GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE

Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.

Preliminary Examination – 2025

MATHEMATICS PAPER-HSC PART-I (PRE-ENGINEERING)
Time: 20 Minutes SECTION ‘A’ Max. Marks: 20
(MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Note: This Section consists of 20 part questions and all are to be answered. Each question carries ONE mark.
Q. 1: Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:
1. (𝑖 51 + 𝑖 52 + 𝑖 53 + 𝑖 54 )5 = _______:
* -15 * 200 *0 * 100
2. If |𝑥 + 3𝑖| = 5 then 𝑥 = _______:
* ±4 * ±4𝑖 * ±2𝑖 * None of these
5 2 1
3. If the matrix [𝑔 − 3 −1 4] is upper Triangular then: = ____
𝑓+1 2−ℎ 7
* f=2, g = 5, h = 4 * f = g = 0, h = -2 * f = -1, g = 3, h = 2 * f = 4, g = 2, h = -5
4. A square matrix A is Hermitian matrix if:
𝑡 𝑡
* 𝐴𝑡 = 𝐴 * 𝐴𝑡 + 𝐴 = 0 * (𝐴) − 𝐴 = 0 * (𝐴) + 𝐴 = 0
5. If |𝑎⃗| = 10, |𝑏⃗⃗| = 2 and 𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑏⃗⃗ = 0 then the value of |𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗| is ______:
* 10 * 16 * 14 * 20
6. 𝑎⃗ ∙ (𝑏⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗) = ______:
* 𝑎⃗ ∙ 𝑏⃗⃗ ∙ 𝑐⃗ * 𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗ * 𝑏⃗⃗ ∙ (𝑎⃗ × 𝑐⃗) * (𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗) ∙ 𝑐⃗
7. If an – an – 1 = n + 1 and a4 = 14, then a5 = ?
*3 *5 * 14 * 20
8. The A.M between two numbers is 12 and their H.M is 3 then their positive G.M will be ____:
*9 * 16 *6 *1
9. ∑20 0
𝑛=4 𝑛 = ______:
* 17 * 18 * 16 * 15
10. If = nC6 nC12 then n = _______:
* 18 * 12 *6 * 20
11. A coin is tossed and single 6 sided die is rolled, the probability of getting head and rolling a 3 on the die is:
1 1 1
* * * *1
9 24 12

12. The coefficient of last term in the expansion of (3 − 𝑥)9 is:

*1 * -1 *7 *-9
13. 2 3
1 − 3𝑥 + 6𝑥 − 10𝑥 + ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ is equal to:
* (1 − 𝑥)−1 * (1 + 𝑥)−3 * (1 − 𝑥)3 * (1 + 𝑥)−2
14. The range of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = √𝑥 2 + 1 is:
* (−1, 1) * (−∞, ∞) * [1, ∞) * (−∞, 1]
15. If 𝑓(𝑥) = −5𝑥 + 1 then 𝑓 −1 (−14) is:
* 31 * 35 *0 *3
16. 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 = ______:
𝜃 𝜃 𝜃 𝜃
* 𝐶𝑜𝑠 2 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 * 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 − 1 * 1 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 * all of these
2 2 2 2

17. 𝑟𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟3 = _______:

▲ 𝑅▲
*𝑅 * * * ▲2
𝑠 𝑟

18. In a triangle ABC if 𝛾 = 90 then cosine law becomes:

* 𝑎2 = 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 * 𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑐 2 * 𝑐 2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 * None of these
19. If 𝑦 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 is a principal trignometrc function then its domain is:
𝜋 𝜋
*ℝ * [0, 𝜋] * [− , ] * [0,2𝜋]
2 2
7 2𝜋𝑥
20. Period of
2
𝐶𝑜𝑡 (
3
) is:
6𝜋 3
* 2𝜋 *𝜋 * *
7 2
Time: 2 Hour 40 Minutes Max. Marks: 80
SECTION ‘B’ (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS)
Q2. Attempt any ten questions from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Marks: 40
3+4𝑖 −2
i) Find the real and imaginary parts of (5𝑖−4)
OR Solve the complex equation (x + 3i)2 = 2yi
1 −3 −4
ii) Find the index of nilpotent matrix [−1 3 4]
1 −3 −4
 3 𝑥 + 2𝑖 𝑦𝑖
OR Find the values of unknown x, y and z given that matrix is Hermitian [3 − 2𝑖 0 1 + 𝑧𝑖 ]
𝑦𝑖 1 − 𝑥𝑖 −1
1+𝑎 1 1
1 1 1
iii) By using properties prove that | 1 1+𝑏 1 | = 𝑎𝑏𝑐 (1 + 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 ).
1 1 1+𝑐
iv) Find the work done by the force 𝐹⃗ = 7𝑖̂ + 9𝑗̂ − 11𝑘̂ in moving an object along a straight line from (4, 2, 7) to (6, 4, 9).
OR Find a unit vector which is orthogonal to both the vectors 𝑎⃗ = 𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ and 𝑏⃗⃗ = 3𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
𝑎 𝑛−2 +𝑏𝑛−2
v) For what value of n if 𝑎𝑛−3 +𝑏𝑛−3 is the G.M between a and b?
31 1
OR If the sum of first and sixth terms of H.P is , find the harmonic sequence if the first term is .
116 4
vi) Sum the series upto n terms 2 + (2 + 5) + (2 + 5 + 8) + …… upto n terms
OR Find the sum 1 + 4b + 7b2 + 10b3 + ……….. where |b| < 1.
vii) How many distinct permutations of letter of the word “ESSENTIAL” are possible? How many will have
the two (S): i) together ii) separate
OR Find n and r if Pr = 210 and nCr = 35.
n

OR There are 11 men and 9 women members of a club. How many committees of 8 members can be
formed having i) Exactly five men ii) at least five women?
viii) Prove the following proposition by mathematical induction for every positive integer n
1
𝑃(𝑛) = 1.3 + 2.4 + 3.5 + ⋯ ⋯ ⋯ 𝑛(𝑛 + 2) = 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)(2𝑛 + 7)
6
OR nC0 + nC1 +nC2 + ………….. + nCn = 2n.

1 7
ix) Obtain in the simplified form the term involving x6 in the expansion of (2𝑥 3 − 𝑥 2 )
5
OR Find 1st negative term in the expansion of (1 + 2𝑥)2
x) If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 1, find the values of a and b where 𝑓(2) = −3 and 𝑓(−1) = 0.
5
xi) Find the inverse of function f(x) = 9 (𝑥 − 32) and verify that f-1[f(x)] = x.
xii) Prove that 𝑆𝑖𝑛(𝑥 + 𝑦)𝑆𝑖𝑛(𝑥 − 𝑦) = 𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 − sin2 𝑦 OR 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝐶𝑜𝑠(𝑦 − 𝑥) − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑦 − 𝑥) = 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑦
1 1 1 1 2
xiii) Show that 2𝑟𝑅 = 𝑎𝑏
+ 𝑏𝑐
+ 𝑐𝑎
OR 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟3 = 𝑟𝑠
xiv) Two planes start from Karachi International Airport at the same time and fly in directions that make an
angle of 127 with each other, their speeds are 525 km/hr. How far apart they are at the end of 2 hours
of flying time.
2𝑥 3𝑥 𝜋 𝜋
xv) By using graph find the solution of the equation 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 − 𝜋
= 0 OR 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 2𝜋 = 0 Where − 2 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2

SECTION ‘C’
(DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS)
Note: Attempt any five questions from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Marks: 40
Q.3 Use Gauss-Jordan method, solve the following system of linear equation.
x + 5y + 2z = 9 x + y + 7z = 6 -3y + 4z = -2
1 2 −1
OR Find the inverse of the matrix by using elementary row operation [0 −1 3 ]
1 0 2
Q.4 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ and Y divides 𝐵𝐶
In a parallelogram ABCD, X is the midpoint of 𝐴𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ in 1:2 show that if Z divides 𝐷𝑋
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ in 6:1 then
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ in 3:4.
it also divides 𝐴𝑌
OR Find the volume of tetrahedron whose vertices are A(2, 1, 7), B (5, -1, 3), C (4, 3, 5) and D (0, 2, 3)
75
Q.5 If G.M and H.M between the two numbers are 15 and 13 respectively, find the numbers.

OR Find the sum of first hundred natural numbers which are neither exactly divisible by 3 nor by 7.
Q.6 If the sum of two numbers is 6 and the square of the 1st number is greater than 6 by the 2nd number. Solve
graphically and find the numbers.
1 2 1.3 2 2 1.3.5 2 3
Q.7 If 𝑥 = 5 + ( )
2! 5
+ 3!
(5) + ⋯ ⋯, then show that 4x2 – 2x – 1 = 0

Q.8 Prove any two of the following:

𝑆𝑖𝑛4𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠4𝜃
i) 𝑆𝑖𝑛2𝜃
− 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝜃 = 𝑠𝑒𝑐2𝜃 ii) 𝐶𝑜𝑠5𝜃 = 16 cos 5 𝜃 − 20 cos3 𝜃 + 5𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
1 𝑆𝑖𝑛(𝜃+∅)−2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃+𝑆𝑖𝑛(𝜃−∅)
iii) 𝑆𝑖𝑛10°𝑆𝑖𝑛30°𝑆𝑖𝑛50°𝑆𝑖𝑛70° = 16 iv) 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝜃+∅)−2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝜃−∅)
= 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃

Q.9 A pair of fair dice is thrown. If the two numbers appearing are different. Find the probability that i) The
sum is 10 ii) The sum is six or less.
OR The king, queen and jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52 playing cards and then shuffled. A
card is drawn from the remaining cards, find the probability of getting:
i) A heart ii) a queen iii) a club iv) 9 of red color
77 3 −87 3 3 8 𝜋
Q.10 Show that 𝑆𝑖𝑛−1 (85) + 𝑆𝑖𝑛−1 (5) = 𝐶𝑜𝑠 −1 ( 425 ) OR 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (4) + 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (5) − 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (19) = 4
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI COLLEGE
Hussain-abad, Federal ‘B’ Area, Karachi.
Ph: 021-99333056
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS – 2025 Dated: 10-03-2025

TIME: 3 HOURS PHYSICS PAPER – I MAX. MARKS: 85

9:00 a.m to 9:20 a.m SECTION ‘A’ (Multiple Choice Questions) 17 - Marks
NOTE:

i) This section consists of 17-part questions and all are to be answered. Each question carries one mark.
ii) Do not copy the questions in your answer book. Write only the answer in full against the proper
number of the question and its part.
iii) Symbols have their usual meanings.
________________________________________________________________________
Q1: Choose the correct answer for each from to given options:

i. The ratio of the dimension of universal Gravitational constant to acceleration due to gravity is:
* ⌊𝑀𝐿2 𝑇⌋ * ⌊𝑀−1 𝐿2 𝑇 0 ⌋ * ⌊𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −1 ⌋ * ⌊𝑀−2 𝐿𝑇 −1 ⌋
ii. If 𝐴𝑥 = −1 and 𝐴𝑦 = −1 then resultant vector makes an angle:
* 45° * 90° * 180° * 270°
iii. The distance covered by freely falling body in 2 sec will be:
*2m * 4.9 m * 9.8 m * 19.6 m
iv. The S.I unit of angular momentum is:
* 𝑁. 𝑚 * J. S * N. S * J. m
v. The escape velocity of a planet depends on which of the following factor(s)?
* The mass of the planet only * The radius of the planet only
* The density of the planet * Both the mass and radius of the planet
vi. In capillary action the height of column can be calculated by:
𝑇 2𝑇 𝑇2 𝑇
*ℎ= *ℎ= *ℎ= 2 *ℎ=
𝜌𝑟𝑔 𝜌𝑟𝑔 𝜌𝑟 𝑔 2𝜌𝑟𝑔
vii. The device used for the measurement of flow rate of a fluid in a pipe is:
* Venturi meter * Manometer * Hydrometer * Barometer
viii. The force between two-point charges placed in air is F. If air is replaced by a medium of relative permittivity
𝜖𝑟 then the force between the charges becomes:
𝐹 𝜖 1
* 𝐹𝜖𝑟 * * 𝑟 *
𝜖𝑟 𝐹 𝐹𝜖𝑟
ix. A 47 𝜇𝐹 capacitor has been charged from a 200 V DC supply. The energy stored in the capacitor will be:
* 0.94 J * 1.88 J * 4.25 J * 8.14 J
x. As compared to sound wave frequency of radio waves is:
* higher * equal * lower * may be higher or lower
xi. A cable of 20 meter in length, 1 mm2 of cross-sectional area and a resistance of 5 ohm then the conductivity of the
cable is:
𝑠 𝑠 𝑠 𝑠
* 4 × 10−6 𝑚 * 4 × 10−3 𝑚 * 4 × 103 𝑚 * 4 × 106 𝑚
xii. In order to double the period of a spring mass system:
* Its mass should be double * Its mass should be half
* Its mass should be four time * Its mass should be one forth
xiii. The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 m/s if 3600 waves are passing through a point in medium in 2 minutes, then
its wave length is:
* 13.85 m * 25.3 m * 41.5 m * 57.2 m
xiv. Monochromatic light does not exhibit:
* reflection * refraction * interference * dispersion
xv. A particle is moving in a uniform circular motion with “radius” r in half revolution the displacement and distance
covered by the particle are:
2𝜋
* 2𝑟 ,2𝜋 𝑟 * 1.41 𝑟 , 3.14 𝑟 * , 𝜋𝑟 * 𝜋 𝑟 ,2 𝑟
𝑟
xvi. The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is equal to:
* 6.2 x 1018 * 1.6 x 10−19 * −1.6 x 10−19 * 6.2 x 10−18
xvii. Two waves traveling in the same direction interfere destructively if their path difference is:
* 𝑚𝜆 * (𝑚 + 1⁄2)𝜆 * (𝑚 − 1⁄2)𝜆 * 2𝑚𝜆
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI COLLEGE
Hussain-abad, Federal ‘B’ Area, Karachi.
Ph: 021-99333056
Total Duration: 2 Hours 40 Minutes Max. Marks: 68
SECTION ‘B’(SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS) (36 Marks)
Note: Attempt any Nine-part questions from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Draw diagrams, where
necessary.
Q2.
i) Find the projection of 𝐴⃗ = 6 𝑖̂ + 6 𝑗̂ − 3 𝑘̂ onto 𝐵⃗⃗ = 2 𝑖̂ + 3 𝑗̂ − 6 𝑘̂.
ii) Give the dimensions of the following quantities:
(a) Torque (b) Angular momentum (c) Pressure (d) Kinetic Energy
iii) A machine gun fires 20 bullets per second into a target. Each bullet weights 30 gram and had a speed of 1800
m/s. Find the necessary force to hold the gun in position?
iv) Define angular momentum. State and prove law of conservation of angular momentum for a particle moving in
a circle. OR State and prove work-energy theorem.
v) A pump is needed to lift water through a height of 2.5 m at the rate of 500 g/min. What must the minimum
horsepower of the pump be?
vi) Define laminar and turbulent flow of fluid also derive equation of continuity.
vii) How far apart must two protons be if the magnitude of the electrostatic force acting on either one due to the
other is equal to the magnitude of the weight of a proton at Earth’s surface? (Mass of proton = 1.67  10-27 kg
charge on proton 1.6  10-19 C)
viii. Derive the relation for energy store in a capacitor placed in an electric field.
ix. Define power dissipation in resistors. Device it’s all possible relations and also explain the condition for
maximum power transfer.
x. The small piston of hydraulic press has an area of 10.0 cm2. If the applied force is 50.0 N, what must the area
of the large piston to exert a pressing force of 4800N?
xi. Calculate the resistance of 100 m roll of 2.5 mm2 copper wire if the resistivity of copper at 20 C is
1.72  10 -8 .-m.
xii. If the velocity of sound in air at 27 o C and pressure of 76 cm of mercury is 345 m/s. Find the velocity at 127 o
C and 75 cm of mercury.
xiii. A sewing machine needle moves with a rapid vibratory motion, like S.H.M, as it sews a seam. Suppose the
needle moved 8.4 mm from its highest to its lowest position and it makes 24 stiches in 9.0 seconds. What is
the maximum needle speed?
xiv. Green light of wave length 5400 A is diffracted by grating having 2000 lines /cm. Calculate the angular
deviation of third order image.
SECTION ‘C’ (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS) (32 Marks)
NOTE: Attempt any TWO questions from this section. Draw diagrams where necessary. All questions carry equal marks.
Q3.
a) Define projectile motion. A projectile is thrown in air at an angle 𝜃 with the ground level with velocity Vo. Establish
the equation for horizontal range, maximum vertical height and total time of flight.
b) Using Young’s double slits arrangements, obtain the expression for the position of bright fringes. Also calculate
the fringe spacing.
Q4.
a) Prove that the motion of projection of a particle in a uniform circular motion is simple harmonic on one of its
diameters of the reference circle. Also derive the formula of its instantaneous velocity.
b) State and prove Bernoulli’s equation for steady fluid flow.
Q5.
a) Explain elastic and inelastic collision. Two non-rotating spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 moving with initial
velocities u1 and u2 make an elastic collision. Derive the expression for the final velocities of both spheres after
collision.
b) Explain defects in Newton’s formula for speed of sound, how Laplace corrected the formula for speed of sound.
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE
Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.
Preliminary Examination – 2025
Chemistry Paper – l
[Atomic Masses in a.m.u: Al =27 N= 14 Mg = 24 0 = 16, H = 1, C = 12, He = 4,
S = 32]
Time: 15 Minutes Max. Marks: 17
SECTION “A” (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION)
Note: This section consists of 17-part questions and all are to be answered. Each question carries One mark.
Q1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:

i. This is the number of atoms present in 28.0g N2:

*3.0 *6.02x1023 *3.02 x 1023 *28
ii. The rate of diffusion of CO is same as that of:
*N2 *CO2 *NO2 *H2O
iii. The maximum number of electrons in a particular Orbit is given by:
*2n2 *n2 *2(2l+1) *(l + 1)
iv. This is the colloidal solution of liquid into liquid:
*Gel *Foam *Sol *Emulsion
v. This is the unit of rate constant (K) for photochemical reaction.
*Ms-1 *s-1 *M-1s-1 *M-2s-1
vi. NaNO3 is an example of:
*Acidic salt *Basic salt *Neutral salt *Amphoteric salt
vii. This happens to the value of Kc when a catalyst is added to a chemical system at equilibrium it:
*Increases *Decreases *Becomes Zero *Remains same
viii. The S.I. unit of viscosity is:
*dyne/g.s *Poise *N.s/m2 *erg/s
ix. This one of the following is a crystalline solid:
*Glass *Plastic *Rubber *Dry ice
x. In the 2nd shell of Hydrogen, the angular momentum of electron is:
*h/2 *2h/ *h/ *2mVr
xi. In ethylene molecule, there are:
*6 sigma bonds and 0 Pi bond *5 sigma bonds and 1 Pi bond
*5 sigma bonds and 2 Pi bond *3 sigma bonds and 1 Pi bond
xii. This is not a primary bond:
*Ionic bond *Covalent Bond *Hydrogen bond *Dative Bond
xiii. This overlap of Atomic orbital forms strongest bond.
*s – s *s – p *p – p *p – s
xiv. This is the method of reducing the figures from the given numerical value:
*Significant Figures *Rounding off Data *Exponential Notation *Logarithm
xv. When 4d orbital is filled, the next electron enters into:
*5s *5p *5d *4f
xvi. All real gases become ideal at:
*Low temperature and higher pressure *high temperature and higher pressure
*Low temperature and low pressure *high temperature and low pressure
xvii. The dipole moment of this molecule is not zero.
*CS2 *CO2 *SO2 *CCl4

Time: 2:30 Hrs SECTION – B (Short Answers’ Questions) (36 Marks)

Q.2. Attempt any NINE parts questions from this section. Each question carries 04 marks.

i. Define the following terms (any four):

* Stoichiometry * Allotropy * Dipole moment * Unit cell * Activated complex * Rate constant

ii. State Dalton’s law of partial pressure. Give its three applications.
OR
What is Liquid Air OR Plasma? Mention its three uses.
iii. Aluminum chloride is used in the manufacturing of rubber. It is produced by allowing Aluminum to react with Cl2 gas
at 6500oC.
2Al (s) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2AlCl3 (l),
When 160g of Aluminum reacts with excess of chlorine, 650g of AlCl3 is produced. What is the percentage yield of
AlCl3? OR
When aluminum powder is heated with nitrogen, AlN is produced:
2Al+ N2 → 2AlN,
If 150g of Al and 300g of Nitrogen were mixed and heated strongly to complete the reaction. Indicate limiting reactant
& find mass of AlN.
iv. Define Reversible & Irreversible reaction with two examples of each.

v. Consider a following reaction CH3CHO →CH4 + CO. Experimentally the reaction is found to be 2nd order. The
rate at certain temperature is 0.18 Ms-1 when [CH3CHO] = 0.1M.
* Write rate expression
* Determine rate constant
* Calculate rate of reaction when CH3CHO is doubled.
 OR
The reaction: 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl, was studied at 25oC, the following results were obtained.
S. No. Initial Concentration in mol / dm3 Initial Rate mol. dm3.s – 1
[NO] [Cl2]
1 0.1 0.1 2.52 x 10 – 3
2 0.1 0.2 5.04 x 10 – 3
3 0.2 0.1 10.05 x 10 – 3
Illustrate the rate law and find order of reaction.

vi. State Hund's rule and Pauli's exclusion principle. Write the values of four quantum numbers for the valence
electrons of Ca (Z=20).
OR
Define iso-electronic ions with examples. Write the electronic configuration of: *16S-2 * 24Cr * 47Ag

vii. Define acid & base according to the Lewis concept and Lowry-Bronsted concept. Identify Acid & Base,
after writing a reaction between: * HCl & H 2O * NH3 & BH3

viii. Enlist the various factors which influence on the rate of chemical reactions & describe the effect of
concentration & surface area of reactants on the reaction rate.

ix. State Raoult's law for volatile solvent and non-volatile solute and derive its three forms.

x. Differentiate between any two of the following:

* Isomorphism & Polymorphism * Lyman & Balmer series
* Acid oxides & Basic oxides * VBT & MOT

xi. Define Surface tension OR Viscosity. Give its units. Discuss the effect of temperature and Hydrogen
bonding on it.
xii. What is the relation between Kp & Kc? Write the formula to interconvert them.
xiii. Glucose is a non-volatile solute in water. A glucose solution contains 0.15 moles glucose and 5.8 moles
water at 20°C. Determine the lowering in the vapour pressure, if the vapour pressure of pure water at 20 °C
is 17.5 tom (Assuming the solution as ideal)
xiv. What are Colloids? Give four properties of Colloids.

SECTION – C (Detailed Answers’ Questions) (32 Marks)

Note: Answer any two questions from this section. Each question carries 16 marks.
Q3.
a. Draw the Molecular Orbital diagram of Oxygen or Nitrogen molecule. Find:

* Energy sequence of molecular orbitals * Bond order * Magnetic nature

b. What are the Faulty assumptions in Kinetic molecular theory of gases? How Vander Waal corrected it &
modified ideal gas equation? One mole of NH3 gas is kept in a cylinder of 5.5dm3 at 27°C. Assuming that NH3
is a real gas, find its pressure, if van-der Waal constants for ammonia are a = 4.17 atm dm6 mo1-2 and b =
0.0371 dm3
Q4.
a. Write two mathematical postulates of Bohr's atomic model. Starting from E = KE + PE, derive an
expression of energy of the photon of electron when it jumps from n 1 to n2.
𝑧𝑒 2 𝑧𝑒 2 𝜖 𝑜 𝑛2 ℎ 2
Given that: KE = 8𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟 , P.E = - 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑟 & r = 𝜋𝑚𝑧𝑒 2 . Explain any two ambiguities found in Bohr’s
atomic model.

b. Define buffer solution, Give its types. Discuss buffer action & buffer capacity.
Q5.
a. Define Orbital hybridization & its types. Explain the shape of Acetylene on the basis of hybridization.
OR
Predict the shape of molecule from the information about following molecules on the basis of VSEPR theory
with example of each:
* 4 active set along with two non-bonding electrons * 3 active set, all are bond pair
* 4 bonding electrons with one pi electron * 4 active set along with one non-bonding electrons

b. How can the yield of NH3 be increased in Haber’s process by using le-Chatelier’s Principle? If in an
experiment, there are 5 mol SO2, 4 mol O2 and 2.8 mol SO3 are present at any instance in a 2dm3 flask, Predict the
direction of this reaction. 2 SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE
Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.

Preliminary Examination – 2025

Computer Science Paper – l
Time: 03 Hrs Max. Marks: 75
SECTION “A” (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION)
Time: 20 Minutes Max. Marks: 15
Q1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:
(i) The most powerful and the fastest computers are:
a. Super PCs b. Super mainframes c. Supercomputers d. Workstation
(ii) Loading the operating system into a personal computer is called:
a. Booting b. interrupting c. prompting d. paging
(iii) The software used to access the worldwide web is called:
a. Browser b. Web c. Server d. e-mail
(vi) The entire computer system is controlled by:
a.ALU b. Control unit c. Registers d. Arithmetic operators
(v) The memory capacity may be measured in:
a. Microseconds b. MHz c. Megabytes d. Cycles
(vi) The main circuit board in a personal computer is called:
a. BIOS b. Motherboard c. RAM/Bus board d. ASII board
(Vii) the most reliable topology is:
a. Star b. Bus c. Ring d. Tree
(viii) The process of converting analog signals into digital signals is called:
a. Modulation b. Demodulation c. Switching d. None of them
(ix) An ink-jet printer is an example of a /an:
a. Laser Printer b. Impact printer c. LCD Printer d. Non impact printer
(x) The physical connectivity of different computers is called:
a. Topology b. Link c. Contention d. Switch
(xi) OSI stands for:
a. Operating system interfacing b. Operating system interconnection
c. Open system interconnection d. None of these
(xii) Microwave Transmission, coaxial cables, and fiber optics are the example of:
a. Modems b. Routers c. Communication media d. Ring Networks
(xiii) Two dissimilar networks can be connected by:
a. Gateway b. Bus c. Signal d. Hardware
(xiv) A computer virus is:
a. Bacteria b. Software c. Signal d. Hardware
(xv) MBR, AC, MAR, PC and IR are:
a. Secondary storage b. Auxiliary memory c. CPU Buffer d. CPU Register
SECTION B- (SHORT –ANSWER QUESTIONS) Max. Marks 30
Q2. Attempt any TEN questions from section B. All questions carry equal marks.
(i) Distinguish between LAN and WAN.
(ii) Discuss various transmission modes used in data communication.
(iii) What are the differences between primary storage and secondary storage?
(iv) Define the term bus. Describe any two buses.
(v) Define the basic elements of data communication system.
(vi) What are peripheral devices? Mention some examples of peripheral devices.
(vii) What do the following terms stand for?
(a) ASCII (b) HTTPS (c) BIOS
(viii) What is meant by information network? Write the advantages of a network.
(ix) Differentiate between analog and digital signals.
(x) Write any three differences between impact and non- impact printers.
(xi) What is the function of a Compiler and an interpreter?
(xii) What is the difference between hard copy and soft copy?
(xiii) Define protocol and name any three protocols.
(xiv) What is computer security? What security techniques are used to reduce risks?
SECTION C (DETAILED- ANSWERED QUESTIONS) Max. Marks 30
Note: Attempt any three questions from this section.
Q.3 (i) Define topology. Describe the working of LAN topologies with diagrams.
(ii) Explain various types of communication media used for data communication.
Q.4 (i) What is a CPU? Draw the diagram and discuss in detail.
(ii) What is an operating system? Describe the various functions of an operating system.
Q5. (i) What is a register? Describe any four types of CPU register.
(ii) Draw the layer cake of an OSI model. Describe each layer of OSI model.
Q6. (i) What is computer virus? Describe different types of viruses.
(ii) State copyright laws along with its advantages.
Q7. (i) Discuss different types of printers.
(ii) Explain different types of scanning devices.
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE
Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.
Preliminary Examination – 2025
Botany Paper – l
Time: 15 Minutes Max. Marks: 09
SECTION “A” (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION)
1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given options:
(i) When habitat conditions become harsh and nutrients are exhausted the development in bacteria is initiated called:
(A) Capsule (B) Cell Wall (C) Endospore (D) Mesosome
(ii) Enzyme involves during Carboxylation:
(A) Rubisco oxygenase (B) Rubisco carboxylase (C) Rubisco dehydrogenase (D) None of them
(iii) The capacity of a living system to lose water is:
(A) Osmotic pressure (B) Osmosis (C) Water potential (D) Diffusion
(iv) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells:
(A) Chloroplast (B) Cell Wall (C) Central vacuole (D) Mitochondria
(v) Which process involved in the promotion of flowering by cold treatment:
(A) Photoperiodism (B) Secondary Growth (C) Vernalization (D) Transpiration
(vi) Active transport of sucrose into sieve elements is a step commonly called:
(A) Phloem loading (B) Unloading (C) Diffusion (D) Osmosis
(vii) Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells:
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi bodies (D) Lysosome
(viii) Which group of viruses cause dengue fever, encephalitis and yellow fever:
(A) Arbo-viruses (B) Retro-viruses (C) Rhino-viruses (D)Rhabdo-viruses
(ix) The intermediate carbon fixing compound in the members of the family Poaceae to pass Carbon dioxide to Calvin cycle is:
(A) Citric acid (B) Crassulacean acid (C) Oxaloacetic acid (D) Pyruvic acid
(x) The amoeboid stage of slime mold is:
(A) Plasmodium (B) Fruiting bodies (C) Euglena (D) Merozoites
(xi) The smaller proteins are cut down and forms a new virus structure by:
(A) Assembly (B) Transcription (C) Budding (D) Integration
(xii) The prokaryotes may have evolved from ancestors called:
(A) Virion (B) Eukaryotes (C) RNA (D) Protobionts
(xiii) Cell organelle mainly concerned with the detoxification of alcohol:
(A) Chloroplast (B) Peroxisome (C) Central vacuole (D) Mitochondria
(xiv) The plants growing is salt marshes close to sea are termed as:
(A) Hydrophytes (B) Xerophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Halophytes
(xv) Guttation occurs through:
(A) Lenticels (B) Hydathodes (C) Stomata (D) Bark
(xvi) Induction of flowering in response to the relative length of day and night is known as:
(A) Photoperiodism (B) Photophosphorylation (C) Photorespiration (D) Phototropism
(xvii) How many ATP molecules are formed during substrate level phosphorylation in Kreb’s cycle when one glucose is consumed?
(A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One
(xviii) Clarity of image is generally known as:
(A) Magnification (B) Sedimentation (C) Contrast (D) Resolution

Time: 1 Hour 45 Minutes Max. Marks: 36

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS)
NOTE: Answer 09 questions from this section. Each question carries two marks
Question: 2 (18 Marks)
(i) Why photosynthesis is called Redox process?
(ii) Can we term “Nucleus” as the brain of a cell?
OR
How do all living cells exist in an aqueous medium?
(iii) Viruses are categorized at the border line of living and non-living. Elaborate in your own words.
(iv) Why mineral nutrients are necessary for plants?
(v) Why Photorespiration is considered as wasteful process.
(vi) Describe the role and deficiency symptoms of Potassium and Zinc.
(vii) How would you classify bacteria on the basis of number of flagella?
(viii) Differentiate between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(ix) Is the inward folding of inner membrane of Mitochondria worthful?
(x) Draw a well labelled diagram of the following:
(a) opening and closing of Stomata (b) Shapes (types) of Chromosomes
(xi) Which Kingdom is referred as Polyphyletic Kingdom and Why?
(xii) Why insectivorous plants use insects as food?
(xiii) Write only the definition of conjugation, transformation and transduction.
(xiv) Draw the flow chart of the plant tissues.

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS)

NOTE: Answer TWO questions from this section. (18 Marks)
3. Describe the structure of Bacterium with neat and clean labelled diagram and also differentiate gram
positive and gram-negative bacteria
OR
Draw the life cycle of Bacteriophage virus.
4. Explain structure and properties of Plasma membrane with diagram.
5. Explain Phytohormones in detail.
6. What is cellular respiration? Discuss the process of Glycolysis in detail.
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE
Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.
Preliminary Examination – 2025
ZOOLOGY PAPER I
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Time: 15 minutes Total Marks: 08
Q. No.1: Choose the correct options.
1. Which one polymer of carbohydrate is most abundant in nature?
A) Starch B) Glycogen C) Cellulose D) Chitin
2. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyzed a polymer that is 21 monomers long?
A) 10 B) 20 C) 21 D) 02
3. Haemoglobin contains 574 amino acids in four chains, two alpha and two beta chains. Each alpha chain has:
A) 141 amino acids B) 21 amino acids C) 146 amino acids D) 30 amino acids
4. The non-protein part of enzyme is called:
A) Apoenzyme B) Holoenzyme C) Prosthetic group D) Co-factor
5. Digestive enzyme responsible to convert oligomers into monomers is:
A) Hydrolase B) Lyase C) Ligase D) Isomerase
6. Pick the odd one out:
A) Star fish B) Brittle star C) Lamprey D) Sea urchin
7. Largest fishes are:
A) Whales B) Sharks C) Cuttle fish D) Jelly fish
8. Unsegmented animals having pseudo coelom with sexual dimorphism are:
A) Arthropods B) Annelids C) Flatworms D) Round worms
9. Following serves as physical barrier:
A) Macrophage B) Mucous membrane C) HCl D) Saliva
10. All amino acids have same formula except?
A) Alpha carbon B) Hydroxyl group C) Radical group D) Amino group
11. Average blood pressure is lowest in structure (s):
A) Aorta B) Arterioles C) Capillaries D) Vena cava
12. The heart of crocodile is __________ chambers.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
13. In which part of the respiratory system, gaseous exchange takes place?
A) Alveoli B) Pharynx C) Larynx D) Trachea
14. Lungs capacity of man is about __________ liters of air.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
15- Following serves as physical barrier:
A) Macrophage B) Mucous membrane C) HCl D) Saliva
16- Antibodies are secreted by:
A) T-cells B) B-cells C) Plasma cells D) Macrophages
SECTION- B (Short answer question)
Note: Attempt any 08 questions. Select FOUR from Reasoning question and FOUR from Non-reasoning
question. Each question carries 2 marks. (16 Marks)
Q. No. 2 (a) Reasoning Questions
i) Why is artificial sweetener not harmful to diabetic patient? OR
How does an enzyme perform catalytic activity with substrate molecule?
ii) Why enzymes are specific in nature? OR Why are valves absent in the lumen of artery? OR
Why prototherians are called monotremata?
iii) Why breathing in human is called negative pressure breathing?
iv) What do you understand by ecdysis? Why do some organisms undergo ecdysis? OR
Why SA node is called pace maker of heart?
v) Discuss the role of specific heat in body thermal regulation.
vi) Why sponges are placed in animal kingdom, when they lack tissue organization? OR
Why air is better respiratory medium than water?
(b) Non-Reasoning Questions
vii) Distinguish between DNA and RNA with respect to no. of strands, sugar type, nitrogenous bases and functions
OR Discuss role of arterioles in vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
viii) Discuss various layers of tissues in wall of heart OR Properties of enzymes OR Parasitic adaptations inPlatyhelminthes.
ix) Differentiate between cartilaginous and bony fishes OR Ratitae and Carinatae.
x) Describe the fundamental character of chordates.
xi) Discuss active and passive immunity with examples OR Write a note on peptide linkage. OR
Write a note on Haemoglobin.
xii) What is phagocytosis? Name some WBCs act as phagocyte.
SECTION-C(Descriptive answer questions) (16 Marks)
Note: Attempt any TWO questions. Each question carries 8 marks.
Q. No. 3 Describe salient features and evolutionary adaptations of Phylum Mollusca. Also discuss economic importance.
OR Describe the characteristics and classification of Class Mammalia.
Q. No. 4 Define lipids. Describe the characters and uses of different groups of lipids OR
What is immunity? Describe adaptive immune system.
Q. No. 5 Define respiration. Explain the respiratory system of man with diagram OR
Describe the structure and working of human heart.
 GOVERNMENT DEHLI INTER COLLEGE
Block 2, Hussainabad, F.B. Area Karachi.

Preliminary Examination – 2025

TIME: 03 HOURS ENGLISH PAPER I MAX. MARKS: 100

SECTION "A" (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS) (20 MARKS)
NOTE: Attempt all questions from this Section.
Q1. Choose the correct answer for each from the given options.
i) "To gird with golden belts”, this phrase indicates to live:
* healthy life * hard life * wealthy life * slavery life
ii) On answer of question two King John swore by:
* St. Bittle * St. John * Pope * Masses
iii) In the line ‘When he might have captured the victor's cup,’ the highlighted phrase is metaphorically used for:
* prize * failure * success * trophy
iv) SAT stands for:
* School Aptitude Test * Standard Admission Test
* Scholastic Assessment Test * Scholarship Achievement Test
v) Khahoris follow the spiritual path and symbolize the search of:
*serpents *dreams *herbs *reality
vi) In the scene two, in the play ‘A Visit to a Small Planet’ General Powers receive a call from a/ the:
*Chief of Armed Staff *President * Chief Justice *Senator
vii) Kreton underestimates Powers about his whereabouts if he explains it (to Powers) will take:
* 300 years * 400 years * 500 years * 600 years
viii) Kreton considered human civilization as:
* modern * primitive * conservative * progressive
ix) The word “reconnoiter” means:
* recollecting * survey * remembrance * revisit
x) Singapore imports everything like this country:
*Pakistan *U.K *Japan *K.S.A
xi) E.B. White revisited the lake with his son in:
*summer * winter * autumn *spring
xii) Mathilde’s husband worked evening as a:
* worker * sales man * helper * bookkeeper
xiii) True seekers can only be known to those who are for:
* jungle dueling * deserted abodes * mountain peaks *spiritual realm
xiv) ‘My name is Ozymandias, King of Kings’ is an example of this poetic device:
* Irony * synecdoche * oxymoron * Allusion
xv) Study of Computer Science requires this skill:
* logical * accounting * innovative * imaginative
xvi) According to the poet, deepest wounds are always given by:
*back-biting *praise *trust *friendship
xvii) Roger Spelding criticizes Ellen about John’s farming:
* prim roses * walnuts * dates * peanuts
xviii) Quid e Azam said Black-marketing is another curse:
*problem *curse *issue *monster
xix) In the sentence ‘I run a business successfully,’ the underlined verb is:
*transitive *intransitive *auxiliary *modal
xx) The comparative degree of the word ill is:
* iller * worse * more ill *worser

SECTION – B (SHORT- ANSWER QUESTIONS) (40 Marks)

Q2. Attempt Ten-part questions from this section, selecting at least Two-part questions from each sub section. Answer
should not exceed six sentences. All questions carry equal marks.
Sub-Section I (Prose)
i) What is the greatest curse according to the Quaid-e-Azam? Discuss.
OR What are the benefits of E- Commerce in today’s world?
ii) What mistake did Stephen Leacock make when he wrote the cheque?
iii) What are the differences between a career and a job?
iv) Who is lucky and unlucky according to the maxim?
Sub-Section II (Poetry)
v) What are the answers to King’s questions? Who gave them?
vi) What tragedy had befallen upon Lucy Gray? OR
How does Wotton’s happy man spend his days and nights?
vii) What irony has been presented in the poem Ozymandias?
viii) What reward does a Khahori get after his hard work?

Sub-Section III (Plays)

ix) Why did Spelding dislike John?
x) How does Kreton foil General Powers attempt to confine him?
 xi) The play is a satire on American society. Discuss?
xii) Why is Spelding unhappy about the relationship between Ellen and John? OR
How is media portrayed in the play?

Sub-Section IV (Grammar)
xiii) Change the narration.
a) He said to them, “Don’t make a noise.”
b) He said, “What a beautiful scene this is!”
c) A sage said to me, “I can’t predict what will happen.”
d) The old lady said to me, “Can you tell me if this is the place I came before?”

xiv) Change the voice:

a) Does he trouble you in the class?
b) Let her write an application.
c) People considers him as the best all-rounder.
d) He teaches us English daily.

xv) Spot errors and do the correction of verb, preposition and adjective in the following sentences:
a) A higher you go, a lighter you feel.
b) I had broken the window yesterday.
c) He is in hospital since 2020.
d) Maaz is good in mathematics.

xvi) Do as Directed:
a) She could not attend the class. She was ill. (Make a compound sentence)
b) She said you don't deserve to eat mango. (Punctuate)
c) You pray five times a day. (Insert a modal verb showing advice)
d) He is best student of the class. (Insert suitable article if necessary)

SECTION ‘C’ (Marks 40)

(DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Note: Attempt all questions from this section.

Q3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
OR
Make a précis of the passage and suggest a suitable title to it.
In Pakistan, media is working freely and independently. In case of electronic media, there are a number of channels are
working including news, sports and entertainment channels. It is the responsibility of media to highlight those issues
which are good for the public and discourage unethical factors of the society. Sometimes media besides spreading the
root causes of any issue contributes to multiply wordings over some issues and crises. Media should be very sensitive
while presenting its country towards the world. Our media tells the world what exactly we are, what are our norms,
values and culture. Being an Islamic country, our media should represent us in a good way towards the world. Media
enhance the knowledge of public and communicates all the happenings to the public. Media industry of Pakistan is
growing fast with much potential and seemingly bright future ahead. Media should not use negative tools to increase
their viewership.

i) What is the place of media in Pakistan?

ii) How does media present our country to the world?
iii)What should be role of media?
vi) Identify regular and irregular verbs:
a) grow b) represent c) is d) increase
v) Identify the parts of speech of the italic bold words in sequence.
Q4. Write a formal email to a news channel to produce some motivational TV programs on education.
OR
Write a Report about students’ week held in the college (Including events, days and dates).
Q5. Write a narrative account of an incident that influenced you greatly.
OR
Write an essay to compare and contrast on any one of the following:
i) Public V/S Private Colleges iii) E-learning V/S Classroom learning
ii) City Life V/S Country Life iv) Artificial Intelligence V/S Human Intelligence

Q.6. Draft a covering letter along with a C.V in response to the following advertisement:
“A leading company is looking for an experienced ‘Marketing Manager’. The candidate should have at least five years
experience”.