19-01-2025

9610ZMD801433240013 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A magnet is parallel to a uniform magnetic field. If it is rotated by 60°, the work done is 0.8 J.
How much work is done in moving it 30° further ?

(1) 0.8 × 107 ergs

(2) 0.4 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 0.8 ergs

2) Mean radius of a toroid is 10 cm and number of turns are 500. If current flowing through it is 0.1
ampere then value of magnetic induction (in tesla) for toroid :

(1) 10–2
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–3
(4) 10–4

3) At Curie's temperature-

(1) Ferromagnetic substances changes into paramagnetic substance

(2) Paramagnetic substances changes into ferromagnetic substabce
(3) Ferromagnetic substances changes into diamagnetic substance
(4) Ferromagnetic substances changes into non-magnetic substance

4) Magnetic moment of semi circular steel wire of radius 'R' is 'M'. If it makes straight then magnetic

moment is-

(1)

(2)

(3) πM
(4) M

5) A conducting loop having a capacitor is placed inward decreasing magnetic field. Which plate of
capacitor will be +ve.
(1) Plate-A
(2) Plate–B
(3) Plate – A and Plate – B Both
(4) None

6) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The direction
of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Anticlockwise
(2) Clockwise
(3) East
(4) West

7) Two concentric shells of radii R and 2R have given charges q and –2q as shown in figure. In a
region r < R

(a) E = 0 (b) (c) V = 0 (d) Choose the correct answer

(1) a and c are true

(2) c is true
(3) a,c,d are true
(4) a,b,c,d are true

8)

What will be the ratio of electric field at a point on the axis and an equidistant point on the equitorial
line of a dipole :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

9)

The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) In figure (a), a charge q is placed just outside the centre of a closed hemisphere, in figure (b),
the same charge q is placed just inside the centre of the closed hemisphere. Then flux passing
through the hemisphere in figure-(a) & (b) will be respectively

(1)

(2) 0, 0

(3)

(4)

11) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The earth has Volume 'V' and Surface Area 'A' then capacitance would be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is :-

(1)
A

(2)
A

(3)
A
(4) 2A

14) A coil boil some amount of H2O in 40 min. Now this coil is cut into two equal parts and these are
connected in parallel then find time taken by this combination to boil same amount of water.

(1) 5 min.
(2) 10 min.
(3) 20 min.
(4) 40 min.

15) Resistance of a galvanometer is 90Ω. If only 10% of the main current passes through the
galvanometer when it is connected to a shunt then find shunt resistance.

(1) 5Ω
(2) 10Ω
(3) 15Ω
(4) 20Ω

16)

In the circuit element given here, if the potential at point B, VB = 0, then the potentials of A and D
are given as :-
(1) VA = –1.5 V, VD = +2 V
(2) VA = –1.5 V, VD = +0.5 V
(3) VA = +1.5 V, VD = +0.5 V
(4) VA = +1.5 V, VD = –0.5 V

17) A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat boat so that it is 10 m from the shore. The dog walks 4
m on the boat towards the shore and then halts. The boat weighs 20 kg and one can assume that
there is no friction between it and the water. How far is the dog from the shore at the end of this
time ?

(1) 3.2 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 6.8 M

18) A body of mass 10 metric ton moving with velocity 5 m/s collides head on with another body of
mass 40 metric ton at rest. If they combine together just after collision then calculate loss in KE
after collision.

(1) 1 × 105 J
(2) 2 × 105 J
(3) 3 × 105 J
(4) 4 × 105 J

19) The location of centre of mass of a uniform semicircular plate of radius R from its base is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) If the angular velocity of a merry-go-round is 60 degree/sec and you are 3.5 m from the centre of
rotation, your linear velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) π m/s
21) A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is
4/r2. What will be the momentum of the particle ?

(1) 2 m/r
(2)
(3)
(4) 4 m/r

22) The centre of mass of a uniform rod of length 10 meter is moving with a translational velocity of
50 m/sec. on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in the figure and the rod rotates about its
centre of mass with an angular velocity of 5 radian/sec. Find out VA and VB.

(1) 25, 75
(2) 75, 25
(3) 100, 50
(4) 50, 100

23) A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force ‘F’ is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that is directly above the centre of the face, at a height

above the base. The minimum value of ‘F’ for which the cube begins to tilt about the edge is
(assume that the cube does not slide).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis passing
through a point at a distance of L/3 from one of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and maximum heights from the ground 0.75 m and 2 m
respectively, its maximum speed will be:

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

26) Figure shows a particle sliding on a frictionless track which terminates in a straight horizontal
section. If the particle starts slipping from the point A, how far away on the horizontal track from the

terminating point will the particle hit the ground ?

(1) 1 m from the end of the track

(2) 2 m from the end of the track
(3) 3 m from the end of the track
(4) Insufficient information

27) A block of mass kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is
minimum value of force F (shown in figure) for which the block starts to slide on the surface ?

(g = 10 m/s2).

(1) 20 N
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

28) A uniform chain of length L is lying partly on the table, the remaining part hanging down from
the edge of the table. If coefficient of friction between the chain and the table is 0.5, what is the
minimum length of the chain that should lie on the table, to prevent the chain from slipping down to
the ground.

(1) L/3
(2) L/2
(3) 2L/3
(4) 3L/4

29) Calculate the acceleration of the block and trolly system shown in the figure. The coefficient of
kinetic friction between the trolly and the surface is 0.05. (g = 10 m/s2, mass of the string is

negligible and no other friction exists).

(1) 1.25 m/s2

(2) 1.50 m/s2
(3) 1.66 m/s2
(4) 1.00 m/s2

30) A force F is applied on block A as shown in figure. The contact force between the blocks A and B
and between the blocks B and C respectively are : (Assume frictionless surface).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of projectile are
equal is :

(1) 45°
(2) θ = tan–1 (0.25)
(3) θ = tan–1 4 or (θ = 76°)
(4) 60°

32) A particle has initial velocity and has acceleration . Its speed after 10 s is :

(1) 7 units
(2) units
(3) 8.5 units
(4) 10 units

33) If a car at rest acceleration uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 sec, it covers a distance of :
(1) 1440 cm
(2) 2980 cm
(3) 20 m
(4) 400 m

34) Two forces, each numerically equal to 5N, are acting as shown in the figure. Find the angle

between forces ?

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 30°
(4) 150°

35) In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1 %, 2%, 3%

and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows % error in P is :

(1) 7%
(2) 4%
(3) 14%
(4) 10%

SECTION-B

1) Two identical wires A and B, each of length l, carry the same current l. Wire A is bent into a circle
of radius R and wire B is bent to form a square of side 'a'. If BA are the values of magnetic field at the
centre of the circle and square respectively, then the ratio BA/BB is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A long solenoid has 100 turns/meter and a current of 3.5 A is flowing through it. If it is filled with
material of relative permeability (µr = 20) then magnetic field within the solenoid will be ?-

(1) 28π × 10–4

(2) 14π × 10–4
(3) 14π × 10–3
(4) 2.8π × 10–6

3) In an AC sub circuit, the resistance R = 0.2 Ω. At a certain instant (VA–VB) = 0.5 volt, I = 0.5 amp
and (ΔI/Δt) = 8 A/s. Find the inductance of the coil

(1) 0.01H
(2) 0.02H
(3) 0.05H
(4) 0.5H

4) The work done (in Joule) in carrying a charge of ‘x’ coulomb between two points having a
potential difference of ‘y’ volt is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) xy

5) In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the electric field does 6.4 × 10–19 J of work on an
electron. If ϕ1, ϕ2 are equipotential surfaces, then the potential difference (VC – VA) is :-

(1) –4V
(2) 4V
(3) zero
(4) 64V

6) The capacitors A and B are connected in series with a battery as shown in the figure. When the

switch S is closed and the two capacitors get charged fully, then

(1) The potential difference across the plates of A is 4V and across the plates of B is 6V
(2) The potential difference across the plates of A is 6V and across the plates of B is 4V
(3) The ratio of electric energies stored in A and B is 2 : 3
(4) The ratio of charges on A and B is 3 : 2

7)

Two batteries of emf 4V and 8V with internal resistances 1Ω and 2Ω are connected in a circuit with a
resistance of 9Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the point P and Q
are :-

(1)
A and 3 V

(2)
A and 4 V

(3)
A and 9 V

(4)
A and 12 V

8) In the circuit shown, the current through 8 ohm is same before and after connecting E. The value

of E is :

(1) 12V
(2) 6V
(3) 4V
(4) 2V

9) From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of radius R/3 is removed from the disc.
The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and
passing through O is :-

(1) 4 MR2

(2)

(3) 10 MR2
(4)

10) A pendulum bob has a speed of 3 m/s at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The
speed of the bob when the length makes an angle of 60º to the vertical, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 m/s

11) Four identical rods are joined end to end to form a square. The mass of each rod is M. The
moment of inertia of the square about the median line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) Consider the configuration (shown below) of a rope that is half hanging over the edge of a
frictionless table. Suppose the rope has a mass per unit length of λ kg/m. How much work is done by
a force that slowly pulls the entire rope up onto the table? Select the correct answer.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

13) What will be the maximum value of mass M, so that system will not move ?
(1) 2.5 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 25 kg

14) For the velocity-time graph shown in figure below the distance covered by the body in last two
seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance covered by it in all the seven seconds ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measure value
of thickness of a thin sheet. If diagram show reading without and with thin sheet.

(1) 3.40 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure ?

(1) Glucose forms pentaacetate.

(2) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.
(3) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.
(4) Glucose is oxidised by Br2/H2O to gluconic acid.

2) In a reaction of aniline, a coloured product ‘C’ was obtained the structure of ‘C’ would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The product formed in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following compounds

CH3CH2CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2CHO, CH3CH2CH2COOH, CH3CH2OCH2CH3
1 2 3 4

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(3) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
(4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

5) Assertion (A) :- Ethanal undergoes aldol condensation with dil. NaOH.

Reason (R) :- Aldehydes which do not contain α-hydrogen undergo aldol condensation.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

6) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(I) (p) Stephen reaction

(II) (q) Gattermann-Koch reaction

(III) (r) Haloform reaction

(IV) (s) Esterification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (I)-(s), (II)-(p), (III)-(q), (IV)-(r)
(2) (I)-(r), (II)-(q), (III)-(p), (IV)-(s)
(3) (I)-(p), (II)-(s), (III)-(r), (IV)-(q)
(4) (I)-(q), (II)-(r), (III)-(s), (IV)-(p)
7) Predict the products in the given reactions :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) What are the products of the following reactions ?

C6H5—O—CH2CH3 ?

(1) C6H5OH + CH3CH2Br

(2) C6H5OH + BrCH2CH2OH
(3) C6H5OH + CH3CH2OH
(4) C6H5Br + HOCH2CH2OH

9) Statement-I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the
basis of their reaction by with conc. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2, known as Lucas reagent.
Statement-II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas reagent.

(1) Both Statements are true ; Statement-II is a correct explanation for statement-I.
(2) Both Statements are true ; Statement-II is not a correct explanation for statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.

10) Increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds for SN1 substitution is :
(1) B < C < D < A
(2) B < C < A < D
(3) B < A < D < C
(4) A < B < D < C

11) Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present in RNA ?

(1) Adenine
(2) Uracil
(3) Thymine
(4) Cytosine

13) Which one of the following amines can not be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?

(1) Ethylamine
(2) Aniline
(3) Isopropylamine
(4) n-Propylamine

14) Assertion (A) :- Lower aldehydes and ketones are soluble in water but the solubility decreases
as the molecular masses increases.
Reason (R) :- To identify the difference between aldehydes and ketones can be made by Tollens
reagent.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

15) The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is ………. .

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) B > A > C
(4) A > C > B

16) Assertion (A) :- The boiling point of alkyl halides are considerably higher than those of
corresponding hydrocarbons.
Reason (R) :- Greater polarity of C—X bond as well as higher molecular mass (as compared to the
parent hydrocarbon) results in the stronger intermolecular forces of attraction in the halogen
derivatives.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

17) Arrange the following in increasing order of reactivity in aromatic nucleophilic substitution ?

(1) I < IV < III < II

(2) IV < III < I < II
(3) I < IV < II < III
(4) III < IV < I < II
18) The compound which is non superimposable and mirror image is called.

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Meso

19) The coordination geometry around the manganese in decacarbonyldimanganese(0)

(1) Octahedral
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) Square pyramidal
(4) Square planar

20) Choose the correct answer from the options given below

List-I List-II
(Complex ion) Electronic configuration

(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (I)

(B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (II)

(C) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (III)

(D) [V(H2O)6]3+ (IV)

(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

21) Which of the following complex is homoleptic?

2−
(1) [Ni(CN)4]
(2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2]
+
(3) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]
+
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]

22) Chiral complex from the following is:

Here en = ethylene diamine

2+
(1) cis–[PtCl2(en)2]
2+
(2) trans - [PtCl2(en)2]
(3) cis - [PtCl2(NH3)2]
+
(4) trans - [Co(NH3)4Cl2]
23) In alkaline medium. oxidises I– to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Consider the oxides of group 14 elements SiO2, CO2, SnO2, PbO2, CO and SiO. The amphoteric
oxides are

(1) CO2, CO
(2) SiO2, CO2
(3) SnO2, PbO2
(4) SnO2, CO

25) The least number of oxyacids are formed by:

(1) Chlorine
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Fluorine
(4) Sulphur

26) A hypothetical reaction A2 + B2 → 2AB follows the mechanism as given below

A2 ⇌ A + A (fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (slow)
A + B → AB (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is

(1) 2
(2) 1

(3)

(4) 0

27) For a particular reaction with initial concentration of the reactants as a1 and a2, the half-life
period are t1 and t2 respectively. The order of the reaction (n) is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

28) Rate constant k = 2.303 min–1 for a particular reaction. The initial concentration of the reaction
is 1 mol/litre then rate of reaction after 1 minute is:
(1) 2.303 M min–1
(2) 0.2303 M min–1
(3) 0.1 M min–1
(4) none of these

29) The oxidation potentials of Zn, Cu, Ag, H2 and Ni are 0.76, – 0.34, – 0.80, 0 and 0.25 volt
respectively. Which of the following reactions will provide maximum voltage?

(1) Zn + Cu2+ → Cu + Zn2+

(2) Zn + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + Zn2+
2+ +
(3) H2 + Cu → 2H + Cu
2+ +
(4) H2 + Ni → 2H + Ni

30) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I (Property) Column-II (Unit)

(A) Conductance (P) Sm–1

(B) Conductivity (Q) S–1 m

(C) Molar conductivity (R) Sm2mol–1

(D) Resistivity (S) S

(1) A-(S); B-(P); C-(Q); D-(R)
(2) A-(P); B-(Q); C-(R); D-(S)
(3) A-(S); B-(P); C-(R); D-(Q)
(4) A-(Q); B-(P); C-(R); D-(S)

31) The vapour pressure curves of the same solute in the same solvent are shown. The curves are
parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations of solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

32) Phenol associates in benzene to a certain extent in dimerisation reaction. A solution containing
0.02 kg of phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene has its freezing point depressed by 0.69 K. Hence, degree of
association of phenol dimerized will be:
[Kf(C6H6) = 5.12 K kg mol–1]

(1) 0.63
(2) 0.73
(3) 0.83
(4) 0.93

33) An aqueous solution boils at 101°C. What is the freezing point of the same solution ?
(Given: Kf = 1.86°C/m , Kb = 0.51°C/m)

(1) 3.647°C
(2) –3.647°C
(3) –0.364°C
(4) None of these

34) The heat of neutralization of a strong acid and a strong alkali is –57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat released
when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is

(1) 57.0 kJ
(2) 11.4 kJ
(3) 28.5 kJ
(4) 34.9 kJ

35) When basic solution is titrated against HCl in the burette with Methyl orange indicator, what
colour change is observed at the end point?

(1) Yellow to Violet

(2) Orange to yellow
(3) Appearance of Pink color
(4) Yellow to orange

SECTION-B

1) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Thiamine (P) Scurvy

(B) Riboflavin (Q) Beri beri

(C) Pyridoxine (R) Cheilosis

(D) Ascorbic acid (S) Convulsions

(1) A→P, B→R, C→Q, D→S
(2) A→Q, B→R, C→S, D→P
(3) A→R, B→Q, C→S, D→P
(4) A→R, B→Q, C→P, D→S
2) The structure of the product (P) of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In the following reaction, the product ‘X’ is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) The major product formed in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Total number of optically active compounds from the following is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6
6) In the following reaction (where * represents 14C)

Product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

7) Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

8)

List-I List-II
Coordination entity Wavelength of light absorbed in nm

(A) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (I) 310

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (II) 475

(C) [Co(CN)6]3– (III) 535

(D) [Cu(H2O)4]2– (IV) 600

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

9) NaCl reacts with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 to give reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to
give yellow solution (C), (B) and (C) respectively are;

(1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4

(2) Na2CrO4, CrO2Cl2
(3) CrO2Cl2, KHSO4
(4) CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7

10) The pair that contains two P–H bonds in each of the oxoacids is:

(1) H4P2O5 and H4P2O6

(2) H3PO2 and H4P2O5
(3) H3PO3 and H3PO2
(4) H4P2O5 and H3PO3

11) For the reactions

(i)

(ii) following observation is made.

Calculate where kI and kII are rate constant for the respective reaction.

(1) 2.303
(2) 1
(3) 0.36
(4) 0.693

12) The standard electrode potential for the following reaction is +1.33 V. What is the potential at
pH = 2.0 ?

(1) +1.820 V
(2) +1.990 V
(3) +1.608 V
(4) +1.0542 V

13) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)
and (in mol L–1). Correct set is :

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)

(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

14) Assertion (A): The boiling point of 0.1 M urea solution is more than that of 0.1 M KCl solution.
Reason (R): Elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the number of moles of non-volatile
solute particles present in the solution.

(1) if both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

15) Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to lyophilic sols?

(1) They can be prepared very easily by shaking or warming the substance with dispersion medium.
(2) These are quite stable and are not easily coagulated.
(3) These colloids are extensively solvated.
(4) These are also called as irreversible sols.

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is not a secondary meristem ?

(1) Cork cambium

(2) Inter fascicular cambium
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Phellogen
2) Assertion: In dicot root, pericycle is made up of thick walled parenchymatous cells.
Reason: Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in
these cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Statement-A: Monocot stem show peripheral large vascular bundles and small central vascular
bundles.
Statement-B: Monocot stem have sclerenchymatous hypodermis and bundle sheath.

(1) Only statement-A is correct

(2) Only statement-B is correct
(3) Both statement-A & B are correct
(4) Both statement-A & B are incorrect

4) Which of the following is not a function of root system ?

(1) Anchorage to plant

(2) Storage of food material
(3) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(4) Storage of water

5) Identify this inflorescence :

(1) Cymose
(2) Cyathium
(3) Racemose
(4) Hypanthodium

6) is the floral formula of ________.

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Asteraceae

7) Match List I with List-II :

List I List II

A Lipase I Peptide bond

B Nuclease II Ester bond

C Protease III Glycosidic bond

D Amylase IV Phosphodiester bond

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

8) Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction. S-G + S' → S+ S'-G

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Lyase

9) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A Primary structure of protein I Human haemoglobin

B Secondary structure of protein II Disulphide bonds

C Tertiary structure of protein III Polypeptide chain

D Quaternary structure of protein IV Alpha helix and β sheet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D -IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

10) Splitting of glucose is called glycolysis. This was scheme was given by -

(1) Embden, Meyerhof, Parnas

(2) Embden, Michel, Parnas
(3) Embden, Meyerhof, Robert Hook
(4) Embden, Michel, Robert Brown
11) Statement I: The reducing agent is NADH + H+ which is reoxidised to NAD+ in lactic acid
fermentation but not in alcoholic fermentation.
Statement II: Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about
13 per cent.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect

12) Among them how many statements are correct regarding tricarboxylic acid cycle?
I. First step of this process is procced by citrate synthase enzyme.
II. In this process two times decarboxylation occurs.
III. This process is performed in matrix and all enzyme of this cycle are present in matrix of
mitochondria.
IV. In one cycle three times reduction of NAD+ took place

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I, II and III
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and IV

13) Assertion (A) : In living system it is not necessary that by oxidation of each glucose molecule 38
atp is produced.
Reason (R) : Pathway in living system is not necessary took place in an orderly sequence.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.

14) Select the incorrect statement among them

(1) Moll's half experiment showed that CO2 was required for photosynthesis.
(2) Jan Ingenhousz showed that bubbles to be of oxygen which are formed during photosynthesis.
In purple and green sulphur bacteria, the ‘oxidation’ product is sulphur or sulphate in
(3)
photosynthesis.
(4) During dark phase carbohydrate is form which is store in form glycogen in plant.

15) Statement I: In C4-plant C3 cycle do not take place as in maize.

Statement II: Photophosphorylation is beneficial for C4 but not for C3 .

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

16)
In this diagram identify the A,B,C,D and pick the correct answer.

(1) A- Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, B- 3-phosphoglycerate, C- Reduction, D- Oxidation.

(2) A- Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, B- 3-phosphoglycerate, C- Oxidation , D- Regeneration.
(3) A- Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, B- 3-phosphoglycerate, C- Reduction, D- Regeneration.
(4) A- Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, B- 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate, C- Reduction, D- Regeneration.

17) Among them which effects are due to Gibberellic acid activity within plant.
I. It is used to increase the length of grapes stalks.
II. It is used to start up the malting process in brewing industry.
III. It initiates sprouting of potato tuber.
IV. It also promotes bolting in beet.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

18) Statement-I : when meristem once again lose the capacity to divide but mature to perform
specific functions, known as by redifferentiation.
Statement-II : Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source of
energy.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

19) Basic unit of taxonomy/classification is :-

(1) Species
(2) Kingdom
(3) Family
(4) Variety

20) A species can be distinguished from the other closely related species on the basis of :-

(1) Common ancestor

(2) Distinct morphological features
(3) Sharing a common gene pool
(4) Being biologically interfertile

21) Two organisms of same class but different families will be kept under the same

(1) Genera
(2) Species
(3) Order
(4) Family

22) Heterocystous cyanobacteria :-

(1) Only Nostoc

(2) Only Anabaena
(3) Both Nostoc and Anabaena
(4) Vibrio

23) Citrus canker is ________ disease :-

(1) Bacterial
(2) Viral
(3) Fungal
(4) Mycoplasmal

24) Nutritionally, protists are :-

(1) Photoautotrophs
(2) Heterotrophs
(3) Mixotrophs
(4) Photoautotroph, heterotrophs or autotrophs
25) Plasmogamy is the fusion of :-

(1) 2 haploid cells including their nuclei

(2) 2 haploid cells without nuclear fusion
(3) sperm and egg
(4) Sperm with 2 polar nuclei

26) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra and Chara belong to :-

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

27)

Laminaria, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Sargassum, and Fucus are the examples :-

(1) Red algae

(2) B.G.A.
(3) Brown algae
(4) Green algae

28) Usually plant body of brown algae consists of :-

(1) Hold fast

(2) Stipe
(3) Frond
(4) All

29) In which of the following gymnosperms corolloid root having N2-fixing cyanobacteria (Nostoc) is
found :-

(1) Pinus
(2) Ginkgo
(3) Cycas
(4) Cedrus

30) Read the statements below:

(a) In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only
about an hour.
(b) Interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(c) DNA content gets half at S phase of interphase.
(d) G2 phase is also called post mitotic phase. Select the correct option:

(1) a and b
(2) b, a and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) c, a and d

31) In human cells, chromosomes are :-

(1) always condensed during the entire cell cycle

(2) different in different tissue
(3) of the same size and shape
(4) visible only during mitosis and meiosis

32) The protein formation doesn't occur in

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Mitochondria.

(2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Lysosomes.
(3) Mitochondria and Chloroplast.
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Chloroplast.

33) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a–protein, c–sugar, d–cholesterol, b–integral protein

(2) b–protein, a–sugar, c–cholesterol, d–integral protein
(3) c–protein, d–sugar, b–cholesterol, a–integral protein
(4) d–protein, b–sugar, a–cholesterol, c–integral protein

34)

Which one is correct statement for lysosome ?

(1) Membrane less cell organelle

(2) It have only protease enzyme
(3) It is packed by ER
(4) It have lower pH than cytoplasm

35) Assertion: Active transport requires the expenditure of energy by the cell.
Reason: Active transport is the movement of substances across the plasma membrane against the
concentration gradient.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-B

1) Identify the given figure :

(1) (a) Radial (b) Cojoint close (c) Cojoint open

(2) (a) Radial (b) Cojoint open (c) Cojoint close
(3) (a) Cojoint close (b) Cojoint open (c) Radial
(4) (a) Cojoint open (b) Radial (c) Cojoint close

2) Given below is the diagram of the transverse section of leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and
D and select the right option about them: -

(1) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade, D – Abaxial Epidermis

(2) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis
(3) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Abaxial epidermis
(4) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis

3) Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Diadelphous condition is present in Citrus.
(2) Twisted aestivation is present in china rose and pea.
(3) In Dianthus and Primrose, the placentation is basal.
(4) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as drupe.

4) Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups form substrates by mechanisms other than
hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are known as :

(1) Transferases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Dehydrogenases
(4) Lyases

5) Select the correct statement among them

a. Oxidation of pyruvic acid convert it into lactic acid.
b. Pyruvate, is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol.
c. In aerobic respiration complete oxidation of inorganic substrate took place.
d. Lactic acid fermentation took place in muscle cell only and alcoholic fermentation took place in
yeast.
e. Most of the cell at least their part is in contact with air in plants.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c, d and e
(3) b and e
(4) a, b and e

6) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column I Column II

i Chief pigment a Maxima at 700nm

ii Z- scheme b Chl-a

iii PS I c Inner side of thylakoid membrane

iv Splitting of water d ATP and NADPH2 is synthesised

e Chl-b
(1) i-a, ii-e, iii-b, iv-c
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-c ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

7) Assertion (A) : ATP synthase has a channel that allows diffusion of protons back across the
membrane to synthesis the ATP.
Reason (R) : Diffusion of proton via CFo-CF1 channel releases enough energy to activate ATP
synthase enzyme.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is a correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(3) Only A is correct.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

8) Select the correct option for given diagram

(1) It is showing heterophylly in larkspur

(2) It is showing heterophylly in buttercup
(3) It is showing heterophylly in beet
(4) It showing heterophylly in Coriander

9) The majority of bacteria are :-

(1) Photoautotrophs
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Chemoheterotrophs/decomposers
(4) Disease causing

10)

Somatogamy is the fusion of :-

(1) Two vegetative / somatic cell of different strain/genotypes to form dikaryotic cell
(2) Sperm with egg
(3) 2 somatic cell having identical strain
(4) Egg with egg

11)

Column I Column II

A. Agar I. Gelidium, Gracilaria

B. Algin II. Brown algae

C. Carrageen III. Red algae

Chlorella & Single cell protein, used food

D. IV.
Spirulina supplements by space travellers
Choose the correct combination :-
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

12) Mycorrhizal root (having symbiotic fungi) is found :-

(1) Pinus
(2) Ginkgo
(3) Cycas
(4) None

13)
According to the above phases answer for the following questions.
Identify the given structures of meiosis-I and meiosis-II ?

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Metaphase-I Anaphase-I Anaphase-II

(2) Metaphase-II Anaphase-I Anaphase-II

(3) Anaphase-I Anaphase-II Metaphase-I

(4) Metaphase-I Anaphase-II Anaphase-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) In which phase cells remain metabolically active but no longer divide :-

(1) S phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) Prophase
(4) G0 phase

15) Aerobic respiration is performed by :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosome
(4) Golgibody

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Read the following statement.

Statement I: Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive fibrinogens in the plasma by the
enzyme thrombin.
Statement II: Clot consist of fibrins in which dead and damaged formed elements are trapped.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

2) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Thrombocytes are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes.

A reduction in number of thrombocytes leads to clotting disorders which will lead to reduction
(2)
in loss of blood from the body.
(3) Platelets are involved in clotting of blood.
(4) Reduction in the number of platelets can lead to excessive loss of blood from body.

3) A special system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to
and from the cardiac musculature.

(1) Coronary circulation

(2) Systemic circulation
(3) Pulmonary circulation
(4) Portal circulatory system

4) Assertion (A): The heart of mammals is myogenic.

Reason(R): Normal activities of heart are autoregulated by specialized muscles called nodal tissue.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

5) During repolarisation, a nerve fibre becomes -

(1) Positively charged outside and negatively charged inside.

(2) Positively charged on both-outside and inside.
(3) Negatively charged outside and positively charged inside.
(4) Negatively charged on both-outside and inside.

6) Which of the following group of functions is regulated by part of hindbrain?

(1) Sexual behaviour, body temperature, drinking.

(2) Gastric secretion, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration.
(3) Memory and communication, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration.
(4) Gastric secretion, body temperature, Memory and communication.

7) The ____ neuron receives signal from a sensory region and transmits the impulse to the _____. The
______ neuron then carries signals from CNS to the ________.

(1) Afferent, CNS, efferent, effector

(2) Efferent, PNS, afferent, effector
(3) Efferent, CNS, efferent, receptor
(4) Efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor

8) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The gap between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called node of Ranvier.
(2) All myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped by Schwann cells.
(3) Nissl’s granules are found in dendrites and cell body.
(4) Dendrites are small fibres which transmit impulses towards the cell body.

9) Which of the following is the function of a glucocorticoids hormone released from adrenal cortex?

(1) Stimulates RBC production

(2) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
(3) Suppresses the immune response
(4) All of the above

10) Which of the following hormone helps a person who suffers from a marked fall in blood calcium
levels?

(1) Insulin
(2) Parathormone
(3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) Adrenaline

11) During a fire in a building, a terrified resident on the seventh floor of a high-rise building starts
descending the stairs quickly. Which hormone triggers this rapid action?

(1) Aldosterone
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Glucagon
(4) Thymosin

12) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 μm).

(2) Bacteria are 3 to 5 μm in size.
(3) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich.
(4) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.

13) Match the items given in column-I with their role given in column-II and choose the correct
option.

Column-I Column-II

A SER I Increase the surface area

B Golgi apparatus II Store oils or fats

C Cristae III Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

D Peroxisome IV Peroxide metabolism

E Elaioplasts V Synthesis of lipid

(1) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(2) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(3) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II

14) Which one of the following organelle given below is correctly matched with its function ?

(1) Golgi apparatus – Protein synthesis

(2) Ribosome – Formation of glycolipids
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum – Protein synthesis
(4) Nucleus – Formation of glycoproteins

15) Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Nucleus — ribosomal RNA synthesis

(2) Lysosome — Protein synthesis
(3) Mitochondria — aerobic respiration
(4) Cytoskeleton — Microtubules

16) Match the terms (given in column I) with their explanation (given in column II) and choose the
correct combination from the options given below.

Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Explanation)

A Terminalization I Pairing of homologous chromosomes.

Point of attachment between

B Synapsis II
homologous chromosomes.

Nuclear protein complex that helps in

C Chiasmata III adherence of sister chromatids and then
homologous chromosomes.

Meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare

Synaptonemal
D IV the homologous chromosome for
complex
sepration.
(1) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(2) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II

17) In the somatic cell cycle -

(1) In G1 phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell.
(2) DNA replication takes place in S-phase.
(3) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase.
(4) G1 phase follows mitotic phase.

18) Match the excretory functions given in column-I with the parts of the excretory system in
column-II. Choose the correct combination from the given options.

Column – I Column – II
(Function) (Parts of excretory systems)

A Ultra filtration I Henle’s loop

B Concentration of urine II Ureter

C Transport of urine III Urinary bladder

 D Storage of urine IV Malpighian corpuscle

V Proximal convoluted tubule

(1) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(4) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II

19) Cells of which part is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium that increases the
surface area for reabsorption?

(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(2) Vasa recta
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Collecting duct

20) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C and D only

(2) A, B and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A and B only

21) Which of the following statement correctly describes the features of flat worms?

(1) Triploblastic with pseudocoelom

(2) Diploblastic with no coelom
(3) Diploblastic with true coelom
(4) Triploblastic with no coelom

22) Statement I – Earthworm and Nereis both are dioecious.

Statement II – In earthworms parapodia are present which help in locomotion.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

23) I. Triploblastic
II. Eucoelomate
III. External fertilisation
Above features are associated with which phylum?

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Platyhelminthes

24) Choose the oviparous animals from the following –

(1) Psittacula, Ornithorhyncus, Bufo

(2) Felis, Macaca, Aptenodytes
(3) Neophron, Balaenoptera, Hemidactylus
(4) Pteropus, Panthera leo, Delphinus

25) Adhering junctions help to-

(1) Stop substances from leaking across a tissue.

(2) Keep neighboring cells together.
(3) Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.
(4) Protect the cells from foreign agents.

26) The colour of dorsal side and ventral side of the body of the frog is respectively –

(1) Uniformly pale green, olive green

(2) Olive green, uniformly pale yellow
(3) Uniformly dark brown, Olive green
(4) Olive green, dark yellow

27) Supra-oesophageal ganglion supplies nerves to –

(1) Labium and labrum

(2) Antennae and compound eye
(3) Compound eye and labrum
(4) Testis and ovary

28) How many of bones mentioned in the list below are not a part of appendicular skeleton?
Phalanges, Tibia, Radius, Sphenoid, Maxilla, Ulna, hyoid, Patella

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Which disorder affects neuromuscular junction leading to paralysis of skeletal muscles?

(1) Tetany
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Gout
(4) Muscular dystrophy

30) Statement I : Each thick filament is made up of many monomeric proteins 'G' actin.
Statement II :Each meromyosin has two important parts : a globular head with a short arm and a
tail.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct.

31)

Recognize all the labelling correctly :-

(1) A-Fascia, B-Sarcolemma, C-Muscle fibre

(2) A-Fascicle, B-Sarcolemma, C-Muscle fibre
(3) A-Fascicle, B-Muscle fibre, C-Sarcolemma
(4) A-Fascia, B-Muscle fibre, C-Sarcolemma

32) Relaxation of diaphragm leads to change in volume of thoracic cavity whose volume :-

(1) Increases in antero posterior axis

(2) Increases in dorso ventral axis
(3) Decreases in antero posterior axis
(4) Decreases in dorso ventral axis

33) Match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

A. IRV a. 2100 ml

B. FRC b. 1000 ml

C. ERV c. 1100 ml
 D. RV d. 2500 ml
(1) A-d, B-a, C-c, D-b
(2) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
(3) A-a, B-d, C-c, D-b
(4) A-a, B-d, C-b, D-c

34) Factor which increases affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen :-

(1) Higher PCO2

(2) Higher H+ ion
(3) Low temp
(4) Low pH

35)

Which structure helps in respiration in a housefly?

(1) Lungs
(2) Pulmonary sacs
(3) Tracheal tubes
(4) General body surface

SECTION-B

1) How many of the following statements are incorrect about lymph.

(i) Lymph has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
(ii) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing erythrocytes which are also responsible for the immune
responses of the body.
(iii) Lymphatic system collect the lymph and drains it back to the major veins.
(iv) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in interstitial villi.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) which of the following statements is correct with respect to plasma proteins?

(i) Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood.
(ii) Albumins are associated with allergic reactions.
(iii) Albumins also help in osmotic balance.
(iv) Globulins are primarly involved in defense mechanisms.

(1) (i) and (iv) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(4) All are correct
3) X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the structure which is a major coordinating
centre for sensory and motor signalling. It contains a number of centre which control body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking. Identify X and Y from the options given below.

(1) X -Cerebellum; Y - Hindbrain

(2) X -Hypothalamus; Y - Forebrain
(3) X -Corpora quadrigemina; Y - Midbrain
(4) X -Pituitary gland; Y - Forebrain

4) Assertion (A): All thyroid hormones are antagonistic to parathormone.

Reason(R): Along with Thyroxine, PTH plays a significant role in calcium balance in the body.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

5) Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(1) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism.

(2) Thymus – Located between lungs behind sternum on the dorsal side of aorta.
Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into
(3)
bones during calcification.
Pancreas – Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which is a hyperglycemic
(4)
hormone.

6) Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement.

(i) The endomembrane system includes mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes.
(ii) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of lipid.
(iii) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is actively involved in protein synthesis.
(iv) Mitochondrial matrix possesses single circular DNA, a few RNA and 80S ribosomes.

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

7) Identify the phases from the graph given below that shows the change in DNA content during
various phases (A to D) of mitotic cell cycle.

A B C D
 (1) G2 G1 S M

(2) G2 S G1 M

(3) G1 S G2 M

(4) M G1 S G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in column I with its location given in
column II.

Column – I Column – II

A Fall in GFR I Activate the JG cells to release renin

B Angiotensin II II Increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR

Carries out the conversion of angiotensinogen in the liver to

C Renin III
angiotensin I.
+
Causes reabsorption of Na and water from the distal parts
D Aldosterone IV of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in blood pressure
and GFR.

An excessive loss of Activate osmoreceptors which stimulate the hypothalamus to

E V
fluid from the body release ADH from the neurohypophysis
(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – V
(2) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – IV
(3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(4) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I

9) Statement I – Ectoparasites with 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.

Statement II – Notochord is present only in larval tail.
Statement III – Male members bear claspers.
Statement IV – Pneumatic bones are present.
Choose the correct option from the following –

Statement I Statement II Statement III Statement IV

(1) Pristis Ascidia Exocoetus Rana

(2) Ichthyophis Myxine Clarias Pavo

(3) Branchiostoma Hippocampus Naja Corvus

(4) Petromyzon Ascidia Pristis Columba

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Identify the incorrect statement.

The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and are stored in
(1)
the adipose tissue.
Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are
(2)
oriented differently.
Cartilages have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
(3)
fibres.
(4) The bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells.

11) Sinus venosus in frog –

(1) Collects oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins and opens in left ventricle.
(2) Joins the right atrium and receives blood through the major veins called vena cava.
(3) Joins the vena cava and opens dorsally in left ventricle.
(4) Collect deoxygenated blood and opens in dorsal surface of heart.

12) Match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

A. Thoracic vertebrae a. 7

B. Lumbar vertebrae b. 5

C Cervical vertebrae c. 12

D. Coccygeal vertebrae d. 1
(1) A-c, B-a, C-b, D-d
(2) A-c, B-b, C-a, D-d
(3) A-c, B-d, C-b, D-a
(4) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d

13) Choose the incorrect pair of joint name and location.

(1) Cartilaginous joint Pubic symphysis

(2) Synovial joint Humerus and pectoral girdle

(3) Hinge joint Atlas and axis

(4) Gliding joint Between carpals

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Assertion : In resting phase, the central part of thick filament is not overlapped by thin
filaments.
Reason :The edges of thin filaments on either side of thick filaments only partially overlap the free
ends of thick filaments in resting state.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is true but Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, Reason is true.

15) Match the following columns and select the correct option :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Pneumotaxic Centre (i) Alveoli

(b) O2 Dissociation curve (ii) Pons region of brain

(c) Carbonic Anhydrase (iii) Haemoglobin

(d) Primary site of exchange of gases (iv) R.B.C.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 1 4 2 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 2 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) W = MB (cos 0° – cos 60°)

0.8 J =

Now W' = MB (cos 60° – cos 90°) =

= 0.8 J = 0.8 × 107 ergs

2)

3)

Theoretical

4)
M = m(2R)

5) Crosses (×) linked with the loop are decreasing, so induced current in it is clockwise i.e.,
from B → A.Hence electrons flow from plate A to B so plate A becomes positively charged.

6) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti clockwise as seen by observer. On displacing
it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to oppose the
approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by the observer

will be clockwise.
7)

Potential at r

V=0

Electric field inside conductor will be zero.

8)

9)

10) In case (a)

Charge inside is zero
ϕ=0
In case (b)
Charge inside in q

11)

12)

Here,

13) The circuit can be redrawn as follows.

Resistance across AB

RAB = W
Total resistance of circuit

RT = 2 + W
Current through ammeter

i= A

14)

As H and V are same

∴t∝R

15)

16)
Potential difference between A and B
VA – VB = 1 × 1.5
or VA – 0 = 1.5
Potential difference between B and C
VB – VC = 1 × 2.5 = 2.5 V
∴ 0 – VC = 2.5 V
∴ VC = –2.5 V
So, potential difference between C and D
VC – VD = –2 V
or –2.5 – VD = –2
or VD = –0.5 V

17) Given that initially the system is at rest. so

Now, as in the motion of dog no external force is applied to the system, hence

i.e.,
or =0 [as(m + M) = finite]

or
or + =0
(as = = displacement)
or md1 – md2 = 0
(as 2= opposite to 1)
or md1 = Md2 ...(i)
Now, when dog moves 4 m towards shore relative to boat, the boat will shift a distance d2
relative to shore opposite to the displacement of dog; so, the displacement of dog relative to
shore (toward shore) will be
d1 = 4 – d2 ...(i)
(i.e. d1 + d2 = drel. = 4).
Putting the value of d2 from eqn. (ii) in eqn. (i).
md1 =M(4 – d1)

or d1 =
As initially the dog was 10 m from the shore, so now he will be (10 – 3.2) = 6.8 m from the
shore.

18) Loss in K.E. during perfectly inelastic collision

= 1 × 105 J

19) COM of semicircular plate is .

20) ω = 60°/s = ν = rω = (3.5)

21) ⇒ ⇒

so P = mv
22)
VA = (Vcm – ωℓ/2)
= 50 – 5 × 5 = 25 m/s

VB =
= 50 + 25 = 75 m/s

23)

For topling about edge xx’

24) The distance OC =

Applying the theorem of parallel axes,
IC = IO + M(OC)2

25) Maximum drop in P.E. = maximum gain in K.E.

26)
27)

...(i)
Now to start sliding
for minimum F

F = 2g = 20N

28) Chain remains at table without slipping till weight of hanging part (max)
Let x be the length of chain that lies on the table.

So, minimum length on the table is

29)

30)
Let normal force between A and B is N1, then

and between B and C is N2, then

31) As we know
When H = R
tanθ = 4
θ = tan–1(4) = 76°

32) As acceleration is constant

So, using 1st equation of motion

Speed of the particle after 10s

33)

Using

Again,

34) Angle between forces = 120°

35) As
% error in P is

36)

For circle, For square,

37) B = µ0µrnI
= 4π × 10–7 × 20 × 100 × 3.5
B = 28π × 10–4

38) VA – VB = VL + VR =
Or 0.5 V = L × 8 + 0.5 × 0.2
Solving we get; L = 0.05 H

39)

Workdone = q × V = xy

40)

–e (VA – VB) = 6.4 × 10–19

VA – VB = –4V
VB – VA = 4V
VC – VA = 4V (∵ VB = VC)

41) In series

qA = qB = q = 10 × × 10–6 = 12µC

VA = = 6V VB = = 4V
In series

42)
E1 = 4V
and E2 = 8V
So, E2 > E1 current flows from Q to P.

∴ i= A
∴ Potential difference across
 PQ = ×9=3V

43) p.d. across 8Ω = E

E=
E = 4V

44) M.I of complete disc about ‘O’ point ....(i)

Radius of removed disc =

∴ Mass of removed disc = =M

[As M = πR2t ∴ M ∝ R2]

M.I. of removed disc about its own axis

Moment of inertia of removed disc about ‘O’
Iremoved disc = Icm + mx2

=
M.I. of complete disc can also be written as
Itotal = Iremoved disc + Iremaining disc

Itotal = ..(ii)
Equating (i) and (ii) we get

45)
Loss in K.E. = Gain in P.E.

9 – V2 = 10 (0.5)
⇒ V = 2 m/s
 46) Imedian line = IA + IB + IC + ID

=2×

47)
W = ΔPE = PEj – PEi

W=

48)

49)

50) Least count of circular scale

Zero error = 5(0.01 mm) = 0.05 mm
Measured value = 3 mm + 45 (0.01 mm)
= 3.45 mm
True value = 3.45 mm – 0.05 = 3.40 mm

CHEMISTRY
51) Due to absence of free —OH group at C1, cyclic structure of glucose penta-acetate cannot
revert to open chain aldehyde form and hence cannot form an oxime.

52)

53)

54)

Boiling point is in the order :

Carboxylic acid > Alcohols > Aldehydes > ether
This is due to strong hydrogen bonding in —COOH than —OH and than —CHO group.

55)

56) (I) (q) Gattermann-Koch reaction

(II) (r) Haloform reaction

(III) (s) Esterification

(IV) (p) Stephen reaction

57) Aldehyde having no α-hydrogen atoms on heating with concentrated alkali solution (50%)
undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
58) C6H5—O—CH2CH3 C6H5OH + CH3—CH2—Br

59) Tertiary alcohols are most reactive since they immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas reagent.(conc. HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2)

60)

61)

62) Thymine is not present in RNA.

63) Aromatic primary amine can not prepare by Gabrial phthalimide synthesis.

65)

Reaction between alcohols and halogen acid follows SN1 mechanism. In SN1 mechanism,
carbocations are formed as intermediates.
Let us consider the formation of carbocations with the given three alcohols.

In this case, 1° carbocation is formed. It is least stable. So, here SN2 mechanism is followed. In
this SN2 mechanism a transition state is observed in a-carbon which is linked with two
nucleophiles.
The reaction proceeds with stable carbocation. Higher the stability of carbocation, higher will
be the possibilities of attack of X– ion to the carbocation.
As the tertiary carbocation is most stable so the possibilities of attack of X– ion are more
prominent in case of tertiary carbocations. Thus, attack of X– ion to carbocation is proceedes
with tertiary carbocation as follows.

So, the correct option is (2)

66)

Boiling point ∝ Molecular mass

∝ Force of attraction

67)

II is most reactive due to three-NO2 at o and p-positions. IV is least reactive due to each of
resonance activation by nitro group present at meta-position. I is more reactive than III due to
two NO2 group at o and p-position.

68)

Optical isomers which are non-superimposable mirror image are known as Enantiomer.

69)

70)
Cr3+ : d3 →
Fe3+ (HS) : d5 →
Ni2+ : d8 →
V3+ : d2 →

71) The complex having only one type of ligand is known as homoleptic.

72)

73)

74) SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric.

75)

Only one oxyacid is possible, HOF

76) The slowest step is rate determining

∴ Rate = k [A] [B2] ... (i)
Above rate law contains unwanted [A]; it should be eliminated using fast reversible step (i).

....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

77)
or
78)

rate after 1 min r1 = k.CA

⇒ 2.303 × 0.1 ⇒ 0.2303 M min–1

79) Zn (s) + 2Ag+ ⇌ 2Ag + Zn2+ will give maximum voltage.

= SOP of anode – SOP of cathode
= + 0.76 – (– 0.80)
= + 1.56 V

80)

Theory based.

81) Elevation in boiling point concentration of a solution. Thus, the order of concentration of
solution is I < II < III.

82)

83)

or °C

84)

Strong acid + Strong base → Salt + H2O + 57 kJ mol–1

HNO3 + KOH → KNO3 + H2O
(0.5 mol) (0.2 mol)
∴ 0.2 mol KOH reacts with 0.2 mol of HNO3
= –57 × 0.2 = –11.4 kJ
∴ The heat released is 11.4 kJ.

85) Yellow to orange

86)
Vitamins Deficiency Disease
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) Beri beri
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) Cheilosis
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) Convulsions
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) Scurvy

87)

88)

89)

90)

91) Due to , there is formation of benzyne intermediate.

which gives two product in equivalent amount.

 92)
Molecule is symmetrical
n = 2 (even)

O.A. = 22–1 = 21 = 2

93)

List-I List-II
Coordination entity Wavelength of light absorbed in nm

(A) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (I) 535

(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (II) 475

(C) [Co(CN)6]3– (III) 310

(D) [Cu(H2O)4]2– (IV) 600

⇒ Δ(CFSE) ∝ ∝ strength of ligand

94) NaCl + con. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7 → CrO2Cl2 + KHSO4 + NaHSO4 + H2O

(B) Reddish brown
CrO2Cl2 + NaOH → Na2CrO4 + NaCl + H2O
(C) Yellow colour

95)

96) (First order)

(Zero order)

97)
 ⇒ 1.0542 V

98) strong electrolytes give straight-line decreasing graphs, in which the graph of stronger
electrolyte will always be above the graph of the comparatively weaker electrolyte.
In option 2, Graph III is curved and corresponds to NH4OH which is a weak electrolyte. Graph
II & I respectively represent NaCl and HCl. (Ionic molar conductivity of H+ is very high).

99)

The boiling point of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1 M KCl solution.

100) An important characteristic of these sols is that if the dispersion medium is separated
from the dispersed phase (say by evaporation), the sol can be reconstituted by simply
remixing with the dispersion medium. That is why these sols are also called reversible sols.

BOTANY

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 91

103) New NCERT Page no. 93

104) NCERT XI Pg # 58

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

111) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134,135

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 171-172

130) DNA content gets doubled in S-phase.

G2 phase is also called pre-mitotic phase.

131) Chromatin material condense to form chromosomes during cell division.

132)

SER and lysosomes do not have ribosomes.

133) NCERT XI Pg. # 93, Fig.8.4

134)

Lysosomes have acidic pH = 5.

Cytoplasm pH = 7.2

135) Active transport occurs from low concentration to high concentration.

137) NCERT - Pg. # 94

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 153-158

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136-142

142) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

 148) NCERT Pg. # 127-128

149) NCERTXI, Pg. # 122

150)

NCERT, Pg. # 97

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 196

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 194

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 202

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 203

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 233

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 245

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 243

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 244

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95-96

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

168)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 208-212

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

171) NCERT-XI Pg. # 42

172) NCERT-XI Pg. # 43

173) NCERT-XI Pg. # 45

174) NCERT-XI Pg. # 48, 49, 50, 51

175) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 102

176) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 116

177) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 114

178) NCERT Page # 224,226

179) NCERT Page # 227

180) NCERT Page # 221

181)

NCERT Page # 219; Fig. 17.1

182) NCERT Page # 186

183) NCERT Page # 187

184) NCERT Page # 189

185) NCERT Page # 183

186) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 197

187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 194

188) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 233

189) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 243

190) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 245, 242, 243

191)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

192)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

193)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

194) NCERT-XI Pg. # 46, 47, 48, 49

195) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 103, 104

196) Old NCERT-XI Pg. # 118

197) NCERT Page # 225

198) NCERT Page # 227

199) NCERT Page # 220

200)

NCERT Page # 189,190