® No.

:
DEEPER
Test Booklet code
DEEPER (NEET) KASAUTI PLUS - 2022
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
This booklet contains 32 printed pages.
A
Day and Date: Duration : 2.00 PM - 5.20 PM
Sunday, 19th June, 2022 Total Marks : 720
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for
writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
5. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subject wise in each part is as under.
Part A–PHYSICS (180 marks) – Section A : 35 question from 1 to 35 for 4(Four) marks each.
Section B : 15 question from 36 to 50.
Any 10 questions will be considered serially for 4(Four) marks each.
Part B–CHEMISTRY (180 marks) – Section A : 51 question from 51 to 85 for 4(Four) marks each.
Section B : 15 question from 86 to 100.
Any 10 questions will be considered serially for 4(Four) marks each.
Part C–BIOLOGY (Botany) (180 marks)–Section A : 35 question from 101 to 135 for 4(Four) marks each.
Section B : 15 question from 136 to 150.
Any 10 questions will be considered serially for 4(Four) marks each.
Part C–BIOLOGY (Zoology) (180 marks)–Section A :35 question from 151 to 185 for 4(Four) marks each.
Section B : 15 question from 186 to 200.
Any 10 questions will be considered serially for 4(Four) marks each.
6. For every question, there are four choices. Out of these choices only one choice is correct.
7. Each correct answer caries 4 marks and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given
at the bottom of each page.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Please write the CODE on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet same as that on this
booklet. In case of any discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for
replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
12. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) : _______________________________________________

Roll Number : In figures In words ___________________________________

Examination Centre Number : 0 Examination Centre in letter: ___________________

Candidate's Signature: __________________ Invigilator's Signature : ________________________

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

DEEPER KASAUTP PLUS – 2022 : SOLUTION

PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION – A

Q1. Which of the following can be derived by the dimensional method ?

t

(1) y = a sin (kx – t) (2) q = q0e RC

1
(3) N = N0e–T (4) C=
 0 0

1
Ans.:- (4) C =
0 0

:Solution: We cannot obtain the dimensions of trigonometric function, logarithmic or

exponential values. If gives no information about constants.
Chapter Name : Units and measurement
Topic Name : Dimension
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Mathematical
Q2. The diameter of the small sphere is measured with the help of a screw gauge, whose pitch is
0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is
2.5 mm and that on the circular coincide scale is 20 division. The diameter of sphere is ____
(1) 2.70 mm (2) 0.270 mm
(3) 27.0 mm (4) 2.5 mm
Ans.:- (1) 2.70 mm
Pitch
:Solution: Least count of screw gauge =
total division on circular scale
0.5
L. C. = = 0.01 mm
50
Diameter = main scale + circular scale  L. C.
0.5
= 2.5 + 20 
50
10.0
= 2.5 +
50

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

= 2.5 + 0.2
= 2.70 mm
Chapter Name : Units and measurement
Topic Name : Uses of screw gauge
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Mathematical
Q3. Water rises up to a height of 4 cm, in a capillary tube immersed vertically in water. What will
be the length of water column in the capillary tube, if the tube is immersed in water, at an angle
of 600 with the vertical ?
(1) 4m (2) 5 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 2 cm
Ans.:- (3) 8 cm
h 4 4
:Solution: l = = = =8
cos  cos 60 1
2
l=8
Chapter Name : Mechanical properties of fluid
Topic Name : S. T.
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q4. A cubical block of wood 10 cm along each side floats at the interface between an oil and water
with its lowest surface 2 cm below the interface. If the heights of oil and water columns are
10 cm each and oil = 0.8 gm/cc. Find the mass of block.
(1) 980 g (2) 840 kg
(3) 840 g (4) 740 g
Ans.:- (3) 840 g
:Solution: Weight of block = Wt. of displaced + Wt. of displaced
Oil water
mg = (V00 + Vww)g
m = (10  10  8)  0.8 + (10  10  2)  1

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

= 640 + 200
= 840 gm
Chapter Name : Mechanical properties of fluid
Topic Name : Law of Motion
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q5. Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substances _____.
(1) increases with increase in temperature.
(2) increases with decrease in temperature.
(3) remains constant with change in temperature.
(4) decrease with increase in temperature.
Ans.:- (3) remains constant with change in temperature.
:Solution: Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic substances does not depend upon the
temperature. Hence, it remains constant due to change in temperature.
Chapter Name : Magnetism
Topic Name : Magnetic substance
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q6. The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s
magnetic field are equal is _____
(1) 300 (2) 750
(3) 600 (4) 450
Ans.:- (4) 450
:Solution: Let BH and BV are horizontal and vertical components of earth’s magnetic field.
BV
 tan  =
BH

tan  = 1 ( BV = BH)
 = 450
Chapter Name : Magnetism

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Topic Name : Angle of dip

Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q7. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is ____.
(1) 230  (2) 46 
(3) 26  (4) 13 
Ans.:- (3) 26 
V2 (100) 2
:Solution: R bulb = = = 20 
P 500
Power in the bulb connected in cct,
P 500
P = VI  I = = =5A
V 100
V = IR = (230 – 100) = 5 R
130
R=
5
R = 26 
Chapter Name : Current electricity
Topic Name : Resistors – series and parallel
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q8. A hot metal sphere cools from 60 0C to 52 0C in 5 minute.  from 52 0C to 44 0C in next 7.5
minute. Its temperature in next 10 minutes will be ___.
1 0
(Room temperature 0 = 32 0C, K = / C)
15
(1) 38 0C (2) 36 0C
(3) 40 0C (4) 37 0C
Ans.:- (1) 38 0C
1  2   + 2 
:Solution: = K 1  0  by Newton’s law of cooling
dt  2 

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

44  2 1  44 + 2 
=   32 
10 15  2 
2  44 + 2  64 
44  2 =
3  2 

132 – 32 = 2 – 20
42 = 152
2 = 38 0C
Chapter Name : Thermal properties of matter
Topic Name : Newton’s law of cooling
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
  
Q9. A body under the action of force F = 6i  8j N acquires an acceleration of 5 m/s2. The mass of
the body is ______
(1) 2 kg (2) 5 kg
(3) 4 kg (4) 6 kg
Ans.:- (1) 2 kg

:Solution: F = 62 + (  8)2 = 36 + 64 = 100 = 10 N

F = ma
F 10
 m= = = 2 kg
a 5
Chapter Name : Laws of motion
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q10. A block of mass 5 kg is suspended by a massless rope of length 2 m from the coiling. A force of
50 N is applied in the horizontal direction at the midpoint P of the rope, as shown.

P 50N

1m

5Kg

The angle made by the rope with vertical in equilibrium is _____ (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 300 (2) 400
(3) 600 (4) 450
Ans.:- (4) 450
:Solution:

 T1 cos 
T1

P 50N
T1 sin  T2
1m

5 kg
T1 cos  = T2
But T2 = 5  10 = 50 N …(1)
T1 sin  = 50 N …(2)
50
tan  = =1
50
  = 450
Chapter Name : Laws of motion
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q11. What will be average drift speed of conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross sectional area
1  10–7 m2 carrying a current of 1.6 A. Assume density of conduction of electron be
9  1028 m–3 ?
(1) 1  10–3 m/s (2) 1  10–4 m/s
(3) 1  10–5 m/s (4) 1  10–6 m/s
Ans.:- (1) 1  10–3 m/s
:Solution: Given A = 1.0  10–7 m2, I = 1.6 A, n = 9  1028 m–3, Vd = ?
I = neAVd
I
 Vd =
neA
1.6
=
9 10  1.6 1019  1.0  107
28

1
=  102
9
Vd = 1  10–3 m/s
Chapter Name : Current electricity
Topic Name : Drift velocity
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI/XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q12. A body is given an initial speed u inside a smooth spherical shell of radius R so that it just
complete the circle. Acceleration of the particle when its velocity is vertical is ______

(1) 10 g (2) 2g

(3) g (4) 6g

Ans.:- (1) 10 g

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

:Solution:
a
at

ar V = 3Rg
R

h=R

V = 5rg

Radial acceleration
V2
ar =
R
2

=
 3Rg   3g … (1)
R
Similarly, tangential acceleration at = g … (2)
Acceleration of non U. C. M.

a= a 2r + a 2t = 9g 2  g 2

a = 10 g
Chapter Name : Motion in two dimensions
Topic Name : Circular motion
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question :Mathematical
Q13. The correct nuclear reaction equation for + decays is ____

11
(1) 11
6 C 
 11
5 B+e+  (2) 6  11
C  6B+ e + 

 
11
(3) 6  11
C  6B + e +  (4) 11
6  11
C  5 B + e + 


Ans.:- (4) 116 C 
 11
5 B + e + 

:Solution: Due to + decay, At. No. decreases by 1 and position e+ and neutrino  is formed
from 116 C


11 
6 C   11
5 B + e + 

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Nuclei

Topic Name : Radio activity
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge, Skill
Type of question :Mathematics
Q14. An artillery piece which consistently shoots its shells the same muzzle speed has a maximum
R
range R. To hit a target which is from the gun and on the same level, the elevation angle of
2
the gun should be _____
(1) 150 (2) 460
(3) 300 (4) 450
Ans.:- (1) 150
:Solution: Range of the projectile is maximum, when  = 450
u2
 R max = u = initial velocity of projection
g

 u2 = Rg …(1)
R
Now, to hit the target at the distance from the gun,
2
R u 2 sin 2  R Rg sin 2 
= = =
2 g 2 g
1
 sin 2 =  sin 2 = 300
2
 = 150
Chapter Name : Kinematics
Topic Name : Projectile motion
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q15. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane surface does not involve force ?
(1) Accelerated motion in a straight line.
(2) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line.
(3) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity.

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(4) Retarded motion in a straight line.

Ans.:- (2) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line.
:Solution: According to the Newtans second law, the rate of change of momentum is directly
proportional to the applied force.
Chapter Name : Laws of motion
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q16. When a 1.0 kg mass hangs attached to a spring of length 50 cm, the spring stretches by 2 cm.
The mass is pulled down until the length of the spring becomes 60 cm. What is the amount of
elastic energy stored in the spring in this condition. (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 1.5 Joule (2) 2.0 Joule
(3) 2.5 Joule (4) 3.0 Joule
Ans.:- (3) 2.5 Joule
:Solution: F – x
F = Kx
F mg 1  10
K= = = = 500 N/m
x x 2  102
Increase in the length = 60 – 50 = 10 cm
1 1
 Energy u = Kx2 =  500  (10  10–2)2
2 2
= 2.5 Joule
Chapter Name : Work energy and power
Topic Name : Energy
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q17. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation
(t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes zero at ____
(1) t=2s (2) t=1s
(3) t = 0.5 s (4) t = 0.25 s
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Ans.:- (2) t = 1 s
:Solution: Given  = 2t3 – 6t2
d
= 6t 2  12t
dt
d2
= = 12t  12
dt 2
When the angular acceleration () is zero then the torque on the wheel becomes
zero. (  = I)
 12t – 12 = 0
t=1s
Chapter Name : Motion of systems of particles and rigid body
Topic Name : Dynamics of rotational motion
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill and Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q18. The unit of thermal conductivity is ____
(1) WmK–1 (2) Wm–1K–1
(3) JmK–1 (4) Jm–1 K–1
Ans.:- (2) Wm–1K–1

:Solution: K = Q
 T 
At  
 x 
Where, K – Thermal conductivity
Q – Amount of heat
A – Area
t – time
T
– temperature gradient
x
Unit of K : Wm–1 K–1
Chapter Name : Thermal properties of matter
Topic Name : Thermal conductivity
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q19. Heat required to convert 10 g of water at 50 0C to steam ____
(1) 5.9 Kcal (2) 5.4 Kcal
(3) 4.9 Kcal (4) 540 Kcal
Ans.:- (1) 5.9 Kcal
:Solution: Heat required to raise temperature of 10 g of water from 50 0C to 100 0C is
Q1 = ms d
= 10  1  50 = 500 cal
Heat required to convert 10 g of water at 100 0C to steam at 100 0C is
Q2 = mL
= 10  540
= 5400 Kcal
 Q = Q1 + Q2
= 500 + 5400
= 5900 cal
= 5.9 Kcal
Chapter Name : Thermal properties of matter
Topic Name : Latent heat
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q20. Two sonometer wires have their lengths in the ratio 36 : 35. Their tensions, radii and densities
of the material are in the ration 8 : 1, 4 : 1 and 1 : 2 respectively. If the lower frequency is
360 Hz then the number of beats produced per second are approximately ____ when they are
sounded together.
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 6 (4) 8
Ans.:- (2) 10

1 T 1 T
:Solution: n = =
2l m 2l r 2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

n1 l T1 2 r2
 = 2 
n2 l1 T2 1 r1

n1 35 8 2 1 35
 =   =
n2 36 1 11 4 36

360 35
 =
n2 36

36
 n2 = (360)
35
36
(Beat frequency) = n2 – n1 =  360 – 360  10 Hz
35
Chapter Name : Sound
Topic Name : Phenomenon
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q21. Power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g = 10 m/sec2, the volume of water can raise in one minute
to a height of 10 m is ____
(1) 2000 litre (2) 1000 litre
(3) 100 litre (4) 1200 litre
Ans.:- (4) 1200 litre
mgh p  t 2  10 3  60
:Solution: P = m= = = 1200 kg
t gh 10  10
mass 1200 kg
As volume =  v= = 1.2 m3
density 10 3 kg/m 3
Volume = 1.2 m3 = 1.2  103 litre = 1200 litre
Chapter Name : Work, energy and power
Topic Name : Power
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q22. A ball is thrown from a point with speed u at an angle of projection . Form the same point and
u
at the same instant a person starts running with constant speed to catch the ball. Will the
2
person be able to catch the ball ? If yes, what should be angle of projection ?
(1) yes, 600 (2) yes, 300
(3) no (4) yes, 450
Ans.:- (1) yes, 600
:Solution: The person will catch the ball, if his speed and horizontal speed of ball are same.
u
= u cos 
2
1
cos  =
2
 = 600
Chapter Name : Projectile motion
Topic Name : Motion in two dimension
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q23. An elastic spring of unscratched length L and force constant K is stretched by a small length ‘x’.
It is further stretched by another small length ‘y’. The work done in the second stretching
is____.
1 1
(1) Ky2 (2) K(x 2 + y2 )
2 2
1 1
(3) Ky (2x + y) (4) K(x + y) 2
2 2
1
Ans.:- (3) Ky (2x + y)
2
:Solution: When the spring is stretched by ‘x’ P. E. stored is
1
U1 = Kx 2 …(1)
2
When the spring is stretched by ‘y’ the P. E. stored is
1
U2 = K(x + y) 2
2
 Work done = change in P. E.
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

1 1
W= K(x + y)2  Kx 2
2 2
1 1
= K(x 2 + 2xy + y 2 )  Kx 2
2 2
1
= K(2xy + y 2 )
2
1
W= Ky(2x + y)
2
Chapter Name : Elasticity
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q24. In vertical circular motion, the ratio of kinetic energy of a particle at uppermost position
(A) (or at highest point) to that at lowermost position (B) (or at lowest point) is ____
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5
(3) 2 (4) 5
Ans.:- (1) 0.2
:Solution: The velocity of a particle at lowermost position (B) in the vertical motion is given by
(VB ) = 5rg

1 5
Kinetic energy K B = mVB2 = mrg …(1)
2 2
And at uppermost position (A) (or at highest point) is given by
(VA ) min = rg

1
So KE at uppermost position K h = mrg …(2)
2
mgr
K 2
So ratio of h =
Kl 5 mgr
2
Kh 1
= = 0.2
Kl 5

Chapter Name : Rotational dynamics

Topic Name : Vertical circular motion
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q25. The maximum velocity and maximum acceleration of a particle executing SHM are 20 cm/sec.
and 100 cm/sec2. The displacement of the particle from the mean position when its speed is
10 m/sec. is _____.
(1) 2 cm (2) 2.5 cm

(3) 2 3 cm (4) 2 2 cm

Ans.:- (3) 2 3 cm
:Solution: Vm = A = 20 cm/sec
Am = A2 = 100 cm/sec2

Vm2 400
= A= = 4 cm
am 100
am 100
== = 5 rad/sec.
Vm 20

V =  A2  y2

10 = 5 42  y2
4 = 42 – y2
y2 = 16 – 4 = 12

y = 2 3 cm
Chapter Name : Oscillation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
I2
Q26. Two coherent sources of light of intensity ratio  = interfere. In the interference pattern
I1

Imax  Imin
=__. Where Imax and Imin are maximum and minimum intensities in the resulting wave.
Imax + Imin

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

2 2 
(1) (2)
1  1 

2  2
(3) (4)
1  1 

2 
Ans.:- (3)
1 

I max  I min ( I1 + I 2 )2  ( I1  I2 ) 2
:Solution: =
Imax + Imin ( I1 + I 2 )2 + ( I1  I 2 ) 2

4 I1I2
=
2  I1 + I2 

2 I1I 2
=
 I 
I1 1 + 2 
 I1 

I2
2
I1
=
I
1+ 2
I1

2 

1 
Chapter Name :
Topic Name : Wave optics
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
1 1
Q27. If the power factor changes from to then what is the increase in impedance in AC ?
2 4
(1) 20 % (2) 50 %
(3) 25 % (4) 100 %
Ans.:- (4) 100 %
R 1
:Solution: cos  = , cos  
Z Z

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Z1 cos  2
 =
Z2 cos 1

1
= 4
1
2
Z2 = 2Z1
2Z1  Z1
 Percentage change =  100
Z1

= 100 %
Chapter Name : Alternating current
Topic Name : Power factor
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill, Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q28. A circular coil of radius 5 cm has 500 turns of a wire. The approximate value of coefficient of
self induction of the coil will be ____ (0 = 4  10–7 Wb/Am)
(1) 50  10–3 mH (2) 25 mH
(3) 25  10–3 mH (4) 50 mH
Ans.:- (2) 25 mH
:Solution:  = Li
NBA = Li

 L = NBA
i
The magnetic field at the centre of circular coil carrying current is given by
 0 2 Ni
B= 
4 r
NA  2 Ni  N 2 r
 L=  0  = 0
i 4 r 2
4  10 7  500  500    0.05
 L=
2
= 25 mH
Chapter Name : EMI
Topic Name : Self inductance of a coil
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q29. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field
at the centre of loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the
centre of this coil of n turns will be _______.
(1) nB (2) n2 B
(3) 2nB (4) 2n2B
Ans.:- (2) n2B
:Solution: Magnetic field at the centre of coil is,
 0 nI  l 
B=  l = 2 R  R = 
2R  2 
 0 nI
=
l
2 
2
 0 nI …(i)
=
l
 0 nI  0 nI
B' = =
2r 1
2
2r
 0 n 2 I …(ii)
=
l
From equation (i) and (ii)
B = n2B
Chapter Name : MEEC
Topic Name : Magnetic field of the centre of a current caring coil.
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q30. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m long a resistance of 20 ohm is connected in series with a
cell of emf 2V (negligible internal resistance). Find length of wire will balance Daniel cell.
(given E = 1.08 Volt.)
(1) 480 cm (2) 540 cm
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(3) 600 cm (4) 660 cm

Ans.:- (2) 540 cm
:Solution: Given L = 10 m, R = 20 , E = 2 V
For Daniel cell E2 = 1.08 V l2 = ?
V IR
= r is negligible
E I(R + r)
 V = E = 2V

Potential gradient = V
L
2 V
= = 0.2
10 m
0.2V V
= = 0.2  102
100 cm cm
= 0.2  10–2 = 0.002 V/cm
E. m. f. of Daniel cell  l2
E2 1.08
l2 = =
Potential gradient 0.002
1.08 = 0.54  103
=
2  10 3
l2 = 540 cm
Chapter Name : Current Electricity
Topic Name : Potentiometer
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q31. The electric field of electromagnetic wave in free space
  V
E = 10 cos (107 t + kx) j
m
Where t – in sec. x – in meter ?
Which option is correct ?

(a) Wavelength  = 188.4 m (b) Wave amplitude = 10 V

m
(c) Wave number k = 0.33 rad/m (d) Wave is propagated along +x direct

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(1) b, d (2) a, b
(3) b, c (4) d, a
Ans.:- (2) a, b
:Solution: E = 10 cos (107t + kx)
complete E = E0 cos(t + kx)
2 =  = 107 rad/s
(1) E0 = 10 V/m
C C
(2)  = =  2
 
3  10 8  6.28
=
10 7
= 188.4 m

(3) C =
K
 10 7
K= = = 0.033
C 3  10 8
Chapter Name : E. M. waves
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Mathematical
Q32. When current in a coil changes from 8A to 2A in 3  10–7 second the emf induced in the coil is
2 volt, the self inductance of the coil in millinery is ____
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 20 (4) 10
Ans.:- (4) 10
i
:Solution: e =  L
dt
(2  8)
2 = L
3  10 2
2  3  10–2 = –L(–6)
6  10–2 = 6L
L = 10  10–3 H

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

= 10 mH
Chapter Name : Electromagnetic induction
Topic Name : Self inductance
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Mathematical
Q33. A vessel has 6 gm of hydrogen at pressure P and temperature 500 K. A small hole is made in it

so that hydrogen leaks out. How much hydrogen leaks out if the final pressure P is and
2
temperature falls to 300 K ?
(1) 29 (2) 39
(3) 49 (4) 19
Ans.:- (4) 19
:Solution: PV = nRT
m
PV = RT
M
6
 PV = R  500
M

and P V = (6  x) R  300 (x gm leaks out)

2 M
6 5
 2= 
6x 3
 x = 1 gm
Chapter Name : KTG
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q34. The amount of heat must be supplied to 2.0  10–2 kg of nitrogen at room temperature to raise
its temperature by 450 C at constant pressure is ____ given molecular weight of N2 is 28 and

R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1 and Cv (diatomic gases) = 7 R

2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(1) 900.75 J (2) 933.75 J

(3) 944.75 J (4) 899.75 J
Ans.:- (2) 933.75 J
:Solution: Number of moles of gas,
Mass of N 2 in gm
n=
molecular mass
2.0  10 2  10 3 20
= =
28 28
R = 83 J mol–1 K–1, T = 450 C
Molar sp. Heat of N2 at constant pressure,
7 7  8.3 J mol–1 K–1
CP = R =
2 2
Heat supplied to gas,

Q = n CP T = 20  7 8.3  45
28 2
= 933.75 J
Chapter Name : Thermodynamics
Topic Name : sp heats of gases
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q35. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in PV diagram. The net work done by
the gas during cycle is ____

B
4P

P C
A

V 3V
(1) 12 PV (2) 6 PV
(3) 3 PV (4) PV
Ans.:- (3) 3 PV
:Solution: Work done by the gas during cycle = Area of triangle
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

1
=  Base  height
2
1
=  2V  3P
2
= 3 PV
Chapter Name : Thermodynamics
Topic Name : PV diagram
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
SECTION – B
Q36. The weight of the object in the coal mine, sea level and at the temperature of maintain are
W1, W2 and W3 respectively, then _______
(1) W2 > W1 > W3 (2) W1 = W2 = W3
(3) W1 < W2 < W3 (4) W1 > W2 > W3
Ans.:- (1) W2 > W1 > W3
 h 
:Solution: W1 = Wcoal mine = mg  1  
 Re 
W2 = Wsea level = mg
 2h 
W3 = Wmountain = mg  1   ; h << Re
 Re 
 W2 > W1 > W3
Chapter Name : Gravitation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q37. Velocity time graph for a moving object is shown in figure. The total displacement of the object
during the time interval 0 to 100 second is ____
Vm/s
C
6
5
4
3
A B D
2 E
1

20 40 60 80 100 t (s)

(1) 200 m (2) 250 m

(3) 280 m (4) 300 m
Ans.:- (3) 280 m
:Solution:
Vm/s
C
6
5
4
3
A B D
2 E
1
1
A B1 D1 E
O 20 40 60 80 100 t(s)
Total displacement of object during time 0 to 100 s is = Area under the curve.
= AOABB1 + A(BCD) + A[B1BDD) + A(D1DEE1)

= 40  2 + 1  40  4 + 40  2 + 20  2
2
= 80 + 80 + 80 + 40
= 280 m
Chapter Name : Motion in one dimension
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q38. Three particles each of mass m gram, situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of
side l cm (as shown in figure). The moment of inertia of a system about a line Ax perpendicular
to AB and in the plane of ABC in gm cm2 units will be ____

-X m
C

l l

A B
m l m

(1) 3 2 (2) 2ml2

ml
4
5 3 2
(3) ml 2 (4) ml
4 2

Ans.:- (3) 5 m l 2
4
:Solution:
X

0
l sin 30 m
D C

l l

300
0
A 60 B
l m
The moment of inertia of the system,
= mArA2 + mBrB2 + mCrC2
= mA (0) + m(l)2 + m(l sin 30)2
2
2 1 2
= ml + ml   
 2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

2ml 2
= ml +
4
5 2
= ml
4
Chapter Name : Motion of system of particle sand rigid body
Topic Name : Moment of inertia
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q39. A parallel plate capacitor has plate of area A and separation d. It is charged to a potential
difference V0. The charging battery is disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to three times
the initial separation. The work required to separate the plate is _____
0 AV02 0 AV02
(1) (2)
3d 2d
0 AV02 0 AV02
(3) (4)
4d d
2
Ans.:- (4) 0 AV0
d
0 A
:Solution: C = and charge q = CV0
d
0 A C
When spacing is made (3d), C' = =
3d 3
As battery is disconnected, charge Q is constant.
 Work done = Final energy – Initial energy
q2 q2
= 
2C' 2C
q2  3 q2
= 
2C 2C
2  q 2 (CV0 ) 2
=  = CV02
2C C
2
work done = 0 AV0
d
Chapter Name : Electrostatics
Topic Name : Parallel plate capacitor

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q40. If the earth supposed to be a sphere of radius R, if g30 is value of acceleration due to gravity at
the latitude of 300 and g at the equator, the value of g – g30 is ______
1 2 3 2
(1) R (2) R
4 4
1 2
(3) 2 R (4) R
2
3 2
Ans.:- (2) R
4
:Solution: Acceleration due to gravity at latitude  is
g = ge – Re2 cos2 
At equator,  = 0  cos 0 = 1
g = ge = g …(1)
3
At 300, g30 = g – R2cos2 30 = g  R2 …(2)
4
Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1)
3
g  g 30 = R2
4
Chapter Name : Gravitation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q41. Water is slowly poured in a cylindrical tube of length 100 cm. A tuning fork of frequency
340 Hz is vibrated just above the open end. The minimum water column needed to produce
resonance has a height ____ cm. (Speed of sound = 340 m/s)
(1) 25 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 75 cm (4) 45 cm
Ans.:- (1) 25 cm
:Solution:

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

75cm
1m

25cm

V = 340 m/s V = n
n = 340 Hz =1m
 = 25 cm … fundamental
4
3 = 75 cm … 1st overtime
4
100 – 75 = 25 cm Height of water column needed.
Chapter Name : Sound
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question :
 
Q42. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equation Y1 = 0.1 sin  100t +  and
 3
Y2 = 0.1 cos t. The phase difference of the velocity of particle is 1 with respect to the velocity
of particle 2 is ___.

(1)  (2) 

3 6

(3)  (4) 

6 3

Ans.:- (1) 
3
d  
:Solution: V1 = (y1 ) = (0.1  100  ) cos  100 t + 
dt  3
d
V2 = (y 2 ) = (  0.1  ) sin t
dt

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

 
= (0.1  ) cos  t + 
 2
 
 = 
3 2

= 
3
Chapter Name : Oscillation
Topic Name : S.H.M.
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q43. A spherical metal plate of radius 1.5 cm is charged with 10 C situated in air. Find mechanical
force acting on one side of plate. If the same spherical plate carrying same charge were kept in
acetone, what would be magnitude of mechanical force ? (Kacetone = 27)
(1) 320 N (2) 148 N
(3) 248 N (4) 384 N
Ans.:- (2) 148 N
:Solution: Mechanical force acting on spherical metal plate in air,

2 ds
F=
2K 0
q … ( ds = 2r2)
 =
2r 2
2
 q 
 2 
 2r 2
2r 
F= 
2 0

q2
= = 3998 N
4r 2 0
Fair
Facetone =
K
3998
=
27
= 148 N
Chapter Name : Electrostatics

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Topic Name : Dielectric constant

Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q44. Resistance P and Q are connected in left gap and right gap respectively of a meter bridge, the
Null point divides wire in the ratio 1 : 2, If P and Q are increased by 20  each, the Null point
divided the wire in ratio 3 : 4 find P and Q.
(1) 10 , 10  (2) 10 , 15 
(3) 10 , 20  (4) 10 , 25 
Ans.:- (3) 10 , 20 
P 1
:Solution: Given =  2P = Q
Q 2

When P and Q increased by 20 

P + 20 3
=
Q + 20 4
4 (P + 20) = 3(Q + 20)
4P + 80 = 60 + 3Q
4P + 80 = 60 + 3  2P
20 = 2P
20 = 10 
 P=
2
Q = 2P = 2  10  = 20 
Chapter Name : Current electricity
Topic Name : Meter bridge
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q45. A galvanometer of resistance 30  is connected to a battery of emf 2 V with 1970  resistance
in series. A full scale deflection of 20 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. To reduce the
deflection 10 divisions, the resistance in series required is ____
(1) 4030  (2) 4000 

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(3) 3970  (4) 2000 

Ans.:- (3) 3970 
V 2V 2V
:Solution: I g = = = = 1  10–3 A
R+G (1970 + 30) 2000
For half scale deflection
Ig V
=
2 R' + G
1  10 3 2
=
2 R' + 30
R + 30 = 4000
R = 4000 – 30
= 3970 
Chapter Name : M. E. E. C.
Topic Name : Moving coil galvanometer
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q46. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.04 T, with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced
emf in the loop when radius is 2 cm is _____________
(1) 4.8  V (2) 0.8  V
(3) 1.6  V (4) 3.2  V
Ans.:- (4) 3.2  V
d dA 
:Solution: e = =B = B (r 2 )
dt dt dt
dr
= 2 Br
dt
 |e| = 2  0.04  2  10–2  2  10–3
= 3.2  V
Chapter Name : EMI
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical
Q47. When photons of energy 5 eV fall on a photosensitive surface, the maximum K. E. of the
photoelectrons emitted from the surface is 2.5 eV. What is stopping potential ?
(1) 1V (2) 2.5 V
(3) 5V (4) 7.5 V
Ans.:- (2) 2.5 V
1 2
:Solution: K. E.Max. = mv = eV0
2
 eV0 = 2.5 eV
 stopping potential = 2.5 V
Chapter Name : Dual nature of radiation and matter
Topic Name : Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q48. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm,
the magnifying power of telescope for viewing distant objects, when final image is formed at
the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm).
(1) 28 (2) 23.3
(3) 5.6 (4) 33.6
Ans.:- (4) 33.6
:Solution: For the image at least distance of distinct vision.
f0  fe 
Magnifying power m = 1 + 
fe  D

140  5 
= 1 + 
5  25 
30
= 28 
25
= 33.6
Chapter Name : Optical instruments
Topic Name : Refraction
Difficulty level : Moderate
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question :
Q49. For the same objective, the ratio of the least separation between two points to be distinguished
by a microscope for light of 5000 A0 and electrons accelerated through 100 V uses as the
illuminating substance.
(1) 4075 (2) 3075
(3) 2500 (4) 5000
Ans.:- (1) 4075
:Solution: (1) For microscope

d=
a sin 
a sin  is same for both cases
(2) for light, 1 = 5000 A0
(3) from de-Broglie wavelength of electrons
12.27
2 = = 1.227 A0
100
d1  5000
= 1 =
d2 2 1.227

= 4075
Chapter Name : Ray optics
Topic Name : Microscope
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q50. The graph showing the dependence of intensity of transmitted light and angle between polarizes
and analyzer is ____
I I

I0 I0

0 0 0 0
Q 0 0
Q
(1) O 45 90 135 180 (2) O 45 0
90 135 180
0

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022
I I

I0 I0

0
Q Q
(3) O 45 90
0
135
0
180
0
(4) O 450 90
0
1350 180
0

I0

0 0 0 0
Q
Ans.:- (2) O 45 90 135 180

:Solution: I = I0 cos2 
When  = 0 I = I0
When  = 900 I=0
Chapter Name :
Topic Name : Polarization
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A

Q51. 250 ml of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 ml of 1 M HCl. The number of unreacted HCl
molecules in the solution after complete reaction is ______.
(1) 2.26 × 1023 (2) 1.13 × 1023
(3) 0.92 × 1023 (4) 4.52 × 1023
Ans.:- (1) 2.26 × 1023
0.5 × 250 1
:Solution: No. of moles of NaOH = = = 0.125
1000 8
1 × 500 1
No of moles of HCl = = = 0.5
1000 2
No. of moles of HCl unreacted = 0.5 – 0.125
= 0.375
No. of molecules of HCl left unreacted
= 0.375 × 6.022 × 1023
= 2.26 × 1023
Chapter Name : Some basic concepts of chemistry
Topic Name : Limiting Reagent
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q52. If electronic configuration of four elements L, Q, P and R are respectively,
L = 1s2 2s2 2p4 Q = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
P = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 R = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Which option of compound is not possible ?
(1) L2P, RL , PQ , R2Q (2) LP, RL, PQ, RQ
(3) P2L, RL, PQ, RQ2 (4) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ
Ans.:- (4) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ
:Solution: These e configuration are
L=O
Q = Cl
P = Na

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

R = Mg
If form compound like
MgO NaCl Na2O MgCl2
LR , QP , P2L , RQ2
Chapter Name : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Topic Name : Electronic Configuration
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q53. Which of the following is iso-electronic with Neon ?
(1) O2- (2) F+
(3) Mg (4) Na
Ans.:- (1) O2-
:Solution: Neon has 10 electrons
O2- has electrons
=8+2
= 10 electrons
Chapter Name : Structure of an Atom
Topic Name : Subatomic particles of atom
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q54. The period number in the long form of periodic table is equal to _____.
(1) magnetic quantum number of any element of period.
(2) atomic number of any element of the period.
(3) maximum principal quantum number of any element of period.
(4) maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of period.
Ans.:- (3) maximum principal quantum number of any element of period.
:Solution: Each period number indicate the main shall in which electrons are added. Each
principal quantum number is equal period number of the element.
Chapter Name : Classification of elements and periodicity in properties
Topic Name : Introduction of periodic table
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding/Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q55. Which of the following shows decreasing order of bond angle ?
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (2) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(3) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (4) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
Ans.:- (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
:Solution: As we move down the group, radius of element increase, and electro negativity
decreases so bond angle decrease
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
107 93 92 91
Chapter Name : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Topic Name : Bond Angle
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q56. A solution is prepared by adding 2g of substance ‘A’ to 18g of water. The mass percent of the
solute is ____.
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 40 (4) 25
Ans.:- (1) 10
Mass of solute
:Solution: Mass percent   100
Mass of solution
2
  100
2 + 18
= 10%
Chapter Name : Some basic concepts of chemistry
Topic Name : Methods of expressing concentrations
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Mathematical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q57. A sample of O2 gas was placed in a flexible 5L container at 350 K at a pressure of 2 atm. The
gas was compressed to a volume of 2L and heat was added until the temperature reached
400 K. The new pressure inside the container will be____.
(1) 5.90 atm (2) 6.00 atm
(3) 5 atm (4) 5.71 atm
Ans.:- (4) 5.71 atm
:Solution: V1 = 5L, V2 = 2L, P1 = 2 atm, P2 = ? T1 = 350 K, T2 = 400K
P1V1 PV
 2 2
T1 T2

2atm  5L P  2L
 2
350K 400K
2 atm  5L  400K
P2 
350K  2L
4000

700
= 5.71 atm
Chapter Name : States of matter
Topic Name : Combined gas equation
Difficulty level : Moderate/High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding/Skill/Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q58. The molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 5.3 × 10-11) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be_____.
(1) 5.3 × 10-11 mol L-1 (2) 5.3 × 10-8 mol L-1
(3) 5.3 × 10-9 mol L-1 (4) 5.3 × 10-10 mol L-1
Ans.:- (3) 5.3 × 10-9 mol L-1
:Solution: CaF2  Ca2+ + 2F-
s 2s
NaF  Na+ + F-
0.1M 0.1 M
[Ca2+] = S1 [F-] = (25 + 0.1)  0.1 M
Ksp = [Ca2+] [F-]2
5.3 × 10-11 = (s) (0.1)2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

5.3  10 11
s=
(0.1) 2
= 5.3 × 10-9 mol L-1
Chapter Name : Equilibrium
Topic Name : Solubility equilibrium of sparingly soluble salts
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill / Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q59. The reaction which does not involve either oxidation or reduction is _______.
(1) Na Na+ (2) VO 2 
 V2 O 3

(3) CrO 24  
 Cr2 O 72  (4) Cl2 2Cl-

Ans.:- (3) CrO 24  

 Cr2 O 72 
6 6
:Solution: Cr O24 
 Cr 2 O27
There is no change in oxidation number of chromium.
Chapter Name : Redox Reactions
Topic Name : Oxidation number
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q60. Aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. What is the product formed at
the cathode ?
(1) Na (2) H2
(3) O2 (4) Cl2
Ans.:- (2) H2
:Solution: At cathode :
2H 2 O (l ) + 2e   
 H 2 + 2OH (aq)
(g)

At anode :
2Cl(aq) 
 Cl 2 + 2e 
(g)

2Cl (aq) + 2H 2 O (l ) 
 Cl 2 + H 2 + 2OH (aq )
(g) (g)

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : S-block Elements

Topic Name : Electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding/Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q61. Aluminum is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of molten mixture of ____
(1) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6 (2) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2
(3) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4 (4) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4
Ans.:- (2) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2
:Solution: Electrolytic mixture contains alumina (Al2O3), cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar
(CaF2) in the ratio of 20 : 40 : 20. Due to prescribe of these conductivity of alumina increases
fusion temp decreases.
Chapter Name : p-block Elements
Topic Name : Gr. 13, 14
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q62. IUPAC name of CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH is ________
(1) Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne (2) Pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne
(3) Pent – 2 – yne – 1 – ene (4) Pent – 3 – yne – 1 - ene
Ans.:- (1) Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne
:Solution: If both double bond and triple bond are at equidistance, then priority should be given
to double bond over triple bond.
According IUPAC nomenclature rule IUPAC name of
H3C – CH = CH – C ≡ CH is
Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne
Chapter Name : Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Topic Name : IUPAC
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q63. Identify the compound ‘D’ in the following series of reactions,

alcoholic / KOH
CH 3 CH 2 Br    A  Cl
2 / CCl
4  B  NaNH
  2
C  40%
 H2 SO 4 /1% HgSO 4
 
(1) CH2COCH3 (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3CH2COOH (4) CH3CH2OH
Ans.:- (2) CH3CHO
:Solution:

CH 3CH 2 Br + KOH   CH 2 = CH 2 + KBr + H 2O
alcoholic ethene [A]
CCl4
CH 2 = CH 2 + Cl2   CH2 = CH2
| |
Cl Cl
Ethyene dichloride [B]

CH 2 = CH 2 + NaNH 2   CH  CH  2NaCl  2NH 3
| |
Cl Cl Acetylene [C]
H
|
40% H 2 SO 4 /1% HgSO 4 Tautomerism
CH  CH + HOH    CH 2 = CH  CH 3  C = O
|
OH
Chapter Name : Hydrocarbon
Topic Name : Reactions
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge/Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q64. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene
is _____ (rounded off up to two demical places)
(1) 0.60 k (2) 0.40 k
(3) 0.80 k (4) 0.20 k
Ans.:- (2) 0.40 k
:Solution: Kf = 5.12 K Kg mol-1, m = 0.078 m
Tf = Kf × m
= 5.12 × 0.078
= 0.39936  0.40 k

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Solution

Topic Name : Depression of freezing point
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding/Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q65. The edge lengths of the unit cells in term of the radius of spheres constituting fcc, bcc and
simple cubic unit cells are respectively____
4r 4r
(1) 2 2r , , 2r (2) , 2 2r , 2r
3 3
4r 4r
(3) 2r, 2 2r , (4) 2r, , 2 2r
3 3
4r
Ans.:- (1) 2 2r , , 2r
3
:Solution: Edge length for different types of unit cells can be!

fcc – 2 2r
4r
bcc –
3
scc – 2r
Chapter Name : Solid State
Topic Name : Crystallography and lattice
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q66. In which case the product formed is in accordance of Kharasch effect.
HBr/peroxide HCl/peroxide
(1) CH 3  CH = CH  CH 3      (2) CH 3  CH = CH    

(3) (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2  NOCl

  (4) (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2 HBr/peroxide
    

Ans.:- (4) (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH 2 HBr/peroxide

    

:Solution: Option (1) But–2–ene  No reaction

Option (2) In presence of HCl  No reaction
Option (3) In presence of NOCl  No reaction
Option (4) Shows reaction with HBr in presence of H2O2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Hydrocurbons

Topic Name : Reactions
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q67. Addition of 0.643 g of a compound to 50 mL of benzene (density = 0.879 g mL-1) lowers the
freezing point from 50.51 0C to 50.03 0C. If Kf for benzene is 5.12 the molecular weight of the
compound is_____
(1) 468 gram (2) 78 gram
(3) 312 gram (4) 156 gram
Ans.:- (4) 156 gram
:Solution: Weight of benzene = V × P = 50 × 0.879 = 43.959
Freezing point depression is
K f  1000  Wankown compound
Tf 
Munknown compound  wbenzene
5.12  1000  0.643
0.48 
Munknown compound  43.95
5.12  1000  0.643
Munknown compound = = 156 gram
0.48  43.95
Munknown compound = 156 gram
Chapter Name : Solution
Topic Name : Depression of freezing point
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Mathematical
Q68. During spontaneous discharge of an electrochemical cell Gibb’s free energy will _____
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Not change (4) Be infinity
Ans.:- (2) Decrease
:Solution: G = –nFEcell
During discharge of an electrochemical cell Ecell will decrease, so the value of
Gibb’s free energy | G | or | –nF Ecell | also decrease.

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Electrochemistry

Topic Name : Electrode potential, Ecell, Nernst equation and ECS
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q69. A first order reaction takes 100 minute for completion, of 60% of reaction. The time required
for completion of 90% of the reaction is ____
(1) 150 min (2) 200 min
(3) 220.9 min (4) 251.3 min
Ans.:- (4) 251.3 min
:Solution: First calculate K for 60%
2.303 100
K  log
100 40
K for 90%
2.303 100
K  log
t 10
Substituting above K
2.303  100
t
2.303  0.3979
t = 251.3 min
Chapter Name : Chemical Kinetics
Topic Name : First order - Numericals
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q70. A –  – hydroxyl carbonyl compound is obtained by the action of NaOH on ___
(1) formaldehyde (2) benzaldehyde
(3) trimethyl acetaldehyde (4) acetaldehyde
Ans.:- (4) acetaldehyde

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

H
|
:Solution: 2H3 C  C  H + NaOH 
 H3C  C  CH2  C  H
|| | ||
O OH O
β-hydroxy aldehyde

Chapter Name : Aldehyde, ketone, carboxyl and acid

Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q71. Van Arkel method is useful for the refining of the following ____
(1) Zn (zinc) (2) Zr (Zirconium)
(3) Cu (Copper) (4) Ni (Nikel)
Ans.:- (2) Zr (Zirconium)
:Solution: Van Arkel method is useful refining Zirconium and titanium. In this method
impurity of oxygen and nitrogen easy removed.
Chapter Name : General principles and processes of isolation of elements
Topic Name : Refining method
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q72. The correct order of increasing bond length of F2, N2, Cl2 and O2 is _______
(1) O2 < N2 < Cl2 < F2 (2) N2 < O2 < F2 < Cl2
(3) Cl2 < O2 < N2 < F2 (4) F2 < Cl2 < O2 < N2
Ans.:- (2) N2 < O2 < F2 < Cl2
:Solution: N2 contain N  N smallest
O2 contain O = O moderate
F2 contain F – F large
Cl2 contain Cl – Cl largest
Chapter Name : p-block elements
Topic Name : Group 15, 16, 17, 18
Difficulty level : Moderate / High

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q73. The structure of SF4 is _____
(1) square planar (2) tetrahedral
(3) trigonal bipyramidal (4) octrahedral
Ans.:- (3) trigonal bipyramidal
:Solution: In SF4, S contain one L. P. Its geometry is trigonal bipyramidal.
Chapter Name : p-block elements (Group 15, 16, 17, 18)
Topic Name : Compounds of sulphur
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q74. Which of the following represents a pair of enantiomers ?
(1) trans – CrCl2 (en)2+ (2) Cis – CrCl2 (en)2+
(3) trans – CrCl2(NH3)4+ (4) Cis – CrCl2(NH3)4+
Ans. : (2) Cis – CrCl2 (en)2+
:Solution:
Cl

en Cr en

Cl
Chapter Name : Coordination compound
Topic Name : Isomerism
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q75. Among the following compound which is both paramagnetic and coloured.
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) [Cu(SO4)]
(3) (NH4)2 [TiCl6] (4) K3[Cu(CN)4]
Ans.:- (2) [Cu(SO4)]
:Solution: In [Cu(SO4)] the oxidation state of Cu is +2

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Cu2+ configuration = 3d7

3 unpaired electron
 Paramagnetic
Due to incompletely filled d-orbital it is coloured.
Chapter Name : Coordination compounds
Topic Name : Bonding in coordination compound
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding and Skill
Type of question : Theoretical / Mathematical
Q76. RNA is different from DNA in it is following constituents_____
(1) deoxyribose sugar and uracil (2) ribose sugar and thyamine
(3) deoxyribose sugar and adenine (4) ribose sugar and uracil
Ans.:- (4) ribose sugar and uracil
:Solution: RNA – Ribose sugar
DNA – Dioxyribose sugar
RNA Base – Uracil
DNA Base – Thyamine
Chapter Name : Biomolecules
Topic Name : Nuclic Acid
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q77. Phenol is prepared by which of the following reaction ?

H3PO2
H3O+ N2+ Cl -

N2+ Cl-
(1) (2)

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Zn/
470K
OH SO3 H+ H2O
HCl.P
(3) COOH (4)

H3O+
N2+ Cl -

Ans.:- (1)
OH

+
+
N 2Cl
- H3 O

:Solution:
Chapter Name : Alcohol phenol and ether
Topic Name : Phenol
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q78. Oil of winter green is ____
(1) ethyl salicylate (2) methyl salicylate
(3) phenyl salicylate (4) ethyl methyl salicylate
Ans.:- (2) methyl salicylate
:Solution: Methyl salicylate is known as oil of winter green.
Chapter Name : Aldehyde, Ketone carboxylic acid
Topic Name : Ester
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q79. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7.0  10–4 s–1. If the initial concentration of the
reactant is 0.058 M. The concentration remained after 45 minutes will be ____
(1) 0.01208 M (2) 0.1208 M

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

(3) 1.208 M (4) 12.08 M

Ans.:- (1) 0.01208 M
2.303 [A]
:Solution: K  log10
t [A]t

[0.08 m] 7.0  10 4
log =  2700 = 0.8207
[A]t 2.303
0.08
= antilog 0.8207
[A]t
0.08
= 6.618
[A]t

0.08
[A]t 
6.618
[A]t = 0.01208 M
Chapter Name : Chemical kinetics
Topic Name : First order reaction
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q80. Identify the compound C in the following series of reactions,
NH 2 CH Cl
3  B  3  C
C 6 H 5 CH 2 Cl  
(A)

(1) N–ethyl phenyl methanamine (2) Phenyl methanamine

(3) N, N–dimethylphenylamine (4) N–methylphenyl methanamine
Ans.:- (3) N, N–dimethylphenylamine
NH3 2 CH3Cl
:Solution: C6H5CH2Cl   C6H5CH2 NH2  C6H5  CH 2  N  CH3
|
CH3
N, N-Dimethylphenylamine

Chapter Name : Amines

Topic Name : Preparation of amine
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q81. –D–glucose and –D–glucose are _______.

(1) Epimers (2) Anomers
(3) functional Isomers (4) Chain Isomers
Ans.:- (2) Anomers
:Solution: –D–glucose and –D–glucose are anomers each other.
CH2OH CH2OH

H H H OH
H H

OH H OH H
HO OH HO H

H OH H OH
-D-glucose -D-glucose
Chapter Name : Biochemistry
Topic Name : Carbohydrates
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q82. Allyl chloride is ____
(1) Monohalogen derivative (2) Dihalogen derivative
(3) Trihalogen derivative (4) Polyhalogen derivative
Ans.:- (1) Monohalogen derivative
:Solution: In allylic halides only one halogen atom is attached to allylic carbon atom
e.g. CH2 = CH – CH2 – X
Chapter Name : Halogen derivatives (Haloalkanes)
Topic Name : Classification of monohalogen compounds.
Difficulty level :Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q83. _____ % solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its _____ % solution is disinfectant.
(1) 1.0, 2.0 (2) 0.2, 1.0
(3) 1.5, 2.5 (4) 1.0, 2.0
Ans.:- (2) 0.2, 1.0
:Solution: 0.2, 1.0
Chapter Name : Chemistry in Everyday Life
Topic Name : Antiseptics and disinfectants
Difficulty level : Easy / Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding/Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q84. When a solution containing Cu2+, Hg2+, Bi3+ and Co2+ ions is treated with acidified H2S. Which
ion will not precipitate ?
(1) Cu2+ (2) Hg2+
(3) Bi3+ (4) Co2+
Ans.:- (4) Co2+
:Solution: Co2+ will not precipitate. It precipitates by alkaline H2S solution to high value of
solubility product.
Chapter Name : Practical chemistry
Topic Name : Quantitative organic
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q85. When CO2 is passed into lime water, it turn milky. But if excess of CO2 is passed milkyness
disappear, because _____
(1) The reactions reversed (2) Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
(3) CaCa3 is again converted CO2 (4) CaCO3 settle down
Ans.:- (2) Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
:Solution: Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
Chapter Name : Practical Chemistry
Topic Name : Quantitative Organic
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
SECTION – B
Q86. The elements belonging to groups 3 to 12 are known as _____
(1) Representative elements (2) Transition elements
(3) Lanthanides (4) Actinides
Ans.:- (2) Transition elements
:Solution: S and P–block elements are called normal or representative elements.
Elements of Gr. 3rd to 12 are called d-block or Transition elements.
Chapter Name : Classification of elements and periodicity in properties
Topic Name : Introduction of periodic table
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q87. According to the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct ?
(1) for an isothermal process q = +w (2) for a cyclic process q = –w
(3) for an adiabatic process, u = –w (4) for an isochoric process, u = –q
Ans.:- (2) for a cyclic process q = –w
:Solution: Based on first law of thermodynamics, u = q + w change in internal energy for a
cyclic process is zero i.e. u = 0  q = –w.
Chapter Name : Thermodynamics
Topic Name : First law of thermo dynamics
Difficulty level : Easy/Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q88. In liquid-gas equilibrium, the pressure of vapours above the liquid is constant at_____
(1) Constant temperature (2) Low temperature
(3) High temperature (4) Moderate temperature
Ans.:- (1) Constant temperature
:Solution: Vapour pressure is directly related to temperature. Greater is the temperature, greater
will be the vapour pressure. So to keep it constant, temperature should be constant.

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Equilibrium

Topic Name : Equilibrium in physical processes
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q89. Identify the compound in which oxidation state of hydrogen is –1.
(1) PH3 (2) NH3
(3) HCl (4) CaH2
Ans.:- (4) CaH2
:Solution: Oxidation state of H in PH3, NH3 and HCl is +1
Oxidation state of H in CaH2 is –1
Chapter Name : Hydrogen
Topic Name : Oxidation state
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q90. The positive inductive effect is shown by____
(1) –COOH (2) –CH3
(3) –SO3H (4) –COOR
Ans.:- (2) –CH3
:Solution: –CH3 group is exhibit +I effect where other shows –I effect.
Chapter Name : Basic principles of organic chemistry
Topic Name : Inductive effect
Difficulty level : Easy/High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q91. Full form of SBM–G is _____
(1) Swachh Bhagvan Million Group (2) Swachh Bharat Massage Gramin
(3) Swachh Bharat Mission Group (4) Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin
Ans.:- (4) Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

:Solution: Full form of SBM – G  Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin

Chapter Name : Environmental chemistry
Topic Name : Air pollution
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q92. Due to frenkel defect, the density of ionic solids, is______
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Does not change (4) Changes
Ans.:- (2) Decreases
:Solution: Since no ions are missing from the crystal as a whole, there is no effect on density.
Chapter Name : Solid State
Topic Name : Defects in Crystal
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q93. Corrosion is basically a ____.
(1) Altered reaction in presence of H2O
(2) Electrochemical phenomenon
(3) Interaction
(4) Union between light metal and heavy metal
Ans.:- (2) Electrochemical phenomenon
:Solution: Corrosion is due to formation of anode and cathode as in electrochemical cell.
Chapter Name : Electrochemistry
Topic Name : Corrosion
Difficulty level :Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q94. Chloroform on oxidation by air form _____
(1) carbonyl chloride (2) chlorine

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(3) oxonium ion (4) oxychloride

Ans.:- (1) carbonyl chloride
:Solution: 4CHCl3 + 3 O 2 
 4 COCl 2 + 2 H 2 O + 2Cl 2
Chloroform Carbonylchloride

Chapter Name : Adsorption and colloids (Surface chemistry)

Topic Name : Catalysis
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge and Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q95. Which among the following Lanthanide series element is radioactive ?
(1) Gd (2) Ce
(3) Pm (4) Yb
Ans.:- (3) Pm
:Solution: Promethium is only radioactive element from Lanthanide series.
Chapter Name : d and f block
Topic Name : Difference between Lanthanide and actinides
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q96. The number of unpaired electrons present in Ni2+ ion.
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
Ans.:- (3) 2
:Solution: Electronic con. of Ni2+[Ar]18 3d84s0

Two unpaired elements.

Chapter Name : d and f block
Topic Name : Magnetic property
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding

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Type of question : Mathematical

Q97. Mixture of ortho and para bromo toluene is obtained when toluene is brominated in presence of
iron. This is following type of reaction?
(1) Nucleophilic addition (2) Electrophilic addition
(3) Nucleophilic substitution (4) Electrophilic addition
Ans.:- (2) Electrophilic addition
:Solution: Br+ electrophile attack on toluene.
CH3 CH3 CH3

Br
+ Br2 Fe
dark +

Br
Chapter Name : Haloalkanes and Haloarine
Topic Name : Preparation method of Aromatic Compound
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q98. The general molecular formula which represents the homologous series of alkanols is____
(1) CnH2nO2 (2) CnH2nO
(3) CnH2n + 1O (4) CnH2n + 2O
Ans.:- (4) CnH2n + 2O
:Solution: CnH2n + 2O – Alkanols alcohols
n = 2  C2H2  2 + 2O
= C2H6O
Chapter Name : Alcohol, phenol and ether
Topic Name : Alcohols
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q99. Which of following is a tertiary amine ?
(1) (C2H5)3N (2) (C6H5)2NH

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(3) (CH3)2NH (4) C2H5NH2

Ans.:- (1) (C2H5)3N
:Solution: C2 H 5  N  C2 H5
|
C2 H5
Trimethyl amine is tertiary amine (will 3–H atoms are reproduced by three ethyl groups)
Chapter Name : Amines
Topic Name : Classification of amines
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q100. Dacron is an example of _____
(1) Polyamide (2) Polythene
(3) Polyester (4) Polysaccharide
Ans.:- (3) Polyester
O
:Solution: Dacron i.e. Terylene is an example of polyester polymer since if contain ||
C  O 
linkages.
Chapter Name : Polymer
Topic Name : Classification
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical

PART – C : BIOLOGY (BOTANY)

BOTANY SECTION – A

Q101. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold Northern region move to __
(1) Western Ghat (2) Meghalaya
(3) Corbett National Park (4) Keoladeo National Park
Ans.:- (4) Keoladeo National Park

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:Solution: Keoladeo National Park situated in Rajasthan State. It is vast bird sanctuary.
Chapter Name : Biodiversity and conservation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q102. Coralloid roots help cycas in _______
(1) Fixation and Absorption (2) Absorption of water
(3) Absorption of minerals (4) Respiration
Ans.:- (1) Fixation and Absorption
:Solution: Fixation and Absorption of Nitrogen.
Chapter Name : Plant kingdom
Topic Name : Gymnosperms
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q103. Which one of the following is associated with sex–linked inheritance?
(1) Night–blindness (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Astigmatism (4) Polydactyl
Ans.:- (2) Muscular dystrophy
:Solution: Muscular dystrophy is the most common childhood form of the disease. It occurs in
one of every 3,300 male births. It is sex linked disorder.
Chapter Name : Principles of inheritance and variation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q104. A true regeneration was observed in _____.
(1) Hydra (2) Planaria
(3) Sponges (4) Amoeba
Ans.:- (2) Planaria
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:Solution: In planaria (flat worms), we observe true regeneration i.e. a fragmented organism
regenerates the lost part of its body and becomes, a new organism.
Chapter Name : The living world
Topic Name : What is living?
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q105. Anti–parallel relationship of the two strands of DNA refers to the ______.
(1) Stands being parallel in the same direction.
(2) Strands providing alternate branching.
(3) One strand runs in 5’  3’ and other in 3’  5’ direction.
(4) Both stands run in 5’  3’ direction.
Ans.:- (3) One strand runs in 5’  3’ and other in 3’  5’ direction.
:Solution: The double strand DNA shows anti-parallel strands.
Chapter Name : Molecular basis of inheritance
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class :
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q106. Which can prevent, pre–mature fruit fall ________.
(1) Ethylene (2) Zeatin
(3) NAA (4) GA2
Ans.:- (3) NAA
:Solution: NAA prevents pre–mature fruit fall.
Chapter Name : Plant growth and mineral nutrition
Topic Name : Growth hormone
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q107. In 1950, Minamata disease in Japan was caused by _______ poisoning.

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(1) Lead (2) Arsenic

(3) Mercury (4) Cadmium
Ans.:- (3) Mercury
:Solution: Minamata disease caused by mercury poisoning at Minamata Beach in Japan.
Chapter Name : Environmental issues
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q108. During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells left behind from shoot apical
meristem which constitute _____
(1) Auxiliary bud (2) Apical bud
(3) Terminal bud (4) Adventitious bud
Ans.:- (1) Auxiliary bud
:Solution: During formation of leaves and elongation of stem, some cells left behind from shoot
apical meristem, constitute the auxiliary bud. It found in the axils of leaves and are capable of
forming a branch or a flower.
Chapter Name : Anatomy of flowering plants
Topic Name : Meristematic Tissue
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q109. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are ____
(1) Detritivores (2) Primary consumers
(3) Secondary consumers (4) Tertiary consumers
Ans.:- (1) Detritivores
:Solution: The deep ocean is very cold, under high pressure, and always dark because sunlight
cannot get down that far. Less life can service in the deep ocean that in other parts of the ocean
because of these conditions.
Chapter Name :
Topic Name : Ecosystem
Difficulty level : Moderate
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Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q110. Specialized cells called heterocyst’s are present in _____
(1) dinoflagellates (2) crysophytes
(3) archaeobacteria (4) cyanobacteria
Ans.:- (4) cyanobacteria
:Solution: Colonies of cyanobacteria are surrounded by gelatinous sheath. Some of these
bacteria posses extra large cell called heterocyst which contain nitrogenous enzyme with the
help of this cell they can fix atmospheric N2 into mineral form.
Chapter Name : Biological classification
Topic Name : Eubacteria
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q111. How much deep in the oceans, the environment is perpetually dark and inhabitants are not
aware of the existence of Sun?
(1) More than 100 m (2) More than 500 m
(3) Less than 100 m (4) Less than 500 m
Ans.:- (2) More than 500 m
:Solution: Sunrays not reach deep 7500 m the oceans the environment is dark and inhabitants.
Chapter Name : Organisms and populations
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q112. The end products of Aerobic respiration in plants are _____.
(1) Starch and O2 (2) Sugar and Oxygen
(3) H2O and Energy (4) CO2, H2O and Energy
Ans.:- (4) CO2, H2O and Energy
:Solution: The complete combustion of glucose, which produces CO2 and H2O as end products,
yields energy most of which is given out as heat.
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C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

If this energy is to be useful to the cell, it should be able to utilize it to synthesis other molecules
that the cell requires.
Chapter Name : Respiration in Plants
Topic Name : Do plants breathe?
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q113. The lengthwise running groove on the anther which separates theca is called ___
(1) rupture line (2) line of dehiscence
(3) suture of anther (4) none of these
Ans.:- (2) line of dehiscence
:Solution: The rupture of pollen grain (decencies) occur for the line and dehiscence which
running groove on anther longitudinally.
Chapter Name : Sexual reproduction flowering plants
Topic Name : Flower and development of gametes
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q114. In meiosis.
(1) Meiosis I is equational division and meiosis II is reduction division.
(2) Meiosis I is reduction division and meiosis II is equational division.
(3) Both meiosis I and meiosis II are equational division.
(4) Both meiosis I and meiosis II are reduction division.
Ans.:- (2) Meiosis I is reduction division and meiosis II is equational division.
:Solution: In Meiosis I actual reduction of chromosome number takes place in Anaphase – 1.
Meiosis II is equational division in which chromosome number remain same.
Chapter Name : Cell cycle and cell division
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :

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Criteria :
Type of question :
Q115. Predict from the following chart

(1) Sickle cell anemia (2) Phenyl ketonuria

(3) Colour blindness (4) Ploy dectyla
Ans.:- (3) Colour blindness
:Solution: Due to defect in either red and green colour of eye resulting in failure to discriminate
between red and green colour. The son of woman who carries the gene has a 50 percent chance
of being colour blind. The mother is not herself colour blindness because the gene is recessive.
A daughter will not normally be colour blind. Unless her mother is a carrier and her father is
colour blind. Males have only one X–chromosome and females have two.
Chapter Name : Principles of inheritance and variation
Topic Name : Mendelian disorders
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill and Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q116. Add the missing floral organs in the given floral formula of family fabaceae

% K (5) A (g)+1 G 1

(1) C1 + 2 + 2 (2) C1 + 2 + 3
(3) C5 (4) C1 + 2 + (2)
Ans.:- (4) C1 + 2 + (2)
:Solution: The members of family fabaceae have papilionaceous corolla consisting of a
posterior standard, two lateral wings, two anterior ones forming a keel (enclosing stamens and
pistil)
Chapter Name : Morphology of flowering plants
Topic Name : Description of some important families
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Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q117. Matching type questions.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Outer integument (1) Testa
(B) Inner integuments (2) Tegmen
(C) Ovary (3) Fruit
(D) Ovules (4) Seed
(1) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4 (2) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(3) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 (4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
Ans.:- (3) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
:Solution: Outer integument Testa
Inner integuments Tegmen
Ovary Fruit
Ovules Seeds
Chapter Name : Sexual reproduction flowering plants
Topic Name : Flower
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q118. The cell wall of Chlorophyceae is made up of ______
(1) Algin (2) Pectin
(3) Cellulose (4) Hemicellulose
Ans.:- (3) Cellulose
:Solution: Cell wall of plants and some algae are made up of various chemicals like cellulose,
hemicelluloses algin, pectin, lignin etc.
Chapter Name : Kingdom Plantae
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
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Type of question : Theoretical

Q119. A child is with an extra chromosome in each of its cell, this condition is the result of ____.
(1) synapses (2) crossing over
(3) non–disjunction (4) disjunction
Ans.:- (3) non–disjunction
:Solution: During meiosis, chromosomes are not separate properly and unusual number of
chromosomes enter to gametes.
Chapter Name : Principles of inheritance and variation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q120. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor is ____
(1) Oxalo-acetic acid (2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate (4) Rubisco
Ans.:- (3) Phosphoenol pyruvate
:Solution: Phosphoenol pyruvate is primary CO2 acceptor.
Chapter Name : Photosynthesis
Topic Name : Calvin cycle C3 – C4 plants
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q121. Match column – I (crop) with column – II (Insect pests resistant variety) and select the correct
option.
Crop Insect Pests Resistant Variety
(A) Flat bean (i) Pusa Gaurav
(B) Okra (Bhindi) (ii) Pusa Sem – 3
(C) Brassica (iii) Pusa Sawani
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – ii (2) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – ii (4) A – i, B – iii, C – ii
Ans.:- (2) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
:Solution: Flat bean : Pusa Sem 2, Pusa Sem 3
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Okra (Bhindi), Pusa Sawanl, Pusa A – 4

Brassica (rapessed mustard) = Pusa Gaurav
Chapter Name : Strategies of enhancement in food production
Topic Name : Plant breeding for developing resistance to insect pests
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q122. On germination a moss spore produces ____
(1) Protonema (2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Sporogenium (4) Sporophyte
Ans.:- (1) Protonema
:Solution: Protonema
Chapter Name : Plant kingdom
Topic Name : Moss
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q123. Complete the following analogy
Hibernation : Bears : : Diapause : ____
(1) Snails and fishes (2) Zooplankton
(3) Siberian birds (4) Helminths
Ans.:- (2) Zooplankton
:Solution: Zooplankton are small, aquatic organisms
Chapter Name : Organisms and populations
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q124. Scutellum is part of ____
(1) Leaf bud (2) Monocot embryo
(3) Dicot embryo (4) Floral bud
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Ans.:- (2) Monocot embryo

:Solution: The Monocot embryo consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as
Scutellum.
Chapter Name : Morphology of flowering plants
Topic Name : Structure of monocotyledonous seed
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q125. Read the following features.
(1) 2-poly-nucleotide chains with parallel polarity.
(2) Back bone made up of sugar and nitrogen base.
(3) Two poly nucleotide in chain linked by H-bonds
(4) Pitch of the helix is 0.34 nm.
How many of above feature are applicable to DNA most of the organism?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) One (4) None of these
Ans.:- (2) Two
:Solution: Two
Chapter Name : Molecular basis of inheritance
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q126. Hormone which is present in the urine of person suffering from pellagra is_______
(1) Ethylene (2) Autin
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
Ans.:- (2) Autin
:Solution: Generally hormones are not present urine sample due to some infection or deficiency
disorder such hormone are present in urine sample.
Chapter Name : Mineral nutrition
Topic Name : Essential microelements
Difficulty level : Moderate
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Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question :Theoretical
Q127. Which one of the following statement is not valid for aerosol?
(1) They after rainfall and mansoon pattern.
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity.
(3) They have negative impact on agriculture land.
(4) They are harmful to human health.
Ans.:- (2) They cause increased agricultural productivity.
:Solution: Aerosols increased agricultural productivity.
Chapter Name : Biodiversity and conservation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q128. All of the following statements are correct about plasmids except ______
(1) They are extra chromosomal DNA.
(2) They are smaller, circular, double stranded naked DNA that confer certain unique
phenotypic characters some bacterial like resistance to antibiotics.
(3) They are used in genetic engineering.
(4) It helps in the replication on nucleoid.
Ans.:- (4) It helps in the replication on nucleoid.
:Solution: * The plasmid DNA confers certain phenotypic characters to such bacteria.
One such character is resistance to antibiotics.
* Plasmid do not helps in replication of nucleoid (genomic DNA)
Chapter Name : Cell : the unit of life
Topic Name : Prokaryotic cells
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical

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Q129. The inoculums is added to the fresh milk into curd, the term ‘inoculums’ here refers to ____.
(1) A starter contains millions of vitamin B12
(2) A starter rich in proteins Anaerobic digestion
(3) A starter containing millions of LAB
(4) An aerobic digester
Ans.:- (3) A starter containing millions of LAB
:Solution: A small amount of curd added to fresh milk as inoculums or starter contains millions
of lab, thus converting milk to curd.
Chapter Name : Microbes in human welfare
Topic Name : Microbes in household products
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q130. The flower which can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing
through the centre is found in _____
(1) Mustard (2) Pea
(3) Bean (4) Canna
Ans.:- (1) Mustard
:Solution: When a flower can be divided into two equal radical halves in any radial plane
passing through the centre, it is said to be actinomorphic.
eg. Mustard, Datura, Chilli etc.
Chapter Name : Morphology of flowering plants
Topic Name : The flower
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q131. Aminoacyl – tRNA synthetase must be capable of recognizing which of the following.
(1) A specific t–RNA and a specific amino acid.
(2) A specific rRNA and a specific amino acid.
(3) A specific rRNA and the 408 ribosomal subunit.
(4) A specific amino acid and the 405 ribosomal subunit.
Ans.:- (1) A specific t–RNA and a specific amino acid.
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:Solution: Aminoacyl – tRNA synthetase must be capable of recognizing t–RNA and specific
amino acid.
Chapter Name : Molecular basis of inheritance
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q132. Anaphase I differ from mitotic anaphase in ________.
(1) Division of centromere.
(2) Poleward movement of chromatids.
(3) Contraction of chromosomal fibers.
(4) Pole ward movement of chromosomes instead of daughter chromosome.
Ans.:- (4) Pole ward movement of chromosomes instead of daughter chromosome.
:Solution: During prophase single metaphase plate is formed and centromere split to separate
daughter chromosomes while in meiosis I two metaphase plates are formed and chromosomes
are attached so whole chromosome pulled to opposite poles.
Chapter Name : Cell cycle and cell division
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question :
Q133. Number of seeds are equal to _______
(1) numbers of ovules (2) number of ovaries
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) none of those
Ans.:- (1) numbers of ovules
:Solution: Ovules are converted into seeds after fertilization
Chapter Name : Sexual reproduction flowering plants
Topic Name : Embryo seed and fruit formation
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
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Q134. The most widely accepted theory of food conduction in plants is ____.
(1) Root pressure theory (2) Cohesion tension theory
(3) Capillary movement (4) Mass flow hypothesis of food
Ans.:- (4) Mass flow hypothesis of food
:Solution: Mass flow hypothesis of food
Chapter Name : Transportation in plants
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class :
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q135. During chromosome replication the following events occur _____.
(I) Breaking of H bonds between bases.
(II) Bonds between adjacent nucleotide.
(III) Winding brings about formation of two double helices.
(IV) Bases on free nucleotides bond with bases on DNA stands.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence?
(1) I, III, II, IV (2) I, IV, II, III
(3) I, II, IV, III (4) IV, II, III, I
Ans.:- (2) I, IV, II, III
:Solution: During chromosome/DNA replication first Hydrogen bonds between the bases are
breaking.
Chapter Name : Molecular basis of inheritance
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical

BOTANY SECTION – B
Q136. Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
correct?

(1) = Mating between relatives (2) = Unaffected male

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(3) = Unaffected female (4) u= Male affected

Ans.:- (1) = Mating between relatives
:Solution: A male is represented by a square or the symbol female by a circle or the symbol
making is shown by marriage line. Connecting to male symbol and a female symbol.
Chapter Name : Principles of inheritance and variation
Topic Name : Mendelian disorders
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Mathematical
Q137. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because _____.
(1) The CO2 efflux is not prevented.
(2) They have more chloroplasts.
(3) The CO2 compensation point is more.
(4) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase.
Ans.:- (1) The CO2 efflux is not prevented.
:Solution: Thus pathway can work well in high temperature and intensity of light, that enables
effective photosynthesis.
Chapter Name : Photosynthesis
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q138. N is the population density at time and with respect to the four standard factors affecting
population density, If I = E and M < B what would be the outcome?
(1) N will increase (2) N will decreases
(3) N will remain same (4) N equals to zero
Ans.:- (1) N will increase
:Solution: Mortality rate is greater than birth rate so N is increases
Chapter Name : Organisms and populations
Topic Name :

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Difficulty level : Moderate

Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q139. The fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as _____
(1) Isogamous (2) Syngamous
(3) Oogamous (4) Anisogamous
Ans.:- (4) Anisogamous
:Solution: The fusion of gametes of dissimilar size such as chlamydomonal.
Chapter Name : Kingdom Plantae
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q140. Which one /ones is / are false for DNA replication?
(1) Ori is a definite region in DNA where replication starts.
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) serve as substrates as well as source of
energy for polymerization.
(3) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized in 3’  5’ direction.
(4) Replication of DNA is responsible for continuity of life on earth.
Ans.:- (3) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized in 3’ 5’ direction.
:Solution: Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized in opposite direction
i.e. Leading strand 5’  3”
Leading strand 3’  5’
Chapter Name : Molecular basis of inheritance
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q141. Diakaryophase of fungus occurs in _____
(1) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes (2) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes

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(3) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes

Ans.:- (1) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
:Solution: In Dikaryon (n + n) two nuclei per cell occurs and it is called dikaryophase. It occurs
in Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
Chapter Name : Biological Classification
Topic Name : Kingdom fungi
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill and Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q142. The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT.
(1) Warm and moist environment (2) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(3) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin (4) Detritus rich in sugars
Ans.:- (3) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
:Solution: All options were increases the rate of decomposition only detritus richer in lignin
and chitin which slower the decomposition rate.
Chapter Name :
Topic Name : Ecosystem
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q143. Bacterial flagellum consists of all the following parts except _____
(1) filament (2) micro tubule
(3) hook (4) basal body
Ans.:- (2) micro tubule
:Solution: Micro tubules are present in flagellum of eukaryotic cell.
Chapter Name : Cell : the unit of life
Topic Name : Cell envelope and its modifications
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q144. The 'eyes' of potato are located at the _______.
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(1) auxiliary buds (2) internodes

(3) leaf apex (4) nodes
Ans.:- (1) auxiliary buds
:Solution: The potato tubers are modified stems. They bear nodes, internodes auxiliary buds.
Chapter Name : Reproduction in organisms
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q145. Essential macro elements are ________
(1) obtained from soil (2) produced by growth hormone
(3) manufactured during photosynthesis (4) produced by enzymes
Ans.:- (1) obtained from soil
:Solution: Essential macro elements required for plant growth and development are obtained
from soil.
Chapter Name : Mineral nutrition
Topic Name : Macro elements
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q146. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by ______.
(1) Algae (2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria (4) Viruses
Ans.:- (2) Fungi
:Solution: Some of the diseases caused by fungi are brown rust wheat red rot of sugarcane and
late blight of potato.
Chapter Name : Strategies of enhancement in food production
Topic Name : Plant breeding for disease resistance
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
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Q147. In sclerenchyma, the walls are ____

(1) Suberised (2) Lignified
(3) Pectinised (4) Cutinised
Ans.:- (2) Lignified
:Solution: Sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls
having a few or numerous pits.
Chapter Name : Anatomy of flowering plants
Topic Name : Simple tissue
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q148. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is _______
(1) critically endangered (2) extinct
(3) vulnerable (4) endemic
Ans.:- (1) critically endangered
:Solution: The species are facing risk of extinction in the future immediately is called critically
endangered species.
Chapter Name : Biodiversity and conservation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q149. In which of the following plants the fleshy ______ leaves stores food?
(1) Dahlia and Asparagus (2) Maize and Sugarcane
(3) Chrysanthemum and Guava (4) Onion and Garlic
Ans.:- (4) Onion and Garlic
:Solution: The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store food.
Chapter Name : Morphology of flowering plants
Topic Name : Modifications of leaves
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
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Type of question : Theoretical

Q150. Which one is correct about bivalent?
(1) Bivalent are formed in mitosis.
(2) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
(3) One bivalent consists of homologous chromosome, each has sister chromatids.
(4) Bivalents formed in pachytene.
Ans.:- (2) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
:Solution: Bivalent are tetrads formed in zygotene. A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2
centromere. One bivalent consists of 2 homologous chromosomes, each has sister chromatids.
Chapter Name : Cell cycle and cell division
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria :
Type of question :

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PART – C : BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY)

ZOOLOGY SECTION – A
Q151. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(1) The arteries are deeply situated.
(2) In veins the blood flow is slow and under low pressure.
(3) Arteries carry deoxygenated blood except Pulmonary veins.
(4) Veins are superficial and have thin wall.
Ans.:- (3) Arteries carry deoxygenated blood except Pulmonary veins.
:Solution: Arteries are deeply seated while veins are superficial. All arteries carry pure blood
except pulmonary and umbilical.
Chapter Name : Body fluid & circulation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q152. In the tissues, high concentrations of carbon dioxide.
(1) Increases the affinity of hemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen.
(2) Increases the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen but decreases its affinity to hydrogen.
(3) Decreases the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen but increases its affinity to hydrogen.
(4) Decreases the affinity of hemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen.
Ans.:- (3) Decreases the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen but increases its affinity to
hydrogen.
:Solution: When concentration of CO2 in tissue increases it decrease affinity of HB to oxygen
and increase affinity to hydrogen.
Chapter Name : Breathing and exchange of gases
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical

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Q153. Emphysema treated with help at ______ human protein.

(1) –1 antitrypsin (2) –1 antitrypsin
(3) –1 antitrypsin (4) –1 antitrypsin
Ans.:- (1) –1 antitrypsin
:Solution: –1 antitrypsin cure emphysema.
Chapter Name : Biotechnology and the application
Topic Name : Biological product
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question :Theoretical
Q154. Parathyroid hormone _____
(1) is released when blood calcium level increases.
(2) is released when blood calcium level falls.
(3) stimulates mineralization of bone.
(4) stimulates calcitonin release.
Ans.:- (2) is released when blood calcium levels falls.
:Solution: It is hypercalcemic hormone hence secreted to increase blood calcium.
Chapter Name : Chemical Coordination and Integration
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q155. Plasmid are suitable vector for gene closing because ______.
(1) These are small circular DNA molecules, which can integrate with host chromosomal
DNA.
(2) These are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin of site.
(3) These are shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(4) These often carry antibiotic resistance gene.
Ans.:- (2) These are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin of site.
:Solution: Its extra genetic material.
Circular, DNA replicated autonomously.

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It cavity transfer into suitable host.

Chapter Name : Biotechnology principles and process
Topic Name : Plasmid
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q156. Match the type of cells given under column – I with examples given under column – II.
Choose the answer which given the correct combination of the alphabets.
Column – I (cells) Column – II (Examples)
(A) Flame cells (p) Sponges
(B) Collar cells (q) Hydra
(C) Stinging cells (r) Planaria
(s) Ascaris
(1) A – r, B – p, C – q (2) A – r, B – s, C – p
(3) A – r, B – p, C – s (4) A – r, B – p, C – s
Ans.:- (1) A – r, B – p, C – q
:Solution: A – r, B – p, C – q
Chapter Name : Animal Kingdom
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q157. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tubes. The technique by which the
embryo with more than 8 blastomeric will be transferred into the female for further
development.
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(3) IUT (4) AI
Ans.:- (3) IUT
:Solution: IUT is one of the important technique that helps the women in conception through
ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology).
Chapter Name : Reproductive Health
Topic Name : Infertility
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Difficulty level : Easy

Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q158. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) Fovea is the thinned-out portion of retina where rods are densely packed.
(2) Rhodopsin is the purplish-red pigment present in rods.
(3) Cones are responsible for photopic vision.
(4) Rhodopsin is composed of opsin protein and retinal.
Ans.:- (1) Fovea is the thinned-out portion of retina where rods are densely packed.
:Solution: Fovea is the thinned-out portion of retina where cones are densely packed.
Chapter Name : Neural Control and Coordination
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Hard
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q159. In PCR Technology which thermostable DNA polymerase are used.
(1) Thermos mettanococally (2) Thermos aquatics
(3) Thermos methanogens (4) Thermos polyquocus
Ans.:- (2) Thermos aquatics
:Solution: Thermos aquatics
Chapter Name : Biotechnology and application
Topic Name : PCR
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question :Theoretical
Q160. What connection has the cholesterol with blood pressure ?
(1) It increases metabolic rates and turn increases blood pressure.
(2) It decreases metabolic rates and in turn decreases blood pressure.
(3) It deposite over the wall of arteries and decreases blood pressure.
(4) It deposite in the arteries causes decreases in diameter and increase blood pressure.

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Ans.:- (4) It deposite in the arteries causes decreases in diameter and increase blood
pressure
Solution: If cholesterol is deposited in walls of arteries lumen becomes narrow and blood
pressure get increased.
Chapter Name : Body fluid & circulation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question :
Q161. Any alternation in allele frequency in the natural population by pure chance called as ____
(1) Point mutation (2) Genetic drift
(3) Gane flow (4) Chromosomal aberrations
Ans.:- (2) Genetic drift
:Solution: Fluctuations of gene frequencies in unpredictable directions in the natural population
called as genetic drift or any alteration in allele frequency, in the natural population by pure
chance is called as genetic drift. e.g. Elimination of particular allele from population due to
events like accidental death prior to mating of an organisms. Such genetic drifts also responsible
for the formation of genetic drifts also responsible for the formation of genetic variations.
Chapter Name : Evolution
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q162. Scala media and scala tympani contain _____
(1) Perilymph and endolymph respectively (2) Perilymph only
(3) Endolymph only (4) Endolymph and perilymph respectively
Ans.:- (4) Endolymph and perilymph respectively
:Solution: No need of explanation
Chapter Name : Neural Control and Coordination
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
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Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q163. The given table shows differences between spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis. Select the
incorrect option.
Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
(1) Process of formation of Spermatozoa (i) Differentiation of spermatogenesis and
spermiation
(2) It changes haploid structure into(n) haploid (ii) It involves conversion of diploid
(3) Growth and divisions occurs (iii) Divisions and Growth are absent
(4) Spermatozoa form four spermatozoa (iv) Spermatid & form single spermatozoa
Ans.:- (1) Process of formation of Spermatozoa (i) Differentiation of spermatogenesis and
spermiation
:Solution:
Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
(1) Process of formation of Spermatozoa (i) Differentiation of spermatozoa & spermatid
* Spermatogenesis is last stage of maturation phase (or) division in spermatogenesis.
Chapter Name : Human Reproduction
Topic Name : Gametogenesis
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q164. A hormone of –––X––– stimulate –––Y––– to release androgens. Identify X and Y.
(1) X–adenohypophysis, Y–adrenal medulla (2) X–hypothalamus, Y–adrenal medulla
(3) X–adenohypophysis, Y–testis (4) X–neuroypophysis, Y–testis
Ans.:- (3) X–adenohypophysis, Y–testis
:Solution: ICSH secreted by adenohypophysis stimulate testis to release androgens.
Chapter Name : Chemical Coordination and Integration
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q165. First clinical application of gene therapy over 4 year old girl was for ____
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(1) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (2) Adenine deficiency

(3) Growth deficiency (4) Adenosine eficiency
Ans.:- (1) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
:Solution: Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Chapter Name : Biotechnology and the application
Topic Name : ADA
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q166. In 5 Minutes how much blood is filtered by kidneys?
(1) 5700 mL (2) 4400 mL
(3) 1100 mL (4) 1200 mL
Ans.:- (1) 5700 mL
:Solution: On an average 1100–1200 mL of blood is filtered by the kidney per minute which
constitute roughly 1/5th of the blood pumped by each ventricle of the heart.
Chapter Name : Excretory products and their elimination
Topic Name : Formation of urine ultra filtration
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q167. Which of the following fungi is not capture of causing ring worm infection in man?
(1) Microsporum (2) Micro Python
(3) Epidermophyton (4) Trichoderms
Ans.:- (4) Trichoderms
:Solution: Trichoderms
Chapter Name : Human health and disease
Topic Name : Fungal infection and concept of immunity
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical

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Q168. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement
(a) Blood is colourless in the insects.
(b) Insect blood has no role in O2 transport.
(1) Both statements a and b are correct and statement b is the correct explanation of
statement a.
(2) Both statements a and b are correct but statement b is not the correct explanation of
statement a.
(3) Statement a is correct and statement b is incorrect.
(4) Both statements a and b are incorrect.
Ans.:- (1) Both statements a and b are correct and statement b is the correct explanation
of statement a.
:Solution: Blood of cockroach is colourless because RBC are absent so blood does not play any
role in transport of gases.
Chapter Name : Animal kingdom
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q169. B – Lymphocytes are associated with _____
(1) Humoral Immunity (2) Production of heparin
(3) Cell mediated Immunity (4) Internal Cleaning
Ans.:- (1) Humoral Immunity
:Solution: Humoral Immunity
Chapter Name : Human health and disease
Topic Name : Immunity
Difficulty level :
Class : XII
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical

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Q170. Blood calcium level depends upon many factors like absorption of dietary calcium by
alimentary canal, excretion of calcium in urine, storage of calcium in bones. Select the factor
which has NO ROLE in this process.
(1) Vitamin D (3) Parathyroid hormone
(2) Thyrocalcitonin (4) Thyroxine
Ans.:- (4) Thyroxine
:Solution: Vit–D stimulate calcium absorption, parathyroid hormone regulate mobilization of
bone calcium, calcitonin regulates storage of calcium in bone. Thyroxine has NO ROLE in this
process.
Chapter Name : Chemical Coordination and Integration
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q171. Which of the following was the first photosynthetic organism on the earth?
(1) Iron bacteria (2) Sulphur bacteria
(3) Green–Sulphur bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
Ans.:- (3) Green–Sulphur bacteria
:Solution: Carbon bacteria, nitrogen bacteria are first chemosynthetic autotrophs while first
photosynthesis is started in green sulphur bacteria, but non oxygenic.
Chapter Name : Evolution
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q172. Mantle is the _______
(1) calcareous part of mollusks.
(2) thick muscular fold of body wall in mollusks.
(3) ventral muscular foot in mollusks.
(4) visceral mass in molls.
Ans.:- (2) thick muscular fold of body wall in mollusks.
:Solution: Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unregimented with a distinct head,
muscular foot and visceral hump. A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the
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visceral hump. The space between the hump and the mantle is called the mantle cavity in which
feather like gills are present. They have respiratory and excretory functions.
Chapter Name : Animal kingdom
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q173. Match the column.
Column – I Column - II
(P) Radioactive antibody (A) Substance that can be constricted in laboratory.
(Q) Artificial Gene (B) Substance that can used to identify colonies of
genetically engineered bacteria that making particular
gene product.
(R) Amplification (C) Abnormal enhanced replication of plasmid, most
copies of plasmid in each cell.
(S) Clone (D) Large identical cells.
(1) P  B, Q  A, R  C, S  D (2) P  D, Q  A, R  B, S  C
(3) P  A, Q  B, R  C, S  D (4) P  C, Q  D, R  A, S  B
Ans.:- (1) P  B, Q  A, R  C, S  D
:Solution: P  B, Q  A, R  C, S  D
Chapter Name : Biotechnology principles and processer
Topic Name : Application
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question :
Q174. Match the column–I and column–II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column–I Column–II
(A) Tendon (1) Loose connective tissue
(B) Ligament (2) Dense regular connective tissue
(C) Areolar tissue (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(D) Adipose tissue (4) Specialised connective tissue

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(1) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 (2) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2
(3) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1 (4) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4
Ans.:- (4) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4
:Solution: A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4
Chapter Name : Structural organization in animals
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q175. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through Semen of an infected male?
(1) Hepatitis – B Virus (2) Human Immunodeficiency
(3) Chikanguniya Virus (4) Ebola Virus
Ans.:- (3) Chikanguniya Virus
Solution: Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Chapter Name : Human health and disease
Topic Name : AIDS
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q176. The given figure shows the diagrammatic view of human respiratory system.
Identify A, B, C and D.

(1) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm

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(2) A – Epigiottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchioles, D – Diaphragm

(3) A – Sound box, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
(4) A – Sound box, B – Alveoil, C – Brochioles, D – Diaphragm
Ans.:- (1) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
:Solution: A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli, C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
Chapter Name : Breathing and exchange of gases
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill and Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q177. Which one of the following in ‘NOT’ the function of placenta?
(1) Facilitates removal of CO2 and waste materials from embryo.
(2) Secretes oxytocin during parturition.
(3) Facilitates supply of O2 and nutrients to embryo.
(4) Secretes oestrogen.
Ans.:- (2) Secretes oxytocin during parturition.
:Solution: Placenta secrete HCG, HPL, Oestrogen, Progestron and in later stages secrets
relaxing oxytocin is birth hormone released by posterior pituitary gland.
Chapter Name : Human reproduction
Topic Name : Embryonic development and parturition
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question :Theoretical
Q178. How many of the following statements are related to bone?
(1) It is a specialized connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in
calcium salts and collagen fibers which give bone its strength.
(2) It is the main tissue that provides structural. Frame to the body.
(3) It supports and protects softer tissues and organs.
(4) The bone cells, osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Three (4) Five
Ans.:- (3) Three
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:Solution: Three
Chapter Name : Structural Organization in Animals
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q179. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field which one of the following groups of bones
directly contribute in this movement.
(1) Femur, malleus, Tibia (2) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(3) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula (4) Tarsal, femur, metatarsals, tibia
Ans.:- (4) Tarsal, femur, metatarsals, tibia
:Solution: A fast chasing cricketer, foot and leg bones contribute directly.
Chapter Name : Locomotion and Movement
Topic Name : Skeletal system
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q180. Which Palindrome base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some
particular restriction enzyme ?
(1) 5’ _______GATATG _______3’ (2) 5’ _______GAATTC _______3’
3’ _______CTACTA _______5’ 3’ _______CTTAAG _______5’
(3) 5’ _______CACGTA _______3’ (4) 5’ _______CGTTCG _______3’
3’ _______CTCAGA _______5’ 3’ _______ATGGTA _______5’
Ans.:- (2) 5’ _______GAATTC _______3’
3’ _______CTTAAG _______5’
:Solution: Palindrome sequence is mirror image.
Chapter Name : Biotechnology principles and process
Topic Name : Palindrome sequence
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
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Q181. Emulsification of fat is carried out by ______

(1) Bile pigments (2) Bile salts
(3) HCL (4) Pancreatic Juice
Ans.:- (2) Bile salts
:Solution: Bile salts (i.e. sodium Glycocholate and sodium Taurocholate both are organic salts
present in bile) reduce the surface tension of large far globules and break them in to fine minute
fat droplets. This process is known as emulsification of fat.
Chapter Name : Digestion and absorption
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q182. High effective contractive method, with very poor reversibility is ______.
(1) Coitus Interruptus (2) Progestasert
(3) Vaults (4) Sterilisation
Ans.:- (4) Sterilisation
:Solution: Vasectomy in male and tubectomy in female are sterilization methods for family
planning. These methods are very effective but their reversibility is very poor.
Chapter Name : Reproductive health
Topic Name : Birth control
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q183. Match Column – I with Column – II and select the correct option from the codes given below
Column – I Column – II
(A) Tidal volume (i) 2500–3000 mL of air
(B) Inspiratory reserve volume (ii) 1000 mL of air
(C) Expiratory reserve volume (iii) 500 mL of air
(D) Residual volume (iv) 3400–4800mL of air
(E) Vital capacity (v) 1200 mL of air
(1) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i, E–v (2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–v, E–iv
(3) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–v, E–ii (4) A–v, B–i, C–ii, D–iii, E–iv
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Ans.:- (2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–v, E–iv

:Solution: Tidal volume – 500 mL
IRV – 2500 – 3000 mL
ERV – 1000 mL
RV – 1200 mL
Vital capacity – 3400 – 4800 mL
Chapter Name : Breathing and exchange of gases
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q184. Match the column – I and with column – II correctly.
Column – I Column – II
(1) Class – I (I) Ligases
(2) Class – II (II) Isomerases
(3) Class – III (III) Lysases
(4) Class – IV (IV) Hydrolases
(5) Class – V (V) Transferase
(6) Class – VI (VI) Oxidroreductase or dehydroehase
(1) 1–I, 2–II, 3–III, 4–IV, 5–V, 6–VI (2) 1–I, 2–III, 3–V, 4–II, 5–IV, 6–VI
(3) 1–VI, 2–V, 3–IV, 4–III, 5–II, 6–I (4) 1–II, 2–IV, 3–VI, 4–I, 5–III, 6–V
Ans.:- (3) 1–VI, 2–V, 3–IV, 4–III, 5–II, 6–I
:Solution: (1) Oxido: Reductase/delaydrogenase : Enzyme catalyse oxidation reduction
between two subtracts S and s’.
(2) Transferases: Enzyme catalyzing a transfer of a Group, G(other than hydragem)
between a pair of substrate S and s’. S – G + s’ – 5 + 5’ – G
(3) Hydrolyses: Enzyme catalyses hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycoside,
C – C, C – halide or P–N bonds.
(4) Lyases: Enzymes catalyze removal of group from substrates by mechanisms
other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
(5) Isomerases: Enzymes Catalyzing inter conversion of optical geometric or
positional isomers.
(6) Legases: Enzymes catalyzing the linkage together of 2 components.
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Chapter Name : Biomolecules

Topic Name : Classification of enzymes
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Skill
Type of question : Theoretical
Q185. What is triglyceride ?
(1) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecule.
(2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
(3) 3 glycerol and 3 fatly acid molecules.
(4) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule.
Ans.:- (2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
Solution: Many lipids have both glycerol and fatly acids. Here the fatly acids are found
testified with glycerol. They can be the monoglyceride, diglycerides and triglycerides.
Chapter Name : Biomolecules
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
ZOOLOGY SECTION – B
Q186. In most simple type of canal system of Porifera, which of the following ways exhibit water
flow?
(1) Ostia  Spongocoel  Osculum  Exterior
(2) Spongocoel  Ostia  Osculum  Exterior
(3) Osculum  Spongocoel  Ostia  Exterior
(4) Osculum  Ostia  Spongocoel  Exterior
Ans.:- (1) Ostia  Spongocoel  Osculum  Exterior
:Solution: Sponges have a water transport to canal system. Water enters through minute pores
(ostia) in the body wall into a centralcavity, spongocoel, from where it goes out through the
osculum. This pathway of water transport is helpful in food gathering, respiratory exchange and
removal of waste. Choanocytesor collar cells line the spongocoel and the canals. Chonocytes

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

are found only in porifera. They play important role in intracellular digestion. Spongocoel opens
to outside by large calledosculum. Excretion and respiration occur by diffusion.
Chapter Name : Animal kingdom
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : High
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q187. Which cells of mucosal epithelium secrete mucus?
(1) Chief cells (2) Goblet cells
(3) Mucous cells (4) Parietal cells
Ans.:- (2) Goblet cells
:Solution: Mucosa layer is having goblet cells which secrete mucus that helps in lubrication of
alimentary canal.
Chapter Name : Digestion and absorption
Topic Name : Digestive system
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q188. Read the statements given below.
(1) Literal meaning of evolution is ‘folding’.
(2) ‘Big Bang theory explains the origin of earth only.
(3) According to ‘Nebular Hypothesis’ sun and earth were evolved from common source.
(4) Life has originated from non–living substances.
How many correct given above ?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Ans.:- (2) Two
:Solution: Two
Chapter Name : Evolution
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
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Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q189. An afferent arteriole is a fine branch of ______
(1) Renal vein (2) Renal artery
(3) Renal capsule (4) Renal Glomerulus
Ans.:- (2) Renal artery
:Solution: Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the afferent arteriole–fine branch of
Renal artery.
Chapter Name : Excretory products and their elimination
Topic Name : Human kidney
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q190. Which of the following is a components of cell mediated immunity?
(1) B–cells (2) C–cells
(3) T–cells (4) Both 1 and 2
Ans.:- (3) T-cells
:Solution: T–cells
Chapter Name : Human health and disease
Topic Name : Details of immunity – I
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q191. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(1) The structures of the cells vary according to their function.
(2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(3) Main function of compound epithelium in secretion and absorption.
(4) The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts is covered by
compound epithelium.
Ans.:- (3) Main function of compound epithelium in secretion and absorption.
:Solution: Main function of compound epithelium in secretion and absorption.
Chapter Name : Structural organization in animals
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Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q192. During muscle contraction.
(1) Chemical energy is changed into Electrical Energy.
(2) Chemical energy is changed into Mechanical Energy.
(3) Electrical energy is changed into Chemical Energy.
(4) Mechanical energy changed into Chemical Energy.
Ans.:- (2) Chemical energy is changed into Mechanical Energy.
:Solution: During contraction of muscle ATP present on meromyosin is hydrolised and this
chemical energy is used to pull the actin filament (Mechanical energy) causing contraction of
muscle. Using ATP molecule, myosin head binds to exposed active sites on actin to form cross
bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards centre of ‘A’ band there by causing
contraction of muscle.
Chapter Name : Locomotion and Movement
Topic Name : Mechanism of muscle contraction
Difficulty level : High
Class : XI
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q193. Contraceptive that prevents sperms from reaching an egg and thus preventing pregnancy is____
(1) Saheli (2) i–Pill
(3) LNG–20 (4) Cervical Cap
Ans.:- (4) Cervical Cap
:Solution: Cervical Cap is reusable contractive barrier made up of rubber–that is inserted into
female genital tract to cover cervix during coitus.
Chapter Name : Reproductive Health
Topic Name : Birth control
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
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Q194. The specific receptors responsible for the balance of the body and posture are ____.
(1) Tectorial membrane (2) Basilar membrane
(3) Crista and Macula (4) Organ of corti
Ans.:- (3) Crista and Macula
:Solution: Crista and macula are the specific receptors of vestibular apparatus responsible for
aintenance of balance of the body and posture.
Chapter Name : Neural Control and Coordination
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Easy
Class : XI
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical
Q195. Label E-coil clothing vector pBR322.
Cla I Hind III
EcoR I
(A)

Pvu I
Amp (B)
pBR322

(1) (A) BamH I (B) Sal I (C) PVU II (2) (A) Sal I (B) PVU II (C) BamH I
(3) (A) PVU II (B) Sal I (C) BamH I (4) (A) Sal I (B) Sal (C) BamH I
Ans.:- (1) (A) BamH I (B) Sal I (C) PVU II
:Solution: (A) BamH I (B) Sal I (C) PVU II
Chapter Name : Biotechnology principles and processer
Topic Name : pBR322 clotting vector
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Q.196. Choose the correct answer among the following options.

Hormone Function
(a) Epinephrine (i) Stimulate RBC production
(b) Erythropoietin (ii) Induce labour pain
(c) Oxytocin (iii) Decrease in liver glycogen level
(d) Glucagon (iv) Increase heart beat
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv (2) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i (4) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
Ans.:- (2) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
:Solution: No need of explanation
Chapter Name : Chemical Coordination and Integration
Topic Name :
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XI
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q197. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of _____
(1) Non competitive inhibition (2) Competitive inhibition
(3) Allosteric inhibition (4) Negative feedback
Ans.:- (2) Competitive inhibition
:Solution: Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate which closely resembles the
substrate succinic in structure.
Such competitive inhibition are after used in control of bacterial pathogens.
Chapter Name : Biomolecules
Topic Name : Factors affecting enzyme activity
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class :
Criteria : Understanding
Type of question : Theoretical
Q198. Which is not uses of Genetically Modified or Organism (GMO) ?
(1) Increased post harvest losses (2) Abiotic stress tolerant
(3) Increase preexistent crop (4) Increase nutritional value
Ans.:- (1) Increased post harvest losses
:Solution: Main goal of GMOs are to reduce post harvest lost.
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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

Chapter Name : Biotechnology and the application

Topic Name : GMOs
Difficulty level : High
Class : XII
Criteria : Application
Type of question : Theoretical
Q199. Valves are necessary in veins but not in arteries because ____
(1) Blood flows with greater force in veins.
(2) Blood in veins flows without jerk.
(3) Blood from heart may not he pushed back into veins.
(4) Pressure in veins is low, which can flow the blood.
Ans.:- (3) Blood from heart may not he pushed back into veins.
:Solution: In arteries blood flow by high pressure but veins collect blood from different body
parts with low pressure, so to prevent backflow valves are present.
Chapter Name : Body fluid and circulation
Topic Name :
Difficulty level :
Class :
Criteria :
Type of question : Theoretical
Q200. What is correct sequence of sperm formation?
(1) Spermatogonia  Spermatozoa  Spermatocyte  Spermatid.
(2) Spermatid  Spermatocyte  Spermatogonia  Spermatozoa.
(3) Spermatogonia  Spermatocyte  Spermatozoa  Spermatid.
(4) Spermatogonia  Spermatocyte  Spermatid  Spermatozoa.
Ans.:- (4) Spermatogonia  Spermatocyte  Spermatid  Spermatozoa.
:Solution: Solution not required
Chapter Name : Human reproduction
Topic Name : Gametogenesis
Difficulty level : Moderate
Class : XII
Criteria : Knowledge
Type of question : Theoretical

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PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY VERSION - A DEEPER KASAUTI PLUS NEET - 2022

INSTRUCTIONS TO BE FOLLOWED IN THE EXAMINATION HALL

(A) GENERAL
(i) The Examination Hall will be opened 30 minutes before the commencement of the test. Candidates are expected to take
their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If the candidates do not report in time, they are likely
to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the Examination Hall.
(ii) The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for admission in the Examination Hall. A candidate who does not
possess the valid Admit Card shall not be admitted to the Examination Hall under any circumstances by the Centre
Superintendent.
(iii) During the examination time, the invigilator will check Admit Card of the candidates to satisfy himself/herself about the
identity of each candidate. The invigilator will also put his/her signatures in the place provided in the Answer Sheet .
(iv) A seat with a roll number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates must find out and occupy their allotted seats. If a
candidate is found appearing in the Test from a seat or room other than the one allotted to him/her, his/her candidature
shall be cancelled.
(v) A candidate who comes after the commencement of the examination shall not be permitted to appear in the examination.
(vi) Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, envelope or any other material
except the Admit Card inside the Examination Hall.
(vii) Calculators, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Geometry Box, Electronic Digital Watches with facilities of calculators, cellular
phones, pagers or any other electronic gadget are not allowed inside the Examination Hall.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including Mobile Phone to the venue of
the examination as arrangement for safe keeping cannot be assured.
(viii) No candidate will leave his/her seat or the Examination Room/Hall until the Test concludes as per schedule. Candidates
should not leave the Room/Hall without handing over their Answer Sheets to the invigilator on duty. In case of
emergency or on medical ground, candidates may take special permission of the Centre Superintendent and Observer on
duty and the same should be reported to the Board in writing by the Centre Superintendent and the Observer.
(ix) Candidates are advised to bring with them a card board or a clip board so that they have no difficulty in writing
responses in the Answer Sheet even if the tables provided in the Examination Hall do not have smooth surface. They will
also bring their own Ball Point Pens of good quality. These will not be supplied by the Board.
(x) Smoking in the Examination Hall during examination hours is strictly prohibited.
(xi) Tea, coffee, cold drinks or snacks are not allowed to be taken by the candidates into the Examination Halls during
examination hours.
(xii) The Test will start exactly at the time mentioned in the Admit Card and an announcement to this effect will be made by
the invigilator.
(xiii) A signal will be given at the beginning of the examination and at half-time. A signal will also be given before the closing
time when the candidate must stop marking the responses.
(xiv) The candidate must sign twice on the Attendance Sheet at the appropriate place. First time, immediately after the
commencement of Examination and the second time while delivering the Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The candidates
are also required to put their left hand thumb impression in the space provided on the Attendance Sheet.
(xv) For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of examination for any reason, re-examination shall not
be held by the Deeper under any circumstances.
(xvi) UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICE & BREACHES OF EXAMINATION RULES :
(B) SCORING AND MARKING
(a) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response
one mark will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score will, however, be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. The candidates are advised not to attempt such item in answer
sheet, if they are not sure of the correct response. More than one answer indicated a question will be deemed as
incorrect response and will be negatively marked.
(b) For the purpose of evaluation, the Test Booklet code as printed in the Answer Sheet on side-2 will be accepted as final.
(C) ROUGH WORK :
The candidate will not do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All rough work is to be done in the Test
Booklet itself.
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