Selfstudys Com File
Selfstudys Com File
· H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV n¥ð> 21 + 1 _mZ{MÌ h¢ &
· H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| > 34 àíZ h¢ &
· àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE àíZ-nÌ H$moS> H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
_wI-n¥ð> na {bI| &
· H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$
Adí` {bI| &
· Bg àíZ-nÌ H$mo n‹T>Zo Ho$ {bE 15 {_ZQ >H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m {dVaU
nydm©• _| 10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N>mÌ Ho$db àíZ-nÌ
H$mo n‹T>|Jo Am¡a Bg Ad{Y Ho$ Xm¡amZ do CÎma-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &
· Please check that this question paper contains 21 printed pages + 1 Map.
· Please check that this question paper contains 34 questions.
· Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
· Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
· 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m.,
the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
B{Vhmg
HISTORY
1. ñVå^ I H$m {_bmZ ñVå^ II go H$s{OE Am¡a ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
ñVå^ I ñVå^ II
(_hm^maV Ho$ nmÌ) (^y{_H$m)
1. Xþ`m}YZ (i) {h{S>å~m H$m nwÌ
2. Jm§Ymar (ii) Y¥VamîQ´> H$m Á`oîR>> nwÌ
3. Hw§$Vr (iii) nm§S>dm| H$s _mVm
4. KQ>moËH$M (iv) Xþ`m}YZ H$s _mVm
{dH$ën :
(A) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (D) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five Sections – Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A – question number 1 to 21 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B – question number 22 to 27 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Write answer to each question in 60 to 80 words.
(v) Section C – question number 28 to 30 are Long Answer (LA) type questions.
Each question carries 8 marks. Write answer to each question in 300 to 350
words.
(vi) Section D – question number 31 to 33 are Source-based questions having three
sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(vii) Section E – question number 34 is Map-based question that includes the
identification and location of significant test items. This question carries
5 marks. Attach the Map with the answer-book.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
Sections B, C and D of question paper. A candidate has to write answer for
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) In addition to this, Note that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, Map
etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Type Questions) 21 1=21
{dH$ën :
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2. Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct
option :
I. Rule of Asoka II. Rule of Mahapadma Nanda
III. Rule of Harshavardhana IV. Rule of Samudragupta
Options :
(A) I, III, IV, II (B) III, II, I, IV
(C) II, I, IV, III (D) IV, III, I, II
Options :
(A) Alexander Greenlaw
(B) Colin Mackenzie
(C) John Marshall
(D) R.E.M. Wheeler
7. H$qZK_ Ho$ g§X^© _| {ZåZ{b{IV H$WZm| H$mo n{‹T>E Am¡a ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
I. H$qZK_ ^maVr` nwamVmpÎdH$ gd}jU H$m nhbm S>m`aoŠQ>a-OZab Wm &
II. CgZo 19dt eVmãXr Ho$ _Ü` _| nwamVmpÎdH$ CËIZZ H$m H$m`© Amaå^ {H$`m &
III. CgZo nw amVÎd H$s nÕ{V _| g¡{ZH$ n[aewÕVm H$m g_mdoe {H$`m &
IV. CgZo MrZr ~m¡Õ VrW©`m{Ì`m| Ûmam N>mo‹S>o JE d¥Îmm§Vm| H$m à`moJ {H$`m &
{dH$ën :
(A) I Am¡a IV ghr h¢ (B) I Am¡a II ghr h¢
(C) I, II Am¡a III ghr h¢ (D) I, II Am¡a IV ghr h¢
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5. Two statements as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read
them carefully and choose the correct option :
Reason (R) : The soils were fertile which allowed the farmers to
produce two crops a year.
Options :
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
6. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word from the given options :
Options :
10. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g {Obo _|o a¡`Vm| Zo a¡`Vdm‹S>r ì`dñWm _| gmhÿH$mam| Ho$ {déÕ {dÐmoh
{H$`m Wm ?
(A) AdY (B) ~¡aH$nwa (C) ^mJbnw a (D) nyZm
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8. Which of the following schools of art is depicted in the given sculpture
image of Buddha ?
Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates, only in
lieu of Q. No. 8 :
10. In which of the following districts did the ryots revolt against sahukars of
the Ryotwari system ?
(A) Awadh (B) Barrackpore (C) Bhagalpur (D) Poona
12. ñVå^ I H$m {_bmZ ñVå^ II go H$s{OE Am¡a ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z H$s{OE :
ñVå^ I ñVå^ II
(`mÌr) ({bIr JB© {H$Vm~|)
1. A~wb \$µOb (i) Q´>¡dëg BZ X _wJb Eånm`a
2. BãZ ~VyVm (ii) {H$Vm~-Cb-{hÝX
3. Ab-{~éZr (iii) [ahbm
4. \«$m±ñdm ~{Z©`a (iv) AmBZ-E-AH$~ar
{dH$ën :
(A) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i) (B) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) (D) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
13. ñVå^ I H$m {_bmZ ñVå^ II go H$s{OE Am¡a {ZåZ{b{IV _| go ghr {dH$ën H$m M`Z
H$s{OE :
ñVå^ I ñVå^ II
(1857 Ho$ {dÐmoh Ho$ ZoVm$) (g§~{§ YV joÌ)
1. Hw±$da qgh (i) qgh^y_
2. emh _b (ii) Amam
3. {~a{Og µH$Ð (iii) ~‹S>m¡V
4. JmoZy (iv) bIZD$
{dH$ën :
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
14. {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$gZo _hm^maV H$m g_mbmoMZmË_H$ g§ñH$aU V¡`ma H$aZo H$m {µOå_m
CR>m`m ?
(A) S>r.EZ. Pm (B) BamdVr H$md}
(C) dr.Eg. gwH$Wm§H$a (D) am_ H$aU e_m©
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11. Fill in the blank with the appropriate word from the given options :
The land which was annually cultivated for each crop in succession was
called __________ in the Mughal Empire.
12. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I Column II
(Traveller) (Books authored)
1. Abu’l Fazl (i) Travels in the Mughal Empire
2. Ibn Battuta (ii) Kitab-ul-Hind
3. Al-Biruni (iii) Rihla
4. François Bernier (iv) Ain-i-Akbari
Options :
(A) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i) (B) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) (D) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
13. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option from the
following :
Column I Column II
(Leaders of the Revolt of 1857) (Related Region)
1. Kunwar Singh (i) Singhbhum
2. Shah Mal (ii) Arrah
3. Birjis Qadr (iii) Barout
4. Gonoo (iv) Lucknow
Options :
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
14. Who among the following initiated the task of preparing the critical
edition of Mahabharata ?
(A) D.N. Jha (B) Irawati Karve
(C) V.S. Sukthankar (D) Ram Karan Sharma
19. 13 {Xgå~a, 1946 H$mo g§{dYmZ g^m _| {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$gZo ‘CÔoí` àñVmd’ noe
{H$`m ?
(A) dëb^ ^mB© nQ>ob (B) ~r.Ama. Aå~oS>H$a
(C) Odmhabmb Zohê$ (D) amOoÝÐ àgmX
22. (H$) g_mO$ gwYmaH$ Ho$ ê$n _| Jm±YrOr H$s ^y{_H$m H$m dU©Z H$s{OE & 3
AWdm
(I) ^maV _| 1905 go 1907 Ho$ Xm¡amZ amîQ´>r` Am§XmobZ H$s J{V{d{Y`m| H$s ì`m»`m
H$s{OE & 3
23. JwßV emgH$m| Ho$ B{Vhmg H$m nwZ{Z©_m©U H$aZo dmbo {H$Ýht VrZ òmoVm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3
24. ^maV _| Ab-{~éZr H$s `mÌm H$s _w»` {deofVmAm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3
25. 16dt Am¡a 17dt eVmpãX`m| Ho$ Xm¡amZ O§Jbdmgr AnZr AmOr{dH$m H¡$go H$_mVo Wo ? ñnîQ>
H$s{OE & 3
26. (H$) ^maV _| _hmË_m Jm±Yr Ho$ àma§{^H$ `moJXmZm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & 3
AWdm
(I) Agh`moJ Am§XmobZ _| Jm±YrOr H$s ^y{_H$m H$mo ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 3
27. dëb^ ^mB© nQ>ob Zo Eogm Š`m| H$hm Wm {H$ A§J«oµO Vmo Mbo JE, _Ja OmVo-OmVo eamaV H$m
~rO ~mo JE ? 3
IÊS> J
(XrK©-CÎmar` àH$ma Ho$ àíZ) 3 8=24
28. (H$) ~m¡Õ ñVyn A_amdVr I§S>ha H¡$go hmo J`m Am¡a gm±Mr ñVyn H¡$go ~M J`m ? naI
H$s{OE & 8
AWdm
(I) nm¡am{UH$ {hÝXÿ Y_© Ho$ {dH$mg H$s naI H$s{OE & 8
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21. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding ‘Quit India
Movement’ ?
(A) Quit India Movement was a mass movement.
(B) Thousands of Indians took part in this movement.
(C) ‘Independent’ governments were proclaimed in Satara and
Medinipur.
(D) A series of ‘Praja Mandals’ were established in princely states.
SECTION B
(Short Answer Type Questions) 6 3=18
23. Explain any three sources on which the histories of Gupta rulers have
been reconstructed. 3
25. Explain how the forest dwellers earned their livelihood during the 16th
and 17th centuries. 3
27. Why did Vallabh Bhai Patel remark that the British element is gone, but
they have left the mischief behind ? 3
SECTION C
(Long Answer Type Questions) 3 8=24
28. (a) Examine how the Buddhist Stupa at Amravati fell to ruins and the
Sanchi Stupa survived. 8
OR
(b) Examine the growth of Puranic Hinduism. 8
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29. (H$) ~§Jmb _| BñV_amar ~§Xmo~ñV Ho$ H$m`m©Ýd`Z Am¡a BgHo$ n[aUm_m| H$mo à^m{dV H$aZo
dmbo H$maH$m| H$s naI H$s{OE & 4+4=8
AWdm
(I) ‘‘18dt eVmãXr Ho$ A§V _| CÎma ~§Jmb Ho$ Hw$N> joÌm| _| OmoVXma à^mdembr ~Z JE
Wo &’’ Bg H$WZ H$s naI H$s{OE & 8
30. (H$) Abdmam| Am¡a Z`Zmam| Ho$ {dMmam| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE & amÁ`m| Ho$ gmW BÝhm§oZo AnZo
g§~Y§ {H$g àH$ma ñWm{nV {H$E ? ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 4+4=8
AWdm
(I) gyµ\$sdmX Ho$ CX` Ho$ H$maUm| H$s ì`m»`m H$s{OE Am¡a gy{µ \$`m| Ho$ amÁ` Ho$ gmW
g§~Y§ m| H$mo ^r ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 4+4=8
IÊS> K
(òmoV-AmYm[aV àíZ) 3 4=12
31. {XE JE òmoV H$mo Ü`mZnyd©H$ n{‹T>E Am¡a ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE : 1+1+2=4
(31.2) H¥$îUXod am` Zo Obme` Ho$ {Z_m©U Ho$ {bE Xmo nhm{‹S>`m| Ho$ _wI-{d~a Ho$ ñWmZ H$mo
Š`m| MwZm ? 1
(31.3) Obme`m| Ho$ nmZr H$m Cn`moJ {H$g àH$ma {H$`m OmVm Wm ? 2
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29. (a) Examine the factors that influenced the implementation of the
Permanent Settlement in Bengal and its consequences. 4+4=8
OR
(b) ‘‘The jotedars became powerful figures in many areas of North
Bengal during the end of the 18th century.’’ Examine the
statement. 8
30. (a) Explain the ideas of Alvars and Nayanars. Elucidate how they
established their relations with the states. 4+4=8
OR
(b) Explain the causes of the growth of Sufism and also explain the
Sufis relations with the state. 4+4=8
SECTION D
(Source-Based Questions) 3 4=12
31. Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 1+1+2=4
(32.2) ì`{º$`m| Zo d¡{XH$ IJmob {dkmZ _| AnZr {ZnwUVm H¡$go àX{e©V H$s ? 1
(32.3) {ebmboI _| C{„{IV {d{^Þ à{V^mAm| Zo g_mO Ho$ g_J« T>m±Mo _| {H$g àH$ma
`moJXmZ {X`m ? 2
33. {XE JE òmoV H$mo Ü`mZnyd©H$ n{‹T>E Am¡a ZrMo {XE JE àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE : 1+1+2=4
(33.2) Zdm~ Ho$ JÔr go hQ>Zo Am¡a OmZo na ^mdZmË_H$ CWb-nwWb Š`m| _Mr ? 1
(33.3) AdY H$m A{YJ«hU A§J«oµOm| H$s Am¡n{Zdo{eH$ aUZr{V _| {H$g àH$ma ghr ahm ?
ñnîQ> H$s{OE & 2
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32. Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 1+1+2=4
What the silk weavers did
Some are intensely attached to music (so) pleasing to the ear; others,
being proud of (the authorship of ) a hundred excellent biographies, are
conversant with wonderful tales; (others), filled with humility, are
absorbed in excellent religious discourses; ... some excel in their own
religious rites; likewise by others, who were self-possessed, the science of
(Vedic) astronomy was mastered.
(32.1) How was love for music expressed in the inscription ? 1
(32.3) In what ways did the various talents mentioned in the inscription
contribute to the overall fabric of society ? 2
33. Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 1+1+2=4
The Nawab has left
Another song mourned the plight of the ruler who had to leave his
motherland :
Noble and peasant all wept together
and all the world wept and wailed
Alas! The chief has bidden adieu to
his country and gone abroad.
(33.1) What was the immediate impact of the removal of the Nawab ? 1
(33.2) Why was there emotional upheaval at the dethroning and
departure of the Nawab ? 1
(33.3) How did the annexation of Awadh fit into the British colonial
strategy ? Explain. 2
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IÊS> L>>
(_mZ{MÌ-AmYm[aV àíZ) 5
34. (34.1) ^maV Ho$ {XE JE amOZr{VH$ aoIm-‘mZ{MÌ (n¥îR> 23 na) ‘|, {ZåZ{b{IV H$mo
Cn`wº$ {M•m| go A§{H$V H$s{OE Am¡a CZHo$ Zm‘ {b{IE : 3´1=3
(34.2) ^maV Ho$ Bgr amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ na Xmo ñWmZm| H$mo A Am¡a B Ho$ ê$n _|
{M[•V {H$`m J`m h¡ Omo 1857 Ho$ Xm¡amZ {~«{Q>e Ho$ AYrZñW Wo & CÝh| nhMm{ZE
Am¡a CZHo$ {ZH$Q> ItMr JB© aoImAm| na ghr Zm_ {b{IE & 2
ZmoQ> : {ZåZ{b{IV àíZ Ho$db Ñ{îQ>~m{YV narjm{W©¶m| Ho$ {bE à. g§. 34 Ho$ ñWmZ na h¢ :
(34.1) {H$gr EH$ h‹S>ßnm nwamñWb H$m Zm_ {b{IE & 1
(34.3) (H$) {dO`ZJa gm_«mÁ` H$s amOYmZr H$m Zm_ {b{IE & 1
AWdm
(34.3) (I) {dO`ZJa gm_«mÁ` Ho$ {H$gr EH$ n‹S>mogr amÁ` H$m Zm_ {b{IE & 1
(34.4) 1857 Ho$ Xm¡amZ {~«{Q>e AYrZñW {H$Ýht Xmo eham| H$m C„oI H$s{OE & 2
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SECTION E
(Map-Based Question) 5
34. (34.1) On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and
label the following with appropriate symbols : 3´1=3
(i) Dholavira – a Harappan site
(ii) Meerut Pillar – a site of Asokan inscription
(iii) (a) Vijayanagara
OR
(iii) (b) Bijapur
(34.2) On the same political outline map of India, two places related to
British control in 1857 are marked as A and B. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates, only in
lieu of Q. No. 34 :
OR
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General Instructions:
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment
of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect
the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one‟s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be
strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating answers which are based
on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand the given answer and even if the reply is
not from the marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers These are in the nature
of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on
the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the
Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation and
discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring
that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark (√) wherever the answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS „x” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is the most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded
for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, the answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
1|Page
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalised only once.
11 A full scale of marks 80 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has
to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:-
● Leaving the answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the „x‟ for incorrect answers.)
● Half or a part of the answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books, if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (x) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un-assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as
also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that
the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the
title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain a photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of
the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are
once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value
points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
2|Page
SET - 61/3/1
MARKING SCHEME 2024
HISTORY (027) MM:80
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Type Questions) 21x1=21
7 (A) Both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) Pg.128 1
is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
3|Page
Section B
(Short-Answer Type Questions) 6x3=18
OR
(b) Explain how burials help in understanding the social and Pg. 9 3
economic differences amongst the people in Harappan
civilization.
(i) The dead were laid in pits.
(ii) Sometimes pits had differences.
(iii) Some pits were lined with bricks .
(iv) Some graves contained pottery and ornaments.
(v) Jewellery has been found in graves of both men and women.
(vi) In some cases the dead were buried with copper mirror or
jasper beads etc.
(vii) It appears that Harappans did not believe in burying
precious things with the dead.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
23 Analyse the various sources to know about the Mauryan Empire. Pg. 32 3
4|Page
24 Explain how Ibn Battuta described the Indian cities. Pg.127-128 3
25. How did Mughals organize their land revenue system? Explain. Pg. 213-214 3
During the period of Akbar land was classified as under
5|Page
26 (a) Describe the role of Gandhiji as a social reformer. Pg.294-295 3
OR
(b) Explain the activities of the national movement in India during Pg. 287 3
1905 to 1907.
(i) India, though colony, yet far more active in political scene.
(ii) Indian National Congress had many branches in different
towns and cities.
(iii) Swadeshi Movement of 1905 – 07 had broadened its appeal
among the middle classes.
(iv) This movement had thrown up some towering leaders–Lal
Bal and Pal on the scene of India.
(v) The alliteration conveying the all India character of their
struggle, since their native place provinces were very
different from one another.
(vi) Where these leaders advocated militant opposition to colonial
rule, there was a group of „moderates‟ who preferred a more
gradual and persuasive approach.
(vii) Among these Moderates was Gandhiji‟s acknowledged
political mentor, Gopal Krishna Gokhale as well as
Mohammad Ali Jinnah. They asked for Swaraj.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
6|Page
27. Explain the attributes of a loyal citizen as defined by G.B. Pant. Pg. 330 3
Section C
(Long-Answer Type Questions) 3x8=24
28 (a) Examine the main features of the Stupa at Sanchi and the Pg. 82–83, 5+3=8
role of the rulers of Bhopal in preserving it. 99–103
7|Page
permission from Shahjehan Begum.
(iv) Englishmen also wanted to do the same thing.
(v) But later ShahJehan Begum of Bhopal did not permit them to
do so and satisfied both the French and the English with
carefully prepared plaster-cast copies and the original
remained at the site part of the Bhopal.
(vi) The rulers of Bhopal provided funds to preserve the Stupa.
(vii) Sultan Jehan Begum funded the museum that was built there
as well as the guest house.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
OR
(b) Examine the major teachings of Buddha and explain why Pg. 91–94 5+3=8
Buddhism grew rapidly during the time of Buddha.
8|Page
29. a) Explain the ideas of Alvars and Nayanars. Elucidate how they Pg.144 -146 4+4=8
established their relations with the states.
Ideas of Alvars and Nayanars.
OR
(b) Explain the causes of the growth of Sufism and also explain pg153,158- 4+4=8
the Sufis relations with the state. 159
9|Page
intense devotion and love for God.
(iv) They followed the command of the Prophet.
(v) They regarded the Prophet as the perfect human being.
(vi) They sought interpretation of Quran on the basis of their
personal experience.
(vii) By eleventh century, Sufism evolved into a well-developed
movement.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
Sufis relations with the state
(i) They developed their literature, and Sufi practices.
(ii) A major feature of the Chishti tradition was austerity, including
a distance from worldly power.
(iii) The Sufis accepted unsolicited grants and donation from the
political elites.
(iv) The Sultans in turn set up charitable trust as they gave
endowments for hospices and granted tax free land.
(v) Kings demonstrated their association with Sufis. They also
required legitimation from them.
(vi) The Delhi Sultan resisted the insistence of the ulema on
imposing shariat as state law.
(vii) The Sultans sought out the Sufis- who derived their authority
directly from God.
(viii) Kings often wanted their tombs to be in the vicinity of Sufi
shrines and hospices.
(ix) There were instances of conflict between the sultans and the
Sufis.
(x) Sufi Shaikh was addressed with high-sounding titles like sultan-
ul-mashaikh.
(xi) To assert the authority of sultans and Sufis both expected
certain rituals such as prostration and kissing of the feet.
(xii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
10 | P a g e
30 (a) Examine the factors that influenced the implementation of the Pg.228-229 4+4=8
Permanent Settlement in Bengal and its consequences.
CONSEQUENCES
(i) The East India Company had fixed the revenue that each
zamindar had to pay. The estates of those who failed to pay
were to be auctioned to recover the revenue.
(ii) Zamindars lost their power to organise local justice.
(iii) Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue demand.
(iv) Nurtured by the British they would be loyal to the Company.
(v) Unpaid balances accumulated.
(vi) The zamindars‟ troops were disbanded,
(vii) Customs duties abolished,
(viii) Their“cutcheries”(courts) brought under the supervision of a
Collector appointed by the Company.
(ix) Collectorate emerged as an alternative centre of authority, if
restricted what the zamindar could do
(x) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
OR
11 | P a g e
(b) „„The jotedars became powerful figures in many areas of Pg. 231 8
North Bengal during the end of the 18th century.‟‟
Examine the statement.
(i) A group of rich peasants were consolidating their position in
the villages.
SECTION D
(Source-Based Questions) 3x4=12
(31.1) How was love for music expressed in the inscription? Pg. 64
(1)
It was pleasing to the ear, attachment to music.
Any other relevant point.
Explain any one point.
(31.2) How did individuals demonstrate their mastery in the science Pg. 64
of Vedic astronomy? (1)
12 | P a g e
Explain any one point.
(31.3) In what ways did the various talents mentioned in the Pg. 64
inscription contribute to the overall fabric of society? (2)
(32.2)Why did Krishnadeva Raya choose the location at the mouth Pg. 177
of two hills for building the tank? (1)
(32.3) In what ways was the water from the tanks used? (2) Pg. 177
(i) The water was supplied to the city for domestic use.
(ii) For their gardens and rice-field.
(iii) To the royal center.
(iv) For the purpose of irrigation.
13 | P a g e
(v) Any other relevant point.
Explain any two point.
(33.1) What was the immediate impact of the removal of the Pg. 266-267
Nawab? (1)
(i) People of Awadh were unhappy
(ii) They wept
(iii) They wailed.
(iv) Soul had gone out of the body.
(v) They were dissatisfied with the British.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Explain any one point
(33.2) Why was there emotional upheaval at the dethroning and Pg. 266-267
departure of the Nawab ? (1)
(i) There was upheaval and the people were greatly annoyed.
(ii) Nawab was dethroned on frivolous grounds.
(iii) Awadh annexed.
(iv) He was seen as father figure.
(v) They started believing that the soul left the body.
(vi) Loss of livelihood.
(vii) Dissolution of court culture.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any one point.
(33.3) How did the annexation of Awadh fit into the British colonial Pg. 266-267
strategy? Explain. (2)
14 | P a g e
SECTION E
(Map-Based Questions) 5
34 34.1 On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate 3X1=3
and label the following with appropriate symbols :
Pg 2
(i) Dholavira – a Harappan site 1
Pg 33
(ii) Meerut Pillar – a site of Asokan inscription 1 Pg174
(iii) (a) Vijayanagara 1
OR
(iii) (b) Bijapur
(34.2) On the same political outline map of India, two places related Pg275 2
to British control in 1857 are marked as A and B. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
Any two Centers under the control of British from the given list.
(A) Delhi
(B) Jhansi
Hampi/ Vijayanagara
Mention any one.
OR
34.3 (b) Mention any one neighbouring state of the Vijayanagara Pg 174 1
Empire. Mention any one.
15 | P a g e
Mention any one.
34.4 Mention any two cities which were under the British control Pg 275 2
during 1857.
16 | P a g e
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
HISTORY (SUBJECT CODE 027) (PAPER CODE 61/3/2)
General Instructions:
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one‟s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should
be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand the given answer and even if the reply is
not from the marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers These are in the
nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have
their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on
the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the
Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation and
discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring
that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark ( √ ) wherever the answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS “x” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is the most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
1|Page
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, the answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalised only once.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in
other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner
in the past:-
● Leaving the answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the „x‟ for incorrect
answers.)
● Half or a part of the answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books, if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (x) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un-assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected
by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work
as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again
reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the
title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain a photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of
the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are
once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value
points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
2|Page
SET - 61/3/2
MARKING SCHEME 2024
HISTORY (027) MM:80
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Type Questions) 21x1=21
5 (A) Both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) Pg.128 1
is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
12 (A)1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(ii),4-(i) Pg.117- 1
118&122
3|Page
Section B
(Short-Answer Type Questions) 6x3=18
OR
(b) Explain the activities of the national movement in India during Pg.287 3
1905 to 1907.
(i) India, though colony, yet far more active in political scene.
(ii) Indian National Congress had many branches in different
towns and cities.
(iii) Swadeshi Movement of 1905 – 07 had broadened its appeal
among the middle classes.
(iv) This movement had thrown up some towering leaders–Lal
Bal and Pal on the scene of India.
(v) The alliteration conveying the all India character of their
struggle, since their native place provinces were very
different from one another.
(vi) Where these leaders advocated militant opposition to colonial
rule, there was a group of „moderates‟ who preferred a more
gradual and persuasive approach.
(vii) Among these Moderates was Gandhiji‟s acknowledged
political mentor, Gopal Krishna Gokhale as well as
Mohammad Ali Jinnah. They asked for Swaraj.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
23 Explain any three sources on which the histories of Gupta rulers Pg. 36-45 3
have been reconstructed.
4|Page
(Vi) Dharmshastra
(vii) Archaeological sources.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
25 Explain how the forest dwellers earned their livelihood during the 3
16th and 17th centuries. Pg. 208
26. (a) Explain the early contributions of Mahatma Gandhi in India. Pg.287-289 3
(i) The India that Mahatma Gandhi came back to in 1915 was
rather different from the one that he had left in 1893.
(ii) On Gokhale‟s advice, Gandhiji spent a year travelling around
British India, getting to know the land and its peoples.
(iii) His first major public appearance was at the opening of the
Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in February 1916.
(iv) Gandhiji charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the
labouring poor.
(v) Gandhiji chose instead to remind those present of the peasants
5|Page
and workers who constituted a majority of the Indian
population,
(vi) He was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar,
who told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British
indigo planters.
(vii) Gandhiji was involved in two campaigns in his home state of
Gujarat.
(viii) He intervened in a labour dispute in Ahmedabad, demanding
better working conditions for the textile mill workers.
(ix) He joined peasants in Kheda in asking the state for the
remission of taxes following the failure of their harvest.
(x) These initiatives in Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda marked
Gandhiji out as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for the poor.
(xi) Rowlatt Satyagrah.
(xii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
OR
27 Why did Vallabh Bhai Patel remark that the British element is gone, Pg. 328 3
but they have left the mischief behind?
6|Page
(i) In the meeting of the Constituent Assembly, Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel had said that the British had done their mischief while
leaving and had created many problems.
(ii) While leaving, the British raised the issue of separate
electorates.
(iv) Patel said, “It is not only for my benefit but it is also for your
benefit that we forget the past.
(v) The British left, but while leaving they sowed the seeds of divide
and rule.
(vi) When the British presented this idea they did not expect that
they would have to go so soon.
(vii) They wanted it for their easy administration.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
Section C
(Long-Answer Type Questions) 3x8=24
28 (a) Examine how the Buddhist Stupa at Amravati fell to ruins and 8
the Sanchi Stupa survived. Pg.
83,98,99
(i) Each stupa had a history of its own, so as the history of
Amaravati.
(ii) In 1796, when a local raja wanted to build a palace/ temple, he
came across stupa ruins at Amravati.
(iii) Some years later Colin Mackenzie visited the site.
(iv) He found many pieces of sculpture and he made detailed
drawings.
(v) In 1854 Walter Elliot visited Amaravati.
(vi) He discovered the remains of western gateway.
(vii) He found Amaravati was one of the largest magnificent stupas.
(viii) By 1850s the slabs from Amravati began to be taken to
different places.
(ix) Even new officials of the area continued to remove sculptures.
(x) In this way Amaravati fell to ruins.
(xi) One of the few men who had a different point of view was an
archaeologist named H.H. Cole believed that museums
should have plaster-cast facsimiles of sculpture, whereas the
originals should remain where they had been found.
(xii) Unfortunately, Cole did not succeed in convincing the
authorities about Amaravati, although his plea for in situ
preservation was adopted in the case of Sanchi.
(xiii) Amaravati was discovered before scholars understood the
value of the finds and realised how critical it was to preserve
things where they had been found instead of removing them
from the site.
(xiv) When Sanchi was “discovered” in 1818, three of its four
gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot
where it had fallen and the mound was in good condition.
7|Page
(xv) It was suggested that the gateway be taken to either Paris or
London.
(xvi) A number of factors helped to keep Sanchi as it was, and so it
stands.
(xvii) The Begums of Bhopal- Sultan Jahan and Shahjehan Begum
helped in preservation of Stupa of sanchi.
(xviii) The Mahachaitya at Amaravati is now just an insignificant little
mound, totally denuded of its former glory.
(vix) Any other relevant point.
Explain any eight points.
OR
8|Page
29. (a) Examine the factors that influenced the implementation of the Pg.228-229 4+4=8
Permanent Settlement in Bengal and its consequences.
CONSEQUENCES
(i) The East India Company had fixed the revenue that each
zamindar had to pay. The estates of those who failed to pay
were to be auctioned to recover the revenue.
(ii) Zamindars lost their power to organise local justice.
(iii) Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue demand.
(iv) Nurtured by the British they be loyal to the Company.
(v) Unpaid balances accumulated.
(vi) The zamindars‟ troops were disbanded,
(vii) Customs duties abolished,
(viii) Their“cutcheries”(courts) brought under the supervision of a
Collector appointed by the Company.
(ix) Collectorate emerged as an alternative centre of authority, if
restricted what the zamindar could do
(x) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
OR
(b) „„The jotedars became powerful figures in many areas of Pg. 231 8
North Bengal during the end of the 18th century.‟‟
Examine the statement.
(i) A group of rich peasants were consolidating their position in
the villages.
9|Page
(ii) Jotedars had acquired vast areas of land – sometimes as much
as several thousand acres.
(iii) They controlled local trade as well as moneylending,
exercising immense power over the poorer cultivators of the
region.
(iv) A large part of their land was cultivated through
sharecroppers. They exercised immense power over the
poor cultivators.
(v) The power of jotedars was more effective than that of
zamindars.
(vi) Jotedars were located in the villages and exercised direct
control over a considerable section of poor villagers.
(vii) They fiercely resisted efforts by zamindars to increase the
jama of the village, prevented zamindari officials from
executing their duties.
(viii) They mobilised raiyat who were dependent on them, and
deliberately delayed payments of revenue to the zamindar.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
Explain any eight points.
30 (a) Explain the ideas of Alvars and Nayanars. Elucidate how they Pg.144 -146 4+4=8
established their relations with the states.
Ideas of Alvars and Nayanars.
(i) Alvars and Nayanars initiated a movement against the caste
system
(ii) They criticised dominance of Brahmins.
(iii) They tried to reform the system.
(iv) They claimed that their compositions were as important as
Vedas.
(iv) Their anthology „Nalayira Divyaprabandham‟ was often
described as the Tamil Veda.
(v) The most striking feature of these traditions was the presence
of women.
(vi) Andal who saw herself as a beloved of Vishnu in Alvars
(vii) Karaikkal Ammaiyar ,a devotee of Shiva in Nayanars
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
10 | P a g e
,Sambandar and Sundarar in a Shiva temple.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points.
OR
(b) Explain the causes of the growth of Sufism and also explain Pg 153,158- 4+4=8
the Sufis relations with the state. 159
Causes of the growth of Sufism
(i) Sufism grew in protest against the growing materialism of the
Caliphate as a religious and political institution.
(ii) They were critical of the dogmatic definition of interpreting
Quran and Sunna.
(iii) Instead they laid emphasis on seeking salvation through
intense devotion and love for God.
(iv) They followed the command and command of the Prophet.
(v) They regarded the Prophet as the perfect human being.
(vi) They sought interpretation of Quran on the basis of their
personal experience.
(vii) By eleventh century, Sufism evolved into a well-developed
movement.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points.
Sufis relations with the state
11 | P a g e
SECTION D
(Source-Based Questions) 3x4=12
(31.1) Why did Krishnadeva Raya construct a tank? (1) Pg. 177
(31.2) Why did Krishnadeva Raya choose the location at the mouth Pg. 177
of two hills for building the tank? (1)
(31.3) In what ways was the water from the tanks used? (2) Pg. 177
(i) The water was supplied to the city for domestic use.
(ii) For their gardens and rice-field.
(iii) To the royal center.
(iv) For the purpose of irrigation.
(v) Any other relevant point
Explain any one point
(32.1) How was love for music expressed in the inscription? (1) Pg. 64
12 | P a g e
(i) It was pleasing to the ear,attachment to music .
(ii) Any other relevant point
Explain any one point
(32.2) How did individuals demonstrate their mastery in the science Pg. 64
of Vedic astronomy? (1)
(32.3) In what ways did the various talents mentioned in the Pg. 64
inscription contribute to the overall fabric of society? (2)
(33.1) What was the immediate impact of the removal of the Pg. 266-267
Nawab? (1)
(33.2) Why was there emotional upheaval at the dethroning and Pg. 266-267
departure of the Nawab ? (1)
(i) There was upheaval and the people were greatly annoyed.
(ii) Nawab was dethroned on frivolous grounds.
(iii) Awadh annexed.
(iv) He was seen as father figure.
(v) They started believing that the soul left the body.
(vi) Loss of livelihood.
13 | P a g e
(vii) Dissolution of court culture.
(viii) Any other relevant point
Explain any one point.
(33.3) How did the annexation of Awadh fit into the British Pg. 266-267
colonial strategy? Explain. (2)
SECTION E
(Map-Based Questions) 5
34. On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and 3X1=3
label the following with appropriate symbols :
34.1 On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate Pg 305 3
and label the following with appropriate symbols :
(34.2) On the same political outline map of India, two places related 2
to British control in 1857 are marked as A and B. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
14 | P a g e
Any two Centers under the control of British from the given list.
(A) Delhi
(B) Jhansi
OR
Hampi/ Vijayanagara
Mention any one.
34.3 (b) Mention any one neighbouring state of the Vijayanagara Pg 174 1
Empire. Mention any one.
34.4 Mention any two cities which were under the British control Pg 275 2
during 1857.
15 | P a g e
16 | P a g e
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
HISTORY (SUBJECT CODE 027) (PAPER CODE 61/3/3)
General Instructions:
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which
may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid
mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot
evaluation guidelines carefully.
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one‟s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should
be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand the given answer and even if the reply is
not from the marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers These are in the
nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have
their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on
the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the
Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation and
discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring
that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark (√) wherever the answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS “x” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that answer
is correct and no marks are awarded. This is the most common mistake which evaluators are
committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded
for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
1|Page
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, the answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalised only once.
11 A full scale of marks 80 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has
to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in
other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:-
● Leaving the answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the „x‟ for incorrect
answers.)
● Half or a part of the answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books, if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (x) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un-assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected
by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work
as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated
that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the
title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain a photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of
the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are
once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value
points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
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SET - 61/3/3
MARKING SCHEME 2024
HISTORY (027) MM:80
__________________________________________________________________________
S.NO Value Points Pg No. Marks
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Type Questions) 21x1=21
6 (A) Both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) Pg.128 1
is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
12 (A)1-(iv),2-(iii),3-(ii),4-(i) Pg.117- 1
118&122
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Section B
(Short-Answer Type Questions) 6x3=24
OR
(b) Explain how burials help in understanding the social and (Pg.9 ) 3
economic differences amongst the people in Harappan civilization.
(i) The dead were laid in pits.
(ii) Sometimes pits had differences.
(iii) Some rich people left a hollowed out space along the head
lined with bricks.
(iv) Some graves contained pottery and ornaments.
(v) Jewellery has been found in graves of both men and women.
(vi) In some cases the dead were buried with copper mirror.
(vii) It appears that Harappans did not believe in burying precious
things with the dead.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
(i) Letters are very faintly engraved, and thus reconstructions are
uncertain.
(ii) Inscriptions may be damaged or letters missing.
(iii) It is not always easy to be sure about the exact meaning of the
words used in inscriptions.
(iv) Not all have been deciphered, published and translated.
(v) There is another, perhaps more fundamental, problem
(vii) Not everything considered politically or economically
significant was necessarily recorded in the inscriptions.
(vi) The content of inscriptions projects the perspective of the
person(s) who commissioned them.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
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24 Explain what Ibn Battuta had described about the system of (Pg. 129) 3
communication during the 14th century.
(i) Ibn Battuta was amazed by the efficiency of the postal
system in India
(ii) It allowed merchants to send information
(iii) Remit credit across long distances,
(iv) To dispatch goods required at short notice.
(v) It took fifty days to reach Delhi from Sind, the news reports
of spies would reach the Sultan through the postal system in
just five days.
(vi) The postal system is of two kinds. The horsepost was called
uluq.
(vii) It is run by royal horses stationed at a distance of every four
miles.
(viii) The foot-post called dawa, that is one-third of a mile .
(ix) At every third of a mile there is a well-populated village,
outside which are three pavilions in which sit men with
girded loins ready to start.
(x) Each of them carries a rod, two cubits in length, with copper
bells at the top.
(xi) When the courier starts from the city he holds the letter in
one hand and the rod with its bells on the other.
(xii) He runs as fast as he can.
(xiii) When the men in the pavilion hear the ringing of the bell they
get ready.
(xiv) As soon as the courier reaches them, one of them takes the
letter from his hand and runs at top speed shaking the rod all
the while until he reaches the next dawa.
(xv) The same process continues till the letter reaches its
destination
(xvi) The foot-post is quicker than the horse-post; and often used
to transport the fruits of Khurasan which are much desired in
India.
(xvii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any 3 points.
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(viii) Zamindars came from upper caste as well as so called
Intermediate castes.
(ix) Contemporary documents give an impression that conquest
may have been the source of the origin of some zamindaris.
(xi) The dispossession of weaker people was a way of expanding
zamindari.
(xii) Zamindars spearheaded the colonisation of agricultural land,
and helped in settling cultivators.
(xiii) Zamindars sold the produce from their milkiyat lands.
(xiv) Zamindars often established markets (haats) to which
peasants also came to sell their produce.
(xv) Relationship between the zamindar and peasant had an
element of reciprocity, paternalism and patronage.
(xvi) Zamindars often received the support of the peasantry in their
struggle against the State.
(xvii) They were not exploitative towards the peasants according the
the bhakti saints.
(xviii) They were a part of the village panchayats.
(xix) Zamindars helped peasants in times of distress,
(xx) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points
26 (Pg307-313) 3
(a) Describe any three sources to know about Gandhiji.
(i) Writings and speeches of Mahatma Gandhi and his
contemporaries.
(ii) Letters written by Gandhiji and his contemporaries.
(iii) Journals like Harijan
(iv) Autobiographies and Biographies.
(v) Government record/Police records.
(vi) Fortnightly reports prepared by the Home Department.
(vii) Newspapers published in English.
(viii) Newspapers published in other languages.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points
OR
(b) Describe the role of Gandhiji in the Salt Satyagraha. (Pg 295- 3
300 )
(i) Gandhiji announced to lead a march to break the salt law.
(ii) Dandi March .
(ii) Civilians disobeyed the order of the British.
(iii) He asked local officials to resign from government jobs and join
6|Page
the freedom struggle.
(iv) He told the upper castes to change their attitude towards the
untouchables.
(v) People of all communities must unite to get Swaraj.
(vi) Boycott of British goods.
(vii) Protest by the masses on a large scale.
(viii) Participation of women on a large scale.
(ix) Swadeshi Movement.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Explain any three points.
Section C
(Long-Answer Type Questions) 3x8=24
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(xiv) He was critical of rituals and idol worship.
(xv) He was equally critical of Hinduism and Islam.
(xvi) Kabir is a source of inspiration for many people even today .
(xvii) The verses attributed to Kabir use the words guru and satguru.
(xviii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any eight points..
OR
(b) Explain the life and teachings of Baba Guru Nanak Dev ji. (Pg 163- 8
164)
(i) Guru Nanak advocated Nirguna Bhakti.
(ii) He refused the external practices of the religion.
(iii) He rejected sacrifices, ritual baths,image worship.
(iv) He rejected scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims.
(v) For him Absolute or Rab had no gender or form.
(vi) He proposed that the way to connect to the divine (by
remembering and repeating the name of Rab.
(vii) He set up rules for congregational worship (Sangat).
(viii) He expressed his ideas through hymns called Shabad.
(ix) Baba Guru Nanak would sing his compositions in various ragas
while his attendant Mardana played rabab.
(x) His hymns are compiled in Adi Granth Sahib.
(xi) Baba Guru Nanak didn‟t wish to establish a new religion, after
his death his followers consolidated his own practices.
(xii) They distinguished themselves from both Hindus and Muslims
(xiii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any eight points.
29 (a) Explain the ideas of Alvars and Nayanars. Elucidate how (Pg.144 - 4+4=8
they established their relations with the states. 146)
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Relations with the state.
(i) There were instances to show that they had cordial relations
with the rulers.
(ii) They used to get royal patronage.
(iii) Cholas gave grants for constructing temples of Vishnu and
Shiva.
(iv) Important temples at Thanjavur, and Chidambaram were
constructed under the patronage of Chola rulers.
(v) Chola rulers claimed divine support.
(vi) They proclaimed their own power and status by building
splendid temples.
(vii) These kings also introduced the singing of Tamil hymns.
(viii) They organized them into a text (Tevaram).
(ix) Chola ruler Prantaka I consecrated metal images of saint
Appar ,Sambandar and Sundarar in a Shiva temple.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Explain Any four points.
OR
((b) Explain the causes of the growth of Sufism and also explain Pg 153,158 4+4=8
the Sufis relations with the state. -159
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(v) Kings demonstrated their association with Sufis. They also
required legitimation from them.
(vi) The Delhi Sultan resisted the insistence of the ulema on
imposing shariat as state law.
(vii) The Sultans sought out the Sufis- who derived their authority
directly from God.
(viii) Kings often wanted their tombs to be in the vicinity of Sufi
shrines and hospices.
(ix) There were instances of conflict between the sultans and the
Sufis.
(x) Sufi Shaikh was addressed with high-sounding titles like
Sultan-Ul-Mashaikh.
(xi) To assert the authority of sultans and Sufis both expected
certain rituals such as prostration and kissing of the feet.
(xii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points.
30 (a) Examine the factors that influenced the implementation of the Pg.228-229 4+4=8
Permanent Settlement in Bengal and its consequences.
CONSEQUENCES
(i) The East India Company had fixed the revenue that each
zamindar had to pay. The estates of those who failed to pay
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were to be auctioned to recover the revenue.
(ii) Zamindars lost their power to organise local justice.
(iii) This could be done by securing rights of property and
permanently fixing the rates of revenue demand..
(iv) Zamindars regularly failed to pay the revenue demand.
(v) Nurtured by the British they be loyal to the Company.
(vi) Unpaid balances accumulated.
(vii) The zamindars‟ troops were disbanded,
(viii) Customs duties abolished,
(ix) Their“cutcheries”(courts) brought under the supervision of a
Collector appointed by the Company.
(x) Collectorate emerged as an alternative centre of authority, if
restricted what the zamindar could do
(xi) Any other relevant point.
Explain any four points
OR
(b) „„The jotedars became powerful figures in many areas of (Pg. 231) 8
North Bengal during the end of the 18th century.‟‟
Examine the statement.
(i) A group of rich peasants were consolidating their position in
the villages.
SECTION D
(Source-Based Questions) 3x4=12
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pleasing to the ear; others, being proud of (the authorship of ) a
hundred excellent biographies, are conversant with wonderful tales;
(others), filled with humility, are absorbed in excellent religious
discourses; ... some excel in their own religious rites; likewise by
others, who were self-possessed, the science of (Vedic) astronomy
was mastered.
(31.1) How was love for music expressed in the inscription? (1) Pg. 64
(31.2) How did individuals demonstrate their mastery in the science Pg. 64
of Vedic astronomy? (1)
(31.3) In what ways did the various talents mentioned in the Pg. 64
inscription contribute to the overall fabric of society? (2)
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(32.2) Why did Krishnadeva Raya choose the location at the mouth Pg. 177
of two hills for building the tank? (1)
(i) To receive a regular supply of water from basin of Tungabhadra.
(ii) Water come from 3 leagues to fill the lake.
Explain Any one point
(32.3) In what ways was the water from the tanks used? (2)
(i) The water was supplied to the city for domestic use.
(ii) For their gardens and rice-field.
(iii) To the royal center.
(iv) For the purpose of irrigation.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Explain Any one point
(33.1) What was the immediate impact of the removal of the Pg. 266-267
Nawab? (1)
(33.2) Why was there emotional upheaval at the dethroning and Pg. 266-267
departure of the Nawab ? (1)
(i) There was upheaval and the people were greatly annoyed.
(ii) Nawab was dethroned on frivolous grounds.
(iii) Awadh annexed.
(iv) He was seen as father figure.
(v) They started believing that the soul left the body.
(vi) Loss of livelihood.
(vii) Dissolution of court culture.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Explain any one point.
(33.3) How did the annexation of Awadh fit into the British colonial Pg. 266-267
strategy? Explain. (2)
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(i) Lord Dalhousie described the kingdom of Awadh as “a cherry
that will drop into our mouth one day”.
(ii) The British felt that the soil there was good for producing indigo
and cotton.
(iii) The region was ideally located to be developed into the principal
market of Upper India.
(iv) By the early 1850s, all the major areas of India had been
conquered: Maratha lands, Doab, the Carnatic, the Punjab
and Bengal.
(v) The takeover of Awadh in 1856 was expected to complete a
process of territorial annexation.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Explain any one point.
SECTION E
(Map-Based Questions) 5
34 34.1 On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate 3X1=3
and label the following with appropriate symbols :
Pg 2
(i) Dholavira – a Harappan site 1
Pg 33
(ii) Meerut Pillar – a site of Asokan inscription 1 Pg 174
(iii) (a) Vijayanagara 1
OR
(iii) (b) Bijapur
(34.2) On the same political outline map of India, two places related Pg 275 2
to British control in 1857 are marked as A and B. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
Any two Centers under the control of British from the given list.
(A) Delhi
(B) Jhansi
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Sanchi, Amravati, Nagarjunkonda, Sarnath, Shravasti, Lumbini,
Kushinagar, Bodhgaya.
Any other relevant place.
Mention any one.
Hampi/ Vijayanagara
Mention any one.
OR
34.3 (b) Mention any one neighbouring state of the Vijayanagara Pg 174 1
Empire. Mention any one.
34.4 Mention any two cities which were under the British control Pg 275 2
during 1857.
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