GROUP 11 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON EPIDEMIOLOGY AND OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

EPIDEMIOLOGY QUESTIONS

1.What is the primary goal of epidemiology?

a) To prevent diseases

b) To study population trends

c) To promote healthy behaviors

d) To diagnose illnesses

2. What is the difference between incidence and prevalence in epidemiology?

a) Incidence refers to the number of new cases, while prevalence refers to the total number of cases.

b) Incidence refers to the total number of cases, while prevalence refers to the number of new cases.

c) Incidence refers to the number of cases in a specific population, while prevalence refers to the
number of cases in the general population.

d) Incidence and prevalence are the same thing in epidemiology.

3.What is the basic reproduction number (R0) in epidemiology?

a) The number of people who have been infected by a disease

b) The number of deaths caused by a disease

c) The number of people who are immune to a disease

d) The average number of new infections caused by one infected person

4. What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic?

a) An epidemic is a widespread outbreak within a specific region, while a pandemic is a global outbreak.

b) An epidemic is a global outbreak, while a pandemic is a widespread outbreak within a specific region.

c) An epidemic refers to a viral infection, while a pandemic refers to a bacterial infection.

d) An epidemic and a pandemic are the same thing in epidemiology.

5.Which of the following is NOT a common study design used in epidemiology?

a) Cross-sectional study

b) Case-control study

c) Randomized controlled trial

d) Cohort study

6.Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease?

a) Influenza

b) Tuberculosis

c) Diabetes

d) Measles

7.Which of the following is a measure of association used in epidemiology?

a) Odds ratio

b) P-value

c) Standard deviation

d) Confidence interval

8.Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne disease?

a) Malaria

b) Influenza

c) Diabetes

d) Asthma

9.Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease?

a) Heart disease
b) Cancer

c) Tuberculosis

d) Alzheimer's disease

10.The epidemiological triad includes all of the following except?

a)Host

b)Time

c)Environment

d)Agent

11.Most factors in the causation of disease includes?

a)Humidity

b)Chemicals in the air,water or food

c)Genetic factors

d)Attitude

12.Epidemiology is the basic science of public health.

a. True

b. False

13.Within the field of epidemiology, the term distribution refers to the relationship between the health
problem or disease and the treatment options available.

a)True

b)False

14.Factors such as race, age, sex, and a person's physiological state are all considered determinants of
disease.

a)True

b)False

15.Vital statistics are figures pertaining to risk and development of disease and illness.

a)True
b)False

16.Crude birth and death rates are not useful for comparisons because population characteristics may
differ greatly. particularly with respect to age.

a)True

b)False

17.The choice of behavioral factors that affect how we live is known as:

a)Chronic strains

b)Social support

c)Coping skills

d) Lifestyle

18.The study of the roles of consumption of high-fat foods and sedentary lifestyle in health is the
domain of:

a)Behavioral epidemiology

b)Social epidemiology

c)Cultural epidemiology

d)Psychiatric epidemiology

19.Which of the following is a measure of the severity of the disease?

a)Pathogenicity

b) Virulence

c)Infectivity

d)None of the above

20.Descriptive epidemiology includes all EXCEPT

a)What

b)Who

c)When

d)Why
21.Which of the following is NOT a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?

A)Stage of Susceptibility

B)Stage of preclinical

C)Stage of prevention

D)Stage of recovery

22.Which of the following is also known as retrospective studies?

A)Cohort studies

B)Descriptive studies

C)Experimental studies

D)Case control studies

23.Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population
is called;

A)death rate

B)Crude death rate

C)mortality rate

D)proportional mortality

24.Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is
called;

A)Birth Rate

B)Growth Rate

C)Crude Fertility rate

D)Crude Birth Rate

25.Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15
to 44 years mid interval is known as;

A)Crude Fertility Rate

B)Birth Rate

C)Growth Rate
D)Sex ratio

26.Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from
estimated population at mid interval is called;

A)Prevalence

B)Period Prevalence

C)Point Prevalence

D)Disease Prevalence

27.Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;

A)population Pyramid

B)vital statistics

C)Population statistics

D)Population dynamics

28.Which of the following term provides true representation of whole population?

A)Sampling

B)Random Sampling

C)Case reporting

D)Sample

29.Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is
called;

A)Crude death rate

B)Mortality Rate

C)Death ratio

D)Mortality

30.Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;

A)Systematic collection

B)Analysis
C)Planning

D)Interpretation

31.Surveillance system information cycles include;

A)Family and community

B)Public, Health care provider and Health agencies

C)None of the above

D)Public, Health care provider only

32.Epidemiology can be defined as follow EXCEPT;

A)Distribution of health related states

B)Community leaders and their family crises

C)Determinant of health related events

D)Apply to the control of health problems

33.A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;

A)Infectious disease

B)Contamination

C)Epidemic

D)Contagious disease

34.Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;

A)Rate

B)Nominator

C)Ratio

D)Proportion

35.Which of the following is usually expressed as percentage;

A)Rate

B)Nominator
C)Ratio

D)Proportion

36.Measurement of disease, disability or death and converting this information in to rates and ratio is
defined as;

A)Specificity

B)Screening

C)Frequency

D)Sensitivity

37.Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;

A)Prevalence

B)Incidence

C)Cumulative Incidence

D)Mid interval population

38.A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from
symptoms is called;

A)Reservoir

B)Carrier

C)Host

D)Agent

39.The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;

A)Direct

B)Indirect

C)Physiological

D)Biological

40.The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;

A)Prevalence
B)Incidence

C)a and b

D)Cumulative incidence

41.Epidemiological methods can be categorized as follow;

A)Descriptive, cohort and case control

B)Descriptive, cross sectional and experimental

C)Descriptive, prospective and experimental

D)Descriptive, Analytical and experimental

42.In descriptive epidemiology disease described in terms of;

A)What, Why and How

B)Host, Agent and Environment

C)Time, Place and Person

D)Agent, Place and Person

43.Which of the following is also known as prospective study;

A)Cohort studies

B)Descriptive studies

C)Experimental studies

D)Case control studies

44.In epidemiological triad environmental factors can be classified as;

A)Physical

B)Chemical

C)Social

D)Biological

45.Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;

A)Odd ratio
B)Sex ratio

C)Disease ratio

D)Dependency ratio

46.The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;

A)Sample

B)Parameter

C)Hypothesis

D)Population

47.Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is
defined as follow;

A)Snow ball sampling

B)Purposive sampling

C)Probability sampling

D)Non-probability sampling

48.Tertiary prevention includes;

A)Disability limitation

B)Prompt treatment

C)Rehabilitation

D)a and c

E)a and b

49.Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;

A)Physical Agents

B)Nutritive Agents

C)Chemical Agents

D)All of the above

50.Which of the following are key components of Epidemiological triangle,

A)Host, Agent and Physical Environment

B)Host, Genes and Physical Environment

C)Host, Agent and Environment

D)Time,place and person

51.Tertiary prevention Does not includes;

A)Disability limitation

B)Prompt treatment

C)Rehabilitation

D)a and c

52.Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;

A)Physical Agents

B)Nutritive Agents

C)Chemical Agents

D)All of the above

53.Which of the following are not key components of Epidemiological triangle,

A)Host and Agent

B)Host and Environment

C)Host, Agent and Environment

D)Time, Place and Person

54.Which of the following is a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?

A)Stage of health promotion

B)Stage of prevention

C)Stage of Recovery

D)Stage of sampling

55.Which of the following are also known as retrospective studies?

A)Cohort studies

B)Descriptive studies

C)Experimental studies

D)Case control studies

56.A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from
symptoms is called;

A)Reservoir

B)Carrier

C)Host

D)Agent

57.The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;

A)Direct

B)Indirect

C)Physiological

D)Biological

58.Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population
is called;

A)death rate

B)Crude death rate

C)mortality rate

D)proportional mortality

59.Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is
called;

A)Birth Rate

B)Growth Rate

C)Crude Fertility rate

D)Crude Birth Rate

60.Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15
to 44 years mid interval is known as;

A)Crude Fertility Rate

B)Birth Rate

C)Growth Rate

D)Sex ratio

61.Which of the following is a description for ‘descriptive epidemiology’?

a. examining the incidence of disease in relation to person, place and time

b. identifying the associations between disease and causes

c. intervention to change exposure to the factor being studied

d. actions to reduce exposure to factors which impact on health

Answer-A

62. In which field of epidemiology would you expect to see ecological studies?

a. descriptive epidemiology

b. intervention studies

c. analytical epidemiology

d. statistical analysis

Answer-c

63. ‘Actions to reduce exposure to factors which can impact on the development of ill-health’ in terms of
public health and epidemiology are normally co-ordinated by?

a. general practitioners

b. government

c. health protection

d. National Health Service

Answer-c
64 Where a group of people with a specific condition receive a treatment and their progress is
compared with a second group receiving a placebo or alternative treatment; this is known as epidemic
______.

a. case–control study

b. cohort study

c. community trial

d. clinical trial

Answer-D

65 Which of the following studies might be carried out to help health services plan future services?

a. cohort study

b. cross-sectional study

c. case–control study

d. community trail

answer-B

66. Enabling people to increase control over their own health is known as ______.

a. health protection

b. public health

c. health promotion

d. governance

Answer-C

67. Which organization is crucial in the monitoring and advising of global health issues?

a. non-government organizations

b. World Health Organization

c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization

d. United Nations

Answer-B
68.Which of the following study designs is most appropriate for examining the causal relationship
between exposure and disease?

A) Case series

B) Case-control study

C) Cross-sectional survey

D) Ecological study

E) Migrant study

answer-B

69.In which of the following study designs is random allocation of subjects done to control the effect of
confounding?

A) Case-control studies

B) Cross-sectional surveys

C) Ecological studies

Prospective cohort studies

E) Clinical trials

Answer -E

70. _______ is the cause or set of causes of a disease and/ or condition

A) Education

B) Epidemiology

C) Etiology

D) Viruses

Answer-C

71 One of the following is defined as epidemiology.

A)The study according to people.

B)A science

C)The study of diseases, injury causes and the risk factors to prevent and control them
D)All of the above

Answer- D

72 All of the following are true of odds ratio except:

A)It is an estimate of relative risk

B)It is the only measure of risk that can be obtained directly form a case-control study

C)It tends to be biased towards 1 (neither risk or protection) at high rates of disease

D)It is the ratio of incidence in exposed divided by incidence in nonexposed

E)It can be calculated without data on rates (as in a case-control study)

Answer-D

73.One of the basic concepts in epidemiology is the concept of risk. Risk refers to

the:

A)Prevalence of an event occurring

B)Probability that an event will occur within a specified time period

C)Population most likely to develop a disease

D)Rate of development of new cases

Answer- C

74. Analytic epidemiology differs from descriptive epidemiology because it searches for:

A)."when" of disease patterns.

B)."where" of disease patterns.

C.)"why" of disease patterns.

D.)"who" of disease patterns.

Answer-C

75. Epidemiologists are interested in learning about ___________________

A)the causes of diseases and how to cure or control them

B)the frequency and geographic distribution of diseases

C)the causal relationships between diseases

D)all of the above

answer-d

76.Diseases that are always present in a community, usually at a low, more or less constant, frequency
are classified as having an ____________ pattern.

A)epidemic

B)endemic

C)pandemic

Answer-b

77.Which of the following statements is true concerning epidemic diseases?

A)They are usually not very contagious

B)At the end of an epidemic, a disease spreads at an increasing rate and then abruptly disappears.

C)They usually appear and disappear seasonally.

answer-c

78.An epidemic that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to as a
_________________ .

A)pandemic

B)hyperendemic

C)Spanish flu

Answer :a

79.___________ is an epidemic where the incidence of disease extends to a whole country or large part
of the world.

A)Epidemic

B)Pandemic

C)Endemic

D)Hyper-Epidemic

answer -B
80.A visiting nurse is assessing a client who reports feeling feverish and tired. The nurse knows that the
client is which of the following for a disease?

A)Host

B(Environment

C)Agent

D)Visitor

Answer-A

81. Define the term "epidemic"

a) An epidemic is a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally
expected in a population in a defined area and time.

b) An epidemic is a gradual decrease in the number of cases of a disease overtime.

c) An epidemic only occurs in developing countries.

d) An epidemic refers to a decrease in the number of cases of a disease below what is normally
expected in a population.

82. What are the components of the epidemiological triad?

a) Environment, lifestyle, and genetics

b) Host, agent, and environment

c) Age, gender, and socioeconomic status

d) Pathogen, treatment, and outcome

83. Explain the concept of herd immunity and its importance in public health.

a) Herd immunity refers to the immunity of a single individual against a specific disease.

b) Herd immunity occurs when a large proportion of a population is immune to a disease, reducing the
likelihood of transmission to susceptible individuals.

c) Herd immunity is only applicable to non-communicable diseases.

d) Herd immunity has no relevance in public health.

84. What are the types of epidemiological studies, and what are their advantages and limitations?
 a) Case-control and cohort studies; case-control studies are less prone to bias but are more expensive
and time-consuming.

b) Experimental and observational studies; experimental studies allow for causality determination but
may lack generalizability.

c) Cross-sectional and ecological studies; cross-sectional studies provide temporal information but may
suffer from recall bias.

d) Descriptive and analytical studies; analytical studies are hypothesis-generating but may be subject
to confounding.

85.First step of epidemic investigation?

a. Preparing case definition

b. Mapping the epidemic

c. Confirmation

d. Searching for the cases

86.Prevalence is a

a. Ratio

b. Rate

c. Proportion

d. Mode of diseases

87.Level of resistance of a community or group of people to a particular disease is

a. Passive immunity

b. Active immunity

c. Herd immunity

d. None of them

88.In the epidemiological terminology human host is referred to as

a. Soil

b. Seed
c. Extrinsic factor

d. none of them

89.Prevention of emergence or development of risk factors is a type of

a. Primary prevention

b. Secondary prevention

c. Tertiary prevention

d. Primordial prevention

90.What is the agent when studying oral epidemiology?

a)Host

b)Environment

c)Disease

d)Population

91.The Greek word "edemos" means what?

a)Carina

b)Epidemiology

c)People

92.Morbidity is the rate of disease or proportion of diseased persons in a geographic area

a)True

b)False

93. Mortality is the proportion of people who live from a disease to the population of a geographic area
for a period of

a)True

b)False

95.What is the purpose of randomization in experimental studies?

a) To ensure that participants are from diverse backgrounds

b) To eliminate bias and ensure equal distribution of potential confounding factors between treatment
and control groups

c) To select participants based on specific criteria

d) To ensure blinding of participants and researchers

96.What is the difference between a risk factor and a determinant in epidemiology?

a) Risk factors are factors that increase the likelihood of disease occurrence, while determinants are
factors that determine the outcome of a disease.

b) Risk factors and determinants are interchangeable terms.

c) Risk factors are only applicable to infectious diseases, while determinants are applicable to chronic
diseases.

d) Risk factors are factors that decrease the likelihood of disease occurrence, while determinants are
factors that increase the likelihood of disease occurrence.

97.How is the basic reproduction number (R0) used in epidemiology?

a) To measure the effectiveness of treatment for infectious diseases

b) To estimate the proportion of the population susceptible to a disease

c) To assess the transmissibility of infectious diseases

d) To determine the severity of infectious diseases

98.What is the purpose of public health interventions in epidemiology?

a) To increase the cost of healthcare services

b) To prioritize treatment for certain populations

c) To prevent disease, promote health, and prolong life through organized efforts of society

d) To limit access to healthcare services

99.What is the difference between a retrospective and a prospective study design in epidemiology?
 a) A retrospective study design collects data after the outcome of interest has occurred, while a
prospective study design collects data before the outcome occurs.

b) A retrospective study design collects data before the outcome of interest has occurred, while a
prospective study design collects data after the outcome occurs.

c) A retrospective study design involves randomization of participants into treatment and control
groups, while a prospective study design does not involve randomization.

d) A retrospective study design is used for non-infectious diseases, while a prospective study design is
used for infectious diseases.

100.What is the purpose of a sensitivity analysis in epidemiological research?

a) To determine the prevalence of a disease within a population

b) To assess the validity and robustness of study findings by testing the impact of different assumptions
or variations in key parameters

c) To identify confounding factors that may influence the association between exposure and outcome

d) To evaluate the effectiveness of public health interventions in controlling disease spread

QUESTIONS ON OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH

101) What other group of workers might be as susceptible to “brown lung” as textile workers?

a) carpenters/cabinet makers

b) farmers

c) hairdressers

d) policeofficers

102) Which of the following is a workplace injury that results in an employee missing time from work?

a) occupational injury

b) occupational illness

c) lost-time injury
d) workers compensation injury

103) Which mechanism has been found to be the most influential in terms of health and safety in the
workplace?

a) inspection by the Ministry of Labour

b) the internal responsibility system

c) fines and penalties

d) industryself-regulation

104) Continuous work with such machines affects and arms.

a) Hands

b) Nose

c) Ear

d) Leg

105) _________ is defined as the study of how people work in their environment. a) Hazard

b) Ergonomics

c) Risk

d) Impact

106) Ergonomics used for

a) process of designing or arranging workplaces, products and systems

b) mitigate the risks from these hazards

c) responsibility

d) none of above

107)________ is any source of potential damage, harm or adverse health effects on something or
someone

a) Risk

b) Responsibility

c) Work
d) Hazard

108)Personal safety is an individual's ability to go about their everyday life free from the threat or fear of
harm from others.

a) Chemical

b) Psychological

c) Economic

d) None of above

109)_______ is important because when you're doing a job and your body is stressed by an awkward
posture or repeated movement your musculoskeletal system is affected.

a) Ergonomics

b) Hazard

c) Work

d) Responsibility

110)Chemicals to enter the body is through direct contact with the or eyes. a) Nose

b) Ear

c) Skin

d) Leg

111)______ into the bloodstream may then allow the chemical to cause toxic effects on other

parts of the body.

a) Absorption

b) Absorber

c) Sensitive

d) Effective

112) Respiratory tract is the most common route of entry for , vapours, particles, and aerosols

a) Droplet

b) Gases
c) Area

d) None of above

113)Over throat irritation may include headaches, increased mucus production and eye, nose and
materials should be used in a well-ventilated area, preferably a fume

a) Exposure

b) Knowledge

c) Skill

d) Effort

114) Volatilehood, to reduce the potential of exposure.

a) Hazardous

b) Non-hazardous

c) Vapour

d) Infective

115) ______ tract is another possible route of entry for toxic substances.

a) BlueBay disease

b) Gastrointestinal

c) Cholera

d) Hypothesis

116) OSHA was created to _________ a) Data analysis

b) To reduce hazards

c) Ecological development

d) EIA analysis

117) ________ is the amount of a material, given all at once, which causes the death of 50% of a group
of test animals.

a) LD50

b) LC50
c) Hazard

d) Absorption

118) Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices are developed as guidelines to assist in the
control of hazards.

a) Health

b) Worker

c) Operator d) Consumer

119) ________ and Biological Exposure Indices are developed as guidelines to assist in the control of
health hazards.

a) Threshold Limit Values

b) Lethal dose

c) Lethal concentration

d) None of above

120)What is STEL?

a) long term exposure limit

b) short term exposure limit

c) state term experience loss

d) none of above

121)_____is a way of storing data to facilitate quick parsing of that data.

a) TLV (Threshold Limit Value)

b) STEL (short term exposure limit)

c) Lethal dose

d) Exposure

122)Excessive noise and heat are examples of hazards. a) Physical

b) Occupational
c) Chemical

d) Biological

123)_____ is so fine that it will almost unnoticeably penetrate into the mouth and accumulate in

the throat

. a) Dust

b) Bag

c) Air

d) Gas

124)Epidemiological investigations were performed in England in the . a) 1878

b) 1967

c) 1950

d) 1678

125)_______ lung disorders have been defined as diseases of lung arising out of or in course of

employment.

a) Physical

b) Occupational

c) Biological

d) Chemical

126)Ramazzini the father of occupational medicine who first described breathless among handlers of
grains in .

a) 1713

b) 1877

c) 1977

d) 1655

127)Pneumoconiosis was group of lung disease caused by of dust that are breathed in and deposited
deep in lungs causing damage.
a) Inhalation

b) Skin contact

c) Irritation

d) None of above

128)Asbestos is diffuse interstitial fibrosing disease of lung that is directly related to___and

duration of exposure.

a) Light

b) Intensity

c) Uv rays

d) Oxygen

129)Sign of asbestosis is of repetitive end respiratory crackles

. a) Presence

b) Absence

c) Beneficial

d) Adverse

130)_______ is the most abundant compound in earth’s crust.

a) Carbon

b) Silica

c) Nitrogen

d) Oxygen

131)Occupational lung diseases are work-related, lung conditions that have been caused or made worse
by the materials is exposed to within the workplace.

a) Person

b) Material

c) Information

d) Data
132)________ is a respiratory disease that can begin or worsen due to exposure at work and is

characterized by episodic narrowing of the respiratory tract.

a) Cholera

b)Asthma

c)Fever

d)None of above

133)______ used at the place of work may be dispersed into the air to form dust, mist, fumes, gas or
vapour and can then be inhaled.

a) Chemicals

b) Skill

c) Data

d) Information

134)________ may also be absorbed through the skin if it is wetted by for instance sweat

a) Water

b) Air

c) Dust

d) Chemical

135) Harmful effects of chemical substances depend on the________ and the exposure to that
chemical.

a) Toxicity

b) Vapour Dust

c) Data

136) smaller the is the deeper it will penetrate into the lungs with the inhaled air, thereby passing the
defensive systems of the lungs.

a) Particle

b) Dust

c) Air
d) Inhalation

137) Fumes are formed when a metal is heated above its point and its vapours condense into very fine,
particles.

a) Cooling

b) Melting

c) Boiling

d) None of above

138) _______ is the ability of a substance to produce an unwanted effect when the chemical has
reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body.

a) Toxicity

b) Vapour

c) Dust

d) Fume

139) _______ container of an acid is much more hazardous than a closed container of the same
material.

a) Dry

b) Open

c) Close

d) Wet

140) Ingestion of_______ area.

a) Toxic

b) Flammable materials may occur as a result of eating in a contaminated work

c) Non toxic

d) None of above

141)Who is financially impacted due to workplace related injuries, illnesses, and deaths?

A. Employers

B. Employees
C. The community

D. All of these.

142. What is required by a safety harness?

A. A safety harness must fit well and be adjusted to the wearer.

B. A safety harness must be equipped with leather seat straps.

C. A safety harness must have double stitched shoulder belts.

D. None of these.

143. Select the hazard in usage of extension cables and multiple sockets

A. Overloading of the cable, this can lead to a fire.

B. Leakage currents with the attendant danger of electrocution.

C. Short-circuit when too many power cables and electrical plugs are used

D. None of these.

144. Which of the following enhances accident risks involving electricity?

A. The use of chargeable tools.

B. The use of spark-free tools.

C. The use of un-insulated tools

D. None of these.

145. Which of the following is the correct safety measure for prevention of falling at the edge of a
work floor?

A. By placing warning signs at the edge of the work floor.

B. By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work.

C. By putting proper barriers at the edge of the work floor.

D. None of these.

146. What is the correct lifting technique to avoid back injuries?

a) Bend your back while lifting

b) Use your back muscles to lift heavy objects

c) Keep your back straight and lift with your legs

d) Twist your body while lifting

Answer: c) Keep your back straight and lift with your legs

147. What does the “Hazard Communication” standard require employers to do?

a) Provide employees with proper safety training

b) Conduct regular fire drills

c) Install safety signs in the workplace

d) Label hazardous chemicals and provide Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

Answer: d) Label hazardous chemicals and provide Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

148. Which of the following is an example of an ergonomic workstation setup?

a) Using a chair without proper back support

b) Working on a desk with a cluttered workspace

c) Adjusting the monitor height to eye level

d) Working in a dimly lit room

Answer: c) Adjusting the monitor height to eye level

149. What should you do if you witness a coworker experiencing an electric shock?

a) Touch the person to help them regain consciousness

b) Attempt to remove the person from the electrical source

c) Call emergency services and wait for professional assistance

d) Ignore the situation as it may resolve on its own

Answer: c) Call emergency services and wait for professional assistance

150. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

a) To provide information on workplace safety regulations

b) To provide emergency contact numbers

c) To provide instructions for operating machinery

d) To provide detailed information about hazardous chemicals

Answer: d) To provide detailed information about hazardous chemicals

151. What is the primary cause of accidents in the workplace?

a) Poor lighting conditions

b) Lack of safety signage

c) Human error

d) Inadequate ventilation

Answer: c) Human error

152. What does the acronym “HSE” stand for in the context of health and safety?

a) Health and Safety Executive

b) Hazardous Substance Environment

c) Health and Security Examination

d) Harmful Substance Elimination

Answer: a) Health and Safety Executive

153. Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard?

a) Toxic chemicals

b) Electrical shock

c) Pathogens

d) Noise pollution

Answer: c) Pathogens

154. What is the purpose of a fire extinguisher?

a) To provide emergency lighting during power outages

b) To evacuate people during a fire emergency

c) To control and extinguish small fires

d) To prevent fires from starting

Answer: c) To control and extinguish small fires

155. What does the acronym “PPE” stand for in the context of health and safety?

a) Personal Protective Environment

b) Protective Procedure Equipment

c) Personal Physical Education

d) Personal Protective Equipment

Answer: d) Personal Protective Equipment

156. Which of the following is an example of a physical hazard?

a) High noise levels

b) Slippery floors

c) Toxic fumes

d) Ergonomic strain

Answer: b) Slippery floors

157. What is the purpose of a safety sign with a skull and crossbones symbol?

a) To indicate a toxic or hazardous substance

b) To indicate the location of emergency exits

c) To provide directions to designated smoking areas

d) To indicate the presence of first aid supplies

Answer: a) To indicate a toxic or hazardous substance

158. What should you do if you witness someone experiencing a severe allergic reaction?

a) Offer them food or water

b) Apply pressure to the affected area

c) Call emergency services and administer an epinephrine auto-injector if available

d) Ignore the situation as it may resolve on its own

Answer: c) Call emergency services and administer an epinephrine auto-injector if available

159. What does the acronym “MSDS” stand for in the context of health and safety?

a) Materials Safety and Data Sheets

b) Material Safety and Dangers Sheets

c) Mandatory Safety and Data Sheets

d) Material Safety Data Sheets

Answer: d) Material Safety Data Sheets

160. What is the purpose of conducting a risk assessment in the workplace?

a) To identify potential hazards and assess their likelihood and severity

b) To enforce strict regulations on employees

c) To test emergency response plans

d) To evaluate employee performance

Answer: a) To identify potential hazards and assess their likelihood and severity

161. What is the primary purpose of lockout/tagout procedures?

a) To secure personal belongings during work hours

b) To prevent unauthorized access to equipment

c) To ensure the safety of workers during equipment maintenance and repair

d) To control access to restricted areas in the workplace

Answer: c) To ensure the safety of workers during equipment maintenance and repair

162. What is the correct procedure for lifting a heavy object with a partner?

a) Lift with your back, not your legs

b) Bend your knees and keep your back straight

c) Use your partner’s back for support

d) Lift the object quickly without communicating with your partner

Answer: b) Bend your knees and keep your back straight

163. Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial hazard in the workplace?

a) Poor lighting conditions

b) Slippery floors

c) Bullying or harassment

d) Exposure to hazardous chemicals

Answer: c) Bullying or harassment

164. . What does the acronym “OSHA” stand for?

a) Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b) Occupational Safety and Health Act

c) Occupational Security and Hazard Assessment

d) Occupational Safety and Hazard Association

165)What is the primary focus of occupational health?

a) Promoting physical fitness

b) Ensuring workplace safety and health

c) Enhancing work productivity

d) Managing employee benefits

166)What are the main categories of workplace hazards?

a) Physical, chemical, and biological hazards

b) Emotional, financial, and social hazards

c) Technical, managerial, and operational hazards

d) Legal, ethical, and environmental hazards

167)What is the purpose of a risk assessment in occupational health?

a) Identifying potential hazards

b) Evaluating employee performance

c) Assessing job satisfaction

d) Planning team-building activities

168)What is the role of personal protective equipment (PPE) in occupational health?

a) Enhancing employee appearance

b) Improving work efficiency

c) Reducing workplace accidents

d) Boosting employee morale

169) What is the definition of occupational exposure?

a) The number of hours worked per week

b) The level of job satisfaction

c) The contact with workplace hazards

d) The frequency of employee promotions

170) What is the main goal of ergonomics in occupational health?

a) Increasing employee engagement

b) Improving workplace aesthetics

c) Enhancing job satisfaction

d) Optimizing worker comfort and efficiency

171). What is the purpose of occupational health and safety regulations?

a) Encouraging employee creativity

b) Promoting work-life balance

c) Ensuring employee rights and safety

d) Enhancing workplace diversity

172) Which of the following is a common work-related musculoskeletal disorder (MSD)?

a) Migraine

b) Insomnia

c) Back pain

d) Allergies

173)What is the role of occupational health professionals?

a) Managing employee benefits

b) Conducting job interviews

c) Providing medical surveillance

d) Planning company events

174) Why is employee training important in occupational health?

a) To improve employee social skills

b) To promote work-life balance

c) To raise awareness about workplace hazards

d) To increase employee job satisfaction

175) What is the purpose of a hazard communication program?

a) To promote workplace camaraderie

b) To ensure proper waste management

c) To educate employees about workplace hazards

d) To improve employee morale and job satisfaction

178)Which of the following is an example of a psychosocial hazard in the workplace?

a) Exposure to loud noises

b) Contact with toxic chemicals

c) High work demands and stress

d) Poor lighting conditions

179) What is the role of a safety committee in occupational health?

a) To enforce disciplinary actions

b) To conduct workplace inspections

c) To handle employee grievances

d) To promote a positive safety culture

180)What is the purpose of a job hazard analysis?

a) To evaluate employee performance

b) To identify potential workplace hazards

c) To determine employee benefits

d) To assess job satisfaction levels

181)What is the significance of occupational health surveillance?

 a) To monitor employee attendance

b) To track workplace productivity

c) To identify and prevent work-related illnesses and injuries

d) To measure employee job satisfaction levels

182)What is the primary goal of occupational health?

a) Preventing workplace accidents

b) Promoting employee well-being and safety

c) Reducing healthcare costs for employers

d) Increasing productivity in the workplace

183) What is the term used to describe the physical, chemical, or biological substances in the workplace
that can cause harm to workers?

a) Workplace hazards

b) Occupational exposures

c) Safety protocols

d) Personal protective equipment

184)Which of the following is NOT a common occupational health hazard?

a) Noise exposure

b) Ergonomic strain

c) Emotional stress

d) Proper lighting

185)What is the purpose of conducting a risk assessment in occupational health?

a) To identify potential hazards in the workplace

 b) To determine employee job satisfaction

c) To evaluate productivity levels

d) To develop marketing strategies

186)What does the term "ergonomics" refer to in occupational health?

a) The study of workplace injuries

b) The design of workspaces to optimize human performance

c) The prevention of infectious diseases

d) The use of personal protective equipment

187) What is occupational health?

a) The study of diseases in the general population

b) The study of diseases specific to certain professions

c) The study of health and safety in the workplace

d) The study of mental health disorders

188). Why is occupational health important in the workplace?

a) To increase productivity

b) To reduce absenteeism

c) To prevent work-related injuries and illnesses

d) To increase employee turnover

190). What are the common hazards in the workplace?

a) Noise, heat, and air pollution

b) Ergonomic factors, radiation, and chemical exposure

c) Social interactions, lighting, and temperature

 d) Office politics, stress, and workload

191). What is the role of occupational health and safety regulations?

a) To increase profits for businesses

b) To ensure workplace hazards are minimized

c) To increase working hours

d) To provide tax breaks to employers

192). What is the purpose of conducting risk assessments in the workplace?

a) To increase workplace hazards

b) To identify potential risks and hazards

c) To reduce employee benefits

d) To increase insurance premiums

192) How can ergonomic factors impact occupational health?

a) They can improve employee morale

b) They can reduce workplace injuries and musculoskeletal disorders

c) They can increase absenteeism

d) They have no impact on occupational health

193) What are the main types of occupational diseases?

a) Infectious diseases, mental health disorders, and chronic diseases

b) Genetic disorders, cancer, and heart disease

c) Asthma, allergies, and hypertension

d) Diabetes, obesity, and depression

194). What is the importance of proper ventilation in the workplace?

a) To increase heating costs

b) To reduce energy consumption

c) To minimize exposure to harmful gases, fumes, and dust

d) To improve employee morale

195). What are the key principles of workplace safety?

a) Ignoring hazards and risks

b) Training employees in safety procedures

c) Encouraging employees to take risks

d) Minimizing safety equipment

196) What are the responsibilities of employers in ensuring occupational health and safety?

a) Providing a safe work environment and proper training

b) Encouraging employees to ignore safety protocols

c) Disregarding employee concerns about safety

d) Focusing solely on profits

197) What is Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and why is it important?

a) PPE is used for recreational activities only

b) PPE is used to increase workplace hazards

c) PPE is used to protect employees from workplace hazards

d) PPE is not necessary in the workplace

198) How can stress affect occupational health?

a) Stress can improve productivity

b) Stress can lead to employee turnover

c) Stress has no impact on occupational health

d) Stress can lead to mental health issues and physical ailments

199) What are the benefits of promoting a culture of safety in the workplace?

a) Increased absenteeism

b) Decreased morale

c) Increased employee engagement and productivity

d) Decreased profitability

200). How can employees contribute to maintaining occupational health and safety?

a) By ignoring safety protocols

b) By reporting hazards and unsafe conditions

c) By increasing risks in the workplace

d) By avoiding safety training

201)What is the role of occupational health professionals in the workplace?

a) To increase workplace hazards

b) To reduce absenteeism

c) To promote employee health and safety

d) To decrease employee turnover

202). What are the ergonomic factors that can impact occupational health?
 a) Standing for long periods, repetitive motions, and poor posture

b) Frequent breaks, comfortable chairs, and good lighting

c) Use of technology, high workload, and loud noises

d) Sedentary lifestyle, lack of exercise, and poor diet

203) What is the primary purpose of safety data sheets (SDS) in the workplace?

a) To increase workplace hazards

b) To minimize risks and hazards associated with chemicals

c) To reduce employee benefits

d) To provide tax breaks to employers

204)How can employers encourage employee participation in safety programs?

a) By ignoring employee concerns about safety

b) By providing incentives and rewards for safe behavior

c) By minimizing safety equipment

d) By increasing workplace hazards

205). What is the primary goal of an occupational health and safety program?

a) To increase workplace hazards

b) To reduce employee turnover

c) To provide a safe and healthy work environment

d) To decrease employee benefits

206) Why is it important for employers to provide regular safety training to employees?

a) To increase workplace hazards

b) To minimize risks and hazards in the workplace

c) To reduce employee benefits

d) To discourage employees from reporting safety concerns