indian tourists mainly travel on low budgets.
(D) Indian tourists love to hitch-hike and trek.

(ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option from those given
in brackets, based on your understanding of paragraph (2). 1

The statement that, World Migration Report highlights

significant migration flows from India to the United Arab
Emirates, the United States, and Saudi Arabia, is a/an ________
(fact/opinion) because it is a/an __________ (subjective
judgement/objective detail).

(iii) Draw a comparative analysis of domestic tourists travelling

within India with domestic tourists travelling outside India in
2022. Answer in about 40 words. 2

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 (iv) Complete the following with a suitable reason. 1

Gulf states rank as popular destinations for Indians _________.

(v) Select the option that is true for the Assertion and Reason
given below : 1

Assertion : Indians prioritize Uttar Pradesh and Andhra

Pradesh for domestic tourism.

Reason : These states are full of historical monuments.

(A) Both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) Both the Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(D) The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

(vi) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The fourthmost visited outbound destination for Indians to the

Gulf is _________.

(vii) Mention any two reasons for domestic tourism becoming

popular. 1

(viii) What is the writer’s view about the tourism industry in the
west ? Write any two points. 1

(ix) Identify the word in paragraph (3) that indicates the

‘preference’ of people travelling to the Gulf. 1

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 SECTION B
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills 20 marks
Grammar

3. Complete any ten of the following twelve tasks, as directed. 101=10

(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the
brackets, for the given portion of a letter. 1
I believe that with your support and ________ (cooperate), we can
find a mutually agreeable solution that meets the expectations of
all stakeholders involved.
(ii) Read the given sentence from an electric cooker’s instruction
manual. Identify the error and supply the correction in the
sentence.
For avoid damaging the appliance, do not immerse the electric
cooker in water or any other liquid.
Use the given format for your response. 1
Error Correction

(iii) Amit and Pallavi had a conversation about the inauguration of

Pallavi’s event. Report Amit’s question. 1
Did you manage to get any sponsors for the inauguration event
scheduled for the next month ?

(iv) Read the dialogue between Bharti and her mother, Geeta,
regarding Geeta’s birthday plans. 1
Bharti : Do you want to go to a hill station on your birthday ?
Geeta : No, I want to stay at home and call my friends over.
Select the correct option that reports the above dialogue.
Bharti asked Geeta if she wanted to go to a hill station on her
birthday. Geeta replied in the negative and said that __________.

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 (A) she wanted to stay home and call her friends for
celebrating.
(B) I wanted to stay home and call my friends to celebrate.
(C) she wanted to stay at home and call her friends over.
(D) she wants to stay home by calling her friends to celebrate.

(v) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the
line of a notice placed on the notice board of a company. 1
Please be informed that there will be a staff meeting in the
conference room on Friday, 7th June, at 10:00 a.m. It is __________
for all to attend. (mandatory/obligatory/indispensable)

(vi) Identify the error and supply correction for the given sentence
from a preface of a book. 1
Writing this book have been a journey of exploration and
discovery.
Use the given format for your response
Error Correction

(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the
correction for the opening line, from an analytical paragraph.
The advent of social media has revolutionized communication by
connected people across the globe in unprecedented ways. 1
Option No. Error Correction
(A) has have
(B) communication communicating
(C) connected connecting
(D) in for

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 (viii) Complete the given entry in a personal diary, by filling the blank
with the correct option. 1
Today was a rollercoaster of emotions. It started off with a sense of
excitement and anticipation as I __________ on a new project at
work.
(A) embarking (B) embark
(C) embarked (D) have embarked

(ix) Report the dialogue between a salesman and his customer, by

completing the sentence. 1

Salesman : I have a wide range of sportswear.

Customer : Please show me something in cotton fabric, which is

suitable for summers.

The salesman stated ____________. The customer requested the

salesman to show something in cotton fabric which would be
suitable for summers.

(x) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an

announcement on a flight. 1

In thirty minutes, our flight attendants ________ meal service.

(A) will began (B) will begin
(C) should begin (D) can begin

(xi) Complete the line from a ‘Save the Environment’ song, by filling
the blank with the correct option.
Pollution, pollution, its time to take a stand,
for the health of our planet, we’ve got to lend a hand,
Reduce, reuse, recycle, that’s the key,
________ our world for you and me. 1
(A) for preserve (B) to preserve
(C) to preserved (D) for preserved

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 (xii) Identify the error and supply the correction for the following
instruction put up for safe use of elevators.

Please refrain by standing near the door as it could lead to an

accident.

Use the given format for your response. 1

Error Correction

Writing
Note : All details presented in the questions in the writing section are imaginary
and created for assessment purpose.

4. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5

(a) As Kavita/Rohit Ranjan of Sooraj Apartments, Roshan Nagar, you

feel that the increasing noise levels from construction activities,
traffic and loud gatherings are disrupting the peace and
tranquility of your neighbourhood. This is particularly problematic
during late hours and is impacting the sleep and well-being of
residents. Write a letter to the DM of your city area, in about
120 words, stating the problem and requesting him to take
necessary action for controlling the problem of noise. Give suitable
suggestions.
OR
(b) You are Suman/Sujit, an active member of your society’s “Save the
Climate” club. You reside at 786, Hawa Colony, Saafbagh. You feel
concerned about the pressing problem of climate change and the
urgent need for immediate action. Write a letter to the editor of a
national daily, in about 120 words, suggesting measures to
advocate sustainable practices in the community.

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5. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5

(a) Natural food, typically refers to food that has not been processed or
preserved in any significant way before it is consumed, while
ultra-processed food refers to food items that have been altered
from their natural state through various methods. Given below is a
table that differentiates between natural and processed foods.
Study the description given and write an analytical paragraph in
about 120 words, drawing a comparison between the two :

Natural Food Processed Food

• High fibre • High sugar

• Healthy nutrients • Unhealthy nutrients

• Healthy fats • Unhealthy fats

• Low sodium • High sodium

• Regulates blood sugar, blood • Tasty, ready to eat
pressure and provides healthy and addictive
nutrients

OR
(b) Social Media has a lasting impact on our thought process and
influences our thinking in both positive and negative ways. With
the help of the given cues and using your own ideas, write an
analytical paragraph on “The Impact of Social Media on
Teenagers’’ in about 120 words.

POSITIVE :
• connects peers
• creative expression
• access information
• community building
NEGATIVE :
• impacts self-esteem
• cyber bullying
• privacy intrusion
• distraction and addiction

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 SECTION C
Literature 40 marks

6. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5
(a) He felt certain that his wings would never support him; so he bent
his head and ran away back to the little hole under the ledge where
he slept at night. Even when each of his brothers and his little sister,
whose wings were far shorter than his own, ran to the brink, flapped
their wings, and flew away, he failed to muster up courage to take
that plunge which appeared to him so desperate. His father and
mother had come around calling to him shrilly, upbraiding him,
threatening to let him starve on his ledge unless he flew away. But
for the life of him he could not move.
(Two Stories about Flying – His First Flight)
(i) State any one inference about the parents of the baby seagull
from the given statement. 1
“His father and mother had come around calling to him shrilly,
upbraiding him, threatening to let him starve on his ledge
unless he flew away.”

(ii) Where did the little seagull sleep at night ? 1

(iii) Which factors contributed to the young seagull’s reluctance to

fly despite the encouragement and threats from his parents ?
Elaborate in about 40 words, with reference to the extract. 2

(iv) Which phrase or word would correctly substitute ‘muster up’ in

the given sentence from the extract ? 1

He failed to ‘muster up’ courage to take that plunge which

appeared to him so desperate.
(A) review (B) resolve
(C) distribute (D) gather

OR

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 (b) Tricki was tottering along in his little tweed coat.... He struggled on,
drooping in his harness. I thought it wouldn’t be long before I heard
from Mrs. Pumphrey. The expected call came within a few days. Mrs.
Pumphrey was distraught. Tricki would eat nothing. Refused even
his favourite dishes; and besides, he had bouts of vomiting. He spent
all his time lying on a rug, panting. Didn’t want to go for walks,
didn’t want to do anything. I had made my plans in advance. The
only way was to get Tricki out of the house for a period. I suggested
that he be hospitalized for about a fortnight to be kept under
observation. The poor lady almost swooned. She was sure he would
pine and die if he did not see her every day. But I took a firm line.
Tricki was very ill and this was the only way to save him.
(A Triumph of Surgery)

(i) Why had the author made his plans in advance ? 1

(A) Mrs. Pumphrey was worried that Tricki would pine and
die without her.
(B) The author was aware of the severity of Tricki’s medical
condition.
(C) The author knew about Mrs. Pumphrey’s financial
condition.
(D) The author had planned his own vacation.

(ii) The author firmly proposed the need to remove Tricki from the
house for a specified period. Elaborate the reason for doing so
in about 40 words. 2

(iii) Fill in the blank with the correct word from the brackets. 1

The word ‘swooned’ in the following sentence indicates almost

________ (tripped/fainted).

(iv) “Mrs. Pumphrey was distraught.” What does this suggest about
her character ? Mention any one reason. 1
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7. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5

(a) Some say the world will end in fire

Some say in ice.

From what I’ve tasted of desire

I hold with those who favour fire.

(Fire and Ice)

(i) The speaker offers evidence to support his preference for one
theory over the other. Mention the evidence. 1

(ii) What is the prediction of the poet about how the world will
come to an end ? Answer in about 40 words. 2

(iii) “Fire” and “Ice” are used in the poem as _______. 1

(A) similes

(B) metaphors

(C) repetition

(D) oxymorons

(iv) Comment on the overall mood of the extract. 1

OR

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 (b) The leaves strain toward the glass

small twigs stiff with exertion

long-cramped boughs shuffling under the roof

like newly discharged patients

half-dazed, moving

to the clinic doors.

(The Trees)

(i) How does the comparison between the boughs and newly
discharged patients contribute to the theme or message of the
poem ? Answer in about 40 words. 2

(ii) Complete the sentence with the appropriate option. 1

The imagery and descriptions in the poem create a mood of

______________________ .

(A) satisfaction and elation

(B) transition and uncertainty

(C) confusion and chaos

(D) pessimism and certainty

(iii) Fill in the blank with one word. 1

The stiff movement of the twigs in the above extract suggests
the ______________ .

(iv) Why does the poet describe the bough as ‘shuffling’ ? 1

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8. Answer any four of the following five questions in 40 – 50 words
each : 43=12

(i) What strategy did the mother adopt to teach the young seagull how

to fly ?

(Two Stories about Flying – His First Flight)

(ii) Why does the tiger in the zoo ignore the visitors ?

(A Tiger in the Zoo)

(iii) Why is the baker very important to the village folk ?

(Glimpses of India – A Baker from Goa)

(iv) Why did the poet not console the grief-stricken boy when he lost the

ball ? (The Ball Poem)

(v) Saving money for the bus journey was not easy for Valli. Explain.

(Madam Rides the Bus)

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9. Answer any two of the following three questions in 40 – 50 words each : 23=6

(i) How did Ausable get rid of Max ?

(The Midnight Visitor)

(ii) Why does Mme Loisel hastily depart from the ball when her

husband places a modest wrap on her shoulders ?

(The Necklace)

(iii) “In time you will be more learned than anyone else in the village.

Then no one will ever be able to laugh at you.’’ What effect did her

teacher’s words have on Bholi ? Elaborate.

(Bholi)

10. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 – 120 words : 6

(a) Analyse and evaluate the role of faith in ‘A Letter to God’ and ‘The

Sermon at Benares’.

OR

(b) Explore the contrasting images of the tiger in ‘A Tiger in the Zoo’

and the tiger in ‘How to Tell Wild Animals’.

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11. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 – 120 words : 6

(a) How did Anil bring about a change in Hari Singh ?

(The Thief’s Story)

OR

(b) In what ways does Think-Tank misinterpret innocent nursery

rhymes as threats to the Martians ?

(The Book That Saved the Earth)

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 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2025
ENGLISH LANGUAE & LITERATURE – 184 (SET- 2/2/3)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and
teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation,
you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.

2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of

the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’
leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination
system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this
policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News
Paper/Website etc. may invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. If any change in the
marking scheme is to be considered, this has to be raised with the Controller of
Examinations and only after his approval and after all evaluation centres are
informed, can this be taken forward.

4 The Marking Scheme carries all value points for the answers. Students may/can
express these value points in their own words and if the expression is correct, due
marks should be awarded accordingly.

5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after deliberation and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the
marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark ( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X”
be marked. No answer should be left unmarked by evaluators. This is the most
common mistake which evaluators are committing.

7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part.
Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written
in the left-hand margin and encircled. This must be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This must also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question/Over- Attempted”.
If a student has not attempted any question, NA should be mentioned in the Caging /
marks entry column.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
11 A full scale of marks __________(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the
answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).

13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer booklet.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer booklet to the title
page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in
the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.

17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried
over to the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
18 It may be noted that the candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer
Book on request on payment of the prescribed processing fee. All
Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that
they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each
answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
 Q.P. Code: 2/2/3
MARKING SCHEME
English Language and Literature (Code No. 184)
SECTION A- 20 marks
Reading
QNO Reading Comprehension MARKS
1. Passage 1 10 marks
i. Cinnamaldehyde, supplemented by a variety of other constituents like eugenol 1
ii.  derived from the inner bark of cinnamon trees 2
 woody parts removed and dried to form strips that curl into rolls- (1 mark
cinnamon sticks: ground to form cinnamon powder. each)
iii. (Any one) 1
 Different nutritional profiles.
 Ceylon cinnamon - from Sri Lanka- called true Cinnamon”. Cassia
cinnamon - from Southern China.
 Cassia cinnamon- cheaper than Ceylon cinnamon.
 Cassia cinnamon - robust, rich somewhat bitter flavour Ceylon
cinnamon - sweeter and lighter in flavour.
iv.  Egypt – used for embalming and religious practices. 1
 Medieval Europe - used for religious rites, flavouring agent.
 Dutch East India Company trade- most profitable
spice
v. Tone - appreciative/formal/ informative (or any other appropriate/ similar 2
word) (1 for the
Rationale tone and 1
 Informative: facts and information about cinnamon for
 Appreciative: positive facts/ historical significance/ health benefits rationale)
vi. (C) Only 3 1
vii. (D) Cinnamon’s anti-inflammatory properties are being researched for its potential 1
benefits in Alzheimer’s disease, irritable bowel syndrome and colon cancer.
viii. (C) recognizes that cinnamon has many useful properties including health benefits. 1

2. Passage 2 10 Marks
i. (A) Indian tourists prefer places in the country itself. 1
ii. a fact, an objective detail 1
iii. (Any two points of difference) 2
Indian tourism----------------- Outbound tourism
 17 billion domestic tourists visited within India in 2022--------21 million
international departures in 2022.
 historical - cultural diversity----------- offer mix of traditional and
contemporary experiences
 focus on tourist friendly infrastructure------- unique cuisines and diverse
landscapes
iv. because of migration trends 1
v. (C) The Assertion is true, but the reason is false. 1
vi. Kuwait 1
vii. (Any two value points) 1
 offers familiarity and comfort. (1/2 mark
 more affordable than international travel for each
 offers diverse experiences point)
 historical and cultural diversity
 viii. (Any two value points) 1
 a mix of traditional and contemporary experiences (1/2 mark
 unique cuisines for each
 diverse landscapes point)
ix. trends/ popularity 1
SECTION B – 20 marks
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
3. Grammar 10 marks
 Any ten out of twelve questions.
 Full credit – 1 mark, for correct answers.
 No partial credit.
i. co-operation 1
ii. for– to 1
iii. Amit inquired/asked Pallavi whether/if she had managed to get/secure any 1
sponsors for the inauguration event scheduled for the next/following month.
iv. (C) she wanted to stay at home and call her friends over. 1
v. mandatory 1
vi. have – has 1
vii. (C) connected – connecting 1
viii. (C) embarked 1
ix. that he had a wide range of sportswear. 1
x. (B) will begin 1
xi. (B) to preserve 1
xii. by – from 1
WRITING
4. Any one of the two questions (a) and (b) : Letter Writing 5 marks
General Instructions for Q4 (a) and (b): No mark to be awarded if only
format is written without any/ irrelevant content
 Format − 1 (Full credit of 1 mark if all aspects are included, partial
credit of ½ mark if one or two aspects are missing, no credit if more
than 2 aspects are missing)
 Content − 2 marks
 Organisation of ideas − 1 mark (effective style, orderly sequence,
paragraphed structure and formal tone and vocabulary)
 Accuracy − 1 mark (spelling, punctuation and grammar)
a. Value Points 1+2+1+1
First para- Intro of the issue and stating the problem
Second para- Developing details of the issue
 construction activities
 growing traffic volume and honking
 frequent loud gatherings without permits
Impact on residents
 sleep disturbance
 fatigue due to late night noise
 increased stress and anxiety levels
 difficulty concentrating and working from home
 negative impact on mental and physical well being
Third para- Solutions: Collaborating with local authorities to
 create comprehensive noise management plan
 implement noise pollution control measures
 sound barriers
 noise limits
  enforce noise regulations and laws/ impose fines
 conduct regular noise monitoring and inspections
(Any other relevant point should be accepted)
b. Value Points 1+2+1+1
First para- Intro and stating the problem
Second para- Details of the issue
 urgent need for climate action
 rising temperatures
 devastating natural disasters
 unpredictable weather patterns
Third para- Solutions
 need for immediate action
 reduce carbon footprints
 transition to sustainable practices
 advocating sustainable practices for the community
 implementing recycling programs
 reducing single use plastics
 use of public transport should be encouraged
 promoting energy efficient practices
 stress on use of renewable sources of energy
 create awareness among the masses
(Any other relevant point should be accepted)

5. Any one of the two questions (a) and (b) : Analytical Paragraph 5 marks
General Instructions for Q5(a) and (b):
Analytical paragraph writing should not be confused with descriptive paragraph
writing.
 Organisation of ideas − 2 marks (Inputs given in the question
must be used along with linking words like however, in addition
to, in comparison to, on the contrary etc, Formal tone, functional
vocabulary, paragraphed structure (one single paragraph), orderly
sequence and effective style )
 Accuracy − 1 mark (spelling, punctuation and grammar)
 Content − 2 marks ( full credit of 2 marks for all value points
given in the question, partial credit of one mark if only 2 value
points are given)
a. (Any two value points atleast one from each category) 2+1+2
Natural food----------------------- Processed food
 High fibre------------------low in fibre
 Healthy nutrients--------- Unhealthy nutrients
 Healthy fats------------ Unhealthy fats
 Low sodium-------------- High sodium
 Regulates blood sugar, blood pressure and provides healthy nutrients------ High
in sugar
 Sometimes bland---------Tasty, ready to eat and addictive
(Any other relevant point to be included)
b. Positive 2+1+2
 Connects peers
 Creative expression
 Access information
 Community building
Negative
 Impacts self esteem
  Cyber bullying
 Privacy intrusion
 Distraction and addiction
(Any other relevant point to be included)
SECTION C- 40 Marks
Literature Textbook
6. Any one of the two extracts 5 marks
a The First Flight
i. (Any one value points) 1
Parental Concern: parents calling the bird shrilly / upbraiding tones
Tough Love/Parenting: threat/taunt to let the bird starve on his ledge unless he flies away
Pressure to Conform: The pressure from the parents to fly away with the rest of the
siblings
ii. In a hole/under the ledge 1
iii. (Any two value points) 2
 deep seated fear that his wings will not support him
 fear of heights
 witnessing his siblings confidently take flight despite their shorter wings
 shrill calls and upbraiding from his parents threatening consequences if he
doesn’t fly
 inability to muster the courage needed to take the desperate plunge
 internal struggle compounded by external pressure
 fear of failing himself as well as his parents
iv. (D) gather 1

b. Triumph of Surgery
i. (B) The author was aware of the severity of Tricky’s medical condition 1
ii. (Any two value points) 2
 Tricky’s declining health - symptoms like refusal to eat, vomiting, lethargy,
lack of interest in activities
 provide professional medical attention and observation
 hospitalization to remove Tricky from his usual environment, allow close
monitoring
 over pampering/over feeding - harmful for tricky
iii. fainted 1
iv. (Any one value point) 1
 suggests she cares deeply, emotionally invested in Tricky’s well-being
 indicates compassion/ attachment
 greatly troubled by his declining health
 exhibits a strong emotional reaction to the situation
7. Any one of the two extracts 5 marks
a. Fire And Ice
i. The speaker offers the evidence of his own experience with desire as the reason for 1
his preference for fire
ii. (Any two value points) 2
 views desire as a powerful force - can lead to destructive consequences
 sees desire as something intense and potentially destructive, can engulf and
consume
 indicates desire can lead to chaos and upheaval, such as akin to raging fire.
 believes that desire has transformative qualities, as fire can purify and
renew but also destroy.
 iii. (B) Metaphors 1
iv. (Any one value point) 1
 Overall mood- contemplative, introspective, reflective, sombre, thought-
provoking, pessimistic, scary, frightening,(any other similar word)
The speaker reflects on the contrasting theories about the end of the world.
b. The Trees
i. (Any two value points) 2
 comparison highlights a period of adjustment/struggle
 implies previous constraint
 reinforces the theme of transition
 evokes a sense of movement
 creates a sense of uncertainty/instability
ii. (b) transition and uncertainty 1
iii. (Any One) 1
 pain/struggle/ trauma/confinement
iv. (Any one value point) 1
Boughs are:
 half-dazed,
 disoriented
 desperate to move out
 wanting to break the barriers
 uncertain indicating as if still adjusting to their surroundings
8. Any four of the five questions in about 40 – 50 words. 4x3=12
Content-2 marks
Expression-1(Coherence, cohesion, effective style)
i. (Any one value point from strategy and one from process) 2+1
Strategy adopted was:
 motivated/ taunted/ coaxed/ overlooked his tantrums/
 threatened to let him starve on ledge/ left him to starve on the ledge for 24
hours
Process undertaken:
 deliberately dangled a piece of fish just out of his reach
 driven by desperation and hunger, seagull plunged for the fish
 flapped his wings
 dived towards the food
 successfully overcame his fear of flying
(Any other relevant point)
ii. (Any two value points) 2+1
 as a coping mechanism for its confinement
 zoo’s artificial environment has dulled his natural instincts
 became a pathetic spectacle
 loss of wild identity – does not terrorise / hunt
 form of protest
 paces in quiet rage
(Any other relevant point)
iii. (Any two value points) 2+1
 bread - an essential part of daily life
 during festivals- christmas
 weddings- bol and bolinhas
 engagement- sandwiches prepared by bride’s mother
 villagers eagerly await the baker’s arrival every morning- recognizing the
jhingling sound of his bamboo staff
  children love the bread bangles
 symbolic of Portuguese influence, even after their dismissal
 special place- act as guide/ friend/ companion/ mentor
(Any other relevant point)
iv. (Any two value points) 2+1
 wants the child to learn
 epistemology/ feelings of loss
 confront and process emotions
 accept impermanence/ inevitability of loss
 develop resilience
 deeper understanding of himself
 superficiality of the material things/ money is external
 consolation might provide temporary relief but no value
 may experience new found appreciation for the things he has
(Any other relevant point)
v. (Any two value points) 2+1
 young girl with no source of income
 required sixty paise- needed determination and discipline to save for ticket
 resisted temptation to buy sweets, balloons, toys which other children enjoy
 resisted joyrides at the village fair
(Any other relevant point)
9. Any two of the three questions in about 40 – 50 words. 23=6
Content-2 marks
Expression-1(Coherence, cohesion, effective style)
i. (Any two value points) 2+1
Ausable- a clever spy- encountered Max waiting in his room
 fabricated a story about balcony
 police knocking at the door
 Max fearing police- hastily leaped out of the window- resulting in a fall
ii. (Any two value points) 2+1
 swift departure highlights her hypocrisy/ pretentiousness/ ostentatiousness
 didn’t want people to know about her poverty
 beauty of the dress clashes with her modest wrap
 reveals her underlying dissatisfaction/ anger/ frustration with her situation
iii. (Any two value points) 2+1
 felt motivated- liked the teacher
 felt she was in right hands- bullied at home
 provided emotional support/ stimulus
 gave her confidence- took stand for herself
 stopped stammering
10. Any one of the two questions, in about 100 –120 words. 6 marks
Content − 3 marks
Expression − 2 marks(Coherence, cohesion, effective style)
Accuracy − 1 mark(spellings, punctuation, grammar)
a. (Any three value points. Atleast one from each lesson) 3+2+1
Lencho’s faith: Letter to God
 faith in God-wasn’t disheartened even after crops destroyed
 wrote a letter asking for God’s help , received seventy pesos
 wrote a letter again – blamed post office employees- called them bunch of
crooks
 shows staunch/ deep-seated faith in God
 Kisa Gautami’s faith: Sermon at Benaras
 asked for Buddha’s help to revive her son
 goes to different household for mustard seeds
 realises the inevitability of death
 leads to peace of mind/ self-enlightenment/ wisdom
(Any other relevant point)
b. (Any three value points. Atleast one from each lesson) 3+2+1
Tiger in the zoo
 object of gaze/ vulnerable/ helpless
 restless/ confined/ restricted/ contained
 quiet rage/ captive/ subdued resistance
 retained primal instincts
 gazes night sky
 hears patrolling cars
Tiger in the wild
 feared animal
 free to roam around
 roars and hunts freely
 in its natural habitat/ prowling through the jungle
11. Any one of the two questions, in about 100 –120 words. 6 marks
Content − 3 marks
Expression − 2 marks(Coherence, cohesion, effective style)
Accuracy − 1 mark(spellings, punctuation, grammar)
a. (Any three value points) 3+2+1
 despite not being much of use- Anil retained Hari
 Hari kept on stealing
 Anil - displayed kindness which led to
 Hari realising his mistake
 Chose education over money
 his folly of cheating
 returned with the soaked currency
 Hari transformed from within due to Anil’s forgiveness
(Any other relevant point)
b. (Any one rhyme to be explained) 3+2+1
 Rhyme- Mistress Mary from Mother Goose
 concludes people on earth are:
 advanced
 grow crops of rare metal , high explosives
 Hey Diddle Diddle
 humans highly civilized
 taught musical culture, space techniques to domesticated animals
 dogs taught sense of humour
 may be launching inter- planetary attack of millions of cows
 Humpty Dumpty
 resembled Think Tank
 fears discovery by Earthlings/captivity and overruled
 orders immediate evacuation of Mars/ space capsule to escape himself
(Any other relevant point)