2

1 Two gas jars are set up as shown.

jar 1 jar 1
air

lid

jar 2 jar 2
brown
gas

before after

The lid is removed and the gas jars are left to stand. After some time the contents of both gas jars
are brown.

Which process causes this to happen?

A condensation
B diffusion
C evaporation
D filtration

2 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure variable quantities of liquid in a titration?

A B C D
 3

3 A sample of a green food colouring was separated into its component colours using paper
chromatography.

The results obtained are shown.

solvent front
yellow spot

blue spot

baseline

What is the Rf value of the blue spot?

A 0.45 B 0.90 C 1.10 D 2.20

4 In which row are the substances correctly classified?

element compound mixture

A brass sulfur water

B sulfur brass water
C sulfur water brass
D water sulfur brass

5 Which molecule contains only single covalent bonds?

A Cl 2 B CO2 C N2 D O2
 4

6 Which structure represents the sodium chloride lattice?

A B

Na– Cl + Na– Cl + + – + –

Cl + Na– Cl + Na– – + – +

Na– Cl + Na– Cl + + – + –

Cl + Na– Cl + Na– – + – +

C D

– – –
– + – + + + + +
– – –
– – – –
+ – + – + + + +
– – – –
–
–
– + – + + + + +
– – – – –
+ – + – + + + +
– – –
–

7 X and Y are isotopes of the same element.

Which statement is correct?

A X and Y have atoms with different numbers of electron shells.

B X and Y have atoms with the same nucleon number.
C X and Y have atoms with the same number of outer shell electrons.
D X and Y have different chemical properties.

8 Which quantities of chemicals will react exactly with no reactants left over?

A 12 g of carbon and 12 g of oxygen

B 12 g of carbon and 48 g of oxygen
C 12 g of magnesium and 16 g of oxygen
D 24 g of magnesium and 16 g of oxygen
 5

9 Magnesium nitride is formed when magnesium burns in air. Magnesium nitride is an ionic
compound.

What is the formula of magnesium nitride?

A MgN2 B Mg2N2 C Mg2N3 D Mg3N2

10 The electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid is shown.

chlorine hydrogen

concentrated
hydrochloric acid
platinum
electrodes

+ –

Which statement describes what happens to the electrons during the electrolysis?

A They are added to chloride ions.

B They are added to hydrogen ions.
C They move through the circuit from positive to negative.
D They move through the solution from negative to positive.

11 Which reaction does not occur in the extraction of aluminium?

A Al 3+ + 3e– → Al

B 2Al 2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2

C 2O2– → O2 + 4e–

D C + O2 → CO2

12 Which substance could not be used as a fuel to heat water in a boiler?

A ethanol
B hydrogen
C methane
D oxygen
 6

13 Which row describes an endothermic reaction?

energy needed to energy released by

temperature
break bonds / kJ forming bonds / kJ

A 400 200 decreases

B 400 800 decreases
C 600 200 increases
D 600 800 increases

14 A reversible reaction is shown.

2NO2(g) N2O4(g) ∆H = –58 kJ / mol

Which statement about an equilibrium mixture of NO2 and N2O4 is correct?

A If the pressure is decreased the amount of N2O4 increases.

B If the temperature is increased the amount of N2O4 increases.
C The rates of formation and decomposition of N2O4 are not the same.
D The decomposition of N2O4 is an endothermic reaction.

15 Which statement about catalysts in chemical reactions is not correct?

A Catalysts are not used up in the reaction.

B Catalysts increase the energy of the reacting particles.
C Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction.
D Catalysts lower the activation energy.

16 Zinc is extracted from zinc blende by roasting it in air to form zinc oxide.

The zinc oxide is then heated with carbon to form zinc.

The equations for the reactions are shown.

1 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

2 ZnO + C → Zn + CO

Which statement about reactions 1 and 2 is not correct?

A In reaction 1 the oxidation state of sulfur increases and it is oxidised.

B In reaction 1 the oxidation state of zinc increases and it is oxidised.
C In reaction 2 the carbon acts as a reducing agent and it is oxidised.
D In reaction 2 the oxidation state of zinc decreases and it is reduced.
 7

17 The diagram shows an energy level diagram for a reaction.

Ea

energy

The diagram shows that the reaction is ......1...... .

Increasing the temperature increases the rate of reaction. A reason for this is that the ......2....... .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A endothermic activation energy decreases

B endothermic collision rate increases
C exothermic activation energy decreases
D exothermic collision rate increases

18 Concentrated hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.

What is meant by the terms ‘strong’ and ‘acid’?

strong acid

A contains a low proportion of water accepts protons

B contains a low proportion of water donates protons
C fully ionised accepts protons
D fully ionised donates protons

19 Which oxide is amphoteric?

A aluminium oxide
B calcium oxide
C carbon monoxide
D sodium oxide
 8

20 A salt is made by adding an excess of an insoluble metal oxide to an acid.

How is the excess metal oxide removed from the mixture?

A chromatography
B crystallisation
C distillation
D filtration

21 A substance is heated with aluminium foil in aqueous sodium hydroxide. A gas is produced which
turns damp, red litmus paper blue.

Which anion is present in the substance?

A carbonate
B iodide
C nitrate
D sulfate

22 An element does not conduct electricity and exists as diatomic molecules.

Where in the Periodic Table is the element found?

A C D
B

23 In the Periodic Table, how does the metallic character of the elements vary from left to right
across a period?

A It decreases.
B It increases.
C It increases then decreases.
D It stays the same.
 9

24 The elements in a group of the Periodic Table show the following trends.

1 The element with the lowest proton number has the lowest reactivity.
2 All the elements in the group form basic oxides.
3 The density of the elements increases down the group.
4 The melting point of the elements decreases down the group.

In which group are the elements found?

A I B IV C VI D VII

25 Brass is an alloy of two metals.

Which row gives a correct use for the two metals from which brass is made?

metal 1 metal 2

A used for electrical wiring used for galvanising steel

B used for galvanising steel used for making aircraft
C used for making aircraft used for making cutlery
D used for making cooking pans used for electrical wiring

26 Iron is extracted from hematite in the blast furnace.

The hematite contains silicon(IV) oxide (sand) as an impurity.

What reacts with this impurity to remove it?

A calcium oxide
B carbon
C carbon dioxide
D slag

27 The reaction below is called the ‘thermite reaction’.

2Al + Fe2O3 → 2Fe + Al 2O3

Which pair of substances reacts in a similar way?

A Fe and MgO
B Fe and ZnO
C Mg and CuO
D Zn and Al 2O3
 10

28 One method of preventing the rusting of iron is to keep oxygen away from the surface of the
metal.

Which way of rust prevention does not use this method?

A coating the iron with grease

B connecting the iron to a more reactive metal
C covering the iron with plastic
D painting the iron

29 The diagram shows how water is treated to make it suitable for drinking.

stage 1 stage 2 stage 3 stage 4

drinking
reservoir chlorination
water

What happens in stage 2?

A condensation
B distillation
C evaporation
D filtration

30 Nitrogen monoxide is produced in a car engine when petrol is burnt.

The gases from the car engine are passed through a catalytic converter.

In the catalytic converter the nitrogen monoxide reacts with carbon monoxide to form nitrogen
and carbon dioxide.

Which statement is not correct?

A Carbon monoxide is oxidised in the catalytic converter.

B Carbon monoxide is produced by the complete combustion of petrol.
C Nitrogen monoxide is formed by the reaction of nitrogen and oxygen.
D Nitrogen monoxide is reduced in the catalytic converter.

31 Which pollutant gas can be produced as a result of incomplete combustion of octane, C8H18?

A carbon
B carbon dioxide
C carbon monoxide
D methane
 11

32 Fertilisers are used to provide three elements needed to increase the yield of crops.

Which two compounds would provide all three of these elements?

A ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate

B ammonium nitrate and potassium sulfate
C potassium nitrate and calcium phosphate
D potassium nitrate and potassium sulfate

33 What is a property of concentrated sulfuric acid but not of dilute sulfuric acid?

A It is a dehydrating agent.
B It neutralises alkalis.
C It produces a white precipitate with barium nitrate.
D It reacts with metals to give a salt and hydrogen.

34 Why does a farmer put lime (calcium oxide) on the soil?

A to act as a fertiliser
B to kill pests
C to make the soil less acidic
D to make the soil less alkaline
 12

35 What is the name of fraction X?

fractions
refinery gas

gasoline

kerosene

diesel oil

lubricating fraction

petroleum

bitumen

A alcohol
B fuel oil
C naphtha
D paraffin

36 Which compounds are alkanes?

compound W X Y Z
formula C4H10 C5H10 C6H12 C6H14

A W and X B W and Z C X and Y D Y and Z

 13

37 The statements below are about the alcohol homologous series.

The alcohols have the same ......1...... formula.

The alcohols have ......2...... chemical properties because they have the same ......3...... .

The melting points of the alcohols ......4...... as the number of carbon atoms increases.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1–4?

1 2 3 4

A general different functional group decrease

B general similar electronic structure increase
C general similar functional group increase
D molecular similar functional group increase

38 Which structure represents a compound that dissolves in water to form an acidic solution?

A B
H H H H H H

H C C C H H C C C

H H H H H

C D
H H H H H H O
H C C C C O H H C C C

H H H H H H O H
 14

39 The partial structure of an addition polymer is shown.

H Cl H H H Cl

C C C C C C

H H H Cl H H

What is the structure of the monomer used to make this polymer?

A B C D

H Cl H Cl Cl H Cl H Cl H

C C C C C C C H C C C H

Cl H H H H H H H

40 Which statement about polymers is correct?

A Addition polymers are all biodegradable.

B Condensation polymers can all be hydrolysed to give amino acids.
C Condensation polymers only exist in nature.
D Forming addition polymers produces only one product.
 2

1 Hydrogen chloride gas, HCl, reacts with ammonia gas, NH3, to form solid ammonium chloride.

The apparatus is set up as shown.

After a few minutes, solid ammonium chloride forms where the two gases meet.

solid ammonium chloride

source of source of
hydrogen chloride gas ammonia gas

The experiment is repeated using hydrogen bromide, HBr, in place of hydrogen chloride.

How far along the tube does the solid ammonium bromide form?

A B C D

source of source of
hydrogen bromide gas ammonia gas

2 Substance L melts at –7 °C and is a brown liquid at room temperature.

Which temperature is the boiling point of pure L?

A –77 °C

B –7 °C to +7 °C

C 59 °C

D 107 °C to 117 °C
 3

3 Chromatography is done on a mixture containing a drug. The drug has an Rf value of 0.66.

The diagram is not drawn to scale.

Which spot on the chromatogram represents the drug?

solvent front

15 cm
12 cm
9.9 cm

C
0.66 cm
baseline D

4 Caesium, Cs, is an element in Group I of the Periodic Table.

When caesium reacts it forms a positive ion, Cs+.

How is a caesium ion formed?

A A caesium atom gains a proton.

B A caesium atom gains an electron.
C A caesium atom loses an electron.
D A caesium atom shares an electron.

5 The structure of copper is described as a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.

Which statements are correct?

1 Copper has a high melting point because of the strong electrostatic attraction
between the positive ions and the ‘sea of electrons’.
2 Copper is malleable because the layers of atoms in the lattice can slide over each
other.
3 Copper atoms can be oxidised to form copper ions by losing electrons.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

 4

6 Three statements about diamond, graphite and silicon(IV) oxide are listed.

1 Diamond and graphite both have giant covalent structures.

2 In silicon(IV) oxide, silicon and oxygen atoms are joined together by covalent bonds
throughout the whole structure.

3 Diamond and silicon(IV) oxide have similar structures.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

7 The concentration of a hydrochloric acid solution is 0.5 mol / dm3.

How many moles of hydrochloric acid are present in 25 cm3 of this solution?

A 0.0125 B 0.0200 C 12.5 D 20.0

8 A sample of an iron oxide contains 50.4 g of iron and 21.6 g of oxygen.

What is the empirical formula of the iron oxide?

A FeO B FeO3 C Fe2O3 D Fe3O2

9 A solution of copper(II) sulfate can be electrolysed using copper electrodes or carbon electrodes.

Which statements are correct?

1 Using copper electrodes, oxygen gas forms at the anode.

2 Using copper electrodes, copper atoms lose electrons at the anode.
3 Using carbon electrodes, copper metal forms at the cathode.
4 Using carbon electrodes, copper ions gain electrons at the cathode.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2, 3 and 4 D 4 only

 5

10 Pairs of metals are connected together to make a simple cell, as shown.

voltmeter
V

metal 1 metal 2

electrolyte

The table shows the reading on the voltmeter when different metals are used.

metal 2
beryllium cerium cobalt manganese

beryllium 0.00 V +0.64 V –1.57 V –0.67 V

metal 1

cerium 0.00 V –2.21 V –1.30 V

cobalt 0.00 V +0.90 V
manganese 0.00 V

If metal 2 is more reactive than metal 1, the voltage measured is positive.

The greater the difference in reactivity of the metals, the larger the reading on the voltmeter.

What is the order of reactivity?

most least
reactive reactive

A cerium beryllium cobalt manganese

B cerium beryllium manganese cobalt
C cobalt manganese beryllium cerium
D cobalt manganese cerium beryllium
 6

11 The energy level diagram for the reaction between X2 and Y2 to form XY gas is shown.

X2(g) + Y2(g)
energy
2XY(g)

progress of reaction

Which statement is correct?

A Energy is released when X2 and Y2 bonds are broken.

B Energy is needed to form XY bonds.

C The energy change, ∆H, for the reaction is negative.

D The reaction is endothermic.

12 Methane burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
C=O +805
O–H +460
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –818 kJ / mol
B –323 kJ / mol
C +323 kJ / mol
D +818 kJ / mol
 7

13 Methanol is made by reacting carbon monoxide with hydrogen. The reaction is reversible.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which combination of temperature and pressure gives the highest equilibrium yield of methanol?

temperature pressure
/ °C / atmospheres

A 200 10
B 200 200
C 600 10
D 600 200

14 The ionic equation for the reaction between zinc and aqueous copper ions is shown.

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A Copper ions are oxidised and their oxidation state changes.

B Copper ions are reduced because they lose electrons.
C Zinc atoms are oxidised and their oxidation state changes.
D Zinc atoms are reduced because they gain electrons.

15 In which reaction is the rate of reaction not affected by light?

A the conversion of carbon dioxide and water to glucose and oxygen in green plants
B the reaction of bromine with ethene
C the reaction of chlorine with methane
D the reduction of silver ions to silver
 8

16 Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form bubbles of carbon dioxide.

At a higher temperature, the same reaction is faster.

Which row explains this observation?

number of molecules with

collision rate
sufficient energy to react

A increases more
B increases the same
C stays the same more
D stays the same the same

17 Ethanoic acid reacts with water to produce an acidic solution.

Which row describes the roles of ethanoic acid and water in this reaction?

ethanoic acid water

A accepts a proton donates a proton

B accepts an electron donates an electron
C donates a proton accepts a proton
D donates an electron accepts an electron

18 A solution of compound Z gives a light blue precipitate with aqueous ammonia. The precipitate
dissolves in an excess of ammonia.

A flame test is done on compound Z.

What is the colour of the flame?

A blue-green
B lilac
C red
D yellow

19 Carbon, copper, magnesium, sodium and sulfur can all form oxides.

How many of these elements form acidic oxides?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
 9

20 Which method is used to make the salt copper(II) sulfate?

A dilute acid + alkali

B dilute acid + carbonate
C dilute acid + metal
D dilute acid + non-metal oxide

21 The Periodic Table lists all the known elements.

Elements are arranged in order of ....... 1 ....... number.

The melting points of Group I elements ....... 2 ....... down the group.

The melting points of Group VII elements ....... 3 ....... down the group.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A nucleon decrease increase

B nucleon increase decrease
C proton decrease increase
D proton increase decrease

22 Metal X reacts with non-metal Y to form an ionic compound with the formula X2Y.

Which statements are correct?

1 X is in Group I of the Periodic Table.

2 X is in Group II of the Periodic Table.
3 Y is in Group VI of the Periodic Table.
4 Y is in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

 10

23 Which statements about Group I and Group VII elements are correct?

1 In Group I, lithium is more reactive than potassium.

2 In Group VII, chlorine is more reactive than fluorine.

statement 1 statement 2

A  
B  
C  
D  

24 Which two properties are physical properties of all pure metals?

property 1 property 2

A brittle poor conductor of heat

B good conductor of electricity malleable
C good conductor of heat low melting point
D malleable low density

25 Aluminium is extracted from aluminium oxide using electrolysis.

Carbon dioxide is formed in this process.

Which equation shows the formation of carbon dioxide during the extraction of aluminium from
aluminium oxide by electrolysis?

A Al 2(CO3)3 → Al 2O3 + 3CO2

B Al 2O3 + 3CO → 2Al + 3CO2

C C + O2 → CO2

D C4+ + 2O2– → CO2

26 A sample of solid X was added to three different solutions to predict the position of X in the
reactivity series.

X(s) + FeSO4(aq) → no reaction

X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl 2(aq) + H2(g)

X(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) → no reaction

Which other solution would react with solid X?

A CaSO4(aq) B CuSO4(aq) C MgSO4(aq) D Na2SO4(aq)

 11

27 Which statement about the uses of aluminium, copper and iron is correct?

A Aluminium is used for aircraft manufacture because it has a high density.

B Aluminium is used for food containers because it is a good conductor of electricity.
C Copper is used for cooking utensils because it is a good conductor of heat.
D Stainless steel is used for car bodies because it corrodes easily.

28 Air is a mixture of gases.

The melting and boiling points of some gases present in clean, dry air are shown.

In the fractional distillation of liquid air, which gas boils first?

gas melting point / °C boiling point / °C

A argon –189 –186

B krypton –157 –153
C nitrogen –210 –196
D oxygen –219 –183

29 Water must be purified before it is suitable for use in the home.

Which processes are used to remove solid impurities and to kill bacteria?

to remove to kill
solid impurities bacteria

A chlorination chlorination
B chlorination filtration
C filtration chlorination
D filtration filtration

30 Which processes do not produce carbon dioxide?

1 heating limestone
2 burning gasoline in car engines
3 photosynthesis
4 production of nylon

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

 12

31 Which pair of compounds would make an NPK fertiliser?

A ammonium sulfate and potassium phosphate

B calcium hydroxide and ammonium nitrate
C calcium phosphate and potassium chloride
D potassium nitrate and ammonium sulfate

32 Which pollutant gas is produced by the decomposition of vegetation?

A carbon monoxide
B methane
C nitrogen dioxide
D sulfur dioxide

33 The equation for the formation of sulfur trioxide from sulfur dioxide is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which combination of pressure and temperature gives the highest equilibrium yield of
sulfur trioxide?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low
 13

34 The diagram shows the pH values of the soil in two parts of a garden, X and Y.

X Y
pH 7.0 pH 5.5

Lime is used to neutralise the soil in one part of the garden.

To which part of the garden should the lime be added and why?

part of the garden because lime is

A X acidic
B X basic
C Y acidic
D Y basic

35 Statement 1 Hydrogen is used as a fuel.

Statement 2 When hydrogen burns in the air to form water, heat energy is produced.

Which is correct?

A Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.

B Both statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
C Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
D Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.

36 Which row identifies compounds in the same homologous series?

chemical functional
properties group

A different different
B different same
C similar different
D similar same
 14

37 Three chemical reactions are shown.

1 catalytic addition of steam to ethene

2 combustion of ethanol
3 fermentation of glucose

In which of the reactions does the relative molecular mass of the carbon-containing compound
decrease?

A 1 and 2 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 3 only

38 How is ethanol produced by fermentation?

A using anaerobic conditions at 30 °C

B using anaerobic conditions at 450 °C

C using steam at 30 °C

D using steam at 450 °C

39 Which substances react together to form ethyl propanoate?

A ethanoic acid and propanol

B ethanol and propene
C ethene and propanol
D propanoic acid and ethanol

40 The structure of a chlorofluorocarbon polymer is shown.

CH3 Cl CH3 Cl

C C C C

H F H F

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D
CH3 Cl H Cl CH3 F CH3 H

C C C C C C C C

F H CH3 F Cl H Cl F
 2

1 Pure water boils at 100 °C.

What happens to the water particles when water boils?

A They gain energy and move further apart.

B They gain energy and stay close together.
C They lose energy and move further apart.
D They lose energy and stay close together.

2 Which method should be used to separate a mixture of two liquids?

A crystallisation
B electrolysis
C filtration
D fractional distillation

3 Lead(II) iodide is insoluble in water.

Lead(II) iodide is made by adding aqueous lead(II) nitrate to aqueous potassium iodide.

Which pieces of apparatus are needed to obtain solid lead(II) iodide from 20 cm3 of aqueous
lead(II) nitrate?

1 2 3 4 5

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 3 and 5 C 1, 4 and 5 D 2, 4 and 5

 3

4 The chromatogram of substance S is shown.

Some distances, W, X, Y and Z, are labelled on the diagram.

solvent front

substance S

W X Y Z

baseline

solvent level

How is the Rf value of substance S calculated?

A X B W C Y D Y
Y Z X W

5 Which row describes isotopes of the same element?

number of protons number of neutrons

A different different
B different same
C same different
D same same

6 Which row describes the structure of the positive ion in sodium chloride?

protons electrons neutrons

A 11 11 12
B 11 10 12
C 17 17 18
D 17 18 18
 4

7 Which statement about copper, diamond and silicon(IV) oxide is correct?

A Copper and silicon(IV) oxide have similar electrical conductivity.

B In diamond the carbon atoms are covalently bonded as flat sheets.

C In silicon(IV) oxide the silicon and oxygen atoms are covalently bonded as flat sheets.

D The structure of copper includes a lattice of positive ions.

8 An oxide of nitrogen has the following composition by mass: N, 30.4%; O, 69.6%.

It has a relative molecular mass of 92.

What is the molecular formula of the oxide of nitrogen?

A NO B NO2 C NO4 D N2O4

9 Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid according to the equation shown.

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + CO2 + H2O

10 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with 100 cm3 of 1 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid.

The following statements are made.

1 1.2 dm3 of carbon dioxide is formed.

2 5.6 g of calcium chloride is formed.
3 4.8 g of carbon dioxide is formed.
4 No calcium carbonate is left when the reaction is completed.

Which statements about the reaction are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

10 Which substance is not produced during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous

sodium chloride?

A chlorine
B hydrogen
C sodium
D sodium hydroxide
 5

11 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that occur at each electrode?

anode cathode

A Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu

B Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu Cu → Cu2+ + 2e–
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
D 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2

12 10 g of ammonium nitrate is added to water at 25 °C and the mixture stirred.

The ammonium nitrate dissolves and, after one minute, the temperature of the solution is 10 °C.

Which word describes this change?

A endothermic
B exothermic
C neutralisation
D reduction

13 Hydrogen reacts with chlorine according to the following equation.

H2(g) + Cl 2(g) → 2HCl (g)

The reaction is exothermic.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A Energy absorbed for bond breaking is greater than the energy released in bond making.
B Energy absorbed for bond breaking is less than the energy released in bond making.
C Energy released in bond breaking is greater than the energy absorbed in bond making.
D Energy released in bond breaking is less than the energy absorbed in bond making.
 6

14 Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells can be used to power cars. Platinum is used as a catalyst.

The amount of energy produced per gram is shown for three fuels.

energy produced
fuel
per g of fuel / kJ

hydrogen 143
methane 55
petrol 44

Which statement is correct and is an advantage of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

A Hydrogen is difficult to store.

B Hydrogen produces less energy per gram than methane or petrol.
C Platinum is rare and expensive.
D The only product is water.

15 A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid at two different temperatures to two different lumps of
limestone. The lumps of limestone have the same mass.

The carbon dioxide gas produced is collected in a gas syringe.

The volume of carbon dioxide collected in 1 minute at each temperature is shown.

volume of carbon dioxide

temperature / °C
produced in 1 minute / cm3

25 10
50 40

Which row describes and explains the results obtained at 50 °C compared with 25 °C?

reaction rate energy of collisions

A higher lower
B higher higher
C lower lower
D lower higher
 7

16 Which reaction is reversible?

A Cu + ZnSO4 → CuSO4 + Zn

B CuO + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O

C CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

D CuSO4•5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O

17 Some nitrogen dioxide gas was put in a gas syringe. The end of the gas syringe is sealed.

A reversible reaction occurs. The reaction reaches equilibrium.

2NO2(g) N2O4(g)
dark brown light yellow

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A If the gas syringe is placed in a cold water bath, the colour becomes darker.
B If the gas syringe is placed in a hot water bath, the colour becomes lighter.
C If the volume in the gas syringe is increased, the colour becomes lighter.
D If the volume in the gas syringe is decreased, the colour becomes lighter.

18 The reaction between magnesium and carbon dioxide is shown in the equation.

2Mg + CO2 → 2MgO + C

Which statement describes what happens in this reaction?

A Carbon is oxidised.
B Magnesium is reduced.
C Neither oxidation nor reduction happens.
D The carbon in carbon dioxide is reduced.

19 Which changes involve reduction?

1 2I– → I2 + 2e–

2 CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

3 Al 3+ + 3e– → Al

4 Pb2+ + SO42– → PbSO4

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

 8

20 Barium hydroxide is an alkali. It reacts with hydrochloric acid.

How does the pH of the hydrochloric acid change as an excess of aqueous barium hydroxide is
added?

A The pH decreases from pH 14 and becomes constant at pH 7.

B The pH decreases from pH 14 to about pH 1.
C The pH increases from pH 1 and becomes constant at pH 7.
D The pH increases from pH 1 to about pH 14.

21 Which statement describes a chemical property of aluminium oxide, Al 2O3?

A It reacts with acids but not with bases.

B It reacts with acids and bases.
C It reacts with bases but not with acids.
D It reacts with water.

22 The results of two tests on an aqueous solution of X are shown.

test observation

aqueous sodium hydroxide added green precipitate formed

acidified aqueous silver nitrate added yellow precipitate formed

What is X?

A copper(II) chloride

B copper(II) iodide

C iron(II) chloride

D iron(II) iodide
 9

23 Four stages used to prepare an insoluble salt are listed.

1 drying
2 filtration
3 precipitation
4 washing

In which order are the stages done?

A 2→1→3→4

B 3→2→4→1

C 3→4→1→2

D 4→3→2→1

24 The elements sodium to argon form Period 3 of the Periodic Table.

Which row describes the trend across Period 3 from left to right?

number of outer metallic

group number
shell electrons character

A decreases decreases decreases

B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases increases
D increases increases increases

25 Astatine is below iodine in Group VII in the Periodic Table.

Which row describes the properties of astatine?

state at room
reactivity
temperature

A gas displaces chlorine, bromine and iodine

B gas displaces iodine but does not displace chlorine or bromine
C solid displaces iodine but does not displace chlorine or bromine
D solid does not displace chlorine, bromine or iodine
 10

26 Which statement explains why elements in Group VIII of the Periodic Table are unreactive?

A They are monatomic gases.

B They form stable diatomic molecules.
C They have a full outer shell of electrons.
D They share electrons with each other.

27 In which reaction does Fe(s) form ions when the mixture is heated?

A Fe(s) + CaO(s)
B Fe(s) + MgO(s)
C Fe(s) + ZnO(s)
D Fe(s) + CuO(s)

28 The list gives the order of some metals and hydrogen in the reactivity series.

Metal X is also included.

most reactive K
Mg
Zn
H
X
least reactive Cu

Which row correctly shows the properties of metal X?

reacts with oxide reduced

dilute acids by carbon

A no no
B no yes
C yes no
D yes yes
 11

29 Which metal carbonate does not produce carbon dioxide when it is heated?

A copper(II) carbonate

B iron(II) carbonate

C potassium carbonate
D zinc carbonate

30 Which statement about the extraction of metals is correct?

A Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of hematite.

B Cryolite acts as a reducing agent in the extraction of aluminium.
C Zinc is extracted by the electrolysis of zinc blende.
D Zinc is obtained by heating zinc oxide with coke.

31 The diagram shows how water is treated to make it suitable for drinking.

stage 1 stage 2 stage 3 stage 4

reservoir drinking
chlorination
of water water

What happens in stage 2?

A condensation
B sublimation
C evaporation
D filtration

32 What are the main substances produced by the fractional distillation of liquid air?

A oxygen and carbon dioxide

B oxygen and nitrogen
C helium and nitrogen
D hydrogen and oxygen
 12

33 The raw materials for the Haber process are hydrogen and nitrogen.

What are the sources of the hydrogen and nitrogen?

A hydrogen from ethanol and nitrogen from NPK fertilisers

B hydrogen from methane and nitrogen from air
C hydrogen from sulfuric acid and nitrogen from air
D hydrogen from water and nitrogen from ammonium nitrate

34 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the Earth’s atmosphere?

A combustion
B heating limestone
C photosynthesis
D respiration

35 The Contact process is used to make sulfuric acid.

The steps in the process are listed.

1 Dissolve sulfur trioxide in 98% concentrated sulfuric acid.

2 Heat sulfur strongly in air.
3 Add oleum to water.

4 Pass sulfur dioxide over a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.

Which sequence of steps is correct?

A 4→1→2→3

B 4→2→3→1

C 2→1→4→3

D 2→4→1→3
 13

36 The fractional distillation of petroleum is shown.

refinery gas

gasoline fraction

paraffin fraction

diesel oil

lubricating fraction
petroleum

bitumen

Which fraction is the least volatile?

A bitumen
B diesel oil
C gasoline fraction
D refinery gas

37 Which statement about members of a homologous series is correct?

A Successive members differ by CH3.

B Successive members have a molecular mass that differs by 14.
C They have the same molecular formula.
D They have identical physical properties.

38 Ethanol is manufactured on a large scale by fermentation.

Which statement about fermentation is correct?

A It is a continuous process.
B A renewable raw material is used.
C It is a very fast reaction.
D The ethanol produced is pure.
 14

39 The structure of a compound, G, is shown.

G is in the same homologous series as ethanoic acid.

H H O

H C C C O H

H H

Which row describes some of the properties of an aqueous solution of G?

produces a gas turns methyl orange

with magnesium yellow

A no yes
B no no
C yes no
D yes yes

40 Which statement about polymers is correct?

O
A Nylon contains the C N linkage.

H
B Nylon is a polyester.
C Propane can be polymerised by addition polymerisation.
D The linkage in Terylene contains a carbon-carbon double bond.
 2

1 The particles of a substance gain energy and change from a regular ordered structure to a
disordered structure with large distances between the particles.

Which change of state is described?

A boiling
B evaporation
C melting
D sublimation

2 In the chromatography experiment shown, which label represents the solvent front?

3 X is a mixture of colourless compounds. The diagram shows a chromatogram of X and of three

pure compounds, P, Q and R.

X P Q R

Which statement is not correct?

A A locating agent was used to develop the chromatogram of X.

B P and R could be present in X.
C P and R have different solubilities in the solvent.
D Q has a greater Rf value than R.
 3

4 Which statements about isotopes of the same element are correct?

1 They are atoms which have the same chemical properties because they have the
same number of electrons in their outer shell.
2 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and neutrons but
different numbers of protons.
3 They are atoms which have the same number of electrons and protons but different
numbers of neutrons.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

5 The table shows the electronic structure of four atoms.

atom electronic structure

W 2,8,1
X 2,8,4
Y 2,8,7
Z 2,8,8

Which two atoms combine to form a covalent compound?

A W and X B W and Y C X and Y D X and Z

6 Which statement describes the attractive forces between molecules (intermolecular forces)?

A They are strong covalent bonds which hold molecules together.

B They are strong ionic bonds which hold molecules together.
C They are weak forces formed between covalently-bonded molecules.
D They are weak forces which hold ions together in a lattice.

7 Metals consist of a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.

Why is aluminium malleable?

A Its ions are attracted to the ‘sea of electrons’.

B Its ions are tightly packed together.
C Its ions repel each other.
D Its layers of ions can slide over each other.
 4

8 A sample of 16.0 g of a metal oxide, MO, is reduced to 12.8 g of the metal, M.

What is the relative atomic mass, Ar, of M?

A 32 B 64 C 80 D 128

9 The equation for the reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid is shown.

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl 2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

How many moles of calcium carbonate will give 24 cm3 of carbon dioxide when reacted with an
excess of the acid?

A 1 mol B 0.1 mol C 0.01 mol D 0.001 mol

10 The diagram shows the electrolysis of molten zinc chloride, ZnCl 2.

electrode X + – electrode Y

molten zinc
chloride

Which statement is correct?

A Oxidation occurs at electrode X and the equation is: 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–.

B Oxidation occurs at electrode Y and the equation is: Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn.

C Reduction occurs at electrode X and the equation is: Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn.

D Reduction occurs at electrode Y and the equation is: 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–.

 5

11 The diagram shows some properties that substances may have.

To which labelled part of the diagram does 235U belong?

used as
compound A an energy
source
C
B D

radioactive

12 The diagram shows a simple cell.

flow of electrons

wire

metal X metal Y

dilute
sulfuric acid

For which pair of metals would electrons flow from metal X to metal Y?

X Y

A copper iron
B copper zinc
C iron zinc
D zinc iron
 6

13 The energy level diagram for the combustion of methane is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g)

energy energy change

CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Which row gives the equation and energy change for this reaction?

equation energy change in kJ / mol

A CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) +891

B CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) –891
C CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(I) +891
D CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(I) –891
 7

14 A liquid X reacts with solid Y to form a gas.

Which two diagrams show suitable methods for investigating the rate (speed) of the reaction?

1 2
cotton wool cotton wool

X X
Y Y

balance

3 4
stopper stopper

X X
Y Y

balance

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

15 Which row describes how the energy of collision between particles changes when concentration
and temperature are increased?

concentration temperature

A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change
 8

16 Methanol is made by reacting carbon monoxide with hydrogen.

The reaction is exothermic and is a chemical equilibrium.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

Which changes in temperature and pressure increase the yield of methanol?

temperature pressure

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

17 Which equation represents a reduction reaction?

A Fe2+ + e– → Fe3+

B Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–

C Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+

D Fe3+ → Fe2+ + e–

18 Which statements are properties of an acid?

1 reacts with ammonium sulfate to form ammonia

2 turns red litmus blue

1 2

A  
B  
C  
D  
 9

19 Which row describes whether an amphoteric oxide reacts with acids and bases?

reacts with acids reacts with bases

A no no
B no yes
C yes no
D yes yes

20 Silver chloride is insoluble in water and is prepared by precipitation.

Which two substances can be used to make silver chloride?

A barium chloride and silver nitrate

B hydrochloric acid and silver
C hydrochloric acid and silver bromide
D sodium chloride and silver iodide

21 Where in the Periodic Table is the metallic character of the elements greatest?

left or right at the top or bottom

side of a period of a group

A left bottom
B left top
C right bottom
D right top

22 Rubidium is a Group I metal.

Which statement about rubidium is not correct?

A It has a higher melting point than lithium.

B It has one electron in its outer shell.
C It reacts vigorously with water.
D It reacts with chlorine to form rubidium chloride, RbCl .
 10

23 The table gives information about four elements, P, Q, R and S.

melting point electrical conductivity colour of iodide

density in g / cm3
in °C of element when solid of element

P 98 good 0.97 white

Q –39 good 13.53 red
R 1410 poor 2.33 colourless
S 1535 good 7.87 green

Which elements could be transition elements?

A P, Q and S B Q and S only C R and S only D S only

24 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element is a gas that does not form a compound with potassium?

A B
C D

25 Some magnesium compounds undergo thermal decomposition.

What are the products of thermal decomposition of magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO3)2, and
magnesium hydroxide, Mg(OH)2?

Mg(NO3)2 Mg(OH)2

A MgO, NO2 and O2 MgO and H2O

B MgO, NO2 and O2 MgO and H2
C Mg(NO2)2 and O2 MgO and H2O
D Mg(NO2)2 and O2 MgO and H2

26 Which property is not considered a typical metallic property?

A good conductor of heat

B low melting point
C malleable (can be hammered into shape)
D strong
 11

27 Iron from a blast furnace is treated with oxygen and with calcium oxide to make steel.

Which substances in the iron are removed?

calcium oxide
oxygen removes
removes

A carbon acidic oxides

B carbon basic oxides
C iron acidic oxides
D iron basic oxides

28 Why is cryolite used during the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis?

A It is a catalyst for the reaction.

B It lowers the melting point of the electrolyte.
C It protects the anodes.
D It separates the aluminium from the electrolyte.

29 The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

P Q
iron painted iron

air

water

What happens to the water level in tubes P and Q?

tube P tube Q

A falls rises
B no change rises
C rises falls
D rises no change
 12

30 A new planet has been discovered and its atmosphere has been analysed.

atmosphere

planet

The table shows the composition of its atmosphere.

gas percentage by volume

carbon dioxide 4
nitrogen 72
oxygen 24

Which gases are present in the atmosphere of the planet in a higher percentage than they are in
the Earth’s atmosphere?

A carbon dioxide and oxygen

B carbon dioxide only
C nitrogen and oxygen
D nitrogen only

31 The gases coming from a car’s engine contain oxides of nitrogen.

How are these oxides formed?

A Nitrogen reacts with carbon dioxide.

B Nitrogen reacts with carbon monoxide.
C Nitrogen reacts with oxygen.
D Nitrogen reacts with petrol.
 13

32 Ammonia is manufactured by a reversible reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

What is the effect of increasing the pressure on the percentage yield and rate of formation of
ammonia?

rate of
percentage yield
formation

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

33 The Contact process is used for the manufacture of sulfuric acid.

Which statement about this process is not correct?

A A catalyst of iron is used.

B Oxygen from the air is used to react with sulfur dioxide.
C Sulfur trioxide dissolves in sulfuric acid to form oleum.

D The temperature used is around 450 °C.

34 Lime (calcium oxide) is used to treat waste water from a factory.

Which substance is removed by the lime?

A ammonia
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sulfuric acid
 14

35 The diagram shows the separation of petroleum into fractions.

gasoline

petroleum Z

bitumen

What could X, Y and Z represent?

X Y Z

A diesel oil lubricating fraction paraffin

B lubricating fraction diesel oil paraffin
C paraffin lubricating fraction diesel oil
D paraffin diesel oil lubricating fraction

36 Which compound is not an alkane, CnH2n+2?

A CH3CH2CH2CH3
B (CH3)2CHCH3
C CH3CHCHCH3
D (CH3)3CH

37 An ester is formed when a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol.

Which ester is formed when propanoic acid and ethanol react?

A CH3CO2CH2CH3
B CH3CO2CH2CH2CH3
C CH3CH2CO2CH3
D CH3CH2CO2CH2CH3
 15

38 What is an advantage of producing ethanol by fermentation of sugar compared to the catalytic

addition of steam to ethene?

A The alcohol produced is purer.

B The process is faster.
C The process uses high temperature.
D The process uses renewable raw materials.

39 In which row are the monomer and polymer chain correctly matched?

monomer part of the polymer chain

A CH3CH=CHCH3 –CH(CH3)–CH(CH3)–CH(CH3)–CH(CH3)–
B CH2=CHCl –CHCl –CHCl –CHCl –CHCl –
C CH3CH=CH2 –CH3–CH–CH2–CH3–CH–CH2–
D CH2=CHCH2CH3 –CH2–CH2–CH2–CH(CH2CH3)–

40 Which two polymers have the same linkages bonding the monomers together?

A nylon and complex carbohydrate

B nylon and protein
C Terylene and complex carbohydrate
D Terylene and protein
 2

1 A gas is released at point X in the apparatus shown.

damp Universal Indicator paper

Which gas turns the damp Universal Indicator paper red most quickly?

A ammonia, NH3
B chlorine, Cl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D sulfur dioxide, SO2

2 A chromatography experiment was done to separate a mixture of four substances.

The Rf values measured for these substances were 0.3, 0.5, 0.8 and 0.8.

Which diagram shows the chromatogram obtained?

A B C D

solvent front

baseline

3 Which piece of apparatus cannot be used to collect and measure the volume of gas produced in
an experiment?

A burette
B gas syringe
C measuring cylinder
D pipette
 3

4 The ‘lead’ in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay.

‘lead’

When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil slides across the paper more easily.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Graphite has a high melting point.

B Graphite is a form of carbon.
C Graphite is a lubricant.
D Graphite is a non-metal.

5 Which pair shows particles with the same chemical properties?

23 23 +
A 11 M and 11M

23 24
B 11 M and 11M

23 23
C 11 M and 12 M

24 + 24 +
D 11M and 12 M

6 Which substances have similar structures?

A diamond and graphite

B diamond and silicon(IV) oxide

C graphite and poly(ethene)

D graphite and silicon(IV) oxide

7 Which substance is not a macromolecule?

A diamond
B graphite

C silicon(IV) oxide

D sulfur
 4

8 The equation for the reaction between potassium carbonate and nitric acid is shown.

K2CO3 + 2HNO3 → 2KNO3 + H2O + CO2

Which volume of carbon dioxide is produced from 69 g of potassium carbonate?

A 6 dm3 B 12 dm3 C 24 dm3 D 48 dm3

9 A solution of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, has a concentration of 0.03 mol / dm3.

Which mass of sodium carbonate is dissolved in 1 dm3 of this solution?

A 1.06 g B 3.18 g C 10.60 g D 31.80 g

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which statement about the electrolysis is not correct?

A An oxidation reaction occurs at the positive electrode.

B The current is carried through the electrolyte by ions.
C The negative electrode gains mass.

D The number of copper(II) ions in the electrolyte decreases.

11 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that take place at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–

B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
D 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O 2H+ + 2e– → H2
 5

12 Which diagram is a correctly labelled energy level diagram for an endothermic reaction?

A B

products products

overall
activation
energy energy
overall energy energy
change activation
energy
energy
change
reactants reactants

progress of reaction progress of reaction

C D

activation
reactants reactants energy

overall activation overall

energy energy energy
energy energy
change change

products products

progress of reaction progress of reaction

13 The equation for the complete combustion of methane is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
C=O +805
O–H +460
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –818 kJ / mol B –359 kJ / mol C –323 kJ / mol D +102 kJ / mol

 6

14 Which row describes the effects of increasing both concentration and temperature on the
collisions between reacting particles?

increasing concentration increasing temperature

A more collisions per second only more collisions per second only
B more collisions per second and more more collisions per second only
collisions with sufficient energy to react
C more collisions per second only more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react
D more collisions per second and more more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react collisions with sufficient energy to react

15 Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen at 2 atmospheres pressure. The forward reaction is exothermic.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The reaction reaches equilibrium. The pressure is then doubled.

How and why does the amount of sulfur trioxide formed change?

amount of sulfur trioxide reason

A decreases the forward reaction is exothermic

B decreases there are fewer molecules on the right
C increases the forward reaction is exothermic
D increases there are fewer molecules on the right

16 Iron(II) chloride solution reacts with chlorine gas.

The equation is shown.

2FeCl 2(aq) + Cl 2(g) → 2FeCl 3(aq)

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe3+ ions.

2 Chlorine acts as a reducing agent.
3 Fe2+ ions each lose an electron.
4 Cl 2 molecules are reduced to Cl – ions.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

 7

17 Which statement about oxides is correct?

A A solution of magnesium oxide has a pH less than pH 7.

B A solution of sulfur dioxide has a pH greater than pH 7.
C Magnesium oxide reacts with nitric acid to make a salt.
D Sulfur dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

18 Which statement about acids and bases is correct?

A A base is a donor of hydrogen ions.

B An acid is an acceptor of protons.
C A strong acid is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D A weak acid cannot be used to neutralise a strong base.

19 The solubility of some salts is shown.

chloride nitrate sulfate carbonate

barium soluble soluble insoluble insoluble

lead(II) insoluble soluble insoluble insoluble
potassium soluble soluble soluble soluble
zinc soluble soluble soluble insoluble

Which two aqueous solutions produce an insoluble salt when mixed together?

A barium chloride and zinc nitrate

B barium nitrate and lead(II) nitrate

C lead(II) nitrate and potassium carbonate

D potassium nitrate and zinc sulfate

20 Which methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulfate and copper(II) sulfate?

1 reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
2 reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
3 reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

 8

21 Which statement about the Periodic Table is correct?

A Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shells.
B It contains elements arranged in order of increasing proton number.
C Metals are on the right and non-metals are on the left.
D The most reactive elements are at the bottom of every group.

22 Chlorine, bromine and iodine are elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement about these elements is not correct?

A The colour gets darker down the group.

B The density increases down the group.
C They are all gases at room temperature and pressure.
D They are all non-metals.

23 Which row describes the properties of a transition element?

property 1 property 2

A forms colourless compounds acts as a catalyst

B forms colourless compounds low electrical conductivity
C high density acts as a catalyst
D high density low electrical conductivity

24 Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and other metals.

Which row is correct?

stainless steel resists

stainless steel is
corrosion better than
harder than pure iron
pure iron

A  
B  
C  
D  
 9

25 Metal X is more reactive than metal Y. Metal Y is more reactive than metal Z.

Which statement is correct?

A When metal X is placed in a solution of Y sulfate, there is no reaction.

B When metal X is placed in a solution of Z sulfate, a reaction occurs.
C When metal Y is placed in a solution of Z sulfate, there is no reaction.
D When metal Z is placed in a solution of X sulfate, a reaction occurs.

26 Which statement about the industrial extraction of zinc is correct?

A Cryolite is added to lower the melting point.

B Molten zinc oxide is electrolysed.
C Zinc oxide is heated with coke.
D Zinc sulfide is heated with coke.

27 Which row describes the use of an alloy and the property upon which the use depends?

alloy use property

A mild steel cutlery resistant to corrosion

B mild steel machinery strong
C stainless steel cutlery low density
D stainless steel machinery good conductor of electricity

28 Dry air is passed over hot copper until all the oxygen has reacted.

dry air copper

heat

The volume of gas at the end of the reaction is 120 cm3.

What is the starting volume of dry air?

A 132 cm3 B 152 cm3 C 180 cm3 D 570 cm3

 10

29 A steel bicycle which had been left outdoors for several months was starting to rust.

What would not reduce the rate of corrosion?

A Remove the rust and paint the bicycle.

B Remove the rust and store the bicycle in a dry shed.
C Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with a clean, damp cloth.
D Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with an oily cloth.

30 Which statements about water are correct?

1 Household water contains dissolved salts.

2 Water for household use is filtered to remove soluble impurities.
3 Water is treated with chlorine to kill bacteria.
4 Water is used in industry for cooling.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

31 Ammonia is manufactured by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen in the Haber process.

Which row describes the sources of hydrogen and nitrogen and the conditions used in the
manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process?

source of source of temperature of pressure of

hydrogen nitrogen reaction / °C reaction / atm

A air natural gas 250 2

B air natural gas 250 200
C natural gas air 450 2
D natural gas air 450 200

32 Which statements about the carbon cycle are correct?

1 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by respiration.

2 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by combustion of coal.
3 Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

 11

33 Which row describes the uses of sulfur and sulfur dioxide?

sulfur sulfur dioxide

A extraction of aluminium food preservative

B extraction of aluminium water treatment
C manufacture of sulfuric acid food preservative
D manufacture of sulfuric acid water treatment

34 Limestone is used in many industrial processes.

In which process is it not used?

A manufacture of alkenes
B manufacture of cement
C manufacture of iron
D manufacture of lime

35 What is not the correct use of the fraction named?

name of fraction use

A fuel oil making waxes

B gas oil fuel in diesel engines
C kerosene jet fuel
D naphtha making chemicals

36 Which statement about alkenes is not correct?

A They decolourise aqueous bromine.

B They only contain the elements carbon and hydrogen.
C They react with hydrogen to form alkanes.
D They react with steam to produce carboxylic acids.

37 Which substances can be obtained by cracking hydrocarbons?

A ethanol and ethene

B ethanol and hydrogen
C ethene and hydrogen
D ethene and poly(ethene)
 12

38 Two processes used for the large-scale production of ethanol are shown.

process 1 A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is used to produce

ethanol.
process 2 A compound containing carbon and hydrogen only is used to produce
ethanol.

Which statement is correct?

A Process 1 uses a renewable starting material.

B Process 1 is done at a very high temperature.
C Process 2 involves fermentation.
D Process 2 is done at room temperature.

39 What is the name of the organic product of the reaction shown?

CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH →

A ethyl ethanoate
B ethyl methanoate
C methyl ethanoate
D methyl propanoate

40 Which two compounds react together to form a condensation polymer?

A HOCH2CH2OH and CH3COOH

B HOCH2CH2OH and CH3NH2
C HOCH2CH2OH and H2NCH2CH2NH2
D HOCH2CH2OH and HOOCCH2CH2COOH
 2

1 The apparatus shown is set up. After 20 minutes a white ring of ammonium chloride is seen at
position Y.

cotton wool soaked in cotton wool soaked in

concentrated concentrated
ammonia solution hydrochloric acid
Y

white ring of
ammonium chloride

Which statement about the molecules of ammonia and hydrogen chloride is correct?

A Molecules in ammonia have a larger Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more slowly.
B Molecules in ammonia have a larger Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more quickly.
C Molecules in ammonia have a smaller Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more slowly.
D Molecules in ammonia have a smaller Mr than molecules of hydrogen chloride and so they
move more quickly.

2 A student measures 25.00 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid accurately.

Which apparatus is most suitable?

A beaker
B measuring cylinder
C burette
D dropping pipette
 3

3 The chromatogram of solutions of two metal ions, P and Q, is shown.

solvent front

baseline

P is coloured. A locating agent is used to find the position of Q.

The Rf value of each solution is calculated.

P is a ......1...... element and has an Rf value ......2...... than that

of Q.

Which words complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A non-transition greater
B non-transition smaller
C transition greater
D transition smaller

31
4 What is an isotope of 15 E ?

31 33 31 33
A 14 E B 15 E C 16 E D 16 E

5 Which row describes the formation of single covalent bonds in methane?

A atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms gain a

noble gas electronic structure
B atoms share a pair of electrons both atoms have the same number
of electrons in their outer shell
C electrons are transferred from one both atoms gain a
atom to another noble gas electronic structure
D electrons are transferred from one both atoms have the same number
atom to another of electrons in their outer shell
 4

6 Which statement describes the structure of an ionic compound?

A It is a giant lattice of oppositely charged ions.

B It is a giant lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea’ of electrons.
C It is a giant molecule of oppositely charged ions.
D It is a simple molecule of oppositely charged ions.

7 Calcium metal reacts with water to form a solution of calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Which equation is correct?

A Ca(s) + H2O(aq) → CaOH(aq) + H(g)

B Ca(s) + 2H2O(aq) → Ca(OH)2(s) + 2H2(g)

C Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

D Ca(s) + H2O(l) → CaOH(l) + H(g)

8 25.0 cm3 of 0.100 mol / dm3 aqueous sodium hydroxide is neutralised by 24.6 cm3 of dilute
sulfuric acid.

What is the concentration of the dilute sulfuric acid?

A 0.0508 mol / dm3

B 0.0984 mol / dm3
C 0.102 mol / dm3
D 0.203 mol / dm3
 5

9 The diagram shows the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of X using inert electrodes.

power
supply

– +

aqueous
solution of X

Hydrogen is produced at the cathode and chlorine is produced at the anode.

What is X?

A concentrated copper(II) chloride solution

B concentrated hydrochloric acid

C dilute hydrochloric acid
D dilute sodium chloride solution

10 Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis as shown.

graphite anode

steel case

– + + –
aluminium oxide
dissolved in molten cryolite

graphite cathode

molten aluminium

Which row shows the ionic half-equations at the cathode and the anode?

cathode anode

A Al 3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2– → O2 + 4e–

B Al 3+ → Al + 3e– 2O2– + 4e– → O2
C Al 3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2– → O2 + 4e–
D Al 3+ + 3e– → Al 2O2– + 4e– → O2
 6

11 Fuel cells are used as energy sources in cars.

Which row gives a fuel used in a fuel cell and the products formed?

fuel in a fuel cell products formed

A hydrogen carbon dioxide and water

B hydrogen water only
C petrol carbon dioxide and water
D petrol water only

12 Two elements, X and Y, react together to form a covalent molecule as shown.

The reaction is exothermic.

X2(g) + Y2(g) → 2XY(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy in
bond
kJ / mol

X–X 436
Y–Y 242
X–Y 431

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A +184 kJ / mol B –184 kJ / mol C +247 kJ / mol D –247 kJ / mol

13 Which change in reaction conditions increases both the collision rate and the proportion of
molecules with sufficient energy to react?

A addition of a catalyst
B increasing the concentration of a reactant
C increasing the surface area of a reactant
D increasing the temperature of the reaction
 7

14 When blue-green crystals of nickel(II) sulfate are heated, water is produced and a yellow solid
remains. When water is added to the yellow solid, the blue-green colour returns.

Which process describes these changes?

A combustion
B corrosion
C neutralisation
D reversible reaction

15 The equation for the manufacture of ethanol is shown.

C2H4(g) + H2O(g) C2H5OH(g)

ethene steam ethanol

What is the effect of doubling the pressure on this reaction?

A decreases the rate of formation of ethanol

B increases the yield of ethene
C decreases the rate of formation of ethene
D increases the yield of ethanol

16 The ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous potassium bromide with chlorine gas is shown.

2Br – + Cl 2 → Br2 + 2Cl –

Which statement is correct?

A Bromide ions are oxidised by gaining electrons.

B Bromide ions are oxidised by losing electrons.
C Chlorine is oxidised by gaining electrons.
D Chlorine is oxidised by losing electrons.

17 Which type of oxide are carbon monoxide and aluminium oxide?

carbon monoxide aluminium oxide

A acidic amphoteric
B acidic basic
C neutral amphoteric
D neutral basic
 8

18 The positions of elements W, X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table are shown.

Y
X Z

Which elements form basic oxides?

A W, X and Y B W and X only C Y only D Z only

19 Which row shows the difference between a weak acid and a strong acid?

weak acid strong acid

A fully ionised partially ionised

B concentrated dilute
C dilute concentrated
D partially ionised fully ionised

20 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Y Z

Which row describes the properties of X, Y and Z?

good conductor high melting

of electricity point

A X Z
B Y Z and X
C Y and Z Z
D Z and X X
 9

21 The melting points and boiling points of the elements of Group I of the Periodic Table are shown.

melting point boiling point

element
/ °C / °C

lithium 181 1330

sodium 98 883
potassium 63 759
rubidium 39 688
caesium 28 671

Which pair of elements are liquid at 800 °C?

A caesium and rubidium

B potassium and sodium
C lithium and sodium
D potassium and caesium

22 The electronic structures of helium, neon and argon are shown.

He Ne Ar

Which row describes these gases?

reactivity form of the gas electronic structure

A reactive monoatomic incomplete outer shell of electrons

B unreactive diatomic complete outer shell of electrons
C unreactive diatomic incomplete outer shell of electrons
D unreactive monoatomic complete outer shell of electrons
 10

23 The diagrams show the structure of two substances used to make electrical conductors.

X Y

Which statement correctly describes X and Y?

A X is a pure metal and Y is a compound.

B X is a pure metal and Y is an alloy.
C X is a solid and Y is a liquid.
D X is harder and stronger than Y.

24 A student heated the carbonates and nitrates of sodium and copper.

The results are shown.

compound heated gases released solid formed

1 sodium carbonate carbon monoxide sodium oxide

2 copper(II) carbonate carbon dioxide copper
3 sodium nitrate oxygen only sodium nitrite
4 copper(II) nitrate nitrogen dioxide and oxygen copper(II) oxide

Which rows describe the correct results?

A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 3 and 4 D 4 only

25 Zinc is extracted from its ore, zinc blende, using two chemical reactions.

1 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

2 2ZnO + C → 2Zn + CO2

Which substance is reduced in reactions 1 and 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A O2 C
B O2 ZnO
C ZnS C
D ZnS ZnO
 11

26 Four metals, zinc, M, copper and magnesium, are reacted with aqueous solutions of their
nitrates.

The results are shown.

magnesium M copper zinc

metal
nitrate nitrate nitrate nitrate

magnesium    key
zinc    = reacts
M    = no reaction
copper   

What is the order of reactivity of these four metals starting with the most reactive?

A copper → zinc → M → magnesium

B copper → M → zinc → magnesium

C magnesium → M → zinc → copper

D magnesium → zinc → M → copper

27 Which property of aluminium makes it useful in the manufacture of aircraft?

A conducts electricity
B high boiling point
C low density
D silver colour

28 The exhaust gases from cars contain oxides of nitrogen.

How are these oxides of nitrogen formed?

A Nitrogen and oxygen from the air react together at the high temperatures in the engine.
B Nitrogen and oxygen from the petrol react together in the car exhaust.
C Nitrogen from the petrol reacts with oxygen at the high temperatures in the engine.
D Nitrogen reacts with oxygen from the air in the catalytic converter.
 12

29 Water can be treated by filtration then chlorination.

Which uses do not need water of this quality?

1 water for cooling in industry

2 water for washing clothes
3 water for drinking

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

30 Some of the processes involved in the carbon cycle are shown.

1 glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

2 carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

3 methane + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

What are the names of these processes?

1 2 3

A combustion respiration photosynthesis

B photosynthesis combustion respiration
C respiration combustion photosynthesis
D respiration photosynthesis combustion

31 The diagram shows an experiment to investigate how paint affects the rusting of iron.

P Q
iron painted iron

air

water

What happens to the water level in tubes P and Q?

tube P tube Q

A falls rises
B no change rises
C rises falls
D rises no change
 13

32 Ammonia is produced in the Haber process.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions of temperature and pressure produce the highest yield of ammonia?

temperature pressure

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 25 2 iron
B 25 200 iron
C 450 2 vanadium(V) oxide
D 450 200 vanadium(V) oxide
 14

34 The diagram represents a lime kiln used to heat limestone to a very high temperature.

waste gases

lime kiln

limestone

fuel in fuel in

air in air in

What leaves the kiln at X?

A calcium carbonate
B calcium hydroxide
C calcium oxide
D calcium sulfate

35 Which fuel could be gasoline?

Is it obtained
from petroleum?

yes no

Is it used as Is it used as
fuel for cars? fuel for cars?

yes no yes no

A B C D
 15

36 Which statement about homologous series is not correct?

A All homologous series are hydrocarbons.

B Members of a homologous series have the same functional group.
C Members of a homologous series have similar chemical properties.
D The alkanes are an example of a homologous series.

37 In bright sunlight, ethane and chlorine combine in substitution reactions.

Which compound is not formed in these reactions?

A C2H3Cl B C2H5Cl C C2H4Cl 2 D HCl

38 What are the properties of aqueous ethanoic acid?

reacts with
decolourises turns damp red
calcium carbonate to
bromine water litmus blue
make carbon dioxide

A   
B   
C   
D   

39 The structures of four molecules are shown.

1 2 3 4

O H H H H H H O

H C H C OH H C C C OH H C C C

OH H H H H H H OH

Which molecules react together to form the ester propyl methanoate?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

 16

40 But-1-ene has the structure CH3CH2CH=CH2.

What is the structure of poly(but-1-ene)?

A B C D

H H H H H CH2CH3 CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 CH2CH3

C C C C C C C C C C

H H H H H H H H H H
n n n n
 2

1 A mixture of ice and water is left to stand and the ice melts.

Which row describes what happens as the ice is melting?

temperature of mixture energy changes

A increases average kinetic energy of particles increases

B increases energy is used to overcome attractive forces
C stays the same average kinetic energy of particles increases
D stays the same energy is used to overcome attractive forces

2 Which piece of apparatus is used to measure 25.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide?

A B C D

3 Paper chromatography is used to determine the Rf values for four different food colourings.

Which food colouring has an Rf value of 0.6?

solvent front
25

20

15
distance
/ cm
10

5
baseline
0
A B C D
 3

4 The diagram shows the electronic structure of a particle with a nucleon number (mass number) of
40.

e e
e e
e
e e e e
e e 40 e e
e
e e
e e

The table shows the suggestions that three students, 1, 2 and 3, made to identify the particle.

student
1 2 3

particle Ar Cl Ca2+

Which students are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

5 The electronic structures of two atoms, P and Q, are shown.

P Q

P and Q combine together to form a compound.

What is the type of bonding in the compound and what is the formula of the compound?

type of bonding formula

A ionic PQ
B ionic PQ2
C covalent PQ2
D covalent PQ
 4

6 Which statement about the structure of a metal explains why metals are malleable?

A The electrons can move freely throughout the lattice.

B The layers of metal ions can slide over each other.
C The metal ions are positively charged.
D There is a strong force of attraction between the metal ions and the electrons.

7 The bonding, structure and melting point of sodium chloride and sulfur dichloride are shown.

compound bonding structure melting point / °C

sodium chloride ionic giant lattice 801

sulfur dichloride covalent simple molecular –121

Why does sulfur dichloride have a lower melting point than sodium chloride?

A The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive forces between
molecules in sodium chloride.
B The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds in sodium chloride.
C The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive
forces between molecules in sodium chloride.
D The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds
in sodium chloride.

8 Lead(II) nitrate, Pb(NO3)2, reacts with potassium iodide, KI, to form a yellow precipitate, PbI2,
and a soluble salt, KNO3.

What is the equation for the reaction?

A Pb(NO3)2 + KI → PbI2 + KNO3

B Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + KNO3

C 2Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3

D Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3

9 The Haber process is a reversible reaction.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The reaction has a 30% yield of ammonia.

Which volume of ammonia gas, NH3, measured at room temperature and pressure, is obtained
by reacting 0.75 moles of hydrogen with excess nitrogen?

A 3600 cm3 B 5400 cm3 C 12 000 cm3 D 18 000 cm3

 5

10 Electrolytes can be broken down by electrolysis.

Which rows are correct for each electrolyte?

reaction product
electrolyte
at cathode at anode

1 dilute aqueous sodium chloride 2H+ + 2e– → H2 oxygen

+ –
2 concentrated hydrochloric acid 2H + 2e → H2 chlorine
2– –
3 molten aluminium oxide 2O → O2 + 4e aluminium
4 concentrated aqueous sodium bromide Na+ + e– → Na bromine

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

11 The electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate, using inert electrodes, is shown.

+ –

aqueous copper(II) sulfate

Which statement about a reaction at an electrode is correct?

A Copper ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.

B Copper ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.
C Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the negative electrode.
D Hydrogen ions gain electrons at the positive electrode.
 6

12 Methane burns in excess oxygen.

The equation is shown.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Bond energies are shown.

bond energy
bond
/ kJ mol–1

C=O 805
C–H 410
O=O 496
O–H 460

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A (4 × 410 + 2 × 496) – (2 × 805 + 4 × 460)

B (2 × 805 + 2 × 460) – (410 + 2 × 496)

C (410 + 2 × 496) – (805 + 2 × 460)

D (410 + 496) – (805 + 460)

13 Which statements about hydrogen fuel cells are correct?

1 Water is formed as the only waste product.

2 Both water and carbon dioxide are formed as waste products.

3 The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.

4 The overall reaction is endothermic.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

14 Which list contains only chemical changes?

A melting, evaporating, dissolving

B rusting, freezing, subliming
C neutralisation, polymerisation, combustion
D boiling, condensing, distillation
 7

15 The results of adding excess marble chips (calcium carbonate) to hydrochloric acid at 50 °C and
at 30 °C are shown. Only the temperature is changed.

50 °C

volume of 30 °C
carbon dioxide
given off / cm3

0
0 time / s

Which row describes the reacting particles at 30 °C compared to those at 50 °C?

collision rate collision energy

A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower

16 Methane reacts with steam and an equilibrium is reached.

CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g)

The forward reaction is endothermic.

Which row shows how the amount of hydrogen at equilibrium changes when the pressure or
temperature is changed as indicated?

change in change in amount of

temperature pressure hydrogen

A decrease no change increase

B increase no change decrease
C no change increase decrease
D no change decrease decrease
 8

17 When aqueous iron(III) chloride is added to aqueous potassium iodide a chemical reaction
occurs and iodine is formed.

Which statement is correct?

A Iodide ions are oxidised, they gain electrons in this reaction.

B Iodide ions are oxidised, they lose electrons in this reaction.

C Iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction.

D Neither iodide ions nor iron(III) chloride is oxidised in this reaction.

18 The graph shows how the pH of a solution changes as an acid is added to an alkali.

acid + alkali → salt + water

Which letter represents the area of the graph where both acid and salt are present?

A
14 B

C
pH
7

D
0
volume of acid added

19 Which statement describes a weak acid?

A It is a proton acceptor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.

B It is a proton acceptor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
C It is a proton donor and is fully ionised in aqueous solution.
D It is a proton donor and is partially ionised in aqueous solution.
 9

20 The apparatus shown is used to prepare aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

filter paper
stirrer
excess of solid X
solid X

Y aqueous
copper(II) sulfate

heat

What are X and Y?

X Y

A copper aqueous iron(II) sulfate

B copper(II) chloride dilute sulfuric acid
C copper(II) oxide dilute sulfuric acid
D sulfur aqueous copper(II) chloride

21 Which process is not used in the preparation of an insoluble salt?

A filtration
B washing
C crystallisation
D drying

22 Which statement about Group I and Group VII elements is correct?

A Group VII elements are monoatomic non-metals.

B Lithium is more reactive with water than caesium.
C The melting points of Group I metals increase down the group.
D Potassium bromide reacts with chlorine to produce an orange solution.
 10

23 The properties of the element titanium, Ti, can be predicted from its position in the Periodic Table.

Which row identifies the properties of titanium?

can be used conducts electricity forms coloured

has low density
as a catalyst when solid compounds

A    
B    
C    
D    

24 Which diagram shows a mixture of noble gases?

A B C D

25 Which property is shown by all metals?

A They are extracted from their ores by heating with carbon.

B They conduct electricity.
C They form acidic oxides.
D They react with hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen.

26 Many metal carbonates decompose when they are heated.

Which row describes what happens when potassium carbonate, calcium carbonate and
copper(II) carbonate are heated using a Bunsen burner?

decomposes does not decompose at

decomposes easily
with difficulty Bunsen temperatures

A calcium carbonate copper(II) carbonate potassium carbonate

B copper(II) carbonate calcium carbonate potassium carbonate
C copper(II) carbonate potassium carbonate calcium carbonate
D potassium carbonate calcium carbonate copper(II) carbonate
 11

27 Molten iron from the blast furnace contains impurities.

The process of turning the impure iron into steel involves blowing oxygen into the molten iron and
adding calcium oxide.

What are the reasons for blowing in oxygen and adding calcium oxide?

blowing in oxygen adding calcium oxide

A carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
B carbon is removed by reacting with oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it
C iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with acidic impurities making slag
D iron reacts with the oxygen reacts with slag and so removes it

28 Four iron nails are added to four different metal sulfate solutions.

In which solution does a displacement reaction occur?

A copper(II) sulfate
B magnesium sulfate
C sodium sulfate
D zinc sulfate

29 Which statement about pure water is not correct?

A It condenses at 100 °C.

B It freezes at 0 °C.

C It turns cobalt(II) chloride paper blue.

D It turns anhydrous copper(II) sulfate blue.

 12

30 Three processes in the carbon cycle are shown.

1 Methane reacts with oxygen producing carbon dioxide and water.

2 Carbon dioxide and water are absorbed and used by plants to make oxygen.
3 Oxygen is used by living things to release energy.

Which processes have taken place?

1 2 3

A combustion photosynthesis respiration

B combustion respiration photosynthesis
C photosynthesis combustion respiration
D respiration photosynthesis combustion

31 In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen are reacted to make ammonia.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions produce the maximum yield of ammonia?

pressure temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

32 Which process, used to prevent iron from rusting, involves sacrificial protection?

A alloying
B electroplating
C galvanising
D painting
 13

33 A student suggests three uses of calcium carbonate (limestone).

1 manufacture of cement
2 manufacture of iron
3 treating alkaline soils

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

34 One of the reactions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid is shown.

2SO2 + O2 2SO3

Which catalyst is used to increase the rate of this reaction?

A iron

B manganese(IV) oxide

C vanadium(V) oxide

D nickel

35 Ethanol is made on an industrial scale by the fermentation of sugars or by the reaction of ethene
with steam in the presence of a suitable catalyst.

What is a disadvantage of making ethanol from ethene rather than by fermentation?

A A continuous production process is used.

B A non-renewable raw material is used.
C The product is very pure.
D The rate of reaction is very high.

36 Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct?

A They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
B They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
C They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.
D They have different physical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.
 14

37 Increasing the number of atoms in one molecule of a hydrocarbon increases the amount of
energy released when it burns.

What is the correct order?

less energy more energy

released released

A ethene ethane methane

B ethene methane ethane
C methane ethane ethene
D methane ethene ethane

38 An organic compound, P, reacts with zinc to produce a gas, Q.

What are P and Q?

P Q

A ethanoic acid carbon dioxide

B ethanoic acid hydrogen
C ethanol carbon dioxide
D ethanol hydrogen

39 Alkanes undergo substitution reactions in the presence of UV light.

Which equation represents a substitution reaction of ethane?

A C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H4 + 2HCl

B C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H5Cl + HCl

C C2H6 + Cl 2 → C2H4Cl 2 + H2

D C2H6 + HCl → C2H5Cl + H2

40 Which substances are natural polymers?

1 proteins
2 carbohydrates
3 nylon
4 poly(ethene)

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

 2

1 The diagram shows the arrangement of particles in the three states of matter.

P Q R

Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) sublimes to gaseous carbon dioxide.

Which row describes the initial and final states?

initial final
state state

A P R
B Q P
C R P
D R Q

2 During an experiment a measurement is recorded in cm3.

Which apparatus is used?

A balance
B measuring cylinder
C stopclock
D thermometer

3 A student carried out paper chromatography on a mixture of amino acids.

The student sprayed the dried chromatogram with a locating agent.

What is the function of the locating agent?

A to dissolve the amino acids

B to form coloured spots with the amino acids
C to preserve the amino acids
D to stop the amino acids reacting
 3

4 Which row describes silicon(IV) oxide?

has a is an conducts
giant structure acidic oxide electricity

A   
B   
C   
D   

5 Why do isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same nucleon number.

B They have the same number of electrons in the outer shell.
C They have the same number of neutrons in the nucleus.
D They have the same number of protons as neutrons.

6 Which dot-and-cross diagram shows the outer shell electron arrangement in a molecule of
carbon dioxide?

A B

O C O O C O

C D

O C O O C O
 4

7 The equation for the reaction between phosphorus and oxygen is shown.

xP4 + yO2 → zP2O5

Which values of x, y and z balance the equation?

x y z

A 1 5 2
B 1 10 2
C 2 5 2
D 2 10 1

8 The relative molecular mass of an alcohol is 88.

Its percentage composition by mass is: C, 54.5%; H, 9.1%; O, 36.4%.

Which row shows the empirical formula and molecular formula for this alcohol?

empirical formula molecular formula

A C2H4O C2H4O
B C2H4O C4H8O2
C C4H8O2 C4H8O2
D C4H8O2 C2H4O

9 Which statements about the electrolysis of concentrated copper(II) chloride are correct?

1 Electrons are transferred from the cathode to the copper(II) ions.

2 Electrons move round the external circuit from the cathode to the anode.
3 Chloride ions are attracted to the anode.
4 Hydroxide ions transfer electrons to the cathode.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

 5

10 Which metal combination produces the highest voltage reading in the cells shown?

A B

V V

Fe Cu Zn Cu

C D

V V

Cu Cu Mg Cu

11 The equation for the combustion of methane is shown.

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

The energy change for the combustion of methane is –890 kJ / mol.

The bond energies are shown in the table.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–H +410
O=O +496
H–O +460

What is the bond energy of the C=O bond?

A +49 kJ / mol B +841 kJ / mol C +1301 kJ / mol D +1335 kJ / mol

 6

12 Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

A The energy absorbed for bond breaking is greater than the energy released by bond
formation.
B The energy absorbed for bond breaking is less than the energy released by bond formation.
C The energy released by bond breaking is greater than the energy absorbed for bond
formation.
D The energy released by bond breaking is less than the energy absorbed for bond formation.

13 The mass of a beaker and its contents is plotted against time.

Which graph represents what happens when sodium carbonate reacts with an excess of dilute
hydrochloric acid in an open beaker?

A B C D

mass mass mass mass

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

14 Copper metal donates electrons to silver ions.

Zinc metal donates electrons to copper ions.

What is the strongest reducing agent?

A copper ions
B copper metal
C silver ions
D zinc metal

15 Four statements about the effect of increasing temperature on a reaction are shown.

1 The activation energy becomes lower.

2 The particles move faster.
3 There are more collisions between reacting particles.
4 There are more collisions which have energy greater than the activation energy.

Which statements are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 3 and 4 C 2, 3 and 4 D 2 and 3 only

 7

16 The formation of sulfur trioxide from sulfur dioxide is a reversible reaction.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which changes would increase the equilibrium yield of SO3?

1 increasing the pressure

2 lowering the temperature
3 decreasing the concentration of oxygen

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

17 Some properties of four oxides are listed.

Oxide 1 reacts with both acids and alkalis to form salts.

Oxide 2 reacts with acids to form salts but does not react with alkalis.

Oxide 3 reacts with alkalis to form salts but does not react with acids.

Oxide 4 does not react with acids or alkalis.

Which row describes the oxides?

oxide 1 oxide 2 oxide 3 oxide 4

A amphoteric acidic basic neutral

B amphoteric basic acidic neutral
C neutral acidic basic amphoteric
D neutral basic acidic amphoteric

18 What is not a typical characteristic of acids?

A They react with alkalis producing water.

B They react with all metals producing hydrogen.
C They react with carbonates producing carbon dioxide.
D They turn blue litmus paper red.
 8

19 Copper(II) sulfate can be prepared by adding excess copper(II) carbonate to sulfuric acid.

Why is an excess of copper(II) carbonate added?

A to ensure all the copper(II) carbonate has reacted

B to ensure all the sulfuric acid has reacted

C to increase the rate of reaction

D to increase the yield of copper(II) sulfate

20 Compound P reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce a gas that turns limewater milky.

What is P?

A sodium carbonate
B sodium chloride
C sodium hydroxide
D sodium sulfate

21 Which statement about nitrogen and phosphorus is not correct?

A Both are in the same group of the Periodic Table.

B Both are in the same period of the Periodic Table.
C Both are non-metals.
D Both have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.

22 Sodium and rubidium are elements in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which statement is correct?

A Sodium atoms have more electrons than rubidium atoms.

B Sodium has a lower density than rubidium.
C Sodium has a lower melting point than rubidium.
D Sodium is more reactive than rubidium.

23 Which properties do the elements chromium, iron and vanadium have in common?

1 They all conduct electricity.

2 They, or their compounds, can act as catalysts.
3 They all form coloured compounds.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

 9

24 Why is argon gas used to fill electric lamps?

A It conducts electricity.
B It glows when heated.
C It is less dense than air.
D It is not reactive.

25 What is a property of all metals?

A conduct electricity
B hard
C low melting points
D react with water

26 Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by electrolysis.

Which row shows the anode material and the anode reaction?

anode material anode reaction

A carbon Al 3+ + 3e– → Al
B carbon 2O2– → O2 + 4e–
C steel Al 3+ + 3e– → Al
D steel 2O2– → O2 + 4e–

27 Which statement about the metal zinc is not correct?

A It forms an oxide more readily than iron.

B It is manufactured by the electrolysis of zinc blende.
C It is used to make brass.
D It is used to prevent iron from rusting.

28 Calcium nitrate decomposes when it is heated.

What is the equation for the thermal decomposition of calcium nitrate?

A 2Ca(NO3)2 → 2CaO + O2 + 4NO2

B Ca(NO3)2 → Ca(NO2)2 + O2

C Ca(NO3)2 → Ca + O2 + 2NO2

D Ca(NO3)2 → Ca + 3O2 + N2
 10

29 The flow chart shows stages in the treatment of river water to produce drinking water.

river settling stage stage drinking

water tank X Y water

What occurs at stages X and Y?

X Y

A distillation chlorination
B distillation filtration
C filtration chlorination
D filtration distillation

30 An experiment to investigate the effect of galvanising iron is shown.

X Y
pure iron galvanised iron

air

water

The experiment is left for seven days.

What happens to the water level in tubes X and Y?

tube X tube Y

A falls rises
B no change no change
C rises falls
D rises no change

31 Which metal is used as a catalyst in the Haber process for the manufacture of ammonia?

A iron
B nickel
C platinum
D vanadium
 11

32 Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

A combustion of fossil fuels

B decomposition of carbonates
C photosynthesis
D respiration

33 Which row shows the conditions used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by the Contact process?

temperature pressure
catalyst
/ °C / atm

A 40 200 Fe
B 40 200 V2O5
C 400 2 Fe
D 400 2 V2O5

34 Some marble chips (calcium carbonate) are heated strongly and substances X and Y are formed.

Substance X is a white solid that reacts with water, giving out heat. Substance Y is a colourless
gas.

What are substances X and Y?

X Y

A calcium chloride oxygen

B calcium hydroxide carbon dioxide
C calcium oxide carbon dioxide
D calcium sulfate oxygen

35 The structures of four organic compounds are shown.

S T U V

H H H H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C H H C C H C C

H H H H H H H C C H H H

H H

Which compounds are unsaturated?

A S only B T and U C U only D V only

 12

36 Which statement is not correct?

A Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons.

B The main constituent of natural gas is ethane.
C The naphtha fraction of petroleum is used for making chemicals.
D When natural gas burns in air, carbon dioxide and water are formed.

37 X, Y and Z are three hydrocarbons.

X CH2=CH2 Y CH3–CH=CH2 Z CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

What do compounds X, Y and Z have in common?

1 They are all alkenes.

2 They are all part of the same homologous series.
3 They all have the same boiling point.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

38 The diagram shows a reaction sequence.

X Y Z
carbon dioxide
butane ethene ethanol
and water

Which row names the processes X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A cracking fermentation respiration

B cracking hydration combustion
C distillation fermentation respiration
D distillation hydration combustion
 13

39 The structure of an ester is shown.

H H O H H

H C C C O C C H

H H H H

Which substances react to form this ester?

A ethanol and ethanoic acid

B ethanol and propanoic acid
C propanol and ethanoic acid
D propanol and propanoic acid

40 A polymer can be made from methyl propene.

H CH3

C C

H CH3

Which diagram shows the structure of the polymer?

A B
H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 H H H H H H

C C C C C C C C C C C C

H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

C D
H H CH3 CH3 CH3 H H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

C C C C C C C C C C C C

H H CH3 CH3 CH3 H H CH3 H CH3 H CH3

 2

1 Oxygen and fluorine are gaseous elements next to each other in the Periodic Table.

Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, oxygen diffuses ......1...... than fluorine
because its ......2...... is less than that of fluorine.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A faster molecular mass

B faster reactivity
C slower molecular mass
D slower reactivity

2 The diagrams show four pieces of laboratory equipment.

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

Which equipment is essential to find out if dissolving a salt in water is an exothermic process?

balance pipette stop-clock thermometer

A    
B    
C    
D    

45
3 How many neutrons are present in the atom 21 X ?

A 21 B 24 C 45 D 66
 3

4 Two naturally occurring isotopes of oxygen are 16O and 17O.

Which statement is correct?

A Both isotopes react with iron to form rust.

B Neither isotope reacts with iron to form rust.
C Only 16O reacts with iron to form rust.
D Only 17O reacts with iron to form rust.

5 How many electrons are used to form covalent bonds in a molecule of methanol, CH3OH?

A 5 B 6 C 8 D 10

6 Potassium bromide and methanol are both compounds.

Their melting points are different.

Which row is correct?

substance with the

reason why the melting points are different
higher melting point
A methanol the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
is greater than the attractive forces between molecules
B methanol the attractive forces between molecules is greater
than the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
C potassium bromide the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions
is greater than the attractive forces between molecules
D potassium bromide the attractive forces between molecules is greater
than the attractive forces between oppositely charged ions

7 Which gas sample contains the smallest number of molecules?

A 4 g of helium
B 16 g of oxygen
C 28 g of carbon monoxide
D 28 g of nitrogen
 4

8 The equation for the reaction between calcium carbonate and dilute nitric acid is shown.

CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

25 g of calcium carbonate is reacted with an excess of dilute nitric acid.

Which mass of calcium nitrate and which volume of carbon dioxide is produced at room
temperature and pressure?

mass of volume of
calcium nitrate / g carbon dioxide / dm3

A 29 6
B 29 12
C 41 6
D 41 12

9 The formulae of some ions are shown.

positive ion negative ion

Ti4+ PO43–
Al 3+ SO42–
Mg2+ NO3–
K+ Cl –

Which formula is not correct?

A Al 3(SO4)2 B K3PO4 C Mg(NO3)2 D TiCl 4

 5

10 Concentrated aqueous copper(II) chloride is electrolysed using copper electrodes as shown.

power supply

+ –
copper electrodes

aqueous copper(II) chloride

What happens to the mass of each electrode during this process?

positive electrode negative electrode

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases
 6

11 The diagram shows a circuit used to electrolyse aqueous copper(II) sulfate.

power supply
+ –

3 4

+ –
copper electrodes

1
aqueous
2
copper(II) sulfate

Which arrows indicate the movement of the copper ions in the electrolyte and of the electrons in
the external circuit?

copper ions electrons

A 1 3
B 1 4
C 2 3
D 2 4

12 Hydrogen peroxide, H–O–O–H, decomposes to form water and oxygen.

2H2O2(g) → 2H2O(g) + O2(g)

The bond energies are shown in the table. The reaction is exothermic.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

O–H +460
O–O +150
O=O +496

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –346 kJ / mol B –196 kJ / mol C +196 kJ / mol D +346 kJ / mol

 7

13 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The energy level diagram for the reaction is shown.

activation
energy
= +250 kJ / mol
total energy
N2 + 3H2 released
energy
= –342 kJ / mol
energy
change
2NH3

progress of reaction

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –592 kJ / mol
B –92 kJ / mol
C +92 kJ / mol
D +592 kJ / mol

14 The rate of reaction between magnesium ribbon and 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C to
produce hydrogen gas is measured.

In another experiment, either the concentration of the hydrochloric acid or the temperature is
changed. All other conditions are kept the same.

Which conditions increase the rate of reaction?

A 1 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C

B 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 10 °C

C 2 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 20 °C

D 3 mol / dm3 hydrochloric acid at 25 °C

 8

15 Methanol is prepared by the reversible reaction shown.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions produce the highest equilibrium yield of methanol?

temperature pressure

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

16 The thermite reaction can be used to produce iron from iron(III) oxide.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

2Al + Fe2O3 → 2Fe + Al 2O3

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 Aluminium is the oxidising agent.

2 Aluminium is less reactive than iron.
3 Electrons are transferred from aluminium to iron.

4 The iron in the iron(III) oxide is reduced.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

17 In which row are the oxides correctly identified?

acidic basic

A magnesium oxide, calcium oxide sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide

B magnesium oxide, sulfur dioxide carbon dioxide, calcium oxide
C sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide calcium oxide, magnesium oxide
D sulfur dioxide, magnesium oxide calcium oxide, carbon dioxide
 9

18 When dilute sulfuric acid is added to solid X, a colourless solution is formed and a gas is
produced.

What is X?

A copper(II) oxide

B sodium oxide
C copper(II) carbonate
D sodium carbonate

19 A few drops of methyl orange are added to a reaction mixture.

During the reaction, a gas is produced and the methyl orange turns from red to orange.

What are the reactants?

A aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonium chloride

B aqueous sodium hydroxide and calcium carbonate
C dilute hydrochloric acid and magnesium
D dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium hydroxide

20 Some general rules for the solubility of salts in water are listed.

● Carbonates are insoluble (except ammonium carbonate, potassium carbonate and

sodium carbonate).

● Chlorides are soluble (except lead(II) chloride and silver chloride).

● Nitrates are soluble.

● Sulfates are soluble (except barium sulfate, calcium sulfate and lead(II) sulfate).

Which substances produce an insoluble salt when aqueous solutions of them are mixed?

A barium chloride and magnesium nitrate

B calcium chloride and ammonium nitrate
C silver nitrate and zinc chloride
D sodium carbonate and potassium sulfate
 10

21 Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water.

Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the
elements?

products trend in reactivity

A metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group

B metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group
C metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group
D metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

22 The equation shows the reaction between a halogen and aqueous bromide ions.

X2 + 2Br– → 2X– + Br2

......1...... ......2...... ......3......

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A chlorine brown colourless

B chlorine colourless brown
C iodine brown colourless
D iodine colourless brown

23 An inert gas R is used to fill weather balloons.

Which descriptions of R are correct?

number of outer shell

structure of gas R
electrons in atoms of R

A 2 diatomic molecules
B 2 single atoms
C 8 diatomic molecules
D 8 single atoms
 11

24 Heating copper(II) carbonate produces copper(II) oxide and carbon dioxide.

Heating the copper(II) oxide formed with carbon produces copper.

Which processes are involved in this conversion of copper(II) carbonate to copper?

A sublimation followed by oxidation

B sublimation followed by reduction
C thermal decomposition followed by oxidation
D thermal decomposition followed by reduction

25 Four metals, W, X, Y and Z, are separately reacted with water and dilute hydrochloric acid.

The results are shown.

metal
W X Y Z

reaction with water fizzes no reaction fizzes no reaction

vigorously
reaction with dilute fizzes no reaction fizzes fizzes
hydrochloric acid violently

What is the order of reactivity of the four metals starting with the least reactive?

least reactive most reactive

A X W Z Y
B X Z W Y
C Y W Z X
D Y Z W X

26 Which statement about the uses of metals is not correct?

A Aluminium is used in aircraft because of its strength and good electrical conductivity.
B Copper is used in electrical wiring because of its good electrical conductivity.
C Stainless steel resists corrosion and is used to make cutlery.
D Transition elements are often used as catalysts.
 12

27 Bauxite contains aluminium oxide.

Aluminium is extracted from aluminium oxide by electrolysis.

Why is cryolite added to the electrolytic cell used to extract aluminium?

A Cryolite prevents the carbon anodes being burned away.

B Cryolite removes impurities from the bauxite.
C Cryolite increases the rate at which aluminium ions are discharged.
D Molten cryolite dissolves the aluminium oxide.

28 Which statement about the Haber process is correct?

A The hydrogen used is obtained from the air.

B The nitrogen used is obtained from nitrates in the soil.
C Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen to make ammonia.
D The reaction takes place at room temperature and pressure.

29 Which statements about sulfur dioxide pollution are correct?

1 It increases the pH of rivers.

2 It damages limestone buildings.

3 It causes respiratory problems.

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

30 Argon is a noble gas used to fill light bulbs.

What is the approximate percentage of argon in air?

A 1% B 20% C 79% D 99%

 13

31 The diagrams show experiments involving the rusting of iron.

tube P tube Q tube R

oil
iron nails

water water boiled to anhydrous

remove the air calcium chloride
to dry the air

A student predicted the following results.

1 In tube P, the iron nails rust.

2 In tube Q, the iron nails do not rust.
3 In tube R, the iron nails do not rust.

Which predictions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

32 In the carbon cycle, which two processes add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

A combustion and carbonate formation

B combustion and photosynthesis
C combustion and respiration
D respiration and photosynthesis

33 Which statement about sulfur or one of its compounds is correct?

A Sulfur occurs naturally as the element sulfur.

B Sulfur dioxide is used to kill bacteria in drinking water.
C Sulfuric acid is a weak acid.
D Dilute sulfuric acid is a dehydrating agent.
 14

34 What is not a use of lime?

A It is used as a bleach in the manufacture of wood pulp.

B It is used to desulfurise flue gases.
C It is used to neutralise acidic industrial waste.
D It is used to treat acidic soil.

35 Which equation representing a reaction of methane is correct?

A CH4 + Cl 2 → CH3Cl + HCl

B CH4 + Cl 2 → CH4Cl 2

C CH4 + Cl 2 → CH2Cl 2 + H2

D 2CH4 + 2Cl 2 → 2CH3Cl + Cl 2 + H2

36 Which two compounds are molecules which both contain a double bond?

A ethane and ethanoic acid

B ethane and ethanol
C ethene and ethanoic acid
D ethene and ethanol

37 Ethanol can be formed by:

1 fermentation
2 reaction between steam and ethene.

Which of these processes use a catalyst?

1 2

A  
B  
C  
D  
 15

38 Ethanol is manufactured from ethene.

What is an advantage of this process?

A It is a continuous process.
B It has high labour costs.
C It needs high temperature and pressure.
D It uses non-renewable materials.

39 Which reaction can be used to make ethanoic acid?

A oxidation of ethanol
B oxidation of ethene
C reduction of ethanol
D reduction of ethene

40 The structure of an addition polymer is shown.

H OH H OH H OH

C C C C C C

H H H H H H

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D

OH OH OH H OH H H

H C H H C C H C C C C

H H H HO H H OH
 2

1 The rate of diffusion of a gas depends on its molecular mass and the temperature.

Which combination of molecular mass and temperature gives the slowest rate of diffusion?

molecular mass temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

2 A student is asked to measure the time taken for 0.4 g of magnesium carbonate to react
completely with 25.0 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid.

Which pieces of apparatus does the student need?

A balance, stop-clock, pipette

B balance, stop-clock, thermometer
C balance, pipette, thermometer
D stop-clock, pipette, thermometer

3 Substance Q was investigated using chromatography.

The chromatogram is shown. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

solvent front

129 mm
114 mm

83 mm

baseline
13 mm Q

What is the Rf value of Q?

A 0.60 B 0.64 C 0.69 D 0.72

 3

4 Which statement about an ionic compound is not correct?

A It conducts electricity when dissolved in water.

B It has a high melting point due to strong attractive forces between ions.
C It has a regular lattice of oppositely charged ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D The ionic bonds are formed between metallic and non-metallic elements.

5 What is the total number of electrons in one molecule of ammonia, NH3?

A 6 B 8 C 10 D 11

6 Rubidium has two isotopes, 85

37 Rb and
87
37 Rb .

Which statement explains why both isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same number of protons.

B They have the same number of outer shell electrons.
C They have different numbers of neutrons.
D They have different mass numbers.

7 Which statement about the structure and properties of silicon(IV) oxide is not correct?

A It has a giant structure similar to that of diamond.

B It has a high melting point due to the strong attractive force between molecules.
C There are strong covalent bonds between silicon and oxygen.

D There are no free electrons, so silicon(IV) oxide does not conduct electricity.

8 Which statement describes the structure of copper?

A It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.

B It has a lattice of negative ions in a ‘sea of protons’.
C It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of electrons’.
D It has a lattice of positive ions in a ‘sea of protons’.

9 Phosphorus reacts with oxygen to form phosphorus(III) oxide as shown.

4P(s) + 3O2(g) → 2P2O3(s)

Which mass of phosphorus(III) oxide is produced from 6.2 g of phosphorus?

A 1.1 g B 5.5 g C 11.0 g D 22.0 g

 4

10 Calcium carbonate is heated. Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas are formed.

The equation for the reaction is shown.

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

225 kg of calcium carbonate is heated until there is no further change in mass.

The yield of calcium oxide is 85 kg.

What is the percentage yield?

A 37.8% B 47.2% C 67.5% D 85.0%

11 The diagram shows a simple cell.

voltmeter
wire

metal P metal Q

dilute
sulfuric acid

Which pair of metals produces the largest voltage?

metal P metal Q

A magnesium iron
B magnesium copper
C zinc iron
D zinc copper

12 What are the ionic half-equations for the electrode reactions during the electrolysis of
concentrated aqueous sodium chloride?

anode cathode

A Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl – H2 → 2H+ + 2e–

B 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
C H2 → 2H+ + 2e– Cl 2 + 2e– → 2Cl –
D 2H+ + 2e– → H2 2Cl – → Cl 2 + 2e–
 5

13 The temperature of the water in two beakers, X and Y, is measured as 21.5 °C.

5 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in the water in beaker X. The temperature changes to 18.0 °C.

5 g of calcium oxide is dissolved in the water in beaker Y. The temperature changes to 29.4 °C.

Which types of process are occurring in beakers X and Y?

X Y

A endothermic endothermic
B endothermic exothermic
C exothermic endothermic
D exothermic exothermic

14 Which gases are used to generate electricity in a fuel cell?

A carbon dioxide and oxygen

B hydrogen and methane
C hydrogen and oxygen
D methane and carbon dioxide

15 Which row identifies a chemical and a physical change?

chemical change physical change

A boiling ethanol burning ethanol

B burning ethanol evaporating ethanol
C dissolving ethanol in water burning ethanol
D evaporating ethanol dissolving ethanol in water
 6

16 A sample of dilute nitric acid is added to lumps of limestone in a conical flask. The conical flask is
placed on a balance and the loss in mass is measured.

A second sample of nitric acid of a different concentration is separately tested. All other
conditions are kept the same.

The loss in mass in 1 minute at each concentration of nitric acid is shown.

concentration loss in mass in

in mol / dm3 1 minute / g

0.5 0.15
1.0 0.25

Which row describes and explains the results obtained using 1.0 mol / dm3 nitric acid compared
with 0.5 mol / dm3 nitric acid?

description explanation

A decrease in reaction rate decrease in particle collision energy

B decrease in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate
C increase in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate
D increase in reaction rate increase in particle collision rate and collision energy

17 When carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen, methanol is formed.

CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statements are correct?

1 There are more moles of gas on the left-hand side of the reaction.
2 Increasing the temperature increases the amount of methanol at equilibrium.
3 Increasing the pressure increases the amount of methanol at equilibrium.
4 Increasing the initial amount of hydrogen decreases the amount of methanol at
equilibrium.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 3 and 4 only

 7

18 In the blast furnace, iron is formed when iron(III) oxide reacts with carbon monoxide in a redox
reaction.

Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

Which substance is the oxidising agent and which substance is the reducing agent?

oxidising agent reducing agent

A CO Fe2O3
B CO2 Fe
C Fe CO2
D Fe2O3 CO

19 Which oxide is classified as an amphoteric oxide?

A aluminium oxide
B calcium oxide

C copper(II) oxide
D nitrogen oxide

20 Which statement describes the properties of hydrochloric acid?

A Carbon dioxide is produced when limestone reacts with hydrochloric acid.

B Hydrogen is produced when sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid.
C Methyl orange turns yellow in strong hydrochloric acid.
D Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into hydrochloric acid.
 8

21 A method used to make copper(II) sulfate crystals is shown.

1 Place dilute sulfuric acid in a beaker.

2 Warm the acid.

3 Add copper(II) oxide until it is in excess.

4 Filter the mixture.

5 Evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to form.
6 Leave the filtrate to cool.

What are the purposes of step 3 and step 4?

step 3 step 4

A to ensure all of the acid has reacted to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
B to ensure all of the acid has reacted to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide
C to speed up the reaction to obtain solid copper(II) sulfate
D to speed up the reaction to remove the excess of copper(II) oxide

22 Lead(II) sulfate is an insoluble salt.

Which reaction produces a mixture from which lead(II) sulfate is obtained by filtration?

A adding solid lead(II) carbonate to dilute sulfuric acid

B adding solid lead(II) hydroxide to dilute sulfuric acid

C adding metallic lead to dilute sulfuric acid

D adding aqueous lead(II) nitrate to dilute sulfuric acid

23 Helium is a noble gas.

Which statement about helium is correct?

A It has eight electrons in its outer shell.

B It is a diatomic gas.
C It is reactive.
D It is used for filling balloons.
 9

24 Which pair of elements reacts together most violently?

A chlorine and lithium

B chlorine and potassium
C iodine and lithium
D iodine and potassium

25 Iron(II) ions can be oxidised to iron(III) ions by hydrogen peroxide.

Which statement explains why iron is a transition element?

A Iron is a transition element because it can be oxidised.

B Iron is a transition element because it has variable oxidation states.
C Iron is a transition element because it takes part in redox reactions.
D Iron is a transition element because it reacts with chlorine.

26 Some properties of substance X are listed.

● It conducts electricity when molten.

● It has a high melting point.
● It burns in oxygen and the oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with pH 11.

What is X?

A a covalent compound
B a macromolecule
C a metal
D an ionic compound

27 Which row describes the uses of aluminium, copper and mild steel?

aluminium copper mild steel

A aircraft bodies electrical wiring car bodies

B car bodies cooking utensils electrical wiring
C electrical wiring aircraft bodies food containers
D food containers aircraft bodies cooking utensils
 10

28 The properties of four metals are listed.

● Metal W does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.

● Metal X reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
● Metal Y displaces metal X from an aqueous solution of its ions.
● Metal Z reacts with water and dilute hydrochloric acid.

What is the order of reactivity of the metals?

most least
reactive reactive

A W X Y Z
B W Y X Z
C Z X Y W
D Z Y X W

29 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium from aluminium oxide is correct?

A Aluminium is formed at the positive electrode during electrolysis.

B Pure aluminium oxide is dissolved in molten cryolite.
C Pure aluminium oxide is electrolysed using aluminium as the positive electrode.
D Pure aluminium oxide is heated with carbon to form carbon dioxide and aluminium.

30 River water contains soluble impurities, insoluble impurities and bacteria.

River water is made safe to drink by filtration and chlorination.

Which statement is correct?

A Filtration removes bacteria and insoluble impurities, and chlorination removes soluble
impurities.
B Filtration removes insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
C Filtration removes soluble and insoluble impurities, and chlorination kills the bacteria.
D Filtration removes soluble impurities and bacteria, and chlorination removes insoluble
impurities.
 11

31 Which process is used to separate nitrogen and oxygen from air?

A chromatography
B evaporation
C filtration
D fractional distillation

32 The apparatus shown is set up and left for a week.

damp iron wool

air

water

Which diagram shows the level of the water at the end of the week?

A B C D
 12

33 The diagram represents an outline of the carbon cycle.

carbon dioxide
photosynthesis in the atmosphere
Y
respiration
X
plants
animals power stations

death and
excretion

organic waste

fossil fuels

Which processes are X and Y?

X Y

A combustion respiration
B decomposition respiration
C photosynthesis combustion
D respiration combustion

34 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3...... is used as a catalyst.

1 2 3

A ammonia Contact iron

B ammonia Haber vanadium(V) oxide
C sulfuric acid Contact vanadium(V) oxide
D sulfuric acid Haber iron
 13

35 Which statement about limestone and lime is correct?

A Limestone combines with water to produce slaked lime.

B Lime is obtained from limestone by oxidation.
C Lime is used in the desulfurisation of flue gases.
D Lime is used in the treatment of alkaline soil.

36 Some fractions obtained from petroleum are listed.

position collected
fraction use in the
fractionating column

1 gasoline waxes and polishes below refinery gas

2 bitumen making roads above kerosene
3 kerosene jet fuel below gasoline
4 refinery gas heating and cooking above gasoline

Which rows are correct?

A 1, 3 and 4
B 2, 3 and 4
C 3 and 4 only
D 4 only

37 Which products are obtained by the cracking of an alkane?

alkene hydrogen water

A   
B   
C   
D   
 14

38 Ethanol is produced by fermentation or by the reaction of ethene with steam.

Which row is correct?

by fermentation from ethene

A uses a temperature of 100 °C uses a temperature of 350 °C

B needs yeast as a catalyst does not need a catalyst
C very slow reaction very fast reaction
D high yield of ethanol low yield of ethanol

39 The diagram shows the structure of a monomer and of the polymer made from it.

H H H H

n C C C C

H H H H
n

What are the monomer and polymer?

monomer polymer

A ethane poly(ethane)
B ethane poly(ethene)
C ethene poly(ethane)
D ethene poly(ethene)

40 The structure of a naturally occurring polymer, X, is shown.

H O H O

N C N C N C

H O

What is X?

A an amino acid
B a carbohydrate
C a protein
D a sugar
 2

1 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?

A H2 B NH3 C CH4 D CO2

2 A chromatography experiment is carried out to analyse the pigments present in four different
types of leaf. The student carrying out the experiment forgot to complete his table of results,
which is shown.

distance
number of colour of distance travelled
plant travelled by
pigments identified from the origin by Rf value
leaf the solvent
identified pigments each pigment (cm)
front (cm)

green green: 3.0 green: 0.81

maple F 3.7
/ yellow yellow: 3.1 yellow: 0.83
green green: 2.5 green: 0.78
laurel 2 G
/ yellow yellow: 2.5 yellow: 0.78
green green: 2.9 green: 0.83
lime 3 / yellow 3.5 yellow: 3.0 yellow: 0.86
/ orange orange: 2.7 yellow: 0.77
green green: 2.8 green: 0.80
ash 3 / yellow 3.5 yellow: 3.0 yellow: H
/ orange orange: 2.7 orange: 0.77

Which row identifies the values of F, G and H?

F G H

A 2 3.2 0.80
B 3 3.5 0.83
C 2 3.2 0.86
D 3 3.5 0.78

3 Which statement about isotopes is correct?

A They have different proton numbers.

B They have different chemical properties.
C They have the same nucleon number.
D They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.
 3

4 In the chromatography experiment shown, which label represents the solvent front?

5 Different methods of separation rely on substances having different properties.

Which property does distillation make use of?

A boiling point
B colour
C particle size
D solubility in different solvents

6 The arrangements of the electrons in two ions formed from elements X and Y are shown.

X Y

n = 20 n = 20
p = 19 p = 17

Which equation represents the reaction between elements X and Y?

A X2 + 2Y  2X+ + 2Y–

B X2 + 2Y  2X– + 2Y+

C 2X + Y2  2X+ + 2Y–

D 2X + Y2  2X– + 2Y+
 4

7 Which row identifies compounds that contain single covalent bonds only, double covalent bonds
only or both single and double covalent bonds?

single covalent bonds double covalent bonds both single and

only only double covalent bonds

A C2H4 CH3OH CO2

B CH3OH C2H4 CO2
C CH3OH CO2 C2H4
D CO2 C2H4 CH3OH

8 Ethyl methanoate, HCOOC2H5, burns in excess oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.

The equation is shown.

2HCOOC2H5 + xO2  6CO2 + 6H2O

What is the value of x?

A 2 B 7 C 9 D 18

9 Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group VII.

Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the
rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A electron gained Rb+

B electron gained Rb–
C electron lost Rb+
D electron lost Rb–

10 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?

A All bonds between the atoms are weak.

B It conducts electricity.
C It has a low melting point.
D Layers in the structure can slide over each other.
 5

11 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

A a neutron
B a proton
C an atom of carbon-12
D an atom of hydrogen-1

12 Universal indicator solution is added to a neutral solution of concentrated aqueous sodium

chloride.

The solution, which contains H+ (hydrogen), Na+ (sodium), Cl – (chloride) and OH– (hydroxide)
ions, is electrolysed.

The product at the cathode is hydrogen gas and the product at the anode is chlorine gas.

What happens to the colour of the indicator in the solution during electrolysis?

A The colour changes from blue to green.

B The colour changes from blue to red.
C The colour changes from green to blue.
D The colour changes from green to red.

13 What is the empirical formula of an oxide of iron, formed by reacting 2.24 g of iron with 0.96 g of
oxygen?

A FeO B Fe2O C Fe2O3 D Fe3O4

14 The combustion of methane is exothermic.

CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy
released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
B The energy needed to break the bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy
released in making new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
C The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is greater than the energy
needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
D The energy released in breaking bonds in methane and oxygen is less than the energy
needed to make new bonds in carbon dioxide and water.
 6

15 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in a fuel cell.

2H2 + O2  2H2O

The reaction is exothermic.

286 kJ of energy is released for every mole of water formed.

Which volume of hydrogen gas, measured at room temperature and pressure, would react with
oxygen with the release of 7000 J of energy?

A 587 cm3 B 1175 cm3 C 587 dm3 D 1175 dm3

16 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?

A coal
B hydrogen
C natural gas
235
D U

17 Nitrogen, N2, and hydrogen, H2, can be converted into ammonia, NH3, using a catalyst.

What is the purpose of the catalyst?

A to increase the amount of ammonia produced

B to increase the rate of reaction
C to reduce the amount of reactants needed
D to reduce the rate of reaction

18 Ammonia is produced by the Haber process. The equation is shown.

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which statement is correct?

A Increasing pressure decreases the yield of ammonia, but speeds up the reaction.
B Increasing temperature decreases the yield of ammonia, but speeds up the reaction.
C Increasing the concentration of hydrogen and nitrogen results in a lower yield of ammonia.
D Increasing the temperature increases the yield of ammonia and speeds up the reaction.
 7

19 During the manufacture of sulfuric acid, sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide.

2SO2 + O2  2SO3

Which type of reaction is this?

A displacement
B neutralisation
C oxidation
D thermal decomposition

20 The equation for a redox reaction is shown.

2FeSO4 + Cl 2 + H2SO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl

Which element is reduced?

A chlorine
B iron
C oxygen
D sulfur

21 The equation shows a reaction between aqueous hydrogen bromide and aqueous ammonia.

HBr(aq) + NH3(aq)  NH4+(aq) + Br–(aq)

Which statement describes the role of aqueous hydrogen bromide?

A It is a catalyst.
B It is a reducing agent.
C It is a proton acceptor.
D It is a proton donor.

22 The equations for three reactions are shown.

1 Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq)  PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

2 2AgNO3(aq) + CuI2(aq)  Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgI(s)

3 CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq)  CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l)

Which reactions are suitable for making a salt by precipitation?

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

 8

23 Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.

Which row describes the reactions of zinc oxide?

reaction reaction
with alkalis with acids

A  
B  
C  
D  

24 A student carries out an experiment to prepare pure magnesium sulfate crystals.

The diagram shows the first stage of the preparation.

stirrer

magnesium
carbonate

dilute sulfuric acid

He adds magnesium carbonate until no more reacts.

Which process should he use for the next stage?

A crystallisation
B evaporation
C filtration
D neutralisation

25 Which row about elements in the Periodic Table is correct?

statement 1 statement 2
A two elements in the same group metals are on the
have similar chemical properties left of the table
B two elements in the same group metals are on the
have similar chemical properties right of the table
C two elements in the same period metals are on the
have similar chemical properties left of the table
D two elements in the same period metals are on the
have similar chemical properties right of the table
 9

26 A new element oxfordium, Ox, was discovered with the following properties.

electrical formula bonding in a

solubility
conduction of element molecule of Ox2

insoluble in water doesn’t conduct Ox2 Ox Ox

In which group of the Periodic Table should the new element be placed?

A Group III
B Group V
C Group VII
D Group VIII

27 A flammable gas needs to be removed from a tank at an industrial plant.

For safety reasons, an inert gas is used.

Which gas is suitable?

A argon
B hydrogen
C methane
D oxygen

28 Transition elements can have variable oxidation states.

Which pair of compounds shows a transition element in two different oxidation states?

A Cr2O3 and Cr2(SO4)3

B Cu2O and CuCO3
C ZnS and ZnSO4
D NiO and Ni(NO3)2
 10

29 Which diagram best represents the structure of a substance that is a good conductor of electricity
at 25 C?

A B C D

– + – +
+ – + –
– + – +

30 Why is aluminium metal unreactive with air?

A It is covered with a layer of oxide.

B It is low in the reactivity series.
C It is produced by electrolysis of its oxide.
D It melts at a high temperature.

31 The apparatus used for the extraction of aluminium oxide by electrolysis is shown.

carbon
anodes
– +

carbon lining solution of

as cathode aluminium oxide
in molten cryolite

molten aluminium
collects at the bottom

Which equation represents a reaction taking place at the anode?

A O + 2e–  O2–

B 2O2–  O2 + 4e–

C Al 3–  Al + 3e–

D Al 3+ + 3e–  Al
 11

32 The results of tests on solid S and its aqueous solution are shown.

tests on solid S tests on aqueous solution of S

effect of aqueous effect of
effect of heat
sodium hydroxide aqueous ammonia

brown gas given off, white ppt., soluble in white ppt., soluble in
together with a gas which excess, giving a excess, giving a
relights a glowing splint colourless solution colourless solution

What is S?

A aluminium nitrate
B aluminium sulfate
C zinc sulfate
D zinc nitrate

33 Part of the carbon cycle is shown.

combustion

Q R
glucose CO2 plant CH4

What are processes P, Q and R?

P Q R

A decomposition respiration photosynthesis

B respiration photosynthesis decomposition
C respiration decomposition photosynthesis
D photosynthesis respiration decomposition

34 The element sulfur is found in a number of different minerals.

Which mineral contains the greatest percentage by mass of sulfur?

A barite, BaSO4
B galena, PbS
C gypsum, CaSO4
D pyrite, FeS2
 12

35 Which structure represents a molecule of ethanol?

A B C D

H H H H H H H O
H C C H C C H C C O H H C C

H H H H H H H O H

36 Which structures are structural isomers of each other?

1 2

H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C H

H H H H H H
H C H
H

3 4

H H H H H H

H C C C H H C C C H

H H H H
H C H H C H
H H

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

37 Which molecule is not produced by an addition reaction of ethene?

A CH3CH3 B CH2BrCH2Br C CH3CH2OH D CH3CH2CH3

 13

38 The flow chart shows the preparation of ethanol and some important chemistry of ethanol.

fermentation process Y
substance X ethanol carbon dioxide + substance Z

What are X, Y and Z?

X Y Z

A yeast combustion oxygen

B glucose combustion steam
C glucose polymerisation water
D yeast fermentation glucose

39 Which statement about nylon and Terylene is correct?

A Nylon and Terylene are made from monomers with C=C bonds.
B Nylon and Terylene contain the same linkage.
C Nylon is a polyester.
D Terylene is made from two different monomers.

40 Which diagram represents the structure of a protein?

O O O O

A C C N N C C

H H

O O O O

B C C O O C C

C O O O

H O H O

D N C N C N C

H O
 The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).