II PUC & +2 TOPPERS PCMB DATE: 28-09-2024

Time: 3:20 Hrs PT-01 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 300 and 450 with the x-axis
as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is

1) 3 :1 2) 1:1 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 3
2. If the vector of a particle is v  At  Bt 2 , where A and B are constants, Then the distance travelled
by it Between 1 s and 2 s is
3 7 A B 3
1) A  B 2)  3) A  4 B 4) 3 A  7 B
2 3 2 3 2
3. The displacement 'x' (in meter) of a particle of mass 'm' (in kg) moving in one dimension under the
action of a force, is related to time ‘ t ’ (in sec) by t  x  3 The displacement of the particle when
its velocity is zero, will be
1) 4 m 2) 0 m (zero) 3) 6 m 4) 2 m
4. Which of the following curve does not represent motion in one dimension?

1) 2) 3) 4)
A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x   t  5 . The acceleration of
1
5.
particle is proportional to
1) (velocity)3/2 2) (distance)2 3) (distance)-2 4) (velocity)2/3

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6. Motion of a particle is given by equation s  (3t 3  7t 2  14t  8)m. . The value of acceleration of the
particle at t = 1 sec is
1) 10m / s 2 2) 32m / s 2 3) 23m / s 2 4) 16m / s 2
7. The ratio of the distance travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st ,2nd , 3rd and 4th second
1) 1: 2 : 3: 4 2) 1: 4 : 9 :16 3) 1: 3: 5: 7 4) 1:1:1:1
8. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the
ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is (g = 10 m/s²)
1) 360 m 2) 340 m 3) 320 m 4) 300 m
9. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x  5t  2t and y = 10t respectively, where x
2

and y are in metres and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is

1) 5m s 2 2) 4m s 2 3) 8m s 2 4) 0
10. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at
a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
1) 450 2) 600 3) 00 4) 300
11. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5m s 2 . At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?(Take g  10 m s 2 )
1) 20 2 m / s,10 m / s 2 2) 20 m / s,5 m / s 2 3) 20 m / s,0 4) 20 2 m / s, 0
12. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 600 with
horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to 300
and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will be
1) 1: 2 3 2) 1: 2 3) 2 :1 4) 1: 3
13. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms 1 at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at
the highest point of its trajectory will be
1) 0 2) 5 3 ms 1 3) 5 ms 1 4) 10 ms 1
14. A particle moving in acircle of radius R with auniform speed taken a time T to complete one
revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle 'O' to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained by it equal 4R. The angle of projection  , is then given by
12 12
 2 gT 2   gT 2 
1)   sin  2 1
2)   cos  2 
1

  R   R 
12 12
  2R    2R 
3)   cos  2 1
4)   sin  2 
1

 gT   gT 
15.  
The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2iˆ  3 ˆj m / s . Its velocity (in m / s ) at point B
is.

1) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 2) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 3) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 4) 2iˆ  3 ˆj

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16. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB
with speed v A and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular
speed of A to that of B will be
1) 1:1 2) rA : rB 3) vA : vB 4) rB : rA
17. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in
the figure. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

mV mV
1) mV 2) 2 mV 3) 4)
2 3
18. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2:2:1.
If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the
speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
1) v 2) 2v 3) 2 2 v 4) 3 2 v
19. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles
to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms 1 and the second part of mass
2 kg moves with 8ms 1 speed. If the third part flies off with 4 ms 1 speed, then its mass is
1) 7 kg 2) 17 kg 3) 3 kg 4) 5 kg
20. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The
velocity of the particle will

1) Change according to the smallest force QR 2) Increase

3) Decrease 4) Remain constant
21. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m.
The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum
angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary when the cylinder is vertical and
rotating about its axis, will be  g  10 m / s 2 
10
1) 10  rad / s 2) 10 rad / s 3) rad / s 4) 10 rad / s
2

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22. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined 2 plane, starting from rest at time t = 0 Let S n be the
Sn
distance travelled by the block in the interval t  n 1 to t  n . Then , the ratio is
Sn 1
2n 2n  1 2n  1 2n  1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2n  1 2n 2n  1 2n  1
23. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a
pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due
to gravity (g) is
1) g 2) g / 2 3) g / 5 4) g /10
24. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its
acceleration is
1) 4 m s 2 upwards 2) 4 m s 2 downwards
3) 14 m s-² upwards 4) 30 m s 2 downwards
25. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination  . The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the
block will be (g is acceleration due to gravity)
1) mg cos 2) mg sin 3) mg 4) mg / cos
26. Given below are four curves describing variation of velocity with time of a particle. Which one of
these describe the motion of a particle initially in positive direction with constant negative
acceleration?

1) 2) 3) 4)
27. A bullet fired into a wooden block loses half of its velocity after penetrating 40 cm. It comes to rest
after penetrating a further distance of
22 40 20 22
1) cm 2) cm 3) cm 4) cm
3 3 3 5
28. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in the figure. The
distance traversed by the particle between t = 0 s to t = 10 s is

1) 20 m 2) 40 m 3) 60 m 4) 80 m

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29. Figure shows the displacement(x)-time (t) graph of a particle moving on the x-axis.

1) The particle is at rest.

2) The particle is continuously going along x-direction.
3) The velocity of the particle increases upto time t0 and then becomes constant.
4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.
30. The velocity of the particle at any time t is given by v  2t  3  t  m s 1 . At what time is its velocity
maximum?
2 3
1) 2 s 2) 3 s 3)
s 4) s
3 2
31. Position-time graph for motion with zero acceleration is

1) 2) 3) 4)
32. Which of the following graphs cannot possibly represent one dimensional motion of a particle?

1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i , ii and iii 4) All four

1
33. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 m s from the top of a multistorey building
of 25 m high. How high will the ball rise? (Take g  10 m s 2 )
1) 10 m 2) 15 m 3) 20 m 4) 25 m
34. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x  36t m and 2 y  96t  9.8t 2 m. The angle of
projection is
4 3 4 3
1) sin 1   2) sin 1   3) sin 1   4) sin 1  
5 5 3 4
35. The ceiling of a hall is 40 m high. For maximum horizontal distance, the angle at which the ball may
be thrown with a speed of 56 m s 1 without hitting the ceiling of the hall is
1) 25° 2) 30° 3) 45° 4) 60°
SECTION-B
36. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. With the same speed how
much high above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball?
1) 50 m 2) 100 m 3) 150 m 4) 200 m

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37. An aeroplane flying horizontally with a speed of 360 km h1 releases a bomb at a height of 490 m
from the ground. If g  9.8 m s 2 , it will strike the ground at
1) 10 km 2) 100km 3) 1km 4) 16 km
38. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius r with uniform speed v. What is the displacement of
the particle after it has described an angle of 60°?
1) r 2 2) r 3 3) r 4) 2r
39. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm moves along the groove steadily and
completes 7 revolutions in 100 s. The linear speed of the insect is
1) 4.3cm s 1 2) 5.3cm s 1 3) 6.3cm s 1 4) 7.3cm s 1
40. A stone tied to the end of a string 100 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed.
If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 22 s, then the acceleration of the stone is
1) 16 m s 2 2) 4 m s 2 3) 12 m s 2 4) 8 m s 2
41. The position –time graph of body of mass 2 kg is as shown in figure. What is the impulse on the
body at t  4s ?

2 2 3 3
1) kg m s 1 2)  kg m s 1 3) kg m s 1 4)  kg m s 1
3 3 2 2
42. Two billiard balls A and B, each of mass 50 g and moving in opposite directions with speed of
5m s 1 each, collide and rebound with the same speed. The impulse imparted to each ball is
1) 0.25 kg m s 1 2) 0.5kg m s 1 3) 0.1kg m s 1 4) 0.125kg m s 1
43. Two blocks A and B of masses 10 kg and 15 kg are placed in contact with each other rest on a rough
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the blocks and surface
is 0.2. A horizontal force of 200 N is applied to block A. The acceleration of the system is(Take
g  10 m s 2 )

1) 4 m s 2 2) 6 m s 2 3) 8 m s 2 4) 10 m s 2
44. A particle is moving on a circular path of 10 m radius. At any instant of time, its speed is 5m s 1 and
the speed is increasing at a rate of 2 m s 2 . The magnitude of net acceleration at this instant is
1) 5 m s 2 2) 2 m s 2 3) 3.2 m s 2 4) 4.3m s 2
45. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by a massless string and are placed on a
smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. If a force F = 600 N is applied to 10 kg block, then
the tension in the string is

1) 100 N 2)200 N 3) 300 N 4) 400 N

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46. A circular racetrack of radius 300 m is banked at an angle of 15°. The coefficient of friction between
the wheels of a race car and the road is 0.2. The optimum speed of the race car to avoid wear and tear
on its tyres is (Taken tan150  0.27, g  10 m s 2 )
1) 10 3 m s 1 2) 9 10 m s 1 3) 10 m s 1 4) 2 10 m s 1
47. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.1. The maximum speed with which a
cyclist can take a circular turn of radius 3 m without skidding is (Take g  10 m s 2 )
1) 15 m s 1 2) 3 m s 1 3) 30 m s 1 4) 10 m s 1
48. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km h 1 with its wings banked at 15°. What is
the radius of the loop? (Take g  10 m s 2 , tan150  0.27 )
1) 14.8 km 2) 14.8 m 3) 29.6 km 4) 29.6 m
49. Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg are suspended with the help of massless inextensible strings as shown
in figure. The whole system is going upwards with an acceleration of 2 m s 2 The tensions T1 and T2
are respectively (Take g  10 m s 2 )

1) 96 N, 36 N 2) 36 N , 96 N 3) 96 N, 96 N 4) 36 N, 36 N
50. A book is lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table and the
reaction of the table on the book?
1) 0° 2) 45° 3) 90° 4) 180°
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
54 56 57 58
51. i) 26 Fe , 26 Fe , 26 Fe , 26 Fe , a) Isotopes
ii) 1 H 3 , 2 H 3 b) Isotopes
iii) 32 Ge76 , 33 As77 c) Isodiaphers
iv) 92 U 235 , 90Th231 d) Isobars
v) 1 H 1 , 1D2 , T 3
Match the above correct terms :
1) [(i)-(a), [(ii)-(d)],[(iii)-(b)],[(iv)-(c)], [(v)-(a)] 2) [(i)-(a), [(ii)-(d)],[(iii)-(d)],[(iv)-(c)], [(v)-(a)]
3) [(v)-(a), [(iv)-(c)],[(iii)-(d)],[(ii)-(b)], [(i)-(a)] 4) None of the above
52. The energies and E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be:
1
1) 1  2 2) 1  22 3) 1  42 4) 1 
2
2
53. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He ion is 105.8pm, What is the radius of third Bohr Orbit of
Li  ion?
1) 15.87 pm 2) 158.7 Å 3) 1.587 pm 4) 158.7 pm
54. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175Lu respectively, are:
71
1) 175, 104 and 71 2) 71, 104 and 71 3) 104, 71 and 71 4) 71, 71 and 104

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55. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?
1) Lyman series 2) Balmer series 3) Paschen series 4) Brackett series
56. Select the correct statements from the following :
(A) Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles.
(B) The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10-31 kg.
(C) All the isotopes of a given elements show same chemical properties.
(D) Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
(E) Dalton's atomic theory, regarded the atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) (C), (D) and (E) only 2) (A) and (E) only
3) (B), (C) and (E) only 4) (A), (B) and (C) only
57. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 1034 J s. The speed of light is 3 1017 nm s 1 . Which value is
closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 1015 s 1 ? S
1) 50 2) 75 3) 10 4) 25
58. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 KHz
(kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is:
[Speed of light, c  3.0 108 ms 1 ]
1) 219.3 m 2) 219.2 m 3) 2192 m 4) 21.92 m
59. Number of visible lines when an electron returns from 5th orbit to ground state in H spectrum:
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 10
60. According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum to an electron in 5th orbit is :.
1) 25  h   2) 1.0  h   3) 10  h   4) 2.5  h  
61. Uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momentum. Uncertainty in velocity is :
h 1 h 1 h
1) 2) 3) h 4)
 2m  2m 4
62. Ernest Rutherford's scattering experiment demonstrated the existence of :
1) Alpha particle 2) Neutron 3) Electron 4) Nucleus
63. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na if IE1 of Na  5.1 eV ?


1) -5.1 eV 2) -10.2 eV 3) +2.55 eV 4) +10.2 eV

64. Match the following
Oxide Nature
A CO i Basic
B BaO ii Neutral
C Al2O3 iii Acidic
D Cl2O7 iv Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option?
A B C D A B C D
1) iv iii ii i 2) I ii iii iv
3) ii I iv iii 4) iii iv I ii
65. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is:
1) Unununnium 2) Ununoctium 3) Ununennium 4) Unnilennium
66. The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is :
1) F 2) N 3) Na 4) O

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67. Which of the following oxide is most acidic in nature?
1) MgO 2) BeO 3) BaO 4) CaO
68. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy
1) Li  Be  B  C  N  O  F  Ne 2) Li  B  Be  C  N  O  F  Ne
3) Li  B  Be  C  N  O  F  Ne 4) Li  Be  B  C  O  N  F  Ne
69. Amongst the element with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the
highest ionization energy?
1) Ne 3s 2 3P 3  2) Ne 3s 2 3P 3  3) Ar 3d 10 4s 2 4 P 3  4) Ne  4 s 2 3P1 
70. Which of the following lanthanid ions is diamagnetic? (At nos. Ce=58, Sm=62,Eu=63, Yb=70
1) Sm2 2) Eu 2 3) Yb2 4) Ce2
71. Which of the following combinations contain only isoelectronic ions ?
1) N 3 , O 2 , Cl  , Ne 2) F  , Ar , S 2 , Cl  3) P3 , S 2 , Cl  , Ar 4) N 3 , F  , O 2 , Ar
72. The elements x, y and z are present in one period of the periodic table. Chemically their oxides are
acidic, amphoteric and basic respectively. When these elements are arranged in ascending order of
atomic number they are
1) x, y, z 2) z, y, x 3) y, z, x 4) y, x, z
73. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently it will belong to which of the following
group/family and electronic configuration
1) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 P 4 2) Halogen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 P 4
3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 P 4 4) Carbon family, [Rn] 5 f 14 6d 10 7 s 2 7 P 4
74. The electronic configurations of Eu(Atomic No.63), Gd(Atomic No.64) and Tb(Atomic No.65) are:
1) [ Xe]4 f 7 6s 2 ,[ Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6s 2 and [ Xe]4 f 9 5d 1 6s 2 2) [ Xe]4 f 6s 2 ,[ Xe]4 f 8 6s 2 and [ Xe]4 f 8 5d 1 6s 2
3) [ Xe]4 f 6 5d 1 6s 2 ,[ Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6s 2 and [ Xe]4 f 9 6s 2 4) [ Xe]4 f 5 5d 1 6s 2
75. Among a) Na2O , b) MgO , c) Al2O3 , d) P2O5 e) Cl2O7 , the most basic, most acidic and amphoteric
oxide can be
1) a, b, c 2) b, e, c 3) а, е, с 4) е, с, а
76. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is:
1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d 2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d 3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p 4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
77. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?
1) n = 5 l = 3 , m = 0 , s = ½ 2) n = 3 l = 2 , m = - 3 , s = - 1/2
3) n = 3 l = 2 , m = - 2 , s = - ½ 4) n = 4 l = 0 m = 0 , s = - 1/2
78. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression
1) 4l  2 2) 4l  2 3) 2l  2 4) 2n2
79. For which one of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest
energy?
n l m s n l m s
1) 3 2 1 ½ 2) 4 2 -1 ½
3) 4 1 0 -1/2 4) 5 0 0 -1/2
0
80. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is approximately 0.530 A . The radius for the
0
first excited state (n = 2) orbit is (in A )
1) 0.13 2) 1.06 3) 4.77 4) 2.12

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81. The momentum of a particle having a de Broglic wavelength of 1017 meters is (Given
h  6.625 1034 Js )
1) 3.3125 107 kg ms 1 2) 26.5 107 kg ms 1
3) 6.625 1017 kg ms 1 4) 13.25 1017 kg ms 1
82. Which one is a wrong statement?
1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
2) An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by
four quantum numbers
2
3) The value of m for d z
is zero

4) The electronic configuration of N atom is

83. The orbitals are called degenerate when
1) They have the same wave functions
2) They have the same wave functions but different energies
3) They have different wave functions but same energy
4) They have the same energy
84. If electron has spin quantum number + 1/2 and a magnetic quantum number - 1, it cannot be present
in
1) d-orbital 2) f-orbital 3) p-orbital 4) s-orbital
85. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be
 h  6.6 1034 Js 
1) 6.6 1032 m 2) 6.6 1034 m 3) 1.0 1035 m 4) 1.0 1032 m
SECTION-B
86. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal , then uncertainty in velocity is
1 h h 1 h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2m  2 m  
87. Maximum number electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following
1) 2l  1 2) 4l  1 3) 2n2 4) 4l  2
88. Identify the incorrect match. NCERT | Page-80 | 2020
Name IUPAC Official Name
(A) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(B) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(C) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(D) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(a) (B), (ii) (b) (C), (iii) (c) (D), (iv) (d) (A), (i)
89. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
1) Li<Be<B<C<N<O<F<Ne 2) Li<B<Be<C<O<N<F<Ne
3) Li<B<Be<C<N<O<F<Ne 4) Li<Be<B<C<O<N<F<Ne
90. The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B respectively are
1) 8.29, 9.32 2) 9.32, 9.32 3) 8.29, 8.29 4) 9.32, 8.29
91. Pauling's electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting
1) Polarity of the molecules 2) Position in the E.M.F. series
3) Coordination numbers 4) Dipole moments.

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92. Amongst the elements with following electronic configuration , which one of them may have highest
ionization energy
1) Ne 3s 2 3 p 2  2) Ar 3d 10 4 s 2 4 p 3  3) Ne 3s 2 3 p1  4) Ne 3s 2 3 p3 
93. Correct order of first IP among following elements Be, B, C, N, O is
1) B < Be < C < O < N 2) B < Be < C < N < 0
3) Be < B < C < N < 0 4) Be < B < C < 0 < N
94. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen because
1) of the extra stability of half-filled p orbitals in nitrogen
2) of the smaller size of nitrogen
3) The former contains less number of electrons
4) The former is less electronegative
95. S-I: The second electron affinity of oxygen is endothermic.
S-II: Oxygen is the second highest electronegative element
1) Both I and II are correct. 2) Both I and II are incorrect.
3) I is correct and II is incorrect. 4) I is incorrect and II is correct.
96. The formation of the oxide ion, O 2  g  , from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below:
O  g   e  O  g  ; r H    141kjmol 1


O  g   e  O2  g  ; r H    780 kjmol 1



Thus process of formation of O ^ 2- in gas phase is unfavourable even though O ^ 2- is isoelectronic

with neon. It is due to the fact that,
1) Oxygen is more electronegative
2) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
3) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
4) O ion has comparatively smaller size than
97. The Lanthanoids contraction is responsible for the fact that
1) Zr and Hf have almost same radius 2) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
3) Zr and Y have same radius 4) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
98. Crystal radius of Li is 123 pm. Then covalent radius of Li will be
123
1) > 123 pm 2) < 123 pm 3) + 123 pm 4) = pm
2
99. Elements whose atoms have three outermost shells incomplete are called
1) s – block 2) p – block 3) d – block 4) f-blcok
100. Anomalous pair in Mendeleev’s table is
1) Li, Na 2) Mg, Al 3) Co, Ni 4) Be, B

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 BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Taxon is
1) species 2) unit of classifications
3) highest rank in classification 4) group of closely related organism
102. Binomial nomenclature was popularized by
1) Darwin 2) Linnaeus 3) Johnray 4) A. P de Candolle
103. In binomial nomenclature, every organism has
1) Two, names, one Latin other common
2) Two names, one scientific other common
3) Two names by two scientists
4) One scientific name with two words, generic and specific
104. The lowest taxonomic category in universal usage is
1) Genus 2) Order 3) Species 4) Class
105. Pick up the wrong statement:
1) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
2) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
3) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
4) Some fungi are edible
106. Which one is the correct hierarchial order in taxonomy
1) genus-species-class-order 2) genus-class-order-family
3) Species-order-class-phylum 4) genus-class-division-order
107. ICBN stands for
1) International classification of biological nomenclature
2) International class of biological nomenclature
3) International code for botanical nomenclature
4) International classification of biological naming
108. Match column I with column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below
Column – I Column – II
A. Family i) Diptera
B. Order ii) Arthropoda
C. Class iii) Muscidae
D. Phylum iv) Insecta
1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-I 4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii
109. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature
1) the names are written in Latin and are italicised
2) When written by hand the names are to be underlined.
3) Biological names can be written in any language
4) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
110. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
1) House fly 2) Panthera 3) Potato 4) Lion
111. The correct scientific name of mango is
1) Mangifera Indica 2) mangifera indica 3) Mangifera indica 4) Mangifera Indica

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112. A group of families make
1) Class 2) Phylum 3) Division 4) Order
113. Select the wrong statement
1) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
2) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water
3)The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
4) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
114. Assertion : Earliest classifications were based on the uses of various organisms
Reason : In early days, human beings needed to find sources for their basic needs of food clothing
and shelter
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
1) If both assertion and reason is true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason is true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason is false.
115. List – I List – II
A. Family I) nigrum
B. Kingdom II) Polymoniales
C. Order III) Solanum
D. Species IV) Plantae
V) Solanaceae
A B C D A B C D
1) V IV II I 2) IV V III II
3) I II III IV 4) III II IV V
116. Statement – I : Systematics is systematic arrangement of organisms
Statement – II : Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationship between the organisms
1) Statement – I and Statement – II are true
2) Statement – I is false, Statement – II is true
3) Statement – I is true, Statement – II is false
4) Both Statement – I and Statement – II are false
117. Plant family namely Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in order A based on B.A & B are
respectively.
1) polymoniales, floral characters 2) polymoniales, vegetative characters
3) poales, floral characters 4) poales, vegetative characters
118. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
1) step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals.
2) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals.
3) a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group.
4) classification of a species based on fossil record
119. The Darwin of the 20th century was
1) Aritotle 2) Linnaeus 3) Ernst Mayr 4) Earnst Haeckel
120. Specific epithet is
1) First word in the scientific name of an organism
2) Second word in the scientific name of an organism
3) Both A and B
4)Two words of a scientific name

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121. The basic components of taxonomy are
a) Characterisation b) Identification c) Classification d) nomenclature
1) b, c and d only 2) a, c and d only 3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c and d
122. Select a genus not related to family solanaceae
1) Solanum 2) Petunia 3) Mangifera 4) Datura
123. As we go lower from kingdom to species the number of common characteristics goes on
1) Increasing 2) Remain unchanged 3) Decreasing 4) Some times decreasing
124. The word ending with -aceae indicates
1) Genera 2) Family 3) Order 4) Class
125. Which of the following is a class?
1) Sapindales 2) Mammalia 3) Primata 4) Poales
126. Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of
1) Sporangiospore, oospore and ascospore
2) Zoospore, oospore and ascospore
3) Sporangiospore, ascospore and basidiospore
4) Oospore, ascospore and basidiospore
127. ____________ of bacteria are present in a handful of soil.
1) Hundreds 2) Thousands 3) Millions 4) Billions
128. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
1) Cholera, Common cold 2) Typhoid, Tetanus
3) Ringworm, AIDS 4) Common cold, AIDS
129. Which of the following statements is false?
1) TMV has double-stranded RNA molecule
2) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
3) The bacteriophage has a double-stranded DNA molecule
4) No virus contains both DNA and RNA.
130. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
1) A nematode 2) A virus 3) A bacterium 4) A viroid
131. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the one categorised as
1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs 2) Heterotrophic bacteria
3) Cyanobacteria 4) Archaebacteria
132. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
1) Eubacteria 2) Blue-green algae 3) Saprophytic fungi 4) Archaebacteria
133. The guts of cow and buffalo possess :
1) Methanogens 2) Cyanobacteria 3) Fucus spp. 4) Chlorella spp.
134. Choose the wrong statement:
1)Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
2) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics
3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
4) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
135. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to
1) Ascomycetes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Phycomycetes
SECTION-B
136. Each unit of a category of classification is termed as
1) Taxon 2) Order 3) Cohort 4) Trophic level

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137. In the classification of plants ‘Phylum’ is replaced by
1) Class 2) Sub class 3) Division 4) Sub division
138. Which one of the following statement is wrong?
1) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
2) Golden algae are also called desmids
3) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
4) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
139. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Animalia
140. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall,
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
1) Bacillus 2) Pseudomonas 3) Mycoplasma 4) Nostoc
141. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Diatoms 3) Cyanobacteria 4) Euglenoids
142. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
1) Neurospora 2) Alternaria 3) Agaricus 4) Saccharomyces
143. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Viroids lack a protein coat
2) Viruses are obligate parasites
3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
144. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) Lichens donot grow in polluted areas
2) Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont
3) Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont
4) Lichens are not good pollution indicators
145. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium
1) Zoospores 2) Conidia 3) Gemmules 4) Buds
146. What is the ratio of kingdoms of whittaker having Eukaryotic organisms and multicellcular
organisms respectively?
1) 4 : 3 2) 1 : 2 3) 3 : 4 4) 1 : 1
147. The two kingdom classification can differentiate
1) Autotrophs from heterotrophs
2) Prokaryotes from eukaryotes
3) Unicellular organisms from multicellular organisms
4) Plants from animals
148. Classification of animals based on with and with out red blood was first made by
1) Linnaeus 2) Aristotle 3) Whittaker 4) Carl Woese
149. Which are not included in the five kingdom classification of Whittaker?
1) Protista without cell walls 2) Prokaryotes that lack cell wall
3) Branched filamentous bacteria 4) Lichens, viruses, viroids and prions

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150. Identify A and B from the given diagram.

A B A B
1) ssDNA Capsomere 2) dsDNA capsomeres
3) ssRNA capsomers 4) dsRNA Tail fibres
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
1) Earthworm 2) Tunicate 3) Starfish 4) Moth
152. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
1) Macropus 2) Chelone 3) Psittacula 4) Camelus
153. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
1) Amphibia 2) Reptilia 3) Osteichthyes 4) Aves
154. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called __________.
1) oscula 2) choanocytes 3) mesenchymal cells 4) ostia
155. An important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is
1) ventral tubular nerve cord. 2) pharynx with gill slits.
3) pharynx without gill slits. 4) absence of notochord
156. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?
1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon 2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
3) Trygon, Whales, Seals 4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
157. Which of the following features is not present in the phylum- arthropoda?
1) Chitinous exoskeleton 2) Metameric segmentation
3) Parapodia 4) Jointed appendages
158. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of
animals?
1) Cartilaginous – Chondrichthyes endoskeleton
2) Viviparous – Mammalia
3) Possess a mouth – Chordata with an upper and a lower jaw
4) 3 - chambered heart – Reptilia with one incompletely divided ventricle
159. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
1) Ossified endoskeleton 2) Breathing using lungs
3) Viviparity 4) Warm blooded nature
160. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Exoskeleton
3) Eyes 4) Segmentation
161. Metagenesis refers to
1) alteration of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organisms.
2) occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embroyonic development.
3) presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction.
4) presence of different morphic forms

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162. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
development are the characteristics of phylum:
1) Porifera 2) Mollusca 3) Protozoa 4) Coelenterate
163. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:-
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following :-
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
164. Match the following genera with their respective phylum:
(a) Ophura (i) Mollusca
(b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
(c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
(d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
Select the correct option:
1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii) 2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(ii)
3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), d-(ii) 4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
165. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
1) Adult Echinoderms 2) Aschelminthes 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Annelids
166. Which of the following options does correctly represent the characteristic features of phylum
Annelida ?
1) Triploblastic, unsegmented body and bilaterally symmetrical.
2) Triploblastic, segmented body and bilaterally symmetrical.
3) Triploblastic, flattened body and acoelomate condition.
4) Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially symmetrical.
167. Match the following group of organisms with their respective distinctive characteristics and select
the correct option :
Organisms Characteristics
a) Platyhelminthes (i) Cylindrical body with no segmentation
b) Echinoderms (ii) Warm blooded animals with direct development
c) Hemichordates (iii) Bilateral symmetry with incomplete digestive system
d) Aves (iv) Radial symmetry with indirect development
1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
168. Match the following columns and select the correct option:
Column - I Column - II
(a) Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox
(b) Pteropus (ii) Angel fish
(c) Pterophyllum (iii)Lamprey
(d) Petromyzon (iv)Penguin
1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

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169. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates, why?
1) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adult of some chordates.
2) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in some chordates.
3) All chordates possess vertebral column.
4) All chordates possess notochord throughout their life.
170. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum – Chordata?
a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life
b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only
c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata
1) (b) and (c) 2) (d) and (c) 3) (c) and (a) 4) (a) and (b)
171. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva (ii) Scorpion with bilateral symmetry
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
172. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits i) Trygon
b) Heterocercal caudal fin ii) Cyclostomes
c) Air Bladder iii) Chondrichthyes
d) Poison sting iv) Osteichthyes
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) i iv iii ii 2) ii iii iv i
3) iii ii iv i 4) iv ii iii i
173. Bilateral symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by
1) Annelida 2) Ctenophora 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Aschelminthes
174. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal plates (ii) Ctenophora
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

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175. Read the following statements
a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths
b) Round worms have organ –system level of body organization
c) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
d) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct 4) (c), (a) and (d) are correct
176. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
1) Hemidactylus 2) Macropus 3) Ornithorhynchus 4) Neophron
177. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical
halves, the organism is called ___________.
1) radially symmetrical 2) bilaterally symmetrical
3) asymmetrical 4) metamerically segmented
178. Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification?
1) Germinal layers. 2) Pathway of water transport.
3) Pattern of organization of cells. 4) Serial repetition of the segments.
179. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the body can be divided into identical left and right
halves in only one plane, exhibit symmetry.
1) radial 2) bilateral 3) asymmetrical 4) non- symmetrical
180. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of kingdom animalia?
1) Storage of carbohydrates as starch. 2) Multicellularity.
3) Obtaining nutrients by ingestion. 4) Having eukaryotic cells without walls.
181. Which of the following traits is not shared by both sea anemones and jellyfish?
1) A medusa as the dominant stage in the life cycle.
2) Possession of a gastro-vascular cavity.
3) Sexual reproduction.
4) Nematocysts present on the tentacles.
182. Which of the following statements is without exception in sponges?
1) They all have calcareous spicules. 2) They have high regenerative power.
3) They are found only in marine water. 4) They are all radially symmetrical.
183. Identify the correct characteristics of porifera from the given statements.
(i) Commonly known as sea walnuts.
(ii) Presence of ostia and collar cells.
(iii) Exhibit tissue level of organisation.
(iv) It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom.
(v) The body is supported by spicules and spongin fibres.
(vi) Contains cnidocytes which is used for defense, anchorage and capturing of prey.
1) (ii), (v) only 2) (i), (ii), (vi) only
3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) only 4) All of these.

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184. Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below and answer the question.

Which of the following options shows the correct name of the animals shown by the figures A,B,C
and D?
1) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila
2) A – Locust, B – Prawn, C – Scorpion, D – Pila
3) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pinctada
4) A – Butterfly, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila
185. Which of the following statements (i) to (v) are incorrect? (i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in
arthropods used for swimming.
(ii) Radula in molluscs are structures involved in excretion.
(iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.
(v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iii) 3) (i), (iv) and (v) 4) (iii) and (v)
SECTION-B
186. Which one of the following statement regarding coelom of given animals is correct?
1) Round worms (aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates.
2) Molluscs are acoelomates.
3) Insects are pseudocoelomates.
4) Flatworms (platyhelminthes) are coelomates.
187. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) They are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue level of
organisation.
(ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
(iii) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means.
Which of the following phylum is being described by above statements?
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Arthropoda 3) Mollusca 4) Ctenophora
188. The given figure shows some characteristic features marked as A, B, C and D of chordates.
Identify the correct labelling of A,B,C and D.

1) A-Notochord; B-Post-anal part; C-Gill slits; D-Nerve cord

2) A-Nerve cord; B-Notochord; C-Post-anal part; D-Gill slits
3) A-Notochord; B-Nerve cord; C-Gill slits; D-Post-anal part
4) A-Gill slits; B-Post-anal part; C-Nerve cord; D-Notochord
189. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Prawn has two pairs of antennae.
2) Nematocysts are characteristic feature of the phylum cnidaria.
3) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in eachsegment of the body.
4) Animals that belong to phylum porifera are exclusively marine.

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190. Which of the following possesses electric organs and belongs to class chondrichthyes?
1) Torpedo 2) Petromyzon 3) Trygon 4) Exocoetus
191. Which of the following possesses poison sting and belongs to class chondrichthyes?
1) Labeo 2) Myxine 3) Clarias 4) Trygon
192. Which of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
1) Mackerals and rohu. 2) Lampreys and hag fishes.
3) Guppies and hag fishes. 4) Lampreys and eels.
193. Which of the following class is being correctly described by given statements (i) to (iv)?
(i) All living members of this class are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(ii) They have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
(iii) Circulation is of closed type.
(iv) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawing, within a few days they
die.
1) Cyclostomata 2) Chondrichthyes 3) Osteichthyes 4) Amphibia
194. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option which shows animals that regulate
buoyancy with the help of air bladder.

1) A and B 2) A and C 3) B and C 4) All of the above

195. Which of the following characteristics is correct for reptilia?
1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have
external ears.
2) Body is covered with moist skin and is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum,
alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca.
3) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton and airbladder regulate buoyancy.
4) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton and body is covered with placoid scales.
196. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding class-aves?
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified
for walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches.
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homeothermous) animals i.e., they are able to maintain a constant
body temperature.
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct.
1) Both (i) and (iii) 2) Both (i) and (iv) 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) All of these.
197. Which one of the following categories of animals is correctly described with no single exception in
it?
1) In chondrichthyes, notochord is persistent throughout life.
2) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing.
3) All sponges are marine.
4) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal).

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198. Which of the following class is being described by the given statements (i) to (iv)?
(i) They are found in a variety of habitats- polar ice-caps, deserts, mountains, forests, grasslands and
dark caves.
(ii) Most unique characteristic is the presence of mammary glands by which the young ones are
nourished.
(iii) Heart is four-chambered.
(iv) Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal.
1) Reptilia 2) Aves 3) Mammalia 4) Amphibia
199. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for class amphibia?
(i) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(ii) Respiration is through gills only.
(iii) The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle and one ventricle.
(iv) Fertilisation is internal.
1) Only (i) 2) Only (iv) 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) All of the above
200. A chordate character is
1) gills 2) spiracles 3) post anal tail 4) chitinous exoskeleton

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