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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4704 (2025)

Q 1.A
• Cropping Seasons in India:
o There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of the country, namely kharif,
rabi and zaid.
o The kharif season largely coincides with the Southwest Monsoon under which the cultivation of
tropical crops, such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur is possible.
o The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April. The
low-temperature conditions during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and subtropical
crops such as wheat, gram and mustard.
o Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after harvesting of rabi crops.

• Analysis of the given options:

o Jowar: Jowar, also known as sorghum, is primarily a Kharif crop. It is sown in the monsoon season
and harvested in autumn. Hence option 1 is not correct.
o Bajra: Bajra, also known as pearl millet, is primarily a Kharif crop. It is sown during the monsoon
season and harvested in autumn. Hence option 2 is not correct.
o Gram: Gram, also known as chickpea or chana, is a Rabi crop. It is sown in the winter season (Rabi
season) and harvested in spring. It is commonly grown in North India during the Rabi season. Hence
option 3 is correct.

Q 2.D
• ISRO successfully launched the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) funded INSAT-3DS weather
forecasting satellite.
• Its primary objective is to monitor earth’s surface, carry out oceanic observations and its environment,
provide vertical profile of various meteorological parameters of atmosphere, provide data collection and
data dissemination capabilities and provide satellite aided search and rescue services (SA&SR).
• GSLV-F14 placed INSAT-3DS into the intended geosynchronous transfer orbit and then to a Geo-
stationary Orbit. Hence statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) is a special kind of orbit used to get from one orbit to another.
To attain geosynchronous (and also geostationary) earth's orbits, a spacecraft is launched into an elliptical
orbit with an apoapsis altitude of around 37,000 km. This is called a GTO. Satellites in Geostationary
orbit (GEO) circle Earth above the equator from west to east by traveling at the same rate as Earth.
This makes satellites in GEO appear to be ‘stationary’ over a fixed position.
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Q 3.C
• The number of million cities in the world has been increasing as never before. London reached the million
mark in 1800, followed by Paris and New York and by 1950 there were around 80 such cities. The rate of
increase in the number of million cities has been three-fold in every three decades – around 160 in 1975 to
around 438 in 2005.
• Tokyo is the world's most populous city (capital of Japan) with an estimated population of (in Greater
Tokyo Area) nearly 35 million.
• New York City has a population of nearly 9-10 million. (Please note New York City is a city in the state
of New York)
• Canberra (the capital of Australia) has a population of approximately 0.5 million.
• Thus the correct order is Tokyo > New York > Canberra. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 4.A
• The Union Cabinet approved the “Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-
MKSSY)”. The scheme is under the Central Sector Component of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya
Sampada (PMMS).
• The scheme has a total outlay of 6000 crore rupees, of which 50% will come from public finance
including the World Bank and the AFD (French Development Agency) external financing and 50 %
will be contributed by the beneficiaries from the private sector. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It aims to bring the Blue Revolution through sustainable, responsible and holistic development of the
fisheries sector including the welfare of fish farmers. The scheme aims at supporting microenterprises
to improve fisheries sector value chain efficiencies. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The scheme targets Increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 from 13.75 million
metric tons in 2018-19, Increasing the contribution of the fisheries sector to the Agriculture GVA to
about 9% by 2024-25 from 7.28% in 2018-19 and Doubling export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crores by
2024-25 from Rs.46,589 crores in 2018-19. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 5.B
• Tehran (35.44° N): Tehran, the capital of Iran, sits at a latitude of around 35.44° N. It is positioned north
of Baghdad and is nestled in the northern foothills of the Alborz Mountains.
• Baghdad (33.20° N): Baghdad, the capital of Iraq, is located at a latitude of approximately 33.20° N. It
lies to the north of Doha and is situated on the Tigris River.
• Riyadh (24.41° N): Riyadh, the capital of Saudi Arabia, is located at a latitude of approximately 24.41° N.
It is positioned south of Doha and is situated in the heart of the Arabian Peninsula.
• Thus the correct order from higher to lower latitudes is 1 (Tehran), 2 (Baghdad), 3 (Riyadh). Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 6.A
• Inland Waterways:
o India has 14,500 km of navigable waterways, contributing about 1% to the country’s transportation. It
comprises rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. At present, 5,685 km of major rivers are navigable
by mechanized flat-bottom vessels.
o For the development, maintenance, and regulation of national waterways in the country, the Inland
Waterways Authority was set up in 1986. The following waterways have been declared as the
National Waterways by the Government.
✓ National Waterway(NW) 1: Allahabad-Haldia stretch (1,620 km)
▪ It is one of the most important waterways in India, navigable by mechanical boats up to Patna
and by ordinary boats up to Haridwar. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
✓ National Waterway(NW) 2: Sadiya-Dhubri stretch (891 km)
▪ The Brahmaputra is navigable by steamers up to Dibrugarh (1,384 km), shared by India and
Bangladesh. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
✓ National Waterway(NW) 3: Kottapuram-Kollam stretch (205 km)
▪ It includes 168 km of the west coast canal along with the Champakara canal (14 km) and
Udyogmandal canal (23 km). Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
✓ National Waterway(NW) 4 :
▪ Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of
canals (1078 km)
✓ National Waterway(NW) 5 :
▪ Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi and
Brahmani rivers, and East Coast canals (588km).
✓ National Waterway (NW) 6:
▪ National Waterways 6 is a waterway between Lakhipur and Bhanga of the Barak River.

Q 7.C
• The development of the iron and steel industry opened the doors to rapid industrial development in India.
Almost all sectors of the Indian industry depend heavily on the iron and steel industry for their basic
infrastructure. The Indian iron and steel industry consists of large integrated steel plants as well as mini
steel mills. It also includes secondary producers, rolling mills and ancillary industries.
• Integrated Steel Plants
• 1. TISCO: It is located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand. The Tata Iron and Steel plant lies very close to the
Mumbai-Kolkata railway line and about 240 km away from Kolkata, which is the nearest port for the
export of steel. The rivers Subarnarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• 2. Rourkela Steel Plant: The Rourkela Steel plant was set up in 1959 in the Sundargarh district of Odisha
in collaboration with Germany. The plant was located on the basis of proximity to raw materials, thus,
minimising the cost of transporting weight losing raw material. This plant has a unique locational
advantage, as it receives coal from Jharia (Jharkhand) and iron ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar. The
steel plant is located on the banks of river Brahmani river. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• 3. Durgapur Steel Plant: Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal was set up in collaboration with the
government of the United Kingdom and started production in 1962. This plant lies in Raniganj and Jharia
coal belt and gets iron ore from Noamundi. Hydel power and water is obtained from the Damodar Valley
Corporation (DVC) on banks of river Damodar. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Q 8.B
• KMGBF has set 23 targets to be achieved by 2030 which include 30% conservation of land and sea,
50% reduction of invasive species, raising at least $200 billion per year. Restoration of the habitat of
migratory species is not the target set under Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
(KMGBF). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Recently the First Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council meeting of Global Biodiversity
Framework Fund (GBFF) was held in the United States. The 66th Council Meeting of the Global
Environment Facility (GEF), highlighted the necessity of securing funds to fulfil the objectives outlined in
the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework adopted at COP15.
• The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) is dedicated to supporting investments in global
biodiversity and helps in scaling up financing for implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF). Hence statement 2 is correct.

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Q 9.D
• The Sea of Marmara is a small enclosed sea situated in the northwestern part of Turkey. It is connected
through the Bosporus (Istanbul Strait) with the Black Sea on the Northeast, and through the Dardanelles
(Çanakkale Strait) with the Aegean Sea on the Southwest.
• The Sea of Marmara, fabled for centuries for its blue waters and sparkling fish, laps the shores of Istanbul.
Its perfect form inspired a 19th-century historian to describe the ancient city as “a diamond set between
two sapphires.”

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 10.A
• Patterns of rural settlements reflect the way the houses are sited in relation to each other. The site of the
village, the surrounding topography and terrain influence the shape and size of a village.
• Rural settlements may be classified on the basis of a number of criteria:
o On the basis of setting: The main types are plain villages, plateau villages, coastal villages, forest
villages and desert villages.
o On the basis of functions: There may be farming villages, fishermen’s villages, lumberjack villages,
pastoral villages etc.
o On the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements: These may be a number of geometrical forms
and shapes such as Linear, rectangular, circular star like, T-shaped village, double village, cross-
shaped village etc.
✓ Linear pattern: In such settlements houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal
edge of a valley or along a levee.
✓ Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide inter
montane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.
✓ Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the village is
planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the animals to
protect them from wild animals.Star like pattern: Where several roads converge, star shaped
settlements develop by the houses built along the roads.
✓ T-shaped, Y-shaped, Cross-shaped or cruciform settlements: T-shaped settlements develop at
tri-junctions of the roads while -shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads
converge on the third one and houses are built along these roads. Cruciform settlements develop
on the cross-roads and houses extend in all the four direction.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer

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Q 11.A
• Nuclear energy is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India, contributing about 2% of the country's
total electricity generation. India currently has over 22 nuclear reactors in 7 power plants across the
country, which together produce 6,780 MW of nuclear power. Of these reactors, 18 are Pressurized
Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) and 4 are Light Water Reactors (LWRs).
• The important nuclear power projects are:
• Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant: The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) located near Boisar,
Maharashtra, is the oldest nuclear power plant in India. The power station comprises two 120MW
boiling water reactor (BWR) units commissioned in October 1969 and two pressurised heavy water
reactor (PHWR) units commissioned between 2005 and 2006. Owned and operated by the state-run
Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NCPIL), the Tarapur nuclear power station completed 50 years of
operation in October 2019. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Rawatbhata: The Rajasthan Atomic Power Project (RAPPS) is a nuclear power project built in the
Rawatbhata in the northwestern part of Rajasthan, India. The site covers about a million acres and is
constructed by the Nuclear Power Corp of India Ltd (NPCIL), a state-owned enterprise. The plant is
expected to supply power to the states of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh. The 700 MW Pressurised
Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) is designed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India, which uses the
latest technology. According to Rawatbhata news, this plant is an upgraded design of the 540 MW
PHWR, operating at the Nuclear Power Plant of Tarapur in India since 2005. Hence pair 2 is correctly
matched.
• Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant: Located in Tamil Nadu, Kalpakkam is considered the house of
India’s modern and indigenous nuclear station – the Madras Nuclear Power Plant. This small town
is famous for its facilities and industrial growth and has also become a popular tourist site due to its
backwaters and flocks of migratory birds. The Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station is said to be the house of
two nuclear reactors operating at 220 MW power along with a super-fast breeder reactor having a power
generation capacity of 500 MWe. This is why this facility is said to be the first step the Indian government
has taken toward a prospective nuclear future. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Kakarapara Plant: Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS) is a nuclear power plant located in
Surat, Gujarat. It is operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). Recently,
the fourth unit of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS), Gujarat has achieved its first
Criticality — the beginning of the regulated fission reaction — paving the way for its eventual transition
to generating power for commercial use. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Q 12.A
• The sugar industry is the second most important agro-based industry in the country. India is the
largest producer of both sugarcane and cane sugar. The industry provides employment for more than 4
lakh persons directly and a large number of farmers indirectly. The sugar industry is a seasonal industry
because of the seasonality of raw materials.
• Sugar cane is the primary raw material for sugar production. Once harvested, sugar cane quickly
dries up and cannot be stored in the field after maturation. It is crucial to minimize the time gap between
harvesting and crushing of sugar cane. Due to its bulky nature, approximately 9 to 12 tonnes of sugar is
produced from 100 tonnes of cane. The transportation of sugar cane is costly, leading to the strategic
establishment of sugar mills in sugar cane-growing areas. This localization helps reduce
transportation expenses and ensures a timely and cost-effective processing of the raw material.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Sugar mills have no problem with fuel because the bagasse of sugar cane can be used for heating the
juice or for generating electricity. The entire energy requirements of a sugar mill are met through
electricity generated by using bagasse as fuel. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Uttar Pradesh is the leading sugar producer in the country and produces more than one-third of the
total production of sugar in the country. Uttar Pradesh is the second largest producer of sugar. The
sugar factories are concentrated in two belts – the Ganga-Yamuna doab and the Tarai region. In
southern India, sugar mills are located in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. The other States
which produce sugar are Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.

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Q 13.A
• Minerals:
o Minerals can be classified into different categories based on their chemical composition and
properties. One common classification is based on whether the minerals contain iron (Fe) or not. This
classification divides minerals into two main categories: ferrous minerals and non-ferrous minerals.
o Ferrous Minerals: Ferrous minerals are those minerals that contain iron (Fe) as a major component.
These minerals are often used as raw materials in the production of iron and steel.
o Non-Ferrous Minerals: Non-ferrous minerals are those minerals that do not contain iron as a major
component. These minerals may contain other metals such as copper, aluminum, lead, zinc, etc.
• Analysis of given minerals to determine if they can be classified as ferrous or non-ferrous:
o Copper: Copper is a non-ferrous metal. It does not contain iron as a major component and therefore
cannot be classified as a ferrous mineral. Hence option 1 is not correct.
o Bauxite: Bauxite is a non-ferrous mineral. It is an aluminum ore and does not contain iron as a major
component. Hence option 2 is not correct.
o Graphite: Graphite is a non-ferrous mineral. It is composed of carbon and does not contain iron.
Hence option 3 is not correct.
o Manganese: Manganese is a ferrous mineral. While it is not primarily used in the production of iron
and steel, manganese is considered a ferrous mineral because it contains iron as a major component.
Manganese is often alloyed with iron to improve its strength and properties. Hence option 4 is
correct.

Q 14.C
• Coal is the main source of energy in India as it fulfils almost 67 per cent of the total commercial energy
consumed in the country. This fossil fuel is found in a form of sedimentary rocks and is often known as
'Black Gold'.
• Anthracite is the best quality of coal which carries 80 to 95 per cent carbon content. It ignites slowly
with a blue flame. It has the highest calorific value. It is found in small quantity in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Bituminous carries 60 to 80 per cent of carbon content and a low level of moisture content. It is widely
used and has high calorific value. Coking Coal or Metallurgical coal is used in manufacturing steel, where
carbon must be as volatile-free and ash-free as possible. Coking coal is also heated to produce coke, a
hard porous material which is used to blast in furnaces for the extraction of iron from the iron ore. Non
Coking Coal does not have any caking properties and it is mainly used as thermal coal for power
generation. It has a higher ash content and also used in industries like cement, fertilizer, glass, ceramic,
paper, chemical and brick manufacturing. Indian Non Coking Coal is classified on the basis of Gross
Calorific Value (GCV) which consists of 17 GCV bands.
• ·About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. The
most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• They lie in Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt and the important coal fields in this region are Raniganj, Jharia,
Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Lignite is often brown in colour. It carries 40 to 55 per cent carbon content. It is an intermediate stage
which happens during the alteration of woody matter into coal. It has high moisture content so it gives
smoke when burnt. lignite occur in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Pondicherry, Gujarat and Jammu and
Kashmir.

Q 15.C
• Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any
area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low
births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate
society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.
• Three-staged model of Demographic Transition Theory:

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 • Stage 1 (Pre-Industrial): The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people
reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The
population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an
asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred
years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Stage 2 (Early Industrialization): Fertility remains high at the beginning of the second stage but it
declines with time. This is accompanied by a reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation
and health conditions lead to a decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to the
population is high. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Stage 3 (Mature Industrialization): In the third stage, both fertility and mortality decline
considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized,
literate has high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size. Hence, pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• Some interpretations include the Fourth and Fifth stages in the demographic transition theory:
• Stage 4 (Post-Industrial or Late Industrialization): Both birth and death rates are low, resulting in
a near-stable population. Societies in this stage typically have advanced healthcare, education, and
economic systems.
• Stage 5 (Post-Modern or Declining Population): In this stage, birth rates may fall below death rates,
leading to population decline. This can be associated with factors such as advanced aging, increased
urbanization, and changing social norms.
• This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and can adjust their fertility. In the present day,
different countries are at different stages of demographic transition. India is believed to be in the 3rd
stage of demographic transition.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 16.A
• Japan is an island country of 14,125 islands, of which approximately 260 are inhabited. Japan is the
fourth-largest island country in the world, behind Indonesia, Madagascar, and Papua New Guinea.
• Four major islands of Japan:
• Honshu: Honshu is the largest and most populous island in Japan. It is home to the country's capital
and the cultural, political, and economic heart of Japan.
• Hokkaido: Hokkaido is the second-largest island in Japan, located to the north of Honshu. Hokkaido has
a cooler climate compared to the rest of Japan and is famous for its winter sports and seafood.
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 • Kyushu: Kyushu is the third-largest island in Japan, situated to the southwest of Honshu. Kyushu is
known for its historical sites, such as Nagasaki and Kumamoto Castle, as well as its unique cuisine.
• Shikoku: Shikoku is the smallest of the four major islands of Japan, located to the south of Honshu.
Shikoku is famous for the 88 Temple Pilgrimage, which attracts thousands of pilgrims each year.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 17.C
• Factors Influencing Population Distribution:
o Natural Factors: Landforms (plains, valleys), soil fertility, climate (temperature, rainfall), and water
availability significantly impact population distribution. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Economic Factors: Employment opportunities, agricultural potential, industrial hubs, and trade routes
attract populations.
o Social and Cultural Factors: Cultural practices, religious beliefs, historical developments, and
political stability influence where people choose to live.
o Accessibility: Transportation networks, infrastructure quality, and proximity to amenities affect
population distribution.
o Resource Availability: Renewable and non-renewable resources (minerals, energy sources) can
act as population magnets. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Disasters and Natural Hazards: Areas prone to frequent floods, earthquakes, droughts, or extreme
weather events may have lower population densities. Hence option 3 is correct.
Q 18.C
• Segment of population working in knowledge oriented service sector constitute quaternary and quinary
human activities. Quaternary activity refers to economic activities that involve the creation, production,
and distribution of knowledge-based goods and services. On the other hand, quinary activity refers to
economic activities that involve high-level decision-making and policy-making in fields such as
government, education, healthcare, and research.
• Quinary activity often referred to as ‘goldcollar’ professions, they represent another subdivision of the
tertiary sector representing special and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government
officials,research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the structure of
advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 19.B
• Water Resources of India:
o India accounts for about 2.45 percent of the world’s surface area, 4 percent of the world’s water
resources and about 16 per cent of the world’s population.
o The total water available from precipitation in the country in a year is about 4,000 cubic km. The
availability from surface water and replenishable groundwater is 1,869 cubic km.
o Out of this, only 60 percent can be put to beneficial uses. Thus, the total utilizable water resource in
the country is only 1,122 cubic km.

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 • Facilitates easier access to services, markets, and amenities. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Promotes a vibrant and dynamic urban environment with diverse activities.
Dispersed (Scattered) Settlements:
Characteristics:
• Buildings are spread out, creating a lower population density.
• Typically associated with suburban or exurban areas.
• Often characterized by single-family homes with larger plots of land.
Functions:
• Offers residents more space and a suburban lifestyle.
• Allow for a mix of residential and green spaces.
• May require increased reliance on private transportation due to spatial dispersion.

Q 28.A
• SEX RATIO is defined as ”number of females per 1000 males in the population”. Thus, a sex ratio of
1000 implies complete parity between the two sexes. Ratios above 1000 indicate excess of females over
males; those below 1000 indicate a deficit of females.
• In the Population Census of 2011 it was revealed that the population ratio of India 2011 is 943
females per 1000 of males. The Sex Ratio 2011 shows an upward trend from the census 2001 data.
Census 2001 revealed that there were 933 females to that of 1000 males. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Other facts:
o The lowest sex ratio in India is in Haryana, where sex ratio is only 879 whereas the highest sex
ratio is in Kerala (1084)
o If we talk about the sex ratio in the union territories; Puducherry has highest sex ratio of 1037 while
Daman and Diu has lowest sex ratio (618) among all the union territories of India
o Position of the bottom five is occupied by the five Union Territories of India i.e. Andaman and
Nicobar Islands, Delhi, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
o Puducherry and Lakshadweep are the only two union territories which have sex ratio of more than
900 females per thousand males.
• Child Sex Ratio: The Child Sex Ratio is defined as thenumber of females per 1000 males in the age
group 0–6 years.
o In the census 2001 the child sex ratio of India was 927 which declined to 918 in the census 2011.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o As per the census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest child sex ratio among the Indian states i.e.
972 while Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio i.e.834 per thousand males. Among the Union
Territories of India; Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the highest child sex ratio i.e. 968 per thousand
males.

Q 29.B
• Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important minerals used for the
generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. Today uranium is the only fuel supplied for
nuclear reactors. However, thorium can also be utilized as a fuel for CANDU (CANada Deuterium
Uranium) reactors or in reactors specially designed for this purpose.
• Thorium is about 3.5 times more common than uranium in the Earth's crust. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• Present knowledge of the distribution of thorium resources is poor because of the relatively low-key
exploration efforts arising out of insignificant demand.
• India has relatively modest reserves of uranium. India's uranium resources are modest, with 102,600
tonnes of U (tU) as reasonably assured resources (RAR) and 37,200 tonnes as inferred resources in situ in
January 2011. However, the Department of Atomic Energy claims to have reserves of 1, 86, 653 tU in
2013. Andhra Pradesh followed by Jharkhand and Meghalaya in that order is the top state with the
largest uranium reserves. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India possesses relatively modest reserves of uranium, totaling 102,600 tonnes (tU), whereas its
thorium reserves, estimated at approximately 300,000 tonnes, are significant. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.

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 • Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala
and Tamil Nadu. The world’s richest monazite deposits occur in the Palakkad and Kollam districts of
Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.
State Monazite (million tonne)
Odisha 2.41
Andhra Pradesh 3.72
Tamil Nadu 2.46
Kerala 1.90
West Bengal 1.22
Jharkhand 0.22
Total 11.9
• Hence statement 4 is correct.

Q 30.A
• Changes in Shares of Land-use categories in India:
o India has undergone major changes within the economy over the past four or five decades, and this
has influenced the land-use changes in the country. These changes between 1950–51 and 2014–15
have been shown in below table:

o Four categories have undergone increases, while four have registered declines. Share of area under
forest, area under non-agricultural uses, current fallow lands and net area sown have shown an
increase. The following observations can be made about these increases:
✓ The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses.
✓ This is due to the changing structure of Indian economy, which is increasingly depending on the
contribution from industrial and services sectors and expansion of related infrastructural facilities.
Also, an expansion of area under both urban and rural settlements has added to the increase. Thus,
the area under non-agricultural uses is increasing at the expense of wastelands and agricultural
land.
✓ The increase in the share under forest, can be accounted for by increase in the demarcated area
under forest rather than an actual increase in the forest cover in the country. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
✓ The increase in the current fallow cannot be explained from information pertaining to only two
points. The trend of current fallow fluctuates a great deal over years, depending on the variability
of rainfall and cropping cycles.
✓ The increase in net area sown
✓ It is a recent phenomenon due to use of culturable wasteland for agricultural purpose. Before that
it was registering a slow decrease. There are indications that most of the decline had occurred due
to the increases in area under non-agricultural use. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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Q 31.D
• Godavari River:
o The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga.
o Source: Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar near Nasik in Maharashtra and flows for a length
of about 1465 km before outfalling into the Bay of Bengal.
o Drainage Basin: The Godavari basin extends over the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka,
and the Union territory of Puducherry. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
o Tributaries: Pravara, Purna, Manjra, Penganga, Wardha, Wainganga, Pranhita (combined flow of
Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha), Indravati, Maner and the Sabri.

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Q 32.A
• Rail Transport
o Indian Railways, network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both freight
and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy.
o Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane
covering a distance of 34 km.
o Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of the Indian
Railways network was 67,956 km (Railway Yearbook 2019-20).
o It's very large size puts a lot of pressure on a centralised railway management system. Thus, in India,
the railway system has been divided into 16 zones.

o Hence only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Q 33.D
• The 12 major ports of India handle more than 95 percent of our foreign trade by volume and 70
percent by value. The major ports are Kandla, Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru (Nhava Sheva),
Mormugao, New Mangalore, Kochi, Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradip, Haldia,
Kolkata.
• Generally, ports are classified based on specialized functions.
o Ports of Call: These are the ports that originally developed as calling points on main sea routes
where ships used to anchor for refueling, watering, and taking food items. Later on, they
developed into commercial ports. Aden, Honolulu, and Singapore are good examples. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
o Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively
concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short
distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the
water body, e.g. Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel. Hence statement
2 is correct.
o Entrepot Ports: These are collection centers where the goods are brought from different
countries for export. Singapore is an entrepot for Asia E.g. Rotterdam for Europe, and Copenhagen
for the Baltic region. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 34.D
• Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC) was launched on the sidelines of the
Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
• It aims to ensure that ecological connectivity is maintained, enhanced, and restored in critical areas for
migratory species. Global Partnership on Ecological Connectivity (GPEC) is relevant for species such
as Amur Falcons (Least Concern), Bar-headed Geese (Least Concern) which are not endangered. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.

Q 35.C
• Mica:
o Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets. These sheets
can be so thin that a thousand can be layered into a mica sheet of a few centimetres high.
o Mica can be clear, black, green, red yellow or brown. Due to its excellent di-electric strength, low
power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high voltage, mica is one of the most
indispensable minerals used in electric and electronic industries.
o Mica deposits are found in the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur plateau. Koderma Gaya –
Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the leading producer. In Rajasthan, the major mica-producing area is
around Ajmer.
o Nellore mica belt of Andhra Pradesh is also an important producer in the country. Hence pair 1
is correctly matched.
• Bauxite:
o Though several ores contain aluminium, it is from bauxite, a clay-like substance that alumina and later
aluminium is obtained. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks
rich in aluminium silicates.
o Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such as iron, with
extreme lightness and also with good conductivity and great malleability.
o By States, Odisha ( i.e. Koraput) alone accounts for 51% of the country's resources of
bauxite followed by Andhra Pradesh (16%), Gujarat (9%), Jharkhand (6%), Maharashtra (5%) and
Madhya Pradesh & Chhattisgarh (4% each). Major bauxite resources are concentrated in the East
Coast bauxite deposits in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
o Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Iron ore:
o Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly
abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good-quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore
with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent.
o It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the
most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used but has a slightly lower iron content
than magnetite. (50-60 per cent).
o In 2018–19 almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh,
Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.
o The major iron ore belts in India are: • Odisha-Jharkhand belt: In Odisha, high-grade hematite ore is
found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts. In the adjoining
Singbhum district of Jharkhand, haematite iron ore is mined in Gua and Noamundi. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.

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Q 36.A
• Although the tropics have great potential in timber resources, commercial extraction is difficult. The trees
in the tropical region do not occur in homogenous strands, there are no frozen surfaces to facilitate
logging and tropical hardwoods are sometimes too heavy to float in the rivers, even if these flow in the
desired direction. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Livestock farming in the tropics are handicapped by an absence of meadow grass even on the highlands.
The few animals like bullocks or buffaloes are kept mainly as beasts of burden. Their yield in milk or beef
is well below those of the cattle in the temperate grasslands. The grass is so tall and coarse that it is not
nutritious. In Africa, domesticated animals are attacked by tsetse flies that cause Ngana, a deadly
disease. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 37.D
• The Population Bomb is a 1968 book co-authored by former Stanford University professor Paul R.
Ehrlich. From the opening page, it predicted worldwide famines due to overpopulation, as well as other
major societal upheavals, and advocated immediate action to limit population growth. Fears of a
"population explosion" existed in the mid-20th century baby boom years, but the book and its authors
brought the idea to an even wider audience.
• The notion of sustainable development emerged in the wake of general rise in the awareness of
environmental issues in the late 1960s in Western World. It reflected the concern of people about
undesirable effects of industrial development on the environment. The publication of ‘The Population
Bomb’ by Ehrlich in 1968 further raised the level of fear among environmentalists in particular and
people in general. This sets the scenario for the emergence of new models of development under a broad
phrase ‘sustainable development.’
• Hence option (d) is the correct option.
Q 38.C
• Settlement patterns refer to the spatial arrangement of buildings, infrastructure, and people in a given area.
Different types of settlement patterns include:
• Circular Pattern:
o Houses and structures are arranged circularly or radially.
o Characteristics:
✓ Central open space or plaza.
✓ Houses are arranged around the central point.
✓ Common in traditional tribal or nomadic settlements.
• Linear Pattern:
o Settlements are arranged along a linear feature, such as a road, river, or coastline.
o Characteristics:
✓ Houses are aligned linearly.
✓ Often follows natural features or transportation routes.
✓ Common in areas with geographical constraints.
• Checkerboard Pattern:
o Grid-like arrangement of houses and streets, forming a checkerboard pattern.
o Characteristics:
✓ Regular, orthogonal layout.
✓ Streets intersect at right angles.
✓ Common in planned urban areas or newly developed regions.
• Cross-shaped Pattern:
o Settlements are arranged in the shape of a cross.
o Characteristics:
✓ Houses and structures form a cross-configuration.
✓ Crossroads at the intersection of major streets. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Common in historical or religiously significant areas.
o Rectangular Pattern:
✓ Regular arrangement of structures in a rectangular grid.
✓ Characteristics:
▪ Streets forming right angles.
▪ Often associated with planned urban areas.
▪ Facilitates efficient land use.
• Clustered Pattern:
o Houses and structures are grouped closely together.
o Characteristics:
✓ Irregular arrangement with clusters of buildings.
✓ Encourages social interaction and community bonding.
✓ Common in rural and traditional settlements.
• Irregular Pattern:
o Lack of a specific geometric arrangement, characterized by randomness.
o Characteristics:
✓ Buildings are arranged without a clear pattern.
✓ Often seen in organic growth of historical settlements.
✓ Reflects evolving and adaptive development

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Q 39.C
• Rapid urban growth is a recent phenomenon. Until recent times, few settlements reached the population
size of more than a few thousand inhabitants. The first urban settlement or city to reach a population
of one million was the city of London by around. A.D. 1810. By 1982 approximately 175 cities in the
world had crossed the one million population mark. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Presently more than 50 percent of the world’s population lives in urban settlements compared to only 3
percent in the year 1800. At present, there are more than 400 cities in the world with more than 1 million
population. Nearly 60 of them have a population exceeding 5 million. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 40.A
• In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition
of water-harvesting system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and
developed wide ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in
keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions,
people-built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture.
‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan.
In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and
semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water
to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 41.C
• Jowar is main food crop in semi-arid areas of central and southern India. According to Ministry of
agriculture and farmer welfare, Maharashtra accounts for 37.88% of total Jowar production in India.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Jowar is sown in both kharif and rabi seasons in southern states. But it is a kharif crop in northern India
where it is mostly grown as a fodder crop. South of Vindhyachal it is a rainfed crop and its yield level is
very low in this region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to recent research, Jowar exhibits greater tolerance to temperature fluctuations, resulting in
significantly less impact on its yields. Furthermore, Jowar requires only 4% more water than wheat,
making it a far more sustainable option.
• Hence option (c) is the correct option.

Q 42.D
• E Ink also known as electrophoretic ink is a specific type of E Paper display. E Paper is a broad term for
any display designed to mimic the appearance of real paper. It utilizes the same ink used in the printing
industry today and mimics the appearance of ordinary ink on paper.
• The screens work using tiny microcapsules filled with positively charged white particles and negatively
charged black ones suspended in fluid inside the display. As the pigments in the e-ink are oriented in
two directions, it limits the color diversity that people expect. Thus less preferable for animations
and videos. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Unlike LCD and LED displays that use a backlight, E Ink displays reflect light just like paper. This
makes them easier on the eyes for long reading sessions. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 43.C
• Bajra
o Bajra is sown in hot and dry climatic conditions in northwestern and western parts of the country.
o It is a hardy crop which resists frequent dry spells and drought in this region. It is cultivated alone as
well as part of mixed cropping.
o This coarse cereal occupies about 5.2 per cent of total cropped area in the country.
o Leading producers of bajra are the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and
Haryana. Being a rainfed crop, the yield level of this crop is low in Rajasthan and fluctuates a lot from
year to year.
o The yield of this crop has increased during recent years in Haryana and Gujarat due to introduction of
drought-resistant varieties and expansion of irrigation under it.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

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Q 44.A
• Latitude is the angular distance of a point on the earth’s surface, measured in degrees from the centre of
the earth. As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of a degree of latitude at the
pole is a little longer than that at the equator. For example at the equator (0°) it is 68.704 miles, at 45° it is
69.054 miles and at the poles it is 69.407 miles. The average is taken as 69 miles (111km). Hence
statement I is correct.
• The Earth is not a perfect sphere, but rather an oblate spheroid, meaning it is slightly flattened at the poles
and bulging at the equator. This shape causes the linear distance of a degree of latitude to be slightly
longer at the poles than at the equator. This is due to the effect of the Earth's rotation, which causes the
equatorial region to bulge outward. As a result, a degree of latitude covers more ground at the equator
than at the poles. Hence statement II is correct explanation of assertion.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 45.D
• Industries are distributed unevenly in India because the factors affecting industrial locations are
not the same everywhere. Industries tend to concentrate in a few pockets because of certain favorable
factors. These pockets of high concentration of industries are known as industrial regions.
• Several indices are used to identify the clustering of industries, important among them are :
o The number of industrial units
o Number of industrial workers
o Quantum of power used for industrial purposes
o Total industrial output
o Value-added manufacturing
• Industrial regions have been classified into three categories: Major Industrial region is identified on the
basis of a minimum daily factory working force of 1.5 lakhs; Minor industrial region must have a
minimum working force of 25000 laborers; industrial district has a working labour force of less than
25000.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 46.A
• The speakers of major Indian languages belong to four language families, which have their sub-families
and branches or groups. These four language families are: Austric, Dravidian, Sino-Tibetan and Indo-
Aryan.

• Thus, the correct decreasing order based on the number of native speakers is:
o Indo- Aryan > Dravidian > Austric > Sino-Tibetan
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Q 47.D
• Petroleum is also called ‘black gold’ or ‘liquid gold’. It is second to coal in terms of sources of energy.
It is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways, and
aircraft. Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. It is formed when large
quantities of dead organisms, usually zooplankton and algae, are buried underneath sedimentary rock and
subjected to intense heat and pressure.
• Crude oil may be referred to as sweet if it contains relatively little sulfur (0.5%) or sour if it contains
substantial amounts of sulfur. Sweet crude requires less energy to be extracted and once extracted,
yields higher quality gasoline as well as larger quantities of it. Hence statement 1 not is correct.
• Sour crude, on the other hand, has a high level of impurities in it, namely sulfur, which must first be
removed before being processed into gas and other petroleum-based products. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.

Q 48.A
• STAR metric, developed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) in
partnership with other organizations and experts, has been expanded for use in marine areas. Hence
option (a) is the correct answer.
• It was first unveiled in 2021 for use in terrestrial areas.
• The STAR metric utilizes existing data from IUCN Red List of Threatened Species to quantify
extinction risks and threats faced by species.
• STAR assesses the potential of specific actions at specific locations to contribute to international
conservation targets.
• STAR estimates the contribution of two kinds of action – threat abatement and habitat restoration.

Q 49.A
• Primitive subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics,
especially in Africa, south and central America and south east Asia. The vegetation is usually cleared by
fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn
agriculture. It is prevalent in tropical region in different names, e.g. Jhuming in North eastern states of
India, Milpa in central America and Mexico and Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 50.C
• Patterns of Population Density:
o Uneven Distribution: 90% of the world's population resides in only 10% of its landmass, highlighting
significant spatial variation.
o Clustered Settlements: Populations tend to concentrate in areas offering favorable conditions for
survival, resource availability, and economic opportunities, forming clusters that vary in size
and density.
o Sparsely Populated Areas: Conversely, regions with harsh environments, limited resources, or
challenging geographical features (polar regions, deserts, high mountains) have lower population
densities.
o Global Distribution Variations: Asia holds the largest share (more than 60%) of the global population,
with significant contributions from China, India, Indonesia, Bangladesh, and Pakistan. Europe and
Africa follow, then North America and South America.
o Regional Clusters: Eastern and Southern Asia, Southeast Asia, Northern Europe, Eastern North
America, and East Africa exhibit high population densities due to favorable moderate climate
and abundant mineral resources for industrial development which provides ample employment
opportunities. Cities like Mumbai, Johannesburg, Beijing, Kuala Lumpur, Dhaka, New York,
London, etc are densely populated. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q 51.A
• From 1948 to 1994, the GATT provided the rules for much of world trade and presided over periods that
saw some of the highest growth rates in international commerce. It seemed well-established but
throughout those 47 years, it was a provisional agreement and organization. In 1994 it was decided by the
member countries to set up a permanent institution for looking after the promotion of free and fair trade
among nations and the GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organisation from 1st January 1995.
The WTO’s creation on 1 January 1995 marked the biggest reform of international trade since the end of

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 the Second World War. Whereas the GATT mainly dealt with trade in goods, the WTO and its
agreements also cover trade in services and intellectual property. The birth of the WTO also created new
procedures for the settlement of disputes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental
Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi
Arabia and Venezuela. The five Founding Members were later joined by: Qatar (1961) – terminated its
membership in January 2019; Indonesia (1962) – suspended its membership in January 2009, reactivated
it in January 2016, but decided to suspend it again in November 2016; Libya (1962); United Arab
Emirates (1967); Algeria (1969); Nigeria (1971); Ecuador (1973) – suspended its membership in
December 1992, reactivated it in October 2007, but decided to withdraw its membership effective 1
January 2020; Angola (2007) – withdrew its membership effective 1 January 2024; Gabon (1975) -
terminated its membership in January 1995 but rejoined in July 2016; Equatorial Guinea (2017); and
Congo (2018). OPEC had its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in the first five years of its existence.
This was moved to Vienna, Austria, on September 1, 1965. OPEC's objective is to co-ordinate and unify
petroleum policies among Member Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum
producers; an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and a fair return
on capital to those investing in the industry. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 52.A
• The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A
population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the
population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage
of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
• A triangular-shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries. These have
larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates.

• A population pyramid with a wide base indicates a higher proportion of young individuals in the
population. This suggests a high birth rate, which can contribute to a larger labor force in the future.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A large population of young individuals implies a potential for a significant workforce, which, if
utilized effectively, can contribute to economic growth. Young individuals entering the workforce
can lead to increased productivity, innovation, and overall economic development. Hence, statement
2 is correct and it correctly explains statement 1.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.’

Q 53.D
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024 amends the Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act 1974. Currently, the Water Amendment Act 2024 will apply to Himachal
Pradesh, Rajasthan (both passed resolutions to amend the Act), and the Union territories.
• The Act earlier states the chairman of the State Pollution Control Board will be nominated by the
State government. However, with the passage of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Amendment Act, 2024 of The central government will prescribe the manner of nomination and the
terms and conditions of service of the chairman of SPCB. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
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 • The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024 specifies that the head of a
department will be required to pay a penalty equal to one month of their basic salary if the department
violates any provision of the Act. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Act allows the central government to appoint adjudication officers to determine penalties
under the Act. Appeals against orders passed by the adjudicating officer may be made before the
National Green Tribunal, after depositing 10% of the penalty levied. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 54.B
• Major human races of the world based on scientific classification:
• Caucasoid:
o Origin: Originally described as the "white" race. It is historically linked to European and Western
Asian populations.
o Characteristics: Light skin color, straight or wavy hair, narrow facial features. Hence option (b) is the
correct answer.
• Negroid:
o Origin: Coined to describe people with dark skin. It is often associated with people of African
descent.
o Characteristics: Dark skin color, tightly curled hair, broad facial features.
• Mongoloid:
o Origin: Referring to people from East Asia and Native Americans.
o Characteristics: Epicanthic eye folds, straight black hair, yellow-brown skin.
• Australoid:
o Origin: Applied to indigenous peoples of Australia, Melanesia, and Southeast Asia.
o Characteristics: Dark skin, curly hair, distinctive facial features.
• Capoid (Bushmen and Hottentots):
o Origin: Originally used to describe certain Southern African groups.
o Characteristics: Variable skin tones, prominent cheekbones, distinctive facial features.

Q 55.B
• An isthmus is a narrow strip of land that connects two larger landmasses and separates two bodies of
water. The Kra Isthmus located in Thailand marks the narrowest stretch of land on the Malay
Peninsula, bordered by the Andaman Sea to the west and the Gulf of Thailand to the east. This
geographical feature has gained significance owing to proposed plans for a transit route, aiming to connect
the Andaman Sea and the Gulf of Thailand. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• With a width of merely 44 kilometers at its narrowest point, the isthmus holds the potential to influence
international trade and security, similarly to the historical significance of the Suez and Panama Canals.
Recently, the Thai Prime Minister unveiled a multi-billion-dollar land-bridge project in this region.
Q 56.D
• Recently, Gupteswar Forest in Odisha’s Koraput district has been declared as the fourth
Biodiversity-Heritage Site (BHS) of the state.
• It is spread over 350 hectares of demarcated area and located adjacent to Gupteswar Shiva temple (a
natural limestone cave shrine).
• It is situated in the southernmost region of Odisha and a part of Eastern Ghats.
• It holds immense cultural significance due to its sacred groves, traditionally revered by the local
community for generations and rich biodiversity.
• It is bestowed with a wide range of flora and fauna.
• Key faunal species are Mugger crocodile, Kanger valley rock gecko, and Avifauna like common hill
myna, White-bellied Woodpecker, and Banded Bay Cuckoo, etc.
• Key floral species are Indian trumpet tree, Indian snakeroot, Cumbi gum tree, Garlic pear tree, etc.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 57.B
• An oil refinery, also known as a petroleum refinery, transforms crude oil into essential fuels like
gasoline and diesel, along with by-products such as asphalt and liquefied petroleum gas. It also produces
crucial petrochemical feedstocks like ethylene and propylene.
• This process directly derives commodities from crude oil, eliminating the need for refining specific
products. Before entering the refinery, crude oil undergoes initial processing in an oil production plant.
Nearby oil depots play a crucial role in storing incoming feedstock, highlighting their pivotal role in
meeting global energy needs.
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 • Tatipaka refinery is situated in Andhra Pradesh. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Paradip refinery is situated in the Orisa. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Koyali refinery, positioned in Gujarat. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Bongaigaon refinery, nestled in Assam. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

• These refineries collectively contribute to India's energy security and economic development by refining
crude oil into various essential products for domestic consumption and export.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 58.D
• The European Union launches ‘Mission Aspides' to protect Red Sea vessels from Iran-backed
Houthi attacks.
• It aims to preserve freedom of navigation, provide maritime situational awareness, accompany ships and
protect them from possible multimodal attacks at sea.
• It's area of operation will include “Bab Al Mandeb'' and Strait of Hormuz, as well as international
waters in Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, Arabian Sea, Gulf of Oman and Arabian Gulf.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
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Q 59.B
• The Trans–continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends. They were constructed for
economic and political reasons to facilitate long runs in different directions. The Trans-Siberian Railway
lies in Russia. It is the longest railway route in the world at present. The total length of this railway is
9,332 km. It connects St. Petersburg (Europe) to Vladivostok (Asia) across Russia. Hence pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• The Trans-Canadian Railway links Vancouver to Halifax spanning the width of Canada. This railway line
is the economic artery of Canada through which wheat and meat are exported. Hence pair 2 is correctly
matched.
• The Union and Pacific Railways link New York City on the Atlantic coast to San Francisco on the Pacific
coast of North America. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Australian Trans-continental Railway runs west-east across the southern part of the continent from Perth
on the west coast, to Sydney on the east coast.
• The Orient Express runs from Paris to Istanbul, providing a rail link across Europe. The journey time from
London to Istanbul by this Express is now reduced to 96 hours as against 10 days by sea route. Hence
pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Q 60.D
• The railway system in Africa is concentrated mostly in South Africa due to the concentration of gold,
diamond, and copper mining activities. The important routes of the continent are (i)the Benguela Railway
through Angola to Katanga-Zambia Copper Belt; (ii) the Tanzania Railway from the Zambian Copper
Belt to Dar-es-Salaam on the coast; (iii) the Railway through Botswana and Zimbabwe linking the
landlocked states to the South African network; and (iv) the Blue Train from Cape Town to Pretoria in
the Republic of South Africa. Elsewhere, as in Algeria, Senegal, Nigeria, Kenya, and Ethiopia, railway
lines connect port cities to interior centers but do not form a good network with other countries. In 1997 a
new Blue Train was introduced and its traditional route between Cape Town and Pretoria was extended
northwards to the Victoria Falls. In the following year a second identical train came into service, allowing
The Blue Train to add to its destinations Hoedspruit on the western edge of the Kruger National Park, and
Port Elizabeth at the eastern end of South Africa’s Garden Route. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Orient Express runs from Paris to Istanbul passing through Strasbourg, Munich, Vienna,
Budapest, and Belgrade. The journey time from London to Istanbul by this Express is now reduced to 96
hours as against 10 days by the sea route. The chief exports on this rail route are cheese, bacon, oats,
wine, fruits, and machinery. There is a proposal to build a Trans–Asiatic Railway linking Istanbul with
Bangkok via Iran, Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 61.C
• Crude petroleum, comprising hydrocarbons in both liquid and gaseous states, originates primarily
within sedimentary rock basins of marine origin. It is noteworthy that not all sedimentary rocks
contain deposits of mineral oil. In terms of potential reserves, specific regions have been identified.
These include the Terai zone, which runs parallel to the Himalayas from Jammu and Kashmir to
Assam. Additionally, the river basins of Ganga, Satluj, and others, encompassing deltaic tracts of
Ganga, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri, are considered potential reservoirs.
• The continental shelf along the Western Coast, including the Gulf of Cambay, as well as the islands in
the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal, are also recognized for their petroleum potential.
Furthermore, recent discoveries in exploratory wells within the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins on
the east coast add to the growing understanding of potential petroleum reserves in these regions.
• A network of vital pipelines plays a crucial role in facilitating the transportation of petroleum products
across India. These are Naharkatia- Nunmati – Barauni Pipeline, Mumbai High – Mumbai – Ankaleshwar
– Kayoli Pipeline, Salaya- Koyali – Mathura Pipeline Hajira – Bijapur – Jagdishpur (HBJ) Gas Pipeline,
Jamnagar – Loni LPG Pipeline Kandla – Bhatinda Pipeline.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 62.A
• The National Ayush Mission strives to focus on developing, educating, and propagating India’s traditional
medical systems like Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy (AYUSH).
Hence statement 1 is correct.

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 • Sowa Rigpa has not been included in the National Ayush Mission. Recently the parliamentary committee
on Health and Family Welfare recommended the inclusion of Sowa Rigpa in the National Ayush
Mission. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• National Ayush Mission is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Ayush in September
2014. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 63.A
• The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large area of urban
development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns or cities. Greater London,
Manchester, Chicago and Tokyo are examples. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• In most cases, a conurbation is a polycentric urbanised area in which transportation has developed to link
areas. They create a single urban labour market or travel to work area.
• Patrick Geddes coined the term in his book Cities In Evolution (1915). He drew attention to the ability of
the new technology at the time of electric power and motorised transport to allow cities to spread and
agglomerate together.

Q 64.B
• Welafre approach consider human as the centre of all development and considers that people are not
participants of development but are the recipients. It argues that government must spend more on civic
facilities like education, health and other amenities to ensure human development.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 65.D
• Rail Transport:
o Indian Railways, network is one of the longest in the world. It is the fourth largest in the world in
terms of the network after America(2,50,000 km), China(1,00,000 km), and Russia(85,000
km). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the
economy.
o Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering
a distance of 34 km.
o Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of the Indian
Railways network was 67,956 km (2019-20).
• On the basis of the width of the track of the Indian Railways, three categories have been made:
o Broad gauge:
✓ The distance between rails in broad gauge is 1.676 metres. The total length of broad gauge lines
was 63950 km (2019-20). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
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 o Metre gauge:
✓ The distance between rails is one metre. Its total length was 2402 km (2019-20).
o Narrow gauge:
✓ The distance between the rails in this case is 0.762 metres or 0.610 metres. The total length of the
narrow gauge was 1604 km (2019-20). It is generally confined to hilly areas.
• Indian Railways has launched an extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad
gauge.

Q 66.D
• Distribution of Minerals in India:
o Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline
rocks. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Over 97 percent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi, and
Godavari. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat, and Mumbai High i.e.
off-shore region in the Arabian Sea.
o New reserves have been located in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins.
o Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangaluru and Kanpur.
o Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. There may be some sporadic
occurrences here and there in isolated pockets. These belts are
✓ The North-Eastern Plateau Region
✓ The South-Western Plateau Region
✓ The North-Western Region
Q 67.C
• Methane Hydrate is a cage-like lattice of ice inside of which are trapped molecules of methane, the
chief constituent of natural gas. It is found in a sea-bed that forms at low temperatures and high
pressure. It is also found in onshore deposits in the permafrost of northern Canada and Russia. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Heating the deposits or lowering the pressure will release gas from the solid. One liter of solid
hydrate releases around 165 liters of gas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India has some of the biggest methane hydrate reserves in the world. These are tentatively estimated
at 1,890 trillion cubic meters. An Indo-US scientific joint venture in 2006 explored four
areas: the Kerala-Konkan basin, the Krishna-Godavari basin, the Mahanadi basin, and the seas off the
Andaman Islands (figure 13). The deposits in the Krishna Godavari basin turned out to be among the
richest and biggest in the world. The Andamans yielded the thickest-ever deposits 600 meters below
the seabed in volcanic ash sediments. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 68.B
• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistical measure used to assess and rank countries
based on their social and economic development. It was introduced by the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) in 1990 as an alternative to purely economic measures like GDP (Gross Domestic
Product) per capita. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a key component of the Human
Development Report (HDR), which is published annually by the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The HDI takes into account three key dimensions of human development:
o Health: Measured by life expectancy at birth.
o Education: Measured by mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and older, as well as
expected years of schooling for children entering school.
o Standard of living: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for purchasing
power parity (PPP).

• Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Each dimension is assigned a normalized score between 0 and 1, and the overall HDI is the
geometric mean of these three scores. The HDI ranges from 0 (lowest human development) to 1
(highest human development). The index provides a more comprehensive picture of a country's
development than traditional economic indicators alone. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 69.C
• Depending on geographical factors, and technological development, animal rearing today is practised
either at the subsistence or at the commercial level.
• Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on
animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools, and transport. They move from one place to another along with
their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
• Pastoral nomadism is associated with three important regions. The core region extends from the Atlantic
shores of North Africa eastward across the Arabian Peninsula into Mongolia and Central China. The
second region extends over the tundra region of Eurasia. In the southern hemisphere, there are small areas
in Southwest Africa and on the island of Madagascar. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• Option 4 is not correct as regions of the Amazon basin and tropical Africa are associated with hunting
and gathering practices.

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Q 70.D
• The PFRDA notified the National Pension System Trust (Second Amendment) Regulations 2023 and
Pension Fund (Amendment) Regulations 2023.
• The amendments are in line with the Union Budget 2023-24 announcements to review regulations. The
objective of the regulations is establishing, developing, and regulating pension funds and protecting the
interests of subscribers.
• Pension Fund (Amendment) Regulations 2023 mandates the sponsor of a pension fund shall
incorporate a pension fund as a company under the Companies Act, 2013. They shall have the
name ‘Pension Fund’ incorporated in its name clause. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The amendments require increased disclosure by Pension Funds, which could involve providing
subscribers with more transparent information about their investments and performance
• Trustee Bank as an intermediary provides day to day banking of the funds and banking facilities in
accordance with the provisions of the guidelines and directions issued by PFRDA.
• When a Trustee Bank proposes to change its status or constitution, it shall obtain prior approval of the
PFRDA. The service levels of Trustee banks are monitored by NPS Trust. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.

Q 71.D
• Trends in Population Growth:
o Historical Trends: The global population has grown exponentially, exceeding 8 billion in 2023.
o Global Projections: Current estimates by UNFPA suggest the world population could reach 9.7 billion
by 2050 and may stabilize later this century.
o Regional Variations: Population growth is expected to be concentrated in Africa and parts of Asia,
while some developed countries may experience population decline.
o Demographic Transition: Developed countries have undergone a transition from high birth and
death rates to low birth and death rates, resulting in slower population growth. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
o Developing Countries: Many developing nations are still in the early stages of demographic
transition, experiencing faster population growth due to high birth rates.
o Fertility Rates: Declining fertility rates due to factors like education, urbanization, and improved
healthcare contribute to population stabilization in some regions.

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 o As per the UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund), the world population in 2023 was 8045 million
of 8.04 billion. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 72.D
• The ‘Status of Leopards in India, 2022’ Report is published by the National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) and Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in collaboration with State Forest
Departments.
• The Fifth cycle leopard population estimation (2022) was carried out as part of the quadrennial
“Monitoring of Tiger, Co-predators, prey and their habitat” exercise in tiger range States. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• Madhya Pradesh houses the largest population of leopards followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka,
and Tamil Nadu. Central India and Eastern Ghats registered the largest growth, while Shivaliks and
Gangetic plains registered a decline in the leopard population. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (Andhra Pradesh) had the maximum number of
Leopards followed by Panna Tiger Reserve and Satpura Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh). Hence
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 73.A
• The Azov Sea is located between Russia and Ukraine. It is connected to the larger Black Sea by the Strait
of Kerch. The region has been in the news frequently due to tensions between Russia and Ukraine over
control of the sea, particularly after Russia annexed Crimea in 2014. The Crimean Peninsula serves as a
land bridge between the Black Sea and the Azov Sea. Turkey and Greece: The sea between Turkey and
Greece is the Aegean Sea, not the Azov Sea.

• The sea to the north of Turkey and bordering Georgia is the Black Sea. Azerbaijan and Armenia do not
share a common sea. However, Azerbaijan has a coastline along the Caspian Sea to the east, while
Armenia is a landlocked country.

Q 74.B
• Launched by the UN ESCAP, the SDG Progress Report provides an overview of current progress
towards the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their 169 targets in the Asia-Pacific region.
• It highlights success stories and trends, and the unique challenges faced in the different parts of the
region. At the current pace, the region will not achieve all 17 SDGs before 2062 (32-year delay). The
COVID-19 pandemic has erased much of the progress made since 2015. Most substantial progress was
seen in SDG 1 and SDG 9. However Urgent action is needed for SDG 8 and SDG 12.
• Since 2015, landlocked developing countries (LLDCs), registered 13 % Progress towards the
SDGs. However, least developed countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS) lag with
11.5 % and 5.9 % progress, respectively.
• SDG 2 : SDG 2 is about creating a world free of hunger by 2030.The global issue of hunger and food
insecurity has shown an alarming increase since 2015, a trend exacerbated by a combination of factors
including the pandemic, conflict, climate change, and deepening inequalities. Hence pair 1 is correctly
matched.
• SDG 4: SDG 4 has 10 targets encompassing many different aspects of education. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched
• SDG 6: Achieve universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking water for all by 2030 and
achieve access to adequate and equitable sanitation and hygiene for all and end open defecation, paying
special attention to the needs of women and girls and those in vulnerable situations by 2030. Hence pair 3
is not correctly matched

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 • SDG 7: SDG 7 is about ensuring access to clean and affordable energy, which is key to the development
of agriculture, business, communications, education, healthcare and transportation. Hence pair 4 is
correctly matched

Q 75.D
• The proportion of the literate population of a country is an indicator of its socio-economic development
as it reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities, and
policies of the government. The level of economic development is both a cause and a consequence of
literacy. In India – the literacy rate denotes the percentage of the population above 7 years of age,
who can read, write, and have the ability to do arithmetic calculations with understanding. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• As per the Census of India 2011, the literacy rate in India is 74.04% while the female literacy rate is
65.46%. Among Indian states and UTs Kerala has the highest overall and female literacy rate at
93.91 and 91.98 % respectively. The lowest literacy rate in India was observed in Bihar (63.82%) while
Rajasthan has the lowest female literacy rate at 52.66%. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 76.B
• Haifa is principal port of the Israel and it lies along the Bay of Haifa overlooking the Mediterranean Sea.
The Port of Haifa is the second largest port in Israel in terms of shipping containers and the biggest in
shipping tourist cruise ships. It is in news recently due to its acquisition by Adani group of India. It is a
also key component in the India-Middle East-Europe economic corridor launched during G20 summit
held in India.

• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 77.C
• BAMBOO DRIP IRRIGATION SYSTEM:
o In Meghalaya, a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes, is
prevalent.
o About 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system, gets transported over hundreds of metres,
and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.
o Hence option(c) is the correct answer.

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Q 78.A
• Recently, five new members namely Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab
Emirates have joined BRICS as full time permanent members.
• BRICS nations comprising 40% of the world's population have surpassed the G7 countries in terms of
purchasing power parity. BRICS has surpassed the Group of Seven in purchasing power parity,
accounting for 35.6% of global GDP, while the G7 accounts for 30.3%.Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Argentina was among six countries that were granted membership in BRICS during its annual
summit held in South Africa
• However With BRICS emerging as a rival to the G7 comprising primarily the US and other major
developed nations of the West, Argentina decided to withdraw its membership from BRICS. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• Inclusion of three Middle East energy giants - Saudi Arabia, the UAE, and Iran constitutes 42% of the
world's oil supply. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 79.B
• In India, there are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements
in India. These include: (i) physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water
(ii) cultural and ethenic factors – social structure, caste and religion (iii) security factors – defence against
thefts and robberies. Rural settlements in India can broadly be put into four types:
• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up
area of houses. In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding
farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable
pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc.
o Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states.
Sometimes, people live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the
Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has
necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.
• Semi-clustered or fragmented: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of
clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from
segregation or fragmentation of a large compact village. In this case, one or more sections of the village
society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. In such cases, generally,
the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of
lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village. Such settlements are
widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.
• Hamleted: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each
other bearing a common name. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in
various parts of the country. This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and
ethnic factors. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain,
Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas.

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 • Dispersed or isolated: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated
huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes.
Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land
resource base of habitable areas. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala
have this type of settlement.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 80.A
• Recently, the Prime Minister laid the foundation stone for the Maa Kamakhya Access Corridor in
Assam.It aims to boost tourism in the region by improving the ease of access and comfort for the
devotees.
• It is designed on similar lines of Kashi (U.P) and Mahakal (M.P) corridors. The project was sanctioned
under the Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North Eastern Region (PM-DevINE) scheme. PM-
DevINE is a Central Sector Scheme, launched during Union Budget 2022-23.
• Maa Kamakhya Temple One of the Maha Shakti Peeths in India. It is Dedicated to Maa Kamakhaya
/Kameswari (referred to as Goddess of desire).
• It was Reconstructed in 1562 at the behest of Naranarayan (King of Koch dynasty) as the former temple
was destroyed by Kala Pahar. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Finds mention in the inscription of the Allahabad pillar of Samudragupta. It is Dedicated to different
forms of Mother Shakti, namely Sundari, Tripura, Tara, Bhuvaneshvari, Bagalamukhi and
Chinnamasta.
• It is constructed in Nilachal Style of architecture which was used in the reconstruction of the temple. It is
a combination of two different styles namely, the nagara style (North Indian) and Saracenic style
(Mughal). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• A week-long fertility festival called Ambubachi Mela is held every June in the temple complex. It is
celebrated during the monsoon season that happens to fall during the Assamese month Ahaar, around the
middle of June. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 81.B
• North Atlantic Sea Route links North-eastern U.S.A. and Northwestern Europe, the two industrially
developed regions of the world. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the
world combined. One-fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route. It is, therefore, the busiest
in the world and is otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route.
• The Cape of Good Hope sea route spans across the Atlantic Ocean and connects West European and West
African countries with Brazil, Argentina, and Uruguay in South America.
• Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The South Pacific Sea route connects Western Europe and North America with Australia, New Zealand,
and the scattered Pacific islands via the Panama Canal. This route is also used for reaching Hong Kong,
the Philippines, and Indonesia. Honolulu is an important port on this route.
• The Panama Canal serves as a maritime shortcut that saves time and costs in transporting all kinds of
goods. The 80-kilometer waterway communicates the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans at one of the narrowest
points of the American Continent. Since its opening in 1914, more than one million ships from all over the
world have transited the Canal. At noon on December 31, 1999, Panama took over the full operation,
administration, and maintenance of the Canal, in compliance with the Torrijos-Carter Treaties negotiated
with the United States in 1977. The waterway is now managed by the Panama Canal Authority (ACP for
its Spanish acronym), an autonomous government entity.

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 • Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 82.A
• India stands second as a world producer of sugar but occupies the first place in the production of gur and
khandsari. The raw material used in this industry is bulky, and in haulage its sucrose content reduces. The
mills are located in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat,
Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh. Sixty per cent mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. This industry
is seasonal in nature so, it is ideally suited to the cooperative sector.
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 • In recent years, there is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and
western states, especially in Maharashtra. Reasons being:
o The tropical climate of Peninsular India results in higher yield per unit hectare of land.
o Higher sucrose content in peninsular cane
o Long crushing season in south. In North India, it lasts from November to February (4 months); while
in South it lasts from October to May or even June (nearly 8 months)
o The mills in peninsular India are larger. Though Uttar Pradesh has more sugar mills than Maharashtra
yet Maharashtra’s sugar mills are larger in size & Capacity. Further, the mills in cooperative sector
in south are better managed.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 83.A
• Manganese
o Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing
ferro alloys. Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly
associated with Dharwar system. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of
the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi
and Bolangir.
o Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi,
North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru.
o The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and
Jhabua districts.
o Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

Q 84.C
• The Climate and Clean Air Coalition's (CCAC) annual meeting, the Climate and Clean Air
Conference, recently took place in Nairobi, Kenya. The conference was held on the margins of the Sixth
Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA 6).
• It is the only global alliance dedicated exclusively to the reduction of short-lived climate pollutants
(SLCPs). It was Founded in 2012 and convened within the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP). Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) provides secretariat functions of the Global Methane
Pledge (GMP), and the coordination group of the Lowering Organic Waste Methane Initiative. GMP
was launched at COP26 by the European Union and the United States with the aim to reduce global
methane emissions by at least 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 85.B
• Population growth or population change refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a
territory during a specific period. This change may be positive as well as negative. It can be expressed
either in terms of absolute numbers or in terms of percentages. Population change in an area is an
important indicator of economic development, social upliftment, and the historical and cultural
background of the region.
• The natural growth rate of a population, often referred to as the natural increase or natural rate of
increase, is the difference between the birth rate and the death rate in a given population. It is
expressed as a percentage and indicates the rate at which a population is growing or declining
without accounting for migration.
• Key components of the Natural growth rate of the population:
o Crude Birth Rate: The number of live births per 1,000 people in a population over a specified
period.
o Crude Death Rate: The number of deaths per 1,000 people in a population over a specified period.
o Natural Growth Rate = Crude Birth Rate – Crude Death Rate
• If the birth rate exceeds the death rate, the natural growth rate is positive, indicating population growth.
• If the death rate exceeds the birth rate, the natural growth rate is negative, indicating population decline.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Q 86.D
• Census of India classifies urban centres into six classes. Urban centre with population of more than one
lakh is called a city or class I town. Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are
called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities. Majority of metropolitan and mega
cities are urban agglomerations.
• An urban agglomeration may consist of any one of the following three combinations:
o a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths, Hence statement 1 is correct
o two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and Hence statement 2 is correct
o a city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
• As per census 2011, more than 60 per cent of urban population in India lives in Class I towns. Out of 468
cities, 53 cities/ urban agglomerations are metropolitan cities. Six of them are mega cities with population
over five million each. More than one-fifth (21.0%) of urban population lives in these mega
cities. Among them, Greater Mumbai is the largest agglomeration with 18.4 million people. Delhi,
Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru and Hyderabad are other mega cities in the country.

Q 87.C
• Migration: Apart from birth and death there is another way by which the population size changes. When
people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin, and
the place they move to is called the Place of Destination. The place of origin shows a decrease in
population while the population increases in the place of destination. Migration may be interpreted as a
spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources.
• People migrate for a better economic and social life. There are two sets of factors that influence
migration. The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like
unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters,
epidemics, and socio-economic backwardness.
• The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for
reasons like better job opportunities, higher wages and living conditions, peace and stability,
security of life and property, and pleasant climate.
• Hence, 1,2,3 &4 are the push factors while 5 is a pull factor.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 88.A
• Atal Tunnel:
o Location:
✓ The Atal Tunnel is located in the northern Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.
✓ It passes through the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.
o Connection:
✓ The tunnel connects Manali to the Lahaul-Spiti Valley region in Himachal Pradesh. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
o Length:
✓ Atal Tunnel holds the distinction of being the world's longest highway tunnel at the time of its
inauguration.
✓ It spans a length of approximately 9.02 kilometers (5.6 miles) under the Rohtang Pass.
o Construction:
✓ The construction of the tunnel was a monumental engineering feat undertaken by the Border
Roads Organisation (BRO).
✓ It was named after former Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, who inaugurated the
project in 2000.
o Importance:
✓ Strategic Importance: The tunnel holds immense strategic significance for India as it provides
all-weather connectivity to the remote Lahaul-Spiti valley, which remains cut off from the rest of
the country during the winter months due to heavy snowfall and the closure of mountain passes
like the Rohtang Pass.
✓ Tourism and Economy: The tunnel has greatly boosted tourism and economic activities in the
region by facilitating easier and quicker access to popular tourist destinations like Leh-Ladakh
and the Lahaul-Spiti Valley. It has also improved connectivity for residents, enabling better
access to healthcare, education, and markets

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 • Other important Tunnels:
o Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) T-49 Tunnel: This 12.75 km long tunnel in
Jammu and Kashmir is the longest tunnel on the Indian Railways network and was completed in
2022. It connects Katra to Banihal and is part of a larger project to improve connectivity between
Jammu and Kashmir and the rest of India.
o Zojila Pass Tunnel: This 14.2 km long tunnel under construction in Jammu and Kashmir will provide
all-weather connectivity between Srinagar and Leh. It is expected to be completed in 2026 and will
be the longest road tunnel in Asia.
o Sela Tunnel: This 4.14 km long tunnel in Arunachal Pradesh provides an alternative route to the
Sela Pass, which is often closed due to snowfall. It was inaugurated in 2017 and has
significantly improved connectivity between the state capital Itanagar and Tawang.
o Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Rohtang Tunnel): This 5.4 km long tunnel in Himachal
Pradesh reduces travel time between Manali and Leh by 4-5 hours. It was inaugurated in 2018 and
is an alternative route to the Rohtang Pass.

Q 89.B
• According to the National Family Health Survey-5:
• Migration Trends:
o Overall Increase: Overall internal migration in India showed an increase from 31% in NFHS-4 (2015-
16) to 37% in NFHS-5 (2019-21). Hence statement 1 is corerct.
o Rural to Urban: The dominant migration pattern remains rural to urban, with 21% of women and 24%
of men migrating from rural to urban areas.
o State Variations: Inter-state migration is higher in southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu,
while intra-state migration dominates in states like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. Hence statements
2 is not correct.
o Distance: Most migration distances are short, with 46% of migrants moving within the same district
and 35% within the same state.
o Motivations: Primary reasons for migration include seeking better education (29%), employment
opportunities (24%), and marriage (21%).
• Demographic Characteristics:
o Age: Young adults aged 15-29 make up the majority of migrants (60%). Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o Women: The proportion of female migrants has increased from 48% in NFHS-4 to 49% in NFHS-5,
indicating closing gender gap in migration.
o Education: Migrants generally have higher education levels compared to their non-migrant
counterparts.
o Religion and Caste: Religious and caste groups exhibit varied migration patterns, with some showing
higher mobility than others.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 90.B
• Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two
points of time. Its rate is expressed in percentage.
• Population growth has two components namely; natural and induced. While the natural growth is analysed
byassessing the crude birth and death rates, the induced components are explained by the volume of
inward and outward movement of people in any given area.
• The growth rate of population in India over the last one century has been caused by annual birth rate and
death rate and rate of migration and thereby shows different trends. There are four distinct phases of
growth identified within this period:
• Phase I : The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of growth
of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low, even recording a negative growth rate
during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase low. Poor
health and medical services, illiteracy of people at large and inefficient distribution system of food and
other basic necessities were largely responsible for a high birth and death rates in this period. Hence pair
1 is correctly matched.
• Phase II : The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall
improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate. At the same
time better transport and communication system improved distribution system. The crude birth rate

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 remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate than the previous phase. This is impressive at
the backdrop of Great Economic Depression, 1920s and World War II. Hence pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
• Phase III : The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which
was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The
average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent. It is in this period, after the Independence, that
developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and economy started
showing up ensuring the improvement of living condition of people at large. Consequently, there was a
high natural increase and higher growth rate. Besides, increased international migration bringing in
Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalies and even people from Pakistan contributed to the high growth
rate. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Phase IV : In the post 1981 till present, the growth rate of country’s population though remained high,
has started slowing down gradually. A downward trend of crude birth rate is held responsible for such a
population growth. This was, in turn, affected by an increase in the mean age at marriage, improved
quality of life particularly education of females in the country. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

Q 91.C
• As the growth of rural population has outpaced the generation of employment and economic
opportunities, rural-to-urban migration has steadily increased, particularly in the developing countries,
which has put an enormous pressure on urban infrastructure and services that are already under serious
stress.
• In this context, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has outlined these priorities as
part of its ‘Urban Strategy’.
o Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
o Provision of basic urban services such as
✓ ‘Education’, ‘Primary Health care’, ‘Clean Water and Sanitation’.
✓ Improving women’s access to ‘Basic Services’ and government facilities.
✓ Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and Alternative ‘Transport’ systems.
✓ Reducing ‘Air Pollution’
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 92.D
• Recently, the 22nd Law Commission of India (LCI) submitted a report titled “A Comprehensive Review
of the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897" to the Government of India.
• In 2020, Parliament amended the Epidemic Diseases Act (EDA), 1897 in 2020. However, even the
amendments could not address gaps in the Act.
• It Does not define an 'epidemic' or an 'infectious' disease, and does not differentiate between an 'outbreak',
'epidemic' and 'pandemic'. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Act lacks specific guidelines for effective disease surveillance, quarantine process, ensuring
availability of drugs and vaccines, and disposal of Infectious waste and Corpses.
• The Act does not provide statutory power to local governments to regulate epidemic diseases. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• ‘Prevention of infection or Contagious diseases’ is in the Concurrent list both Centre and States have the
power to frame appropriate law on these subjects. However The EDA, does not specify authority which
will take precedence in case of disagreements between the States and the Centre.

Q 93.A
• Market gardening is the characteristic feature of the cool temperate western margin climate found in
Britain, and north-west Europe including regions of France, Belgium, Netherlands, Denmark, western
Norway, and northwestern Iberia. Market gardening is associated with a large urban population and all the
northwestern European countries are highly industrialized and have high population density hence
demand for fresh vegetables, green salads, eggs, meat, milk, and fruits is very high. In north-west Europe
intensive market gardening is carried out in many specialized areas such as the Vales of York and
Evesham in the United Kingdom where soil and climatic factors best suit this form of agriculture.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

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Q 94.A
• ‘Density of Population’ is defined as the number of persons per square kilometre. It is an important index
of population which shows concentration of population in a particular area. As per the provisional
population totals of Census 2011, the population density of India has gone up to 382 persons per
square kilometre from 325 persons per square kilometer in 2011. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The rate of increase in density of India has exhibited a sharp decline during 2001-2011 (17.5 per cent) as
compared to 1991-2001 (21.7 per cent).
• While the absolute increase is indeed a matter of concern, the positive feature is that the rate of increase
has slowed down and has shown a sharp decline in the last decade.
• Amongst States, Bihar has become the most densely populated state with 1102 persons/km2 and
Arunachal Pradesh the least densely populated State with 17 persons/km2 in 2011. Bihar is at the top
pushing West Bengal to second rank. Kerala and Uttar Pradesh have retained their rankings of third and
fourth respectively. Haryana on the other hand has advanced by two ranks from Rank 7 to Rank 5
replacing Punjab which has fallen by two ranks from 5 to 7. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The ranking of UTs as per Population Density remains by and large the same with the exception of
Daman & Diu and Lakshadweep who have exchanged places with each other. NCT of Delhi
continues to head the UTs, while Andaman & Nicobar Islands brings up the rear.

Q 95.D
• The term entrepôt, also called a trans-shipment port and historically referred to as a port city, is a trading
post, port, city where merchandise may be imported, stored, or traded before re-export, with no additional
processing taking place and with no customs duties imposed. In the past, entrepots enabled merchants to
utilize part of a trade route to sell their goods without having to bear the risks and costs associated with
long-distance travel over the entire route.
• The use of trade entrepôts has become largely obsolete as fast, efficient, and safe transportation options
have become increasingly cost-effective. Singapore in Asia , Rotterdam and Copenhagen in Europe are
some key examples of entrepot ports.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 96.A
• Taxus wallichiana, known as Himalayan yew, belongs to the family Taxaceae. It is a medium-sized,
temperate, Himalayan Forest tree of medicinal importance. In India, this evergreen tree is found at
altitudes between 1800 and 3300 m above mean sea level (MSL). It has been used by the native
populations for treating common cold, cough, fever, and pain. Its uses are described in Ayurveda and
Unani medicine. It received attention recently as its leaves and bark were found to be the prime source
of taxol, a potent anticancer drug. In recent years it is threatened due to over-collection to supply
domestic and foreign medicinal markets.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 97.A
• Savanna or Sudan is a transitional type of climate found between equatorial forest and trade wind hot
desert. It is confined within tropics and best developed in Sudan. The Sudan type is characterized by
alternate hot, rainy season and cool, dry season. The extreme diurnal range of temperature with local
winds like Harmattan are another key feature of this climate. The Savanna landscape is typified by tall
grasses and short trees. Due to abundance of wild animals, it is also known as big game country known
worldwide for hunting. The region is home to Masai tribes who are nomadic pastoralists who are found
along the Great Rift Valley of Kenya and Tanzania.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 98.C
• Nagarjuna Sagar- Krishna:
o Nagarjuna Sagar is indeed a hydropower project located on the Krishna River, not the Godavari. It is
located on the Krishna River in the Nalgonda district of Telangana and the Guntur district of Andhra
Pradesh, India. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Hirakud - Mahanadi:
o Hirakud is a hydropower project located on the Mahanadi River in Odisha. Hence pair 2 is correctly
matched.

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 • Naraura - Ganges:
o Naraura is a hydropower project located on the Ganges River in Uttar Pradesh. Hence pair 3 is
correctly matched.
• Mettur Dam - Kaveri:
o Mettur Dam is indeed a hydropower project located on the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu. Hence pair
4 is correctly matched.

Q 99.B
• Land Use Categories:
o Land-use records are maintained by the Land Revenue Department. The land use categories add up to
the reporting area, which is somewhat different from the geographical area. The Survey of India is
responsible for measuring the geographical area of administrative units in India.
o The difference between the two concepts is that while the former changes somewhat depending on the
estimates of the land revenue records, the latter does not change and stays fixed as per Survey of India
measurements.
• The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:
o Forests :
✓ It is important to note that the area under actual forest cover is different from the area classified as
forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest
growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition.
✓ Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
o Barren and Wastelands :
✓ The land that may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands,
ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology. Hence
pair 1 is not correctly matched.
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 o Land put to Non-agricultural Uses:
✓ Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops,
etc., are included in this category. An expansion in the secondary and tertiary activities would
lead to an increase in this category of land use.
o Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands
✓ Most of this type of land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small
proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned by the village panchayat comes under
‘Common Property Resources’.
✓ Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included in Net sown Area) :
✓ The land under orchards and fruit trees is included in this category. Much of this land is privately
owned.
o Culturable Wasteland:
✓ Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this category.
It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
o Current Fallow:
✓ This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year.
Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility
through natural processes. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Fallow other than Current Fallow:
✓ This is also a cultivable land that is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years.
If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorized as a culturable
wasteland.
o Net Area Sown:
✓ The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 100.D
• Methane has spectral absorption bands overlapping with other atmospheric constituents,
particularly water vapor. Differentiating the spectral signatures of methane from those of other
gasses can be challenging, especially in humid environments.
• Satellites might miss methane emissions from regions that are frequently cloudy. Since, methane has
a relatively short atmospheric lifetime, which means its concentrations can vary rapidly in time and space.
Hence Statement I is not correct.
• Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of natural gas. It is also a potent
greenhouse gas (GHG) responsible for approximately a third of the warming being experienced today.
• It is a powerful and short-lived (GHG), with a lifetime of about a decade and a Global Warming
Potential about 80 times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) during the 20 years after it is
released into the atmosphere (IPCC). Hence Statement II is correct.

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