Midterm 1

(75% Organization + 25% Workplace & People)

You have 2 hours 30 minutes to complete this test.

1. What is the primary reason for conducting an HR audit?

a. To increase job satisfaction of the HR team

b. To determine staffing needs of the HR team
c. To enhance or eliminate HR programs
d. To enhance the skills of the HR team

2. How has the HR professional role evolved?

a. From strategic to operational

b. From operational to strategic
c. From administrative to operational
d. From operational to administrative

3. An organization is concerned that its current approach to onboarding is not supporting their
diversity and inclusion goals. What type of audit could help the organization set specific targets
for improvement?

a. Strategic
b. Compliance
c. Onboarding function
d. Best practices

4. Which activity is considered a strategic HR responsibility?

a. Ensuring that transactional tasks are processed correctly

b. Recommending outsourcing opportunities to reduce an organization’s overhead costs
c. Establishing common goals of an organization’s core business functions
d. Identifying enhancements to an HRIS

5. An organization’s HR department receives pressure from multiple different areas in the

organization. Which HR structural alternative would work best for this organization?

a. Centralized
b. Center of excellence
c. Global resources

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 d. Matrix

6. Which task should HR consider for outsourcing?

a. Long-range HR strategic planning

b. Benefits management and administration
c. Attendance at disciplinary meetings
d. Design of management compensation

7. Which function has the highest potential to increase future revenue?

a. Operations
b. Marketing and sales
c. Research and development
d. Information technology

8. The chief financial officer is primarily responsible for which two functions?

a. Accounting and Human Resources

b. Human Resources and Information Technology
c. Accounting and Risk Management
d. Accounting and Finance

9. What is the primary function of executive management?

a. Implement strategy
b. Serve as the primary interface with the organization’s stakeholders
c. Lead the organization through a shared vision and the values
d. Manage core business functions and their effect on the organization’s performance

10. What core business function is best suited in identifying competitive threats and revenue
producing opportunities for a SWOT analysis?

a. Information Technology
b. Research and Development
c. Marketing and Sales
d. Business Operations

11. A graphic designer is leaving a technology consulting firm after five years. Can the designer
use copyrighted materials to launch a start-up company?

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 a. Yes, the work belongs to the graphic designer.
b. Maybe. Mediation is needed to determine ownership.
c. No, the work is the property of the employer.
d. Yes, the firm and the designer share ownership of the work.

12. In a sales and marketing environment, what are the 4Ps of marketing?

a. Price, product, promotion, and place

b. Price, product, pull, and place
c. Price, push, pull, and place
d. Price, push, promotion, and place

13. Which type of model establishes units with specialized expertise that develop policies and
resources for all units to utilize?

a. Shared services
b. Centralized HR
c. HR business partner
d. HR thought leader

14. A manager has come to HR because an employee cannot meet production standards. After
further investigation, it is discovered that several other employees cannot meet production
standards. Records show that all employees have been properly trained and certified. Which
action should HR recommend to resolve the issue?

a. Documenting underperforming employees with a verbal warning that is a precursor to

termination
b. Developing a new training program that is mandatory for all employees
c. Providing remedial training with a different, more-experienced subject matter expert
d. Meeting with each employee to determine the obstacles to production

15. Which best describes the situation most likely to use a narrow span of control?

a. Complexity of tasks
b. Significantly experienced subordinates
c. Skilled manager shortage
d. No requirement of team effort

16. A manager has organized a team to assist with planning an event. At a meeting, one of the
team members complained, dominated the discussion, and resisted each new suggestion. Which
strategy should the manager use to control this behavior?

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 a. Assess the team member’s behavior and follow up with him through discussion and
coaching.
b. Implement a progressive discipline plan to correct the behavior.
c. Model the desired behavior during future team meetings.
d. Praise the team member for his contributions and encourage him to stay engaged.

17. What is the chain of command?

a. Extent to which policies and procedures govern the rules of the organization
b. Line of authority within an organization
c. Number of individuals who report to a supervisor
d. Balance between standardization and localization

18. Which best identifies the reason why many organizational effectiveness and development
(OED) programs begin with data collection?

a. Provides information to prepare more accurate activity-based budgets

b. Best practices that will support the intervention are identified.
c. Undue influence from organizational leaders is lessened
d. Multiple perspectives that allow for a deeper understanding of the issue are provided

19. What is the role of an HR professional attending a meeting in a work unit that is struggling to
implement recent changes?

a. To engage the group in solving issues that have arisen

b. To reinforce management’s goal in the change
c. To take no role and allow the unit’s leader to take action
d. To offer to modify work processes

20. HR has been tasked with examining structures and processes to make the organization more
agile and quick to respond to threats and opportunities. What type of intervention is this?

a. Organizational
b. Competitive
c. Remedial
d. Proactive

21. An organization’s job descriptions have not been reviewed and revised for the past five
years. What part of the organizational model can this negatively impact?

a. Values

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 b. Systems
c. Leadership
d. Culture

22. A company has separate divisions for distinct types of products. Each division has its own
marketing, sales, manufacturing, and finance functions. What type of organizational structure
does this illustrate?

a. Geographic
b. Functional
c. Product
d. Flat

23. Which best demonstrates chain of command?

a. Balance between standardization and localization

b. Extent to which policies govern the organization
c. Line of authority within an organization
d. Number of individuals reporting to one supervisor

24. Performance improvement involves accurately identifying sources of unacceptable outcomes

and intervening to create effective practices. Impractical or outdated procedures are an example
of which type of performance problem?

a. Technological
b. Cognitive
c. Cultural
d. Process-related

25. HR is asked to advise on ways to help a development team become fully functional as
quickly as possible. The team is dispersed geographically and faces very short deadlines. What
team-building solution would you prioritize?

a. Development of a roles and responsibilities chart

b. Training on stress management
c. Face-to-face socialization meetings
d. Cross-cultural communications training

26. Which would be the most effective quantitative measurement of customer service?

a. Percentage of employees who have completed customer service training

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 b. Numerical ratings on a customer satisfaction survey
c. The organization’s ratings on popular third-party consumer websites
d. Volume of customer complaint calls handled per hour

27. Which type of social sharing of knowledge can allow an organization to increase its brand
perception with the general public?

a. Thought leadership
b. Mentoring
c. Benchmarking
d. Coaching

28. In which scenario would having a knowledge management program be beneficial to an

organization?

a. An organization is increasing the employer premium share of its medical insurance plan.
b. An employer is implementing an education reimbursement policy.
c. Employees volunteer at a charitable event on the weekend.
d. A company’s workforce has a large percentage of employees nearing retirement age.

29. When is knowledge management most productive?

a. When it focuses on sharing organizational learning and reducing knowledge loss

b. When it develops new procedures and creates organizational policies
c. When the organization implements change and commits to employee development
d. When it focuses on acquiring knowledge from outside sources and solving problems

30. HR has been asked to target and identify how the organization’s strategic plans can be
realized over a three-year scope. This will necessitate examining current organizational
competencies against those needed in the future and reconciling the differences. Which process
should HR recommend to assist the organization in making these determinations?

a. Workforce analysis
b. Talent management
c. Succession planning
d. Benchmarking

31. What is the first step in developing a knowledge management system?

a. Choosing the technology

b. Monitoring both the formal and informal knowledge management systems

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 c. Separating collections from connections
d. Inventorying knowledge assets

32. Staff have been reluctant to share on-the-job experiences with coworkers. HR wants to
update all job descriptions to reflect the expectation that this should take place. How can HR
assess that this change has been successfully implemented?

a. Meeting attendance
b. Management rewards distributed
c. Performance evaluations
d. Peer evaluations

33. An organization is projecting future employee flow based on past transition rates. Which
potential outcome is most likely from this approach?

a. Stakeholders will object to past analysis to project future flow.

b. Future flow will remain roughly the same as past flow.
c. Employee flow will usually stagnate over the short term.
d. Change can diminish the accuracy of the flow projection.

34. Which alternative staffing arrangement meets the needs of an organization that is
experiencing turnover in professional service positions due to employees desiring to work fewer
hours?

a. On-call workers
b. Contract workers
c. Seasonal workers
d. Job sharing

35. HR professionals must anticipate future talent needs as well as plan for the future employee
talent pool. Which key factor typically contributes to an anticipated shortage in the labor pool?

a. Workforce skewed toward older employees

b. Less reliance on contingent workers
c. Less diverse workforce
d. Abundance of knowledge workers

36. Which technology has the primary mission of sharing information in meaningful ways to
augment employee performance?

a. Talent management systems

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 b. Human resource information systems
c. Project management systems
d. Knowledge management systems

37. Which is a primary goal during supply analysis?

a. To determine the need for layoffs and early retirements during downsizing
b. To provide a snapshot of an organization’s current pool of talent
c. To obtain an accurate accounting of all HR and people-related costs
d. To identify a list of factors to be analyzed using environmental scanning

38. An organization has four generations working side-by-side in the workplace. Which practice
could alleviate management concerns that intergenerational tensions and a lack of camaraderie
could undermine organizational success?

a. Preventive health-care and wellness programs

b. Sustainability initiatives
c. Succession planning
d. Flexible workplace

39. The HR generalist at a regional bank informs managers when fully qualified candidates apply
for jobs. Although there may not be any current openings, HR and position-specific managers
will screen candidates and determine next steps. How can HR reliably predict when an opening
is likely to occur?

a. Historical data of movement

b. Progressive performance actions
c. Organizational goals and objectives
d. Monthly turnover reports

40. HR has defined key groups of employees who possess certain characteristics and abilities
that are closely aligned with the organization’s strategy. What effect will this have on the
organization’s staffing and compensation strategies?

a. Slower increase in executive recruiting investment

b. Diverting compensation from entry-level positions
c. Greater clarity in compensation decisions
d. Capping payroll for administrative compensation

41. The HR director and union representatives are unable to resolve a formal grievance at either
the local or national level. What is the next step in the formal grievance process?

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 a. Individual bargaining
b. Withdrawal of grievance
c. Arbitration
d. Further negotiation

42. Which action is an ombudsperson empowered to take after hearing both sides of a workplace
dispute?

a. Referring the matter to further alternative dispute resolution (ADR)

b. Referring the matter for litigation if facts support the finding
c. Negotiating a mutually acceptable agreement on behalf of the employee
d. Imposing specific discipline on an employee if facts support the finding

43. Which recommendation would you make to a new HR practitioner concerning investigating
workplace complaints?

a. Use a team of interviewers for greater credibility and impact.

b. Become familiar with the requirements of labor contracts and local laws.
c. Avoid documenting discussions that could create legal liability.
d. Always include the employee’s direct report in meetings.

44. What is a broad statement that reflects an organization’s philosophy, objectives, or

standards?

a. Contract
b. Business case
c. Policy
d. Mission statement

45. Which action can be taken by HR to help prevent industrial actions?

a. Eliminating the peer panel program for dispute resolution

b. Hiring outside counsel for handling grievances
c. Communicating the perspective of employees to management
d. Negotiating a provision in contracts against sympathy strikes

46. Which is an essential aspect of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)?

a. Requires external third party

b. Does not preclude litigation
c. Use only in union environments

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 d. Review by peers

47. What does the term "tripartism" mean in the context of union relations?

a. Involvement of national governments in the bargaining process

b. Promotion of a works council to a position at the bargaining table
c. Idea that the employment relationship includes the employer, the union, and the
employee
d. Aggregation of employers in an industry into a single bargaining position

48. What type of strike occurs without the approval of union leadership?

a. Sympathy strikes
b. Jurisdictional strikes
c. Wildcat strikes
d. Economic strikes

49. What is the correct term for the right of an individual worker to unite with other workers to
promote desired employment conditions as a group?

a. Freedom of association
b. Collective bargaining
c. Due process
d. Codetermination

50. A technician in a diagnostic lab has filed a complaint with HR accusing a supervisor of
selectively enforcing policies. Which action would constitute workplace retaliation?

a. The supervisor reassigns the technician from bench work to physically difficult duties.
b. The technician physically attacks the supervisor and is discharged.
c. The technician is required to attend a dispute resolution meeting with the supervisor.
d. The supervisor conducts a previously scheduled performance review.

51. What advice would you give an HR colleague facing an employee grievance in a unionized
environment?

a. Immediately escalate the matter to the vice president of HR.

b. Agree to change some work rules to settle the grievance.
c. Document all grievance meetings and take notes.
d. Try to exclude the union representative from all meetings.

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52. An employer with a unionized workplace wants to offer employees gift cards for reporting on
a recent union meeting. How should HR advise the employer?

a. Don’t. This would be an unfair labor practice.

b. Try to get the information without using an incentive.
c. You don’t need to. You have a right to ask the union.
d. Go ahead, as long as the reward is not cash.

53. What type of alternative dispute resolution system would be most appropriate for a small and
young enterprise?

a. Mediation
b. Single designated officer
c. Arbitration
d. Peer review

54. A scientist is hired to perform research for a new product at a pharmaceutical company.
Which clause is most critical to include in the employment contract?

a. Non-disclosure of trade secrets and other confidential information

b. Commitment to drug-free workplace and employee assistant programs
c. Severance provisions for involuntary resignation and disability
d. Benefits provided by the company and date of eligibility

55. Which is an advantage of a best-of-breed (BOB) HRIS solution over an integrated solution?

a. A BOB solution reduces the complexity of vendor management, because there is only
one vendor.
b. A BOB solution features a common look and feel across applications, making learning
and transitions easier.
c. A BOB solution provides greater ease of integrating data from multiple HR functions.
d. A BOB solution provides quicker implementation because the system is simpler and
affects fewer employees

56. To reduce security concerns with increased internet use, which practice should HR enact?

a. Encrypting employee computers and network communications

b. Backing up all organizational data to off-site locations
c. Allowing data transfer to personal mobile devices
d. Requiring annual polygraph testing of employees

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57. HR works with IT to develop policies and procedures for Internet use and social media posts
on the organization’s network. Which best describes the impact of this policy?

a. Increasing productivity and eliminating outside distractions

b. Facilitating the monitoring of employee work practices
c. Limiting legal liability and ensuring data security
d. Preserving the organization’s employee value proposition

58. Which technology has the biggest impact on benefits administration?

a. Virtual reality technology

b. Wireless communication
c. Streaming video
d. Internet access

59. Which is a challenge when following a best-of-breed HRIS purchasing strategy?

a. Having a common interface across applications

b. Integrating data and technological infrastructure
c. Accepting increased access to data by employees
d. Working with multiple vendors

60. Which component in an information system enables operations?

a. Logic tier
b. Communications tier
c. Presentation tier
d. Data tier

61. What is the impact that a service level agreement has when an organization moves from
licensing software to software as a service (SaaS)?

a. It does not define concerns over users’ pay-per-use.

b. It eliminates the need for clarification on who is the customer and who is the client.
c. The organization will not need to implement or customize software.
d. The organization will need to provide real-time monitoring only after the installation.

62. Big data brings with it three requirements: volume (the ability to store massive amounts of
data), velocity (the ability to refresh data rapidly), and variety. What does variety refer to?

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 a. Data that can be used for multiple purposes (e.g., business analysis and employee
engagement)
b. Integrating data from devices made from different manufacturers
c. Importing, storing, and integrating data in different formats
d. Collecting data from networks composed of highly dispersed points

63. Technology now encompasses most business activities. Which areas of HR practice can
technology support?

a. Nearly every HR functional area

b. Primarily legal compliance
c. Just the administrative HR areas
d. Primarily training

64. In addition to information technology, which other business function should HR work with
when developing a "bring your own device" (BYOD) policy?

a. Finance
b. Executives
c. Legal counsel
d. Operations

65. Which should be a primary concern for employers regarding the "bring your own device"
(BYOD) technology approach?

a. Security and data integrity threats

b. Protection of employee privacy
c. Expense reimbursement to employees
d. Decline in face-to-face communication

66. Which is the best action an HR business partner should take when receiving an e-mail from
the director of finance, that they have never communicated with before, asking for an employee’s
tax documents for an urgent mortgage verification request?

a. Forward the e-mail to the HR director for further instructions.

b. Call the director of finance’s office and offer assistance.
c. Verify the director of finance is in the company directory and reply.
d. Reply to the director of finance’s e-mail request promptly.

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67. The HR director wants to transition from paper-based record keeping to digital record
keeping. Which factors should the director consider before engaging in a purchasing process for
HR technology?

a. Application of uniform guidelines for needs assessments

b. Identification of readily available equipment
c. Alignment of user and departmental objectives
d. Prioritizing the needs of external vendors

68. Which part of a SWOT analysis reflects the external environment?

a. Strengths and weaknesses

b. Weaknesses and opportunities
c. Opportunities and threats
d. Strengths and threats

69. Which represents the best use of the balanced scorecard in strategic planning?
a. Demonstrating potential return on investment
b. Establishing internal strengths and weaknesses
c. Identifying significant strategic objectives
d. Supporting financial reporting of tangible assets

70. Which is the most low-risk strategy for global market expansion?

a. Merger
b. Licensing
c. Internal expansion
d. Acquisition

71. What is the first step in the selection process to minimize the possibility of a bad hire?

a. Posting the job internally

b. Screening all candidates
c. Advertising in social media
d. Reviewing exit interview forms

72. During an interview, when is it appropriate to ask a candidate about prior project outcomes
that were unsuccessful?

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 a. When the interview with the candidate is unstructured in format
b. When assessing the candidate’s ability to learn from previous experiences
c. When the candidate does not list accomplishments
d. When the candidate is interviewing for a management position

73. During the hiring process, at which point does an employer have the opportunity to initially
engage the individual?

a. During the early stages of onboarding

b. During the interview
c. When exploring the company’s careers page
d. When completing the orientation process

74. Which of the following actions is most likely to reduce job burnout?

a. Offering stress reduction classes

b. Providing employees with more sick days
c. Giving employees control over their work
d. Raising wages

75. A new HR leader would like to assess the level of employee engagement in the organization.
His focus will be on behavioral engagement. Which of the following characteristics should the
HR leader look for?

a. Workplace conditions that are improved by management

b. Effort employees put into their jobs
c. Characteristics that support transactional tasks
d. Only characteristics found in trait engagement

76. Which practice should have the best potential to decrease talent acquisition costs and
increase an organization’s ability to compete for skilled employees?

a. Instituting phased retirement for older workers

b. Staying current with labor market and economic trends
c. Creating a flexible work environment for Millennials
d. Promoting job enlargement and job enrichment practices

77. How do career planning and career management differ?

a. Career planning identifies personal abilities, while career management focuses on

organizational staffing needs.

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 b. Career planning focus on the individual, while career management focuses on the job.
c. Career planning is only for entry-level employees, while career management is for
executive-level employees.
d. Career planning is short-term, while career management is long-term.

78. Which is a primary barrier to transfer of training?

a. Lack of evaluation
b. Acceptance of change
c. Lack of reinforcement
d. Impractical training programs

79. When developing a pay structure, which data set should the HR practitioner use during the
development process?

a. Compiled job analysis, job documentation, and job evaluation

b. Information gathered from surveys, local markets, and like institutions
c. Average of low-paying and high-paying positions
d. Overall points or values used during job evaluation

80. What pay system ties pay to the volume of the work performed by the individual?

a. Person-based
b. Performance-based
c. Productivity-based
d. Time-based step-rate

81. How does using a job evaluation to determine the relative worth of each job assist in an
organization being successful?

a. By serving as the basis for developing equitable salary structures, effective employee
selection, and ongoing development
b. By identifying the minimal acceptable qualifications that a candidate must possess to
successfully perform certain work tasks
c. By determining the various components of a position and the context and circumstances
under which the work is done
d. By recording the responsibilities, physical and emotional skills and accountabilities, and
ability requirements of a specific job

82. When conducting a benefits needs assessment, what is the next step HR should take after
analyzing the design and utilization data for all benefit plans?

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 a. Review the organization’s total rewards philosophy, compensation approach, and related
objectives.
b. Compare organizational needs, employee needs, and current benefit offerings.
c. Analyze the current and projected demographics of the organization’s workforce.
d. Review the organizational strategy to align with the current benefits offered.

83. Which type of globalization is characterized by large populations from emerging countries
moving abroad for better employment opportunities?

a. Demographic dichotomy
b. The diaspora
c. Globalist immigration
d. International assignees

84. Which is a benefit of a localization strategy?

a. Ability to sell the same products worldwide

b. Consistent business perspective for senior managers
c. Greater standardization of business processes
d. Strong customer ties and responsiveness

85. What are the basic steps in crisis management planning and readiness?

a. Secure redundant and contingent services, train employees.

b. Identify risks, develop plan, test and drill, evaluate.
c. Remove risks, train, and monitor for change.
d. Review policies, evacuate, relocate, and communicate.

86. A security-conscious organization requires all new hires to complete training on security
policies and conducts annual armed intruder drills for all employees. What risk management
strategies is this company using?

a. Prevention and mitigation

b. Sharing and optimizing
c. Detection and prevention
d. Avoidance and enhancement

87. A federal contractor receives an attorney statement claiming discrimination against an

employee working in counterintelligence. The employee complains of unlawful termination for

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refusal to submit a polygraph test following an incident. What exclusion protects the employer
under the Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA)?

a. The federal contractor’s policy was violated.

b. The federal contractor has reasonable suspicion.
c. The federal contractor did not receive an EEOC claim.
d. The federal contractor was involved in national security.

88. A company that receives federal contracts learns that an employee has recently been
convicted of a drug-related offense. The employee has a signed acknowledgment form in their
personnel file. Under the Drug-Free Workplace Act, what action must the employer take?

a. Terminate employment on the basis of violating the company’s drug-free standards.

b. Impose a sanction on the convicted employee or require satisfactory participation in a
rehabilitation program.
c. Require that the convicted employee sign a new drug-free workplace acknowledgement
form following the violation.
d. Provide a written warning to the convicted employee detailing the violation.

89. When does disparate treatment occur?

a. When an affirmative action plan is not established

b. When all applicants take a test that only white males perform well on
c. When employees have equal access to training opportunities
d. When a manager asks only female applicants questions about child care

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