Maternal child health, community questions

1. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to
take the pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
A.Decrease the incidence of nausea
B.Maintain hormonal levels
C.Reduce side effects
D.Prevent drug interactions
Correct Answer
B. Maintain hormonal levels
2. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as
the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
A.Spermicides
B.Diaphragm
C.Condoms
D.Vasectomy
Correct Answer
C. Condoms
3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge, recommendations for which
of the following contraceptive methods would be avoided?
A.Diaphragm
B.Female condom
C.Oral contraceptives
D.Rhythm method
Correct Answer
lA. Diaphragm
4. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would not
be recommended?
A.Woman over age 35
B.Nulliparous woman
C.Promiscuous young adult
D.Postpartum client
Correct Answer
C. Promiscuous young adult
5. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the
following should the nurse recommend?
A.Daily enemas
B.Laxatives
C.Increased fiber intake
D.Decreased fluid intake
Correct Answer
C. Increased fiber intake
6. A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client is beginning in the
second stage of labor when which of the following assessments is noted?
A. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.
B. The contractions are regular.
C. The membranes have ruptured
D. The cervix is dilated completely.
Correct Answer: D. The cervix is dilated completely.
7. Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The
client states that she is in labor, and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care.
Which question should the nurse ask her first?
A.“Do you have any chronic illness?”
B.“Do you have any allergies?”
C.“What is your expected due date?”
D.“Who will be with you during labor?”
Correct Answer
C. “What is your expected due date?
8. A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should the nurse in
charge assess her uterine contractions?
A.Every 5 minutes
B.Every 15 minutes
C.Every 30 minutes
D.Every 60 minutes
Correct Answer
B. Every 15 minutes
9. A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy. Nurse Jane should instruct her to notify her primary
health care provider immediately if she notices:
A.Blurred vision
B.Hemorrhoids
C.Increased vaginal mucus
D.Shortness of breath on exertion
Correct Answer
A. Blurred vision
10. The nurse in charge is reviewing a patient’s prenatal history. Which finding indicates a genetic
risk factor?
A.The patient is 25 years old
B.The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis
C.The patient was exposed to rubella at 36 weeks’ gestation
D.The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32 weeks’ gestation
Correct Answer
B. The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis
11. When evaluating a client’s knowledge of symptoms to report during her pregnancy, which
statement would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client understands the information
given to her?
A.“I’ll report increased frequency of urination.”
B.“If I have blurred or double vision, I should call the clinic immediately.”
C.“If I feel tired after resting, I should report it immediately.”
D.“Nausea should be reported immediately.”
Correct Answer
B. “If I have blurred or double vision, I should call the clinic immediately.”
12. When assessing a client during her first prenatal visit, the nurse discovers that the client had a
reduction mammoplasty. The mother indicates she wants to breast-feed. What information
should the nurse give to this mother regarding breast-feeding success?
A.“It’s contraindicated for you to breast-feed following this type of surgery.”
B.“I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with
formula.”
C.“You should check with your surgeon to determine whether breast-feeding would be
possible.”
D.“You should be able to breast-feed without difficulty.”
Correct Answer
B. “I support your commitment; however, you may have to supplement each feeding with
formula.”
13. Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the client’s vagina reveals a fourth-degree
laceration. Which of the following would be contraindicated when caring for this client?
A.Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours
B.Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area
C.Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered
D.Instructing the client about the importance of perineal (Kegel) exercises
Correct Answer
B. Instructing the client to use two or more peripads to cushion the area
14. A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal clinic. Although she’s 14 weeks pregnant, the size
of her uterus approximates that in an 18- to 20-week pregnancy. Dr. Diaz diagnoses gestational
trophoblastic disease and orders ultrasonography. The nurse expects ultrasonography to reveal:
A.An empty gestational sac.
B.Grapelike clusters.
C.A severely malformed fetus.
D.An extrauterine pregnancy.
Correct Answer
B. Grapelike clusters.
15. After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse-midwife
determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at –1 station. Based on
these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is:
A.1 cm below the ischial spines.
 B.Directly in line with the ischial spines.
C.1 cm above the ischial spines.
D.In no relationship to the ischial spines.
Correct Answer
C. 1 cm above the ischial spines.
16. Which of the following would be inappropriate to assess in a mother who’s breast-feeding?
A.The attachment of the baby to the breast.
B.The mother’s comfort level with positioning the baby.
C.Audible swallowing.
D.The baby’s lips smacking
Correct Answer
D. The baby’s lips smacking
17. During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation, a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done
to identify fetal abnormalities. Between 18 and 40 weeks’ gestation, which procedure is used to
detect fetal anomalies?
A.Amniocentesis.
B.Chorionic villi sampling.
C.Fetoscopy
D.Ultrasound
Correct Answer
D. Ultrasound
18. A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of
her fetus. Her BPP score is 8. What does this score indicate?
A.The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours.
B.The client should repeat the test in 24 hours.
C.The fetus isn’t in distress at this time.
D.The client should repeat the test in 1 week.
Correct Answer
C. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time.
19. A client who’s 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the
client’s preparation for parenting, the nurse might ask which question?
A.“Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?”
B.“Have you begun prenatal classes?”
C.“What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?”
D.Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day?”
Correct Answer
C. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?”
20. A client who’s admitted to labor and delivery has the following assessment findings: gravida 2
para 1, estimated 40 weeks’ gestation, contractions 2 minutes apart, lasting 45 seconds, vertex
+4 station. Which of the following would be the priority at this time?
A.Placing the client in bed to begin fetal monitoring.
B.Preparing for immediate delivery.
 C.Checking for ruptured membranes.
D.Providing comfort measures.
Correct Answer
B. Preparing for immediate delivery.
21. Nurse Roy is caring for a client in labor. The external fetal monitor shows a pattern of variable
decelerations in fetal heart rate. What should the nurse do first?
A.Change the client’s position.
B.Prepare for emergency cesarean section.
C.Check for placenta previa.
D.Administer oxygen.
Correct Answer
A. Change the client’s position.
22. The nurse in charge is caring for a postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery with a midline
episiotomy. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client?
A.Risk for deficient fluid volume related to hemorrhage
B.Risk for infection related to the type of delivery
C.Pain related to the type of incision
D.Urinary retention related to periurethral edema
Correct Answer
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to hemorrhage
23. Which change would the nurse identify as a progressive physiological change in postpartum
period?
A.Lactation
B.Lochia
C.Uterine involution
D.Diuresis
Correct Answer
A. Lactation
24. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who’s a multigravida visits the clinic at 27 weeks gestation.
The nurse should instruct the client that for most pregnant women with type 1 diabetes
mellitus:
A.Weekly fetal movement counts are made by the mother.
B.Contraction stress testing is performed weekly.
C.Induction of labor is begun at 34 weeks’ gestation.
D.Nonstress testing is performed weekly until 32 weeks’ gestation
Correct Answer
D. Nonstress testing is performed weekly until 32 weeks’ gestation
25. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands
that this drug is given to:
A.Prevent seizures
B.Reduce blood pressure
C.Slow the process of labor
 D.Increase dieresis
Correct Answer
A. Prevent seizures
26. What’s the approximate time that the blastocyst spends traveling to the uterus for
implantation?
A.2 days
B.7 days
C.10 days
D.14 weeks
Correct Answer
B. 7 days
27. A primigravida client at about 35 weeks gestation in active labor has had no prenatal care and
admits to cocaine use during the pregnancy. Which of the following persons must the nurse
notify?
A.Nursing unit manager so appropriate agencies can be notified
B.Head of the hospital’s security department
C.Chaplain in case the fetus dies in utero
D.Physician who will attend the delivery of the infant
Correct Answer
D. Physician who will attend the delivery of the infant
28. When preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the
postpartum period, the nurse in charge should include which of the following?
A.The vaccine prevents a future fetus from developing congenital anomalies
B.Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months after the immunization
C.The client should avoid contact with children diagnosed with rubella
D.The injection will provide immunity against the 7-day measles.
Correct Answer
B. Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months after the immunization
29. A client with eclampsia begins to experience a seizure. Which of the following would the nurse
in charge do first?
A.Pad the side rails
B.Place a pillow under the left buttock
C.Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth
D.Maintain a patent airway
Correct Answer
D. Maintain a patent airway
30. The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who us in active labor calls out to the
nurse, “The baby is coming!” which of the following would be the nurse’s first action?
A.Inspect the perineum
B.Time the contractions
C.Auscultate the fetal heart rate
D.Contact the birth attendant
 Correct Answer
A. Inspect the perineum
31. While assessing a primipara during the immediate postpartum period, the nurse in charge plans
to use both hands to assess the client’s fundus to:
A.Prevent uterine inversion
B.Promote uterine involution
C.Hasten the puerperium period
D.Determine the size of the fundus
Correct Answer
A. Prevent uterine inversion
32. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?
A.Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
B.Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
C.Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
D.Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
Correct Answer
C. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
33. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for which
of the following?
A.Talipes equinovarus
B.Fractured clavicle
C.Congenital hypothyroidism
D.Increased intracranial pressure
Correct Answer
B. Fractured clavicle
34. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the
priority?
A.Infection
B.Hemorrhage
C.Discomfort
D.Dehydration
Correct Answer
B. Hemorrhage
35. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical
hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostalretractions; and grunting at the end of
expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A.Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention
B.Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C.Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
D.Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
Correct Answer
 D. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
36. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of
the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
A.“Daily soap and water cleansing is best”
B.‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
C.“An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”
D.“He can have a tub bath each day”
Correct Answer
B. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
Explanation
Application of 70% isopropyl alcohol to the cord minimizes microorganisms (germicidal) and
promotes drying. The cord should be kept dry until it falls off and the stump has healed.
Antibiotic ointment should only be used to treat an infection, not as a prophylaxis. Infants
should not be submerged in a tub of water until the cord falls off and the stump has completely
healed.
37. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially
monitor for which of the following?
A.Respiratory problems
B.Gastrointestinal problems
C.Integumentary problems
D.Elimination problems
Correct Answer
A. Respiratory problems
38. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct
method of measurement used by the nurse?
A.From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
B.From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
C.From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D.From the fundus to the umbilicus
Correct Answer
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
39. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting
edema. Which of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care?
A.Daily weights
B.Seizure precautions
C.Right lateral positioning
D.Stress reduction
Correct Answer
B. Seizure precautions
40. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of
the following would be the nurse’s best response?
A.“Anytime you both want to.”
 B.“As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
C.“When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”
D.“After your 6 weeks examination.”
Correct Answer
C. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”
41. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum
discharge?
A.Promoting comfort and restoration of health
B.Exploring the emotional status of the family
C.Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
D.Teaching about the importance of family planning
Correct Answer
C. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
42. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a
pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?
A.10 pounds per trimester
B.1 pound per week for 40 weeks
C.½ pound per week for 40 weeks
D.A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
43. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on
January 20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?
A.September 27
B.October 21
C.November 7
D.December 27
44. What is the recommended folic acid supplementation for pregnant women to prevent neural
tube defects in the developing fetus?
A.200 micrograms per day
B.400 micrograms per day
C.600 micrograms per day
D.800 micrograms per day
45. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse would use
which of the following?
A.Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
B.Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
C.Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
D.External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
46. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes, which of
the following instructions would be the priority?
A.Dietary intake
B.Medication
C.Exercise
 D.Glucose monitoring
47. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following would be
the priority when assessing the client?
A.Glucosuria
B.Depression
C.Hand/face edema
D.Dietary intake
48. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and
moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation. The nurse
would document these findings as which of the following?
A.Threatened abortion
B.Imminent abortion
C.Complete abortion
D.Missed abortion
49. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic
pregnancy?
A.Risk for infection
B.Pain
C.Knowledge Deficit
D.Anticipatory Grieving
50. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following should the nurse do first?
A.Assess the vital signs
B.Administer analgesia
C. Ambulate her in the hall
D. Assist her to urinate
51. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse
that she has sore nipples?
A.Tell her to breast feed more frequently
B.Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
C.Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
D.Use soap and water to clean the nipples
52. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60;
temperature 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the following should
the nurse do first?
A.Report the temperature to the physician
B.Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
C.Assess the uterus for firmness and position
D.Determine the amount of lochia
53. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification of the physician?
A.A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
 B.A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
C.Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
D.A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
54. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender when palpated,
remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of the following
should the nurse assess next?
A.Lochia
B.Breasts
C.Incision
D.Urine
55. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum
discharge?
A.Promoting comfort and restoration of health
B.Exploring the emotional status of the family
C.Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
D.Teaching about the importance of family planning
56. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?
A.Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
B.Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
C.Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
D.Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
57. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for which
of the following?
A.Talipes equinovarus
B.Fractured clavicle
C.Congenital hypothyroidism
D.Increased intracranial pressure
58. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the
priority?
A.Infection
B.Hemorrhage
C.Discomfort
D.Dehydration
59. The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s breasts? Why are they so enlarged?”
Whish of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
A.“The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced with birth”
B.“A decrease in material hormones present before birth causes enlargement,”
C.“You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a malignancy”
D.“The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the uterus”
60. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of
the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
 A.“Daily soap and water cleansing is best”
B.‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
C.“An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”
D.“He can have a tub bath each day”
61. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this
as which of the following?
A.Braxton-Hicks sign
B.Chadwick’s sign
C.Goodell’s sign
D.McDonald’s sign
62. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for breathing techniques during
preparation for labor based on the understanding thatbreathing techniques are most important
in achieving which of the following?
A.Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to do
B.Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental perfusion
C.Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of pain
D.Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed
63. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are
not strong enough to dilate the cervix. Which of thefollowing would the nurse anticipate doing?
A.Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion
B.Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for several hour
C.Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
D.Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing begins
64. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks
why she must have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
A.“You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”
B.“You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
C.“The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
D.“The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”
65. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face
presentation?
A.Completely flexed
B.Completely extended
C.Partially extended
D.Partially flexed
66. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical
hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostalretractions; and grunting at the end of
expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention
B.Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C.Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
D.Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
67. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg of body
weight every 24 hours for proper growth anddevelopment. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz
formula should this newborn receive at each feeding to meet nutritional needs?
A.2 ounces
B.3 ounces
C.4 ounces
D.6 ounces.
68. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially
monitor for which of the following?
A.Respiratory problems
B.Gastrointestinal problems
C.Integumentary problems
D.Elimination problems
69. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct
method of measurement used by the nurse?
A.From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
B.From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
C.From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D.From the fundus to the umbilicus
70. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting
edema. Which of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care?
A.Daily weights
B.Seizure precautions
C.Right lateral positioning
D.Stress reduction
71. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of
the following would be the nurse’s best response?
A.“Anytime you both want to.”
B.“As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
C.“When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”
D.“After your 6 weeks examination.”
72. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select
which of the following sites as appropriate for the injection?
A.Deltoid muscle
B.Anterior femoris muscle
C.Vastus lateralis muscle
D.Gluteus maximus muscle
73. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red swollen area on the right side
of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document this as enlargement of which of the following?
A.Clitoris
B.Parotid gland
C.Skene’s gland
 D.Bartholin’s gland
74. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of the embryo that must occur involves
which of the following?
A.Increase in maternal estrogen secretion
B.Decrease in maternal androgen secretion
C.Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
D.Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
75. A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight nausea in the morning hours. Which of
the following client interventions should the nurse question?
A.Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce glass of water
B.Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed
C.Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours
D.Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals
76. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse
understands that this indicates which of the following?
A.Palpable contractions on the abdomen
B.Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
C.Fetal kicking felt by the client
D.Enlargement and softening of the uterus
77. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate
would be most audible in which of the following areas?
A.Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline
B.In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
C.In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant
D.Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline
78. When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the
nurse understands that the underlying mechanism isdue to variations in which of the following
phases?
A.Menstrual phase
B.Proliferative phase
C.Secretory phase
D.Ischemic phase
79. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone production, which of the following
would the nurse include as being produced by the Leydig cells?
A.Follicle-stimulating hormone
B.Testosterone
C.Leuteinizing hormone
D.Gonadotropin releasing hormone
80. A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle
accident as a teenager. The nurse is aware that this couldprevent a fetus from passing through
or around which structure during childbirth?
A.Symphysis pubis
 B.Sacral promontory
C.Ischial spines
D.Pubic arch
81. In the late 1950s, consumers and health care professionals began challenging the routine use of
analgesics and anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the following was an outgrowth of this
concept?
A.Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)
B.Nurse-midwifery
C.Clinical nurse specialist
D.Prepared childbirth
82. Which hormone is necessary for the positive pregnancy test?
(A) LSH (B) Estrogen (C) hCG (D) Progesterone

Correct answer: C

83. Which of the following nursing intervention would the nurse should do during the third stage of
labor?
(A) Promote parent—newborn interaction
(B) Promote brest—feeding
(C) Access uterine contractions every 30 minutes
(D) Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.
Correct answer: D
84. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?
(A) External rotation (B) Restitution (C) Flexion (D) Descent
Correct answer: D
85. An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent of the head is
known as.......
(A) Linea terminalis (B) Coccyx (C) Ischial spines (D) Ischial tuberosities
Correct answer: B
86. Oxytocin is a hormone produced by.....

(A) Adrenal gland (B) pituitary gland (C) Fallopian tube (D) Ovaries

Correct answer: B

87. The umbilical vein carrying the blood from the placental enters the fetus with
(A) Oxygenated blood by 80% saturation (B) Deoxygenated blood (C) Oxygenated blood by 25%
saturation (D) None of the above
Correct answer: A
88. At term Amniotic fluid volume is .....
(A) 2000ml (B) 1000ml (C) 600ml (D) 800ml
Correct answer: D
89. What is the principal carbohydrate present in amniotic fluid?
 (A) Galactose (B) Maltose (C) Sucrose (D) Glucose
Correct answer: D
90. A patient, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the hospital with severe abdominal Pain, uterine
tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of the following?
(A) PPH (B) Ectopic pregnancy (C) Placenta previa (D) Abruptio placenta
Correct answer: A
91. A positive Babinski sign is present in infants until approximately what age?
(A) 4 years (B) 2 years (C) 3 years (D) 1 year
Correct answer: D
92. At what gestational age is a conceptive considered viable ( able to live outside the womb)
(A) 30 weeks (B) 24 weeks (C) 22 weeks (D) 9 weeks
Correct answer: B
93. Which of the following hormones would be administered for the stimulation of uterine
contractions?
(A) Progesterone (B) Oxytocin (C) FSH (D) Oestrogen
Correct answer: B
94. A woman has just given birth at 42 wekks gestation. When assessing the neonate, which
physical finding is expected?
(A) Vernis caseosa over the body (B) Dequamation of the epidermis (C) Lanugo covering body (D)
A sleeping, lethargic baby
Correct answer: B
95. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?
(A) 20 weeks gestation (B) 15 weeks gestation (C) 10 weeks gestation (D) 5 weeks gestation
Correct answer: A
96. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?
(A) Diagnostic signs (B) Presumptive signs (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Probable signs
Correct answer: C
97. Megha's LMP began July 5, her EDD should be which of the following?
(A) June 12 (B) April 12 (C) March 28 (D) January 2
Correct answer: B
98. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
(A) Positive serum of pregnancy test (B) Loss of appetite (C) Neusea and vomiting (D) Hegar's
sign
Correct answer: C
99. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant lady most frequently experience
during the first trimester?
(A) Burning sensation ( B) Incontinence (C) Frequency (D) Dysuria
Correct answer: B
100. What is the purpose of doing the fourth maneuver?
(A) To know if engagement occured or not (B) To have an idea what the fetal presenting part is
(C) To assess the degree of Flexion or attitude (D) To know the fetal organ
Correct answer: C
101. Which of the following fetal position is most favorable for birth?
vaccinations
(A) Vertex (B) Transverse lie (C) Breech presentation (D) Posterior position of the head
Correct answer: D
102. A normal baby born to a mother having DM:
(A) Macrosomia (B) Is cyanosed (C) Is large (D) Is small
Correct answer: A
103. One of the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum is
(A)High blood pressure (B) Korsakoff's psychosis (C) Dehydration (D) Increased vomiting
Correct answer: B
104. Ergometrine is commonly given for:
(A) Placenta previa (B) Dysmenorrhea (C) To shorten 2nd stage of labor (D) PPH
Correct answer: D
105. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be high in:
(A) Protein, minerals and vitamins (B) Protein and minerals (C) Protein, carbohydrates and fats
(D) Carbohydrates and vitamins
Correct answer: A
106. The placenta should be delivered within how many minutes after delivery of the baby?
(A) 50 minutes (B) 45 minutes (C) 30 minutes (D) 5 minutes
Correct answer: C
107. At term the weight of the placenta is about:
(A) 1000gm (B) 500gm (C) 800gm (D) 100gm
Correct answer: B
108. Interstitial implantation of fertilized ovum is completed on :
(A) 12th day (B) 20th day (C) 11th day (D) 8th day
Correct answer: C
109. The structure that establishes connection between the mother and foetus during
intrauterine life is...
(A) Cervix (B) Umbilical cord (C) Uterus (D) placenta
Correct answer: D
110. At term,the part of the placenta that is of foetal origin is about.....
(A) 1/2nd (B) 4/5th (C) 1/4th (D) 2/5th
Correct answer: B
111. Volume of blood in mature placenta is about :
(A) 250ml (B) 1000ml (C) 150ml (D)500ml
Correct answer: D
112. During intrauterine life rate of fetal blood flow through the placenta is about:
(A) 1000ml/min (B)200ml/min (C) 1400ml/min (D) 400ml/min
Correct answer: D
113. In normal condition color of amniotic fluid at term is
(A) Dark colored (B) Greenish yellow (C) Reddish (D) Pale straw colour
Correct answer: D
114. The organic compounds present in amniotic fluid is / are...
(A) Phosphatidyl glyceril (B) Lipid and glucose (C) Urea and creatinine (D) All of the above.
Correct answer: D
115. The pH of the vagina during pregnancy is
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) None of the above
Correct answer: A
116. The weight of the uterus at term is
(A) 500—700gm (B) 2—3kg (C)900—1000gm (D) 200—300gm
Correct answer: C
117. During fetal development both testicles descend into the scrotum by...
(A) 40 weeks (B) 35 weeks (C) 28 weeks (D) 22 weeks
Correct answer: A
118. In following which is not a pregnancy sign?
(A) Goodell's sign (B) Kocklic sign (C) Brudzinski's sign (D) Chadwick's sign
Correct answer: C
119. Type of abortion also known as silent miscarriage is
(A) Inevitable (B) Incomplete (C) Septic (D) Missed
Correct answer: D
120. Commonest causes of breech presentation is?
(A) Hydraminios (B) Multigravida (C) Prematurity (D) Hydrocephalus
Correct answer: C
121. Commonest hematological disorder in pregnancy is .......
(A) Heart failure (B) Platelet disorder (C) Thalassemia (D) Anaemia
Correct answer: D
122. What is the primary goal of maternal and child health programs in community health?
A) To provide medical care to pregnant women and children
B) To promote the health and well-being of mothers and children
C) To conduct research on maternal and child health issues
D) To administer vaccinations to mothers and children
Answer: B) To promote the health and well-being of mothers and children
123. Which of the following is a key component of prenatal care in community health
settings?
A) Providing postpartum care
B) Monitoring fetal development
C) Conducting genetic testing
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
124. What is the primary purpose of newborn screening programs in community health?
A) To provide medical care to newborns
B) To monitor growth and development in newborns
C) To detect serious but treatable conditions in newborns
D) To administer vaccinations to newborns
Answer: C) To detect serious but treatable conditions in newborn
125. Which of the following is a risk factor for adverse maternal and child health outcomes?
A) Access to prenatal care
B) Maternal education level
C) Community support systemsD) Family income level
Answer: D) Family income level
126. What is the role of community health workers in maternal and child health programs?
A) To provide direct medical care to mothers and children
B) To conduct research on maternal and child health issues
C) To educate and support mothers and families in the community
D) To administer vaccinations to mothers and children
Answer: C) To educate and support mothers and families in the community
127. Which of the following is a benefit of breastfeeding for both mothers and infants?
A) Increased risk of childhood obesity
B) Decreased risk of respiratory infections in infants
C) Increased risk of postpartum depression in mothers
D) Decreased risk of allergies in infants
Answer: B) Decreased risk of respiratory infections in infants
128. What is the purpose of the Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative in community health?
A) To promote breastfeeding-friendly practices in hospitals
B) To provide formula feeding support to new mothers
C) To administer vaccinations to newbornsD) To conduct research on newborn care practices
Answer: A) To promote breastfeeding-friendly practices in hospitals
129. Which of the following is a primary focus of childhood immunization programs in
community health?
A) Preventing maternal infectionsB) Preventing childhood injuries
C) Preventing communicable diseases
D) Preventing chronic diseases
Answer: C) Preventing communicable diseases
130. What is the purpose of well-child visits in community health?
A) To provide medical care to sick children
B) To monitor growth and development in children
C) To conduct research on childhood diseases
D) To administer vaccinations to children
Answer: B) To monitor growth and development in children
131. How can community health workers support maternal and child nutrition in the
community?
A) By providing breastfeeding education and support
B) By administering prenatal vitamins
C) By conducting research on childhood nutrition
D) By performing surgical procedures
Answer: A) By providing breastfeeding education and support.

132. What is the purpose of the Maternal, Infant, and Early Childhood Home Visiting
(MIECHV) program in community health?
A) To provide medical care to pregnant women and infants
B) To promote positive parenting practices and child development
C) To conduct research on maternal and child health issues
D) To administer vaccinations to pregnant women and infants
Answer: B) To promote positive parenting practices and child development
133. Which of the following is a risk factor for preterm birth in the community?
A) Access to prenatal care
B) Maternal age over 35
C) Maternal smoking during pregnancy
D) Adequate maternal nutrition
Answer: C) Maternal smoking during pregnancy
134. What is the purpose of the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants,
and Children (WIC) in community health?
A) To provide prenatal vitamins to pregnant women
B) To promote breastfeeding support to new mothers
C) To provide nutrition education and supplemental foods to low-income pregnant women, new
mothers, and children under 5
D) To conduct research on childhood nutrition
Answer: C) To provide nutrition education and supplemental foods to low-income pregnant
women, new mothers, and children under 5
135. Which of the following is a key component of safe sleep practices for infants in the
community?
A) Co-sleeping with parents
B) Using soft bedding in the crib
C) Placing infants on their backs to sleep
D) Allowing infants to sleep in car seats
Answer: C) Placing infants on their backs to sleep
136. What is the purpose of the Maternal Mortality Review Committee (MMRC) in
community health?
A) To provide medical care to pregnant women
B) To conduct research on maternal mortality
C) To administer vaccinations to pregnant women
D) To promote prenatal care
Answer: B) To conduct research on maternal mortality
137. Which of the following is a potential complication of postpartum depression?
A) Decreased risk of maternal suicide
B) Impaired maternal-infant bonding
C) Improved maternal mental health
D) Decreased risk of anxiety disorders
Answer: B) Impaired maternal-infant bonding
138. What is the purpose of the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnostic, and Treatment
(EPSDT) program in community health?
A) To provide prenatal care to pregnant women
B) To provide comprehensive and preventive healthcare services to children under 21
C) To conduct research on childhood diseases
D) To administer vaccinations to children
Answer: B) To provide comprehensive and preventive healthcare services to children under 21
139. Which of the following is a potential consequence of untreated maternal depression in
the community?
A) Decreased risk of postpartum anxiety
B) Impaired maternal-infant bonding
C) Increased cognitive development in children
D) Improved overall mental health
Answer: B) Impaired maternal-infant bonding
140. What is the purpose of the Healthy Start program in community health?
A) To provide healthcare services to pregnant women
B) To promote healthy development in young children
C) To provide comprehensive support services to pregnant women, new mothers, and infants
D) To conduct research on maternal and child health issues
Answer: C) To provide comprehensive support services to pregnant women, new mothers, and
infants
141. What is the main focus of maternal health?
A) Preventing childhood illnesses
B) Ensuring the well-being of pregnant women
C) Providing care for newborns
D) Promoting adolescent health
Answer: B) Ensuring the well-being of pregnant women
142. Which of the following is a recommended prenatal vitamin?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin B12
Answer: B) Vitamin D
143. What is the purpose of antenatal care?
A) Monitoring the health of the mother during pregnancy
B) Providing care for the newborn after delivery
C) Ensuring the health of the father during pregnancy
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Monitoring the health of the mother during pregnancy
144. . Which of the following is a common pregnancy discomfort?
A) Insomnia
B) Hypertension
C) Osteoporosis
D) Migraine
Answer: A) Insomnia
145. What is the importance of folic acid during pregnancy?
A) Prevents neural tube defects in the fetus
B) Reduces the risk of gestational diabetes
C) Helps in the development of the placenta
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Prevents neural tube defects in the fetus
146. What is the recommended age for the first cervical cancer screening for women?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 25 years
D) 30 years
Answer: B) 21 years
147. Which of the following is a common symptom of postpartum depression?
A) Extreme happiness
B) Excessive sleepiness
C) Loss of interest in activities
D) Increased appetite
Answer: C) Loss of interest in activities
148. What is the recommended duration for exclusive breastfeeding?
A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 8 months
Answer: C) 6 months
149. Which of the following is a benefit of breastfeeding?
A) Increases the risk of childhood obesity
B) Decreases the risk of respiratory infections in infants
C) Increases the risk of allergies in infants
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Decreases the risk of respiratory infections in infants
150. What is the purpose of the Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative?
A) To promote breastfeeding-friendly practices in hospitals
B) To provide free formula to new mothers
C) To encourage early weaning of infants
D) None of the above
Answer: A) To promote breastfeeding-friendly practices in hospitals
151. normal pregnancy period in human being is
A:-250 days
B:-270 days
C:-280 days
D:-300 days
Correct Answer:- Option-C
152. Signs of placental separation are the following except
A:-Rise of temperature
B:-Lengthening of umbilical cord at vulva
C:-Shivering
D:-Gush of blood
Correct Answer:- Option-A
153. The first pill of oral contraceptives starts on which day after starting of menstruation
A:-1st day
B:-3rd day
C:-5th day
D:-7th day
Correct Answer:- Option-C
154. Which one is not a natural method of contraception
A:-Basal body temperature monitoring
B:-Safe period
C:-Rhythm method
D:-Foam tablets
Correct Answer:- Option-D
155. WHO recommendation of iron and folic acid for pregnant woman is
A:-Elemental iron 60mg and 0.4 mg folic acid per day
B:-Elemental iron 100 mg and 0.6mg of folic acid per day
C:-Elemental iron 100 mg and 100mg of folic acid per day
D:-Elemental iron 30 mg and 0.3 mg of folic acid per day
Correct Answer:- Option-A
156. Which one is a cause of physiological anaemia in pregnancy
A:-Poor iron intake
B:-Heamodilution
C:-Vomiting
D:-Blood loss
Correct Answer:- Option-B
157. What is the role of colostrum in breastfeeding?
A) It provides hydration to the newborn
B) It helps in the development of the placenta
C) It boosts the newborn's immune system
D) It helps in the digestion of milk
Answer: C) It boosts the newborn's immune system
158. How often should a newborn typically breastfeed in a 24-hour period?
A) Every 2-3 hours
B) Every 4-6 hours
C) Every 8-10 hours
D) Every 12-14 hours
Answer: A) Every 2-3 hours
159. Which of the following is a benefit of breastfeeding for the mother?
A) Increased risk of postpartum depression
B) Decreased risk of breast cancer
C) Increased risk of osteoporosis
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Decreased risk of breast cancer
160. What is the importance of skin-to-skin contact between the mother and newborn
immediately after birth?
A) It helps in the development of the placenta
B) It boosts the newborn's immune system
C) It promotes bonding and helps initiate breastfeeding
D) It provides hydration to the newborn
Answer: C) It promotes bonding and helps initiate breastfeeding
161. What is a common cause of a breast abscess in lactating women?
A) Excessive breastfeeding
B) Bacterial infection
C) Hormonal changes
D) Insufficient milk production
Answer: B) Bacterial infection
162. PH of normal semen is
A.3.5-4.5
B. 5.5-6.5
C. 7.2-7.8
D. 8.5-9.3
Answer—C
163. Which of the following can lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Meconium
D. Vernix
Answer—C
164. Nurse taking care of a pregnant lady is being asked about when to start breast feeding
What should be her appropriate reply
A. Within 1⁄2 hrs after delivery
B. Within 4 has after delivery
C. Within 6 has after delivery
D. Within 8 has after delivery
Answer—A
165. premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of
pregnancy usually with severe haemorrhage is known as
A. placenta previa
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. incompetent cervix
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer—D
166. The purpose for using oxytocin (pitocin) during labor and delivery is to
A. Provide pain relief
B. Stimulate effective uterine contractions
C. prevent premature separation of the placenta
D. Increase ability for nutrients and oxygen to cross the placental blood barrier
Answer—B
167. Which term best describes fetal descent during labor
A Dilation
B. Station
C. Position
D. presentation
Answer—B
168. fetal heart sound can be assessed by doppler
A.2-3 week
B.8-10 week
C.16-18 week
D.10-12 weeks
Answer—D
169. Which immunity present in human milk
A. Passive natural immunity
B. Active artificial immunity
C. passive artificial immunity
D. Active natural immunity
Answer—A
170. Engaging diameter of vertex presentation is
A. Suboccipito frontal
B. Suboccipito bregmatic
C. Submento bregmatic
D. Mento vertical
Answer—B
171. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy
A. 6-10wks
B. 11-15Wks
C. 16-18wks
D. 9-11wks
Answer—B
172. Which of the following ' Fontanelle' in child is the first to close
A. Frontal
B. Occipital
C. Sphenoid
D. Mastoid
Answer—B
173. A pregnant client asks the nurse about how the umbilical cord provides circulation to
the bady the nurse responds that the umbilical cord has
A. One artery and two veins
B. One artery and one veins
C. Two arteries and two veins
D. Two arteries and one vein
Answer—D
174. Best investigation to diagnose ectopic pregnancy-
A. Urine pregnancy test
B. Laparoscopy
C. USG
D. Hysteroscopy
Answer—C
175. The White lines formed in the lower part of abdomen during pregnancy are called-
A. Pregnancy mask
B. Linea nigra
C. Striae gravidarum
D. None of these
Answer—C
176. Seven weeks after conception ,the product of conception in the uterus is termed as
A.zygote
B. Embryo
C. Foetus
D. Neonate
Answer—B
177. The uterine fundus height of a pregnant patient is at the level of umbilicus Her
pregnancy is about
A. 10-12 weeks
B. 14-16 weeks
C. 20-24 weeks
D. 30-32 weeks
Answer—C
178. A nursing mother has cracked nipples. Which is appropriate nursing intervention is care
of client
A. Applying benzoin to tougher the nipples
B. Keeping the nipples covered with warm, moist packs
C. Offering to give baby a bottle
D. Exposing the nipples to air as much as possible
Answer—D
179. Oral contraceptive pill inhabit the pregnancy by
A. Preventing the position of sperm in the vagina
B. Interfering implantation of fertilized ovum in uterus
C. Suppressing ovulation
D. All of the above
Answer—C
180. In a female, age of menarche is
A. 10 years
B. 13 years
C. 16 years
D. 20 years
Answer—B
181. After menopause increased facial hair growth occurs due to
A. Fall in FSH level
B. increase in LH level
C. Decrease estrogen androgen ratio
D. Decrease androgen level
Answer—C
182. Permanent cessation of Menstruation is termed as-
A. Menarche
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Amenorrhea
D. Menopause
Answer—B
183. Starting of menstrual cycle before the age of ten years, is termed as
A. Postcocious
B. Precocious
C. Amenorrhea
D. Dysmenorrhea
Answer—D
184. Which hormone plays an important role in significant proliferation of fat around the
breast
A. Oestrogen
B. progesterone
C. FSH
D. Testosterone
Answer—B
185. What do you mean by delayed menopause
A. When menopause does not occurs beyond 45
years of age
B. When menopause does not occurs beyond 40
years of age
C. When menopause dose not occurs beyond 50
years of age
D. When menopause dose not occurs beyond 55
years of age
Answer—A
186. In a postmenopausal female, which is the principle hormone used in hormonal
replacement therapy
A. Progesterone
B. Oestrogen
C. FSH
D. LH
Answer—D
187. After menopause, a woman becomes more prone to development of osteoporosis
because
A. Fall in oestrogen level
B. increase in oestrogen level
C. Fall in LH level
D. fall in FSH level
Answer—B
188. Absence of semen formation is known as
A.Aspermia
B. Azoospermia
C. Asthenospermia
D. Tetratozoosprmia
Answer—A
189. What do you mean by the male intersex
A. It is association of male Gonads with females internal genital organs
B. It is association of female gonads with male external genital organ
C. When a male makes sexual relation with other male
D. When a mail makes picture relation with a female
Answer—B
190. An abnormal condition in which genital organs of both male and female are found in the
same person is termed as
A. Hypersexuality
B. Asexuality
C. Intersexuality
D. Hypersexuality
Answer—C
191. In following which is the commonest cause of rectovaginal fistula
A. Unrepaired recent CPT
B. Vaginitis
C. Prolapse of the rectum
D. Genital tuberculosis
Answer—A
192. Involuntary escape of fistula or fecal matter into the vagina may occur due to
A. Anorectal malformation
B. Rectovaginal fistula
C. Vesicovaginal fistula
D. Rectal prolapse
Answer—B
193. The common cause of urethra vaginal fistula is
A. Vaginal tuberculosis
B. Injury during pelvic surgery
C. Radiation
D. Oestrogen therapy
Answer—B
194. In following which factors is not responsible for infertility
A. Luteal phase defect
B. Acute retroverted uterus
C. Anteverted uterus
D. Vaginal atresia
Answer—C
195. In following which is the classical symptom of uterine fibroid
A. Menorrhagia
B. Pain in lower abdominal
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Purulent vaginal discharge
Answer—A
196. Amount of washed and concentrated sperm that is administered into the uterine cavity
during artificial insemination
A. 1ml
B. 2ml
C. 0.3 ml
D. 0.1 ml
Answer—C
197. In following which is the common treatment of the luteal phase defect
A. Progesterone therapy
B. Oestrogen therapy
C. Antibiotics
D. Dexamethasone
Answer—A
198. Primary prevention for cervical cancer include the following except:
A. Avoidance of child marriage before the age of18
B. Use of barrier method such as condom during early intercourse
C.Early diagnosis and treatment of stds
D. Radiotherapy
Answer—D
199. Absence of menstruation cycle for 6 month or more in the female who Has normal
menstruation previously is termed as
A. Cryptomenorrhea
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. Secondary amenorrhea
Answer—D
200. Which is the commonest cause of cryptomenorrhea
A. Vesicovaginal fistula
B. Imperforate hymen
C. Uterine prolapse
D. Cervical stenosis
Answer—B
201. During lactation which factor is responsible for amenorrhea
A. High level of FSH
B. Low level of FSH
C. High level of prolactin
D. Low level of prolactin
Answer—C