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PTS 2025 GS Simulator Test 1 Solution Eng

The document contains solutions to a geography test, addressing various questions related to Indian physiography, airports, natural vegetation, major crops, wetlands, and rare earth elements. Each question includes an answer, explanation, and references to sources for further information. The content emphasizes key geographical facts and clarifications regarding misconceptions.

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1K views72 pages

PTS 2025 GS Simulator Test 1 Solution Eng

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount K2 (Godwin Austen), is the second highest peak in the world (8,611m)
and the highest peak of Himalayas in the Indian Union.
The 2nd highest peak in India is Kangchenjunga (Khangchendzonga), which stands at 8,598 meters and
is located on the border between Nepal and the Indian state of Sikkim.
1. Nanda Devi, on the other hand, stands at 7,820 meters. It is located entirely within India, in the state of
Uttarakhand.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The two major bends in the Himalayas are known as Syntaxial Bends, where the
mountain range sharply changes direction:
1. The Eastern Syntaxial Bend occurs around Namcha Barwa (7,782 m), where the range curves sharply
towards the south before continuing into Myanmar. However, Namcha Barwa is located in Arunachal
Pradesh, not Assam.
2. The Western Syntaxial Bend occurs around Nanga Parbat (8,126 m) (not K2), where the range bends
southward. Nanga Parbat is located in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (POK).
Statement 3 is correct: Dhaulagiri (8,167 meters) is indeed located to the west of Makalu (8,485 meters).
Both of these peaks are in Nepal.
Dhaulagiri, which means "White Mountain," is the seventh-highest peak in the world and lies northwest
of Makalu, the fifth-highest peak in the world.
Source:) NCERT CLASS XI India Physical Environment, UNIT II : PHYSIOGRAPHY, Page: 10
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/69599/1/Unit-3.pdf Page:54.
India: A Comprehensive Geography by DR Khullar Chapter 3 Page 63
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Indian Physiography
Subtopic:)

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Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[1]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: The largest international airport in India by land area is Rajiv Gandhi International
Airport in Hyderabad, covering approximately 5,500 acres.
1. Additionally, Indira Gandhi International Airport in Delhi is the second-largest international airport in
India by land area.
2. On the other hand, the distinguishing feature of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport in
Mumbai is that it is the second-busiest international airport in India, in terms of total passengers (52
million) handled annually in the Financial year 2023-24.
Pair 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport (CIAL) in Kerala is renowned for being the world's first
fully solar-powered airport, achieving this milestone in 2015. Additionally, it is also India's first airport
built under the public-private partnership (PPP) model.
Pair 3 is incorrect: According to data from the Airports Authority of India, the busiest international
airport in India, based on total passenger traffic handled annually for the fiscal year 2023–24, is Indira
Gandhi International Airport in Delhi, handling approximately 73 million passengers.
1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport in Mumbai ranks second, followed by Kempegowda
International Airport in Bengaluru.
2. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport in Hyderabad ranks fourth, handling approximately 25 million
passengers during the same period.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/close-to-a-decade-after-cial-became-
carbon-neutral-80-airports-join-the-league/article69015377.ece
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/top-largest-airports-in-the-world-gateways-to-global-
connectivity/articleshow/111512815.cms
https://www.cial.aero/About-Us
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Hyderabad/hyderabads-rgia-fourth-busiest-indian-airport-
in-fy24/article68117604.ece
https://www.unep.org/championsofearth/node/46
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Human and Economic Geography
Subtopic:)

Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Dry deciduous forests cover vast areas of India, particularly in regions where annual rainfall ranges
between 70–100 cm.
1. These forests act as a transition between moist deciduous forests (100-200 cm rainfall) on the wetter
margins and thorn forests (rainfall less than 50 cm) on the drier margins.
2. They are predominantly found in the rainier parts of the Peninsular region, as well as the plains of Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar.
3. As the dry season begins, trees shed their leaves completely, making the forest appear like a vast
grassland with bare trees.
4. Common species of these forests include Tendu, Palas, Amaltas, Bel, Khair, and Axlewood.
5. However, Rosewood is predominantly found in tropical evergreen forests, requiring higher rainfall
(over 200 cm). It is not a dry deciduous species.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy105.pdf Page:44.

[2]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Natural Vegetation
Subtopic:)

Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: India is the largest producer of jute globally, contributing more than 50% of the
world’s total jute production, followed by Bangladesh and China.
1. The major jute-producing states in India are West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The major fibre crops in India include cotton, jute, mesta, silk, coir, and hemp.
Cotton is the largest fibre crop in India in terms of total production, followed by Jute.
1. In 2023-24, India's estimated cotton production was 145.6 lakh bales (1 bale = 170 kg), making it the top
fibre crop.
2. In contrast, India’s jute production is around 91.0 lakh bales (1 bale = 180 kg), significantly lower than
cotton.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The top three jute-producing states in India are:
1. West Bengal (~81% of total jute production)
2. Bihar (~10%)
3. Assam (~7%)
Maharashtra is not a major jute-producing state. It is a leading producer of cotton but not jute.
Odisha is among major producers of jute but is not in the top three.
Statement 4 is correct: The Government of India announces MSP for raw jute annually to support
farmers. The Jute Corporation of India (JCI) is responsible for procuring jute from farmers at MSP and
ensuring price stabilization.
1. MSP is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to protect them from price
fluctuations.
2. MSP is determined by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and approved by the
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister.
3. The Government of India sets MSPs for 23 crops, including:
o 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi)
o 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad and lentil)
o 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, seasmum, sunflower, safflower and nigerseed)
o 4 commercial crops (cotton, jute, sugarcane, and copra).
Source:) https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter.pdf Page: 200.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/resources/69163234-Economic-Survey-2024-25-Statistical-
Appendix.pdf Page:34 & 44.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Major Crops and Croppping Pattern
Subtopic:)

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: Kolleru Lake, Deepor Beel, and Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary:
These three wetlands are all naturally formed ecosystems.
1. Kolleru Lake (natural): One of the largest natural freshwater lakes in India, situated between the
Krishna and Godavari River deltas in Andhra Pradesh.

[3]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
2. Deepor Beel (natural): It is a natural and permanent freshwater lake situated southwest of Guwahati in
Assam. It was naturally formed as part of the Brahmaputra River floodplain and is recognized as an
Important Bird Area (IBA).
3. Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary (natural): It is one of the largest shallow natural freshwater lakes in India
and is located near Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
Option a is incorrect: Loktak Lake, Harike Wetland, and Renuka Wetland:
1. Loktak Lake (natural): Located in Manipur, this is the largest natural freshwater lake in northeastern
India and is known for its floating phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter)
and the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is home to the endangered Sangai deer.
2. Harike Wetland (human made): Situated in Punjab, it was created by constructing a barrage at the
confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers in 1953.
3. Renuka Wetland (natural): Renuka Lake in Himachal Pradesh is a natural wetland formed by tectonic
activities. It is also the smallest wetland of India.
Option c is incorrect: Bhoj Wetland, Hokera Wetland, and Tsomoriri
1. Bhoj Wetland (human-made): Located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, it comprises two lakes, Upper and
Lower Lake, created by building earthen dams, making it a human-made wetland. The Upper Lake is an
ancient reservoir constructed in the 11th century C.E by King Bhoj of the Parmar dynasty.
2. Hokera Wetland (natural): This wetland in Jammu & Kashmir is a natural wetland and falls within the
Jhelum River basin
3. Tsomoriri (natural): Situated in the Ladakh region, it is a natural high-altitude lake located in the
Changthang region. It was formed naturally by tectonic and glacial activities and is one of the highest
lakes in the world.
Option d is incorrect: Ansupa Lake, Keoladeo National Park, and Asan Conservation Reserve
1. Ansupa Lake (natural): Ansupa Lake in Odisha is a small and natural oxbow lake, formed by the
meandering of the Mahanadi River.
2. Keoladeo National Park (human-made): Located in Rajasthan, this site includes a man-made wetland.
Also, the park is a UNESCO World Heritage site.
3. Asan Conservation Reserve (human-made): This reserve in Uttarakhand comprises a man-made
wetland created by the damming of the Asan River.
Source:) ForumIAS Environment Red book.
https://wiienvis.nic.in/Database/ramsar_wetland_sites_8224.aspx
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Wetlands
Subtopic:)

Q.6)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are a group of 17 chemically similar elements, including 15 lanthanides plus
Scandium (Sc) and Yttrium (Y). These elements are crucial for high-tech applications such as electronics,
renewable energy, medical applications and defence.
REEs are classified into:
1. Light REEs (LREEs): Lanthanum (La), Cerium (Ce), Praseodymium (Pr), Neodymium (Nd), Promethium
(Pm), Samarium (Sm).
2. Heavy REEs (HREEs): Europium (Eu), Gadolinium (Gd), Terbium (Tb), Dysprosium (Dy), Holmium (Ho),
Erbium (Er), Thulium (Tm), Ytterbium (Yb), Lutetium (Lu).
Option d is correct: Both Neodymium and Europium are Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
1. Neodymium (Nd) is a Light Rare Earth Element (LREE) and one of the most important REEs. It is a key
component in high-strength permanent magnets used in electric vehicles, wind turbines, and
headphones.
2. Europium (Eu) is a Heavy Rare Earth Element (HREE) and is crucial for phosphors in LED lights, TV
screens, and fluorescent lamps.
Option a is incorrect: Cobalt and Lithium are not Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
1. Cobalt (Co) is classified as a critical mineral, primarily used in lithium-ion batteries and superalloys for
aerospace applications.
2. Lithium (Li) is another critical mineral, essential for energy storage and electric vehicle (EV) batteries.
Option b is incorrect: Cerium and Palladium:
1. Cerium (Ce) is a Light Rare Earth Element (LREE) and is the most abundant REE, widely used in
catalytic converters and glass polishing.
2. Palladium (Pd), however, is not an REE; it belongs to the Platinum Group Metals (PGMs) and is mainly
used in automobile catalytic converters and hydrogen fuel cells.
Option c is incorrect: Vanadium and Terbium:
1. Vanadium (V) is not an REE; it is a transition metal used primarily in steel alloys and vanadium flow
batteries for energy storage.
2. Terbium (Tb) is a Heavy Rare Earth Element and is important for green phosphors in LED displays and
high-performance magnets.
Source:) https://mines.gov.in/admin/download/649d4212cceb01688027666.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Human and Economic Geography
Subtopic:)

Q.7)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Kelp forests are dense underwater ecosystems dominated by large, brown algae known as kelp. These
forests are primarily found in shallow, nutrient-rich coastal waters, especially in temperate and cold-
water regions across the globe. They play a crucial role in marine biodiversity and serve as one of the
most productive ecosystems on Earth.
Key Characteristics of Kelp Forests:
1. Habitat & Distribution:
1. Kelp forests are found along 25% to 30% of the world’s coastlines, making them the most extensive
marine vegetated ecosystems in the world.
2. They commonly occur in cold waters of temperate, Arctic and sub-Antarctic areas. Some of the
largest kelp forests are found in California and Pacific Northwest coastlines, up to and including Canada
and Alaska.
3. But they can also be found at tropical latitudes, such as in the Galapagos Islands.
2. Ecological Importance:
1. Provide habitat and food for numerous marine species, including fish, sea urchins, sea otters, and seals.
2. Act as natural barriers, reducing coastal erosion by dampening wave energy.
3. Play a significant role in carbon sequestration, helping to mitigate climate change by absorbing CO₂.
3. Threats to Kelp Forests:
1. Climate Change: Rising ocean temperatures and ocean acidification negatively impact kelp growth.
2. Overgrazing: Sea urchin populations, when unchecked (due to predator loss like sea otters), can
destroy entire kelp forests.

[5]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
3. Pollution & Coastal Development: Industrial runoff and habitat destruction can reduce kelp forest
health.
Source:) https://www.wri.org/insights/what-kelp-forests-protect
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/106551/1/Unit-5.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Biomes
Subtopic:)

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In October 2024, a regional partnership of ten African nations announced the enforcement of a
cooperative framework agreement for the equitable utilization of the Nile River's water resources.
1. This accord, ratified by countries including Ethiopia, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, and Tanzania, aims to
promote sustainable and fair use of the Nile's waters among its riparian states.
2. Notably, Egypt and Sudan have abstained from signing the agreement, expressing concerns over
potential impacts on their historical water allocations.
The Nile River basin encompasses eleven countries: Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo,
Egypt, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. The Nile Basin
covers an area of about 3.1 million km², which represents 10 percent of the African continent.

Nile River Basin

Nigeria is not part of the Nile River basin; it is located in West Africa and is primarily associated with the
Niger River basin.
Knowledge Base:
Nile River:
1. Longest River in the World: The Nile is approximately 6,690 km long, making it the longest river on
Earth.
2. Two Major Tributaries:

[6]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
o White Nile (longer but less water volume, originates from Lake Victoria (Tanzania and Uganda))
o Blue Nile (shorter but carries more water & sediment, originates from Lake Tana, Ethiopia)
3. Mouth: The Nile empties into the Mediterranean Sea through the Nile Delta in Egypt.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/nile-nations-agree-on-water-sharing-
without-egypts-nod/article68755184.ece
https://www.fao.org/4/y5716b/y5716b01.htm#:~:text=The%20Nile%20Basin%20covers%20an,and%20
United%20Republic%20of%20Tanzania.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Drainage
Subtopic:)

Q.9)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Northern Plains of India are formed by alluvial deposits brought by the Indus, Ganga, and
Brahmaputra rivers. These plains stretch approximately 3,200 km from east to west, with an average
width of 150–300 km. The alluvial deposits in this region have a depth ranging between 1,000–2,000
meters.
Based on their geographical features, the plains are divided into three major zones from north to south:
Bhabhar, Tarai, and the alluvial plains. The alluvial plains are found south of Tarai region and are further
classified into Khadar (newer alluvium) and Bangar (older alluvium), each with distinct characteristics.
Statement 1 is correct: Khadar refers to the newer alluvial soil that is deposited annually by rivers in the
Northern Plains of India.
1. It is found in the floodplains of major rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra.
2. These deposits are highly fertile because they are replenished annually by river floods, bringing fresh
silt and nutrients.
3. Due to its high fertility, it is highly productive and ideal for growing crops like wheat, rice, and
sugarcane.
Statement 2 is correct: Bangar refers to the older alluvial soil, found on slightly elevated terraces above
the floodplain, found in the Northern Plains of India.
1. It is less fertile than Khadar because it does not receive fresh silt deposits annually.
2. It contains calcareous nodules (Kankar), which make the soil harder and less fertile compared to
Khadar.
3. However, it is still used for agriculture, though it requires irrigation and soil management.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tarai does not consist of porous and coarse sediments where rivers
disappear underground (this is actually a feature of the Bhabhar region).
1. Instead, Tarai is a marshy and swampy region located south of Bhabhar, with an approximate width of
10-20 km.
2. This is where rivers and streams reemerge after disappearing in Bhabhar.
3. Due to the high-water table, this region remains waterlogged, making it highly suitable for crops like
rice, jute, and sugarcane.
4. Tarai also has a luxurious growth of natural vegetation and supports diverse wildlife, hosting many
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, such as Dudhwa National Park in Uttar Pradesh.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Bhabhar is not a swampy or marshy region; instead, it is a narrow belt (8-10
km wide) found along the Shiwalik foothills.
1. As rivers descend from the Himalayas, they deposit heavy materials like rocks and boulders in this zone.

[7]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
2. Due to the high porosity of the coarse sediments, streams and rivers often disappear underground in
this region.
3. This area is dry and not suitable for agriculture, but it supports deep-rooted vegetation.
4. South of Bhabhar lies the Tarai belt, where the lost streams and rivers reemerge.
Source:) NCERT CLASS XI India Physical Environment, UNIT II : PHYSIOGRAPHY, Page: 15.
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/102610/1/Unit-9.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Indian Physiography
Subtopic:)

Q.10)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

India’s electronics sector

Statement 1 is incorrect: India's electronics market accounts for only 4% of the global electronics
industry, not 25%.
While India has made significant strides in electronics manufacturing, it still remains a small fraction of
the global market due to its focus on assembly rather than high-value design and component
manufacturing.
Statement 2 is correct: India has drastically reduced its dependence on smartphone imports, with 99%
of the smartphones sold in the country now being manufactured domestically. The key drivers of
growth have been the large domestic market, the availability of skilled talent, and low-cost labour.
Statement 3 is correct: The production of electronic goods in India has increased substantially from
₹1.90 lakh crore in FY15 to ₹9.52 lakh crore in FY24, growing at a CAGR of 17.5%. This represents a
fivefold increase in the last decade, reflecting the rapid expansion of domestic manufacturing.
This growth has been driven by initiatives like Make in India, Digital India, ease of doing business and
various production-linked incentive (PLI) schemes, which have encouraged both domestic production
and foreign investment in the sector.
Source:) https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/echapter.pdf Page:200.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2034096
Subject:) Geography

[8]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Topic:) Human and Economic Geography
Subtopic:)

Q.11)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
India has the largest deposits of Thorium in the world. India hosts roughly a quarter of the world’s
thorium. Together, Kerala and Odisha account for over 70 percent of India’s thorium.
Statement I is correct. India is working to get to the third stage of its nuclear programme which
envisages the use of thorium for power generation. The third stage of the nuclear power program
envisages large scale power production from thorium.
India has a three-stage nuclear power programme. The three stages are expected to allow the country
complete self-sufficiency in nuclear energy.
1. In the first, India used pressurised heavy water reactors (PHWRs) and natural uranium-238 (U-238) as
the fissile material.
a. PHWRs use natural or low-enriched U-238 as the fissile material and produce Pu-239 as a byproduct.
PHWRs are reactors that use natural uranium as fuel and heavy water (deuterium oxide) as coolant
and moderator.
2. In stage II, India will use Plutonium-239 together with U-238 in the prototype fast breeder reactor
(PFBR) to produce energy, U-233, and more Pu-239. The PFBR produces more Pu-239 than it consumes.
3. In stage III, Pu-239 will be combined with thorium-232 (Th-232) in reactors to produce U-233. U-233
will then be used as fuel in the third stage. When sufficiently irradiated, Thorium-232 undergoes a series
of nuclear reactions. This leads to forming Uranium-233 which can then be “split” to release energy to
power a nuclear reactor.
Statement II is incorrect. Thorium by itself cannot be directly used as a fuel in nuclear reactors for
generation of power. Thorium has to be converted to Uranium-233 in a reactor before it can be used as
fuel. It is because Thorium is not a fissile material. Thorium is a fertile material that has to be converted
to fissile material U233. ‘Fertile material’ is not fissionable by thermal neutrons but can be converted into
fissile material. Thorium will create fissile U233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage of India’s
nuclear programme.
Source:)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/prototype-fast-breeder-reactor-stage-2-nuclear-
programme-thorium/article67912583.ece
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/energy/how-india-s-beaches-can-unlock-a-nuclear-powered-
future-95590
https://www.iaea.org/bulletin/thoriums-long-term-potential-in-nuclear-energy
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Energy
Subtopic:)

Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Great Indian bustard is one of the biggest flying birds in India. It is the State bird of Rajasthan. Its
population of about 150 in Rajasthan accounts for 95% of its total world population. They have been
facing a threat to their survival because of intensive agricultural practices, laying of power lines and
industrialisation.

[9]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement I is correct. The Great Indian Bustard has been harmed by power lines. They have been dying
by colliding into overhead power lines or getting electrocuted.
A Supreme Court appointed-committee has recommended that, in order to protect the endangered
Great Indian Bustard, close to 800 km of proposed power lines in the Thar and Kutch deserts of Rajasthan
and Gujarat should be re-routed or made to go underground.
In April 2021, the Supreme Court directed that all low-voltage power lines in areas demarcated as
“priority and potential habitats of the Great Indian Bustard” in the Thar and Kutch deserts be pushed
underground.
Statement II is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard has a poor frontal vision that makes it hard to avoid
collisions. The bird has good peripheral vision but poor frontal vision, making it difficult for them to
spot power lines until they fly too close to them. Their large size makes it difficult for them to quickly
change their flight path and they end up colliding with the cables and dye.
Knowledge Base:
1. The Great Indian Bustard is a relatively heavy bird, nearly a metre in height.
2. Bustards generally favour flat open landscapes with minimal visual obstruction and disturbance. They
have been adapted well in grasslands.
3. The Great Indian Bustard is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972. It has also been
identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of
Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. It is considered India’s
most critically endangered bird.
4. It is also listed in the CMS Convention and in Appendix I of CITES. It is listed as Critically Endangered
on the IUCN Red List.
5. The Great Indian Bustard was earlier distributed throughout Western India as well as parts of Pakistan.
Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations may occur in
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
6. The great Indian bustard also has unique breeding habits. The bird lays just one egg at a time and
spends the next two years caring for its offspring.
7. The main threats to this species are:
● hunting, and poaching;
● collisions with high tension electric wires;
● habitat loss and alteration as a result of widespread agricultural expansion and mechanized farming;
● habitat loss due to infrastructural development such as irrigation, roads, electric poles, as well as
mining and industrialization.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-forms-expert-panel-to-balance-bustard-
conservation-with-sustainable-energy-goals/article67977617.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/sc-committee-directs-10-of-power-
lines-in-rajasthan-gujarat-be-altered-to-protect-the-great-indian-bustard/article66470168.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/great-indian-bustards-recovery-conservation-9430708/
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.13)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The first-ever multi-taxon global freshwater fauna assessment was recently conducted by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). According to this study, Western Ghats is among
the World's 4 regions where freshwater species are at highest risk of extinction.

[10]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Option c is correct. The study conducted by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
has identified Western Ghats as a key location with the greatest abundance of threatened freshwater
species. The study identifies Western Ghats (India) as hotspot of threatened freshwater species
richness.
1. As per the study, Western Ghats harbour over 300 freshwater fish species of which more than one-
third face extinction.
2. Among Indian States, Kerala has the highest number of threatened freshwater fishes.
3. The study identifies Lake Victoria (Kenya, Tanzania, Uganda), Lake Titicaca (Bolivia and Peru), Sri
Lanka’s Wet Zone, and the Western Ghats (India) as hotspots of threatened freshwater species richness.
4. The study also revealed that a staggering one-quarter of the freshwater fauna are threatened with
extinction.
Source:)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/first-ever-multi-taxon-global-
freshwater-fauna-assessment-identifies-western-ghats-as-a-hotspot-of-threatened-
species/article69076585.ece
https://iucn.org/press-release/202501/one-quarter-freshwater-animals-risk-extinction-iucn-red-
list#:~:text=The%20greatest%20number%20of%20threatened,found%20nowhere%20else%20on%20Ear
th.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.14)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Fish are aquatic vertebrate animals that have gills. There are more than 28,000 species of fishes in nature.
Option 1 is incorrect. Sea stars, commonly called "starfish," are not fish. They are echinoderms. Starfish
live underwater, but they do not have gills, scales, or fins. Sea stars live only in saltwater. Sea water,
instead of blood, is actually used to pump nutrients through their bodies via a 'water vascular system.'
They move by using tiny tube feet located on the underside of their bodies.
Option 2 is incorrect. Shellfish are not fish. Shellfish are organisms having a hard calcareous shell on
their body. Shellfish are aquatic invertebrates. Shellfish are exoskeleton-bearing aquatic invertebrates
that may be used as food. They include various species of molluscs, crustaceans, and echinoderms.
Option 3 is incorrect. Jellyfish aren't actually fish, but they are invertebrates, or animals with no
backbones. These invertebrates are members of the phylum Cnidaria.
Jellyfish are about 95 percent water. They lack brains, blood, or even hearts.
They are composed of three layers: an outer layer, called the epidermis; a middle layer made of a thick,
elastic, jelly-like substance called mesoglea; and an inner layer, called the gastrodermis.
These incredible invertebrates use their stinging tentacles to stun or paralyse prey before gobbling it up.
Option 4 is correct. A sea horse is a fish. Seahorses are tiny fishes that are named for the shape of their
head, which looks like the head of a tiny horse. There are at least 50 species of seahorses.
Seahorses generally live in shallow, near-coastal waters. Seahorses use their dorsal fins (back fins) to
propel slowly forward.
Seahorses use their tube-shaped snouts to scoop up hundreds of tiny meals in a single day. These fish
don’t have true stomachs, just a digestive tube, so they need to eat all day to get their nutrients.
Option 5 is correct. Oarfish are a species of fish. Oarfish are greatly elongated, large fish in the family
Regalecidae. They are also known as the "doomsday fish". They mostly live in deep sea waters. The
“doomsday fish” can grow to be up to 30 feet long and typically resides down to 1,000 meters in the

[11]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
mesopelagic zone of the ocean. Oarfish are filter feeders meaning they eat krill, plankton and other small
creatures.
Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/trending-globally/doomsday-fish-washes-up-
on-mexico-beach-sparks-alarm-viral-video-9844533/
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/science/strange-events-in-ocean-warn-are-oarfish-whales-and-
anglerfish-predicting-environmental-disruptions/articleshow/118678501.cms
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/starfish.html
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kebo104.pdf
https://www.natgeokids.com/uk/discover/animals/sea-life/jellyfish-facts/
https://kids.nationalgeographic.com/animals/fish/facts/seahorse
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.15)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Sangai is one of the three sub-species of Eld’s deer. Sangai, also called the brow-
antlered deer, is found only in the northeastern state of Manipur. The animal is a medium-sized deer,
with uniquely distinctive antlers, measuring 100 -110 cm in length.
It lives in the marshy wetland of the Keibul Lamjao National Park (KLNP), the only floating park in the
world. The KLNP is an integral part of the Loktak Lake and is characterized by many floating decomposed
plant materials locally called phumdis.
It is listed as ‘Endangered’ in IUCN Red List and Schedule I of the Indian WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Sangai is also called the dancing deer. Sangai is the state animal of Manipur.
Option b is incorrect. Hangul or Kashmiri Stag is a unique subspecies of red deer native to the Kashmir
region. It is the only surviving Asiatic member of the red deer family. It is the state animal of Jammu and
Kashmir (UT). The hangul lives in dense riverine forests, high valleys and mountains of the Kashmir valley
and northern Chamba in Himachal Pradesh. The hangul is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN
Red List. Its population has declined drastically over the years due to habitat loss, overgrazing by
domestic livestock, poaching, predation, diseases and human-wildlife conflicts.
Option c is incorrect. The Barasingha or Hard ground Swamp Deer is a medium sized deer. It is an
endangered species of deer. Barasingha is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh. It is now found only in
south- western Nepal and central and northeastern India.
There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent. The western swamp deer
(Rucervus duvaucelii) found in Nepal, southern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) found in
central and north India and eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga
and Dudhwa National Parks.
Option d is correct. Muntjac are also known as barking deer. These deer communicate with each other
through scent from two glands on their faces. One is on the forehead while the other is just in front of
their eyes. When a deer wants to leave a message about its presence, these glands swell and inflate like
balloons. The deer then rubs its face against tree trunks or bushes to tell other forest denizens that it is
around.
The Muntjac is also commonly called the "barking deer" due to the bark-like sound that it makes as an
alarm when danger is present.
Muntjacs are a group of leaf-eating deer species found in south and southeast Asia. Muntjac are largely
solitary and territorial.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/children/weird-but-wonderful/article68654697.ece

[12]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.16)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Granular Activated Carbon (GAC) is a form of activated carbon with a high surface area and porosity,
which gives it remarkable adsorption properties. It is produced by heating carbon-rich organic materials
such as coal, wood, peat, lignite, or coconut shells at high temperatures (600–1200°C) in the absence of
oxygen (a process called pyrolysis).
Options 1 and 2 are correct: GAC has a very high adsorption capacity due to its extensive surface area
and porous structure.
This makes it effective for multiple applications, including:
● Air filtration – absorbs volatile organic compounds (VOCs), odors, and harmful gases.
● Industrial wastewater treatment – removes pollutants such as pesticides, pharmaceuticals, and
petrochemical residues.
Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: GAC is not highly effective in removing dissolved inorganic compounds
such as sodium chloride (table salt) or heavy metals like arsenic.
● While it can reduce some inorganic contaminants like chlorine and hydrogen sulfide, it does not
effectively remove dissolved salts.
● It is not highly effective against certain heavy metals like arsenic, though it can adsorb selective
metals like lead and mercury.
● Reverse osmosis or ion exchange is required for effective removal of heavy metals and dissolved
salts.
Source:) https://wqa.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/09/2016_GAC.pdf
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/researchers-devise-method-to-develop-eco-
friendly-supercapacitors-using-activated-carbon-produced-from-coconut-husks/article68352189.ece
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Pollution and Associated Issues
Subtopic:)

Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Seaweeds are macroscopic algae growing generally in the marine and shallow coastal waters and on
rocky shores.
● They generally live attached to rock or other hard substrata in coastal areas.
● They are classified into three main groups based on their pigmentation: Red algae (Rhodophyta),
Green algae (Chlorophyta) and Brown algae (Phaeophyta).
Statement 1 is correct: Seaweeds play a significant role in mitigating climate change by:
● Absorbing large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO₂) through photosynthesis, helping reduce
greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere.
● This process also supports carbon sequestration, as some of the absorbed carbon gets stored in the
biomass of seaweeds or transferred to the seafloor when they decay.
● Additionally, seaweeds help mitigate ocean acidification by removing excess CO₂ from seawater,
which helps maintain a stable pH balance in marine ecosystems.
● Given these crucial environmental benefits, seaweeds are increasingly recognized as a nature-based
solution for climate change mitigation.

[13]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kappaphycus alvarezii is one of the most extensively farmed seaweed species
in India. It is primarily cultivated for carrageenan, which is widely used in the food processing,
pharmaceutical, and cosmetic industries.
● However, it is not native to India and was introduced from the Philippines in the 1990s. Also, it is
listed among the world's 100 most invasive species by the IUCN.
● While its cultivation provides economic benefits, concerns have been raised about its invasive
potential, as it can spread rapidly and outcompete native marine flora, thereby affecting biodiversity.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Government of India has recently issued new guidelines for the import of
live seaweed seeds, aiming to facilitate import of high-quality seed materials or germplasm from
abroad.
However, these guidelines do not mandate prior approval from the National Biodiversity Authority
(NBA). Instead, import approvals fall under the jurisdiction of the Department of Fisheries, Ministry of
Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
As per the new framework:
● Any entity seeking to import seaweed seeds must submit an application to the Department of
Fisheries.
● The application is then evaluated by the National Committee on Introduction of Exotic Aquatic
Species into Indian Waters.
● If approved, an import permit is issued within four weeks by the Department of Fishery.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-notifies-guidelines-on-seaweeds-
import/article68796894.ece
https://www.seaweed.ie/algae/seaweeds.html
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/why-is-indian-government-promoting-invasive-
seaweed-like-kappaphycus-alvarezii-dte-docs
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.18)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Sacred groves are patches of forest or natural vegetation that are conserved by
local communities due to their spiritual, religious, or cultural significance. These groves are often
associated with deities, ancestral spirits, or religious rituals, and their protection is deeply ingrained in
traditional practices.
Many sacred groves remain untouched by deforestation and human interference, making them important
reservoirs of biodiversity. They serve as habitats for rare and endangered species of plants and animals.
Additionally, they play a crucial role in maintaining local water sources, preventing soil erosion, and
preserving ecological balance.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In December 2024, the Supreme Court directed the Rajasthan Forest
Department to map and classify sacred groves as 'forests' and notify them as 'community reserves' (not
Conservation Reserves) under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
This directive was specific to the state of Rajasthan and does not apply uniformly across all sacred groves
in India. The Court also recommended that the Union Environment Ministry identify sacred groves
nationwide and formulate a policy for their protection.
Knowledge Base:

[14]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Community and Conservation Reserves:
The Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2002 (WLPA 2002) introduced two new categories of
Protected Areas—Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves—in addition to ‘national parks’ and
‘sanctuaries.’ Both these reserves are declared by the respective State Governments.
1. Community Reserves: These reserves are notified on community or private land where local
communities volunteer to conserve habitats to protect “fauna, flora, and traditional or cultural
conservation values and practices”.
2. Conservation Reserves: These reserves are notified on government-owned land near National Parks,
Wildlife Sanctuaries, or other ecologically sensitive areas.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-the-supreme-court-
directive-on-sacred-groves-explained/article69183751.ece
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2004012#:~:text=Sacred%20groves%20are%20g
enerally%20very,contribute%20in%20conserving%20local%20biodiversity.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Conservation Efforts
Subtopic:)

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Exercise AIKYA was a multi-stakeholder disaster management exercise conducted in Chennai, Tamil
Nadu.
● It was organized by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in collaboration with the
Southern Command of the Indian Army and the Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority
(TNSDMA).
● The term 'Aikya,' meaning 'Oneness' in Tamil, reflects the exercise's aim to integrate India's disaster
management community.
● The primary objective of this two-day event was to enhance disaster preparedness and response
capabilities by fostering collaboration among various stakeholders.
● Participants included representatives from six southern states/UTs—Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Puducherry—as well as central ministries, armed forces, response
agencies (NDRF, Indian Coast Guard, etc), early warning agencies (IMD, INCOIS, etc), and research
institutions.
● The exercise involved simulating emergency situations to test roles and responsibilities, discussing
technologies and trends in disaster relief, and reviewing lessons from recent operations.
Source:) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2056956
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/exercise-aikya-a-two-day-symposium-on-disaster-
management-begins-in-chennai/article68655762.ece
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Disaster Management
Subtopic:)

Q.20)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: India is currently the world’s largest emitter of sulfur dioxide (SO₂), accounting
for over 20% of global anthropogenic SO₂ emissions. This is primarily due to its heavy reliance on coal
for electricity generation.

[15]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Unlike many other nations that have adopted stringent emission controls, India has been slow in
implementing Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) systems, leading to continued high levels of SO₂ pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The power sector, particularly coal-fired thermal power plants, is the largest
source of SO₂ emissions in India, not the transport sector. In fact, five of the top ten SO₂ emission
hotspots from coal and power generation are located in India,
● While vehicular emissions contribute to air pollution, they mainly emit nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and
particulate matter (PM), with relatively lower SO₂ emissions compared to coal-based industries.
● Industries such as oil refining, metal smelting, and cement production also contribute to SO₂
emissions but at a lower scale than coal-fired power plants.
Statement 3 is correct: Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) is a technology used to remove SO₂ from the
exhaust gases of fossil fuel power plants and other industrial processes.
The most effective and commonly used FGD technology is wet limestone scrubbing.
Wet Limestone Scrubbing:
● In this process, a slurry of limestone (calcium carbonate) is sprayed into the flue gas. The limestone
reacts with the SO₂ to form calcium sulfite, which is then oxidized to form gypsum (calcium sulfate),
which can be collected and used in construction.
● This method is highly efficient at reducing SO₂ emissions and is widely used due to its effectiveness
and relatively low cost.
Other FGD technologies include seawater scrubbing and dry sorbent injection, but wet limestone
scrubbing remains the most efficient and cost-effective.
Statement 4 is correct: When SO₂ and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are released into the atmosphere, they react
with oxygen (O₂) and water vapor (H₂O) to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃), respectively.
These acids mix with precipitation, leading to acid rain, which has several harmful effects:
● Environmental Damage: Acid rain lowers soil pH, making it less fertile, and damages forests.
● Water Pollution: Acidification of lakes and rivers harms aquatic life.
● Heritage Damage: Acid rain corrodes buildings and historical monuments, including the Taj Mahal,
which has suffered from sulfuric acid-induced marble discoloration.
Statement 5 is incorrect: SO₂ exposure primarily affects the respiratory system, causing respiratory
diseases like:
● Asthma – Inflammation of airways leading to difficulty in breathing.
● Bronchitis – Inflammation of the bronchial tubes causing coughing and mucus production.
● Lung Irritation – Leading to coughing, shortness of breath, and aggravation of existing conditions
like COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease).
However, silicosis and pneumoconiosis are not caused by SO₂ exposure.
● Silicosis is a lung disease caused by inhaling fine silica dust, often found in industries like mining and
construction.
● Pneumoconiosis, also known as "black lung disease," is caused by inhaling coal, asbestos or silica
dust and is common among coal miners.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/west-bengal/thermal-power-plants-in-west-
bengal-produces-18-times-more-s02-than-stubble-burning-says-crea/article68893833.ece
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/blogs/scientifically-trended/behind-the-haze-exploring-the-
causes-of-indias-sulfur-dioxide-spike/ https://energyandcleanair.org/publication/increased-so2-
emissions-from-coal-fired-power-plants-fgd-installation-should-not-be-delayed-
further/#:~:text=In%202022%2C%20India%20was%20the,on%20coal%20for%20electricity%20generati
on.
https://cpcb.nic.in/uploads/hwmd/Guidelines_HW_5.pdf (Page 2)
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Pollution and Associated Issues
Subtopic:)

[16]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.21)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) are a type of government debt introduced by the Government of India in
the Union Budget 2022-23 as part of its overall market borrowings. These bonds are specifically designed
to finance projects that support India's transition to a low-carbon economy.
Statement I is correct: Bond yield represents the return an investor earns on a bond over a specific
period, usually expressed as a percentage. Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) generally have lower yields
than conventional Government Securities (G-Secs). This is because investors are willing to accept lower
returns in exchange for supporting environmentally sustainable projects. The difference in returns that a
bank/investor sacrifices by investing in these bonds is known as the Greenium (green premium).
Statement II is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the Scheme for Trading and
Settlement of Sovereign Green Bonds in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) to enhance
non-resident participation. Under this scheme, eligible foreign investors including Foreign Institutional
Investors (FIIs) in the IFSC can invest in SGrBs, participate in primary auctions conducted by the RBI, and
trade in the secondary market for these securities.
Hence Option c is correct: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/why-has-india-allowed-fiis-to-invest-in-its-
green-bonds-explained/article68073170.ece
https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/rbi-allows-foreign-investors-in-ifsc-to-invest-in-
sovereign-green-bonds-124082901004_1.html
https://www.thehindu.com/business/shaktikanta-das-says-sovereign-green-bonds-trading-at-ifsc-to-
commence-in-2nd-half-of-fiscal-year/article68509172.ece
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Money/Capital Market
Subtopic:)

Q.22)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
In India's taxation system, cesses and surcharges are additional levies imposed by the central government
for specific revenue needs. The revenue from cesses and surcharges have seen a significant rise between
2017-18 and 2022-23. Their share in total central tax revenue peaked at ₹13.5 per ₹100 in 2021-22, the
highest in over a decade. Though slightly declining, it remains high, with Budget Estimates for 2025-26
projecting it at ₹10.97 per ₹100—up from the pre-pandemic range of ₹5-7 per ₹100.
Statement I is correct: The greater the share of revenue of the Union from cesses and surcharges, the
lower the tax revenues distributed to States because cesses and surcharges are not part of the divisible
pool of taxes under Article 270 of the Indian Constitution. States collectively receive 41% of the divisible
pool of taxes, as recommended by the 15th Finance Commission for FY 2021-26. However, the rising share
of cesses and surcharges has reduced the funds available for states in recent times.

[17]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement II is correct: As per Articles 270 and 271 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the
exclusive power to levy and collect cesses and surcharges, ensuring that their proceeds remain with the
Union.
As per Article 270, there are taxes and duties referred in the Union list that are levied and collected by the
Union but they shall be distributed between the Union and the States in the manner provided in Article
270 (2). Thus the power to levy and collect certain taxes by the Union does not make it the correct
reason for Statement-I though it is a correct statement.
Article 270 provides an exception that surcharge on taxes and duties and any cess levied for specific
purposes under any law made by Parliament do not form part of the divisible pool of taxes from the
Union to the states. This would be the correct reason as to why the greater the share of revenue of the
Union from cesses and surcharges, the lower the tax revenues distributed to the states.
Hence option b is correct: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not
explain Statement-I.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/data/cess-and-surcharge-continue-to-shrink-states-tax-
share/article69183690.ece
http://constitutionofindia.etal.in/article_270/
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/the-hindu-explains-where-are-the-funds-collected-
through-cess-parked/article61702083.ece
https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/centre-s-cess-cleverness-is-taxing-states-2904614
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Taxation
Subtopic:)

Q.23)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A loan write-off is an accounting practice where banks remove non-recoverable loans from their balance
sheets to improve financial clarity. In India, the total loan write-offs from FY 2019-20 to FY 2023-24
exceeded ₹9.90 lakh crore with annual write-offs amounted to ₹1.70 lakh crore in FY24, ₹2.08 lakh crore in
FY23, ₹1.74 lakh crore in FY22, ₹2.02 lakh crore in FY21, and ₹2.34 lakh crore in FY20.
Statement I is correct: Loan write-offs enable banks to lower their reported Non-Performing Assets
(NPAs) in their balance sheet, strengthening their financial position. When a borrower defaults with
minimal recovery prospects, the bank removes the loan from its asset book, classifying it as a loss. This
process helps clean up the balance sheet and improve financial metrics. For instance, a substantial loan
write-off of ₹9.9 lakh crore over the past five financial years contributed to reducing NPAs to a 12-year
low of 2.8% by March 2024.
Statement II is incorrect: Loan write-offs do not reduce the debt liabilities of borrowers or guarantee
improved recovery rates for banks. While banks remove written-off loans from their balance sheets, the
borrower's obligation to repay remains unchanged and banks continue to pursue recovery through legal
and financial mechanisms. For instance, despite various recovery measures, total recoveries from write-
offs in the last five years stood at only 18.70% of the written-off loans which shows that although the loan
recovery rate is slow, recovery of loans is not stopped and the liability of borrowers is not reduced.

[18]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |

Thus Loan write-offs primarily serve to clean up financial statements rather than ensuring successful
loan recoveries. Hence option c is correct: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/of-990-lakh-crore-write-off-between-fy20-and-
fy24-only-184-lakh-crore-was-recovered/article68492750.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-the-difference-between-a-loan-waiver-and-
a-write-off/article23542930.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/loan-write-offs-help-banks-to-
show-lower-npas-9728660/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Banking
Subtopic:)

Q.24)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is a monetary policy tool introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
April 2022 with the aims to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system.
Option a is incorrect: Under the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF), eligible entities can deposit their
surplus funds with the RBI on an overnight basis, allowing banks to park excess liquidity for one day and
withdraw it the next day (not a minimum of 14 days.)
Option b is incorrect: Unlike the Reverse Repo Facility, the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Reserve
Bank of India does not provide any collateral for the funds of banks deposited under SDF.
Option c is incorrect: The interest rate on deposits made under the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is
determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) from time to time (not by the Monetary Policy
Committee of RBI.)
Option d is correct: Deposits made under the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) qualify as eligible assets
for meeting the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements under Section 24 of the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949. However, they are not considered towards the maintenance of the Cash Reserve
Ratio (CRR) as per Section 42 of the RBI Act, 1934
Source: https://www.rbi.org.in/hindi1/Upload/content/PDFs/PR41_AN.pdf
https://www.business-standard.com/finance/personal-finance/rbi-monetary-policy-committee-
outcome-financial-terms-you-must-know-124040500103_1.html

[19]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-is-standing-deposit-facility-
7859803/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Banking
Subtopic:)

Q.25)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Government receipts are broadly classified into Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts. Revenue Receipts
refer to earnings that do not create liabilities or lead to any reduction in assets of the government.
Revenue receipts are further categorized into Tax Revenues and Non-Tax Revenues.
Option 1 is correct: Dividends and Profits from Public Sector Enterprises like LIC, SBI, and ONGC are
part of revenue receipts of the Government of India.
Option 2 is incorrect: Deposits from the Small Savings Fund, such as the Public Provident Fund,
National Savings Certificate, and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, are classified as capital receipts rather than
revenue receipts because they create a liability for the government, which must repay both the principal
and accrued interest at a future date.
Option 3 is correct: Tax revenue from Commodity and Transaction Tax is a part of revenue receipts of
the Government of India.
Option 4 is correct: Interest receipts on loans given by the government to states, public sector
undertakings (PSUs), and foreign countries are considered non-tax revenue and form part of revenue
receipts of the Government of India.
Option 5 is incorrect: Proceeds from the disinvestment of public sector enterprises are categorized as
capital receipts rather than revenue receipts because they result in a reduction of government assets.
Source: https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/doc/Budget_at_Glance/bag5.pdf
https://cga.gov.in/writereaddata/aag-
chap2.htm#:~:text=Receipts%20of%20the%20Government%20are,levied%20for%20providing%20variou
s%20services.
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Public Finance
Subtopic:)

Q.26)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Farmers Producers Organisations (FPOs) are collective enterprises formed by farmers to enhance their
bargaining power, ensure better access to markets, and improve income through economies of scale. In
the Union budget 2025, the government proposed increasing the allocation for FPOs by about 30%,
from ₹450 crore for 2023-24 to ₹581.67 crore for 2024-25.
Option a is incorrect: Farmer Producer Organization is one type of Producer Organization where the
members are farmers. Producer Organizations can be registered under various legal frameworks,
including the Companies Act, 2013 (as Producer Companies), the Cooperative Societies Act, or as
Societies and Trusts, depending on the state regulations.
Option b is incorrect: FPOs primary focus is on collective input procurement, processing, value
addition, and collective marketing. It deals with business activities related to the primary

[20]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
produce/product. It works for the benefit of the member producers. A part of the profit is shared
amongst the producers. Rest of the surplus is added to its owned funds for business expansion.
Option c is incorrect: FPOs are designed to benefit small and marginal farmers, who typically have
limited landholdings. Membership in FPOs is open to: Small and marginal farmers, Medium-scale farmers,
Tribal farmers, Women farmers. There is no restriction on landholding size for membership in FPOs.
Option d is correct: The Income derived by a Farmers Producer Organisations through agricultural
activities as defined in Income Tax Act, 1961 as amended from time to time, is treated as agricultural
income and is exempted from taxation.
Source: FARMER PRODUCER ORGANISATIONS.pdf
FPOs can lead a new agricultural revolution in the country: Shivraj Singh Chouhan - The Hindu
‘Farmer producer companies can make farmers self-reliant’ - The Hindu
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Agriculture
Subtopic:)

Q.27)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are perceived as "Too Big To Fail (TBTF)", meaning their
failure could have a significant impact on the financial system and economy. The Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) designates D-SIBs based on certain factors. The D-SIB list is updated annually by the RBI. Currently,
State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank are classified as D-SIBs.
Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no fixed threshold of 1% of GDP for classifying a bank as a D-SIB. The
RBI uses a methodology that considers multiple factors like size, interconnectedness, complexity, and
substitutability rather than a single percentage criterion.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The RBI identifies and designates D-SIBs based on the Framework for
Dealing with Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs), 2014.
Statement 3 is correct: D-SIBs are required to maintain additional capital buffers than other
Commercial banks to reduce the risk of financial instability. The additional common equity requirement
for a D-SIB depends on the bucket in which it is classified. This extra capital buffer ranges from 0.20% to
0.80% of risk-weighted assets, with higher requirements for banks placed in higher-risk buckets.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While D-SIBs are considered "too big to fail", they do not receive automatic
financial support from the government in case of distress.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/domestic-systemically-important-banks-d-sibs-
banks-big-fail-9667745/
https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=31680
https://www.financialexpress.com/money/hdfc-bank-too-big-to-fail-why-this-crucial-tag-stamped-
on-just-3-banks-in-india-read-all-about-it-853007/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Monetary Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[21]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Capital Gains Tax in India is levied on the sale of capital assets as per the Income Tax Act, 1961. Any profit
or gain arising from transfer of a capital asset during the year is charged to tax under the head “Capital
Gains”.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect: Motor car for a motor car dealer or gold for a jewellery merchant, are their
stock-in-trade and, hence, they are not capital assets for them. They are considered a business
transaction and are subject to business income tax, not capital gains tax.
Option 3 is correct: India’s Income Tax Bill, 2025 introduces a comprehensive legal framework for Virtual
Digital Assets (VDAs and explicitly treats VDAs as property and capital assets. This classification The bill
categorically states that VDAs, which include crypto assets, Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), and similar
digital assets, should be considered property. They are classified as capital assets. This means that any
gains arising from their sale, transfer, or exchange will be taxed under capital gains provisions, similar to
real estate, stocks, and bonds.
Option 4 is correct: A painting is classified as a capital asset under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act.
Since it was held for more than 3 years, long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax will apply.
Option 5 is correct: Sale of a residential property by an individual after holding it for 5 years is considered
a capital gains transaction and is subject to capital gains tax.
Source: Income tax on crypto currency: How did budget 2025 impact the taxation on virtual digital
assets? - The Economic Times
Frequently Asked Questions
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/the-implications-of-treating-virtual-digital-assets-
as-taxable-
properties/article69286053.ece#:~:text=VDAs%20are%20classified%20as%20capital,estate%2C%20stoc
ks%2C%20and%20bonds.
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Taxation
Subtopic:)

Q.29)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The exchange rate of the Indian rupee is influenced by multiple domestic and global factors. Depreciation
of the rupee occurs when its value declines relative to foreign currencies, particularly the US dollar. This
can be triggered by economic conditions such as capital outflows, trade imbalances, rising import costs,
and inflation.
Option 1 is incorrect: When the RBI sells US dollars in the forex market, it increases the supply of dollars
and absorbs rupees, which helps strengthen the rupee rather than causing depreciation.
Option 2 is correct: When foreign investors withdraw their investments, they sell Indian assets and
convert their holdings into foreign currencies, increasing the demand for the dollar and weakening the
rupee.
Option 3 is correct: India is a significant importer of crude oil, and when international oil prices rise,
India's import bill increases. This means that India needs to buy more US dollars to pay for the
imported oil, which increases the demand for dollars and reduces the demand for rupees. As a result,
the increased demand for dollars and reduced demand for rupees can lead to a depreciation of the rupee.
Option 4 is incorrect: A decrease in short-term foreign currency debt helps stabilize the rupee
(appreciation), rather than causing depreciation. This is because short-term debt can create uncertainty
and volatility in the foreign exchange market, as investors may quickly withdraw their funds if they
perceive any risks.

[22]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Option 5 is correct: When India's inflation rate is higher than that of other countries, it can lead to a
decrease in the purchasing power parity (PPP) of the rupee. As a result, the rupee's value decreases,
causing depreciation. This is because foreign investors may become less willing to hold rupees if they
perceive that the currency is losing its purchasing power.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/why-is-the-rupee-weakening-against-the-
dollar-explained/article69062461.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/the-impacts-of-rupee-weakening/article69104435.ece
India's forex reserves up $1.05 bn at $630.6 bn as of January 31 - The Economic Times
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/rupee-fall-foreign-loans-india-firms-
9827440/#:~:text=The%20Indian%20rupee%20(INR)%20depreciated,index%20during%20the%20same%
20period.
https://forumias.com/blog/falling-rupee-impacts-fertilizer-costs/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Balance of Payment
Subtopic:)

Q.30)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by
wholesale businesses to other businesses. WPI is also used for indexation (adjustment to inflation levels)
by users in business contracts so that both parties do not lose out due to inflation.
Option 1 is correct: Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is released by the Office of the Economic Advisor,
Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Option 2 is incorrect: WPI only tracks goods and does not include services such as healthcare,
education, and housing. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) includes services, but WPI focuses on the
prices of goods at the wholesale level.
Option 3 is incorrect: The WPI prices exclude indirect taxes (such as GST, excise duty, VAT) to ensure
that the index reflects pure price movements rather than policy-driven tax changes. This approach is
aligned with international practices and makes WPI conceptually closer to the Producer Price Index
(PPI), which is used in many developed economies.
Source: Centre forms panel to rejig Wholesale Price Index - The Hindu
Ramesh Singh Chapter 3- Inflation and Business Cycle
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Inflation
Subtopic:)

Q.31)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution declares that no person shall be deprived of
his/ her life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Hence, Article 21
explicitly mentions "Procedure Established by Law," but it does not mention "Due Process of Law." The
latter has been introduced in India through judicial interpretations by the Supreme Court, particularly in
the case of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978).

[23]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Option b is incorrect: The principle of "Procedure Established by Law" is borrowed from the Japanese
Constitution, specifically Article 31 of the post-World War II Japanese Constitution. In contrast, "Due
Process of Law" is derived from the U.S. Constitution, specifically the Fifth Amendment.
Option c is incorrect: Procedure Established by Law" ensures that laws depriving individuals of life or
liberty are enacted by the proper authority and follow the correct legislative procedure. However, it
does not question whether the law itself is fair, just, or reasonable.
The judiciary under this doctrine applies three tests:
1. Whether a law exists allowing the executive to deprive someone of life or liberty.
2. Whether the legislature had the authority to enact the law.
3. Whether the legislature followed the correct procedures while passing the law.
If any of these conditions are violated, the courts can strike down executive actions, but they cannot
declare a law unconstitutional solely on the grounds of arbitrariness or unfairness. This means that while
it protects against arbitrary executive actions, it does not safeguard against arbitrary legislative
actions.
In contrast, "Due Process of Law" allows the judiciary to examine whether a law is fair, just, and
reasonable, providing protection against both arbitrary executive and legislative actions.
Option d is correct: "Procedure Established by Law" only checks whether a law has been enacted
correctly, without assessing its fairness. Even if a law is arbitrary or unjust, courts cannot declare it
unconstitutional as long as proper procedures were followed.
"Due Process of Law" goes beyond procedural checks and allows courts to determine whether the law
itself is fair, just, and reasonable. If a law is found to be arbitrary, the judiciary can strike it down as
unconstitutional.
This broader judicial power originates from the U.S. Constitution and incorporates principles of natural
justice, ensuring fairness and impartiality. It protects individuals not only from executive overreach but
also from unjust laws passed by the legislature.
Source:) FORUM IAS (MASTERING INDIAN POLITY), Chapter 10 (FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS) Page:128
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Fundamental Rights
Subtopic:)

Q.32)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect: The Constitution of India lays down special provisions for the passage of a
Money Bill at both the Union and State levels.
Article 200 of the Constitution governs the Governor’s power in relation to bills passed by the State
Legislature.
Unlike ordinary bills, the Governor cannot return a Money Bill to the Legislature for reconsideration.
When the Money Bill is presented to the Governor after it is passed by State Legislative Assembly the
Governor has only the following options:
1. Give Assent → The bill becomes law.
2. Withhold Assent → The bill fails to become law.
3. Reserve the Bill for the Consideration of the President (Article 201)
● In this case, the President may either give his/ her assent to the bill or withhold his/ her assent to
the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the state legislature.
Thus, the Governor can reserve the money bill for the consideration of the President.
Statement II is correct: Article 207 of the Constitution states that a Money Bill in a State Legislative
Assemble can only be introduced with the prior recommendation of the Governor.

[24]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
● This is similar to the procedure followed at the Union level, where a Money Bill can only be
introduced in Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President.
● The Governor's recommendation ensures that financial matters of the state are pre-approved before
the bill enters the legislative process.
Source:) FORUM IAS (MASTERING INDIAN POLITY), Chapter 16 (LEGISLATIVE BRANCH), Page:410
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Executive
Subtopic:)

Q.33)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Preamble serves as the introductory statement to the Indian Constitution, outlining its ideals,
objectives, and guiding principles. It reflects the philosophy and aspirations of the Constitution’s
framers and provides insight into its fundamental values. It is based on the 'Objectives Resolution, drafted
and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, and was originally adopted on November 26, 1949 by the constituent
assembly.
Option a is incorrect: The Preamble does not serve as a source of power for the legislature, nor does it
impose limitations on it. Instead, it lays down the ideals and objectives of the Constitution, reflecting the
aspirations and goals of the people of India.
● The Supreme Court in Re: Berubari Union Case (1960) ruled that the Preamble is not a source of
power or a prohibition upon legislative powers but serves as a key to understanding the
Constitution.
Option b is correct: The Ideals of Justice (Social, Economic, and Political) in the Preamble reflects
socialist ideals inspired by the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.
Option c is correct: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) ruled that the Preamble is an
integral part of the Constitution and can be amended, but without altering the basic structure of the
constitution.
● The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble,
proving that it is subject to amendment.
● The Supreme Court in Union of India v. LIC of India (1995) reaffirmed that Preamble is an integral
part of the Constitution.
Option d is correct: The Preamble does not have independent legal effect of other parts, meaning it
cannot be used alone to challenge or strike down any law. However, it can be referred to for
constitutional interpretation, as observed in multiple Supreme Court rulings.
Source:) FORUM IAS (MASTERING INDIAN POLITY), Chapter 5 (Preamble of the Indian Constitution),
Page:37
https://indianexpress.com/article/trending/top-10-listing/top-10-global-constitutions-that-inspired-
constitution-of-india-9690846/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Preamble
Subtopic:)

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, abolished the privy purses and the special privileges
granted to the rulers of former princely states.
Background:

[25]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
● After India's independence in 1947, princely states were integrated into India. As part of this process,
the government assured these rulers certain privileges and financial allowances (privy purses) under
Articles 291 and 362 of the Constitution.
● However, in 1971, the Indira Gandhi government passed the 26th Amendment, which removed these
provisions.
● The amendment deleted Article 291 and Article 362 and introduced Article 363A, explicitly
abolishing all privileges, rights, and privy purses.
This move was aimed at promoting equality and reducing feudal privileges in independent India.
Knowledge Base:
1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951:
1. Added 9th Schedule in the Constitution to protect laws from judicial review, particularly land reform
laws.
2. Added Articles 31A and 31B to protect land reform laws from judicial review.
3. Amended Article 19 to restrict freedom of speech and expression by introducing reasonable
restrictions under Article 19(2).
4. Amended Article 15 to enable the state to make special provisions for socially and educationally
backward classes.
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
1. Known as the "Mini Constitution" due to its extensive changes during the Emergency (1975-77).
2. Amended the Preamble and added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity".
3. Introduced Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
4. Amended Schedule 7, and transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List (e.g.,
forests, education).
44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
1. Undid many provisions of the 42nd Amendment, restoring democratic values after the Emergency.
2. Removed the Right to Property (Article 31) from Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right (Article
300A).
Source:) D.D Basu (Introduction to Constitution of India),Chapter -4 (OUTSTANDING FEATURES OF OUR
CONSTITUTION), Page:55.
https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-
twenty-sixth-amendment-act-1971
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Constitutional Amendment
Subtopic:)

Q.35)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to Article 368(2) of the Constitution, certain provisions that impact the federal structure
needs to be amended by following the prescribed procedure before receiving the President's assent:
1. Needs to be passed by special majority in Parliament (i.e., needs to be passed in each House of the
Parliament by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).
2. Requires ratification by at least half of the State legislatures through a simple majority.
There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.
The following provisions can be amended in this way:
1. Any bill altering the election of the President and its manner.
2. Any bill that modifies the division of executive power between the Centre and States
3. Any bill affecting the structure, jurisdiction, or powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts
4. Any bill altering the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States
5. Any bill seeking to make changes in the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council

[26]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
6. Any Bill seeking to amend the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
7. Any bill seeking to alter the representation of States in Parliament
8. A Bill seeking to alter the power of power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its
procedure (Article 368 itself)
Abolition or Creation of Legislative Councils (Article 169)
● The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a State does not require approval from half of
the State legislatures under Article 368.
● Instead, under Article 169, the concerned State Legislative Assembly must first pass a resolution with
special majority requesting the change.
● Based on this, Parliament can abolish or create a Legislative Council in a State.
However, it is treated as ordinary legislation and passed by a simple majority in the Parliament, and
is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
Source:) FORUM IAS (MASTERING INDIAN POLITY), Chapter 4 (Constitutional Amendment and Basic
Structure Doctrine), Page:22.
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Constitutional Amendment
Subtopic:)

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 93 of the Constitution of India stipulates that the Speaker and the
Deputy Speaker must be elected “as soon as may be” after the commencement of the House. The election
of the Speaker is held on a date fixed by the President. Thus it is not mandatory that he/she should be
elected during the first sitting of the house.
Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker is the final authority within the Lok Sabha for interpreting the
provisions of the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business, and
parliamentary precedents.
Statement 3 is correct: The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha empower the
Speaker to refer introduced Bills to Standing Committees for scrutiny.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Rule 373, 374 and 374A talks about withdrawal and suspension of members
and the power associated with the speaker with respect to suspension of members.
Eg. As per Rule 374A of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, if a Member causes
grave disorder by entering the well of the House, persistently abusing the rules, or wilfully obstructing
proceedings through slogans or other means, the Speaker can name the Member, resulting in automatic
suspension for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is shorter.
Thus, the Speaker of Lok Sabha can suspend a member without a motion as well. Whereas the
Chairman of Rajya Sabha can only suspend the member through a motion passed by the House.
Source: Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS - Legislative Branch – Page no 353
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-are-the-duties-of-a-speaker/article68325041.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/lok-sabha-speaker-powers-and-why-are-bjp-allies-
vying-for-the-post/article68273178.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/lok-sabha-speaker-powers-and-why-are-bjp-allies-
vying-for-the-post/article68273178.ece
https://eparlib.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/66/1/Rules_Procedure_LokSabha.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Legislature
Subtopic:)

[27]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.37)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority of the country. Article 124 of Indian
Constitution provides for the appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court. They serve until the age of
65 years. The Court has a sanctioned strength of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India.
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 124(3) of Indian Constitution, a citizen of India who has been for at
least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or has been for at
least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or, is, in the opinion
of the President, a distinguished jurist, is eligible for appointment as a Supreme Court judge
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 124(2), the President appoints Supreme Court judges through a
warrant under his hand and seal, after consulting the Supreme Court collegium as deemed necessary.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 124(4) of Indian Constitution mentions "proved misbehaviour or
incapacity" as grounds for removal of the judges of Supreme Court of India.
Source: Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS - Judicial Branch
http://constitutionofindia.etal.in/article_124/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Judiciary
Subtopic:)

Q.38)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP),
which serve as fundamental principles to guide the functioning of the State in governance and
policymaking.
Option 1 is correct: As per Article 39A of the Indian Constitution, the State shall ensure that the operation
of the legal system promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity. It shall, in particular, provide free
legal aid through suitable legislation, schemes, or any other means to ensure that access to justice is
not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities.
Option 2 is correct: As per Article 39(b) of the Indian Constitution, the State shall direct its policy
towards securing the ownership and control of material resources in a manner that best serves the
common good. This provision aims at promoting economic justice and equitable distribution of wealth.
Option 3 is incorrect: The duty to safeguard public property and abjure violence is mentioned under
Article 51A of the Constitution as a Fundamental Duty and not as a Directive Principle of State Policy
(DPSP). Fundamental Duties are obligations that citizens are expected to follow, whereas DPSPs guide the
State in policymaking.
Option 4 is incorrect: As per Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, the State shall, within its economic
capacity and development, make provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public
assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disability. However, this does not grant an
absolute right to work for all citizens
Option 5 is correct: As per Article 51 of the Indian Constitution, the State shall endeavor to promote
international peace and security. It shall also encourage the resolution of international disputes
through arbitration, reinforcing India’s commitment to peaceful global relations.
Source: https://www.mea.gov.in/images/pdf1/part4.pdf
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Directive Principles of State Policy

[28]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.39)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Tribunals are judicial or quasi-judicial bodies established by law to resolve disputes related to
administration, taxation, environment, securities, and other specialized matters. The 42nd Amendment
Act of 1976 introduced Part XIV-A to the Indian Constitution, adding Articles 323A and 323B, which
provide for the establishment of two types of tribunals—Administrative Tribunals and other subject-
specific tribunals.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 323A of the Indian Constitution grants Parliament the exclusive
authority to establish administrative tribunals at both the central and state levels for resolving disputes
related to the recruitment and service conditions of public servants. In contrast, Article 323B empowers
both Parliament and state legislatures to create tribunals for specific subjects, such as taxation and
land reforms, through appropriate legislation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 227 of the Indian Constitution, High Courts have supervisory
jurisdiction over all tribunals within their respective states, except for those dealing with the armed
forces.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Tribunals in India function as independent bodies, free from administrative
interference. They are not bound by the Civil Procedure Code but instead follow the Principles of
Natural Justice, allowing them greater flexibility in their proceedings and decision-making.
Source: https://prsindia.org/billtrack/prs-products/the-tribunal-system-in-india
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-rules-that-tribunals-cannot-direct-
government-to-frame-policy/article67669766.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/business/expect-gst-appellate-tribunals-by-around-july-or-
august/article67808326.ece
https://www.scobserver.in/reports/tribunal-reforms-day-2-supreme-court-seeks-data-on-vacancies-
in-tribunals-suggests-circuit-benches-for-armed-forces-tribunal/
Mastering Indian Polity by ForumIAS - Judicial Branch
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Judiciary
Subtopic:)

Q.40)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct and 3 is incorrect: As per Article 108 of the Constitution of India, if after a Bill has
been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House—
(a) the Bill is rejected by the other House; or
(b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or
(c) more than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House without the
Bill being passed by it,
the President may, unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the People, notify
to the Houses by message if they are sitting or by public notification if they are not sitting, his intention
to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill.
Thus, it is the President who summons the joint sitting of the houses of Parliament. The responsibility
to preside over the joint sittings of the Houses of Parliament has been given to the Speaker
Statement 2 is correct: A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament
separately, by a special majority. This means it needs a majority of the total members of that House and

[29]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
also a two thirds majority of the members present and voting. If there is a disagreement between them,
there is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve it.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The provision for ‘joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament’ has been
borrowed from the Australian (not the British) Constitution. Other provisions borrowed from the
Australian Constitution include Concurrent list and Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity – ForumIAS, Chapter - 4, Constitutional Amendment and Basic Structure
Doctrine, Pg. 23; Chapter – 16, Legislative Branch, Pg. 354 – 355, Pg. 359
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Legislature
Subtopic:)

Q.41)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Ashoka was the third and one of the greatest kings of the Mauryan dynasty. He succeeded to the throne
of the Mauryan Empire in 269 B.C.
There are many edicts of the king Ashoka inscribed on rocks and pillars throughout the country.
There are 14 major rock edicts, located at Kalsi, Mansehra, Shahbazgarhi, Girnar, Sopara, Yerragudi,
Dhauli, and Jaugada.
There are also a number of minor rock edicts and inscriptions at jiairat, Rupanath, Sasaram, Brahmagiri,
Gavimath, Jatiriga- Rameshwar, Maski, Palklgundu, Rajula-Mandagiri, Siddapura, Yerragudi, Gurjara and
Jhansi.
Seven pillar edicts exist at Allahabad, Delhi-Topra, Delhi-Meerut, Lauriya-Araraja, Lauriya-Nandangarh,
and Rampurva.
Option a is incorrect. Jaugada has one of the 14 Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka. Jaugada is located in
Odisha. Ashoka's inscription in Jaugada is on a rock face about 30 feet long and 15 feet high. The rock
edict inscription is engraved in Prakrit language in Brahmi script. It has information about the better
administrative policies based on Ashoka's humanitarian consideration.
Option b is incorrect. Sasaram has one of the minor Rock Edicts of Ashoka. It is located near the top of
the Kaimur Range. This is the site of Ashokan Minor Rock Edict No. 1. The Saasram Edict of Ashoka
mentions the Prakrit name Jambudīpasi (Sanskrit “Jambudvīpa”) for “India” in Brahmi script. In the
inscription, Ashoka is referred to as ‘Devanampriya’.
It is located in Rohtas District of Bihar.
Option c is correct. Maski has one of the Minor Rock edicts of Ashoka. Maski is located in the Raichur
district of Hyderabad. Maski inscription is situated on a large granite boulder. It is written in the Brahmi
script and Prakrit language. The inscription starts with Devanampiye Asoka (Devanampriya Ashoka) and
is the first discovered edict of Emperor Ashoka to have his name as Ashoka.
Only four Minor Rock edicts mention the name “Ashoka”. These are Maski, Brahmagiri, Nettur and
Gujjara. All other inscriptions do not mention the name “Ashoka” rather they mention terms like
"Devanampriya” and “Piyadasi”.
Option d is incorrect. Lauria Nandangarh is a small town in Bihar. It has one of the Ashokan Pillars. The
height of the pillar built by Emperor Ashoka is 32 feet, for which sandstone has been used. There is a
circular abacus at the top of the pillar on which the lion statue stands. The pillar is inscribed with
Ashoka’s Major Pillar Edicts. The inscription is written in Prakrit using the Brahmi script.
Knowledge Base:

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |

Source:)
https://ia600402.us.archive.org/35/items/in.ernet.dli.2015.126947/2015.126947.Asoka-And-The-
Decline-Of-The-Mauryas_text.pdf (Page 5)
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/maski-that-unmasked-the-mysterious-
devanampiye-and-established-him-as-emperor-ashoka/article67562033.ece
Subject:) History
Topic:) Mauryan Era
Subtopic:)

Q.42)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Increasing caste inequalities, brahmanical supremacy and the growing cult of rituals led to the
emergence of new religions in India in the 6th century BC. The most significant of these religions were
Jainism, and Buddhism.
Vardhamana Mahavira spread Jainism. Gautama Buddha founded Buddhism.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Both Jainism and Buddhism rejected the infallibility and supernatural origin
of the Vedas.
Buddha rejected the authority of the Vedas and condemned animal sacrifices. He protested against the
complicated and meaningless rituals.
Mahavira also questioned the authority of Vedas. He objected to Vedic rituals and the supremacy of the
Brahmanas.

[31]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement 2 is incorrect. Buddha did not mention or talk about God. He neither accepted nor denied
the existence of God. Jainism does not recognise God to be the creator or maintainer of the world.
Statement 3 is correct. According to Jainism, all objects, animate and inanimate, had a soul. Souls are
not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural
objects not looked on as living by other religious sects. Jainism advocated dualism: the world is made of
soul (jiva) and matter (ajiva), which are eternal.
Buddhism did not believe in the existence of the soul. Buddhism denies the existence of an unchanging
or eternal soul created by a God or emanating from a Divine Essence (Paramatma). According to Buddhist
philosophy, the world is transient (anicca) and constantly changing; it is also soulless (anatta) as there is
nothing permanent or eternal in it.
Statement 4 is incorrect. In classical Indian Philosophy, the doctrine of karma is regarded to be one of
the most essential and fundamental doctrines. The law of karma holds that every action, physical or
mental, has its own outcomes which must be faced either in this present life or in the lives to come.
Both Buddhism and Jainism believe in the doctrine of Karma.
The Jainas state that an individual is entirely responsible for his birth, death and suffering because
whatever the individual receives is because of his past action.
The theory of Karma is a fundamental doctrine in Buddhism. Buddhism laid great emphasis on the law of
'karma'. According to this law, the present is determined by the past actions. The condition of a man in
this life and the next depends upon his own actions.
Knowledge Base:
Jainism and Mahavira:
● The central tenet of Jainism is non-violence. No other religion lays as much emphasis on non-
violence as does Jainism
● Jainism told his followers to take five vows: Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truthfulness), Asteya (non-
stealing), brahmacharya (abandoning lust for all kinds of things) and ‘aparigraha’ (nongreed, non-
attachment).
● Mahavira also asked people to follow the threefold path of Right Belief, Right Knowledge and Right
Conduct. These are the three jewels of Jainism.
● Mahavira advocated a life of severe asceticism and extreme penance for the attainment of 'nirvana' or
the highest spiritual state.
Buddhism and Gautam Buddha:
● Buddha taught that the cause of all human suffering is desire. It is important to control and overcome
desire.
● The following are the Four Noble Truths of Buddha:
○ i) The world is full of suffering.
○ ii) All sufferings have a cause: desire, ignorance and attachment are the causes of sufferings.
○ iii) The suffering could be removed by destroying its cause.
○ iv) In order to end suffering one must know the right path. This path is the Eight Fold Path
(Ashtangika Marga).
● The Eightfold Path means Right Conduct, Right Speech, Right Action, Right Means of Livelihood, Right
Effort, Right Mindfulness, Right Meditation, Right Resolution and Right View.
● Buddha preached 'nirvana', as the ultimate goal in the life of a man. It means the shedding of all
desires, and ending of sufferings, which finally leads to freedom from rebirth. By a process of
elimination of desire, one can attain 'nirvana'. Therefore, Buddha preached that annihilation of desire
is the real problem. Prayers and sacrifices will not end the desire. So unlike the emphasis on rituals
and ceremonies in Vedic religion he laid emphasis on the moral life of an individual.
● According to Buddha, an individual should pursue the middle path and both severe asceticism as well
as luxurious life are to be avoided.
● Buddha attacked the caste system and the supremacy of the Brahmins. Irrespective of caste and sex,
people were taken into the Buddhist order.
Source:)
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lehs104.pdf

[32]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/tourism_337_courseE/337_Tourism_Eng/337_Tourism_
Eng_L9.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20141/1/Unit-17.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Religious Philosophy
Subtopic:)

Q.43)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A Megalith is a large slab of stone that has been constructed into a monument or a structure. In India,
such monuments have been found in the south, the Deccan plateau, the Vindhyan and Aravalli ranges,
and the north-west. These Megaliths were erected as a part of burial practice.
It is a mode of disposal of the dead, which includes the making of elaborate stone structures known as
megaliths.
Option b is correct. In ancient India, there were various kinds of megalithic burials— dolmens, cairns,
menhirs, and cist.
There were three basic types of megaliths: the chamber tombs, unchambered tombs, and megaliths not
connected with burials.
The chamber tombs usually consist of a chamber composed of two or four vertical slabs of stone topped
by a horizontal capstone. If the chamber is underground, it is known as a cist.
If the chamber is fully above the ground, it is known as a dolmen.
The unchambered burials are of three types—pit burials, urn burials, and sarcophagus burials.
In pit burials, the funerary remains are buried in a pit. If a pit has a heap of large stones piled on top, it is
known as a cairn. A pit burial marked by a single large standing stone slab is called a menhir.
Source: History of Ancient and Early Medieval India by Upinder Singh
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/41363/1/Unit-4.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Bronze age
Subtopic:)

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Guilds were voluntary associations of merchants dealing in the same type of commodity such as grains,
textiles, betel leaves, horses, perfumes, etc. The expansion of agriculture and the growth of trade from
the eighth to tenth century CE led to the emergence of many merchant guilds or organisations in South
India. The inscriptions refer to these organisations often as ‘samaya’. Samaya means an organisation born
out of an agreement or contract among its members to follow a set of rules and
regulations.
Option c is correct. The two most important merchant guilds of early Medieval South India were
known as the Ayyavole and the Manigramam. Geographically, the area of their operation
corresponded to the present day states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
These guilds were involved in not only inter-regional but also inter-oceanic trade across the Bay of
Bengal.
Ayyavole originated in Aihole in the 8th century CE. The merchant guild Ayyavole was also known as the
guild of "the 500 Swami of Aihole". In the course of time, this guild became a much larger body and drew

[33]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
its members from various regions, religions and castes. The Ayyavole was the most important merchant
guild of early Medieval South India.
Another important merchant guild of South India was the Manigramam. It first appeared along the
Kerala coast in the ninth century CE. It gradually came into close contact with the Ayyavole. It thus
greatly improved upon its inter-regional activities and covered a large part of the peninsula.
The commodities handled by Ayyavole and Manigramam included a wide variety of goods such as textiles,
iron, aloes wood, (Agaru- Aghil), areca nuts and betel nuts, bdellium, camphor, civet, cotton
and cotton fabric.
Anjuvannam was another body of merchants in South India. Like the Manigramam, it also began
its commercial activity along the Kerala coast in the eighth or ninth century AD.
Source:)
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/73904/1/Unit-13.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20167/1/Unit-4.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Merchant Guilds
Subtopic:)

Q.45)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Delhi Sultanate existed from CE 1206 to 1526. Five different dynasties – the Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq,
Sayyids and Lodhis – ruled under the Delhi Sultanate.
As the Delhi Sultanate weakened, a number of regional kingdoms emerged during the 14th and 15th
centuries.
There emerged two types of kingdoms:
a) Kingdoms whose rise and development was independent of the Delhi Sultanate. This includes kingdoms
like Assam, Odisha, and Kashmir.
b) Kingdoms who owed their existence to the Delhi Sultanate. This includes kingdoms like Bengal, Malwa,
Jaunpur and Gujarat.
Option 1 is correct. The decline of the Delhi Sultanate paved the way for the emergence of the
independent kingdom of Malwa. Dilawar Khan Ghori was the Tughlaq governor of Malwa. He assumed
independence from the Delhi Sultanate in the year 1401-02 and declared himself king of Malwa.
Hoshang Shah succeeded him as the ruler of Malwa.
Option 2 is incorrect. The Ahom Dynasty was a medieval kingdom in the Brahmaputra valley in Assam. It
ruled between 1228 and 1826. Chaolung Sukapha founded the Ahom kingdom in the 13th century.
Sukapha (1228-68) of Mao-Shan tribe was the first Ahom king who subjugated the Chutias, Morans,
Borahis, Nagas, Kacharis and the Kamata kingdom (Kamrup).
Option 3 is correct. Jaunpur Sultanate was founded by Khwajah-i-Jahan Malik Sarwar. As the Tughlaq
dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate was weakening, Malik Sarwar declared his independence and created the
Jaunpur Sultanate in 1394. Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq (1394–1413) gave him the title
Sultan-us-Sharq and made him governor of Jaunpur in 1394. He swiftly recognized himself as a sovereign
and adopted the name Atabak-i-Azam.
Option 4 is incorrect. The Berar Sultanate was established in 1490 following the disintegration of the
Bahmani Sultanate. It was founded by Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk of Imad Shahi dynasty. The independent
Sultanate of Berar was established in the Deccan.
The disintegration of the Bahmani kingdom gave rise to five independent kingdoms in Deccan, viz.,
Ahmednagar, Bijapur, Golkonda, Bidar and Berar.
Source:)

[34]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/68907/3/Unit-3.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20189/1/Unit-28.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20194/1/Unit-23.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Delhi Sultanate
Subtopic:)

Q.46)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct: Karpurmanjari – Rajasekhara:
● Karpurmanjari is a play written by Rajasekhara in Prakrit language, a renowned poet and dramatist
from the 10th century CE.
● Karpurmanjari is a fictional narrative said to have been written by Rajasekhara to appease his wife
Avantisundari.
● It is also notable for being one of the earliest known plays entirely written in Prakrit.
● Rajasekhara was associated with the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, and is also credited for writing
Kavyamimamsa, a treatise on poetics.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Saundarananda – Vasumitra (Incorrect; Correct Author – Asvaghoṣa)
● Saundarananda is a Sanskrit epic poem written by Asvaghosa (1st–2nd century CE), a Buddhist monk,
poet, and philosopher in the court of Kanishka, the Kushana emperor.
● It narrates the story of Nanda, Buddha’s half-brother, depicting his transformation from a life of
pleasure to renunciation.
● Other notable works by Ashvaghosha include Buddhacharita, an epic biography of Gautama Buddha.
Vasumitra, on the other hand, was also a Buddhist scholar, and a contemporary of Ashvaghosha.
● He is best known for presiding over the Fourth Buddhist Council, convened by Kanishka in Kashmir
in 72 C.E. But no literary work like Saundarananda is attributed to him.
Pair 3 is correct: Prithviraj Raso – Chand Bardai:
● Prithviraj Raso is a heroic epic poem composed by Chand Bardai, the court poet of Prithviraj
Chauhan, who ruled over the regions of Delhi and Ajmer in 12th Century C.E.
● It was written in Braj Bhasha (a form of Hindi), and narrates the life and exploits of Prithviraj
Chauhan, particularly his battles against Muhammad Ghori.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Kiratarjuniyam – Magha (Incorrect; Correct Author – Bharavi)
● Kiratarjuniya is an epic Sanskrit poem (Mahakavya) written by Bharavi (not Magha), who lived in the
6th century C.E.
● It narrates the famous episode from the Mahabharata where Lord Shiva, disguised as a Kirata
(hunter), tests Arjuna’s devotion and warrior skills before granting him the divine Pashupatastra
weapon.
Magha, on the other hand, was another great Sanskrit poet, but he lived in the 7th century CE, and is not
the author of Kiratarjuniya.
● He wrote Shishupala vadh, a Mahakavya narrating the killing of Shishupala by Krishna, derived from
the Mahabharata.
Source:) Forum IAS Redbook (Indian Art and Culture). Chapter-8 (Language and Literature).
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/84166/3/Theme-II.pdf Page:68.
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/secichcour/english/ch.06.pdf (Page 89)
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module2.pdf(Page 235)
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/bgp/248English/Book-2.pdf (Page 194)
Subject:) Art and Culture
Topic:) Indian Literature
Subtopic:)

[35]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Samkhya is one of the six orthodox schools of Indian philosophy. This is one of the oldest schools of
Indian philosophy and was founded by Kapil Muni who is credited for writing the Samkhya Sutra.
This philosophical system is dualistic in nature, as it postulates the existence of two fundamental,
independent realities:
1. Prakriti (Nature) – The material reality, comprising the three gunas (sattva, rajas, and tamas), which
is the source of all physical and mental phenomena.
2. Purusha (Self/Soul/consciousness) – The pure consciousness, which is passive, eternal, and distinct
from Prakriti.
According to Samkhya, ignorance (avidya) arises when purusha falsely identifies itself with prakriti.
Liberation (moksha) is attained through self-knowledge (jnana), which enables one to realize that
purusha is separate from prakriti. This realization leads to freedom from the cycle of birth and rebirth
(samsara).
Source:) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/81060/1/Block-5.pdf
Subject:) Art and Culture
Topic:) Religious Philosophy
Subtopic:)

Q.48)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Zain-ul-Abidin (1420–1470 C.E) was one of the most notable rulers of medieval Kashmir, and belonged to
the Shah Mir Dynasty. He is often referred to as "Budshah" (Great King) due to his enlightened and
benevolent rule.
His Key Contributions include:
1. Abolition of Jaziya: Unlike many rulers of the time, he abolished the Jaziya tax, which was a tax levied
on non-Muslims.
2. Ban on Cow Slaughter: He respected the religious sentiments of his Hindu subjects and banned the
slaughter of cows.
3. Culture Patronage: He actively encouraged the translation of important Sanskrit texts such as:
o Mahabharata into Persian
o Rajatarangini (a historical chronicle of Kashmir by Kalhana) into Persian
4. Religious Tolerance: He was known for his policies of religious harmony and patronized both Hindu
and Muslim scholars. Also, a large number of temples were repaired and new ones constructed
during his reign.
5. Economic Reforms: Contributed to the agricultural development of Kashmir by constructing dams
and canals, introduced currency reforms, introduced market control and fixed prices of the
commodities.
Knowledge Base:
Shamsuddin Shah (Shams-ud-Din Shah Mir) (1339–1342):
● He was the founder of the Shah Mir Dynasty.
● From this period onwards, Islam influenced the Kashmiri society
Yusuf Shah Chak (1579–1586):
● He was the last independent ruler of Kashmir before the Mughal conquest.
 A ruler from the Chak dynasty, he resisted Mughal emperor Akbar’s expansionist policies.
 He was eventually defeated and taken prisoner by Akbar, leading to Kashmir’s annexation into the
Mughal Empire in 1586.
Sultan Sikandar Shah (1389–1413):

[36]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
● He was the sixth ruler of the Shah Miri dynasty of Kashmir.
● He was a powerful and despotic ruler. After his death, his son Ali Shah ascended the throne.
Source:) https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_LG_E/315_LG_E_L11.pdf
Page:2
Subject:) History
Topic:) Regional States
Subtopic:)

Q.49)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In late ancient and early medieval South India, Kani Rights referred to inherited (ennudaiya) rights over
land and other assets, primarily indicating the right of possession, which was being transferred by the
seller or donor (equivalent to the later miras rights)
● Land Ownership & Possession: When applied to land, Kani Rights signified hereditary possession,
allowing the holder to own, cultivate, sell, or donate land.
● Extended Meaning: Over time, Kani Rights were not limited to land but also included hereditary
rights over other assets, such as the right to perform services in temples.
● Social Privilege: Kani right holders enjoyed a privileged status in the village due to their control over
land.
Source:) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44520/1/Unit-13.pdf. Page:63.
Subject:) History
Topic:) Early Medieval History
Subtopic:)

Q.50)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Wood's Despatch of 1854 is considered the 'Magna Carta of Indian Education' as it laid down the
policy which became the guiding principle of the education programme of the government of India.
It was issued by Sir Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of the East India Company, and
became the first comprehensive plan for the development of education in India.
Key recommendations of the Wood's Despatch:
1. Hierarchy of Education System – It proposed a systematic arrangement of education at different
levels, including elementary schools, middle schools, and high schools to create a structured learning
process.
2. Establishment of Universities – It led to the foundation of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and
Madras (1857), which followed the model of the University of London.
3. Promotion of Vernacular and English Education – It suggested that primary education should be in
vernacular languages, while higher education should be in English to create a class of educated
Indians.
4. Grants-in-Aid System – It introduced a system of grants-in-aid for financial help to the schools, etc.
5. Teacher Training – It emphasized the need for trained teachers and recommended the
establishment of teacher training institutions.
Knowledge Base:
The Charter Act of 1813:
● It was the first official document to acknowledge the role of the British government in Indian
education.
● Allowed Christian missionaries to spread education in India.
● Allocated ₹1 lakh per annum for the promotion of education.

[37]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
● Did not specify the mode or medium of education (vernacular or English).
Macaulay's Minute of 1835:
● A policy document written by Lord Macaulay, a member of the Supreme Council of India, advocating
for English education.
● It proposed that English should be the medium of instruction in schools and colleges.
● It aimed to create a class of English-educated Indians who would act as intermediaries between the
British rulers and the Indian population (downward filtration theory)
Hunter Commission of 1882:
● Appointed by Lord Ripon to review the progress of education in India since the implementation of
Wood's Despatch of 1854.
● Recommended the expansion of primary and secondary education in India.
● Suggested that primary education should be in vernacular languages.
Source:) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/76484/1/Unit-7.pdf Page:100.
A Brief History of Modern India (Spectrum) by Rajiv Ahir. Chapter: 30 (Development of Education). Page:
596.
Subject:) History
Topic:) Development of Education
Subtopic:)

Q.51)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme is is a social welfare scheme launched by the
Ministry of Labour and Employment of the Government of India in February 2019 to ensure old age
protection for Unorganised Workers. It is implemented by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
and CSC e-Governance Services India Limited (CSC SPV).
Statement 1 incorrect: PM-SYM is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme (not a compulsory one)
designed for unorganized sector workers aged 18 to 40 years with a monthly income of less than
₹15,000. Workers engaged in the organized sector who are members of EPF, NPS, or ESIC, as well as
income tax payers, are not eligible for the scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme provides an assured monthly pension of ₹3,000 after the beneficiary
attains 60 years of age.
Statement 3 is incorrect: PM-SYM is a Central Sector Scheme under which the Central Government
provides an equal matching contribution to the beneficiary's pension account on a 50:50 basis, with no
contribution from State Governments. For example, if a person enters the scheme at an age of 29 years,
he is required to contribute Rs 100/ - per month till the age of 60 years an equal amount of Rs 100/- will
be contributed by the Central Government.
Statement 4 is correct: During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary
shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as family pension. Family
pension is applicable only to spouses.
Statement 5 is correct: Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is designated as the pension fund
manager for the scheme and responsible for Pension pay out.
Source: https://labour.gov.in/brief-pm-sym
https://labour.gov.in/pm-sym
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Social Sector Schemes
Subtopic:)

Q.52)

[38]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of Government of India, was launched as recommended by the
National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). This initiative has
been designed to meet Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and its underlying commitment, which is
to "leave no one behind."
Ayushman Bharat is an attempt to move from a sectoral and segmented approach of health service
delivery to a comprehensive need-based health care service. This scheme aims to undertake path
breaking interventions to holistically address the healthcare system (covering prevention, promotion and
ambulatory care) at the primary, secondary and tertiary level. Ayushman Bharat adopts a continuum of
care approach, comprising of two inter-related components, which are -
● Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs)
● Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)
Statement 1 is incorrect: PM-JAY component of Ayushman Bharat subsumed the Rastriya Swasthya Bima
Yojana (RSBY), which was launched in 2008 and had a family cap of five members. In contrast, PM-JAY
provides a health cover of ₹5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization
(not primary care hospitalization), with no restrictions on family size, age, or gender. PM-JAY offers
cashless treatment to beneficiaries at the point of service, but only in empanelled public and private
hospitals. It does not extend coverage to all public and private hospitals in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Households eligible for PM-JAY are identified based on deprivation and
occupational criteria from the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 for rural and urban areas,
respectively. In September 2024, the Union Government decided to extend the coverage of PM-JAY to all
senior citizens over 70 years, regardless of their income.
Statement 3 is correct: PM-JAY covers both pre-hospitalization (up to 3 days) and post-hospitalization
(up to 15 days) expenses, including medicines and diagnostics.
Source: https://nha.gov.in/PM-JAY
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bessential-but-not-enough-on-the-
extended-coverage-of-the-ayushman-bharat-pradhan-mantri-jan-arogya-yojana/article68634754.ece
https://nha.gov.in/img/resources/English_FAQs_related_to_the_benefits_for_senior_citizens.pdf
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Social Sector Schemes
Subtopic:)

Q.53)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Methylcobalamin is an essential nutrient and is required to treat vitamin B12 deficiency, in people with
pernicious anemia and diabetes among other ailments.
Statement 1 is correct: Methylcobalamin is an essential nutrient and is required to treat vitamin B12
deficiency in people with pernicious anemia and diabetes among other ailments. It is important for the
brain, nerves and production of red blood cells (RBCs).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Methylcobalamin is primarily found in animal-based foods like meat, fish,
eggs, and dairy. It is not naturally present in plant-based foods like spinach and lentils
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/fssai-gives-clarity-on-methylcobalamin-
usage/article69052614.ece
https://www.financialexpress.com/life/industry-seeks-centres-intervention-on-issue-of-
enforcement-of-arbitrary-pan-india-ban-on-methylcobalamin-2304245/

[39]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/food-news/10-common-foods-to-naturally-boost-
vitamin-b12-levels/articleshow/113248482.cms
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Vitamin
Subtopic:)

Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement I is correct: The Cryogenic rocket stage is technically a very complex system compared to
solid or earth-storable liquid propellant stages due to its use of propellants at extremely low
temperatures and the associated thermal and structural problems.
The propellants are to be pumped using turbo pumps running at around 40,000 rpm. It also entails
complex ground support systems like propellant storage and filling systems, cryo engine and stage test
facilities, transportation and handling of cryo fluids and related safety aspects. These are the reasons why
cryogenic rocket stage is technically a very complex system compared to solid or earth-storable liquid
propellant stage.
Statement II is incorrect: Cryogenic fuels are stored at extremely low temperatures to remain in liquid
form. Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) is stored at around -253°C, and Liquid Oxygen (LOX) at around -183°C.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-successfully-carries-out-vacuum-ignition-
trial-of-cryogenic-
engine/article69195344.ece#:~:text=ISRO%20on%20Saturday%20(February%208,the%20vacuum%20co
ndition%20of%20space.
https://www.isro.gov.in/mission_GSLV_D5GSAT_14Indigenous.html
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/cryogenic-engine?from=mdr
https://www.nasa.gov/wp-content/uploads/2018/03/stemonstrations_newtons-third-law.pdf
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Space
Subtopic:)

Q.55)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Cyber-attacks are malicious attempts to gain unauthorized access to systems, steal sensitive data, or
disrupt digital operations. Various attack techniques exploit vulnerabilities in authentication mechanisms.
Credential Stuffing, Password Spraying, and Brute Force Attacks are common methods used by
cybercriminals to breach accounts.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Credential stuffing is a cyberattack where hackers use stolen login
information to gain access to accounts on other sites. It's a common and effective attack because many
people use the same password across multiple accounts.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Password spraying is a cyberattack tactic that involves a hacker using a
single password to try and break into multiple target accounts. It's a type of brute-force attack.
Password spraying is an effective tactic because it's relatively simple to carry out, and users often have
easy-to-guess passwords.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Juice Jacking is a form of cyberattack where a public USB charging port is
tampered with and infected using hardware and software changes to steal data or install malware on
devices connected to it. Juice jacking exploits are successful because the same port used to charge a

[40]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
device also transfers data. A USB connector has five pins. But only one is needed to charge a connected
device, and only two of the five pins are needed to transfer data. This architecture enables an end user to
move files between a mobile device and a computer while the mobile device is connected to the charging
station.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/how-hackers-launch-credential-stuffing-
attacks-explained/article67425855.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/common-password-of-2020/article33215819.ece
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Information Technology
Subtopic:)

Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Row 1 is incorrect. Hera is a European Space Agency (ESA) mission, which was launched on 7 October
2024. It aims to visit the asteroid Didymos and its moon Dimorphos. The European Space Agency's Hera
spacecraft will perform a detailed post-impact survey of the target asteroid, Dimorphos. It aims to
investigate the aftermath of NASA's Dart mission that collided with the asteroid Dimorphos two years
ago.
Row 2 is incorrect. Dragonfly is a NASA Mission. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) has announced that its Dragonfly Mission to Saturn's massive satellite Titan will be launched in
2028. It is the fourth mission of NASA’s New Frontiers Program. The other three are New Horizons, Juno,
and OSIRIS-Rex.
Dragonfly Mission aims to explore the chemistry and habitability of Titan, using a drone-type aircraft.
The mission will study Titan's organic compound-rich environment, including its atmosphere and
surface materials. It will help in investigating Titan’s habitability. It will reach Titan in 2034.
Titan is the only satellite in our solar system known to be blanketed by a dense atmosphere and host
liquid seas on its surface.
Row 3 is correct. Europa Clipper is a NASA mission designed to conduct a detailed study of Jupiter's
moon Europa. Europa Clipper was launched in 2024, on a journey to explore Europa. There’s scientific
evidence that the ingredients for life may exist on Europa right now. It is designed to study Europa’s icy
surface and the subsurface ocean believed to exist beneath.
Europa is Jupiter's fourth largest moon. Europa is slightly smaller than Earth’s moon and is covered by an
ice sheet estimated to be 10 to 15 miles (15 to 24 km) thick. Beneath this frozen surface, scientists believe a
vast ocean exists. This ocean could be a rich environment for life due to the presence of water, organic
compounds, and energy sources such as thermal vents on the ocean floor.
Row 4 is correct. SpaDeX mission is a cost-effective technology demonstrator mission for the
demonstration of in-space docking. The primary objective of the SpaDeX mission is to develop and
demonstrate the technology needed for docking, and undocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth
circular orbit.
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully executed the SpaDeX docking
experiment making India the fourth country after the USA, Russia and China.
Under this mission, two small and identical satellites SDX01 and SDX02, each weighing around 220 kg,
were launched in a 470-km circular orbit. Once the satellites have been injected into the intended orbit,
they are docked together.

[41]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Docking is a process in which two fast-moving spacecraft are manoeuvred into the same orbit, then
brought closer together, and finally ‘docked’, or joined to each other. Docking is essential for missions
that require heavy spacecraft and equipment that cannot be launched in one go.
Source:)
https://www.isro.gov.in/mission_SpaDeX.html
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/six-space-missions-to-be-excited-for-in-
2024/article67701711.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-successfully-executes-spadex-docking-
experiment-india-joins-elite-club-of-nations/article69103462.ece
https://science.nasa.gov/mission/europa-clipper/
https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/nasa-launches-europa-clipper-to-explore-signs-of-
life-on-jupiter-s-moon-124101500646_1.html
https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/spacecraft-on-way-asteroid-
slammed-by-nasa-previous-test-9609080/
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Space
Subtopic:)

Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Dark Energy Spectroscopic Instrument (DESI) is located at Kitt Peak National Observatory,
Arizona in the United States of America. It is an instrument that is fit with 5,000 small robots.
The Dark Energy Spectroscopic Instrument (DESI) aims to measure the effect of dark energy on the
expansion of the universe. DESI, once mounted over a telescope, can simultaneously capture light from
5,000 galaxies.
The DESI has created the largest 3D map of our universe. The Universe’s expansion history is now known
to better than 1% precision, yielding the best picture of how the universe has evolved over the past 11
billion years.
The collective data generated by DESI is expected to help scientists better understand dark matter and
energy and generate newer information on the universe’s fundamental laws.
Source:)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indirect-evidence-builds-yet-the-dark-universe-
remains-murky/article68295998.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/albert-einstein-relativity-theory-reconfirmed-gravity-
billions-light-years-9681457/
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Space
Subtopic:)

Q.58)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Air Breathing Propulsion System is a launch system in which the rocket carries its fuel, but does not carry
an on-board oxidiser. In this system, the rocket will utilize atmospheric oxygen as an oxidiser to burn the
fuel. This makes rockets significantly lighter and more efficient.
However, such air-breathing technologies can be used only within the denser layers of the Earth's
atmosphere, where there is an adequate supply of oxygen.

[42]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
There are three main types of air-breathing propulsion systems:
1. Ramjet: It is an air breathing propulsion engine operating on the principle of supersonic combustion.
It has the absence of any rotator and relies solely on the forward motion of the engine to compress
incoming air.
2. Scramjet: It is an upgraded version of the Ramjet and generates thrust through supersonic air flow
and combustion. It moves at hypersonic speed and performs best at high speeds, greater than Mach
5.
3. Dual-Mode Ramjet (DMRJ): It is a jet engine where a ramjet transforms into a scramjet over Mach 4-8
range. It can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. A ramjet is a form of air-breathing jet engine that uses the vehicle’s forward
motion to compress incoming air for combustion without a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected in the
combustion chamber where it mixes with the hot compressed air and ignites. Ramjet is an air breathing
propulsion engine that can utilize atmospheric oxygen as an oxidiser to burn the fuel.
Scramjet is an upgraded version of the Ramjet. Scramjet engines use oxygen from the atmosphere for
combustion of hydrogen fuel, which means they rely on atmospheric oxygen as the oxidizer. This
distinguishes them from traditional rocket engines, which do not use oxygen from the atmosphere for
combustion of fuels. The Scramjet engine designed by ISRO uses Hydrogen as fuel and Oxygen from the
atmospheric air as the oxidiser.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (three
times the speed of sound) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6. However, ramjet efficiency starts to
drop when the vehicle reaches hypersonic speeds.
A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic
speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or
Scramjet.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Scramjets do not have rotating compressors, instead they rely on the forward
motion of the aircraft to compress incoming air. Scramjets are air breathing engines capable of sustaining
combustion at supersonic speeds without using any moving parts.
Ramjet also has the absence of any rotator and relies solely on the forward motion of the engine to
compress incoming air.
Statement 4 is incorrect. A ramjet-powered vehicle requires an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to
accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust.
Since scramjets cannot produce thrust at zero airspeed, they cannot move a space craft from a
standstill. A scramjet-powered vehicle, therefore, requires an assisted take off by a rocket to accelerate
it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust.
Source:)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/drdo-conducts-key-test-in-scramjet-technology-
development/article69123866.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/drdo-scramjet-test-hypersonic-
weapons-9795405/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2094886
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Space
Subtopic:)

Q.59)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Ozone is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. Ozone occurs both in the Earth's upper atmosphere
and at ground level. Ozone can be good or bad, depending on where it is found.

[43]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Ozone that occurs naturally in the upper atmosphere is called stratospheric ozone.
Ozone that forms in the troposphere is called the tropospheric ozone or the ground level ozone.
Statement 1 is correct. It is true that Ground level ozone is considered a greenhouse gas. Tropospheric
ozone (O3) is the third most important anthropogenic greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide (CO2) and
methane (CH4). Ozone absorbs radiation, acting as a strong greenhouse gas and altering evaporation,
cloud formation, and atmospheric circulation.
Statement 2 is correct. The ambient air quality standards for Ozone (O3) has been notified by the
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) as one of the twelve (12) pollutants under National Ambient Air
Quality Standard (NAAQS), 2009. The ambient air quality standards for Ozone (O3) is prescribed as 100
µg/m3 for 8-hourly monitored value and 180 µg/m3 for 1-hourly monitored value for industrial,
residential, rural and ecological sensitive areas.
As per the NAAQS, the method of measurement of Ozone (O3) in ambient air is UV photometric,
Chemiluminescence, and Chemical method.
Statement 3 is correct. Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms within the
troposphere. It is called a “secondary” pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants
react in sunlight.
Secondary pollutants are not emitted directly from the source but are formed when primary pollutants
react with each other.
Tropospheric Ozone is formed by photochemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and other
volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the air under the influence of sunlight and heat.
Major sources for NOx include vehicles, power plants and burning of fuel/waste and VOCs are emitted
from vehicles, petrol pumps, use of solvents and burning of waste.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Ozone is formed in the presence of sunlight and responsible factors are high
temperature and emissions of Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) & Volatile Organic Compounds.
High ozone levels usually occur during warm summer months. A hot, sunny, still day is the perfect
environment for the production of ozone pollution. Ozone in the lower atmosphere (troposphere) is
primarily a “sunny weather problem”. Ozone levels are typically highest during the afternoon hours of the
summer months, when the influence of direct sunlight is the greatest. These high levels occur during
what is known as the “ozone season,” which includes the summer months.
Source:)
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2082526
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/chennai-sees-ground-level-ozone-peak-this-
summer-despite-fewer-excess-days-
study/article68513419.ece#:~:text=Ground%2Dlevel%20ozone%20is%20a%20colorless%20gas%20that%
20forms%20just,of%20sunlight%20with%20primary%20pollutants.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/delhi-suffers-from-high-levels-of-ground-level-
ozone-finds-study-101722969073081.html
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Pollution and Associated Issues
Subtopic:)

Q.60)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Fluorescent nanodiamonds (FND) are nanometre-sized diamonds made of carbon nanoparticles. They
are produced in a high-temperature and high-pressure process. FNDs are stable under light and aren’t
toxic to living things.

[44]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Option 1 is correct. Fluorescent nanodiamonds (FND) have many applications in high-resolution
imaging, microscale temperature sensing, and correlative microscopy, among others. In biology,
scientists use FNDs to track cells and their progeny over long periods.
Option 2 is correct. The brightness and stability of the fluorescence of these diamonds made them
suitable for single-particle tracking or tracking of polymer particles within cells. The stable
fluorescence from diamond allows long term optical tracking and nanoscale sensing.
Option 3 is correct. FNDs are sensitive to acceleration and electric fields, which means they can be used
as sensors in many high-value industries and strategic sectors.
Option 4 is incorrect. FND application is not found in the Treatment of hyperthyroidism.
Radioiodine therapy is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism occurs when your thyroid gland
makes excess thyroid hormones. Radioiodine treats this condition by killing overactive thyroid cells and
by shrinking an enlarged thyroid gland.
Knowledge Base:
Fluorescence is the property of some materials to emit light of lower frequency when irradiated with light
of a higher frequency.
But unlike many other nano-scale fluorescent materials, FNDs don’t blink when irradiated for a long time.
Their fluorescence lifespan is greater than 10 nanoseconds (ns).
Source:)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-spin-diamonds-at-a-billion-rpm-to-test-the-
limits-of-physics/article68705918.ece
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Nanotechnology
Subtopic:)

Q.61)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Mexico, a country of southern North America and the third largest country in Latin America, after Brazil
and Argentina. It has the world’s largest population of Spanish speakers—about two and a half times that
of Spain or Colombia.
Option 1 is correct: The United States shares a land border with Mexico along its northern boundary,
spanning approximately 3,145 km (1,954 miles). This is one of the most well-known and frequently crossed
international borders in the world.
Option 2 is correct: Guatemala shares a land border with Mexico in the south. The Mexico-Guatemala
border is about 871 km (541 miles) long, connecting the two countries in Central America.
Option 3 is incorrect: Canada does not share a land border with Mexico. Although Canada and Mexico
have strong trade ties (especially through the USMCA agreement), they are separated by the United
States.
Option 4 is incorrect: El Salvador does not share a land border with Mexico. El Salvador is in Central
America, but it only borders Guatemala and Honduras.
Option 5 is incorrect: Venezuela does not share a land border with Mexico. Venezuela is located in
South America, far from Mexico, with no direct land connection.
Option 6 is correct: Belize shares a land border with Mexico in the southeast. The Mexico-Belize border
is about 251 km (156 miles) long, making it another country directly connected to Mexico.

[45]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |

Source:)
https://embamex.sre.gob.mx/reinounido/images/stories/PDF/Meet_Mexico/3_meetmexico-
theland.pdf
Oxford Atlas
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

Q.62)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The marine west coast climate is also known as the oceanic climate or the humid west coast climate. It's
also known as the British type of climate. It is typically found on the western coasts of continents
between 40° and 60° latitudes. It is characterized by mild summers, cool winters, and consistent
rainfall throughout the year, influenced by westerly winds and oceanic currents.
Option a is correct: Southern Chile has a Marine West Coast Climate, particularly in regions like Valdivia
and Puerto Montt, due to the influence of the Pacific Ocean.
Option b is correct: Northwest European countries such as the UK, France, Germany, and the
Netherlands experience a Marine West Coast Climate due to the warming effect of the North Atlantic
Drift.
Option c is incorrect: Western African region is not associated with the Marine West Coast Climate.
Most of Western Africa experiences Tropical Savanna, or Desert Climates, rather than the cool, wet
conditions typical of Marine West Coast regions.
Option d is correct: British Columbia, Canada, especially around Vancouver, experiences a Marine
West Coast Climate with mild, rainy winters and cool summers.

[46]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Source:) G C leong Chapter 22
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Biomes
Subtopic:)

Q.63)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statements I and II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I: Salinity near the surface in the
Arabian Sea is much higher than in the Bay of Bengal because evaporation over the Arabian Sea is
much greater and it receives relatively less river runoff. Bay of Bengal receives lots of freshwater in the
form of rain and from runoff of surrounding rivers (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy, Godavari, and
others).
Thus Option a is correct as Both the statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy212.pdf
https://www.nio.res.in/files/view/29fbd01f222086c#:~:text=Salinity%20near%20the%20surface%20in
%20the%20Arabian%20Sea%20is%20much,receives%20relatively%20less%20river%20runoff.&text=We
%20live%20at%201%20atmosphere,10%20m%20increase%20in%20depth.
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Oceanography
Subtopic:)

Q.64)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is one of the most fertile soils in India. It is formed from basaltic
rocks and is predominantly found in the Deccan Plateau.
Statement I is correct: Black soil has a high clay content, which allows it to absorb and retain moisture
for a long period. This ability helps crops survive dry spells, making it particularly suitable for cotton,
jowar, pulses, and oilseeds.
Statement II is incorrect: Black soil is not sandy; it is clayey in nature. Due to its fine texture and tiny
pores, it provides more surface area for water absorption and retention. It has low humus content
compared to alluvial soil, as organic decomposition is slower in clayey environments. However, it is rich
in minerals like calcium carbonate, potassium, and magnesium, which support crop growth.
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jess101.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Soil
Subtopic:)

Q.65)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of sea levels caused by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon
and the Sun, along with the Earth's rotation. Two significant types of tides are spring tides and neap
tides, which occur due to the changing positions of these celestial bodies.

[47]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement 1 is incorrect: Spring tides occur when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in a straight line
(syzygy), during the new moon and full moon phases. This alignment results in a stronger gravitational
pull, leading to higher high tides and lower low tides.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Neap tides occur when the Sun and Moon are at right angles (first and third
quarter moons) relative to Earth. In this position, their gravitational forces partially cancel out each other,
leading to lower high tides and higher low tides (reduced tidal range).
Source:) https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy213.pdf
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Tides
Subtopic:)

Q.66)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Krishna River is the second-largest east-flowing river in Peninsular India, with a total length of about
1,400 km, originating from the state of Maharashtra. The river has a vast drainage basin of 2,58,948 square
km and empty into the Bay of Bengal.
Statement 1 is correct: The Krishna River rises near Mahabaleshwar in the Sahyadri range of
Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Krishna River flows through four Indian states: Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh. Of its total catchment area, 27% is in Maharashtra, 44% in Karnataka,
and 29% in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Statement 3 is correct: Major tributaries of Krishna are Yerla, Koyna, Panchaganga, Varna,
Ghataprabha, Dudhganga, Bhima, Tungabhadra, Malprabha, and Musi.
Statement 4 is correct: The major dams on the Krishna River include Almatti Dam (Karnataka),
Srisailam Dam (Andhra Pradesh), Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (Telangana & Andhra Pradesh), Renuka Sagar
(Karnataka). These dams are crucial for irrigation, hydroelectric power, and water management in the
Krishna basin.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy103.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/80896/3/Unit-3.pdf
https://vijayapura.nic.in/en/tourist-place/almatti-
dam/#:~:text=The%20Almatti%20Dam%20is%20a,was%20completed%20in%20July%202005.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/centre-urged-to-clear-decks-for-increasing-
almatti-dam-height-by-notifying-krishna-tribunals-second-award/article68551165.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/upper-krishna-project-karnataka-govt-
committed-to-increasing-almatti-dam-height-and-land-acquisition-will-be-completed-in-single-
phase-says-chief-
minister/article68992260.ece#:~:text=Chief%20Minister%20Siddaramaiah%20on%20Monday,Upper%2
0Krishna%20Project%20(UKP).
Subject:) Geography
Topic:) Drainage
Subtopic:)

Q.67)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

[48]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and
parasites evolve over time and develop resistance to antimicrobial drugs. This makes infections harder to
treat, leading to an increased risk of disease spread, severe illness, and death. As a result, medications
become ineffective, allowing infections to persist in the body and potentially spread to others.
The 'Jeddah Commitments' were established during the 4th Global High-Level Ministerial Conference on
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) held in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, in November 2024.
The Jeddah Commitments represent a collective declaration to strengthen global efforts in combating
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). They aim to transform the coalition of willing nations into a powerful
force for action against AMR. Emphasizing the need for a globally coordinated approach, the
commitments advocate for an integrated framework that addresses human, animal, plant, and
environmental health to effectively tackle AMR.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2073852
https://www.who.int/news/item/21-11-2024-global-ministers-and-partners-pledge-action-with-new-
jeddah-commitments-on-amr
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/nations-adopt-jeddah-commitments-to-accelerate-action-
on-amr
https://www.who.int/health-topics/antimicrobial-resistance
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Diseases
Subtopic:)

Q.68)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Mangroves are salt-tolerant plant communities found in tropical and subtropical intertidal regions,
serving as biodiversity refuges and natural bio-shields against extreme climatic events. They hold
ecological and economic significance, linking marine and terrestrial ecosystems, protecting shorelines,
and providing habitat for diverse species.
Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves are evergreen forests that have specialized adaptations to thrive in
saline and waterlogged environments. They employ salt exclusion by filtering salt at the root level, while
some species possess salt-secreting glands on their leaves for excretion. For instance, Avicennia marina
is an extraordinarily salt-tolerant species that can grow optimally in 75% seawater and tolerate salinity
levels exceeding 250% seawater with a unique ability to excrete up to 40% of absorbed salt through
specialized glands in its leaves.
Statement 2 is correct: Underground tissue of any plant requires oxygen for respiration and in mangrove
environments, oxygen in soil is very limited or nil. This necessitates the mangrove root system to take up
oxygen from the atmosphere. For this purpose, mangrove species have specialized above ground roots
called breathing roots or pneumatophores. Thus, some of the mangrove species have specialized root
systems called pneumatophores.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, India's total mangrove cover
is 4,991.68 square kilometers, accounting for 0.15% of the country's geographical area. West Bengal leads
with 42.45% of this cover, followed by Gujarat with 23.66%, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands with
12.39%.
Statement 4 is incorrect: MISHTI: “Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes” was
announced in para 85 of the Union Budget FY 2023-24 to promote and conserve mangroves as unique,
natural eco-system having very high biological productivity and carbon sequestration potential, besides
working as a bio-shield. The aim of the MISTHI is to “Restoration of mangrove forests” by undertaking
mangrove reforestation/ afforestation measures along the coast of India by adopting existing best

[49]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
practices in India and globally. The Programme will cover approximately 540 sq km area across nine (9)
coastal States and four (4) Union Territories in five years (2023-2028). It will create around 22.8 million
man-days with an estimated carbon sink of 4.5 million tons of Carbon (not 3 billion). It will also create
potential areas for nature tourism and livelihood potential for local communities.
It aligns with India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), as announced by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), which target the creation of an additional carbon
sink of 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through afforestation and ecosystem conservation.
However, the MISHTI Scheme itself does not specify a direct goal of achieving a 3 billion tonne CO₂
sink.
Source: https://nams.nic.in/mishti.php
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/explained-why-have-mangroves-got-
a-budget-push/article66472109.ece
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1734363
https://fsi.nic.in/uploads/isfr2023/isfr_book_eng-vol-1_2023.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2002625
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Ecosystem
Subtopic:)

Q.69)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Large Action Models (LAMs) are advanced AI systems that autonomously interpret, analyze, and act on
data-driven inputs in real time. They extend beyond traditional machine learning models by enabling
real-time, action-oriented intelligence. The concept of LAMs gained prominence in early 2024 with the
launch of Rabbit’s AI device, which featured an AI capable of interacting with mobile applications without
user intervention.
Statement a is correct: LAMs go beyond traditional AI models by integrating multiple input modalities
(speech, video, text) and leveraging neuro-symbolic reasoning for better decision-making. They can
process inputs, generate step-by-step action plans, control systems (including robots), and adapt in real
time.
Statement b is correct: Compared to LLMs, the development of LAMs is more complex, involving five
stages. Data serves as the foundation of AI, and LAMs rely on two key types: task-plan data, which
outlines high-level steps for tasks like opening a Word document and highlighting text, and task-action
data, which consists of specific executable steps. During training, these models undergo supervised fine-
tuning, reinforcement learning, and imitation learning to enhance their performance.
Statement c is incorrect: LAMs are not a subset of Large Language Models (LLMs). While LLMs focus
primarily on text-based generation and reasoning, LAMs are action-oriented AI systems designed for
real-time decision-making. They extend AI beyond language processing to physical and interactive tasks.
Statement d is correct: LAMs enable autonomous, contextual decision-making in real-world scenarios
without requiring continuous human input. These AI systems enhance daily life by streamlining
workflows and providing crucial support for individuals with disabilities.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/mobile-tabs/apple-ipad-air-m3-and-
upgraded-ipad-with-a16-chip-launch-price-features-9869195/
https://www.thehindu.com/business/global-firms-are-adopting-large-ai-models-to-cut-
costs/article68266712.ece
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) Technology in News

[50]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.70)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In October 2024, South Africa amended its Ethics in Health Research Guidelines, becoming the first
country to explicitly envisage research that could lead to the birth of gene-edited babies through
Heritable Human Genome Editing (HHGE).
Statement 1 is correct: HHGE involves making changes to the DNA in embryos, eggs, or sperm
(collectively called germline cells). These changes are heritable, meaning they can be passed on to future
generations.
This kind of genetic modification is distinct from somatic cell genome editing, which only affects the
individual receiving the treatment and isn't passed to offspring.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Somatic cell genome editing modifies genes in the body's non-reproductive
cells, targeting specific organs or tissues affected by a disease. While it can treat genetic disorders in the
individual, it does not affect future generations.
● HHGE, on the other hand, prevents genetic disorders from being passed down because the edited
genes are inherited by all future generations.
Example: If a person has a genetic mutation that causes cystic fibrosis, somatic cell editing might treat
their symptoms, but their children could still inherit the faulty gene.
However, if HHGE is used to correct the mutation in an embryo or germ cell, the corrected gene will be
inherited by all future descendants.
Statement 3 is correct: HHGE utilizes advanced gene-editing tools such as:
1. CRISPR-Cas9 – The most widely used tool, acting like molecular "scissors" to cut DNA at specific
locations and allow modifications.
2. TALENs (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nucleases) – Similar to CRISPR but uses different
mechanisms to recognize and cut DNA.
3. Zinc Finger Nucleases (ZFNs) – An older method that also enables targeted gene modifications but is
less efficient than CRISPR.
These tools allow scientists to correct disease-causing mutations or potentially introduce desirable
genetic traits.
Statement 4 is correct: Ethical concerns surrounding HHGE include:
1. Unintended consequences such as off-target effects, where unintended changes occur in the genome.
These off-target mutations could lead to unforeseen health issues or genetic problems in future
generations.
2. "Designer babies"—the possibility of editing genes for non-medical enhancements (e.g., intelligence,
physical traits), which raises moral, social, and legal concerns.
3. Issues of genetic inequality, consent of future generations, and unforeseen long-term effects.
Source:) https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/south-africa-amends-guidelines-to-allow-
genetically-modified-children-124102700703_1.html
https://www.who.int/health-topics/human-genome-editing
Subject:) Science & Technology
Topic:) BioTechnology
Subtopic:)

Q.71)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

[51]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
An asset reconstruction company is a financial institution that buys the Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) or
bad assets from banks and financial institutions so that the latter can clean up their balance sheets.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The asset reconstruction companies or ARCs are registered with the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) and regulated under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act, 2002).
SARFAESI Act envisaged that ARCs would be registered and regulated by RBI.
Statement 2 is incorrect. ARCs are prohibited from raising money by way of deposit.
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has allowed asset reconstruction companies (ARCs) to raise equity
capital by listing their shares in the market, providing an opportunity to enhance liquidity and investor
base.
They are also mandated to maintain a capital adequacy ratio of a minimum of 15% of its total risk-
weighted assets.
Statement 3 is correct. Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) are required to maintain a minimum net
owned fund (NOF) of ₹300 crore in a phased manner by FY26. As per the Master direction of RBI “To
commence the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction, an ARC is required to have a minimum
net owned fund (NOF) of ₹300 crore and thereafter, on an ongoing basis.”
ARCs with a minimum net owned fund (NOF) of ₹1,000 crore are eligible to function as Resolution
Applicants under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
Knowledge Base:
1. According to RBI, an ARC shall undertake only securitisation and asset reconstruction activities and
functions provided under Section 10 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
2. The RBI has recently modified guidelines related to Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs). It
envisages that settlement with the borrower should be undertaken only after all possible ways to
recover dues have been examined.
3. Settlement with the borrower shall be done only after all possible ways to recover the dues have been
examined, and settlement is considered as the best option available.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-tells-arcs-to-maintain-300-crore-in-net-owned-
fund-by-fy26/article68103077.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/business/settlement-of-dues-only-after-examining-all-options-rbi-to-
arcs/article69120973.ece
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/rbi-green-lights-arcs-listing-plans-
opens-new-capital-avenue/articleshow/118150439.cms?from=mdr
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Banking
Subtopic:)

Q.72)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
PM Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (PM-RKVY) is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring holistic agricultural
development by providing flexible funds to states for agricultural initiatives. It includes several sub-
schemes as its component.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Seed Village Programme (Beej Gram Yojana), a subcomponent of the Green
Revolution – Krishonnati Yojana, has been implemented by the Government of India since 2014-15 to
enhance the quality of farmer-saved seeds. It provides financial assistance covering 50% of the seed cost
for cereal crops and 60% for pulses, oilseeds, fodder, and green manure crops, limited to one acre per
farmer.
Option 2 is correct: The Soil Health Management and Soil Health Card Schemes, launched under the
National Project on Soil Health & Fertility as part of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture

[52]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
(NMSA) in 2014-15, aim to provide farmers with soil nutrient status and recommendations for optimal
fertilizer use to enhance soil health and productivity. These schemes have now been merged under the
Soil Health & Fertility component of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).
Option 3 is correct: Launched in 2015, Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is a component of
Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (PM-RKVY) that provides end-to-end support for organic
farming, including production, processing, certification, and marketing, through a cluster-based
approach. The scheme primarily focuses on forming organic clusters (excluding North Eastern States) to
establish a strong supply chain for organic produce
Option 4 is correct: The "Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development" programme, initiated
under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) in 2018-19, aims to promote innovation and agri-
entrepreneurship by providing financial support and nurturing an incubation ecosystem in the country.
To further this objective, the Government of India has approved the establishment of an "Agri
Accelerator Fund for Start ups" with a corpus of ₹500 crore over five years, starting from 2023-24, to
encourage young entrepreneurs to set up agri-startups which is now integrated as a component of the
Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (PM-RKVY), reflecting the government's commitment to
fostering sustainable agriculture and achieving food security
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2061649
https://www.myscheme.gov.in/hi/schemes/ky-smsp
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1783875
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1988294#:~:text=Soil%20health%20card%20prov
ides%20information,have%20been%20distributed%20to%20farmers.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2037658
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Social Sector Schemes
Subtopic:)

Q.73)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct. Inverted duty structure refers to a situation where taxation on inputs is at higher
rates than finished products. It is a situation where the tax rate on inputs used to produce a good is
greater than the tax rate on the finished good itself. It results in a drag in export competitiveness.
Inverted duty structure impacts the domestic industry, as manufacturers have to pay a higher price for
raw materials in terms of duty, while the finished products land at lower duty and cost.
Expensive inputs make products costly and cannot compete in the export market. In the domestic
market, such products are prone to cheaper imports.
Addressing this duty issue would help the competitiveness of domestic exporters and that, in turn, will
help increase shipments and promote manufacturing.
Option a is incorrect. Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another
country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive
effect on international trade. Anti dumping duty is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the
dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect. Thus, the purpose of anti dumping duty is to rectify the
trade distortive effect of dumping and re-establish fair trade.
Option b is incorrect. Export subsidies refer to the incentives provided by the governments to some
beneficiary entity or entities to achieve export objectives.

[53]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Option c is incorrect. Countervailing duty (CVD) is a specific form of duty that the government imposes
in order to protect domestic producers by countering the negative impact of import subsidies. CVD is
thus an import tax by the importing country on imported products.
Source:)
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/govt-targets-inverted-duty-structures-in-washing-
machines-solar-glass-air-purifiers/article68203246.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/high-inverted-duty-structure-raw-material-cost-
curbing-competitiveness-engineering-goods-exporters-to-parliamentary-standing-committee-on-
commerce-9019485/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) External Sector
Subtopic:)

Q.74)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In India, priority sector lending (PSL) norms have been established to ensure that certain sectors receive
adequate credit to promote economic development. These sectors include agriculture, micro and small
enterprises, education, housing, and others.
The Reserve Bank of India has set targets for different categories of banks for lending to priority sectors.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bank loans up to ₹2 lakh to individuals solely engaged in allied activities
without any accompanying land holding criteria are entitled for classification under Small and
Marginal Farmers (SMFs) category of priority sector lending. Further, farmers availing loans under SMF
(based on land holding) are also eligible for loans under allied activities up to ₹2 lakhs and the same can
also be classified under SMF category.
Statement 2 is correct. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the
priority sector. The categories under priority sector are as follows:
1. Agriculture
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Export Credit
4. Education
5. Housing
6. Social Infrastructure
7. Renewable Energy
8. Others
Statement 3 is incorrect. The PSL guidelines are activity and beneficiary-specific and are not based on
type of collateral. Therefore, bank loans given to individuals/ businesses for undertaking agriculture
activities do not automatically become ineligible for priority sector classification, only on account of
the fact that the underlying asset is gold jewellery/ornament etc.
Knowledge Base:
Priority sector lending targets in India:
1. Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks and Foreign Banks with 20 branches and above: Total Priority
Sector: 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet
Exposure (CEOBE).
2. Foreign Banks with less than 20 branches: Total Priority Sector: 40% of ANBC or CEOBE.
3. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): Total Priority Sector: 75% of ANBC or CEOBE, with specific limits for
certain sectors.
4. Small Finance Banks: Total Priority Sector: 75% of ANBC or CEOBE, with specific targets for
Agriculture, Micro enterprises and Weaker Sections.

[54]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
5. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs): Total Priority Sector: 40% of ANBC or CEOBE, increasing to 75% by
FY 2025-26.
Source:)
https://www.rbi.org.in/commonman/english/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=1105
https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/banks-may-rework-psl-plans-for-districts-as-rbi-
tweaks-incentive-structure-124062600962_1.html
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Monetary Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.75)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly owned subsidiary of the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that provides deposit insurance and credit guarantee facilities based on
DICGC Act of 1961. The Corporation is responsible for reimbursing depositors in case of the winding-up
of an insured bank or if a scheme of compromise, reconstruction, or amalgamation demands such
reimbursement. The DICGC insures principal and interest up to a maximum amount of ₹ five lakhs.
Option 1 is incorrect: The deposits with Land Development Banks are excluded from DICGC coverage
under the DICGC Act, 1961.
Option 2 is correct: Deposit insurance initially applied only to commercial banks, including foreign bank
branches in India, but was extended to cooperative banks in 1968. Under DICGC coverage, insured
cooperative banks include State Cooperative Banks (StCBs), District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs),
and Primary Cooperative Banks/Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs), while Primary Agricultural
Cooperative Societies (PACS) remain excluded from the insurance scheme.
Option 3 is incorrect: NBFCs are explicitly excluded from DICGC coverage under the DICGC Act, 1961.
Hence, the deposits of Deposit taking NBFCs are not insured.
Option 4 is correct: Payments Banks are included under DICGC insurance as they are scheduled banks.
Source: https://www.dicgc.org.in/sites/default/files/2024-11/About%20Us_final.pdf (Page no. 3)
https://www.dicgc.org.in/guide-to-deposit-insurance
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Monetary Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Every political party, whether ruling or in opposition, appoints its own Whips in Parliament to ensure
party discipline.
● The Whip acts as an assistant floor leader, responsible for ensuring the attendance of party members
in large numbers and securing their support on key issues.
● Additionally, the Whip regulates and monitors the behaviour of party members in Parliament.
● Members are expected to adhere to the directives issued by the Whip, failing which disciplinary
action may be taken against them.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The office of Whip is neither mentioned in the Constitution of India nor in the
Rules of the House. It is based on parliamentary conventions and has been adopted from the British
practice of "whipping in" lawmakers to follow the party line.

[55]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement 2 is incorrect: The most important role in the whip system is played by the Chief Whip of a
political party. Every party, whether ruling or in opposition, has its own Chief Whip. There are also
additional whips, apart from the chief whip.
● In the Lok Sabha, the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs serves as the government’s Chief Whip,
while in the Rajya Sabha, this role is performed by the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs.
● The Chief Whip is directly responsible to the Leader of the House and plays a key role in advising the
government on parliamentary business. Additionally, the Chief Whip maintains close coordination
with ministers regarding legislative matters that affect their respective departments.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which governs the Anti-
Defection Law, a Member of Parliament can be disqualified by the Presiding Officer of the House if they
defy a party whip in specific cases, such as abstaining from voting or voting against the party's
directions.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness, typically indicated by the
number of times an order is underlined:
● One-line whip (underlined once) is the least strict; it informs members of a vote and allows
abstention.
● A two-line whip asks members to be present but does not mandate how they should vote.
Three-line whip is the strongest and strictest, directing members to be present and vote strictly as per
the party line. It is used on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence
motion.
Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/jagdeep-dhankhar-parliament-whip-
system-9800118/
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-whip-state-assembly-
parliament-8473933/
https://mpa.gov.in/sites/default/files/parlia12.pdf (Page 128)
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Legislature
Subtopic:)

Q.77)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
President’s Rule, also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency, is imposed under
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, in case of the failure of the constitutional machinery in a State.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court, in the S.R. Bommai case of 1994, has clarified that the
serious allegations of corruption against the state ministers and financial instability are not
considered valid grounds for invoking Article 356.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Clause 3 of Article 356, a proclamation of President’s Rule must be
approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months. Once approved, it lasts for six months, with
extensions requiring further Parliamentary approval.
The President's Rule cannot extend beyond three years without a Constitutional Amendment..
However, renewal beyond one year is permitted only if:
1. A National Emergency is in force in the entire country or in any part of the state.
2. The Election Commission certifies that state elections cannot be conducted.
Even if the Election Commission certifies difficulties in conducting elections, the rule cannot extend
beyond three years.
A constitutional amendment would be needed to extend the President's Rule beyond 3 years. Eg. 67 th
and 68th Constitutional Amendment Act.

[56]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Statement 3 is incorrect: When President’s Rule is imposed, the President has two options: (i) Dissolve
the state legislative assembly, or (ii) Keep it under suspended animation. There is no automatic
dissolution of the assembly upon the imposition of President’s Rule.
 In case of dissolution, fresh elections are held for constituting a new legislative assembly in the state.
 If kept under suspended animation, the Assembly can be revived whenever it becomes possible to
form a popular government after the President's Rule is revoked.
According to the Lok Sabha Secretariat’s report, in 111 cases of President’s Rule till 2015, the state
legislative assembly was dissolved only 53 times, while in the remaining instances, it was placed in
suspended animation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Although Punjab was the first state to experience President’s Rule in June
1951, it is not the state with the highest number of impositions.
As of now, Manipur holds the record with 11 instances of President’s Rule, followed by Uttar Pradesh with
10 instances. Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir have witnessed President’s Rule 9 times each.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/manipur/when-can-presidents-rule-be-
imposed-explained/article69223369.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-does-a-presidents-rule-function-
explained/article69227389.ece
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Emergency
Subtopic:)

Q.78)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Indo-Pacific region has seen the emergence of several multilateral cooperative alliances aimed at
ensuring regional security and strategic collaboration.
Among these, QUAD, AUKUS, and SQUAD are key groupings involving major powers like the United
States of America and Australia, which are the only two countries that are members of all these three
alliances.
1.Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD):
1. The QUAD is an informal strategic forum comprising four nations: the United States, India, Japan, and
Australia.
2. Established in 2007, its primary focus is to promote a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.
3. The member countries engage in joint military exercises, such as the Malabar naval exercises, and
collaborate on issues like maritime security, counterterrorism, and disaster relief.
2. AUKUS:
1. AUKUS is a trilateral security pact announced in 2021 between Australia, the United Kingdom, and the
United States.
2. The partnership aims to enhance defence capabilities in the Indo-Pacific, with a significant component
being the provision of nuclear-powered submarines to Australia.
3. SQUAD:
1. The term "SQUAD" refers to a newer quadrilateral partnership involving the United States, Japan,
Australia, and the Philippines.
2. This grouping emerged around May 2024, with defence ministers from these nations convening to
address regional security concerns, particularly in response to China's assertive activities in the South
China Sea.
3. The SQUAD aims to enhance defence cooperation and ensure stability in the Indo-Pacific region.

[57]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Source:) https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/after-quad-us-forms-squad-to-counter-
china-in-indo-pacific/articleshow/109918889.cms
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-britain-australia-weigh-expanding-aukus-
security-pact-to-deter-china/article68039825.ece
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) International Organization
Subtopic:)

Q.79)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body;
functioning under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC)
 It was constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of
Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change does not chair the
GEAC.
 Instead, it is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of the MoEF&CC.
 The Co-chairperson is a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (Ministry of Science
and Technology).
Statement 3 is correct: One of the primary roles of GEAC is to approve and regulate the movement of
genetically modified organisms (GMOs). It is responsible for granting approvals for:
 Import and export of GMO.
 Field trials of genetically modified (GM) crops.
 Commercial release of GMOs (e.g., Bt cotton was approved in 2002).
 Transport and handling of genetically engineered organisms for research and industrial use.
No GMO can be introduced in India without GEAC’s approval.
As per Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro
Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989) “No person shall import, export,
transport, manufacture, process, use or sell any hazardous microorganisms or genetically engineered
organisms/substances or cells except with the approval of the Genetic Engineering Approval (now
Appraisal) Committee”
Source:) http://geacindia.gov.in/functions.aspx
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/experts-on-gm-crop-committees-to-declare-conflict-of-
interest/article69053648.ece
http://geacindia.gov.in/resource-documents/biosafety-regulations/acts-and-rules/Rules-for-the-
manufacture-use-import-export-and-storage-1989.pdf (Section 7)
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1844666
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

Q.80)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.

[58]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
 The office is established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
 The AGI is appointed by the President of India and serves at the President’s pleasure, meaning there
is no fixed tenure.
 The AGI is the highest law officer of the country, representing the government in legal matters.
 The AGI must be qualified to be appointed as a Supreme Court judge (i.e., a high court judge for 5
years or an advocate of some high court for 10 years or an eminent jurist in the opinion of the
President).

Statement 1 is correct: Unlike constitutional functionaries such as Ministers, the Chief Justice of India,
Supreme Court and High Court judges, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), and the President and
Governors, the Attorney General is not required to take an oath or affirmation before assuming the
office. The Constitution of India (Article 76) provides for the AG, but it does not prescribe any oath
requirement.
Statement 2 is correct: The AG is not a full-time counsel for the Government, and does not fall in the
category of government servants. He/she is allowed to engage in private legal practice while holding
office, but there are some restrictions.
 He/she cannot defend accused persons in criminal cases without the approval of the Government
of India, as it may lead to a conflict of interest.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the constitution.
 However, it is not decided by Parliament, but is instead decided by the President.
 Article 76(4) of the Constitution states that the AG shall receive such remuneration as the President
may determine.
 The President of India decides the AG’s remuneration on a case-to-case basis (based on the number
of cases handled and duties performed).
Statement 4 is incorrect: The office of the Attorney General is not covered under the RTI Act. The
Delhi High Court, in 2017, ruled that the office of the Attorney General is not a public authority and,
hence, does not come under the ambit of the RTI Act.
Statement 5 is correct: The Attorney General of England and Wales is a Cabinet Minister and has
significant political responsibilities.
In India, the AG is not a part of the Cabinet and does not participate in policy-making.
The AG can:
1. Attend parliamentary proceedings and speak in both Houses.
2. Enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament
However, the AG does not have voting rights in Parliament and is not involved in executive decision-
making like Cabinet Ministers.
Source:) Forum IAS Mastering Indian Polity, Chapter:15 (15. EXECUTIVE BRANCH), Page:302.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/office-of-attorney-general-does-
not-come-under-rti-ambit-high-court/articleshow/56952101.cms?from=mdr
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Executive
Subtopic:)

Q.81)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Sir William Jones (1746–1794) was a British philologist, orientalist, and jurist who made remarkable
contributions to the study of Indian languages, literature, and history. His linguistic research laid the

[59]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
foundation for the comparative study of Indo-European languages, influencing historical linguistics and
cultural studies.
Statement a is correct: William Jones is credited with translating the play Shakuntala by the ancient
Indian playwright Kalidasa into English in 1789. This was a significant contribution to the introduction
of classical Indian literature to the Western world.
Statement b is correct: William Jones played a foundational role in establishing the Asiatic Society of
Bengal in 1784. The society was crucial in promoting the study of Asian cultures, languages, and history,
with a focus on India.
Statement c is incorrect: William Jones did not decipher the Brahmi script. The credit for deciphering
Brahmi, the ancient Indian script used in Emperor Ashoka's inscriptions, goes to James Prinsep in 1837.
Jones primarily focused on Sanskrit and Persian studies rather than epigraphy.
Statement d is correct: William Jones popularised the view that India had a glorious past which had
subsequently degenerated. He was called an Orientalist.
Other scholars and administrators of the same view were Warren Hastings and Jonathan Duncan.
Source:
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/76482/1/Unit-5.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/66064/1/Unit1.pdf
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/History_Module3.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Personality
Subtopic:)

Q.82)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. The earliest evidence for agriculture in the Indian subcontinent comes not from the
fertile river valleys of Indus or the Ganga. Rather it comes from the dry, windswept hilly regions of
Baluchistan. The site of Mehrgarh is located in the Kachi plains on the bank of the Bolan River and is
considered the earliest site with evidence of farming. The river water forms an inland delta in this area.
Pair 2 is correct. Korkai was an important city of the Pandyan Kingdom. It was a major maritime port
that played a vital role in the international trade routes during ancient times, connecting the Tamil region
with the Roman Empire and Southeast Asia.
Pair 3 is correct. Daimabad is an important archaeological site located in the Pravara-Godavari River
valley in the state of Maharashtra, India. Daimabad, is an important Chalcolithic (Bronze Age) site of the
Jorwe culture.The Jorwe settlement at Daimabad was the largest, covering an area of more than 30
hectares. Prakash and Inamgaon sites of Jorwe culture cover about 5 ha. each.
Source:
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44509/1/Unit-5.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/61908/1/Unit-5.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/41362/1/Unit-3.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/64778/1/Unit4.pdf
http://www.heritageuniversityofkerala.com/JournalPDF/Volume5/59.pdf
Subject:) History
Topic:) Historical Sites
Subtopic:)

[60]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.83)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement I is correct: In 1853, Lord Dalhousie took the decision to construct railways in India. Though
railways were generally seen as a marker of modernization worldwide, in the case of India the
construction of the railways only further strengthened the colonial nature of India’s economic
development.
Statement II is incorrect: The railway network made it easier to penetrate the interior markets (for
selling British goods) and sources of raw material in the colony and linked them to port cities, instead of
linking internal markets to each other. The layout of the lines favoured shipment to the ports rather
than encouraging internal trade. The other reason behind the development of railways by the British was
to facilitate the fast transportation of British troops and army personnel in the interiors of India and from
one place to another to suppress the ever growing dissent against British rule.
Thus, construction of railways did not primarily interlink the internal markets in the country and did not
help in boosting the Indian economy, rather it facilitated the British Colonial interests.
Statement III is correct: The whole railway project in India was built with British capital, and investors in
Britain were guaranteed 5% interest, which was paid out of Indian revenue. The “guarantee system”
promised its shareholders that if the companies performed poorly, the taxpayers of India would pay for
the loss. Thus the entire profit went to the railway companies and their British shareholders while the
loss was borne by the Indian people.
This reflects the drain theory associated with the colonial nature of economic development. Hence
Option c is correct i.e. Statement III is correct and is the correct reason for Statement I.
Source:
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesso
n17.pdf (Page:22)
Subject:) History
Topic:) Governance Reforms before 1857
Subtopic:)

Q.84)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Tinkathia system was an exploitative agrarian practice imposed by British planters in Bihar,
particularly in Champaran.
Statement I is correct. The Tinkathia system was a key reason behind the Champaran Satyagraha. The
forced cultivation of indigo led to widespread suffering, pushing peasants to seek help. Gandhi’s
intervention led to an inquiry and eventual abolition of this system.
Statement II is incorrect. Under the Tinkathia system, peasants (ryots) were forced to cultivate indigo
on three kathas of every bigha (or 3/20th of their land) without fair compensation. This led to
widespread economic distress among farmers, as indigo cultivation degraded soil fertility and left them in
perpetual debt. Champaran Satyagraha (1917), led by Mahatma Gandhi, was India’s first major civil
resistance movement against colonial oppression, aimed at abolishing this unfair practice.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lehs303.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/78417/1/Unit-6.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44333/1/Unit-25.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/67775/1/Unit-8.pdf
http://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/27280/1/Unit-31.pdf

[61]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Subject:) History
Topic:) Emergence of Gandhi
Subtopic:)

Q.85)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect. In a landmark judgment delivered in February 2025, the Supreme Court ruled
that state governments must consider the premature release of eligible convicts under remission
policies, even if they do not apply for it. This overturns the previous stance taken in Sangeet & Anr. v.
State of Haryana (2013) and Mohinder Singh v. State of Punjab (2013), where the court had held that
remission could only be granted upon an application by the convict or their representative. The new
ruling clarified that if a state has a remission policy in place, then it is the government's obligation to
proactively consider remission for eligible convicts without requiring them to file an application.
Statement II is correct. ‘Prisons’ is explicitly listed as Entry 4 in the State List (List II) of the Seventh
Schedule. This means that the administration, maintenance, and management of prisons fall primarily
under the domain of state governments. However, despite being a State subject, remission and sentence
reduction powers are also guided by national laws such as:
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 (which replaces the CrPC).
2. CrPC Section 432 (previously applicable).
3. Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution, which give remission powers to the President and Governors
respectively.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/governments-obliged-to-consider-remission-of-
eligible-convicts-without-waiting-for-application-sc/article69235035.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/sc-states-premature-release-remission-
9846901/
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Juidicary
Subtopic:)

Q.86)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The movement of capital between markets is influenced by interest rates, risk perception, and returns.
The U.S. bond market, being one of the safest investment options globally, plays a crucial role in
attracting international capital.
Statement I is correct. When U.S. bond yields rise, they offer higher returns with lower risk, making
them more attractive to investors, especially those who are risk-averse. This has a direct impact on
emerging markets like India. Foreign investors invest in India because of higher returns compared to
developed economies. However, when the U.S. Federal Reserve increases interest rates, the yield on U.S.
Treasury bonds rises. Since U.S. bonds are considered a safe investment, investors find them more
attractive than riskier assets like Indian equities. As a result, foreign investors withdraw money from
Indian stock markets and reallocate it to U.S. bonds. This leads to a capital outflow from India,
weakening stock market performance.
Statement II is correct. Bond yields and stock market returns typically move in opposite directions.
This is because both strive for investor funds, aspiring to outdo the other by offering more returns. When
bond yields rise:

[62]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
1. Bonds become more attractive - Investors prefer them over stocks.
2. Stock market liquidity declines - Less demand leads to falling stock prices.
3. Cost of borrowing for companies rises - Higher interest rates make corporate loans expensive,
reducing profits and stock valuations.
Conversely, when bond yields fall, equity markets become more attractive, as they offer higher relative
returns, leading to stock market rallies.
Statement II explains Statement I. When U.S. bond yields rise, FIIs move their funds to the U.S. bond
market. This is explained by the inverse relationship between bond yields and stock markets. A higher
U.S. bond yield makes equities less attractive, prompting a shift of capital away from Indian stocks. This
capital flight leads to a decline in Indian stock indices, weaker rupee, and overall reduced foreign
investment inflows.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/what-is-contributing-to-the-downturn-in-
indian-markets-explained/article69212547.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-rise-in-bond-yield-means-for-
investors-and-govt-7205054/
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) Money/Capital Market
Subtopic:)

Q.87)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
The United Nations (UN) has different categories of membership for countries and entities. While full
member states have voting rights and the ability to contest for key positions, observer states have
limited participation.
Statement I is correct. The UN grants full membership to sovereign nations, giving them voting rights in
the General Assembly and eligibility to be elected to key bodies like the Security Council and Economic
and Social Council. Palestine is not a full member of the UN. Instead, it has non-member observer state
status. As an observer state, Palestine can participate in discussions but cannot vote on resolutions or
contest elections for major UN bodies. This restriction applies to all non-member observer states,
including the Holy See (Vatican City), which has a similar status.
Statement II is correct. Palestine was granted "non-member Permanent observer state" status by the
UN General Assembly in 2012 through Resolution A/RES/67/19. This status allows Palestine to
participate in General Assembly debates, submit proposals, and be part of international treaties and
bodies, but it does not confer voting rights or eligibility to be elected to UN organs.
Statement II explains Statement I. Palestine does not have voting rights or the ability to contest UN
positions because it is an observer state, not a full member. Observer status limits Palestine’s powers at
the UN, explaining why it lacks voting rights or eligibility to contest for key positions.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/despite-us-opposition-un-general-assembly-
backs-palestines-bid-for-full-membership/article68162573.ece ; https://www.un.org/en/about-
us/non-member-states ; https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/04/1148351
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

[63]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.88)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
India plays a crucial role in the global pharmaceutical industry, being a major producer of generic
medicines and an exporter of pharmaceutical products. However, while India is a leading player in drug
exports, its position in Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) production is influenced by global
supply chain dependencies.
Statement I is correct: Indian pharmaceutical products reach nearly 200 countries, supplying around 50
per cent of Africa's demand for generics and 40 per cent of the United States' generic medicine needs.
Due to its ability to produce high-quality, low-cost medicines, India has earned the title of the
"pharmacy of the world".
Statement II is incorrect: India ranks third globally (not first) in drug and pharmaceutical production
by volume. India exports to approximately 200 countries and territories.
Statement III is incorrect. APIs (Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients) are the key components of
medicines, and while India produces APIs, it is not the largest producer in the world. China dominates
the global API production and supplies nearly 70% of India’s API requirements. India is actively working
to reduce its dependence on China through the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme and other
initiatives, but it still imports a significant portion of bulk drugs.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=152038&ModuleId=3&reg=3&lang=1
https://www.indiantradeportal.in/vs.jsp?lang=0&id=0,31,24100,24114
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/healthcare/biotech/pharmaceuticals/indias-
pharma-market-to-expand-2-4-times-over-next-5-years-share-in-global-market-to-hit-5-pc-
report/articleshow/118132553.cms?from=mdr ;
https://www.financialexpress.com/business/healthcare-70-80-of-the-apis-are-imported-from-china-
we-are-working-towards-changing-this-sanjay-chaturvedi-ceo-iol-chemicals-and-pharmaceuticals-
2713038/#:~:text=Chemicals%20and%20Pharmaceuticals-
,70%2D80%25%20of%20APIs%20are%20imported%20from%20China;%20We,CEO%2C%20IOL%20Che
micals%20and%20Pharmaceuticals
Subject:) Economics
Topic:) External Sector-Trade
Subtopic:)

Q.89)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool designed to measure and track hunger at various levels. It is
based on four key indicators, which reflect undernourishment and child malnutrition.
Indicator 1 is correct. Child Wasting refers to low weight-for-height in children under 5 years of age,
indicating acute undernutrition. It is a critical measure because wasted children have a higher risk of
mortality.
Indicator 2 is correct. Child Mortality Rate refers to the number of children who die before the age of
five per 1,000 live births. It is also an important indicator of GHI.
Indicator 3 is correct. In the undernourishment indicator, GHI measures the proportion of the
population that does not have access to enough calories for a healthy life. This is a key indicator of
chronic hunger.

[64]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Indicator 4 is incorrect. Sanitation is an indicator used while calculating Multidimensional poverty
index and not Global Hunger index.
Source: https://www.globalhungerindex.org/methodology.html ;
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-does-the-global-hunger-index-2024-state-about-
india/article68762149.ece#:~:text=The%20story%20so%20far%3A%20The,and%20above%2050%20extre
mely%20alarming
https://hdr.undp.org/content/2024-global-multidimensional-poverty-index-mpi#/indicies/MPI
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) International Organization
Subtopic:)

Q.90)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: Trade weaponization refers to the use of trade policies as a tool of foreign policy
and strategic influence, rather than being driven solely by economic considerations. It involves
leveraging tariffs, sanctions, export controls, and trade restrictions to exert pressure on other nations,
often to achieve geopolitical or security-related goals. For example:
1. U.S. sanctions on China’s semiconductor industry to curb China's technological advancement.
2. Russia cutting gas supplies to Europe during geopolitical tensions.
3. China restricts exports of rare earth minerals, which are critical for global electronics and defense
industries.
Option a is incorrect. The imposition of tariffs and counter-tariffs between countries to gain economic
advantage is known as a "Trade War," not trade weaponization. For example, U.S.-China trade war
(2018-2020) involved imposing tariffs on each other’s goods in an economic dispute.
Option b is incorrect. The strategic stockpiling of critical commodities to influence global markets is
more related to commodity price manipulation or resource nationalism, not trade weaponization. For
example: Countries hoarding oil or food supplies to influence market prices.
Option d is incorrect. Trade blocs like ASEAN, EU, RCEP, or USMCA are formed for economic
cooperation, not for trade weaponization.
Source: https://www.csis.org/analysis/weaponizing-trade ;
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/trade-weaponised-wars-diverting-focus-from-imec-
climate-change-jaishankar-9606976/ ;
https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/economics/trade-wars/
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) International Policy
Subtopic:)

Q.91)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1 is correct: The Public Account Committee (PAC) was first set up in 1923 based on the
suggestions of the Montague-Chelmsford reforms of 1919. The PAC consists of up to 22 members, 15 from
the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, elected using a system of proportional representation by
means of a single transferable vote. The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok
Sabha from among the committee members. Its main functions include examining the accounts that
show how the funds granted by Parliament for government expenses have been utilized, reviewing the

[65]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Government of India’s annual finance accounts, and any other accounts presented before the House that
the Committee deems necessary.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Estimates Committee was first constituted in 1950. It originally had 25
members, which was later increased to 30 in 1956. Members are elected only from the Lok Sabha using
the principle of proportionate representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Chairperson of
the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members (usually from the ruling
party). The Estimates Committee provides a dedicated forum for detailed examination of budget
estimates, allowing for an in-depth analysis of how public funds are allocated and spent.
Option 3 is correct: The Committee on Public Undertakings was established in 1964 based on the
recommendations of the Krishna Menon Committee. It was tasked with evaluating the performance and
functioning of public enterprises, ensuring accountability and efficiency in their operations. It consists of
22 members, 15 of whom are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members according
to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and 7 members are
to be nominated by the Rajya Sabha to participate in the committee. The Chairman of the Committee is
appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among its members.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity – ForumIAS, Chapter – 16, Legislative Branch, Pg. 415 – 419
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Parliament
Subtopic:)

Q.92)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Mandamus refers to a court order asking a public official or entity to fulfil official
duties that they have neglected or declined to perform. This legal directive can be directed at various
entities including public bodies, corporations, lower courts, tribunals, or government agencies, ensuring
that they execute their responsibilities as required by law. However, the writ of mandamus cannot be
issued when the duty is discretionary rather than mandatory and to enforce a contractual obligation.
Pair 2 is correct: “Quo-Warranto” is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to prevent someone
from illegally holding a public office. This writ allows the court to investigate the legitimacy of
someone’s claim to a public office. It can only be used when the office in question is a substantive public
office of a permanent nature, established either by law or by the Constitution. Unlike other types of writs,
Quo-Warranto can be requested by any concerned individual, not just the person directly affected by the
alleged usurpation.
Pair 3 is incorrect: A higher court issues a Prohibition writ against a lower court or tribunal to prevent
the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction it does not possess. This writ directs
inactivity, preventing the lower court or tribunal from taking any action that is beyond its jurisdiction.
The writ of Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It cannot be
issued against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private individuals or bodies.
Pair 4 is correct: Certiorari means to be informed or certified. It is a legal order issued by a higher court
to a lower court or tribunal. This order serves two main purposes: firstly, to transfer a case from the
lower court to itself, and secondly, to cancel or nullify the lower court’s decision in a case. Certiorari is
typically issued when the lower court has exceeded its jurisdiction, lacks jurisdiction altogether, or has
made a legal error.
Source:) Mastering Indian Polity – ForumIAS, Chapter – 10, Fundamental Rights, Pg. 155 – 156
Subject:) Polity
Topic:) Judiciary

[66]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.93)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is incorrect: St Martin’s Island is situated in the northeastern region of the Bay of Bengal, near
the border between Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is located nine kilometers from the southern tip of
Bangladesh’s Cox’s Bazar-Teknaf peninsula. It is Bangladesh’s only coral island, surrounded by reefs
located 10-15 km to the west-northwest. It was originally part of the Teknaf peninsula. There was a
controversy over the handing of St. Martin’s Island to America by Bangladesh.

Pair 2 is incorrect: The Senkaku Islands are located in the East China Sea between Japan, China, and
Taiwan. In 2024, Japan protested against Beijing after four armed Chinese coastguard vessels entered
the waters of the Senkaku island, which it considers its territory. The Senkaku Islands dispute, or Diaoyu
Islands dispute, is a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands known as: the Senkaku Islands
in Japan, the Diaoyu Islands in China, and the Tiaoyutai Islands in Taiwan. Both Japan and China claim
ownership of these islands.

[67]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Pair 3 is correct: The Chagos Archipelago, comprising around 58 islands, is located approximately 500
kilometers south of the Maldives in the Indian Ocean. In 1814, under the Treaty of Paris, France ceded
Mauritius—including the Chagos Archipelago—to the British. The UK has recently transferred the Chagos
Archipelago to Mauritius due to mounting international pressure from the International Court of Justice
(ICJ), the UN General Assembly, and several regional states, including India. While the UK transferred
sovereignty of the archipelago, it ensured US-UK control over Diego Garcia for 99 years, maintaining
strategic interests.

Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/bangladesh-st-martin-island-
9511920/
https://www.spf.org/islandstudies/info_library/senkaku-islands-02-geography--02_geo001.html
https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-chagos-
archipelago-diego-garcia-geopolitical-hotspot-for-upsc-prelims-2025-mains-9814959/
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

Q.94)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option c is correct: The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) was formed in 1981 by an agreement among
Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, Oman, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), which was concluded in
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. It is an economic and political union comprising all the Arab countries of the Persian
Gulf except Iraq. The six members of the GCC are Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, UAE, Bahrain and Kuwait.
Its chief objectives are to have integration, coordination, and interconnection between the member
countries in all fields. It is a regional grouping that aims to develop collective mechanisms to deal with
political, security and economic challenges facing the member states.
Source:) https://gcc-sg.org/en/AboutUs/MemberStates/Pages/default.aspx
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/india-gcc-relationship-stronger-deeper-says-
secretary-general/article69105269.ece
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) International Organization
Subtopic:)

[68]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Q.95)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Currently, SCO consists of 10 member countries- India, Iran, Kazakhstan, China,
Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Belarus. India and Pakistan became full members
in 2017. Iran joined the organisation in 2023 and Belarus in 2024. Afghanistan and Mongolia hold
Observer Status.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent
intergovernmental international organisation whose origins lie in the “Shanghai Five” which was formed
in 1996, consisting of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan. It was established in 2001.
Russian and Chinese are the official working languages of the SCO.
Statement 3 is correct: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) has been an observer in the
United Nations General Assembly since 2005. In 2023, the UN General Assembly at its 99th plenary
meeting of the 77th Session adopted Resolution 77/L.107 “Cooperation between the United Nations and
the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.”
Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/upsc-knowledge-
nugget-sco-bri-prelims-2025-ir-9624788/
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-is-shanghai-cooperation-
organisation-9432151/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1919567#:~:text=The%20theme%20of%20India's
%20Chairmanship,people%20interactions%20in%20the%20region.
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) International Organization
Subtopic:)

Q.96)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect: The first-ever Kho-Kho World Cup was held from
January 13 to 19, 2025. It was hosted by India (not by Nepal) at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in
New Delhi.
1. The tournament witnessed participation from 23 countries across six continents, featuring 20 men's
teams and 19 women's teams.
2. The event was organized by the Kho-Kho Federation of India (KKFI) in collaboration with the
International Kho-Kho Federation (IKKF).
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian women's team, captained by Priyanka Ingle, clinched the
championship title by defeating Nepal in the final with a dominant score of 78-40. Similar to their male
counterparts, the Indian women's team also maintained an unbeaten record throughout the tournament.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sport/other-sports/kho-kho-world-cup-after-women-indian-
mens-team-also-crowned-
champion/article69117372.ece#:~:text=The%20Indian%20men's%20team%20beat,defeating%20Nepal%2
0in%20the%20final.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/sports/india-to-host-first-ever-kho-kho-world-cup-in-
2025/article68708817.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/sports/sport-others/kho-kho-olympic-dreams-100-years-berlin-
games-1936-9787648/
Subject:) General Knowledge

[69]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
Topic:) Sports
Subtopic:)

Q.97)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Row 1 is correct: Kursk is a city in Russia.
1. It has been a focal point in the ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine.
2. In August 2024, Ukrainian forces launched a significant incursion into Russia's Kursk region, capturing
territory and complicating Russian military operations.
3. This move marked a notable shift in the conflict, with Ukraine taking the offensive into Russian
territory.
Row 2 is correct: Kanpaiti, a key trading town and rare earth mining hub, is in Myanmar, near its
border with China.
1. Recently, it was seized by the Kachin Independence Army (KIA), a prominent rebel group in Myanmar.
2. This seizure has significantly disrupted operations in the region, particularly affecting rare earth
mining, which is economically and strategically important for the region.
3. Such events are part of the broader ethnic and political conflicts within Myanmar, which have
intensified post-2021 military coup.
Row 3 is incorrect: Kutum is a town in North Darfur, Sudan, which has been witnessing severe violence
and clashes.
1. The region has become a hotspot for fighting between the Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the
Rapid Support Forces (RSF), contributing to a worsening humanitarian crisis.
2. Civilians in Kutum and surrounding areas have faced displacement, casualties, and significant suffering
due to this conflict.
3. The situation in Sudan, particularly in areas like Darfur, remains a matter of international concern.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/ukraine-surprise-incursion-into-
kursk/article68578339.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/rebel-group-takes-key-myanmar-border-town-rare-
earth-mining-hub-in-setback-for-military-regime/article68914947.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/sudan-disastrous-situation-fuels-
ethnic-conflict-8656300/
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

Q.98)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Blue Line is a 120-km United Nations-recognized demarcation line established in 2000 to verify
Israel's withdrawal from southern Lebanon.

[70]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |

1. It serves as a de facto border between Israel and Lebanon, separating Lebanon from Israel and the
Golan Heights, although it is not an officially agreed-upon international boundary.
2. The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) is responsible for monitoring the Blue Line,
and is tasked with ensuring the withdrawal of Israeli troops from southern Lebanon. It is also
responsible for maintaining peace and security in the region.
3. However, tensions and border skirmishes frequently occur along this line due to ongoing disputes
between Israel and Hezbollah.
Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/concerned-at-deteriorating-situation-along-
blue-line-mea-on-west-asia-conflict/article68744391.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/watch-what-is-the-united-nations-interim-force-in-
lebanon-explained/article68799932.ece
Subject:) International Relations
Topic:) Places in News
Subtopic:)

Q.99)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over
time. It is primarily categorized into two types: primary succession and secondary succession. Primary
succession begins in areas where there was no previous life, such as on bare rocks, lava flows, or areas
left by retreating glaciers. Secondary succession, on the other hand, occurs in areas where an existing
ecosystem has been disturbed or destroyed (e.g., after a forest fire, flood, or human activity) but where
soil and nutrients remain intact, allowing life to re-establish more quickly.
Statement I is correct and Statement II correctly explains statement I: Primary succession occurs in
areas where no previous life existed (e.g., newly formed volcanic islands or bare rock after a glacier
retreats). Since life starts from scratch without any existing soil or organic matter, it takes a
significantly longer time to develop into a stable climax community. In primary succession, the absence
of pre-existing soil means organisms like lichens and mosses must first break down rocks to form soil,

[71]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221402 - Solutions |
unlike secondary succession, where soil and nutrients are already available due to previous biological
activity.
Source:) Forum IAS Environment Redbook Chapter 1
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/85707/1/Unit-8.pdf
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Ecosystem
Subtopic:)

Q.100)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement is an
international treaty under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), not the
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
1. The agreement was adopted in June 2023 by the Intergovernmental Conference on Marine
Biodiversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction convened under the auspices of the U.N.
2. The BBNJ Agreement is the third implementing agreement to the UNCLOS.
Statement 2 is correct: India signed the BBNJ Agreement on September 25, 2024, during the United
Nations General Assembly in New York.
1. This step underscores India's commitment to protecting marine life in the high seas and promoting
sustainable use of ocean resources.
2. This agreement also helps meet the goals of Sustainable Development, especially SDG 14, which
focuses on protecting life underwater.
Statement 3 is correct: The main goal of the BBNJ Agreement is to conserve and sustainably use
marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction, commonly referred to as the high
seas. It sets precise mechanisms for the sustainable use of marine biological diversity through
international cooperation and coordination.
1. Parties cannot claim or exercise sovereign rights over marine resources derived from the high seas
and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits.
2. The agreement addresses issues such as marine genetic resources, measures such as area-based
management tools like marine protected areas, environmental impact assessments, and capacity-
building and transfer of marine technology.
Source:) https://www.un.org/bbnjagreement/en
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2031611
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Biodiversity
Subtopic:)

[72]

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Nile River Basin

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