GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on

Introduction to Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Delegate means to grant or confer on subordinates certain tasks and duties along with sufficient authority,
to accomplish these. Which of the following points is most likely to increase the effectiveness of
delegation?
(a) Detail how the required tasks are to be completed for the subordinate
(b) Predetermine the desired results and performance standards for the delegated task
(c) Explain the relevance of delegated tasks to larger projects or to department or organization goals
(d) Maintain the authority necessary to accomplish the main tasks
(e) Retain the decision-making power for the delegated tasks
2. Which of the following is/are reason(s) for line-staff conflict from the viewpoint of staff personnel?
I. Line managers do not seek input from staff personnel
II. Staff function dilutes the line manager’s authority
III. Line managers resist new ideas
IV. Staff personnel lack a first-hand experience of operations
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (IV) above (c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (IV) above (e) (I), (II) and (III) above
3. In modern times, organizations have been trying to create a corporate culture with a distinct identity by
molding the behavior of their members. The original source of an organization’s culture is most strongly
associated with
(a) Overseas influences (b) Political factors in the external environment
(c) General economic trends (d) The vision of the organization’s founder(s)
(e) The make-up of organizational members when the organization was established
4. The selection process involves choosing the candidates who best meet the qualifications and have the
greatest aptitude for the job. Different kinds of selection devices are used for the purpose. Which of the
following selection devices involves presenting applicants with a miniature model of a job and have them
perform a task that is central to that job?
(a) Personality test (b) Work sampling test (c) Application blank
(d) Knowledge test (e) Intelligence test
5. The success of an organization greatly depends on the decisions that managers make. What are the three
decision-making conditions, which managers deal with, in analysing decision alternatives?
(a) Certainty, uncertainty, risk (b) Certainty, uncertainty, maximize
(c) Certainty, minimize, risk (d) Maximize, uncertainty, risk
(e) Maximize, certainty, risk
6. Apart from on-the-job training, there are many other approaches to manager development. Development of
organizing and intervening skills in group processes, usually takes place in case of
(a) Sensitivity training (b) Survey feedback
(c) Team building (d) Process consultation
7. Every organization makes minor structural adjustments in reaction to changes. The forces of change can be
internal or external to the organization. Which of the following is not an internal force of change?
(a) Organizational strategy (b) Technology
(c) Employee attitude (d) Organizational culture
(e) Workforce
8.Lyman Porter and his colleagues classified the underlying nature of people into six models. Which of the
following views proposes that people are unpredictable, subjective, relative and unique in nature?
(a) Rational (b) Emotional (c) Behaviourstic
(d) Self-actualizing (e) Phenomenological
9.Different behavioral scientists have developed different theories on motivation. One such behavioral
scientist by the name of Herzberg gave the two-factor theory of motivation. According to Herzberg’s
motivation-hygiene theory, which of the following are hygiene factors?
(a) Personal life, security, salary and recognition
(b) Advancement, salary, status, company policy
(c) Relationship with peers, status, supervision and security
(d) Working conditions, relationship with subordinates, supervision and work itself
10.The managerial grid identified five specific leadership styles. Which leader believes that thoughtful
attention to the needs of people for a satisfying relationship leads to a comfortable, friendly organizational
atmosphere and work tempo?
(a) Task (b) Middle of the road (c) Country club
(d) Team (e) Impoverished
11. Information that originates outside the organization is known as external information. Which of the
following is/are example(s) of external information in an organization?
(a) Daily receipts and expenditures
(b) Salesperson Quotas
(c) Descriptions of customer satisfaction with products and services
(d) Quantity of an item in hand or in inventory
(e) Cost and selling price of the company’s item.
12. Which of the following decision-making models emphasizes short-run solution of a problem rather than
long-term goal accomplishment?
(a) Rational model (b) Satisfying model (c) Incremental model
(d) Garbage-can model (e) Decision tree.
13.Sofia works in one of seven research and development departments at General Automobile Corporation.
This would suggest that General Automobiles has a
(a) Functional structure (b) Divisional structure (c) Flat structure
(d) High degree of centralization (e) Tall structure.
14.Which of the following information processing systems gives the output in the form of summary and
exception reports that are useful to the managers?
(a) Decision support system (b) Management information system
(c) Office automation system (d) Transaction processing system
15. In which of Likert’s four systems of leadership, managers do not have complete confidence and trust in
subordinates but nevertheless, solicit advice from subordinates while retaining the right to make final
decision?
(a) Participative leadership style (b) Benevolent-authoritative leadership style
(c) Consultative leadership style (d) Exploitative-authoritative leadership style
(e) Trait theory of leadership style
16. Performance appraisals are important in an organization because they
I. Provide systematic judgments to support promotions.
II. Provide a basis for coaching.
III. Provide a basis for counseling.
IV. Let subordinates know where they stand with the boss.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above (d) (I), (III) and (IV) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
17. Ratio analysis helps a manager to compare the performance of the organization with its previous
performance or the performance of its competitors. Which of the following is a ratio of creditors’
contribution to that of the owners?
(a) Current ratio (b) Debt-equity ratio
(c) Return on investment (ROI) (d) Net profit margin (e) Inventory turnover.
18. Which of the following inventory techniques uses cards to monitor inventory movement?
(a) ABC Analysis (b) JIT Approach (c) Kanban
(d) Kaizen (e) Economic Order Quantity.
19. A decision support system (DSS) is an interactive computer system used to plan and make decisions.
Which of the following is/are true with regard to Decision Support System (DSS)?
I. Executive decisions are the focal points in DSS.
II. DSS specializes in easy-to-use software.
III. DSS employs interactive processing.
IV. The control and use of DSS rests with the central information management department.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (III) and (IV) above (d) (I), (II) and (III) above
(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.
20. Which of the following is/are postulates of the path – goal theory?
I. The leader clearly defines the path to goal attainment for subordinates.
II. The leader motivates subordinates to participate in decision-making.
III. The leader sets clear and specific goals for subordinates.
IV. The leader suitably rewards employees as per their performance.
(a) Only (II) above (b) Only (IV) above
(c) Both (II) and (IV) above (d) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above.
21. In the past three to four decades, many management theorists, and writers have made remarkable
contribution in the study of management. By studying the various approaches to management analysis,
we can understand the concept of management and have a better understanding of managerial functions.
Which approach to management emphasizes managing people by understanding their individual
psychological needs?
(a) Empirical Approach (b) Decision Theory Approach
(c) Management Science Approach (d) Interpersonal Behavior Approach
(e) Contingency Approach
22. The communication process is made up of various components. Which of the following is the actual
physical product from the source?
(a) Feedback (b) Filter (c) Message
(d) Channel (e) Understanding.
23.Which of the following would not be an accurate depiction of the differences between strategic and tactical
planning?
(a) Strategic planning is developed mainly by upper-level management and tactical planning is
generally developed by lower-level management
(b) Facts for strategic planning are generally easier to gather than facts for tactical planning
(c) Strategic plans generally contain less details than tactical plans
(d) Strategic plans generally cover a longer period of time than tactical plans
(e) Managers who are engaged in the development of strategic plans tend to work in more uncertainty
than those managers engaged in the development of tactical plans.
24.Which of the following statements concerning grapevine is not correct?
(a) Grapevine is generally used irregularly in organizations
(b) Grapevine can and often does generate harmful rumours
(c) Grapevine is used largely to serve the self-interests of people within it
(d) Some managers use grapevine to their advantage
(e) In time, and with proper pressure, grapevine can be eliminated.
25. The conflict-resolution approach that corresponds with a high level of assertiveness and a low level of
cooperativeness, is referred to as
(a) Compromising (b) Collaborating (c) Forcing
(d) Avoiding (e) Accommodating.
26.Mr. Sunil works for “Energy Engineering Works.” Apart from the regular compensation, the company
provides him with things such as tuition reimbursement, recreational opportunities etc. What is the name
given to these things of value?
(a) Incentives (b) Benefits (c) Rewards
(d) Compensation (e) Social benefits.
27. The fact that 70-80 percent of a manager’s time is taken up by his interactions with others, highlights the
need for effective communication for successful management. Which of the following strategies is not
likely to improve communication effectiveness?
(a) Avoiding non-verbal cues
(b) Using simple, unambiguous language
(c) Using active listening techniques
(d) Using appropriate and consistent nonverbal cues
(e) Using the feedback loop in the communication process
28. Two factor theory of motivation provides useful insights into the relationship between individual and
situational or hygiene factors. Which of the following is a hygiene factor?
(a) Achievement (b) Interpersonal relation (c) Recognition
(d) Challenging work (e) Increased responsibility.
29. Identify the sequence of different steps in controlling.
I. Measurement of performance.
II. Comparison of actual and standard.
III. Analysis of causes of deviation.
IV. Actual performance.
V. Corrective action plan.
(a) (III), (IV), (V), (I), (II) (b) (II), (III), (IV), (V), (I)
(c) (I), (II), (IV), (III), (V) (d) (IV), (I), (II), (III), (V)
(e) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I).
30.JIT (Just-In-Time) inventory control is an approach to inventory control, which stipulates that materials
should arrive just, as they are needed, in the production process. Which of the following would generally
not be associated with a successful JIT program, for the purpose of inventory control?
(a) Well-organized receiving and handling of materials purchased from suppliers
(b) Strong management commitment
(c) Suppliers located in diverse and distant locations
(d) High quality of materials purchased from suppliers
(e) Dependable and long-lasting relationships with suppliers and customers.
31. Which of the following steps in the planning process involves the organization asking the question “in
which environment – internal or external – will our plans operate”?
(a) Formulating supporting plans (d) Identifying alternatives
(b) Comparing alternatives in the light of goals (e) Setting objectives or goals
(c) Considering planning premises
32. Sakshi Pathak is considering the following questions as she approaches a planning period: (a) What
industries should we get into or out of? (b) In which businesses should the corporation invest money?
Which of the following levels would be appropriate to address the questions facing Ms. Pathak?
(a) Corporate level (b) Business level
(c) Operational level (d) Functional level
(e) Departmental level
33. Which of the following managers deal with the actual operations of an organization’s units?
(a) First level (b) Top level (c) Middle level
(d) Administrative (e) Customer support.
34. Which of the following is/are objectives of sensitivity training?
I. It helps individuals gain insights into their behavior and helps them analyze the way they appear to
others.
II. It helps individuals develop the skills necessary for diagnosing and understanding of group
processes.
III. It exposes managers to theories, principles and new developments in management.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above (d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above
35. Douglas McGregor identified two opposing perspectives (Theory X and Theory Y) that he believed
typified managerial views of employees and suggested that management must start with the basic question
of how managers see themselves in relation to others. Which of the following is not correct about his
theory?
(a) Theory X managers view people as having an inherent dislike of work
(b) Theory X managers assume that people are self motivated and do not want to be directed
(c) Theory Y managers assume that the average person will accept, even seek, responsibility
(d) Theory Y managers view people as responsible and conscientious
(e) Theory Y managers assume that people are internally motivated to accomplish the goals and objectives
36. Inventory is vital to organizations, as it represents considerable costs. Various methods have been
developed to control inventory related costs. Which inventory control method minimizes ordering and
holding costs, while avoiding stock-out costs?
(a) Mathematical model (b) Linear programming
(c) Economic order quantity (d) JIT inventory system
(e) Kanban
37. Which of the following ratios tests the relationship between the sales and the various assets of a firm?
(a) Activity ratio (b) Current ratio (c) Inventory turnover ratio
(d) Return on investment ratio (e) Debt ratio
38. Which model/theory of leadership does KavitaRamakrishnan use, when she determines the effectiveness
of decisions as measured by group performance/participation; quality and acceptance?
(a) House's Path-Goal Theory
(b) Fiedler’s Contingency approach
(c) Blake and Mouton's Managerial Grid
(d) Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model
(e) Vroom and Yetton's Normative Decision Model
39. The bargaining power of buyers, as described by Porter, is high when
(a) There are only a few players in the industry
(b) Their purchases form a large chunk of the sellers’ total sales
(c) There are no substitutes for products being purchased
(d) Products or services are critical to the buyer’s business
(e) There are great differences in products, in terms of features, manufactured by various suppliers
40. Performance appraisals are important in an organization because they
I. Provide systematic judgments to support promotions.
II. Provide a basis for coaching.
III. Provide a basis for counseling.
IV. Let subordinates know where they stand with the boss.
(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above (e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above (d) (I), (III) and (IV) above
41. Managers at all three levels of management require different kinds of skills to perform the functions
associated with their jobs. A major difference in skill requirements between middle level and top-level
managers is that
(a) Top managers must generally be more skilled than middle managers in every respect
(b) Top managers require better interpersonal skills but less conceptual skills than middle managers
(c) Top managers generally require better technical and interpersonal skills than middle managers
(d) Top managers generally require higher level conceptual skills but less technical skills than middle
managers
(e) Middle managers require better technical and conceptual skills than top managers
42. The behavioral approach of management thoughts can be classified into
I. Bureaucratic management.
II. Group influences.
III. Hawthorne studies.
IV. Contingency theory.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above (b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (II) and (III) above (d) (I), (II) and (III) above
(e) (II), (III) and (IV) above.
43, By studying the various approaches to management analysis, we can understand the concept of
management and have a better understanding of managerial functions. Which approach to management
emphasizes managing people by understanding their individual psychological needs?
(a) Empirical approach (d) Interpersonal behavior approach
(b) Decision theory approach (e) Contingency approach
(c) Management science approach
44. Immoral management not only ignores ethical concerns, but also actively opposes ethical behavior.
Organizations with immoral management is/are characterized by
I. Total concern for company profits only.
II. Laws are regarded as hurdles to be removed.
III. Less inclination to minimize expenditure.

(a) Only (I) above (b) Only (II) above (c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above (e) All (I), (II) and (III) above
45. The communication process is made up of various components. Which of the following is the actual
physical product from the source?
(a) Feedback (b) Filter (c) Message (d) Channel (e) Understanding
46. Practicing ethical guidelines enables managers to become followers of moral management approach. They
facilitate ethical business decisions. Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for managers?
(a) Upholding human dignity
(b) Obeying the law
(c) Non-allowance for participation of stakeholders in the decision-making process
(d) Premium Non-Nocere
(e) Telling the truth
47. Despite the many advantages of planning, there may be some obstacles and limitations in this process,
since nothing is perfect on this earth, as a general rule of law. Which of the following would not be
considered a potential advantage of planning?
(a) It helps managers to be future oriented
(b) It enhances decision coordination
(c) It increases the amount of time available for other managerial functions
(d) It emphasizes organizational objectives
(e) It helps in offsetting uncertainty and risk
48. Which of the following would not be an accurate depiction of the differences between strategic and
tactical planning?
(a) Strategic planning is developed mainly by upper-level management and tactical planning is
generally developed by lower-level management
(b) Facts for strategic planning are generally easier to gather than facts for tactical planning
(c) Strategic plans generally contain less details than tactical plans
(d) Strategic plans generally cover a longer period of time than tactical plans
(e) Managers who are engaged in the development of strategic plans tend to work in more uncertainty
than those managers engaged in the development of tactical
49. Using the BCG matrix requires considering which of the following factors?
(a) Types of risk associated with product development
(b) Threats that economic conditions can create in future
(c) Social factors
(d) Market shares and growth of markets in which products are selling
(e) Political pressures
50. Proctor & Gamble (P&G) makes fourteen different laundry soap products and completely dominates the
laundry detergent market. Through constant changes in packaging, it is trying to influence the perception
of customers that its products are unique. Which of the following generic strategies is P&G using?
(a) Cost leadership (b) Differentiation (c) Focus
(d) Globalization (e) Niche strategy

Answer Key for Introduction to Management

1. C 2. C 3.D 4. B 5. A 6.A 7. B 8. E 9.C
10.C 11.C 12. C 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.E 17.B 18.C
19.D 20.E 21.D 22.C 23.B 24.E 25.C 26.B 27.A
28,B 29.D 30.C 31.C 32.A 33. C 34.C 35. B 36.C
37.A 38.E 39.B 40.E 41.D 42.C 43.D 44.C 45.C
46.C 47.C 48.B 49.D 50. B
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Principles of Marketing

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1.Which of the following is the definition of marketing?

a. Selling a product or service to customers
b. Creating and exchanging value with customers
c. Maximizing profits through advertising and promotions
d. Providing high-quality products or services to customers
2.Which of the following is NOT a component of the marketing mix?
a. Product b. Promotion c. Price d. Production
3.Which of the following is a benefit of conducting market research?
a. Increasing production costs c. Decreasing the time it takes to develop a product
b. Reducing the risk of product failure d. Increasing the price of a product
4.Which of the following is an example of a demographic segmentation variable?
a. Personality b. Social class c. Lifestyle d. Benefits sought
5.Which of the following is an example of a psychographic segmentation variable?
a. Age b. Gender c. Income d. Personality
6.Which of the following is NOT an example of a positioning strategy?
a. Value proposition c. Market segmentation
b. Product differentiation d. Brand personality
7.Which of the following is the process of developing and maintaining a strategic fit between the
organization's goals and capabilities and its changing marketing opportunities?
a. Strategic planning c. Tactical planning
b. Marketing strategy d. Operational planning
8.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a SWOT analysis?
a. It assesses an organization's internal strengths and weaknesses
b. It assesses an organization's external opportunities and threats
c. It identifies potential market segments for the organization
d. It helps organizations develop strategies to address their weaknesses and threats
9.Which of the following is NOT a stage in the product life cycle?
a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline E. none
10. Which of the following is a pricing strategy in which the price is set to match the perceived value of the
product?
a. Cost-plus pricing c. Skimming pricing
b. Penetration pricing d. Value-based pricing
11. Which of the following is the process of developing and maintaining a long-term, mutually beneficial
relationship with customers?
a. Customer acquisition c. Customer retention
b. Customer satisfaction d. Customer loyalty
12. Which of the following is NOT a method of promoting a product or service?
a. Advertising c. Public relations
b. Personal selling d. Distribution
13.Which of the following is the final stage in the consumer decision-making process?
a. Evaluation of alternatives c. Problem recognition
b. Purchase decision d. Post-purchase evaluation
14.Which of the following is a sales promotion technique that involves offering a free product or service to
customers who purchase a certain item?
a. Rebates b. Coupons c. Premiums d. Contests
15.Which of the following is the process of creating, distributing, promoting, and pricing goods, services, and
ideas to satisfy customers' needs and wants?
a. Sales management c. Advertising management
b. Marketing management d. Promotion management
16.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a well-defined market segment?
a. Homogeneity within the segment c. Measurability
b. Heterogeneity between segments d. Accessibility
17.Which of the following is NOT a step in the market research process?
a. Defining the problem and research objectives c. Collecting secondary data
b. Conducting surveys d. Developing a marketing strategy e. none
18. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting consumer behavior?
a. Cultural factors c. Psychological factors e. None
b. Social factors d. Economical factors
19. Which of the following is the process of developing a unique image and name for a product or service in
the consumers' minds?
a. Branding b. Positioning c. Segmentation d. Targeting
20.Which of the following is a distribution channel in which the manufacturer sells directly to the consumer?
a. Retail distribution c. Direct distribution
b. Wholesale distribution d. Indirect distribution
21.Which of the following is NOT a pricing objective?
a. Market penetration c. Sales revenue e. none
b. Maximizing profits d. Cost recovery
22.Which of the following is a pricing strategy in which the price is set below the product's cost in order to
gain market share?
a. Skimming pricing c. Cost-plus pricing
b. Penetration pricing d. Value-based pricing
23.Which of the following is NOT a type of product?
a. Convenience product c. Specialty product
b. Shopping product d. Service product
24.Which of the following is a type of promotion that aims to generate positive feelings and attitudes toward a
product or service?
a. Advertising c. Public relations
b. Personal selling d. Sales promotion
25.Which of the following is the process of designing and creating a new product, or improving an existing
product, to meet customers' needs and wants?
a. Product development c. Advertising
b. Market research d. Promotion
 Answer Key for Principles of Marketing
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. E
10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. E 18. E
19. B 20. C 21. E 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. A
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
International Marketing

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Which of the following best describes international marketing?

a. The promotion of goods and services within a single country
b. The promotion of goods and services across multiple countries
c. The promotion of goods and services within a single region
d. The promotion of goods and services within a single city
2.Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor that can impact international marketing?
a. Economic factors c. Social factors
b. Political factors d. Competitive factors
3. What is the process of adapting a product to meet the needs of a specific international market called?
a. Globalization c. Localization
b. Standardization d. Exportation
4. Which of the following is NOT a mode of entry into international markets?
a. Direct exporting b. Licensing c. Franchising d. Inflation
5. What is the difference between a product extension strategy and a product adaptation strategy?
a. A product extension strategy involves adapting a product to meet local needs, while a product
adaptation strategy involves selling the same product in multiple countries.
b. A product extension strategy involves selling the same product in multiple countries, while a
product adaptation strategy involves adapting a product to meet local needs.
c. A product extension strategy and a product adaptation strategy are the same thing.
d. A product extension strategy involves selling a completely new product in a foreign market.
6. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of international trade?
a. Access to new markets c. Lower costs
b. Increased competition d. Diversification of risk
7. Which of the following best describes a joint venture?
a. A partnership between two or more firms to achieve a specific goal
b. A strategy in which a firm enters a foreign market by acquiring an existing company
c. A strategy in which a firm licenses its technology or intellectual property to a foreign company
d. A strategy in which a firm sells its products directly to consumers in a foreign market
8. Which of the following is NOT a type of global marketing strategy?
a. Product standardization c. Product differentiation
b. Product adaptation d. Product privatization
9.What is the process of analyzing and managing the risks involved in international business called?
a. Risk management c. Standardization
b. Globalization d. Localization
10.Which of the following is NOT a cultural factor that can impact international marketing?
a. Religion b. Language c. Climate d. Values
11.Which of the following is NOT a form of direct marketing?
a. Telemarketing c. Email marketing
b. Direct mail d. Mass media advertising
12.What is the process of determining the price of a product or service in a foreign market called?
a. Global pricing c. Local pricing
b. Standard pricing d. Export pricing
13. Which of the following is NOT a method of market research for international marketing?
a. Surveys c. Demographic analysis
b. Focus groups d. Social media analysis
14.Which of the following is NOT a type of trade barrier?
a. Tariffs b. Quotas c. Subsidies d. Franchises
15.What is the process of transporting goods across international borders called?
a. Importing b. Exporting c. Shipping d. Trading
16.Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting a target market for international
marketing?
a. Cultural preferences c. Legal requirements
b. Language barriers d. The size of the market
17.Which of the following is NOT a way to manage cultural differences in international marketing?
a. Ignore cultural differences
b. Modify the product or service to better fit local cultural norms
c. Develop a deep understanding of local customs and traditions
d. Use local marketing experts to help navigate cultural differences
18. Which of the following is an advantage of using a licensing agreement to enter a foreign market?
a. The licensee has full control over the licensed product
b. The licensor does not need to share any knowledge or technology with the licensee
c. The licensee assumes all risks and costs associated with entering the foreign market
d. The licensor can earn revenue without making significant investments in the foreign market
19. Which of the following is NOT a challenge associated with managing a global supply chain?
a. Language barriers c. Currency fluctuations
b. Cultural differences d. Decreased government regulation
20.Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when developing an international marketing plan?
a. Product development c. Supply chain management
b. Pricing strategy d. Employee compensation
21. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a joint venture to enter a foreign market?
a. The joint venture partners share all costs and risks equally
b. The joint venture partners may have conflicting interests or goals
c. The joint venture partners have limited control over the joint venture
d. The joint venture partners must invest a significant amount of money in the foreign market
22. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can impact international pricing?
a. Currency fluctuations c. Competition
b. Tariffs and taxes d. Time zones
23.Which of the following is a benefit of using a franchising model to enter a foreign market?
a. The franchisor has full control over the franchisee's operations
b. The franchisor does not need to provide any training or support to the franchisee
c. The franchisee assumes all risks and costs associated with entering the foreign market
d. The franchisor can earn revenue without making significant investments in the foreign market
24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a direct exporting model to enter a foreign market?
a. The exporter has limited control over the foreign market
b. The exporter must invest a significant amount of money in the foreign market
c. The exporter assumes all risks and costs associated with entering the foreign market
d. The exporter must navigate complex legal and regulatory environments in the foreign market
25which .of the following is NOT a benefit of using digital marketing in international marketing?
a. Lower costs c. Increased control over messaging
b. Wider reach d. Limited ability to target specific audiences

Answer Key for International Marketing

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A
10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. A
19. D 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. D
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Human Resource Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1.Which one of the following is an external source of recruitment

A. Delegation B. Unsolicited applicant C. Employee referral D. B and C
2.One of the following is not an internal source of recruitment
A. Promotion B. Transfer C. Labor contractors D. B and C
3.Steps in Selection Procedure include except,
A. Interviews. B. Checking references. C. Physical or medical examination. D. None
4.The importance of training include except.
A. Training enables the managements to face the pressure of changing environments.
B. Training usually results in the increase of quantity and quality of output.
C. Training leads to job satisfaction and higher morale of the employees.
D. Trained workers need lesser supervision. E. None of the above
5.Broadly, the training and development can be classified into the following two categories:
A. on-the job Method and off-the job Method B. Class Room or Off-the-job Method
C. Case Study Method and Class Room Method D. B and C
6. The three types of conferences method training include except.
A. Direct Discussion B. Training Conference
C. Seminar Conference D. Seminar or Team Discussion
7.One of the following is the major reasons for undertaking human resource planning except.
A. Future Human Resource Requirements C. Cope with Change
B. Decreasing or Increasing Growth of Organizations D. None
8.Objective criteria for performance appraisal were include-
A. Degree of training needed B. Accidents in a given period
C. Quality of production D. Length of service E. All
9.Human resource planning involves all of the following except
A. Examining production plans in a factory C. Forecasting future personnel requirements
B. Organizing the training of staff D. Preparing and maintaining personnel records
10. The process of systematically reviewing human resource requirements to ensure that the required
number of employees, with the required skills, is available when they are needed refers to:
A. Training and Development C. Human resource planning
B. Job Analysis D. Performance appraisal
11. Which one of the following is not part of human resource planning importance?
A. It helps to identify the physical and mental tasks the workers accomplish.
B. It enables the manager to predict his/her manpower requirements.
C. It provides information about the existing strength and weakness of the people in the organization.
D. It helps to determine the deployment of personnel and to control wage and salary costs.
12. An advantage of external recruitment is:
A. Enhanced employee morale and motivation
B. The organization's return on investment in training and development is increased
C. New insight, skills and know-how can be introduced in to the organization
D. New employee adjustment and orientation takes longer
13. Which of the following term is used for choosing the individual who is best suited to a particular position
and to the organization from a group of potential applicants?
A. Selection B. Recruitment C. Staffing D. Enrollment
14. Which of these is defined as any practice or activity carried on by the organization with the primary
purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees?
A. A leading indicator analysis B. Personnel policies C. Recruitment D. Selection
15. Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process?
A. Test and/or interview, application form, reference check and physical examination
B. Reference check, application form, test and/or interview and physical examination
C. Physical examination, test and/or interview, application form and reference check
D. Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and physical examination
16. Why medical examination is needed in the selection process of employees?
A. To determine the position that the employee will hold
B. To determine the salary of the employee
C. To select the candidate with the necessary health condition for the job
D. To decide on the placement of employee
17. The process of finding an appropriate fit between the people and the positions in an organization is called
A. Placement B. Socialization C. Orientation D. Recruitment
18. The process of enhancing the technical skills of workers in a short period is called
A. Development B. Education C. Training D. Promotion
19. The first logical step to be undertaken to create an effective program of training and development is:
A. Deciding which training technique to use C. Determining T&D objectives
B. Determining training needs D. Establishing learning principle
20. Which one of the following is not true about training?
A. Training shapes attitude C. Training is job centered
B. Training has short term perspective D. Training increase job skill
21. In which type of analysis are corporate goals and plans compared with the existing manpower inventory to
determine the training needs?
A. Operation analysis B. Individual analysis C. Organization analysis
22. A performance appraisal is a system that deals with:
A. An evaluation of the overall system of the organization
B. Evaluation of an individual or teams job
C. Involves with the evaluation of the organization profitability
D. An evaluation which would help an organization to penalize an employee
23. The purpose of promotion can be
A. To develop incompetent internal source of employment
B. To utilize the employee skills, knowledge at the appropriate level
C. To promote employee self-development
D. To develop competent spirit in the organization
24. When an employee is moved from a job to another position that is higher in pay and responsibility, in the
organizational level, it is termed as:
A. Transfer B. Retirement C. Promotion D. Separation
25. Which one of the following is considered as external factor influencing pay?
A. Organization ability to pay C. Labor market condition
B. Cost of production D. Performance
26. Which of the following is not an employee benefit?
A. Sales Bonus C. Vacation Pay
B. Unemployment Insurance D. Sick Leave
27. Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures _______ in compensation
administration.
A. Internal equity B. External equity C. Neutral

Answer Key for Human Resource Management

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. E 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. E 9. A
10. C 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. C
19. B 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. D 27. A
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Organizational Behavior

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. The Hawthorne studies are of utmost significance as they form an honest and concerted attempt to
understand:
A. The human factor C. The workers social situations
B. Employee attitudes D. All of the above
2. Work attitudes can be reflected in an organization through
A. Job satisfaction B. Organizational commitment D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
3. The model(s) of Organizational Behavior is (are):
A. Autocratic B. Custodial C. Supportive D. All of the above
4. At the norming stage, the team is involved in defining ………
A. Goals B. Roles C. Relations
5. The philosophy that guides an organization’s policies towards its employees and customers is an important
part of
A. Management strategy C. Organizational culture
B. Organization behavior D. Organization development
6. Feature(s) of Maslow’s need hierarchy theory is (are):
A. Theory of human motives C. Theory of human motivation
B. Classifies basic human needs in a hierarchy D. All of the above
7. Organization structure primarily refers to
A. how activities are coordinated & controlled C. the location of departments and office space
B. how resources are allocated D. the policy statements developed by the firm
8. A major problem with a task force type of management is
A. there is no logical basis for task force information C. accountability
B. its status is too inflexible D. lack of planning
9. Communication begins with
A. Encoding B. Idea Origination C. Decoding D. Channel Selection
10. Policies are sometimes defined as a(n)
A. Shortcut For Thinking C. Substitute For Strategy
B. Action Plan D. D. Substitute For Management Authority
11. A study of the culture and practices in different societies is called
A. Personality B. Anthropology C. Perception D. Attitudes
12. ____________ is known as “the father of scientific management.”
A. Fredrick W. Taylor B. Henry Fayol C. Robert Owen
13 _____________ embodies a team concept, is based on the principle of mutual contribution by employer
and employees
A. Autocratic model B. Custodial model C. Supportive Model .D. Collegial Model
14, Forces affecting organizational behavior are
A. People B. Environment C. Technology D. All of the above
15. “Leadership motivates the people to work and not the power of money”, this concept is related to
A. Autocratic model B. Custodial model C. Supportive Model D. Collegial Model
16. Organizational behavior is
A. A science B. An art C. A science as well as an art
17 The term ‘psychology’ is derived from the word ‘psyche’, which means ‘soul’ or ‘spirit’
A. Latin B. French C. Greek
17. The study of organization behavior has certain basic assumptions. They are
A. An industrial enterprise is an organization of people
B. These people must be motivated to work effectively
C. The goals of the employee and the employer may not necessarily coincide
D. All of the above
18. Which of the following frameworks is used in the development of the overall model of OB?
A. The cognitive framework C. The social learning framework
B. The behaviorisms framework D. All of the above
19. At the individual level of analysis, organizational behavior involves the study of;
A. Learning B. perception C. creativity D. All
20. At the group level of analysis, organizational behavior involves the study of;
A. Power B. Norms C. Interpersonal communication D. A and B E. All
21. At the organizational level of analysis, organizational behavior involves the study of;
A. Change B. Technology C. Forces D. All
22. The three basic components of attitude are;
A. Cognitive B. Affective C. Behavioral part D. All
23. Four Types of Teams include;
A. Formal group B. Informal group C. Command group D. None
24. Stages in Team/Group Development include;
A. Problem solving B. Self-managed work team C. A and B D. None
25. Maslow’s revised need hierarchy is called ERG theory Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core
needs
A. Promotion B. Relatedness C. Satisfaction D. All
26. Conflict managing strategies include;
A. Forcing B. Avoiding C. Dysfunctional D. A and B
27. The followings are the Potential sources of stress except;
A. Physiological symptom B. Psychological symptom C. behavioral symptoms D. None
28. The followings are an advantages of departmentalization by Process except;
A. Responsibility for profit is at the top B. Is unsuitable for developing general managers
C. Simplifies training D. None

Answer Key for Organizational Behavior

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. B
10. D 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. D
19. D 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. D 27. D
28. C
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Leadership and Change Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Which of the following statements best captures the nature of leadership as it should be for your business
to ensure your continued future success? | Leadership Questions
A. Leaders focus on budgeting, aligning people with a shared vision and solving problems
B. Leader focus on setting direction, align people with a shared vision and motivating people
C. Leaders focus on motivating people, planning and organizing and staffing
2. When a conflict arises between two employees, what first step might a leader take?
A. Step in and quickly help employees mediate the conflict- to avoid any unnecessary escalation
B. Step back and encourage employees to resolve the conflict themselves- so they will learn how to resolve
conflicts on their own and handle future issues
C. Step out of the “field of action “ for a moment, to gain insights into the nature of the conflict.
3. What are the three most effective ways to identify what needs to change in an organization?
A. Create mechanism that help identify deviations from desired results, monitor outcomes and look for
conflicts that indicate what needs to change.
B. Listen to concerns of people inside and outside the organization, look for conflicts as clues to what
need to change and look at oneself and the team as reflections of things that need to change.
C. Retain a consulting firm to conduct an objective assessment of the company’s issues, assign
problem-solving reading material to the staff and look for conflicts as clues to what needs to change
4. Which of the following is the best step a leader can take when employees express concerns about a
rumored change within the organization? | Leadership Questions
A. Reassure employees that everything is going to be all right and that the company upper management
is working to develop an effective plan
B. Invite employees to express their concerns and shares ideas to help ease the stress they are feeling
and to empower them to work together to contribute toward a shared solution
C. Minimize discussion about the rumors until a clear plan is ready for implementation this gives senior
managers time to develop an effective plan.
5. Managers regularly take time to talk to salespeople about things that are important to them.
A. Never B. Rarely C. Usually D. Always
6. Frequently committed mistakes should be corrected by… | Leadership Questions
A. explaining to every individual without disrupting the practice.
B. ending the practice early before they become habits.
C. stopping the practice for a while and point them out to the trainees.
7. Which of the following is correct? | Leadership Questions
A. Hand movement, volume and eye contacts are body language.
B. Volume, rate and clarity give the vocal impact.
C. Volume and clarity give the verbal impact.
8. By concluding your lesson with a last demonstration, you… | Leadership Questions
A. ensure that the trainees will be more interested in your future lessons.
B. inspire the trainees to practice at home.
C. leave your trainees with a correct mental picture before they leave.
9. Which of the following should not be done when teaching a lesson? | Leadership Questions
A. Gives a lot of information so that the trainees can pick up more knowledge.
B. Introduce the lesson objectives, outline and expectation from the trainees.
C. Put the trainees at ease so that they will not fear you as an instructor.
10. When conducting a debrief you should… | Leadership Questions
A. be bold and honest, and not afraid to hurt people’s feeling.
B. should get every team member to voice out their feeling and opinions.
C. make it as short as possible because everybody is tired.
11. It is important to check on the trainees during their practice because… | Leadership Questions
A. it will give them a bad impression if you are not doing anything.
B. they might be taking too much time to learn.
C. this can prevent mistakes from becoming habits to them.
12. Which of the below is an example of democratic leadership? | Leadership Questions
A. “We can go to the zoo or bird park for this outing. I am OK with anything.”
B. “I need your feedback before I make decision. Please speak out.”
C. “Everybody will fall in at 1400 hour sharp.”
13. A leader must.. | Leadership Questions
A. always lead with the objectives in mind.
B. always make decisions that are popular to his people.
C. remove those who do not support his ideas or hinder his plans.
14. In a lesson summary, you should.. | Leadership Questions
A. ask a lot of questions to test the trainees’ understanding.
B. be brief and recapture the key points.
C. state the lesson objectives and outline.
15. Which of the below is an example of autocratic leadership? | Leadership Questions
A. “We can go to the zoo or bird park for this outing. I am OK with anything.”
B. “I need your feedback before I make decision. Please speak out.”
C. “Everybody will fall in at 1400 hour sharp.”
16. If a team member is not cooperative in the execution, you should… | Leadership Questions
A. warn him openly so that others will not learn from him.
B. talk to him in private and avoid causing any disunity in your team.
C. give him some “goodies” so that he will be motivated to work.
17. It is important that through squad management, you can… | Leadership Questions
A. really be concern about your Boys.
B. learn how to command and control difficult Boys.
C. know officers’ difficulties in running a company.
18. Eye contact with your audiences can be maintained by… | Leadership Questions
A. always looking at a few people.
B. looking at the first row of audiences.
C. looking at every individual in a regular pattern.
19. A leader who is honest in speech and upright in character exhibits | Leadership Questions
A. Patience. B. Servant hood. C. Integrity.
20. In the execution stage, you should… | Leadership Questions
A. stay away from unimportant tasks and supervise the whole execution.
B. gather your team regularly for debrief and checking.
C. “lead by example” by helping in all major and minor tasks.
21. Which of the below is an example of laissez-faire leadership?
A. “We can go to the zoo or bird park for this outing. I am OK with anything.”
B. “I need your feedback before I make decision. Please speak out.”
C. “Everybody will fall in at 1400 hour sharp.”
22. By putting suitable people to be in charge of certain tasks…
A. you can work on important areas and supervise the entire plan.
B. you know who to blame for it anything goes wrong.
C. you can reduce your mental stress.
23. Which of the following is correct?
A. Rate is the speed in which you move your hands.
B. Frequent use of “Okay” makes your speech more interesting.
C. Use simpler words for your instructions.
24. The squad system was devised by our founder so that…
A. the officers can be free for important areas of the company.
B. the senior Boys can command the junior Boys and gain their respect.
C. the officers can spend more time with their family.
25. Which of the following has the greatest impact in your presentation?
A. Body language. B. Vocal impact. C. Verbal impact.
26. Which of the following is correct?
A. Debrief can be omitted if the team will not be working together in future.
B. More time should be spent in execution and less on planning.
C. Plans not completed on time can, sometimes, be as good as not done at all.
27. The purpose of debrief is…
A. for the leader voice out his unhappiness about the execution.
B. those who quarrelled in the execution to argue their cases.
C. to reflect on what has taken place and improve on future projects.
28. Before giving a demonstration you should…
A. summarize the lesson and emphasize the key points.
B. have a last practice so that you will be more confident.
C. position yourself so that everybody can see you.
29. When checking on the team members or I/Cs, make sure that…
A. they follow your guidelines and are able to meet the expectations.
B. they follow your methods exactly.
C. their plans must fit your style of working.
30. Why is it advisable to get demonstrators for your lessons?
A. Because if anything goes wrong you can inform them.
B. To avoid having all the trainees looking at you.
C. So that you can concentrate on your explanation.
31. You may maintain less eye contact with audiences who are...
A. very interested in your presentation. B. not showing interest and are distracting to you.
C. listening to you for the first time.
32. What is verbal impact?
A. It is the words and sentence constructions used in your speech.
B. It is the loudness and clarity of your speech.
C. It is your body improvement and posture.
33. Leadership may be defined as…
A. the ability to motivate people to work towards a common goal.
B. the ability to command people to work towards a common goal
C. the ability to discipline people
34. Good communication skills and motivation techniques…
A. are the foundation of leadership. B. will earn you respect from people.
C. are helpful to your leadership.
35. A leader should not…
A. be confident. B. magnify his achievement. C. receive encouragement.
36. Eye contact with your audiences is important because…
A. it tells them that you are interested in them. B. it makes them afraid and listen to you.
C. it is impolite to have your eyes “wonder” around.
37. It is good to be creative in your planning but…
A. do not break the traditions. B. focus on your objectives.
C. you must execute the details personally so that they will be what you want.
38. Effective up-front speaking…
A. will improve the commitment of your people.
B. helps you to capture the interest and comprehension of your audiences.
C. makes your plans successful.
39. The first step in designing your plans is…
A. study your resources and limitations. B. define your objectives.
C. design the action plans.
40. A leader must know how to lead because…
A. this will keep his team motivated and effective by meeting their objectives.
B. without challenges, people will feel bored.
C. this is how leadership potential can be measured.
41. Your boss made a bad decision. Do you advise your boss, or just do what you are told ?
A. Advise your boss C. Resign, find another job
B. Just do what you are told D. None of these
42. You find out something illegal is going on in your operation, do you blow the whistle, or say nothing ?
A. Say nothing C. Blow the whistle
B. Resign, find another job D. None of these
43. Someone who has more skills than you in your own area is looking to join the company, do you push them
out, or bring them on ?
A. Push them out B. Bring them on C. Resign, find another job D. None of these
44. Someone has been wrongfully terminated, do you take a stand and say something, or say nothing and save
your job ?
A. Take a stand and say something C. Resign, find another job
B. Say nothing and save your job D. Simply start find another job
45. As a team leader, what can you do to encourage leadership potential in your fellow Guiders ?
A. Take time to plan when you can all meet together.
B. Make sure that each leader has the necessary books and resources.
C. Encourage new leaders to use their own talents and skills to enrich your program.
D. All the above
46. You don’t like someone in another department, do you make their life miserable, or try to ease the pain ?
A. Make their life miserable C. Resign, find another job
B. Try to ease the pain D. Simply start find another job
47. What are 2 practical ways that you can teach and practice leadership skills with girls ?
A. Include the girls in planning
B. For Pathfinders and Senior Branch Members, give them the freedom to plan and carry out their own
ideas. Be there to support, encourage and assist when needed.
C. Assign regular duties for each patrol. If one patrol is responsible for Campfire, then make sure there
are resources to use, such as song books, a book of readings, campfire games, a file of songs the girls
know, a Guider to assist if needed.
D. All the above
48. Your people are underpaid, do you try to get them more money, or just hope that they won’t notice ?
A. Try to get them more money C. Resign, find another job
B. Hope that they won’t notice D. Simply start find another job
49. Suggest 3 ways that you can practice Share Leadership with fellow Guiders.
A. Plan together B. Work together C. Evaluate together D. All the above
50. You made a mistake that has a serious impact to the company, do you cover it up, or acknowledge it and
try to fix the problem ?
A. Cover it up C. Resign, find another job
B. Acknowledge it and try to fix the problem D. Simply start find another job

Answer Key for Leadership and Change Management

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A
10. B 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C
19. C 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. C
28. C 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A
37. B 38. B 39. B 40. A 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. D
46. B 47. D 48. A 49. D 50. B
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Entrepreneurship

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Identify the correct statement about the concept of Entrepreneurship

A. Entrepreneurship is the process of creating something different with value and assumingthe risks
and rewards
B. An entrepreneur seeks creativity, innovation and employment through a process.
C. It is about starting a new business with unique idea by identifying and exploiting business
opportunities, D. All E. None
2. Which one is NOT an advantage of Entrepreneurship?
A. Can choose a business of interest C. You can be creative
B. You will make decisions alone D. Make a lot of money
3. Among the following, which one is wrong about an Entrepreneur/s?
A. Person who creatively sets up business deals in order to make profits
B. An individuals who recognize opportunities where others see chaos or confusion
C. Energetic and open minded person having mission and a clear vision
D. Entrepreneurs are motivated only for making money. E. All of the above
4. An Entrepreneur, which is essentially a manufacturer, who identifies the potential need of
customers and fit products and services to meet their needs, is referred as_ .
A. Agricultural entrepreneurs C. Industrial entrepreneurs
B. Exchange Entrepreneurs D. All E. None
5. Which one is NOT a disadvantage of Entrepreneurship?
A. You are the boss B. Risky C. Uncertain Income D. Work long hours
6. From the following which one is not an essential element of creativity
A. Creative thinking capacity C. Knowledge and Skill
B. Pessimistic attitude D. Internal (self) motivation E. All
7. Among the following which is the business and marketing management skills of anentrepreneurr:
A. Strategy Skills C. Planning Skills
B. Marketing Skills D. Financial Skills E. All
8. Identify incorrect phrase/statement about the strength of Small Business.
A. Small business creates Personal touch C. Creates strict bureaucracy
B. Enhance greater motivation D. Provides greater flexibility E. All
9. From the following which one is an essential element of creativity
A. Creative thinking capacity C. Proper Knowledge and Skill
B. Positive attitude D. All
10. The risk of failure of a business can be reduced through the following factors, except?
A. Education C. Following uncertain information
B. Experience D. Exercise of good judgment E. All
11. The act of communication that provides consumers with information about a company’s
products, its services or the venture
A. Product B. Promotion C. Packaging D. Place E. All
12. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or consumption.
A. Product B. Services C. Manufacturing D. Place E. All
13. “The wind never helps a boat that has no clear destination.” Which of the Following
entrepreneurial competence does the quote indicate the most?
A. Opportunity Seeking and Initiative Taking C. Persuasion and Networking
B. Persistence and Commitment D. Goal Setting E. None
14. Identify the sources of idea generation in a business activity
A. Employees B. Competitors C. Distributors & Suppliers D. Customers E. All
15. is an exclusive right that protects the creators of original works of authorship such asliterary,
dramatic, musical, and artistic works
A. patents B. copyright C. trademark D. service mark E. Product
16. Which one of the following is true about a business plan?
A. Business plan is a written document prepared by entrepreneur
B. It describes all the relevant external and internal elements in starting new venture
C. It is a blue print that would be followed to convert business idea into successful business
D. It is systematic description of your future proposed business E. All
17. Which of the following cannot be regarded as criteria for writing good business
goals/objectives?
A. Being specific C. Being measurable
B. Being effortlessly achieved D. Being time bounded E. Being realistic
18. Which of the following is not a factor that motivates individuals to start small business?
A. Availability of raw materials/technology D. Desire to work independently
B. Existence of market saturation E. All of the above
C. Assistant from the government
19. Which of the following factor is not likely to be taken as competency of a successful
entrepreneur?
A. Goal setting C. Persistence
B. Systematic planning and Monitoring D. None
20. Which one of the following is CORRECT about entrepreneurial motivation that could helpan
individual to start a new business firm?
A. Financial incentives. B. Market Opportunities C. Challenges D. All the above
21. Which one of the following is sources of new business idea?
A. Employees C. Competitors
B. Distributors and Suppliers E. All
22. is the course of a product’s sales and profits in its lifetime.
A. Product life cycle C. Entrepreneur
B. Small business D. Manager
23. The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known as
A. Entrepreneurial networking. C. Marketing
B. Secondary research. D. Informal parameters.
24. Which one of the following is NOT true about causes for failure of small business?
A. Ethical failure C. Poor leadership
B. Lack of experience D. Good strategy
25. Which one of the following is/are essential Components of Business Plan
A. Market analysis B. Executive Summary C. The Product or Services D. All
 Answer Key for Entrepreneurship
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. E 8. C 9. D
10. C 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. E 15. B 16. E 17. B 18. B
19. D 20. D 21. E 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. D
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Management Information System

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

Department of management Exist model Exam of Management Information System

Name ID No Date
Choose the best answer from the given alternatives
1. In an information system which one is not a technology driver for an information system?
A. knowledge asset management D. enterprise applications
B. networks and the Internet E. collaborative technologies
C. object technologies F. none
2. In a formal system development process which of the following
A. statement of the system users’ business requirements
B. business problem statement
C. software and technical hardware solution for the business problem
D. Specification and technical blueprints for a solution that fulfills the business requirements
E. both A & b
F. none of the above
3. Which of the following information system supports planning and assessment needs of executive
management?
A. TPS B. DSS C. MIS D. ERP E. both b & c F. none of these
4. who have concerned with tactical (short-term) operational problems and decision making ?
A. supervisors D. executive managers
B. mobile managers E. none of the above
C. middle managers F. both A & b
5. which of the following application of information is used to scan an organization’s environment?
A. world wide C. external communication. E. none of the above.
B. internal communication. D. sensing.
6. Management information systems (MIS)
A. Development and share documents that support day-today office activities.
B. process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, ecapture and reproduce the
knowledge of an expert problem solver
C. use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the business
D. none of the above
7. Which one is the organizations Back Bone?
A. capital B. employee C. management D. information E. both A and B
8. Which of the following is responsible for the systems development, budget, on-time development and
with acceptable quality
A. systems owner C. project manager E. external system user G. none
B. systems designer D. user systems builder F. both B & c
9.In information system Which one is not a business driver?
A. redesign a business process E. proliferation of networks and the Internet
B. security and privacy F. both A & b
C. collaboration and partnership G. none
D. knowledge asset management
10. short form of AI
A. Artificial information C. Artificial integration
B. Artificial intelligence D. None of the above
11.In which phase of the system development process specifications for a solution that fulfils the business
requirements is undertaken and the technical blueprint is developed
A. feasibility analysis D. system initiation G. none
B. system design E. system analysis
C. system implementation F. both c & d
12. A university creates a web-based information system that gives access to faculty who can record
student grades and advise students, this is an example of a/an CRM.
A. ERP B. extranet C. 213 D. none of the above E. both A & b
13. What are the advantage(s) of transistors?
A. Are portable C. Consume less power
B. Are more reliable D. All of the above
14. Using a business performance management software to monitor performance __________
A. reduces costs. D. create a new opportunity
B. adds value. E. both A & b
C. manages risks.. F. none of the above.
15.What is the primary outcome of web self-services that is offered by the bank for
customers?
A. reduces costs. C. adds value E. none of the above
B. manages risks D. creates a new opportunity F. both A & b.
16. _________ is the general transformation cycle for information?
A. data to information to knowledge. D. information to data to knowledge
B. data to knowledge to information. E. none of the above
C. knowledge to data to information. F. both A & b.
17.Which attribute manager require for quality information.
A. media. D. relevance
B. timeliness. E. none of the above
C. presentation F. both A & b.
18.The legal constraints Monitoring by a company which operates under requires review of:
A. a company’s macro-environment. C. a company’s customers E. all of the above
B. a company’s macro-environment. D. D. a company’s outputs
19._______ represented an information flow diagram?
A. Source B. Entity C. Attribute D. Process E. Database F. none of these
20.The DBA is
A. a computer device B. a person C. a communication technique D. All of the above
21._____ is depicted by web blueprint.
A. the layout of a website. D. the layout of an individual web page
B. the layout of an index page. E. the layout of a sitemap
C. the layout of the home page F. both A & b.
22. ______ is the collection of UML depicts information systems :
A. Objects B. Processes C. Entities D. Data E. Information F. none of these
23.which statement satisfy taxonomy?
A. A list of equivalent terms C. A complex controlled vocabulary showing relationships
B. A brow sable hierarchy D. none of these
24.Which statement is incorrect about XML schemas?
A. Schemas can specify integer values D. Schemas are defined by XSD tag
B. Schemas provide data-oriented data types E. All XML documents must have a schema
C. They offer more flexibility than DTDs
25. ______ done in the Credit checking.
A. order entry system C. order processing system
B. quotation system D. any of the above
26. _______ relates to enterprise interoperability?
A. XML C. Information flow diagram E. none of these
B. DFD D. Entity relationship diagram
27.For a web site, _______ is not a type of navigation system.
A. Local B. Regional C. National D. Global E. Contextual F. All of these
28.Frederic W. Taylor present the idea(s) of
A. management functions C. both (a) and (b)
B. the exception principle D. neither (a) nor (b)
29. _________ is not a part of an acceptable use policy?
A. Encryption policies C. Legal obligations E. both B & c
B. Allowable use of systems D. User responsibilities F. none of these
29._________ is not a part of an acceptable use policy?
A. Encryption policies D. User responsibilities
B. Allowable use of systems E. both B & c
C. Legal obligations F. none of these
30.Password and accounts responsibilities to 29 Use-case analysis focuses upon:
A. Objects B. data C. Actors D. Entities E. none of these
31.Contemporary Information Systems that are interfacing with customers and suppliers:
A. BPR B. SCM C. CRM D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
32.Information systems that support the business functions that reach out to suppliers are known as:
A. decision support systems D. front office information systems
B. expert information systems E. none of the above
C. back-office information systems F. both A & b
33._________ not a class information system applications?
A. management information system D. expert system G. None of these
B. front office information systems E. decision support system
C. office automation system F. database management system
34. ________ done in the Credit checking
A. order entry system C. order processing system
B. quotation system D. any of the above
35. How many people that actually use the system to perform or support the work to be completed?
A. system owners C. system designers D. both A & b
B. system analysts D. both A & b E. none of the above
36.________ not a typical business function?
A. Manufacturing D. Accounting G. None of these
B. Sales E. Benefits and Compensation
C. Service F. both A & b
37.The transactions flow in business processes to ensure that appropriate checks and approvals are
implemented is called:
A. procedures or flow control D. process requirements G. All of these
B. process flow E. procedures entities
C. work flow F. None of these
38.A Language-based, machine that representations of how a software process is supposed to do, or how a
software process is supposed to accomplish its tasks.
A. application programs C. software specifications E. both A & b
B. prototyping D. human engineering F. none of the above
39. A definition of the user moves from window to window, interacting with the application programs to
perform useful work is called:
A. user dialog D. prototyping specifications G. both B & c
B. software specifications E. interface specifications
C. navigation specification F. both A & b
40.keyless interfaces include_________
A. keyboard, OCR, pen, and voice recognition
B. mouse, OCR, pen, and voice recognition
C. bar coding, OCR, pen, and voice recognition
D. all of the above
41.__________ is an Example of Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools.
A. middleware C. interface ware E. none of the above G. both A & b
B. tool kit D. layer ware F. all of the above
42. Project Management ensures that
A. system is developed at minimum cost D. both A and B
B. project’s risk is assessed E. none of the above
C. project’s feasibility is assessed
43. What is the deliverable phase of the problem analysis
A. statement of work C. problem statement E. none of the above
B. statement of constraints D. system improvement objectives F. both A & b
44. In PIECES framework Which one is NOT a category of problems represented
A. technology C. efficiency E. service G. None of these
B. control D. economics F. both A & b
45. ________ is NOT a phase of the systems development life cycle?
A. post-implementation review D. problem analysis G. All of the above
B. requirements analysis E. scope definition
C. decision analysis F. None of these
46. System development of cross life-cycle is?
A. prototyping C. data modeling E. fact-finding
B. object modeling D. data flow diagram F. None of these
47.On-going activity of system support is
A. recovering the system D. fixing software defects
B. recovering the system assisting users E. all of the above
C. adapting the system to new requirements F. both A & b
48. The backbone of the organization is
A. Information B. Employee C. Management D. Capital
49. The flow of information through MIS is
A. Need Dependent C. Information dependent
B. Organization dependent D. Management dependent
50. Internal information for MIS may come from any one of the following
Department
A. Customers care department C. Marketing department
B.HR department D. Production department
.

Answer Key for Management Information System

1. A 2. C 3.F 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.E
10. B 11.B 12.C 13.D 14.C 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.A
19.A 20.D 21. A 22.A 23. B 24.E 25.A 26.A 27.B
28.B 29.A 30.C 31.E 32.C 33.F 34.A 35.E 36.E
37.C 38.A 39.A 40.C 41.A 42.A 43.D 44.A 45.A
46.E 47.E 48.A 49.A 50.A
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Strategic Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1.Which of the following is NOT one of the three key questions that firms must address when formulating
a strategy?
a. What should be our strategic vision? c. Where do we want to go?
b. Where are we now? d. How will we get there?
2.Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's Five Forces that shape the competitive environment of an
industry?
a. Bargaining power of suppliers c. Bargaining power of customers e. none
b. Threat of new entrants d. Availability of substitutes
3.Which of the following is NOT one of the three generic strategies identified by Porter?
a. Differentiation b. Cost leadership c. Integration d. Focus
4.Which of the following is the process of selecting the best strategy among a set of feasible alternatives to
achieve a competitive advantage?
a. Strategy formulation c. Strategy evaluation
b. Strategy implementation d. Strategic choice
5.Which of the following is the process of putting a chosen strategy into action?
a. Strategy formulation c. Strategy evaluation
b. Strategy implementation d. Strategic choice
6.Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the SWOT analysis framework?
a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. Opportunities d. Threats e. none
7.Which of the following is a statement that defines the organization's scope of operations and its
competitive advantage?
a. Vision statement c. Values statement
b. Mission statement d. Strategic statement
8.Which of the following is the process of identifying the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's
internal environment?
a. Internal analysis c. Industry analysis
b. External analysis d. Competitive analysis
9.Which of the following is the process of identifying the opportunities and threats of the organization's
external environment?
a. Internal analysis c. Industry analysis
b. External analysis d. Competitive analysis
10.Which of the following is NOT a criterion for assessing the attractiveness of an industry?
a. Industry growth rate c. Strategic fit
b. Competitive rivalry d. Barriers to entry
11.Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the strategic management process?
a. Strategy formulation c. Strategy evaluation
b. Strategy implementation d. Resource allocation
12.Which of the following is the process of evaluating the effectiveness of a strategy and making any
necessary adjustments?
a. Strategy formulation c. Strategy evaluation
b. Strategy implementation d. Resource allocation
13.Which of the following is the process of allocating resources among the various business units and
functional areas of the organization?
a. Resource allocation c. Resource deployment
b. Resource acquisition d. Resource evaluation
14.Which of the following is NOT a potential source of competitive advantage?
a. Cost advantage c. Technological innovation
b. Brand reputation d. High employee turnover
15.Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the success of a merger or acquisition?
a. Cultural fit b. Strategic fit c. Economic climate d. Management style
16.Which of the following is NOT a type of corporate-level strategy?
a. Growth strategy c. Restructuring strategy
b. Stability strategy d. Tactical strategy
17.Which of the following is the process of breaking down a company into smaller, more manageable
business units?
a. Vertical integration c. Spin-off E. segmentation
b. Diversification d. Corporate restructuring
18.Which of the following is a corporate-level strategy that involves acquiring or merging with other firms
in the same industry?
a. Concentration strategy c. Horizontal diversification
b. Diversification d. Conglomerate diversification
19.Which of the following is a corporate-level strategy that involves acquiring or merging with firms in
different industries?
a. Vertical integration c. Diversification
b. Horizontal integration d. Spin-off
20.Which of the following is a type of diversification strategy that involves expanding into new geographic
markets?
a. Concentric diversification c. Conglomerate diversification
b. Horizontal diversification d. Geographic diversification
21.Which of the following is a type of diversification strategy that involves expanding into new products or
services that are related to the company's existing business?
a. Concentric diversification c. Conglomerate diversification
b. Horizontal diversification d. Geographic diversification
22.Which of the following is a type of diversification strategy that involves expanding into new products or
services that are not related to the company's existing business?
a. Concentric diversification c. Conglomerate diversification
b. Horizontal diversification d. Geographic diversification
23.Which of the following is the process of dividing a company's assets and operations into separate
entities?
a. Spin-off b. Merger c. Acquisition d. Joint venture
24.Which of the following is NOT a key success factor in strategic alliances?
a. Trust and commitment c. Cultural similarity
b. Resource complementarily d. Competitive rivalry
25.Which of the following is the process of evaluating the performance of a company's top executives?
a. Succession planning c. Talent management
b. Performance appraisal d. Employee engagement

Answer Key for Strategic Management

1.A 2.E 3.C 4D 5C 6E 7. D 8. A 9.B
10. C 11. D 12. C 13. A 14.D 15. C 16.C 17.E 18.C
19. D 20. D 21.A 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.A
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Project Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. A_______ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

A. program B. process C. project D. portfolio
2. Which of the following is not a feature (an attribute) of a project?
A. projects are unique
B. projects are developed using progressive elaboration
C. projects have a primary customer or sponsor
D. projects involve little uncertainty
3. Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management?
A. meeting scope goals C. meeting communications goals
B. meeting time goals D. meeting cost goals
4. ____is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to
meet project requirements.
A. Project management C. Project portfolio management
B. Program management D. Requirements management
5. The temporary nature of a project indicates that a project:
A. Is unique C. Is goal-oriented
B. Has a definitive beginning and end D. Is relatively more complex than operation
activities
6. Which phase of project life cycle uses up most of the budget in a project?
A. Planning. B. Implementation. C. Closing D. Identification
7. All of the following are the stages in project life cycle except.
A. Identification C. Monitoring and evaluation
B. Appraisal D. Maturity
8. Which project life cycle phase involves performing work defined in the project
management to achieve the project objectives?
A. Implementation C. Planning
B. Monitoring and evaluation D. Identification
9. Which one of the project life cycle phases is performed last?
A. Planning B. Executing C. Closing D. Monitoring
10. Which of the following best defines the “Planning” stage in project life cycle?
A. The process of setting objectives in any project & then determining what should be
done to accomplish them.
B. The process of assigning tasks, allocating resources, & arranging coordinated
activities to implement plans.
C. The process of arousing enthusiasm and directing human resources efforts toward
project/organizational goals.
D. The process of measuring performance and taking action to ensure desired results in
any project.
11. Which of the following indicates recognition of a need for the project?
A. Need analysis C. Engineering & Design
B. Process Work D. Cost Estimate
12. Which of the following statements regarding project selection is best?
A. Decision models must contain either objective or subjective factors.
B. Organizational reality can be perfectly captured by most decision-making models.
C. Before selecting any project, the team should identify all the relevant issues that play a
role in project selection.
D. Every decision model has both objective and subjective factors.
13. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the preliminary project
scope statement. The first thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input into the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan
14. Which of the following is NOT a source for a project idea?
A. Company processes C. Government policies and regulations
B. The company culture D. Project scope statement
15. Which phase of the project life cycle comes first?
A. Identification B. Executing C. Planning D. Closeout
16. Human Resource Plan includes all of the following except one:
A. Roles and Responsibilities C. Calendars of Human Resources
B. Staffing Management Plan D. Project Organization Chart
17. A document called ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into
smaller, more manageable elements
A. Scope Statement C. Network Logic Diagram
B. Work Breakdown Structure D. Gant chart
18. In which phase of a project would you estimate activity duration and resources?
A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Controlling
19. A project plan is necessary to:
A. Organize the work C. Mobilize resources
B. Define the scope of work D. All of the above
20. In a ______________organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional
manager and one or more project managers
A. Projectized B. Matrix C. Functional D. Product
21. Which of the following suggests that education has a positive externality?
A. More educated people may be less likely to commit crimes.
B. More educated people are more productive and receive higher wages.
C. More educated people are more informed and active voters, which enhances the
quality of the democratic process.
D. Both A and C are correct.
22. If the government decides to build a new highway, one of the important steps would be to
evaluate the project from society perspective. This is can considered as a:
A. Financial Analysis C. Shadow price
B. Social-cost benefit analysis D. Cost-benefit analysis
23. Market failure can be caused by:
A. Too much competition C. Low consumer demand
B. Externalities D. Scarcity
24. Which one of the following problems cannot be adjusted by SCBA?
B. Market imperfections D. Externalities
C. Poor communication E. Concern for redistribution
25. One of the following is not part of UNIDO method of project appraisal:
A. Adjustment for impact of project on saving and investment
B. Adjustment for impact of project on income distribution
C. Net benefits of project in the term of economy
D. Government subsidies as income of project

Answer Key for Project Management

1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6.. B 7. D 8. A 9. C
10. A 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. D
19. B 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Business research Method

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. From a statistical point of view, all items in any field of inquiry constitute ,
whereasthe term a complete enumeration of all items.
A. population, Census investigation C. Census investigation, Universal
B. Census investigation, population D. Census investigation, Universal
2. The first step in the sampling process is :
A. determining the sampling frame C. selecting the sampling technique
B. determining the appropriate sample size D. defining the population
3. The first step in the research process is:
A. defining the research problem C. stating the hypothesis or the research question
B. designing data collection tools D. developing the research design
4. There are 400 students at GAGE University College in Management department among these
students, 10% of them were randomly taken and questionnaires were distributed.This is an example of:
A. A sample Size C. Descriptive statistics
B. A target population D. Inferential statistics
5. A sample is a subset of -------
A. Census C. Individual
B. Target Sample D. Target population
6. Which of the following is an initial research conducted to clarity and define the nature ofa problems?
A. Exploratory research C. Qualitative Research
B. Explanatory Research D. Quantitative Research
7. refers to some difficulty which a researcher experiences in the contextof either a
theoretical or practical situation and wants to obtain a solution for the same.
A. Research problem C. Significance of the research
B. Research process. D. Research methods
8. is a systematic method consisting of enunciating the problem, formulating a hypothesis,
collecting the facts or data, analyzing the facts and reaching certain conclusions.
A. Problems C. Knowledge
B. Research D. Research problems
9. Which of the following aims at finding a solution for an immediate problem facing asociety or
organization?
A. Applied Research C. Descriptive Research
B. Fundamental Research D. Analytical Research
10. Which of the following does not include limitation of the study?
A. Lack of prior research studies on the research topic
B. Unwillingness of respondents
C. Lack of recently literature review
D. Shortage of time
11. A written document that shows the overall plan and strategy for conducting a study refersto:
A. Research Design C. Research Report
B. Research Proposal D. Sampling Design
12. The common saying in research that “the problem clearly stated is a problem half solved”
A. Defining the research problem is crucial and very hard part of a research process.
B. The problem identified will provide us with the topic and the objective of the research.
C. If you define the research problem clearly you may feel you did 50% of the researchproject.
D. All
13. As basic research is to advance fundamental knowledge, applied
research isto
A. Find solution to our immediate problem C. Develop new theory
B. To clarify and define the nature of a problem D. None of the above
14. Technically speaking data processing implies
A. Editing B. Classification C. Coding D. All of the above
15. Is a research in which the researcher does not have direct control of independent
variables because their manifestations have already occurred or because they are inherently not
manipulative?
A. Descriptive Research C. Qualitative Research
B. Explanatory Research D. Quantitative Research
16. Which is the process of collecting and analyzing numerical data?
A. Quantitative Research C. Fundamental Research
B. Quantitative Research D. All
17. Which is the most practical way of sampling is to select every ith item on a list ofpopulation?
A. Random Sampling C. Multistage Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling D. Stratified Sampling
18. Which is a study of past records and other information sources with a view to
reconstructing the origin and development of an institution?
A. Fundamental Research C. Historical Research
B. Exploratory research D. Explanatory Research
19. is used to obtain evidence of cause-and-effect relationships
betweenindependents- and dependent variables.
A. Fundamental Research C. Historical Research
B. Exploratory research D. Explanatory Research
20. Which is the describes research problem, detailed methodology for conducting the research
consistent with requirements of the professional or academic field and a statement on anticipated
outcomes and/or benefits derived from the study’s completion?
A. Research proposal C. Business Research
B. Research Report D. All
21. a research provides a short statement of the scientific goal being
pursued bythe research?
A. general objective C. Research problems
B. Significance of the research D. Review literature
22. Which are those that the researcher intends to answer or address in the study?
A. Research questions C. general objective
B. Significance of the research D. All
23. A numerical description of the outcome of an experiment is called a -------------------------------- ?
A. descriptive statistic B. probability function C. variance D. random variable
24. Which of the following is true about a 95% confidence interval of the mean of a givensample:
A. 95 out of 100 sample means will fall within the limits of the confidence interval.
B. There is a 95% chance that the population mean will fall within the limits of theconfidence
interval.
C. 95 out of 100 population means will fall within the limits of the confidence interval.
D. There is a .05 probability that the population mean falls within the limits of theconfidence
interval.
25. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description for the concept ofstandard
deviation?
A. The total distance from the smallest score to the highest score.
B. The square root of the total distance from the smallest score to the highest score.
C. The squared average distance between all scores and the mean.
D. The average distance between a score and the mean.

Answer Key for Business Research Method

1. A 2.A 3.A 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.A
10.D 11.B 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.B 18.C
19.D 20.A 21.A 22.A 23.D 24.B 25.D
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Statistics for Management I

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

Part II: Choose the best answer from the given possible alternatives
1. Importance of Statistics are:
A. The Planning of operations C. The function of control
B. The setting up of standards D. All of the above
2. Which one of the following is not true?
A. ∑ ( + ) = ∑ +∑ C. ∑ ( − ) = ∑ −∑
B. ∑ = ∑ , where K is constant D. None
3. Which one of the following is true, if all data are equal in a series? Where Am, Gm,Hm are arithmetic,
geometric and harmonic mean respectively.
A. Hm>Gm>Am B. Hm<Gm<Am C. Gm<Hm<Am D. Am=Gm=Hm
4. Which one isn’t correct about median?
A. The score of the scale that separates the upper half of the distribution from thelower.
B. It divides the series of data in four equal parts
C. The middle value of a set of ranked or ordered data. D. All
5. Which one is odd from the other?
A. Arithmetic Mean B. Mode C. Median D. None
6. Which one isn’t true about quartiles?
A. Q2 is coincides with median C. Divide the data set into four equal parts
B. Q1 determine the values for 50% D. All of the above
7. Which one of the following is not measure of central tendency?
A. Mean B. Median C. Deciles D. Mode
8. Which one of the following is none- measure of central location?
A. Quartiles B. Percentiles C. Deciles D. All of the above
9. Which one of the following is a type of mean?
A. Arithmetic mean C. Harmonic mean
B. Geometric mean D. All of the above
10. Which one of the following is the second stage of statistical investigation?
A. Data Collection C. Data Organization
B. Data Presentation D. None of the above
11. refers to the positional middle of the data if the values of the variableare arranged in
ascending or descending order, the middle value.
A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. All of the above
12. The following is advantages of Arithmetic Mean:
A. It is easy to understand & to compote.
B. All the values are include in computing the mean
C. A set of data has only one mean, thus it is unique D. All of the above
13. If the arithmetic mean of 6 observations is 20 what is the total sum of all values.
A .4 B. 15 C. 120 D. 100
 14. The mean of 12 numbers is 7. One of the numbers, 18, is deleted. What is the meanof the remaining 11
numbers?
A. 7.7 B. 6.4 C. 6.6 D. 6
15. The mean of ten numbers is 58.If one of the numbers is 40, what is the mean of theother nine?
A. 58 B. 40 C. 60 D. 50
16. What is the median of the sample 9, 5, 11, 5, 8, 5, 8 data?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 8 D. None
Let measure of center = {Mean, Median, Mode, Range}, then answer 17&18questions.
Let X= {10, 20, 30, 30, 35, 44, 50} If it add 10 to each piece of X tomake a new data set,
Y={20, 30, 40, 40, 45, 54, 60}
17. Which measure of center will not change?
A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range.
18. Which measure of center is the middle number of the data set?
A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range
(From Questions 19 to 23using the following data the observation 2, 14, 5, 7, 9, 7, 12, 1)
19. From the above table what is the Mean?
A. 7 .125 B. 7.125 C. 8.125 D. None of the above
20. From the above table what is the Median?
A. 9 B. 8 C. 7 D. None of the above
21. From the above table what is the Mode?
A. 10 B. 7 C. 9 D. None of the above
22. From the above table what is the Quartile two?
A. 1.5 B. 2.5 C. 3.5 D. None of the above
23. From the above table what is the Decile five?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. None of the above
24. One of the following is an example of quantitative data.
A. Number of cars C. Temperature
B. Number of students in Addis Ababa University D. All of the above
25. Statistical techniques that summarize and organize the data are classified as:
A. Population statistics C. Descriptive statistics
B. Sample statistics D. Inferential statistics

Answer Key for Statistics for Management I

1.D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D
10. C 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. C 18.B
19.B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Statistics for Management II

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. is any subset of population selected to draw some valuable conclusions about the entire
population on its basis.
A. Sample statistics B. Parameter C. Sample D. Population
2. Which one is true about the uses of statistics?
A. Forecasts future events C Provides a technical of composition
B. Formulates hypothesis and tests D. all
3. When a single die is thrown the event of getting odd number or even numberare
A. Mutually exclusive events C. Independent event
B. Not-mutually exclusive events D. Dependent event
4. Take the formula Z = (X – µ)/σ, where µ is the mean of the population, X is thevalue of the element,
Z is the z-score and σ is the standard deviation. What doesthis formula calculate?
A. Confidence interval. C. Standard error of the mean
B.Standard score. D. Variance.
5. One of the following is an example of qualitative data.
A. Number of cars C. Temperature
B. Rank of instructors D. Number of students in Adama University
6. The sampling error is defined as?
A. Difference between population and parameter
B. Difference between population and sample
C. Difference between sample and parameter
D. Difference between parameter and sample
7. Selection of a football team for FIFA world cup is called as?
A. Random sampling C. Purposive sampling
B. Systematic sampling D. Cluster sampling
8. The variance of a binomial distribution is 2. Its standard deviation is
A. 2 B. 4 C. 1/2 D. √2
9. The need for sampling is defined as?
A. Reduced cost B. Greater speed C. Greater accuracy D. All
10. R 2 is the notation for:
A. The coefficient of correlation. C. The coefficient of variation
B. The coefficient of determination. D. The coefficient of regression.
11. The characteristic or measure obtained from a population is called ?
A. Parameter B. Sampling frame C. Population D. All
12. Isthe percent of the time the true value will lie in the interval estimategiven?
A. Confidence Interval C. Consistent Estimator
B. Confidence level D. Estimator
13. There are commonly three properties of interest of a given samplingdistribution.
A. Its functional form B. It’s Variance C. It’s Mean D. All
14. Which one of the following is the use of statistics?
A. Studying the relationship between two or more variable C. Formulates hypothesis and tests
B. Forecasts future events D. All
15. Two events which cannot happen at the same time?
A. Independent Events C. Dependent Events
B. Mutually Exclusive Events D. Elementary Event
16. Any population which we want to study is referred as?
A. Standard population. C. Target population
B. Final population D. Infinite population
17. is the hypothesis of equality or the hypothesis of no difference.
A. Alternative Hypothesis C. Null Hypothesis
B. Statistical Hypothesis D. None
18. In a linear regression equation, Y=a + bX, what is the b denote?
A. The regression coefficient, the slope of the line.
B. The intercept with the Y-axis.
C. The correlation coefficient, the strength of the line
D. The score on the variable X.
19. Find the value of standard error ( ) in sampling distribution with replacement. Given that
standard deviation of the population of 16 items is8?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5
20. Find the number of all possible samples from a population containing 8 items fromwhich 2 items are selected
at random without replacement.
A. 56 B. 28 C.66 D. 38
21. Which one of the following is not common properties of sample mean distributions?
A. Mode B. Mean C. Median D. None
22. Which one is incorrect?
A. Probability deals with predicting the likelihood of future events
B. Statistics involves the analysis of the frequency of past events.
C. Parameter is the numerical description of the given population
D. None
23. Which one is non-probability sampling method?
A. random sampling C. stratified sampling
B. systematic sampling D. convenience sampling
24. Two events are said to be independent if
A. Each outcome has equal chance of occurrence
B. There is the common point in between them
C. One does not affect the occurrence of the other
D. Both events have only one point
25. In hypothesis testing, the hypothesis tentatively assumed to be true is
A. the alternative hypothesis
B. the null hypothesis
C. either the null or the alternative
D. None of these alternatives is correct.
 Answer Key for Statistics for Management II
1.C 2.D 3.A 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. D
10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. A
19.C 20. B 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. A
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Operation Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. What is operations management?

A. Operations managers deal with day-to-day activities.
B. The process of satisfying the needs of internal and external customers.
C. An organizational function, which produces products and services.
D. The activity of producing products and services
2. Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management?
A. Designing the operation's products, services and processes.
B. Determining the exact mix of products and services that customers will want
C. Developing an operations strategy for the operation.
D. Planning and controlling the operation.
3. Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following
businesses is closest to producing 'pure' services?
A. Counselor/therapist B. IT company C. Steel company D.A restaurant
4. Which of the following is NOT true of the changing business environment in which operations
management need to work?
A. More frequent product introduction C. Demand for better quality
B. Less ethical sensitivity D. More legal regulation
5. is concerned with the functional use and aesthetic requirements necessary to meetthe
demands of the market place.
A. Operations enactment B. Product design C. Service design D. Appearances E. None
6. Among the following, identify the source(s) for developing new or improved product
A. Research and Development department of the enterprise
B. Consumer suggestions and Complaints
C. Other competitive products in the market
D. Benchmarking E. All of the above
7. The following aspect of product is concerned with the appealing characteristics and looks:
A. Functional aspect C. Operational aspect
B. Aesthetic aspect D. Durability aspect
8. At which stage of the product life cycle the number of customers meaningfully rises and sales
volumeincreases significantly?
A. Market introduction stage C. At a peak stage. E. Mature stage
B. Growth stage D. Decline or Stability stage
9. Refers to physical arrangement of men, material machine and finished goods
A. Plant location C. Decision model
B. Logistic D. Plant layout
10. is a sequence of organizations , their facilities and functions.
A. Supply chain C. logistics
B. Model D. operation
11. which one of the following is not the functions of inventory
A. To meet anticipated supply C. to smooth production requirement
B. To decouple operation D. to protect against stock out.
12. Inventory counting system by which physical count of items made at periodic intervals
A. Perpetual C. Periodic
B. Two bin system D. Uni bar code
13. refers to the time interval between ordering and receiving the order
A. Ordering cost C. ordering cost
B. Carrying cost D. lead-time
14. Among the following, which one is wrong about the disadvantages of specialization from
management point of view
A. High absenteeism C. High productivity E. Grievances filed
B. High turnover rates D. High scrap rates
15. Which of the following is true about the concept of forecasting in operation management
A. Basic input in the decision processes D. Is a basis for planning
B. It is about predicting the future events E. All of the above
C. Provide information on future demand
16. Which of the following is wrong about the basics of Work system design in OM perspective?
A. It is about a set of rules, an arrangement of things toward a common goal.
B. It is a systematic examination of methods of doing work
C. Aims on primarily to punish for bad performance
D. It is a iterative process that takes in to account system components and their interdependence
E. All of the above F. None of the above
17. System Study and analysis involves the following, except :
A. Study of an existing system C. Identifying current deficiencies E. None of the
above
B. Documenting the existing system D. All of the above
18. are the group of empowered individuals working together to reach a common goal,designed to
achieve a higher level of teamwork and employee involvement.
A. Self-Directed Teams C. Supervisors release control
B. Boss reliant groups D. Employees of an organization
19. An element of work system design which focuses on the division of labor into unique tasks is
referred to as
A. Job enrichment C. Job enlargement E. Ergonomics
B. Job specialization D. Job rotation
20. Which of the following is the basic benefits of proper operations planning and control system:
A. Increased productivity in the firm
B. Efficient deliveries of the products at proper time
C. More products available to the consumers at cheaper price,
D. Provision of product or service with better quality E. All of the above

21. Identify the wrong about the features common to all forecasts
A. It needs to collect more data and information about past and current situations
B. Forecast accuracy increase the time horizon increases.
C. Forecasts are not perfect
D. the presence of randomness precludes a perfect forecast
E. It assume that same underlying causal system of situations
22. is qualitative approach to forecasting, where a group of experts generates a demand
forecast based on their expertise & knowledge.
A. Delphi method C. Naive approach E. Moving averages
B. Scenario planning D. Judgmental forecasts
23. is concerned with determining the length of time it should take to complete thejob.
A. Workers discipline C. Worker Compensation Systems
B. Work measurement D. Working condition
24. Identify the incorrect about the elements of a good forecast
A. The forecast should be timely and in writing
B. Focused purely on past trends of an organization.
C. The forecast should be reliable
D. The forecast should be expressed in meaningful units
25. Among the following, pinpoint the concept of operations planning
A. Is concerned with the determination, acquisition and arrangement of all facilities
B. Setting the exact route of each item,
C. Fixing the starting and finishing date for each item.
D. Concerned with First plan your work, and then work your plan. E. All of the above

Answer Key for Operation Management

1.B 2. C 3. E 4. B 5. D 6. E 7. B 8. B 9. D
10. C 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. E 16. C 17. E 18. A
19. B 20. E 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. B 25. E
 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Financial Management

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Which one is external source of finance?

A, share capital B, Borrowings C, Public deposit D, all
2. The finance function deals with ------- decision.
A, Investment B, Financing C, Dividend D, All
2. The annual profit of a given project is Br 16,000 and average investment over the life of the project is
Br 4,000. the ARR of the project is ------
A, 25% B, 400% C,75% D, None
3. In --------------capital market, only outstanding securities are issued to the public.
A, Secondary market B, Primary market C, Both
4. Project cost is Br 40,000 and the cash inflows are Br 10,000. The life of the project is 6 years. The pay -
back period is -----
A, 4YRS B, 3YRS C, 5YRS D,6YRS
5. Investment proposal can be used for the purpose of business ----------------
A, diversification B, expansion C, Replacement D, ALL
6. The require rate of return on its investments which belongs to Equity, debt and retained earnings is
A, Financial Analysis B, Capital budgeting C, cost of capital D, None
8. Modern method (discount method) of investment decision evaluation includes.
A, NPV B, IRR C, PI D, ALL
9. One of the following is not classification of financial ratio Analysis?
A, Liquidity ratio B, Activity ratio C, Leverage ratio D, Profitability ratio E, none
10. Who are the real owners of the business will enjoy the profit or loss suffered by the company?
A, equity shares B, Common stock C Preferred stock D, A and B E, B and C F, None
11. Profitability ratio measures
A, Return on asset B, Current ratio C, Working capital D , none
12. Which one of the following is the Least Liquid asset?
A, cash B, A/R C, Marketable security D ,none
13. The state when a firm is unable to pay its debt refers to
A, risk B, bankruptcy C, liquidity D none
14. An evaluation of a firm’s past performance and prospects for the future is
A, financial analysis B, Financial management C, A and B D, none
15. Which one of the following ratio is measures how many times per year the inventory level is sold?
A, cost of goods sold B, Inventory turnover C , fixed asset turnover D ,None
16. Which One of the following is current liability?
A, bill payable B, Income tax C, A and B
17. Which of the following factors tends to help corporations to manage agency problems?
A, Agency cost B, managers’ reaction to the threat of losing jobs
C, managing corporation by stockholders themselves D, A and B E, None
18. The major function of financial management are
A, investment decision B, dividend decision C, financing decision D, all
19. The composition of debt and equity as well as short-term and long –term finance referrers to
A, capital structure B, asset structure C, A and B D, None
20 . Which one of the following securities are traded under money-market?
A, Treasury bill B, Certificate of deposit C, Bond D, A and B E, B and C
21. Which one of the following is quick asset?
A, Cash B, A/R C , Marketable security D, all
22. Which of the following traditional methods of evaluating investment proposal?
A, Net present value B, Benefit cost ratio D, Payback period C, None
23, which of the following is major Limitation of profit maximization?
A, Ambiguity B, timing of benefits C, cash flows D, all

Answer Key for Financial Management

1. D 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. E

10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. D

19. A 20. D 21. D 22. D 23. D

 GAGE University College Department of Management Self Test on
Operation Research

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives & write your choice on the space provided

1. Operations Research approach is ______________.

A. multi-disciplinary B. scientific C. intuitive D. collect essential data
2. A feasible solution to a linear programming problem ______________.
A. must satisfy all the constraints of the problem simultaneously
B. need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
C. must be a corner point of the feasible region.
D. must optimize the value of the objective function
3. If any value in XB column of final simplex table is negative, then the solution is ______________.
A. Infeasible B. infeasible C. bounded D. no solution
4. For any primal problem and its dual______________.
A. optimal value of objective function is same
B. dual will have an optimal solution iff primal does too
C. primal will have an optimal solution iff dual does too
D. both primal and dual cannot be infeasible
5. The difference between total float and head event slack is ______________
A. free float B. independent float C. interference float D. linear float
6. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines which can be drawn through squares
with zero opportunity cost should be equal to the number of ______________.
A. rows or columns B. rows and columns. C. rows + columns- 1 D. rows-columns.
7. To proceed with the Modified Distribution method algorithm for solving an transportation problem, the
number of dummy allocations need to be added are______________.
A. n B. n-1 C. 2n-1 D. n-2
8. Select the correct statement
A. EOQ is that quantity at which price paid by the buyer is minimum
B. If annual demand doubles with all other parameters remaining constant, the Economic Order
Quantity is doubled
C. Total ordering cost equals holding cost
D. Stock out cost is never permitted
9. Service mechanism in a queuing system is characterized by ______________.
A. customers behavior C. customers in the system
B. servers behavior D. server in the system
10. The objective of network analysis is to______________.
A. minimize total project duration C. minimize production delays, interruption and conflicts
B. minimize total project cost D. maximize total project duration
11. In program evaluation review technique network each activity time assume a beta distribution
because______________.
A. it is a unimodal distribution that provides information regarding the uncertainty of time estimates of
activities
B. it has got finite non-negative error
C. it need not be symmetrical about model value
D. the project is progressing well
12. If there is no non-negative replacement ratio in solving a Linear Programming Problem then the
solution is ______________.
A. Feasible B. bounded C. unbounded D. infinite
13. The calling population is considered to be infinite when ______________.
A. all customers arrive at once C. service rate is faster than arrival rate
B. capacity of the system is infinite D. arrivals are independent of each other
14. In marking assignments, which of the following should be preferred?
A. Only row having single zero C. Only row/column having single zero
B. Only column having single zero D. Column having more than one zero
15. A petrol pump have one pump; Vehicles arrive at the petrol pump according to poison input process at
average of 12 per hour. The service time follows exponential distribution with a mean of 4 minutes. The
pumps are expected to be idle for ______________.
A. 3/5 B. 4/5 C. 5/3 D. 6/5
16. If the order quantity (size of order) is increased, ______________
A. holding costs decrease and ordering costs increase
B. holding costs increase and ordering costs decrease
C. the total costs increase and then decrease
D. storage cost as well as stock-out cost increase
17. ______________ is a mathematical technique used to solve the problem of allocating limited resource
among the competing activities
A. Linear Programming problem C. Replacement Problem
B. Assignment Problem D. Non linear Programming Problem
18. A mixed strategy game can be solved by ______________.
A. Simplex method B. Hungarian method C. Graphical method D. Degeneracy
19. The activity cost corresponding to the crash time is called the ______________.
A. critical time B. normal time C. cost slope D. crash cost
20. A set of feasible solution to a Linear Programming Problem is ______________
A. convex B. polygon C. triangle D. bold
21. In an Linear Programming Problem functions to be maximized or minimized are called ___________.
A. Constraints B. objective function C. basic solution D. feasible solution
22. If the primal problem has n constraints and m variables then the number of constraints in the dual
problem is ______________.
A. mn B. m+n C. m-n D. m/n
23. The non basic variables are called ______________.
A. shadow cost C. slack variable
B. opportunity cost D. surplus variable
24. Key element is also known as ______________.
A. Slack B. surplus C. artificial D. pivot
25. The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-destinations is feasible if the numbers of
allocations are ______________.
A. m+n B. mn C. m-n D. m+n-1
26. The allocation cells in the transportation table will be called ______________ cell
A. occupied B. unoccupied C. no D. finite
27. To resolve degeneracy at the initial solution, a very small quantity is allocated in ______________ cell

A. occupied B. unoccupied C. no D. finite

28. The assignment algorithm was developed by ______________ method.
A. HUNGARIAN C. MODI
B. VOGELS D. TRAVELING SALES MAN
29. An assignment problem is a particular case of ______________.
A. transportation Problem C. travelling salesman problem
B. assignment Problem D. replacement Problem
30. The coefficient of slack\surplus variables in the objective function are always assumed to be _______.
A. 0 B. 1 C. M D. -M

Answer Key for Operation Research

1.A 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B
10.A 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. C
19.D 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B
28.A 29. A 30. A