UPSC PYQs

History (a) Katha Upanishad

Ancient History (b) Chandogya Upanishad
Pre-Historic Time (c) Aitareya Upanishad
Denisovan (2019) (d) Mundaka Upanishad
1. The word Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned Jainism & Buddhism
in media in reference to Dhanyakataka (2023)
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs 7. In which one of the following regions was
(b) an early human species Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a
(c) a cave system found in North-East India prominent Buddhist centre under the
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian Mahasanghikas, located?
subcontinent (a) Andhra
Indus Valley Civilization (b) Gandhara
Indus Site (2021) (c) Kalinga
2. Which one of the following ancient towns is (d) Magadha
well-known for its elaborate system of water Concept of Stupa (2023)
harvesting and management by building a 8. With reference to ancient India, consider the
series of dams and channelizing water into following statements:
connected reservoirs? 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in
(a) Dholavira origin.
(b) Kalibangan 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
(c) Rakhigarhi 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative
(d) Ropar structure in Buddhist tradition.
Harappan site (2019) How many of the statements given above are
3. Which one of the following is not a Harappan correct?
site? (a) Only one
(a) Chanhudaro (b) Only two
(b) Kot Diji (c) All three
(c) Sohgaura (d) None
(d) Desalpur Quotes in Jainism (2023)
People of IVC (2013) 9. "Souls are not only the property of animal
4. Which of the following characterizes/ and plant life, but also of rocks, running water
characterize the people of Indus Civilization? and many other natural objects not looked on
1. They possessed great palaces and as living by other religious sects."
temples. The above statement reflects one of the core
2. They worshipped both male and female beliefs of which one of the following religious
deities. sects of ancient India?
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in (a) Buddhism
warfare. (b) Jainism
Select the correct statement/ statements (c) Shaivism
using the codes given below. (d) Vaishnavism
(a) 1 and 2 only Major works in Buddhism and Jainism (2023)
(b) 2 only 10. With reference to ancient Indian History,
(c) 1,2 and 3 consider the following pairs:
(d) None of the statements given above is Literary work Author
correct Devichandragupta: Bilhana
Vedic Period
Comparison between Rigvedic and IVC people Hammira- Nayachandra Suri
(2017) Mahakavya:
5. With reference to the difference between the Milinda-panha Nagarjuna
culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley Nitivakyamrita Somadeva Suri
people, which of the following statements
How many of the above pairs are correctly
is/are correct?
matched?
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and
(a) Only one
helmet in warfare whereas the people of
(b) Only two
Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any
(c) Only three
evidence of using them.
(d) All four
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and
Shrines (2023)
copper whereas Indus Valley people knew
11. Consider the following pairs:
only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the Site Well known for
horse whereas there is no evidence of 1. Besnagar  Shaivite cave shrine
Indus Valley people having been aware of
2. Bhaja  Buddhist cave shrine
this animal.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Sittanavasal  Jain cave shrine
given below: How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) 1 only matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) All three
Upanishads (2014) (d) None
6. The national motto of India, 'Satyameva Jaina Texts (2022)
Jayate' inscribed below the Emblem of India is 12. With reference to Indian history, consider the
taken from following texts:
1
 1. Nettipakarana 18. With reference to the religious practices in
2. Parishishtaparvan India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to
3. Avadanashataka (a) Buddhism
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (b) Jainism
Which of the above are Jaina texts? (c) Vaishnavism
(a) 1,2 and 3 (d) Shaivism
(b) 2 and 4 only Future Buddha (2018)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 19. With reference to Indian history, who among
(d) 2,3 and 4 the following is a future Buddha, yet to come
Historical Persons (2022) to save the world?
13. With reference to Indian history, consider the (a) Avalokiteshvara
following pairs: (b) Lokesvara
Historical person Known as (c) Maitreya
1. Aryadeva - Jaina scholar (d) Padmapani
2. Dignaga - Buddhist scholar Religious sects in Jainism and Buddhism
3. Nathamuni - Vaishnava scholar (2017)
How many pairs given above are correctly 20. With reference to the religious history of
matched? India, consider the following statements:
(a) None of the pairs 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the
(b) Only one pair sects of Jainism.
(c) Only two pairs 2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents
(d) All three pairs of phenomena were not wholly
Sects of Buddhism (2020) momentary, but existed forever in a
14. With reference to the religious history of latent form.
India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana correct?
Buddhism. (a) 1 only
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of (b) 2 only
Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. The deification of Buddha by (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana Cave Paintings (2017)
Buddhism. 21. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one
Which of the statements given above is/are of the most famous and oft-illustrated
correct? paintings at
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Ajanta
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Badami
(c) 3 only (c) Bagh
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Ellora
Paramitas (2020) Bodhisattva (2016)
15. With reference to the cultural history of India, 22. With reference to the religious history of
which one of the following is the correct India, consider the following statements:
description of the term 'paramitas'? 1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to
(a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
in aphoristic (sutra) style 2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on
(b) Philosophical schools that did not accept his way to enlightenment.
the authority of Vedas 3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own
(c) Perfections whose attainment led to the salvation to help all sentient beings on
Bodhisattva path their path to it.
(d) Powerful merchant guilds of early Which of the statements given above is/are
medieval South India correct?
Parivrajaka, Shramana & Upasaka (2020) (a) 1 only
16. With reference to the cultural history of India, (b) 2 and 3 only
consider the following pairs: (c) 2 only
1. Parivrajaka - Renunciant and Wanderer (d) 1,2 and 3
2. Shramana - Priest with a high status Kingdoms associated with the life of Buddha
3. Upasaka - Lay follower of Buddhism (2015)
Which of the pairs given above are correctly 23. Which of the following kingdoms were
matched? associated with the life of the Buddha?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Avanti
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Gandhara
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Kosala
(d) 1,2 and 3 4. Magadha
Features of Mahayana Buddhism (2019) Select the correct answer using the code
17. Consider the following: given below.
1. Deification of the Buddha (a) 1,2 and 3
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Image worship and rituals (c) 1,3 and 4
Which of the above is/are the feature/ (d) 3 and 4 only
features of Mahayana Buddhism? Kingdoms associated with the life of Buddha
(a) 1 only (2014)
(b) 1 and 2 only 24. Which of the following Kingdoms were
(c) 2 and 3 only associated with the life of the Buddha?
(d) 1,2 and 3 1. Avanti
Sthanakvasis (2018) 2. Gandhara

2
 3. Kosala entitled to the legal status of the master's
4. Magadha son.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are
given below. correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 3
25. Buddhist Monasteries (2014) Ashoka Rock edicts & Sites (2022)
25. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition 30. Consider the following pairs:
and culture in India, consider the following Site of Ashola's Location in the
pairs: major rock State of
Famous shrine Location edicts
1. Tabo monastery Spiti Valley 1. Dhauli Odisha
and temple 2. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
complex:
2. Lhotsava Zanskar Valley 3. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh
Lhakhang 4. Kalsi Karnataka
temple, Nako:
3. Alchi temple: Ladakh How many pairs given above are correctly
complex matched?
(a) Only one pair
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) Only two pairs
correctly matched?
(c) Only three pairs
(b) 1 only
(d) All four pairs
(c) 2 and 3 only
Ashokan inscription (2020)
(d) 1 and 3 only
31. Who among the following rulers advised his
(e) 1,2 and 3
subjects through this inscription?
Chaityas and Viharas (2013)
"Whosoever praises his religious sect or
26. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called
blames other sects out of excessive devotion
Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas.
to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his
What is the difference between the two?
own sect, he rather injures his own sect very
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while
severely."
Chaitya is the dwelling place of the
(a) Ashoka
monks
(b) Samudragupta
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while
(c) Harshavardhana
Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(d) Krishnadeva Raya
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the
Ashokan Inscription (2019)
cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
32. In which of the following relief sculpture
(d) There is no material difference between
inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka)
the two
mentioned along with the stone portrait of
Nirvana in Buddhism (2013)
Ashoka?
27. Which one of the following describes best the
(a) Kanganahalli
concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(b) Sanchi
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(c) Shahbargarhi
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(d) Sohgaura
(c) A state of bliss and rest
Edicts of Asoka (2016)
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension
33. Who of the following had first deciphered the
Jain Doctrine (2013)
edicts of Emperor Ashoka?
28. Which of the following statements is/are
(a) Georg Bühler
applicable to Jain doctrine?
(b) James Prinsep
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to
(c) Max Müller
practice penance.
(d) William Jones
2. Every object, even the smallest particle
Post-Mauryan Period
has a soul.
Kulyavapa and Dronavapa (2020)
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must
34. With reference to the history of India, the
be ended.
terms "kulyavapa" and "dronavapa" denote
(a) measurement of land
Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) coins of different monetary value
given below.
(c) classification of urban land
(a) 1 only
(d) religious rituals
(b) 2 and 3 only
Gupta Period
(c) 1 and 3 only
Towns of Gupta period (2020)
(d) 1,2 and 3
35. With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty
Mahajanapadas
in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala,
Mauryan Period
Kadura and Chaul were well known as
29. Kautilya's Arthashastra (2022) According to
(a) ports handling foreign trade
Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the
(b) capitals of powerful kingdoms
following are correct?
(c) places of exquisite stone art and
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a
architecture
judicial punishment.
(d) important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
2. If a female slave bore her master a son,
Vishti (2019)
she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was
fathered by her master, the son was

3
36. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in (a) Kings employing women bodyguards
India during the Gupta period, which one of (b) Learned persons assembling in royal
the following statements is correct? courts to discuss religious and
(a) It was considered a source of income philosophical matters
for the State, a sort of tax paid by (c) Young girls keeping watch over
the people. agricultural fields and driving away birds
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya and animals
Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the (d) A king defeated in a battle committing
Gupta Empire. ritual suicide by starving himself to death
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to Sangam Literature (2022)
weekly wages. 42. Which one of the following statements about
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent Sangam literature in ancient South India is
as the forced labourer. correct?
Harshavardhana Period (a) Sangam poems are devoid of any
Kingdoms in North India (2021) reference to material culture.
37. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of (b) The social classification of Varna was
Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, known to Sangam poets.
which of the following kingdoms were holding (c) Sangam poems have no reference to
power in Northern India? warrior ethic.
1. The Guptas of Magadha (d) Sangam literature refers to magical
2. The Paramaras of Malwa forces as irrational.
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar South Indian Dynasties
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj 43. Kingdoms in 8th century AD (2023)
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri 43. Consider the following dynasties:
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi 1. Hoysala
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Gahadavala
given below. 3. Kakatiya
(a) 1,2 and 5 4. Yadava
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 How many of the above dynasties established
(c) 2, 3 and 4 their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(d) 5 and 6 (a) Only one
'Hundi (2020) (b) Only two
38. Which of the following phrases defines the (c) Only three
nature of the 'Hundi' generally referred to in (d) None
the sources of the post-Harsha period? Vijayanagara Empire (2023)
(a) An advisory issued by the king to his 44. Who among the following rulers of
subordinates Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam
(b) A diary to be maintained for daily across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-
accounts aqueduct several kilometres long from the
(c) A bill of exchange river to the capital city?
(d) An order from the feudal lord to his (a) Devaraya I
subordinates (b) Mallikarjuna
Writings of Hiuen tsang (2013) (c) Vira Vijaya
39. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen (d) Virupaksha
Tsang) who visited India recorded the general Miscellaneous
conditions and culture of India at that time. In Playwrights (2021)
this context, which of the following 45. With reference to the history of ancient India,
statements is/are correct? Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara
1. The roads and river-routes were were famous
completely immune from robbery. (a) Jain monks
2. As regards punishment for offences, (b) playwrights
ordeals by fire, water and poison were (c) temple architects
the instruments for determining the (d) philosophers
innocence or guilt of a person. Mitakshara System (2021)
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at 46. With reference to the history of ancient India,
ferries and barrier stations. which of the following statements is/are
Select the correct answer using the codes correct?
given below. 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper
(a) 1 only castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law
(b) 2 and 3 only for lower castes.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can
(d) 1,2 and 3 claim right to the property during the
Sangam Period lifetime of the father, whereas in the
Ancient Ports of South India (2023) Dayabhaga system, it is only after the
40. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, death of the father that the sons can
Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as claim right to the property.
(a) capital cities 3. The Mitakshara system deals with the
(b) ports matters related to the property held by
(c) centres of iron-and-steel making male members only of a family, whereas
(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras the Dayabhaga system deals with the
Sangam Poems (2023) matters related to the property held by
41. Which one of the following explains the both male and female members of a
practice of Vattakirutal' as mentioned in family.
Sangam poems?

4
 Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1 and 3
given below. Cultura1 History (2016)
(a) 1 and 2 52. With reference to the cultural history of India,
(b) 2 only the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic
(c) 1 and 3 histories and epic tales was the profession of
(d) 3 only who of the following?
Historic places (2021) (a) Shramana
47. Consider the following pairs: (b) Parivraajaka
(Historical place) (Well-known (c) Agrahaarika
for) (d) Maagadha
1. Burzahom: Rock-cut shrines Indian Philosophy (2014)
2. Chandraketugarh: Terracotta art 53. Which one of the following pairs does not
3. Ganeshwar: Copper artefacts form part of the six systems of Indian
Which of the pairs given above is/are Philosophy?
correctly matched? (a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
(a) 1 only (b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(b) 1 and 2 (c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(c) 3 only (d) Sankhva and Yoga
(d) 2 and 3 Rock-cut Architecture (2013)
Scholars of Ancient India (2020) 54. With reference to the history of Indian rock-
48. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of cut architecture, consider the following
ancient India, consider the following statements:
statements: 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest
1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra surviving rock-cut caves in India.
Shunga. 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were
2. Amarasimha is associated with originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor
Harshavardhana. Chandragupta Maurya.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different
Gupta - II. faiths.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
Literature in Sunga Dynasty (2016) Sankhya School (2013)
49. Which one of the following books of ancient 55. With reference to the history of philosophical
India has the love story of the son of the thought in India, consider the following
founder of Sunga dynasty? statements regarding Sankhya school:
(a) Swapnavasavadatta 1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of
(b) Malavikagnimitra rebirth or transmigration of soul.
(c) Méghadoota 2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-
(d) Ratnavali knowledge that leads to liberation and
Architecture (2016) not any exterior influence or agent.
50. What is/are common to the two historical Which of the statements given above is/are
places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram? correct?
1. Both were built in the same period. (a) 1 only
2. Both belong to the same religious (b) 2 only
denomination. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Both have rock-cut monuments. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code Mural Paintings (2013)
given below. 56. Consider the following historical places:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Ajanta Caves
(b) 3 only 2. Lepakshi Temple
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Sanchi Stupa
(d) None of the statements given above is Which of the above places is/are also known
correct for mural paintings?
Terms (2016) (a) 1 only
51. In the context of the history of India, consider (b) 1 and 2 only
the following pairs: (c) 1,2 and 3
Term Description (d) None
Eripatti: Land, revenue from which was Medieval India
set apart for the main. tenance Early Medieval India
of the village tank Events in Chronology (2020)
Taniyurs: Villages donated to a single 57. Consider the following events in the history of
Brahmin or a group of India:
Brahmins 1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
Ghatikas: Colleges generally attached to 2. Establishment of Pallava power under
the temples Mahendravarman - I
Which of the pairs given above is/are 3. Establishment of Chola power by
correctly matched? Parantaka - I
(a) 1 and 2 4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
(b) 3 only What is the correct chronological order of the
(c) 2 and 3 above events, starting from the earliest time?

5
 (a) 2-1-4-3 Delhi Sultanates
(b) 3-1-4-2 Kulah-Daran (2022)
(c) 2-4-1-3 63. With reference to Indian history, who of the
(d) 3-4-1-2 following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?
Rajputs (a) Arab merchants
Dynasties (2022) (b) Qalandars
58. Consider the following pairs: (c) Persian calligraphists
King Dynasty (d) Sayyids
Delhi Sultans (2021)
1. Nannuka Chandela
64. Consider the following statements:
2. Jayashakti Paramara 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that
Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in
3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara
pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin
How many pairs given above are correctly Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and
matched? crossed the Indus.
(a) Only one pair 3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of
(b) Only two pairs Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama
(c) Only three pairs reached the coast of Kerala.
(d) All four pairs Which of the statements given above is/are
Vijayanagara Empire correct?
Women (2021) (a) 1 only
59. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the (b) 1 and 2
women in Vijayanagara Empire were expert (c) 3 only
in which of the following areas? (d) 2 and 3
1. Wrestling Revenue administration (2019)
2. Astrology 65. Consider the following statements:
3. Accounting 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi
4. Soothsaying Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue
Select the correct answer using the code collection was known as 'Amil'.
given below. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was
(a) 1,2 and 3 only an ancient indigenous institution.
(b) 1,3 and 4 only 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into
(c) 2 and 4 only existence during the reign of Khalji
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Sultans of Delhi.
Kalyaana Mandapas (2019) Which of the statements given above is/are
60. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable correct?
feature in the temple construction in the (a) 1 only
kingdom of (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Chalukya (c) 3 only
(b) Chandela (d) 1,2 and 3
(c) Rashtrakuta Mughal Empire
(d) Vijayanagara Yogavasishta (2022)
Vijayanagara Rule (2016) 66. "Yogavāsistha" was translated into Persian by
61. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the (a) Akbar
following statements: (b) Humayun
1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending (c) Shahjahan
on the quality of the land. (d) Aurangzeb
2. Private owners of workshops paid an Mughal empire (2021)
industries tax. 67. With reference to medieval India, which one
Which of the statements given above is/are of the following is the correct sequence in
correct? ascending order in terms of size?
(a) 1 only (a) Paragana-Sarkar-Suba
(b) 2 only (b) Sarkar-Paragana-Suba
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Suba-Sarkar-Paragana
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Paragana-Suba-Sarkar
Khalji and Tughlaq (2022) Jagirdar and Zamindar (2019)
62. With reference to Indian history, consider the 68. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are
following statements: the difference/differences between Jagirdar
1. The first Mongol invasion of India and Zamindar?
happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din 1. Jagirdars were holders of land
Khalji. assignments in lieu of judicial and police
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one duties, whereas Zamindars were holders
Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and of revenue rights without obligation to
besieged the city.Muhammad-bin- perform any duty other than revenue
Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of collection.
north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were
Which of the statements given above is/are hereditary and revenue rights of
correct? Zamindars were not hereditary.
(a) 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only
(d) 3 only (b) 2 only

6
 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Bani Thani Painting (2018)
Mian Tansen (2019) 76. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs
69. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of to the
the following statements is not correct? (a) Bundi school
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by (b) Jaipur school
Emperor Akbar. (c) Kangra school
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu (d) Kishangarh school
gods and goddesses. Cultural History (2018)
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons. 77. With reference to cultural history of India,
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas. consider the following statements:
Mughal emperor (2019) 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are
70. Who among the following Mughal Emperors devotional songs in praise of Lord
shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts Krishna.
to album and individual portrait? 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
(a) Humayun 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are
(b) Akbar contemporaries.
(c) Jahangir 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional
(d) Shah Jahan songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Arrival of Mughals (2015) Which of the statements given above are
71. Consider the following: correct?
The arrival of Babur into India led to the (a) 1 and 3 only
1. introduction of gunpowder in the (b) 2 and 4 only
subcontinent (c) 1,2 and 3
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the (d) 2,3 and 4
region's architecture Architecture (2018)
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the 78. With reference to the cultural history of India,
region consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. White marble was used in making Buland
given below. Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in
(b) 3 only making Bara Imambara and Rumi
(c) 1 and 3 only Darwaza at Lucknow.
(d) 1,2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
Ibadat Khana (2014) correct?
72. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was i) 1 only
(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family ii) 2 only
(b) Akbar's private prayer chamber iii) Both 1 and 2
(c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions iv) Neither 1 nor 2
with scholars of various religions Foreign Travellers (2018)
(d) the room in which the nobles belonging 79. Which one of the following foreign travellers
to different religions gathered to discuss elaborately discussed about diamonds and
religious affairs diamond mines of India?
Bhakti saints during Babur (2013) (a) Francois Bernier
73. Consider the following Bhakti Saints: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
1. Dadu Dayal (c) Jean de Thevenot
2. Guru Nanak (d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
3. Tyagaraja Manipuri Sankeertana (2017) With reference
Who among the above was/were preaching to Manipuri Sankirtana,
when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took 80. consider the following statements:
over? 1. It is a song and dance performance.
(a) 1 and 3 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments
(b) 2 only used in the performance.
(c) 2 and 3 3. It is performed to narrate the life and
(d) 1 and 2 deeds of Lord Krishna.
Miscellaneous Which of the statements given above is/are
Fanam in Medieval India (2022) correct?
74. In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred (a) 1,2 and 3
to: (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Clothing (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Coins (d) 1 only
(c) Ornaments Sun temples in India (2017)
(d) Weapons 81. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun
Saints (2019) temples?
75. Consider the following statements: 1. Arasavalli
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of 2. Amarakantak
Akbar. 3. Omkareshwar
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Select the correct answer using the code
Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 Kakatiya Kingdom (2017)

7
82. Which one of the following was a very 2. Emergence of administrative structure
important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? based on control and possession of land
(a) Kakinada 3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship
(b) Motupalli between the feudal lord and his overlord
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Nelluru given below.
Cultural History of Medieval India (2016) (a) 1 and 2 only
83. With reference to the cultural history of (b) 2 and 3 only
medieval India, consider the following (c) 3 only
statements: (d) 1,2 and 3
1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were Designations in Medieval India (2014)
monotheistic and condemned idolatry. 90. In medieval India, the designations
2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for
the theory of rebirth and rejected the (a) military officers
caste hierarchy. (b) village headmen
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) specialists in Vedic rituals
correct? (d) chiefs of craft guilds
(a) 1 only Panchayatan (2014)
(b) 2 only 91. With reference to the cultural history of India,
(c) Both 1 and 2 the term 'Panchayatan' refers to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) an assembly of village elders
Communities in Medieval India (2016) (b) a religious sect
84. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian (c) a style of temple construction
history were generally (d) an administrative functionary
(a) agriculturists Architecture (2014)
(b) warriors 92. With reference to the Indian history of art and
(c) weavers culture, consider the following pairs:
(d) traders Famous work of Site
Araghatta (2016) sculpture sculpture
85. With reference to the economic history of 1. A grand image of Ajanta
medieval India, the term 'Araghatta' refers to Buddha's Mahaparinirvana
(a) bonded labour with numerous celestial
(b) land grants made to military officers musicians above and the
(c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of land sorrowful figures of his
(d) wasteland converted to cultivated land followers below
Medieval Indian States (2015) 2. A huge image of Varaha Mount Abu
86. Consider the following pairs: Avatar (boar incarnation)
Medieval Indian Present Region of Vishnu, as he rescues
State Goddess Earth from the
1. Champaka Central India deep and chaotic waters,
2. Durgara Jammu sculpted on rock
3. "Arjuna's Penance"/ Mamallapura
3. Kuluta Malabar "Descent of Ganga" m
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly sculpted on the surface of
matched? huge boulders
(a) 1 and 2 Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 2 only correctly matched?
(c) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only (b) 3 only
Kings of Medieval India (2015) (c) 1 and 3 only
87. Who of the following founded a new city on (d) 1,2 and 3
the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna Indian theatre, Dance and music (2014)
and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the 93. Consider the following pairs:
agent of a deity to whom all the land south of 1. Garba: Gujarat
the river Krishna was supposed to belong? 2. Mohiniattam: Odisha
(a) Amoghavarsha I 3. Yakshagana: Karnataka
(b) Bailala II Which of the pairs given above is/are
(c) Harihara I correctly matched?
(d) Prataparudra II (a) 1 only
Art and Architecture (2015) (b) 2 and 3 only
88. With reference to the art and archaeological (c) 1 and 3 only
history of India, which one among the (d) 1,2 and 3
following was made earliest? Kalaripayattu (2014)
(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar 94. With reference to India's culture and
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu'?
(c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram (a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri still prevalent in some parts of South
Feudal System (2015) India
89. With reference to Indian history, which of the (b) It is an ancient style bronze and
following is/are the essential brasswork still found in southern part of
element/elements of the feudal system? Coromandel area
1. A very strong centralized political (c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and
authority and a very weak provincial or a living tradition in the northern part of
local political authority Malabar

8
 (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living 2. Chicacole
tradition in some parts of South India 3. Trichinopoly
Philosophy (2014) Select the correct answer using the code
95. Consider the following statements: given below.
1. 'Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of (a) 1 only
Saint Dadu Dayal. (b) 1 and 2
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was (c) 3 only
propounded by Madhvacharya. (d) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are Plants under new and old world (2019)
correct? 101. Which one of the following groups of plants
(a) 1 only was domesticated in the New Worid and
(b) 2 only introduced into the old World'?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
Manganiyars (2014) (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
96. A community of people called Manganiyars is (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
well-known for their Consolidation of British Rule
(a) martial arts in North-East India British Acts (2023)
(b) musical tradition in North-West India 102. By which one of the following Acts was the
(c) classical vocal music in South India Governor General of Bengal designated as
(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India the Governor General of India?
Dance Forms (2013) (a) The Regulating Act
97. In the context of cultural history of India, a (b) The Pitt's India Act.
pose in dance and dramatics called (c) The Charter Act of 1793
'Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian (d) The Charter Act of 1833
artists from ancient times till today. Which Archaeologists (2023)
one of the following statements best 103. With reference to the Indian History,
describes this pose? Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were
but oppositely curved at waist and neck associated with
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and (a) archaeological excavations
make-up are combined to symbolize (b) establishment of English Press in Colonial
certain epic or historic characters India
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are (c) establishment of Churches in Princely
used to express oneself or to tell a story States
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and (d) construction of railways in Colonial India
certain hand gestures are emphasized to Government of India Act 1919 (2022)
express the feelings of love or eroticism 104. In the Government of India Act 1919, the
Modern India functions of Provineial Government were
Fall of Mughals dividod into "Reserved" and "Transferred"
Surrender of Diu to Portuguese (2023) subjects. Which of the following were treated
98. Who among the following rulers of medieval as "Reserved" subjects?
Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese? 1. Administration of Justice
(a) Ahmad Shah 2. Local Self-Government
(b) Mahmud Begarha 3. Land Revenue
(c) Bahadur Shah 4. Police
(d) Muhammad Shah Select the correct answer using the code
Advent of Europeans given below:
Establishment of factories by Dutch, (a) 1,2 and 3
Portuguese and English (2022) (b) 2,3 and 4
99. With reference to Indian history, consider the (c) 1, 3 and 4
following statements: (d) 1.2 and 4
1. The Dutch established their factories Regional Kingdoms (2021)
warehouses on the east coast on lands 105. With reference to Indian history, which of the
granted to them by Gajapati rulers. following statements is/are correct?
2. Alfonso de Albaquerque captured Goa 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of
from the Bijapur Sultanate. Hyderabad State.
3. The English East India Company 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of
establisbed a factory at Madras on a plot Vijayanagara Empire.
of land leased from a representative of 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of
the Vijayanagara empire. the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah
Durrani.
Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Factories of British EIC (2021) Aurans, Banian & Mirasidar (2020)
100. In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in 106. With reference to the history of India,
which of the following was/were the consider the following pairs:
factory/factories of the English East India 1. Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the
Company located? State
1. Broach

9
 2. Banian - Indian agent of the East India (b) 2 only
Company (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to (d) 1,2 and 3
the State Ryotwari Settlement System (2017)
Which of the pairs given above is/are 113. Who among the following was/were
correctly matched? associated with the introduction of Ryotwari
(a) 1 and 2 only Settlement in India during the British rule?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Lord Cornwallis
(c) 3 only 2. Alexander Read
(d) 1,2 and 3 3. Thomas Munro
Wellesly (2020) Select the correct answer using the code
107. Wellesley established the Fort William College given below:
at Calcutta because (a) 1 only
(a) he was asked by the Board of Directors at (b) 1 and 3 only
London to do so (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) he wanted to revive interest in oriental (d) 1,2 and 3
learning in India Montague Chelmsford Reforms (2016)
(c) he wanted to provide William Carey and 114. The Montague-Chelmisford Proposals were
his associates with employment related to
(d) he wanted to train British civilians for (a) social reforms
administrative purpose in India (b) educational reforms
Wood's Dispatch (2018) (c) reforms in police administration
108. Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the (d) constitutional reforms
following statements are true? Government of India Act, 1919 (2015)
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 115. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly
2. Establishment of universities was defined
recommended. (a) the separation of power between the
3. English as a medium of instruction at all judiciary and the legislature
levels of education was recommended. (b) the jurisdiction of the central and
Select the correct answer using the code provincial governments
given below: (c) the powers of the Secretary of State for
(a) 1 and 2 only India and the Viceroy
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above
(c) 1 and 3 only Queen Victoria's Proclamation, 1858 (2014)
(d) 1,2 and 3 116. What was/were the object/objects of Queen
Result of British Rule (2018) Victoria's Proclamation (1858)?
109. Economically, one of the results of the British 1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian
rule in India in the 19th century was the States
(a) increase in the export of Indian 2. To place the Indian administration under
handicrafts the British Crown
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned 3. To regulate East India Company's trade
factories with India
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture Select the correct answer using the code
(d) rapid increase in the urban population given below.
EEIC Exports in 1st century (2018) (a) 1 and 2 only
110. The staple commodities of export by the (b) 2 only
English East India Company from Bengal in (c) 1 and 3 only
the middle of the 18th century were (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium Reform Movements
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead Ishwar Chandra Yidya Sagar (2021)
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea 117. Who among the following was associated as
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium Secretary with Hindu Female School which
Subsidiary Alliance (2018) later came to be known as Bethune Female
111. Which one of the following statements does School?
not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance (a) Annie Besant
introduced by Lord Wellesley? (b) Debendranath Tagore
(a) To maintain a large standing army at (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
other's expense (d) Sarojini Naidu
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic Vital Vidhxansals (2020)
danger 118. The Vital-Vidhvansal, the first monthly journal
(c) To secure a fixed income for the to have the untouchable people as its target
Company audience was published by
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
Indian States (b) Jyotiba Phule
English Education in India (2018) (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
112. Which of the following led to the introduction (d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
of English Education in India? Rakhmabai case of 1884 (2020)
1. Charter Act of 1813 119. In the context of Indian history, the
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around
1823 1. women's right to gain education
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy 2. age of consent
Select the correct answer using the code 3. restitution of conjugal rights
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below:

10
 (a) 1 and 2 only (d) Birsa Munda's Revolt of 1899-1900
(b) 2 and 8 only Factories Act, 1881 (2017)
(c) 1 and 3 only 126. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1,2 and 3 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with
Movements/Organisations (2019) a view to fix the wages of industrial
120. Consider the following pairs: workers and to allow the workers to form
Movement / Leader trade unions.
Organization 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in
1. All India Anti- Mahatma Gandhi organizing the labour movement in
Untouchability British India.
League Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. All India Kisan Swami Sahajanand (a) 1 only
Sabha Saraswati (b) 2 only
3. Self-Respect E. V. Ramaswami (c) Both 1 and 2
Movement Naicker (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the pairs given above is/are Political Associations before Indian National
correctly matched? Congress (2017)
(a) 1 only 127. Consider the following pairs:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the
(c) 2 and 3 only British Indian Association
(d) 1,2 and 3 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - Founder
Events in 19th Century (2018) of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
121. Which among the following events happened 3. Surendranath Banerjee -Founder of the
earliest? Indian Association
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan. matched?
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote (a) 1 only
Anandmath. (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first (c) 2 and 3 only
Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil (d) 1,2 and 3
Services Examination. Economic critique of colonialism (2015)
Satya Shodhak Samaj (2016) 128. Who of the following was/were economic
122. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized critic/critics of colonialism in India?
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
Bihar 2. G. Subramania Iyer
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat 3. R. C. Dutt
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra Select the correct answer using the code
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab given below.
Keshab Chandra Sen (2016) (a) 1 only
123. Consider the following: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation (d) 1,2 and 3
3. Indian Reform Association Indian National Congress (2015)
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the 129. Consider the following statements:
establishment of which of the above? 1. The first woman President of the Indian
(a) 1 and 3 only National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian
(c) 3 only National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
(d) 1,2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
Modern Nationalism in India correct?
Desher Katha book (2020) (a) 1 only
124. With reference to the book "Desher Katha" (b) 2 only
written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during (c) Both 1 and 2
the freedom struggle, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements: Ilbert Bill Controversy (2013)
1. It warned against the Colonial State's 130. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
hypnotic conquest of the mind. (a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi arms by the Indians
street plays and folk songs. (b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers
3. The use of 'desh' by Deuskar was in the and magazines published in Indian
specific context of the region of Bengal. languages
Which of the statements given above are (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on
correct? the Indian magistrates with regard to the
(a) 1 and 2 only trial of the Europeans
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) removal of a duty on imported cotton
(c) 1 and 3 only cloth
(d) 1,2 and 3 National Movement (1905 - 1918)
Uloulan (2020) Swadeshi Movement (2023)
125. With reference to the history of India, 131. Consider the following statements:
"Ulgulan" or the Great Tumult is the Statement-1: 7th August is declared as the
description of which of the following events? National Handloom Day.
(a) The Revolt of 1857 Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the
(b) The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 Swadeshi Movement was launched on the
(c) The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 same day.

11
 Which one of the following is correct in 137. What was the main reason for the split in the
respect of the above statements? Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) Introduction of communalism into Indian
correct and Statement-II is the correct politics by Lord Minto
explanation for Statement-I (b) Extremists' lack of faith in the capacity of
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the moderates to negotiate with the
correct and Statement-II is not the correct British Government
explanation for Statement-I (c) Foundation of Muslim League
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (d) Aurobindo Ghosh's inability to be elected
incorrect as the President of the Indian National
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Congress
is correct
People associated with Ghadar Party (2022) Swadeshi Movement (2015)
132. Consider the following freedom fighters: 138. Which one of the following movements has
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh contributed to a split in the Indian National
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Congress resulting in the emergence of
3. Rash Behari Bose 'moderates' and 'extremists'?
Who of the above was/were actively (a) Swadeshi Movement
associated with the Ghadar Party? (b) Quit India Movement
(a) 1 and 2 (c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) 2 only (d) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) 1 and 3 Bengal Partition (2014)
(d) 3 only 139. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon
Madanapalle (2021) in 1905 lasted until
133. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra (a) the First World War when Indian troops
Pradesh, which one of the following were needed by the British and the
statements is correct? partition was ended
(a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour (b) King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at
Indian National Flag here. the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India (c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience
Movement of Andhra region from here. Movement
(c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the (d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East
National Anthem from Bengali to English Bengal became East Pakistan
here. Annie Besant (2013)
(d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set 140. Annie Besant was
up headquarters of Theosophical Society 1. responsible for starting the Home Rule
first here. Movement
Swadeshi Movement (2019) 2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
134. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, 3. once the President of the Indian National
consider the following statements: Congress
1. It contributed to the revival of the Select the correct statement/ statements
indigenous artisan crafts and industries. using the codes given below.
2. The National Council of Education was (a) 1 only
established as a part of Swadeshi (b) 2 and 3 only
Movement. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1,2 and 3
correct? National Movement (1919 - 1939)
(a) 1 only Songs from Prison (2021)
(b) 2 only 141. Who among the following is associated with
(c) Both 1 and 2 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Indian religious lyrics in English?
Champaran Satyagraha (2018) (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
135. Which one of the following is a very (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
significant aspect of the Champaran (c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Satyagraha? (d) Sarojini Naidu
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, Gandhi Irwin Pact (2020)
students and women in the National 142. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the
Movement following?
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal 1. Invitation to Congress to participate in
communities of India in the National the Round Table Conference
Movement 2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's connection with the Civil Disobedience
National Movement Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of 3. Acceptance of Gandhiji's suggestion for
plantation crops and commercial crops enquiry into police excesses
Swadeshi and Boycott (2016) 4. Release of only those prisoners who were
136. The 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' were adopted as not charged with violence
methods of struggle for the first time during Select the correct answer using the code
the given below:
(a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal (a) 1 only
(b) Home Rule Movement (b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) Non-Cooperation Movcment (c) 3 only.
(d) visit of the Simon Commission to India (d) 2,3 and 4 only
Split in INC (2016) British Colonial Rule (2019)

12
143. With reference to the British colonial rule in Personalities (2018)
India, consider the following statements: 149. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi,
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for
abolition of the system of indentured some time; and was also elected to the
labour'. Central Assembly. He was
2. In Lord Chelmsford's War Conference', (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
Mahatma Gandhi did not support the (b) Bipin Chandra Pal
resolution on recruiting Indians for World (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
War. (d) Motilal Nehru
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Rowxlatt Satyagraha (2015)
Law by Indian people, the Indian National 150. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which
Congress was declared illegal by the of the following statements is/are correct?
colonial rulers. 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the
Which of the statements given above are recommendations of the "Sedition
correct? Committee'.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to
(b) 1 and 3 only utilize the Home Rule League.
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of
(d) 1,2 and 3 Simon Commission coincided with
Indian National Movement (2019) Rowlatt Satyagraha.
144. With reference to Indian National Movement, Select the correct answer using the code
consider the following pairs: given below.
Person Position held (a) 1 only
1. Sir Tej President, All India Sapra (b) 1 and 2 only
Bahadur Liberal Federation (c) 2 and 3 only
2. K. C. Member, The Constituent (d) 1,2 and 3
Neogy Assembly Congress Socialist Party (2015)
3. P. C. General Secretary, 151. With reference to Congress Socialist Party,
Joshi Communist Party of India consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above is/are 1. It advocated the boycott of British goods
correctly matched? and evasion of taxes.
(a) 1 only 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of
(b) 1 and 2 only proletariat.
(c) 3 only 3. It advocated separate electorate for
(d) 1,2 and 3 minorities and oppressed classes.
Swaraiya Sabha (2018) Which of the statements given above is/are
145. In 1920, which of the following changed its correct?
name to "Swarajya Sabha"? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) All India Home Rule League (b) 3 only
(b) Hindu Mahasabha (c) 1,2 and 3
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation (d) None
(d) The Servants of India Society March on Taniore coast (2015)
Trade Disputes Act, 1929 (2017) 152. Who of the following organized a march on
146. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in
(a) the participation of workers in the April 1930?
management of industries. (a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to (b) C. Rajagopalachari
quell industrial disputes. (c) K. Kamaraj
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the (d) Annie Besant
event of a trade dispute. Ghadr Party (2014)
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on 153. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
strikes. (a) revolutionary association of Indians with
Buttler Committee, 1927 (2017) headquarters at San Francisco
147. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 (b) nationalist organization operating from
was to Singapore
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and (c) militant organization with headquarters
Provincial Governments. at Berlin
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of (d) communist movement for India's freedom
State for India. with headquarters at Tashkent
(c) Impose censorship on national press. Simon Commission (2013)
(d) Improve the relationship between the 154. The people of India agitated against the
Government of India and the Indian arrival of Simon Commission because
States. (a) Indians never wanted the review of the
Dyarchy (2017) working of the Act of 1919
148. In the context of Indian history, the principle (b) Simon Commission recommended the
of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the
(a) Division of the central legislature into two Provinces
houses. (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Commission
Central and State governments. (d) the Simon Commission suggested the
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London partition of the country
and another in Delhi. Freedom and Partition (1940 - 1947) 154.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the Cripps Mission Proposals (2022)
provinces into two categories. 155. Miserion, consider the following statements:

13
 1. The Constituent Assembly would have (d) India should be given Dominion status
members nominated by the Provincial Cabinet Mission (2015)
Assemblies as well as the Princely State8. 161. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to of the following statements is/are correct?
accept the new Constitution would have 1. It recommended a federal government.
the right to sign a separate agreement 2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian
with Britain regarding its future status. courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3
Personalities (2021) (d) None
156. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Radcliffe Committee (2014)
Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh 162. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
Singh Dhillon are remembered as (a) solve the problem of minorities in India
(a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott (b) give effect to the Independence Bill
Movement (c) delimit the boundaries between India and
(b) members of the Interim Government in Pakistan
1946 (d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
(c) members of the Drafting Committee in INC Session 1929 (2014)
the Constituent Assembly 163. The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress
(d) officers of the Indian National Army is of significance in the history of the
8th August, 1942 (2021) Freedom Movement because the
157. With reference to 8 th August, 1942 in Indian (a) attainment of Self-Government was
history, which one of the following declared as the objective of the Congress
statements is correct? (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by as the goal of the Congress
the AICC. (c) Non-Cooperation Movement was
(b) The Viceroy's Executive Council was launched
expanded to include more Indians. (d) decision to participate in the Round Table
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in Conference in London was taken
seven provinces. Election of members to Constituent Assembly
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full (2013)
Dominion Status once the Second World 164. With reference to Indian History, the
War was over. Members of the Constituent Assembly from
Montague reforms and GoI Act (2021) the Provinces were
158. Consider the following statements: (a) directly elected by the people of those
1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of Provinces
1919 recommended granting voting (b) nominated by the Indian National
rights to all the women above the age of Congress and the Muslim League
21 . (c) elected by the Provincial Legislative
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 Assemblies
gave women reserved seats in (d) selected by the Government for their
legislature. expertise in constitutional matters
Which of the statements given above is/are Tebhaga Movement (2013)
correct? 165. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant
(a) 1 only Movement in Bengal was for
(b) 2 only (a) the reduction of the share of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 landlords from one-half of the crop to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 one-third
Chronological Events (2017) (b) the grant of ownership of land to
159. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, peasants as they were the actual
consider the following events: cultivators of the land
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and
2. Quit India Movement launched the end of serfdom
3. Second Round Table Conference (d) writing off all peasant debts
What is the correct chronological sequence of 166. Quit India Movement (2013) Quit India
the above events? Movement was launched in response to
(a) 1-2-3 (a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) 2-1-3 (b) Cripps Proposals
(c) 3-2-1 (c) Simon Commission Report
(d) 3-1-2 (d) Wavell Plan
Cripps plan (2016) Miscellaneous
160. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that Impact of Industrial revolution (2020)
after the Second World War 167. Which of the following statements correctly
(a) India should be granted complete explains the impact of Industrial Revolution
independence. on India during the first half of the nineteenth
(b) India should be partitioned into two century?
before granting independence (a) Indian handierafts were ruined.
(c) India should be made a republic with the (b) Machines were introduced in the Indian
condition that she will join the textile industry in large numbers.
Commonwealth

14
 (c) Railway lines were laid in many parts of Physical Geography
the country. Geomorphology
(d) Heavy duties were imposed on the Cobalt production (2023)
imports of British manufactures. 173. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal
Decline of Indigo Cultivation (2020) required for the manufacture of batteries for
168. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the electric motor vehicles, is produced by
beginning of the 20^{\text {th century (a) Argentina
because of (b) Botswana
(a) peasant resistance to the oppressive (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
conduet of planters (d) Kazakhstan
(b) its unprofitability in the world market
because of new inventions
(c) national leaders' opposition to the Gold reserves of Switzerland (2023)
cultivation of indigo 174. Consider the following statements:
(d) Government control over the planters Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading
Santhal Uprising (2018) exporters of gold in terms of value.
169. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what Statement-II: Switzerland has the second
was/were the measure/measures taken by largest gold reserves in the world.
the colonial government? Which one of the following is correct in
1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' respect of the above statements?
were created. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer correct and Statement-II is the correct
land to a non-Santhal. explanation for Statement-I
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
given below: correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(a) 1 only explanation for Statement-I
(b) 2 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) Both 1 and 2 incorrect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Hind Mazdoor Sabha (2018) is correct
170. Who among the following were the founders P waves and S waves (2023)
of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 175. Consider the following statements:
1948? 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad earlier than S waves.
and K.C. George 2. In P waves, the individual particles
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave
Upadhyay and M.N. Roy propagation whereas in S waves, the
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and particles vibrate up and down at right
Veeresalingam Pantulu angles to the direction of wave
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. propagation.
Mehta Which of the statements given above is/are
Educational institutions (2018) correct?
171. With reference to educational institutions (a) 1 only
during colonial rule in India, consider the (b) 2 only
following pairs: (c) Both 1 and 2
Institution Founder (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Sanskrit College William jones Earth Formation (2018)
at at Benaras 176. Consider the following statements:
2. Calcutta MadarsaWarren Hastings 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed
3. Fort William Arthur Wellesley every few hundred thousand years.
College 2. When the Earth was created more than
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 4000 million years ago, there was 54 %
(a) 1 and 2 oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
(b) 2 only 3. When living organisms originated, they
(c) 1 and 3 modified the early atmosphere of the
(d) 3 only Earth.
Events in Chronological sequence (2018) Which of the statements given above is/are
172. Consider the following events: correct?
1. The first democratically elected (a) 1 only
communist party government formed in a (b) 2 and 3 only
State in India. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank (d) 1,2 and 3
of India', was renamed 'State Bank of Evolution of Organisms (2014)
India'. 177. Which of the following phenomena might
3. Air India was nationalised and became have influenced the evolution of organisms?
the national carrier. 1. Continental drift
4. Goa became a part of independent India. 2. Glacial cycles
Which of the following is the correct Select the correct answer using the code
chronological sequence of the above events? given below.
(a) 4-1-2-3 (a) 1 only
(b) 3-2-1-4 (b) 2 only
(c) 4-2-1-3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 3-1-2-4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Soil erosion in India (2014)
Geography
15
178. In India, the problem of soil erosion is (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
associated with which of the following? is correct
1. Terrace cultivation Temperature contrast between continents
2. Deforestation and oceans (2023)
3. Tropical climate 183. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code Statement-I: The temperature contrast
given below. between continents and oceans is greater
(a) 1 and 2 only during summer than in winter.
(b) 2 only Statement-II: The specific heat of water is
(c) 1 and 3 only more than that of land surface.
(d) 1,2 and 3 Which one of the following is correct in
Geographical Features and their location respect of the above statements?
(2013) (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
179. Which one of the following pairs is correctly correct and Statement-II is the correct
matched? explanation for Statement-I
Geographical Region (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Feature correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(a) Abyssinian Arabia explanation for Statement-1
Plateau (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Atlas Mountains North-Western incorrect
Africa (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(c) Guiana Highlands South-Western is correct
Africa Longest day in the northern hemisphere
(d) Okavango Basin Patagonia (2022)
184. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day
Dynamic Changes on Surface of Earth (2013) of the year normally occurs in the:
180. Consider the following: (a) First half of the month of June
1. Electromagnetic radiation (b) Second half of the month of June
2. Geothermal energy (c) First half of the month of July
3. Gravitational force (d) Second half of the month of July
4. Plate movements Clouds and Radiation (2022)
5. Rotation of the earth 185. Consider the following statements:
6. Revolution of the earth 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar
Which of the above are responsible for radiation and cool the surface of the
bringing dynamic changes on the surface of Earth.
the earth? 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only infrared radiation emanating from the
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only Earth's surface and thus cause warming
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only effect.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Which of the statements given above is/are
Climatology correct?
Solar insolation (2023) (a) 1 only
181. With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, (b) 2 only
which one of the following statements is (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) The total amount of insolation received at Vegetation of Savannah (2021)
the equator is roughly about 10 times of 186. The vegetation of savannah consists of
that received at the poles. grassland with scattered small trees, but
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two- extensive areas have no trees. The forest
thirds of insolation. development in such areas is generally kept
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by in check by one or more or a combination of
water vapour that is concentrated in the some conditions. Which of the following are
lower atmosphere. such conditions?
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible 1. Burrowing animals and termites
spectrum of electromagnetic waves of 2. Fire
solar radiation. 3. Grazing herbivores
Tropical Rain Forest and their soil 4. Seasonal rainfall
composition (2023) 5. Soil properties
182. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is given below.
rich in nutrients. (a) 1 and 2
Statement-II: The high temperature and (b) 4 and 5
moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead (c) 2, 3 and 4
organic matter in the soil to decompose (d) 1,3 and 5
quickly. Forest Vegetation (2021)
Which one of the following is correct in 187. "Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any
respect of the above statements? other biome and as a result the soil surface is
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are often almost bare. Apart from trees, the
correct and Statement-II is the correct vegetation is largely composed of plant forms
explanation for Statement-I that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes,
correct and Statement-II is not the correct rooted on the upper branches of trees." This
explanation for Statement-I is the most likely description of
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) coniferous forest
incorrect
16
 (b) dry deciduous forest (d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the
(c) mangrove forest equator
(d) tropical rain forest Westerlies (2015)
Jet streams and Cyclones (2020) 194. Consider the following statements:
188. Consider the following statements: 1. The winds which blow between 30^{\
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern circ \mathrm{N and 60^{\circ \mathrm{S
Hemisphere only. latitudes throughout the year are known
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye. as westerlies.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a 2. The moist air masses that cause winter
cyclone is nearly 10^{\circ \mathrm{C rains in North-Western region of India are
lesser than that of the surroundings. part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Positions of earth (2019) World Climatic Zones (2015)
189. On 21st June, the Sun 195. "Each day is more or less the same, the
(a) does not set below the horizon at the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze;
Arctic Circle as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat
(b) does not set below the horizon at mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes
Antaretic Circle with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the over."
Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Which of the following regions is described in
Capricorn the above passage?
Cirrus Cloud Thinning Technique (2019) (a) Savannah
190. In the context of which of the following do (b) Equatorial
some scientists suggest the use of cirrus (c) Monsoon
cloud thinning technique and the injection of (d) Mediterranean
sulphate aerosol into stratosphere? 196. 196. Cyclones (2015) In the South Atlantic
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical
regions latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of the reason?
tropical cyclones (a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar (b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom
wind on the Earth occurs
(d) Reducing the global warming (c) Coriolis force is too weak
Dew drops (2019) (d) Absence of land in those regions
191. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy World Climatic Zones (2014)
night? 197. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from characteristic of
the Earth's surface. (a) Equatorial climate
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation. (b) Mediterranean climate
(c) The Earth's surface would have low (c) Monsoon climate
temperature on cloudy nights. (d) All of the above climates
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground Variations in length of Days and Nights (2013)
level. 198. Variations in the length of daytime and
Indian Ocean Dipole (2017) nighttime from season to season are due to
192. With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' (a) the earth's rotation on its axis
sometimes mentioned in the news while (b) the earth's revolution round the sun in an
forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the elliptical manner
following statements is/are correct? (c) latitudinal position of the place
1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
differcnce in sea surface temperature Percentage of Water in Atmosphere (2013)
between tropical Western Indian Ocean 199. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater
and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
Nino's impact on the monsoon. (a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and
Select the correct answer using the code clouds
given below: (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(a) 1 only (c) exists as groundwater
(b) 2 only (d) exists as soil moisture
(c) Both 1 and 2 Annual range of Temperatures (2013)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 200. The annual range of temperature in the
Equatorial Counter Current (2015) interior of the continents is high as compared
193. What explains the eastward flow of the to coastal areas. What is/are the
equatorial counter-current? reason/reasons?
(a) The Earth's rotation on its axis 1. Thermal difference between land and
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial water
currents 2. Variation in altitude between continents
(c) Difference in salinity of water and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior

17
 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more
to coasts than a certain long-term mean.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
World Climatic Zones (2013) Coral Reefs (2018)
201. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the 206. Consider the following statements:
people used to be nomadic herders." 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in
The above statement best describes which of tropical waters.
the following regions? 2. More than one-third of the world's coral
(a) African Savannah reefs are located in the territories of
(b) Central Asian Steppe Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
(c) North American Prairie 3. Coral reefs host far more number of
(d) Siberian Tundra animal phyla than those hosted by
Thunderstorms (2013) tropical rainforests.
202. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the Which of the statements given above is/are
skies is produced by the correct?
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the (a) 1 and 2 only
sky (b) 3 only
2. lightning that separates the nimbus (c) 1 and 3 only
clouds (d) 1,2 and 3
3. violent upward movement of air and Tides (2015)
water particles 207. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to
Select the correct answer using the codes which among the following?
given below. 1. Gravitational force of the Sun
(a) 1 only 2. Gravitational force of the Moon
(b) 2 and 3 3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
(c) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) None of the above produces the thunder given below.
Oceanography (a) 1 only
Water on Earth (2021) (b) 2 and 3 only
203. With reference to the water on the planet (c) 1 and 3 only
Earth, consider the following statements: (d) 1,2 and 3
1. The amount of water in the rivers and Fishing grounds (2013)
lakes is more than the amount of 208. The most important fishing grounds of the
groundwater. world are found in the regions where
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and (a) warm and cold atmospheric currents
glaciers is more than the amount of meet
groundwater. (b) rivers drain out large amounts of
Which of the statements given above is/are freshwater into the sea
correct? (c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(a) 1 only (d) continental shelf is undulating
(b) 2 only Universe
(c) Both 1 and 2 Objects in space (2023)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 209. Consider the following pairs:
Temperature of Oceans (2021) Objects in Description
204. Consider the following statements: space
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections 1. Cepheids Giant clouds of dust and
of the oceans are warmer than the gas in space
eastern sections owing to the influence of 2. Nebulae Stars which brighten and
trade winds. dim periodically
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make 3. Pulsars Neutron stars that are
the eastern sections of oceans warmer formed when massive
than the western sections. stars run out of fuel and
Which of the statements given above is/are collapse
correct? How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) 1 only matched?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
205. Ocean Mean Temperature (2020) With (d) None
reference to Ocean Mean Temperature Black hole (2019)
(OMT), which of the following statements 210. Recently, scientists observed the merger of
is/are correct? giant 'blackholes' billions of lightyears away
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26 th C from the Earth. What is the significance of
isotherm which is 129 meters in the this observation?
south-western Indian Ocean during (a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.
January - March. (b) 'Gravitational wavea' were detected.
2. OMT collected during January - March can (c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel
be used in assessing whether the amount through 'wormhole' was confirmed.

18
 (d) It enabled the scientists to understand (d) 1,2 and 4 only
'singularity'. Seas and bordering countries (2019)
Goldilocks Zone (2015) 217. Consider the following pairs:
211. The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is often seen in Sea Bordering country
the news in the context of 1. Adriatic Sea Albania
(a) the limits of habitable zone above the 2. Black Sea Croatia
surface of the Earth 3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
(b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas 4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco
is available 5. Red Sea Syria
(c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer Which of the pairs given above are correctly
space matched?
(d) search for meteorites containing precious (a) 1,2 and 4 only
metals (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Map (c) 2 and 5 only
Ukraine border (2023) (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
212. Consider the following countries: Mediterranean Sea (2017)
1. Bulgaria 218. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the
2. Czech Republic following countries?
3. Hungary 1. Jordan
4. Latvia 2. Iraq
5. Lithuania 3. Lebanon
6. Romania 4. Syria
How many of the above-mentioned countries Select the correct answer using the code
share a land border with Ukraine? given below:
(a) Only two (a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) Only three (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only four (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Only five (d) 1,3 and 4 only
Country in Congo Basin (2023) Mediterranean Sea border (2015)
213. Which one of the following is a part of the 219. Which one of the following countries of South-
Congo Basin? West Asia does not open out to the
(a) Cameroon Mediterranean Sea?
(b) Nigeria (a) Syria
(c) South Sudan (b) Jordan
(d) Uganda (c) Lebanon
Levant Region (2022) (d) Israel
214. The term "Levant" often heard in the news Turkey (2014)
roughly corresponds to which of the following 220. Turkey is located between
regions? (a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
shores (c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(b) Region along North African shores (d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
stretching from Egypt to Moroceo South East Asian cities (2014)
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of 221. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of
Africa the following cities in South-East Asia as one
(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean proceeds from south to north?
Sea 1. Bangkok
Countries bordering Afghanistan (2022) 2. Hanoi
215. Consider the following countries: 3. Jakarta
1. Azerbaijan 4. Singapore
2. Kyrgyzstan Select the correct answer using the code
3. Tajikistan given below.
4. Turkmenistan (a) 4-2-1-3
5. Uzbekistan (b) 3-2-4-1
Which of the above have borders with (c) 3-4-1-2
Afghanistan? (d) 4-3-2-1
(a) 1,2 and 5 only Human Geography
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Population Geography
(c) 3,4 and 5 only Economic Geography
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Ocean Resources (2021)
216. International Rivers (2020) Consider the 222. Consider the following statements:
following pairs: 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants
River Flows into licences for seabed exploration and
mining in international waters.
1. Mekong Andaman Sea
2. India has received licences for seabed
2. Thames Irish Sea mineral exploration in international
3. Volga Caspian Sea waters.
3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on
4. Zambezi Indian Ocean seafloor in international waters.
Which of the pairs given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correctly matched? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only

19
 (d) 1,2 and 3 Gregorian Calendar (2014)
Palm Oil (2021) 230. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on
223. With reference to 'palm oil', consider the the Saka Era çorresponds to which one of the
following statements: following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast normal year of 365 days?
Asia. (a) 22nd March for 21st March)
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some (b) 15th May (or 16th May)
industries producing lipstick and (c) 31st March (or 30th March)
perfumes. (d) 21st April (or 20th April)
3. The palm oil can be used to produce Physical Features of India
biodiesel. Hills in South India (2023)
Which of the statements given above are 231. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of
(a) 1 and 2 only Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the
(c) 1 and 3 only casternmost part of Satpura Range.
(d) 1,2 and 3 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the
Largest exporter of rice (2019) southemmost part of Western Ghats.
224. Among the following, which one is the largest How many of the statements given above are
exporter of rice in the world in the last five correct?
years? (a) Only one
(a) China (b) Only two
(b) India (c) All three
(c) Myanmar (d) None
(d) Vietnam Peaks and Mountains of Himalayas (2022)
Cultural Geography 232. Consider the following pairs:
Settlement Geography 1. Peak Mountains
Indian Geography 2. Namcha Barwa - Garhwal Himalaya
Basics of India 3. Nanda Devi
Longitudes (2018) 4. Kumaon Himalaya
225. Among the following cities, which one lies on 5. Nokrek
a longitude closest to that of Delhi? 6. Sikkim Himalaya
(a) Bengaluru Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) Hyderabad correctly matched?
(c) Nagpur (a) 1 and 2
(d) Pune (b) 2 only
Chandipur Beach(2017) (c) 1 and 3
226. At one of the places in India, if you stand on (d) 3 only
the seashore and watch the sea, you will find Black Soil of India (2021)
that the sea water recedes from the shore 233. The black cotton soil of India has been
line a few kilometres and comes back to the formed due to the weathering of
shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk (a) brown forest soil
on the sea floor when the water recedes. This (b) fissure volcanic rock
unique phenomenon is seen at (c) granite and schist
(a) Bhavnagar (d) shale and limestone
(b) Bheemunipatnam Volcanoes (2018)
(c) Chandipur 234. Consider the following statements:
(d) Nagapattinam 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active
Political Geography Of India (2017) volcano located in the Indian territory.
227. If you travel by road from Kohima to 2. Barren Island lies about 1 4 0 \
Kottayam, what is the minimum number of mathrm{km east of Great Nicobar.
States within India through which you can 3. The last time the Barren Island volcano
travel, including the origin and the erupted was in 1991 and it has remained
destination? inactive since then.
(a) 6 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 7 correct?
(c) 8 (a) 1 only
(d) 9 (b) 2 and 3
States of India (2015) (c) 3 only
228. Which one of the following pairs of States of (d) 1 and 3
India indicates the easternmost and Physiographic division of India (2017)
westernmost State? 235. Consider the following statements:
(a) Assam and Rajasthan 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan five States only.
(c) Assam and Gujarat 2. Western Ghats are spread over five
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat States only.
Ten Degree Channel (2014) 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States
229. Which one of the following pairs of islands is only.
separated from each other by the 'Ten Which of the statements given above is/are
Degree Channel? correct?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra (b) 3 only
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Sumatra and Java (d) 1 and 3 only

20
Islands (2017) (d) Tungabhadra
236. Which of the following is geographically Rivers from Eastern Ghats (2021)
closest to Great Nicobar? 243. Consider the following rivers:
(a) Sumatra 1. Brahmani
(b) Borneo 2. Nagavali
(c) Java 3. Subarnarekha
(d) Sri Lanka 4. Vamsadhara
Coral reefs in Indian waters (2014) Which of the above rise from the Eastern
237. Which of the following have coral reefs? Ghats?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands (a) 1 and 2
2. Gulf of Kachchh (b) 2 and 4
3. Gulf of Mannar (c) 3 and 4
4. Sunderbans (d) 1 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code Saline lakes (2021)
given below. 244. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman,
(a) 1,2 and 3 only Sargol and Khatu are the names of
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) glaciers
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) mangrove areas
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 (c) Ramsar sites
Hills in India (2014) (d) saline lakes
238. Consider the following pairs: Indus River System (2021)
Hills Region 245. With reference to the Indus river system, of
1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast the following four rivers, three of them pour
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast into one of them which joins the Indus direct.
3. Mahadeo Hills Central India Amang the following, which one is such river
4. Mikir Hills North-East India that joins the Indus direct?
Which of the above pairs are correctly (a) Chenab
matched? (b) Jhelum
(a) 1 and 2 (c) Ravi
(b) 2 and 3 (d) Sutlej
(c) 3 and 4 Caves and Rivers (2021)
(d) 2 and 4 246. Which one of the following statements is
Laterite soils (2013) correct?
239. Which of the following statements regarding (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora
laterite soils of India are correct? river.
1. They are generally red in colour. (b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. river.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and (c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge
UP. of Narmada river.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on (d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of
these soils. Godavari river.
Select the correct answer using the codes Famous place and rivers (2019)
given below. 247. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1,2 and 3 Famous place River
(b) 2,3 and 4 1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
(c) 1 and 4 2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
(d) 2 and 3 only 3. Hampi Malaprabha
Drainage Systems of India
Rivers and lakes connected to them (2023) Which of the pairs given above are correctly
240. Consider the following statements: matched?
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed (c) 1 and 3 only
Kanwar Lake. (d) 1,2 and 3
How many of the statements given above are Glacier and rivers (2019)
correct? 248. Consider the following pairs:
(a) Only one Glacier River
(b) Only two Bandarpunch Yamuna
(c) All three Bara Shigri Chenab
(d) None Milam Mandakini
Rann of Kutch (2023)
Siachen Nubra
241. Which one of the following is the best
example of repeated falls in sea level, giving Zemu Manas
rise to present-day extensive marshland? Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves matched?
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans (a) 1,2 and 4
(c) Naupada Swamp (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Rann of Kutch (c) 2 and 5
Gandikota Canyon (2022) (d) 3 and 5
242. Gandikota canyon of South India was created Artificial lakes of India (2018)
by which one of the following rivers? 249. Which one of the following is an artificial
(a) Cauvery lake?
(b) Manjira (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(c) Pennar (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

21
 (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand) (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) (d) 1,2 and 3
River Teesta (2017) Narmada river (2013)
250. With reference to river Teesta, consider the 256. The Narmada river flows to the west, while
following statements: most other large peninsular rivers flow to the
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as east. Why?
that of Brahmaputra but it flows through 1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
Sikkim. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it Satpuras.
is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on India.
the border of India and Bangladesh. Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1.2 and 3 Climate of India
Tributaries of Brahmaputra River (2016) Minerals, Natural Resources and Industries
251. Which of the following is/are tributary/ Ilmenite and rutile (2023)
tributarics of Brahmaputra? 257. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in
(a) Dibang certain coastal tracts of India, are rich
(b) Kameng sources of which one of the following?
(c) Lohit (a) Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Copper
given below. (c) Iron
(d) 1 only (d) Titanium
(e) 2 and 3 only 258. Coal-based thermal power plants (2023) With
(f) 1 and 3 only reference to coal-based thermal power plants
(g) 1, 2 and 3 in India, consider the following statements:
Interlinking of Rivers (2016) 1. None of them uses seawater.
252. Recently, linking of which of the following 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed
rivers was undertaken? district.
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra 3. None of them is privately owned.
(b) Godavari and Krishna How many of the above statements are
(c) Mahanadi and Sone correct?
(d) Narmada and Tapti (a) Only one
Godavari Tributaries (2015) (b) Only two
253. Consider the following rivers: (c) All three
1. Vamsadhara (d) None
2. Indravati Groundwater resources and extraction (2023)
3. Pranahita 259. Consider the following statements:
4. Pennar Statement-I: According to the United Nations'
Which of the above are tributaries of World Water Development Report, 2022',
Godavari? India extracts more than a quarter of the
(a) 1,2 and 3 world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Statement-II: India needs to extract more
(c) 1,2 and 4 than a quarter of the world's groundwater
(d) 2 and 3 only each year to satisfy the drinking water and
254. Rivers that flows through Arunachal Pradesh sanitation needs of almost 18 % of world's
(2014) Consider the following rivers: population living in its territory.
1. Barak Which one of the following is correct in
2. Lohit respect of the above statements?
3. Subansiri (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the above flows/now through correct and Statement-II is the correct
Arunachal Pradesh? explanation for Statement-1
(a) 1 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(c) 1 and 3 only explanation for Statement-I
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Wetlands and Rivers (2014) incorrect
255. Consider the following pairs: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Wetlands Confluence of rivers is correct
1. Harike Confluence of Beas and Monazite in India (2022)
Wetlands Satluj/Sutlej 260. With reference to India, consider the following
2. Keoladeo Confluence of National statements:
Ghana Park Banas and 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
Chambal 2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire
Krishna Indian coastal sands in India.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 4. In India, Governmont bodies only can
matched? process or export monazite.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?

22
 (a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 Shale gas, Coalbed methane (2014)
Major Minerals in India (2020) 266. With reference to two nonconventional
261. Consider the following minerals: energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and
1. Bentonite 'shale gas', consider the following
2. Chromite statements:
3. Kyanite 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane
4. Sillimanite gas extracted from coal seams, while
In India, which of the above is/are officially shale gas is a mixture of propane and
designated as major minerals? butane only that can be extracted from
(a) 1 and 2 only fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
(b) 4 only 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane
(c) 1 and 3 only sources exist, but so far no shale gas
(d) 2,3 and 4 only sources have been found.
Coal Sector (2019) Which of the statements given above is/are
262. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the (a) 1 only
Government of India under Indira Gandhi. (b) 2 only
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery (c) Both 1 and 2
basis. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet Extraction of Shale gas (2014)
the shortages of domestic supply, but 267. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally
now India is selfsufficient in coal used as a vegetable or animal feed, but
production. recently the cultivation of this has assumed
Which of the statements given above is/are significance. Which one of the following
correct? statements is correct in this context?
(a) 1 only (a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in
(b) 2 and 3 only the manufacture of biodegradable
(c) 3 only plastics
(d) 1,2 and (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in
Minor Minerals (2019) the extraction of shale gas
263. With reference to the management of minor (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the
minerals in India, consider the following properties of antihistamines
statements: (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the Indian Coal (2013)0
prevailing law in the country. 268. Which of the following is/are the
2. State Governments have the power to characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
grant mining leases of minor minerals, 1. High ash content
but the powers regarding the formation of 2. Low sulphur content
rules related to the grant of minor 3. Low ash fusion temperature
minerals lie with the Central Government. Select the correct answer using the codes
3. State Governments have the power to given below.
frame rules to prevent illegal mining of (a) 1 and 2 only
minor minerals. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 only Availability of Mineral Resources (2013)
(b) 2 and 3 only 269. Consider the following statements:
(c) 3 only 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana
(d) 1,2 and 3 beds.
Mines (2018) 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
264. Consider the following statements: 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
1. In India, State Governments do not have Which of the statements given above is/are
the power to auction non-coal mines. correct?
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not (a) 1 and 2
have gold mines. (b) 2 only
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. (c) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) None
correct? Maximum consumer of Water (2013)
(a) 1 and 2 270. Which one among the following industries is
(b) 2 only the maximum consumer of water in India?
(c) 1 and 3 (a) Engineering
(d) 3 only (b) Paper and pulp
Shale gas (2016) (c) Textiles
265. In which of the following regions of Indie are (d) Thermal power
shale gas resources found? (e) Agriculture
1. Cambay Basin 271. Comparison of India's agriculture with China's
2. Cauvery Basin agriculture (2023) Consider the following
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin statements:
Select the correct answer using the codi 1. India has more arable area than China.
given below. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in
(a) 1 and 2 only India as compared to China.

23
 3. The average productivity per hectare in (c) 4 only
Indian agriculture is higher than that in (d) 2 and 3
China. Pulse Production in India (2020)
How many of the above statements are 276. With reference to pulse production in India,
correct? consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. Black gram can be cultivated as both
(b) Only two kharif and rabi crop.
(c) All three 2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly
(d) None half of pulse production.
272. System of Rice Intensification (2022) "System 3. In the last three decades, while the
of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which production of kharif pulses has increased,
alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is the production of rabi pulses has
practised, results in: decreased.
1. Reduced seed requirement Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Reduced methane production correct?
3. Reduced electricity consumption (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below: (c) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only Crop conditions (2020)
(c) 1 and 3 only 277. "The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard
(d) 1,2 and 3 frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210
Climate Smart Agriculture (2021) frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of
273. In the context of India's preparation for rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil
Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited
following statements: for the cultivation of the crop." Which one of
1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in the following is that crop?
India is a part of a project led by the (a) Cotton
Climate Change, Agriculture and Food (b) Jute
Security (CCAFS), an international (c) Sugarcane
research programme. (d) Tea
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Sugarcane in India (2020)
Consultative Group on International 278. With reference to the current trends in the
Agricultural Research (CGIAR) cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the
headquartered in France. following statements:
3. The International Crops Research 1. A substantial saving in seed material is
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics made when 'bud chip settlings' are raised
(ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's in a nursery and transplanted in the main
research centres. field.
Which of the statements given above are 2. When direct planting of setts is done, the
correct? germination percentage is better with
(a) 1 and 2 only single-budded setts as compared to setts
(b) 2 and 3 only with many buds.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. If bad weather conditions prevail when
(d) 1,2 and 3 setts are directly planted, single-budded
Least Water efficient crop (2021) setts have better survival as compared to
274. Among the following, which one is the least large setts.
water-efficient crop? 4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using
(a) Sugarcane settlings prepared from tissue culture.
(b) Sunflower Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Pearl millet correct?
(d) Red gram (a) 1 and 2 only
Permaculture farming (2021) (b) 3 only
275. How is permaculture farming different from (c) 1 and 4 only
conventional chemical farming? (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Permaculture farming discourages Eco-friendly agriculture (2020)
monocultural practices but in 279. In the context of India, which of the following
conventional chemical farming, is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-
monoculture practices are predominant. friendly agriculture?
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause 1. Crop diversification
increase in soil salinity but the 2. Legume intensification
occurrence of such phenomenon is not 3. Tensiometer use
observed in permaculture farming. 4. Vertical farming
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily Select the correct answer using the code
possible in semi-arid regions but given below:
permaculture farming is not so easily (a) 1,2 and 3 only
possible in such regions. (b) 3 only
4. Practice of mulching is very important in (c) 4 only
permaculture farming but not necessarily (d) 1,2,3 and 4
so in conventional chemical farming. Fertigation (2020)
Select the correct answer using the code 280. What are the advantages of fertigation in
given below. agriculture?
(a) 1 and 3 1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation
(b) 1,2 and 4 water is possible.

24
 2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate 3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the
and all other phosphatic fertilizers is field
possible. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Increased availability of nutrients to given below:
plants is possible. (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical (b) 3 only
nutrients is possible. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1,2 and 3
given below: Neem coated Urea in Agriculture (2016)
(a) 1,2 and 3 only 285. Why does the Government of India promote
(b) 1,2 and 4 only the use of 'Neem-coated Urea' in agriculture?
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (a) Release of Necm oil in the soil increases
(d) 2,3 and 4 only nitrogen fixation by the soil
Conservation Agriculture (2018) microorganisms
281. With reference to the circumstances in Indian (b) Neem coating slows down the rate of
agriculture, the concept of "Conservation dissolution of urea in the soil
Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of (c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas,
the following fall under the Conservation is not at all released into atmosphere by
Agriculture? crop fields
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices (d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a
2. Adopting minimum tillage fertilizer for particular crops
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation
crops Drip Irrigation (2016)
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface 286. Which of the following is/are the
5. Adopting spatial and temporal erop advantage/advantages of practising drip
sequencing/crop rotations irrigation?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Reduction in weed
given below: 2. Reduction in soil salinity
(a) 1,3 and 4 3. Reduction in soil erosion
(b) 2,3,4 and 5 Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 2, 4 and 5 given below.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (a) 1 and 2 only
Agricultural Soils (2018) (b) 3 only
282. With reference to agricultural soils, consider (c) 1 and 3 only
the following statements: (d) None of the above is an advantage of
1. A high content of organic matter in soil practising drip irrigation
drastically reduces its water holding Nitrogenous Fertilizers (2015)
capacity. 287. What can be the impact of excessive/
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in
cycle. agriculture?
3. Irrigation over a period of time can 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing
contribute to the salinization of some microorganisms in soil can occur.
agricultural lands. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take
Which of the statements given above is/are place.
correct? 3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater
(a) 1 and 2 only can occur.
(b) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1,2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
Organic Farming (2018) (b) 2 only
283. With reference to organic farming in India, (c) 2 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1,2 and 3
1. The National Programme for Organic Sustainable Sugarcane initiative (2014)
Production' (NPOP) is operated under the 288. What are the significances of a practical
guidelines and directions of the Union approach to sugarcane production known as
Ministry of Rural Development. 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative?
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to
Products Export Development Authority' the conventional method of cultivation.
(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very
the implementation of NPOP. effectively in this.
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully 3. There is no application of
organic State. chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. The scope for intercropping is more in
correct? this compared to the conventional
(a) 1 and 2 only method of cultivation.
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1,2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
Water conservation in Agriculture (2017) (b) 1,2 and 4 only
284. Which of the following practices can help in (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
water conservation in agriculture? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land Regions and Crop production (2014)
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the 289. Consider the following pairs:
field Region Well-known for the

25
 production of Forest Cover of States (2019)
1. Kinnaur Areca nut 295. Consider the following States:
2. Mewat Mango 1. Chhattisgarh
3. Coromandel Soya bean 2. Madhya Pradesh
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly 3. Maharashtra
matched? 4. Odisha
(a) 1 and 2 only With reference to the States mentioned
(b) 3 only above, in terms of percentage of forest cover
(c) 1, 2 and 3 to the total area of State, which one of the
(d) None following is the correct ascending order?
Kharif Crops (2013) (a) 2-3-1-4
290. Consider the following crops: (b) 2-3-4-1
1. Cotton (c) 3-2-4-1
2. Groundnut (d) 3-2-1-4
3. Rice 296. Distinct Species of Banana (2016) Recently,
4. Wheat our scientists have discovered a new and
Which of these are Kharif crops? distinct species of banana plant which attains
(a) 1 and 4 a height of about 11 metres and has orange-
(b) 2 and 3 only coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has
(c) 1,2 and 3 it been discovered?
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Andaman Islands
Natural Vegetation and Fauna (b) Anaimalai Forests
Deciduous trees (2023) (c) Maikala Hills
291. Consider the following trees: (d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) Red Sanders (2016)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 297. With reference to Red Sanders', sometimes
3. Teak (Tectona grandis) seen in the news, consider the following
How many of the above are deciduous trees? statements:
(a) Only one 1. It is a tree species found in a part of
(b) Only two South India.
(c) All three 2. It is one of the most important trees in
(d) None the tropical rain forest areas of South
Wetlands in India (2022) India:
292. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are
Wetland/Lake Location correct?
1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab (a) 1 only
2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh (b) 2 only
3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many pairs given above are correctly Plants in News (2018)
matched? 298. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often
(a) Only one pair mentioned in news?
(b) Only two pairs (a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(c) Only three pairs (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the
(d) All four pairs area in which it grows.
Tea Producing States (2022) (c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of
293. Consider the following States: pesticides.
1. Andhra Pradesh (d) None of the above
2. Kerala Plant diseases (2018)
3. Himachal Pradesh 299. Consider the following:
4. Tripura 1. Birds
How many of the above are generally known 2. Dust blowing
as tea-producing States? 3. Rain
(a) Only one State 4. Wind blowing
(b) Only two States Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(c) Only three States (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) All four States (b) 3 and 4 only
Vegetation (2021) (c) 1,2 and 4 only
294. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous Forests (2015)
evergreen tree. 300. Which one of the following regions of India
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. has a combination of mangrove forest,
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
as minor forest produce. (a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of (b) South-West Bengal
moringa. (c) Southern Saurashtra
Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
in the production of biofuels. Vegetation (2015)
Which of the statements given above are 301. In a particular region in India, the local people
correct? train the roots of living trees into robust
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5 bridges across the streams. As the time
(b) 3,4 and 5 passes, these bridges become stronger.
(c) 1,3 and 4 These unique living root bridges' are found in
(d) 1,2,3 and 5 (a) Meghalaya

26
 (b) Himachal Pradesh 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in
(c) Jharkhand Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via
(d) Tamil Narn" Myanmar.
302. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests (2015) 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar
Consider the following States: Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in
1. Arunachal Pradesh Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
2. Himachal Pradesh How many of the above statements are
3. Mizoram correct?
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet (a) Only one
Evergreen Forests' occur? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only National Highways (2014)
(d) 1,2 and 3 308. Consider the following pairs:
Forests (2015) National Cities connected
303. In India, in which one of the following types of Highway
forests is teak a dominant tree species? NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
(b) Tropical rain forest NH 15 Ahmedabad and
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest Jodhpur
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Himalayan Vegetation (2014) matched?
304. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are (a) 1 and 2 only
likely to see which of the following plants (b) 3 only
naturally growing there? (c) 1,2 and 3
1. Oak (d) None
2. Rhododendron Energy
3. Sandalwood Uranium and coal in energy production (2023)
Select the correct answer using the code 309. Consider the following statements:
given below. Statement-I: India, despite having uranium
(a) 1 and 2 only deposits, depends on coal for most of its
(b) 3 only electricity production.
(c) 1 and 3 only Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent
(d) 1,2 and 3 of at least 60 %, is required for the
Equatorial Forests (2013) production of electricity.
305. Which of the following is/are unique Which one of the following is correct in
characteristic/characteristics of equatorial respect of the above statements?
forests? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with correct and Statement-II is the correct
crowns forming a continuous canopy explanation for Statement-I
2. Coexistence of a large number of species (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Presence of numerous varieties of correct and Statement-II is not the correct
epiphytes explanation for Statement-I
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
given below. incorrect
(a) 1 only (d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II
(b) 2 and 3 only is correct
(c) 1 and 3 only Hydrogen enriched CNG (2019)
(d) 1,2 and 3 310. In the context of proposals to the use of
Transportation hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for
Major ports of India (2023) buses in public transport, consider the
306. Consider the following pairs: following statements:
Port Well known as 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG
Kamarajar Port First major port in India is the elimination of carbon monoxide
registered as a emissions.
company 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide
Mundra Port Largest privately owned and hydrocarbon emissions.
port in India 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifh by volume can
Visakhapatnam Largest container port be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
in Port India 4. H.CNG makes the fuel less expensive
How many of the above pairs are correctly than CNG.
matched? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one pair correct?
(b) Only two pairs (a) 1 only
(c) All three pairs (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the pairs (c) 4 only
Major connectivity projects (2023) (d) 1,2,3 and 4
307. With reference to India's projects on Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
connectivity, consider the following (2019)
statements: 311. Consider the following statements:
1. East-West Corridor under Golden 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory
Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh Board (PNORB) is the first regulatory
and Surat. body set up by the Government of India.

27
 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure 317. Famous Towns of Production (2014) Consider
competitive markets for gas. the following towns of India:
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB 1. Bhadrachalam
go before the Appellate Tribunals for 2. Chanderi
Electricity. 3. Kancheepuram
Which of the statements given above are 4. Karnal
correct? Which of the above are famous for the
(a) 1 and 2 only production of traditional sarees/fabric?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3
Human Geography (d) 1,3 and 4
Tribal festivals- states (2018) Tribes and States (2013)
312. Consider the following pairs: 318. Consider the following pairs:
Tradition State Tribe State
Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram 1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim
Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur
Thang-Ta dance Sikkim 2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 3. Dongaria Kondh Odisha
(a) 1 only
4. Bonda Tamil Nadu
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only Which of the above pairs are correctly
(d) 2 and 3 matched?
Crafts of State (2018) (a) 1 and 3 only
313. Consider the following pairs: (b) 2 and 4 only
Craft Heritage (c) 1.3 and 4 only
of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu Demographic Dividend (2013)
Sujni embroidery Maharashtr 319. To obtain full benefits of demographic
a dividend, what should India do?
Uppada Jamdani saris Kuruataka (a) Promoting skill development
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? (b) Introducing more social security schemes
(a) 1 only (c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(b) 1 and 2 (d) Privatization of higher education
(c) 3 only Environment
(d) 2 and 3 Environment and Ecology Concepts
Tribal Festivals (2017) Detritivores (2021)
314. Consider the following pairs: 320. Which of the following are detritivores?
Traditions Communities 1. Earthworms
1. Chaliha Sahib  Sindhis 2. Jellyfish
Festival 3. Millipedes
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra  Gonds 4. Seahorses
3. Wari-Warkari  Santhals 5. Woodlice
Which of the pairs given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2,3,4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1,3 and 5 only
(d) None of the above (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
Tribal festivals (2014) Biogeochemical chemicals (2021)
315. Every year, a monthlong ecologically 321. In case of which one of the following
important campaign/festival is held during biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of
which certain communities/ tribes plant rocks is the main source of release of nutrient
saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the to enter the cycle?
following are such communities/tribes? (a) Carbon cycle
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha (b) Nitrogen cycle
(b) Gond and Korku (c) Phosphorus cycle
(c) Irula and Toda (d) Sulphur cycle
(d) Sahariya and Agariya Primary Producers in oceans (2021)
Changpa Community (2014) 322. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
316. With reference to 'Changpa' community of 1. Copepods
India, consider the following statements: 2. Cyanobacteria
1. They live mainly in the State of 3. Diatoms
Uttarakhand. 4. Foraminifera
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a Which of the above are primary producers in
fine wool. the food chains of oceans?
3. They are kept in the category of (a) 1 and 2
Scheduled Tribes. (b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 3 and 4
correct? (d) 1 and 4
(a) 1 only Ecosystem (2015)
(b) 2 and 3 only 323. Which one of the following is the best
(c) 3 only description of the term 'ecosystem'?
(d) 1,2 and 3
28
 (a) A community of organisms interacting 3. Death of vegetation
with one another Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited given below.
by living organisms (a) 1 only
(c) A community of organisms together with (b) 2 and 3 only
the environment in which they live (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical (d) 1,2 and 3
area Basic Concepts (2013)
Carbon Cycle (2014) 331. Which one of the following terms describes
324. Which of the following adds/add carbon not only the physical space occupied by an
dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet organism, but also its functional role in the
Earth? community of organisms?
1. Volcanic action (a) Ecotone
2. Respiration (b) Ecological niche
3. Photosynthesis (c) Habitat
4. Decay of organic matter (d) Home range
Select the correct answer using the code Decomposers (2013)
given below. 332. With reference to the food chains in
(a) 1 and 3 only ecosystems, which of the following kinds of
(b) 2 only organism is/are known as decomposer
(c) 1,2 and 4 only organism/organisms?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Virus
Lichens (2014) 2. Fungi
325. Lichens, which are capable of initiating 3. Bacteria
ecological succession even on a bare rock, Select the correct answer using the codes
are actually a symbiotic association of given below.
(a) algae and bacteria (a) 1 only
(b) algae and fungi (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) bacteria and fungi (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) fungi and mosses (d) 1,2 and 3
Food chain (2014) Types of Ecosystems
326. Which one of the following is the correct Biodiversity
sequence of a food chain? Marsupials (2023)
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings 333. Consider the following statements:
(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings Statement-I: Marsupials are not niaturally
(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans found in India.
(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in
327. Grasslands in Ecological Succession (2013) In montane grasslands with no predators.
the grasslands, trees do not replace the Which one of the following is correct in
grasses as a part of an ecological succession respect of the above statements?
because of (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) insects and fungi correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients explanation for Statement-I
(c) water limits and fire (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) None of the above correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Sequence of Ecosystem (2013) explanation for Statement-I
328. Which one of the following is the correct (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
sequence of ecosystems in the order of incorrect
decreasing productivity? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves is correct
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes Nocturnal Species (2023)
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans 334. Consider the following fauna:
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands 1. Lion-tailed Macaque
Food chains in Ecosystems (2013) 2. Malabar Civet
329. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, 3. Sambar Deer
consider the following statements: How many of the above are generally
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which nocturnal or most active after sunset?
a chain of organisms feed upon each (a) Only one
other. (b) Only two
2. Food chains are found within the (c) All three
populations of a species. (d) None
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of Organism that performs waggle dance (2023)
each organism which are eaten by others. 335. Which of the following organisms perform
Which of the statements given above is/are waggle dance for others of their kin to
correct? indicate the direction and the distance to a
(a) 1 only source of their food?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) Butterflies
(c) 1,2 and 3 (b) Dragonflies
(d) None (c) Honeybees
Nitrogen Fisation (2013) (d) Wasps
330. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to Properties of Mushroom (2023)
the soil? 336. Consider the following statements:
1. Excretion of urea by animals 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal
2. Burning of coal by man properties.

29
 2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive 1. Alfalfa
properties. 2. Amaranth
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal 3. Chickpea
properties. 4. Clover
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent 5. Purslane (Kulfa)
properties. 6. Spinach
How many of the above statements are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) Only one (a) 1,3 and 4 only
(b) Only two (b) 1,3, 5 and 6 only
(c) Only three (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) All four (d) 1,2, 4, 5 and 6
Indian squirrels (2023) Cultivators of Fungi (2022)
337. Consider the following statements regarding 343. Certain species of which one of the following
the Indian squirrels: organisms are well known as cultivators of
1. They build nests by making burrows in fungi?
the ground. (a) Ant
2. They store their food materials like nuts (b) Cockroach
and seeds in the ground. (c) Crab
3. They are omnivorous. (d) Spider
How many of the above statements are Symbiotic relationship (2021)
correct? 344. Which of the following have species that can
(a) Only one establish symbiotic relationship with other
(b) Only two organisms?
(c) All three 1. Cnidarians
(d) None 2. Fungi
Growth environment for microorganisms 3. Protozoa
(2023) Select the correct answer using the code
338. Consider the following statements: given below.
1. Some microorganisms can grow in (a) 1 and 2 only
environments with temperature above (b) 2 and 3 only
the boiling point of water. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Some microorganisms can grow in (d) 1,2 and 3
environments with temperature below Filter Feeder (2021)
the freezing point of water. 345. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly (a) Catfish
acidic environment with a pH below 3 . (b) Octopus
How many of the above statements are (c) Oyster
correct? (d) Pelican
(a) Only one Characteristics of species (2021)
(b) Only two 346. Consider the following animals:
(c) All three 1. Hedgehog
(d) None 2. Marmot
Orangutan (2023) 3. Pangolin
339. Which one of the following makes a tool with To reduce the chance of being captured by
a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree predators, which of the above organisms rolls
or a log of wood? up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their
(a) Fishing cat vulnerable parts?
(b) Orangutan (a) 1 and 2
(c) Otter (b) 2 only
(d) Sloth bear (c) 3 only
Gucchi (2022) (d) 1 and 3
340. With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes 347. Species found on surface without soil (2021)
mentioned in the news, consider the following In the nature, which of the following is/are
statements: most likely to be found surviving on a surface
1. It is a fungus. without soil?
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 1. Fern
3. It is commercially cultivated in the 2. Lichen
Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. 3. Moss
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Mushroom
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 3 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3
Which is not a bird (2022) (d) 1, 3 and 4
341. Which of the following is not a bird? Indian Elephants (2020)
(a) Golden Mahseer 348. With reference to Indian elephants, consider
(b) Indian Nightjar the following statements:
(c) Spoonbill 1. The leader of an elephant group is a
(d) White Ibis female.
Nitrogen fixing plants (2022) 2. The maximum gestation period can be 22
342. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing months.
plants?

30
 3. An elephant can normally go on calving Mahseer
till the age of 40 years only. 2. Irrawaddy Chambal River
4. Among the States in India, the highest Dolphin
elephant population is in Kerala. 3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only matched?
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Bird Species (2020) (d) 1,2 and 3
349. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon Consequences of fall in population of species
frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray- (2017)
chinned minivet and White-throated redstart 355. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in
are the population of species of butterflies, what
(a) Birds could be its likely
(b) Primates consequence/consequences?
(c) Reptiles 1. Pollination of some plants could be
(d) Amphibians adversely affected.
Protected area of Swamp Deer (2020) 2. There could be a drastic increase in the
350. Which one of the following protected areas is fungal infections of some cultivated
well-known for the conservation of a sub- plants.
species of the Indian swamp deer 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of
(Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
and is exclusively graminivorous? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Kanha National Park given below:
(b) Manas National Park (a) 1 only
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary (c) 1 and 3 only
Musk deer's natural habitat (2020) (d) 1,2 and 3
351. Which of the following are the most likely Great Indian Hornbill (2016)
places to find the musk deer in its natural 356. In which of the following regions of India -are
habitat? you 'most likely'to come across the 'Great
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Indian Hornbill' in its natural habitat?
2. Gangotri National Park (a) Sand deserts of northwest India
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
4. Manas National Park (c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Western Ghats
given below: 357. Kharai Camel (2016) What is/are unique
(a) 1 and 2 only about 'Kharai camel', a breed found in India?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. It is capable of swimming up to three
(c) 3 and 4 only kilometres in seawater.
(d) 1 and 4 only 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
Natural habitat of Species (2019) 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be
352. Consider the following statements: domesticated.
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India Select the correct answer using the code
only. given below.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found (a) 1 and 2 only
in India only. (b) 3 only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found (c) 1 and 3 only
in India only. (d) 1,2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are Dugong (2015)
correct? 358. With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found
(a) 1 only in India, which of the following statements
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
(d) 1,2 and 3 2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
Species (2019) 3. It is given legal protection under
353. Consider the following statements: Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 1972.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Some species of marine mammals are given below.
herbivores. (a) 1 and 2
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 1 and 3
correct? (d) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only National Aquatic Animal of India (2015)
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 359. Which one of the following is the national
(c) 2 and 4 only aquatic animal of India?
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 (a) Saltwater crocodile
Wildlife and natural habitat (2019) (b) Olive ridley turtle
354. Consider the following pairs: (c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
Widlife Naturally found in
Gangetic Dolphin (2014)
1. Blue-finned Cauvery River

31
360. Other than poaching, what are the possible (c) 2 and 3 only
reasons for the decline in the population of (d) 1,2 and 3
Ganges River Dolphins? Organisms as Biofertilizers (2013)
1. Construction of dams and barrages on 366. Consider the following organisms:
rivers 1. Agaricus
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in 2. Nostoc
rivers 3. Spirogyra
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets Which of the above is/are used as
accidentally biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other (a) 1 and 2
agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the (b) 2 only
vicinity of rivers (c) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 3 only
given below. Lion tailed Macaque (2013)
(a) 1 and 2 only 367. In which of the following States is lion-tailed
(b) 2 and 3 only macaque found in its natural habitat?
(c) 1,3 and 4 only 1. Tamil Nadu
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Kerala
Hibernation (2014) 3. Karnataka
361. Consider the following: 4. Andhra Pradesh
1. Bats Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Bears given below.
3. Rodents (a) 1,2 and 3 only
The phenomenon of hibernation can be (b) 2 only
observed in which of the above kinds of (c) 1,3 and 4 only
animals? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only Endangered Fauna (2013)
(b) 2 only 368. Consider the following fauna of India:
(c) 1,2 and 3 1. Gharial
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of 2. Leatherback turtle
the above 3. Swamp deer
Birds (2014) Which of the above is/are endangered?
362. If you walk through countryside, you are (a) 1 and 2 only
likely to see some birds stalking alongside the (b) 3 only
cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their (c) 1,2 and 3
movement through grasses. Which of the (d) None
following is/are such bird/birds? Biodiversity Conservation
1. Painted Stork Invasive Species Specialist Group (2023)
2. Common Myna 369. Invasive Species Specialist 'Group' (that
3. Black-necked Crane develops Global Invasive Species Database)
Select the correct answer using the code belongs to which one of the following
given below. organizations?
(a) 1 and 2 (a) The International Union for Conservation
(b) 2 only of Nature
(c) 2 and 3 (b) The United Nations Environment
(d) 3 only Programme
Organisms (2014) (c) The United Nations World Commission for
363. Among the following organisms, which one Environment and Development
does not belong to the class of other three? (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
(a) Crab Biodiversity Management Committees (2023)
(b) Mite 370. Consider the following statements:
(c) Scorpion 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management
(d) Spider Committees are key to the realization of
Indian Biodiversity (2013) the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
364. Consider the following: 2. The Biodiversity Management
1. Star tortoise Committees have important functions in
2. Monitor lizard determining access and benefit sharing,
3. Pygmy hog including the power to levy collection fees
4. Spider monkey on the access of biological resources
Which of the above are naturally found in within its jurisdiction.
India? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1,2 and 3 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2
Mammals (2013) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
365. Consider the following animals: Importance of Wetlands (2022)
1. Sea cow 371. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the
2. Sea horse lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands
3. Sea lion function as its kidneys." Which one of the
Which of the above is/are following functions of wetlands best reflects
mammal/mammals? the above statement?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

32
 (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves (b) Ranthambore
surface runoff, subsoil percolation and (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailàm
evaporation. (d) Sunderbans
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which National Park (2019)
fish, crustaceans, molluses, birds, reptiles 378. Which one of the following National Parks lies
and mammals thrive. completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining (a) Manas National Park
sedimentation balance and soil (b) Namdapha National Park
stabilization. (c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and (d) Valley of Flowers National Park
excess nutrients. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (2019)
Biorock Technology (2022) 379. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
372. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which Biosphere Reserve?
one of the following situations? (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai
(b) Development of building materials using Tiger Reserve
plant residues (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and
(c) Identification of areas for Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent
exploration/extraction of shale gas Valley National Park
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and
forests/protected areas Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Mixawaki method (2022) Mukurthi National Park
373. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the: (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-
and semi-arid areas Srisailam Tiger Reserve
(b) Development of gardens using Ramsar convention and wetland rules (2019)
genetically modified flora 380. Consider the following statements:
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas mandatory on the part of the Government
and on sea surfaces of India to protect and conserve all the
Protected areas under Cauvery Basin (2020) wetlands in the territory of India.
374. Which of the following Protected Areas are 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and
located in Cauvery basin? Management) Rules, 2010 were framed
1. Nagarhole National Park by the Government of India based on the
2. Papikonda National Park recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Management) Rules, 2010 also
Select the correct answer using the code given encompass the drainage area or
below: catchment regions of the wetlands as
(a) 1 and 2 only determined by the authority.
(b) 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1,3 and 4 only correct?
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only
Schedule VI of WPA 1972 (2020) (b) 2 and 3 only
375. If a particular plant species is placed under (c) 3 only
Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, (d) 1,2 and 3
1972 , what is the implication? Pathui Wildlife Sanctuary (2018)
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that 381. In which one of the following States is Pakhui
plant. Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under (a) Arunachal Pradesh
any cireumstances. (b) Manipur
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant. (c) Meghalaya
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to (d) Nagaland
the ecosystem. Location of Protected areas (2017)
India's Desert National Park (2020) 382. From the ecological point of view, which one
376. With reference to India's Desert National of the following assumes importance in being
Park, which of the following statements are a good link between the Eastern Ghats and
correct? the Western Ghats?
1. It is spread over two districts. (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
2. There is no human habitation inside the (b) Nallamala Forest
Park. (c) Nagarhole National Park
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Indian Bustard. Gharials Habitat (2017)
Select the correct answer using the code 383. If you want to see gharials in their natural
given below: habitat, which one of the following is the best
(a) 1 and 2 only place to visit?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Chambal River
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Pulicat Lake
Critical Tiger Habitat (2020) (d) Deepor Beel
377. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which 384. The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in
one has the largest area under "Critical Tiger the news in the context of
Habitat"? (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(a) Corbett (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

33
 (c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System 392. Consider the following pairs:
(d) Security of National Highways National Park River
Translocation of Lions (2017) flowing through the Park
385. Recently there was a proposal to translocate 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
some of the lions from their natural habitat in 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
Gujarat to which one of the following sites? 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
(a) Corbett National Park Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary matched?
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary (a) 1 and 2
(d) Sariska National Park (b) 3 only
Floating National Park (2015) (c) 1 and 3
386. Which of the following National Parks is (d) None
unique in being a swamp with floating Pollution and Degradation
vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? Hydrofluorocarbons (2023)
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park 393. Consider the following:
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park 1. Aerosols
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park 2. Foam agents
(d) Sultanpur National Park 3. Fire retardants
National Parks (2015) 4. Lubricants
387. Which one of the following National Parks has In the making of how many of the above are
a climate that varies from tropical to hydrofluorocarbons used?
subtropical, temperate and arctic? (a) Only one
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park (b) Only two
(b) Nandadevi National Park (c) Only three
(c) Neora Valley National Park (d) All four
(d) Namdapha National Park Mercury Pollution (2023)
Protected sites and states (2014) 394. Consider the following statements regarding
388. Consider the following pairs: mercury pollution:
1. Dampa Tiger: Mizoram Reserve 1. Gold mining activity is a source of
2. Gumti Wildlife: Sikkim Sanctuary mercury pollution in the world.
3. Saramati Peak: Nagaland 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly mercury pollution.
matched? 3. There is no known safe level of exposure
(a) 1 only to mercury.
(b) 2 and 3 only How many of the above statements are
(c) 1 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1,2 and 3 (a) Only one
Conservation of Biodiversity (2014) (b) Only two
389. The most important strategy for the (c) All three
conservation of biodiversity together with (d) None
traditional human life is the establishment of Anthropogenic source for nitrous oxide and
(a) biosphere reserves methane (2022)
(b) botanical gardens 395. Among the following crops, which one is the
(c) national parks most important anthropogenic squrce of both
(d) wildlife sanctuaries methane and nitrous oxide?
Eco-sensitive Zones (2014) (a) Cotton
390. With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', (b) Rice
which of the following statements is/are (c) Sugarcane
correct? (d) Wheat
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that WHO Air Ouality Guidelines (2022)
are declared under the Wildlife 396. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines,
(Protection) Act, 1972. consider the following statements:
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco- 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not
Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of exceed 15 ug /m3 and annual mean of
human activities in those zones except PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug /m3.
agriculture. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone
Select the correct answer using the code pollution occur during the periods of
given below. inclement weather.
(a) 1 only 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and
(b) 2 only enter the bloodstream.
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 asthma.
Protected sites location (2013) Which of the statements given above are
391. Consider the following pairs: correct?
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: Garo Hills (a) 1,3 and 4
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake: Barail Range (b) 1 and 4 only
3. Namdapha National Park: Dafla Hills (c) 2,3 and 4
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (d) 1 and 2 only
matched? Acid Rain (2022)
(a) 1 only 397. Consider the following:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Carbon monoxide
(c) 1,2 and 3 2. Nitrogen oxide
(d) None 3. Ozone
National Parks on rivers (2013) 4. Sulphur dioxide

34
 Excess of which of the above in the (a) 1,2 and 3 only
environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1,3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2,3,4 and 5
(c) 4 only Steel slag (2020)
(d) 1,3 and 4 403. Which one of the following protected areas is
Common Carbon Metric (2021) well-known for the conservation of a sub-
398. The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by species of the Indian swamp deer
UNEP, has been developed for (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground
(a) assessing the carbon footprint of building and is exclusively graminivorous?
operations around the world (a) Kanha National Park
(b) enabling commercial farming entities (b) Manas National Park
around the world to enter carbon (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
emission trading (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) enabling governments to assess the Coal Ash (2020)
overall carbon footprint caused by their 404. Consider the following statements:
countries 1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and
(d) assessing the overall carbon footprint mercury.
caused by the use of fossil fuels by the 2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
world in a unit time dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the
Magnetite Particles (2021) environment.
399. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause 3. High ash content is observed in Indian
neurodegenerative problems, are generated coal.
as environmental pollutants from which of the Which of the statements given above is/are
following? correct?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles (a) 1 only
2. Engines of motor vehicles (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Microwave stoves within homes (c) 3 only
4. Power plants (d) 1,2 and 3
5. Telephone lines Ground water (2020)
Select the correct answer using the code 405. Consider the following statements:
given below. 1. 36 % of India's districts are classified as
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only "overexploited" or "critical" by the
(b) 1,2 and 4 only Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
(c) 3,4 and 5 only 2. CGWA was formed under the
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 Environment (Protection) Act.
Furnace Oil (2021) 3. India has the largest area under
400. With reference to furnace oil, consider the groundwater irrigation in the world.
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It is a product of oil refineries. correct?
2. Some industries use it to generate power. (a) 1 only
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into (b) 2 and 3 only
environment. (c) 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1 and 3 only
correct? Microbeads (2019)
(a) 1 and 2 only 406. Why is there a great concern about the
(b) 2 and 3 only 'microbeads' that are released into
(c) 1 and 3 only environment?
(d) 1,2 and 3 (a) They are considered harmful to marine
Copper smelting plants (2021) ecosystems.
401. Why is there a concern about copper smelting (b) They are considered to cause akin cancer
plants? in children.
1. They may release lethal quantities of (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by
carbon monoxide into environment. crop plants in irrigated fields.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of (d) They are often found to be used as food
some heavy metals into environment. adulterants.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a Himalayan Nettle (2019)
pollutant. 407. Recently, there was a growing awareness in
Select the correct answer using the code our country about the importance of
given below. Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia)
(a) 1 and 2 only because it is found to be sustainable source
(b) 2 and 3 only of
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) anti-malarial drug
(d) 1,2 and 3 (b) biodiesel
Benzene Pollution (2020) (c) pulp for paper industry
402. Which of the following are the reasons/factors (d) textile fibre
for exposure to benzene pollution? Methane Hydrate (2019)
1. Automobile exhaust 408. Which of the following statements are correct
2. Tobacco smoke about the deposits of methane hydrate'?
3. Wood burning 1. Global warming might trigger the release
4. Using varnished wooden furniture of methane gas from these deposits.
5. Using products made of polyurethane 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are
Select the correct answer using the code found in Arotic Tundra and under the
given below: seafloor.

35
 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to may result in the loss of good native
carbon dioxide after a decade or two. ecosystems.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite
given below. with the Earth in the near future in the
(a) 1 and 2 only manner it happened 65 million years ago
(b) 2 and 3 only that caused the mass extinction of many
(c) 1 and 3 only species including those of dinosaurs.
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) Large scale cultivation of genetically
Gases from burning of crops (2019) modified crops in many parts of the world
409. Consider the following: and promoting their cultivation in other
1. Carbon monoxide parts of the world which may cause the
2. Methane disappearance of good native crop plants
3. Ozone and the loss of food biodiversity.
4. Sulphur dioxide (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of
Which of the above are released into natural resources, fragmentation/loss of
atmosphere due to the burning of natural habitats, destruction of
crop/biomass residue? ecosystems, pollution and global climate
(a) 1 and 2 only change.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Sand Mining (2018)
(c) 1 and 4 only 414. Which of the following is/are the possible
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 consequence/s of heavy sand mining in
Gases from agricultural soils and cattle (2019) riverbeds?
410. Consider the following statements: 1. Decreased salinity in the river
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides 2. Pollution of groundwater
into environment. 3. Lowering of the water-table
2. Cattle relcase ammonia into environment. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Poultry industry releases reactive given below:
nitrogen compounds into environment. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only Biological Oxygen Demand (2017)
(c) 2 only 415. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
(d) 1,2 and 3 standard criterion for
NGT & CPCB (2018) (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
411. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest
different from the Central Pollution Control ecosystems
Boand (CPCB)? (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
1. The NGT has been established by an Act (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude
whereas the CPCB has been ereated by regions
an executive order of the Government. 416. Unwanted chemicals in commonly used
2. The NGT provides environmental justice materials (2017) Consider the following pairs:
and helpa reduce the burden of litigation 1. Commonly used / consumed materials
in the higher courts whereas the CPCB 2. Unwanted or controversial chemicals
promotes eleanliness of streams and likely to be found in them
wells, and aims to improve the quality of 3. Lead
air in the country. 4. Brominated vegetable oils
Which of the statements given above is/are 5. Monosodium glutamate
correct? Which of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1 only correctly matched?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
Shrinking of seas (2018) (d) 1,2 and 3
412. Which of the following has/have shrunk Air Quality Index (2016)
immensely/dried up in the recent past due to 417. In the cities of our country, which among the
human activities? following atmospheric gases are normally
1. Aral Sea considered in calculating the value of Air
2. Black Sea Quality Index?
3. Lake Baikal 1. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Carbon monoxide
given below: 3. Nitrogen dioxide
(a) 1 only 4. Sulfur dioxide
(b) 2 and 3 5. Methane
(c) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1 and 3 given below.
Sixth Mass Extinction (2018) (a) 1,2 and 3 only
413. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
extinction" is often mentioned in the news in (c) 1,4 and 5 only
the context of the discussion of (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in Protocol on Ozone depleting substances
agriculture and large-scale commercial (2015)
farming with indiscriminate use of
chemicals in many parts of the world that

36
418. Which one of the following is associated with 5. Mercury
the issue of control and phasing out of the 6. Lead
use of ozone-depleting substances? 7. Plutonium
(a) Bretton Woods Conference Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) Montreal Protocol given below.
(c) Kyoto Protocol (a) 1,3,4,6 and 7 only
(d) Nagoya Protocol (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Brominated flame retardants (2014) (c) 2,4,5 and 7 only
419. Brominated flame retardants are used in (d) 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
many household products like mattresses and Acid Rain (2013)
upholstery. Why is there some concern about 424. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of
their use? environment by
1. They are highly resistant to degradation (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
in the environment. (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
2. They are able to accumulate in humans (c) ozone and carbon dioxide
and animals. (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code Photochemical Smog (2013)
given below. 425. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the
(a) 1 only reaction among
(b) 2 only (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 presence of sunlight
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
Pollutants by Steel industry (2014) presence of sunlight
420. Which of the following are some important (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
pollutants released by steel industry in India? (d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in
1. Oxides of sulphur the evening
2. Oxides of nitrogen Climate Change
3. Carbon monoxide Carbon Markets (2023)
4. Carbon dioxide 426. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be
given below. one of the most widespread tools in the fight
(a) 1,3 and 4 only against climate change.
(b) 2 and 3 only Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer
(c) 1 and 4 only resources from the private sector to the
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 State.
Nano Particles (2014) Which one of the following is correct in
421. There is some concern regarding the respect of the above statements?
nanoparticles of some chemical elements (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
that are used by the industry in the correct and Statement-II is the correct
manufacture of various products. Why? explanation for Statement-I
1. They can accumulate in the environment, (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
and contaminate water and soil. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
2. They can enter the food chains. explanation for Statement-I
3. They can trigger the production of free (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
radicals. incorrect
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
given below. is correct
(a) 1 and 2 only Carbon sequestration (2023)
(b) 3 only 427. Consider the following activities:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on
(d) 1,2 and 3 farmlands extensively
422. Pollutants in Drinking Water (2013) Which of 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by
the following can be found as pollutants in adding lime
the drinking water in some parts of India? 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by
1. Arsenic various industries and pumping it into
2. Sorbitol abandoned subterranean mines in the
3. Fluoride form of carbonated waters
4. Formaldehyde How many of the above activities are often
5. Uranium considered and discussed for carbon capture
Select the correct answer using the codes and sequestration?
given below. (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) All three
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) None
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 Green Hydrogen (2023)
E waste (2013) 428. Consider the following heavy industries:
423. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old 1. Fertilizer plants
and used computers or their parts, which of 2. Oil refineries
the following are released into the 3. Steel plants
environment as e-waste? Green hydrogen is expected to play a
1. Beryllium significant role in decarbonizing how many of
2. Cadmium the above industries?
3. Chromium (a) Only one
4. Heptachlor (b) Only two

37
 (c) All three (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to
(d) None the climate change brought about by the
Climate Action Tracker (2022) increased concentration of carbon dioxide
429. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the in the atmosphere
emission reduction pledges of different Global Climate Change Alliance (2017)
countries is a: 434. With reference to "Global Climate Change
(a) Database created by coalition of research Alliance', which of the following statements
organisations is/are correct?
(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate 1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
Change" 2. It provides technical and financial support
(c) Committee under "United Nations to targeted developing countries to
Framework Convention on Climate integrate climate change into their
Change" development policies and budgets.
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United 3. It is coordinated by World Resources
Nations Environment Programme and Institute (WRI) and World Business
World Bank Council for Sustainable Development
Climate Group and EP100 (2022) (WBCSD).
430. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. The Climate Group" is an international given below:
non-profit organization that drives (a) 1 and 2 only
climate action by building large networks (b) 3 only
and runs them. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. The International Energy Agency in (d) 1,2 and 3
partnership with the Climate Group Green Climate Fund (2015)
launched a global initiative "EP100". 435. Which of the following statements regarding
3. EP100 brings together leading companies 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct?
committed to driving innovation in energy 1. It is intended to assist the developing
efficiency and increasing competitiveness countries in adaptation and mitigation
while delivering on emission reduction practices to counter climate change.
goals. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP,
4. Some Indian companies are members of OECD, Asian Development Bank and
EP100. World Bank.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Select the correct answer using the code
Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". given below.
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5 (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1,3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2,3 and 5 only 436. Impacts of Climate change (2014) The
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 scientific view is that the increase in global
Blue Carbon (2021) temperature should not exceed 2 0C above
431. What is blue carbon? pre-industrial level. If the global temperature
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal increases beyond 30C above the pre-industrial
ecosystems level, what can be its possible impact/impacts
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass on the world?
and agricultural soils 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and carbon source.
natural gas 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
(d) Carbon present in atmosphere 3. All the global wetlands will permanently
Social Cost of Carbon (2020) disappear.
432. Which one of the following statements best 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible
describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? anywhere in the world.
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the Select the correct answer using the code
(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of \ given below.
mathrm{CO_2 emissions in a given year. (a) 1 only
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to (b) 1 and 2 only
provide goods and services to its citizens, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
based on the burning of those fuels. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to Environmental Impact Assessment &
adapt to live in a new place. sustainable practices
(d) contribution of an individual person to the Green Washing (2022)
carbon footprint on the planet Earth. 437. Which one of the following best describes the
Carbon Fertilization (2018) term "greenwashing"?
433. Which of the following statements best (a) Conveying a false impression that a
describes "carbon fertilization"? company's products are eco-friendly and
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased environmentally sound
concentration of carbon dioxide in the (b) Non-inclusion of ecological environmental
atmosphere costs in the Annual Financial Statements
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to of a country
increased concentration of carbon dioxide (c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological
in the atmosphere consequences while undertaking
(c) Increased acidity of occans as a result of infrastructure development
increased concentration of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere

38
 (d) Making mandatory provisions for Select the correct answer using the code
environmental costs in a government given below:
project/programme (a) 1 and 2 only
R2 Code of Practices (2021) (b) 2 and 3 only
438. 'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool (c) 3 only
available for promoting the adoption of (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) environmentally responsible practices in Pyrolysis and Plasma Gasification (2019)
electronics recycling industry 443. In the context of which one of the following
(b) ecological management of Wetlands of are the terms pyrolysis and plasma
International Importance' under the gasification' mentioned?
Ramsar Convention (a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of (b) Natural gas extraction technologies
agricultural crops in degraded lands (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Environmental Impact Assessment' in the (d) Waste-to-energy technologies
exploitation of natural resources Bioremediation Technique (2017)
Water credit (2021) 444. In the context of solving pollution problems,
439. With reference to 'WaterCredit', consider the what is/are the advantage/advantages of
following statements: bioremediation technique?
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution
water and sanitation sector. by enhancing the same biodegradation
2. It is a global initiative launched under the process that occurs in nature.
aegis of the World Health Organization 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such
and the World Bank. as cadmium and lead can be readily and
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet completely treated by bioremediation
their water needs without depending on using microorganisms.
subsidies. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to
Which of the statements given above are create microorganisms specifically
correct? designed for bioremediation.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
Rural road construction (2020) (c) 1 and 3 only
440. In rural road construction, the use of which of (d) 1,2 and 3
the following is preferred for ensuring Carbon Sequestration (2017)
environmental sustainability or to reduce 445. In the context of mitigating the impending
carbon footprint? global warming due to anthropogenic
1. Copper slag emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the
2. Cold mix asphalt technology following can be the potential sites for carbon
3. Geotextiles sequestration?
4. Hot mix asphalt technology 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
5. Portland cement 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Subterranean deep saline formations
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1,2 and 3 only given below:
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 4 and 5 only (b) 3 only
(d) 1 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only
Biochar in farming (2020) (d) 1,2 and 3
441. What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the F1y Ash (2015)
growing medium in vertical farming. 446. With reference to 'fly ash' produced by the
2. When biochar is a part of the growing power plants using coal as fuel, which of the
medium, it promotes the growth of following statements is/are correct?
nitrogen-fixing microorganisms. 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of
3. When biochar is a part of the growing bricks for building construction.
medium, it enables the growing medium 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for
to retain water for longer time. some of the Portland cement contents of
Which of the statements given above is/are concrete.
correct? 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and
(a) 1 and 2 only calcium oxide only, and does not contain
(b) 2 only any toxic elements.
(c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1,2 and 3 given below.
Zero tillage in agriculture (2020) (a) 1 and 2
442. What is/are the advantage/advantages of (b) 2 only
zero tillage in agriculture? (c) 1 and 3
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without (d) 3 only
burning the residue of previous crop. Contour bunding (2013)
2. Without the need for nursery of rice 447. Contour bunding is a method of soil
saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds conservation used in
in the wet soil is possible. (a) desert margins, liable to strong wind
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is action
possible.

39
 (b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, 2. state the requirement of public
liable to flooding participation in the process of
(c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed environmental protection, and the
growth procedure and manner in which it is
(d) None of the above sought
(e) Acts, Policies & Organisations 3. lay down the standards for emission or
India Sanitation Coalition (2022) discharge of environmental pollutants
448. Consider the following statements: from various sources
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a Which of the statements given above is/are
platform to promote sustainable correct?
sanitation and is funded by the (a) 1 only
Government of India and the World (b) 2 only
Health Organization. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
an apex body of the Ministry of Housing Solid Waste Management Rules 2016 (2019)
and Urban Affairs in Government of India 453. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules,
and provides innovative solutions to 2016 in India, which one of the following
address the challenges of Urban India. statements is correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste
correct? into five categories.
(a) 1 only (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban
(b) 2 only local bodies, notified towns and ail
(c) Both 1 and 2 industrial townships only.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate
Body under EPA, 1986 (2022) criteria for the identification of sites for
449. Which one of the following has been landfills and waste processing facilities.
constituted under the Environment (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste
(Protection) Act, 1986? generator that the waste generated in
(a) Central Water Commission one district cannot be moved to another
(b) Central Ground Water Board district.
(c) Central Ground Water Authority Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (2019)
(d) National Water Development Agency 454. Consider the following statements:
Indian laws about Wildlife Protection (2022) 1. As per law, the Compensatory
450. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife Afforestation Fund Management and
protection, consider the following statements: Planning Authority exists at both National
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the and State levels.
government. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, compensatory afforestation programmes
such animal is entitled for equal carried out under the Compensatory
protection whether it is found in Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
protected areas or outside. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal correct?
becoming a danger to human life is (a) 1 only
sufficient ground for its capture or killing. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 455. Extended Producers Responsibility (2019) In
(b) 2 only India, 'extended producer responsibility' was
(c) 1 and 3 introduced as an important feature in which
(d) 3 only of the following?
New York Declaration on Forests (2021) (a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and
451. With reference to the New York Declaration Handling) Rules, 1998
on Forests', which of the following statements (b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and
are correct? Usage) Rules, 1999
1. It was first endorsed at the United (c) The c-Waste (Management and Handling)
Nations Climate Summit in 2014. Rules, 2011
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the (d) The Food Safety and Standard
loss of forests. Regulations, 2011
3. It is a legally binding international Forest Rights Act, 2006 (2018)
declaration. 456. Consider the following atatements:
4. It is endorsed by governments, big 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat"
companies and indigenous communities. is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act,
5. India was one of the signatories at its 2006.
inception. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have
Select the correct answer using the code been given Habitat Rights.
given below. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and
(a) 1,2 and 4 Climate Change officially decides and
(b) 1,3 and 5 declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and
(c) 3 and 4 Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of
(d) 2 and 5 India.
EPA 1986 (2019) Which of the statements given above is/are
452. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 (a) 1 and 2 only
empowers the Government of India to (b) 2 and 3 only

40
 (c) 3 only (b) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in (d) 1,2 and 3
Commerce (2017) 462. Greenhouse gas Protocol (2016) What is
457. Consider the following statements in respect "Greenhouse Gas Protocol?
of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora (a) It is an international accounting tool for
in Commerce (TRAFFIC): government and busincss leaders to
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations understand, quantify and manage
Environment 'Programme (UNEP). greenhouse gas emissions
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to
trade in wild plants and animals is not a offer financial incentives to developing
threat to the conservation of nature. countrics to reduce greenhouse gas
Which of the above statements is/are correct? emissions and to adopt eco-friendly
(a) 1 only technologies
(b) 2 only (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement
(c) Both 1 and 2 ratified by all the member countries of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the United Nations to reduce greenhouse
Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 (WPA) (2017) gas emissions to specified levels by the
458. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, year 2022
1972, which of the following animals cannot (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+
be hunted by any person except under some initiatives hosted by the World Bank
provisions provided by law? Agenda 21 (2016)
1. Gharial 463. With reference to 'Agenda 21', sometimes
2. Indian wild ass scen in the news, consider the following
3. Wild buffalo statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
given below: development.
(a) 1 only 2. It originated in the World Summit on
(b) 2 and 3 only Sustainable Development held in
(c) 1 and 3 only Johannesburg in 2002.
(d) 1,2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
Schedule I of WPA, 1972 (2017) correct?
459. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared (a) 1 only
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (b) 2 only
(Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the tiger. IUCN and CITES (2015)
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few 464. With reference to the International Union for
individuals are under captive protection; Conservation of Nature and Natural
and now it is impossible to prevent its Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on
extinction. International Trade in Endangered Species of
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the
India. following statements is/are correct?
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations
in this context. and CITES is an international agreement
National Ganga River Basin Authority (2016) between governments.
460. Which of the following are the key features of 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects
National Ganga River Basin Authority around the world to better manage
(NGRBA)? natural environments.
1. River basin is the unit of planning and 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that
management. have joined it, but this Convention does
2. It spearheads the river conservation not take the place of national laws.
efforts at the national level. Select the correct answer using the code
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States given below.
through which the Ganga flows becomes (a) 1 only
the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis. (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 1 and 3 only
given below. (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(b) 2 and 3 only (2015)
(c) 1 and 3 only 465. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
(d) 1,2 and 3 Committee is constituted under the
UN-REDD+ (2016) (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
461. Which of the following statements is/are (b) Geographical Indications of Goods
correct? (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
1. Proper design and effective (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
implementation of UN-REDD+ (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Programme can significantly contribute to BASEL III (2015)
2. protection of biodiversity 466. Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often
3. resilience of forest ecosystems seen in the news, seeks to
4. poverty reduction (a) develop national strategies for the
Select the correct answer using the code conservation and sustainable use of
given below. biological diversity
(a) 1 and 2 only

41
 (b) improve banking sector's ability to deal 1. It is an intergovernmental organization
with financial and economic stress and formed by the countries which are
improve risk management signatories to Ramsar Convention.
(c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but 2. It works at the field level to develop and
places a heavier burden on developed mobilize knowledge, and use the practical
countries experience to advocate for better
(d) transfer technology from developed policies.
countries to poor countries to enable Select the correct answer using the code
them to replace the use of given below.
chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with (a) 1 only
harmless chemicals (b) 2 only
467. Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (2015) (c) Both 1 and 2
With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Facility', which of the following statements Statutory bodies for Environment Protection
is/are correct? (2014)
1. It is a global partnership of governments, 471. Consider the following statements:
businesses, civil society and indigenous 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is
peoples. established under the Environment
2. It provides financial aid to universities, (Protection) Act, 1986.
individual scientists and institutions 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a
involved in scientific forestry research to statutory body.
develop eco-friendly and climate 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is
adaptation technologies for sustainable chaired by the Prime Minister.
forest management. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. It assists the countries in their REDD+ correct?
(Reducing Emissions from Deforestation (a) 1 only
and Forest Degradation+)' efforts by (b) 2 and 3 only
providing them with financial and (c) 2 only
technical assistance. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code Polity
given below. Constitutional framework
(a) 1 only Definitions and Philosophy
(b) 2 and 3 only Due Process of Law (2023)
(c) 1 and 3 only 472. In essence, what does Due Process of Law'
(d) 1, 2 and 3 mean?
Montreux Record (2014) (a) The principle of natural justice
468. If a wetland of international importance is (b) The procedure established by law
brought under the 'Montreux Record', what (c) Fair application of law
does it imply? (d) Equality before law
(a) Changes in ecological character have Purpose of Constitution (2023)
occurred, are occurring or are likely to 473. Which one of the following statements best
occur in the wetland as a result of human reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution'
interference of a country?
(b) The country in which the wetland is (a) It determines the objective for the
located should enact a law to prohibit any making of necessary laws.
human activity within five kilometres (b) It enables the creation of political offices
from the edge of the wetland and a government.
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on (c) It defines and limits the powers of
the cultural practices and traditions of government.
certain communities living in its vicinity (d) It secures social justice, social equality
and therefore the cultural diversity and social security.
therein should not be destroyed Constitutional Government (2021)
(d) It is given the status of World Heritage 474. Constitutional government means
Site' (a) a representative government of a nation
469. Global Environment Facility (2014) With with federal structure
reference to 'Global Environment Facility', (b) a government whose Head enjoys
which of the following statements is/are nominal powers
correct? (c) a government whose Head enjoys real
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for powers
'Convention on Biological Diversity' and (d) a government limited by the terms of the
United Nations Framework Convention on Constitution
Climate Change' Best Safeguard of Liberty (2021)
(b) It undertakes scientific research on 475. Which one of the following factors constitutes
environmental issues at global level the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate democracy?
the transfer of technology and funds to (a) A committed judiciary
underdeveloped countries with specific (b) Centralization of powers
aim to protect their environment (c) Elected government
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) Separation of powers
Wetlands International (2014) Definition of State (2021)
470. With reference to a conservation organization 476. Which one of the following best defines the
called 'Wetlands International', which 'of the term 'State?
following statements is/are correct? (a) A community of persons permanently
occupying a definite territory

42
 independent of external control and (b) the methods for strengthening executive
possessing an organized government leadership.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite (c) a superior individual with dynamism and
territory and possessing an authority to vision.
govern them, maintain law and order, (d) a band of dedicated party workers.
protect their natural rights and safeguard Rights and Duties (2017)
their means of sustenance 484. In the context of India, which one of the
(c) A number of persons who have been following is the correct relationship between
living in a definite territory for a very long Rights and Duties?
time with their own culture, tradition and (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
government (b) Rights are personal and hence
(d) A society permanently living in a definite independent of society and Duties.
territory with a central authority, an (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
executive responsible to the central advancement of the personality of the
authority and an independent judiciary citizen.
Constitutional Government (2020) (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the
477. A constitutional government by definition is a stability of the State.
(a) government by legislature Constitutional Government (2014)
(b) popular government 485. Consider the following statements:
(c) multi-party government 1. A Constitutional Government is one which
(d) limited government 2. places effective restrictions on individual
Parliamentary Government (2020) liberty in the interest of State Authority
478. A Parliamentary System of Government is 3. places effective restrictions on the
one in which Authority of the State in the interest of
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are individual liberty
represented in the Government Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) the Government is responsible to the correct?
Parliament and can be removed by it (a) 1 only
(c) the Government is elected by the people (b) 2 only
and can be removed by them (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) the Government is chosen by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Parliament but cannot be removed by it Economic Justice (2013)
before completion of a fixed term 486. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of
Gandhism and Marxism (2020) the Indian Constitution has been provided in
479. One common agreement between Gandhism (a) the Preamble and the Fundamental
and Marxism is Rights
(a) the final goal of a stateless society (b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles
(b) class struggle of State Policy
(c) abolition of private property (c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
(d) economic determinism Principles of State Policy
Definition of Liberty (2019) (d) None of the above
480. In the context of polity, which one of the Historical background
following would you accept as the most Charter Act of 1813 (2019)
appropriate definition of liberty? 487. Consider the following statements about the
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political Charter Act of 1813':
rulers 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East
(b) Absence of restraint India Company in India except for trade in
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes tea and trade with China.
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British
Purpose of Rights (2017) Crown over the Indian territories held by
481. Which one of the following statements is the Company.
correct? 3. The revenues of India were now
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the controlled by the British Parliament.
citizens. Which of the statements given above are
(b) Rights are privileges which are correct?
incorporated in the Constitution of a (a) 1 and 2 only
State. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against (c) 1 and 3 only
the State. (d) 1,2 and 3
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens Making of the Constitution
against the many. Constitution Day (2023)
Purpose of Local Self Government (2017) 488. Consider the following statements in respect
482. Local self-government can be best explained of the Constitution Day:
as an exercise in Statement-I: The Constitution Day is
(a) Federalism celebrated on 26th November every year to
(b) Democratic decentralisation promote constitutional values among citizens.
(c) Administrative delegation Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the
(d) Direct democracy Constituent Assembly of India-set up a
Democracy (2017) Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship
483. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft
that it calls into activity Constitution of India.
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary Which one of the following is correct in
men and women. respect of the above statements?

43
 (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Ninth Schedule (2018)
correct and Statement-II is the correct 495. Consider the following statements:
explanation for Statement-I 1. The Parliament of India can place a
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are particular law in the Ninth Schedule of
correct and Statement-II is not the correct the Constitution of India.
explanation for Statement-I 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Schedule cannot be examined by any
incorrect court and no judgement can be made on
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II it.
is correct Which of the statements given above is/are
Constitutional Status (2021) correct?
489. What was the exact constitutional status of (a) 1 only
India on 26th January, 1950? (b) 2 only
(a) A Democratic Republic (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic Relationship between LAW and LIBERTY
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic (2018)
Republic 496. Which one of the following reflects the most
Government of India Act 1935(2018) appropriate relationship between law and
490. In the Federation established by The liberty?
Government of India Act of 1935, residuary (a) If there are more laws, there is less
powers were given to the liberty.
(a) Federal Legislature (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(b) Governor General (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made
(c) Provincial Legislature by the people.
(d) Provincial Governors (d) If lnws are changed too often, liberty is in
Making of Constitution (2017) danger.
491. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of Rule Of Law (2018)
India is reflected in which of the following? 497. Which of the following are regarded as the
(a) The Preamble main features of the "Rule of Law"?
(b) The Fundamental Rights 1. Limitation of powers
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Equality before law
(d) The Fundamental Duties 3. People's responsibility to the Government
Salient Features of the Constitution 4. Liberty and eivil rights
Principles of Universal Declaration of Human Select the correct answer using the code
rights (2020) given below:
492. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of (a) 1 and 3 only
the following parts of the Constitution of India (b) 2 and 4 only
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions (c) 1,2 and 4 only
of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (d) 1,2,3 and 4
(1948)? 5th and 6th Schedules of Indian Constitution
1. Preamble (2015)
2. Directive Principles of State Policy 498. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth
3. Fundamental Duties Schedule in the Constitution of India are
Select the correct answer using the code made in order to
given below: (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) determine the boundaries between States
(b) 2 only (c) determine the powers, authority and
(c) 1 and 3 only responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) protect the interests of all the border
Constitution of India (2020) States
493. Consider the following statements: Preamble of the Constitution
1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic Preamble (2020)
structure' in terms of federalism, 499. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
secularism, fundamental rights and (a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
democracy. effect
2. The Constitution of India provides for (b) not a part of the Constitution and has ro
judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' legal effect either
liberties and to preserve the ideals on (c) a part of the Constitution and has the
which the Constitution is based. same legal effect as any other part
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
correct? effect independently of other parts
(a) 1 only Preamble (2017)
(b) 2 only 500. Which one of the following objectives is not
(c) Both 1 and 2 embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of India?
9th schedule (2019) (a) Liberty of thought
494. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the (b) Economic liberty
Constitution of India during the prime (c) Liberty of expression
ministership of (d) Liberty of belief
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Union and its Territory
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri Citizenship (2021)
(c) Indira Gandhi 501. With reference to India, consider the following
(d) Morarji Desai statements :

44
 1. There is only one citizenship and one 3. Right to the City' means that the State
domicile. cannot deny any public service or facility
2. A citizen by birth only can become the to the unauthorized colonies in the city.
Head of State. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship correct?
cannot be deprived of it under any (a) 1 only
circumstances. (b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 2
correct? (d) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only Right to Privacy (2021)
(b) 2 only 507. 'Right to Privacy' is protected under which
(c) 1 and 3 Article of the Constitution of India?
(d) 2 and 3 (a) Article 15
Fundamental rights (b) Article 19
Article 16 & Article 335 (2023) (c) Article 21
502. Consider the following statements : (d) Article 29
Statement-I : Right to marry (2019)
The Supreme Court of India has held in some 508. Which Article of the Constitution of India
judgements that the reservation policies safeguards one's right to marry the person of
made under Article 16/4) of the Constitution one's choice?
of India would be limited by Article 335 for (a) Article 19
maintenance of efficiency of administration. (b) Article 21
Statement-II : (c) Article 25
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines (d) Article 29
the term 'efficiency of administration'. Protection against untouchability (2020)
Which one of the following is correct in 509. Which one of the following categories of
respect of the above statements? Fundamental Rights incorporates protection
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are against untouchability as a form of
correct and Statement-II is the correct discrimination?
explanation for Statement-I (a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (b) Right to Freedom
correct and Statement-II is not the correct (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
explanation for Statement-1 (d) Right to Equality
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Article 21 (2018)
incorrect 510. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
is correct 503. Right to Property (2021) Which of the following in the Constitution of
Right to Property (2021) India correctly and appropriately imply the
503. What is the position of the Right to Property above statement?
in India? (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the
(a) Legal right available to citizens only 42^{\text {nd Amendment to the
(b) Legal right available to any person Constitution
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of
only State Policy in Part IV
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed
Concentration of Wealth (2021) in Part III
504. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the
of wealth violates 44^{\text {th Amendment to the
(a) the Right to Equality Constitution
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy Implications of Equality (2017)
(c) the Right to Freedom 511. One of the implications of equality in society
(d) the Concept of Welfare is the absence of
Article 14 (2021) (a) Privileges
505. A legislation which confers on the executive (b) Restraints
or administrative authority an unguided and (c) Competition
uncontrolled discretionary power in the (d) Ideology
matter of application of law violates which Right against Exploitation (2017)
one of the following Articles of the 512. Which of the following are envisaged by the
Constitution of India? Right against Exploitation in the Constitution
(a) Article 14 of India?
(b) Article 28 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
(c) Article 32 forced labour
(d) Article 44 2. Abolition of untouchability
Right to the city (2021) 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
506. Consider the following statements: 4. Prohibition of employment of children in
1. Right to the City' is an agreed human factories and mines
right and the UN-Habitat monitors the Select the correct answer using the code
commitments made by each country in given below :
this regard. (a) 1,2 and 4 only
2. Right to the City' gives every occupant of (b) 2,3 and 4 only
the city the right to reclaim public spaces (c) 1 and 4 only
and public participation in the city. (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Directive Principles of State Policy
Separation of Judiciary from executive (2020)

45
513. In India, separation of judiciary from the (a) Fundamental Rights
executive is enjoined by (b) Fundamental Duties
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
(c) the Seventh Schedule Duties
(d) the conventional practice Fundamental Duties
Part IV (2020) Fundamental Duties (2017)
514. With reference to the provisions contained in 521. Which of the following statements is/are true
Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
the following statements is/are correct? citizen?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 1. A legislative process has been provided
2. They shall not be enforceable by any to enforce these duties.
court. 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to Select the correct answer using the code
influence the making of laws by the given below :
State. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below : (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only Fundamental Duties (2015)
(c) 1 and 3 only 522. wo uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity
(d) 2 and 3 only and Integrity of India" is a provision made in
Welfare state (2020) the
515. Which part of the Constitution of India (a) Preamble of the Constitution
declares the ideal of Welfare State? (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights (d) Fundamental Duties
(c) Preamble Amendment to the Constitution
(d) Seventh Schedule Amendment enacted to overcome
Nature of DPSP's (2017) interpretations of Fundamental Rights (2023)
516. Consider the following statements : 523. In India, which one of the following
With reference to the Constitution of India, Constitutional Amendments was widely
the Directive Principles of State Policy believed to be enacted to overcome the
constitute limitations upon judicial interpretations of the Fundamental
1. legislative function. Rights?
2. executive function. (a) 1st Amendment
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 42nd Amendment
(a) 1 only (c) 44th Amendment
(b) 2 only (d) 86th Amendment
(c) Both 1 and 2 Rules related to Constitutional Amendment
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Bills (2022)
DPSP's (2015) 524. Consider the following statements :
517. Consider the following statements regarding 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires
the Directive Principles of State Policy : a prior recommendation of the President
1. The Principles spell out the of India.
socioeconomic democracy in the country. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
2. The provisions contained in these presented to the President of India, it is
Principles are not enforceable by any obligatory for the President of India to
court. give his/her assent.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be
correct? passed by both the Lok Sabha and the
(a) 1 only Rajya Sabha by a special majority and
(b) 2 only there is no provision for joint sitting.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
Welfare State (2015) (a) 1 and 2 only
518. The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian (b) 2 and 3 only
Constitution is enshrined in its (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Preamble (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy Amendments (2019)
(c) Fundamental Rights 525. Consider the following statements :
(d) Seventh Schedule 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution
DPSP's (2014) of India introduced an Article placing the
519. In the Constitution of India, promotion of election of the Prime Minister beyond
international peace and security is included in judicial review.
the 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down
(a) Preamble to the Constitution the 99th Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy of India as being violative of the
(c) Fundamental Duties independence of judiciary.
(d) Ninth Schedule Which of the statements given above is/are
Fundamental for Governance (2013) correct?
520. According to the Constitution of India, which (a) 1 only
of the following are fundamental for the (b) 2 only
governance of the country? (c) Both 1 and 2

46
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
42nd Amendment to DPSP's (2017) (c) 1 and 3 only
526. Which principle among the following was (d) 1,2 and 3
added to the Directive Principles of State Cabinet form of Government (2017)
Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the 531. Out of the following statements, choose the
Constitution? one that brings out the principle underlying
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men the Cabinet form of Government:
and women (a) An arrangement for minimizing the
(b) Participation of workers in the criticism against the Government whose
management of industries responsibilities are complex and hard to
(c) Right to work, education and public carry out to the satisfaction of all.
assistance (b) A mechanism for speeding up the
(d) Securing living wage and human activities of the Government whose
conditions of work to workers responsibilities are increasing day by day.
Amendment of the Constitution (2013) (c) A mechanism of parliamentary
527. Consider the following statements : democracy for ensuring collective
1. An amendment to the Constitution of responsibility of the Government to the
India can be initiated by an introduction people.
of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. (d) A device for strengthening the hands of
2. If such an amendment seeks to make the head of the Government whose hold
changes in the federal character of the over the people is in a state of decline.
Constitution, the amendment also Parliamentary System (2015)
requires to be ratified by the legislature 532. There is a Parliamentary System of
of all the States of India. Government in India because the
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the
correct? people
(a) 1 only (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(b) 2 only (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Lok Sabha
Basic Structure of the constitution Parliamentary form of Government (2013)
System of Government 533. In the context of India, which of the following
Parliamentary System principles is/are implied institutionally in the
British and Indian System (2021) parliamentary government?
528. We adopted parliamentary democracy based 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of
on the British model, but how does our model the Parliament.
differ from that model? 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
1. As regards legislation, the British confidence in the Parliament.
Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the
India, the power of the Parliament to State.
legislate is limited. Select the correct answer using the codes
2. In India, matters related to the given below.
constitutionality of the Amendment of an (a) 1 and 2 only
Act of the Parliament are referred to the (b) 3 only
Constitution Bench by the Supreme (c) 2 and 3 only
Court. (d) 1,2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code Essential Feature for Federal character (2021)
given below. 534. Which one of the following in Indian polity is
(a) 1 only an essential feature that indicates that it is
(b) 2 only federal in character?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) The independence of judiciary is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 safeguarded.
Parliamentary form of Government (2017) (b) The Union Legislature has elected
529. The main advantage of the parliamentary representatives from constituent units.
form of government is that (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected
(a) the executive and legislature work representatives from regional parties.
independently. (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is by Courts of Law.
more efficient. Features of Indian Federalism (2017)
(c) the executive remains responsible to the 535. Which one of the following is not a feature of
legislature. Indian federalism?
(d) the head of the government cannot be (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
changed without election. (b) Powers have been clearly divided
Parliament control over Council of Ministers between the Centre and the States.
(2017) (c) The federating units have been given
530. The Parliament of India exercises control over unequal representation in the Rajya
the functions of the Council of Ministers Sabha.
through (d) It is the result of an agreement among
1. Adjournment motion the federating units.
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions Centre-state & Inter-state Relation
Select the correct answer using the code Management of prisons in India (2023)
given below : 536. Consider the following statements :

47
 Statement-I : (c) All three
In India, prisons are managed by State (d) None
Governments with their own rules and Electoral college of President and value of
regulations for the day-to-day administration vote (2023)
of prisons. 540. Consider the following statements in respect
Statement-II : of election to the President of India :
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons 1. The members nominated to either House
Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of of the Parliament or the Legislative
prisons in the control of Provincial Assemblies of States are also eligible to
Governments. be included in the Electoral College.
Which one of the following is correct in 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly
respect of the above statements? seats, higher is the value of vote of each
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are MLA of that State.
correct and Statement-II is the correct 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya
explanation for Statement-I Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 4. The value of vote of each MLA of
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Puducherry is higher than that of
explanation for Statement-I Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is total population to total number of
incorrect elective seats in Puducherry is greater as
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-Il compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
is correct
Emergency Provisions How many of the above statements are
Article 356 of Indian Constitution (2018) correct?
537. If the President of India exercises his power (a) Only one
as provided under Article 356 of the (b) Only two
Constitution in respect of a particular State, (c) Only three
then (d) All four
(a) the Assembly of the State is Election of president (2018)
automatically dissolved. 541. With reforence to the election of the
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that President of India, consider the following
State shall be exercisable by or under the statements :
authority of the Parliament. 1. The value of the vote of each MI.A varies
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State. from State to State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to 2. The value of the vote of M P_8 of the Lok
that State. Sabha is more than the value of the vote
President Rule (2017) of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
538. Which of the following are not necessarily the Which of the stutements given above is/are
consequences of the proclamation of the correct?
President's rule in a State? (a) 1 only
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative (b) 2 only
Assembly (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
State President (2014)
3. Dissolution of the local bodies 542. Consider the following statements :
Select the correct answer using the code 1. The President shall make rules for the
given below : more convenient transaction of the
(a) 1 and 2 only business of the Government of India, and
(b) 1 and 3 only for the allocation among Ministers of the
(c) 2 and 3 only said business.
(d) 1,2 and 3 2. All executive actions of the Government
Union Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in
President the name of the Prime Minister.
Facts on President (2023) Which of the statements given above is/are
539. Consider the following statements : correct?
1. If the election of the President of India is (a) 1 only
declared void by the Supreme Court of (b) 2 only
India, all acts done by him/her in the (c) Both 1 and 2
performance of duties of his/her office of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
President before the date of decision Vice President
become invalid. Union Council of Ministers
2. Election for the post of the President of Types of Union Council of Ministers and
India can be postponed on the ground maximum strength of ministers (2022)
that some Legislative Assemblies have 543. Consider the following statements :
been dissolved and elections are yet to 1. The Constitution of India classifies the
take place. ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet
3. When a Bill is presented to the President Minister, Minister of State with
of India, the Constitution prescribes time Independent Charge, Minister of State
limits within which he/she has to declare and Deputy Minister.
his/her assent. 2. The total number of ministers in the
How many of the above statements are Union Government, including the Prime
correct? Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of
(a) Only one the total number of members in the Lok
(b) Only two Sabha.

48
 Which of the statements given above is/are 548. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok
correct? Sabha, consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and
(b) 2 only Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the
(c) Both 1 and 2 election of Deputy Speaker shall be held
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 on such date as the Speaker may fix.
Prime Minister (2015) 2. There is a mandatory provision that the
544. Consider the following statements : election of a candidate as Deputy
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either
is vested in the Prime Minister. the principal opposition party or the
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio ruling party.
Chairman of the Civil Services Board. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
Which of the statements given above is/are as of the Speaker when presiding over
correct? the sitting of the House and no appeal
(a) 1 only lies against his rulings.
(b) 2 only 4. The well established parliamentary
(c) Both 1 and 2 practice regarding the appointment of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
Council of Ministers (2013) moved by the Speaker and duly seconded
545. Consider the following statements: by the Prime Minister.
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre Which of the statements given above are
shall be collectively responsible to the correct?
Parliament. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office (b) 1,2 and 3
during the pleasure of the President of (c) 3 and 4 only
India. (d) 2 and 4 only
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to Equal powers of RS and LS (2020)
the President about the proposals for 549. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok
legislation. Sabha in
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) the matter of creating new All India
correct? Services
(a) 1 only (b) amending the Constitution
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) the removal of the government
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) making cut motions
(d) 1,2 and 3 Sessions of Parliament (2020)
Cabinet Committees 550. Consider the following statements :
Parliament 1. The President of India can summon a
Powers of Houses with Respect to Financial session of the Parliament at such place as
Bills & Money Bills (2023) he/she thinks fit.
546. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill 2. The Constitution of India provides for
in the Indian Parliament, consider the three sessions of the Parliament in a
following statements : year, but it is not mandatory to conduct
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance all three sessions.
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or 3. There is no minimum number of days that
reject the Bill. the Parliament is required to meet in a
2. When the lok Sabha transmits Money Bill year.
to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or Which of the statements given above is/are
reject the Bill, it can only make correct?
recommendations. (a) 1 only
3. In the case of disagreement between the (b) 2 only
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is (c) 1 and 3 only
no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint (d) 2 and 3 only
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint Finance Members of Lok Sabha (2018)
Bill. 551. Consider the following statements :
How many of the above statements are 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest
correct? party in the opposition was the Swatantra
(a) Only one Party.
(b) Only two 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the
(c) All three Opposition" was recognised for the first
(d) None time in 1969.
Powers of Lok Sabha (2022) 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have
547. Which of the following is/are the exclusive a minimum of 75 members, its leader
power(s) of Lok Sabha? cannot be recognised as the Leader of
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency the Opposition.
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence Which of the statements given above is/are
against the Council of Ministers correct?
3. To impeach the President of India (a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below : (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only Parliamentary Committees (2018)
(c) 1 and 3 552. With reference to the Parliament of India,
(d) 3 only which of the following Parliamentary
Deputy Speaker (2022) Committees scrutinizes and reports to the

49
 House whether the powers to make Parliament legislation in State list (2016)
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. 557. The Parliament of India acquires the power to
conferred by the Conatitution or dologatod by legislate on any item in the State List in the
the Parliament are being properly exercised national interest if a resolution to that effect
by the Executive within the scope of such is passed by the
delegation? (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
(a) Committee on Government Asssurances membership
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than
(c) Rules Committee two-thirds of its total - membership
(d) Business Advisory Committee (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its
Money bill (2018) total membership
553. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less
statements is mot corroet? than two-thirds of its members present
(a) A bill shall be deomed to be a Money Bill and voting
if it contains only provisions relating to Rajya Sabha (2015)
imposition, abolition, remiagion. 558. Consider the following statements :
niteration or regulation of any tax. 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the reject or to amend a Money Bill.
custody of the Consolidated Fund of India 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the
or the Contingeney Fund of India. Demands for Grants.
(c) A Money Bill is exmesrned with the 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
appropriation of moneys out of the Annual Financial Statement.
Contingeney Fund or India. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) A Monory Bill deals with the regulation of correct?
borrowing of money or giving of any (a) 1 only
guarantee by the Covernment of India. (b) 1 and 2 only
Private Member's bill (2017) (c) 2 and 3 only
554. With reference to the Parliament of India, (d) 1,2 and 3
consider the following statements : Joint Sitting (2015)
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented 559. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
by a Member of Parliament who is not the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be
elected but only nominated by the passed by
President of India. (a) a simple majority of members present
2. Recently, a priyate member's bill has and voting
been passed in the Parliament of India for (b) three-fourths majority of members
the first time in its history. present and voting
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
correct? (d) absolute majority of the Houses
(a) 1 only Union Budget at Parliament (2015)
(b) 2 only 560. With reference to the Union Government,
(c) Both 1 and 2 consider the following statements :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Department of Revenue is
Lok Sabha (2017) responsible for the preparation of Union
555. Consider the following statements : Budget that is presented to the
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Parliament.
Assembly, the winning candidate must 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the
get at least 50 percent of the votes Consolidated Fund of India without the
polled, to be declared elected. authorization from the Parliament of
2. According to the provisions laid down in India.
the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, 3. All the disbursements made from Public
the Speaker's post goes to the majority Account also need the authorization from
party and the Deputy Speaker's to the the Parliament of India.
Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1,2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Parliamentary Committees (2014)
Bills (2016) 561. Which one of the following is the largest
556. Which of the following statements is/are Committee of the Parliament?
correct? (a) The Committee on Public Accounts
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on (b) The Committee on Estimates
its prorogation. (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which (d) The Committee on Petitions
has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, No Confidence Motion (2014)
shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok 562. Consider the following statements regarding
Sabha. a No-Confidence Motion in India :
Select the correct answer using the code 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence
given below. Motion in the Constitution of India.
(a) 1 only 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be
(b) 2 only introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

50
 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Macro-Economic Framework Statement (2020)
Money Bill (2013) 568. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister
563. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially also places other docunients befors the
amended by the Rajya Sabha? Parliament which include The Macro
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Economic Framework Statement?. The
Bill, accepting or not accepting the aforesaid document is presented because this
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha is mandated by
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill (a) Long standing parliamentary convention
further (b) Artiele 112 and Article 110(1) of the
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Constitution of India
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
passing the Bill Budget Management Act, 2003
Law making power of Parliament (2013) Bureaucracy (2020)
564. The Parliament can make any law for whole 569. In the context of India, which one of the
or any part of India for implementing following is the characteristic appropriate for
international treaties bureaucracy?
(a) with the consent of all the States (a) An agency for widening the scope of
(b) with the consent of the majority of States parliamentary democracy
(c) with the consent of the States concerned (b) An agency for strengthening the structure
(d) without the consent of any State of federalism
Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (c) An agency for facilitating political stability
(2013) and economic growth
565. Consider the following statements : (d) An agency for the implementation of
The Parliamentary Committee on Public public policy
Accounts Office of Profit (2019)
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of 570. Consider the following statements :
the Lok Sabha 1. The Parliament (Prevention of
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
accounts of the Government several posts from disqualification on the
3. examines the report of the Comptroller grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
and Auditor General of India 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended
Which of the statements given above is/are five times.
correct? 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is welldefined in
(a) 1 only the Constitution of India.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 3 only correct?
(d) 1,2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
Parliament (2013) President. (b) 3 only
566. Consider the following statements : (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman (d) 1,2 and 3
of the Rajya Sabha are not the members Review of independent regulators (2019)
of that House. 571. In India, which of the following review the
2. While the nominated members of the two independent regulators in sectors like
Houses of the Parliament have no voting telecommunications, insurance, electricity,
right in the presidential election, they etc.?
have the right to vote in the election of 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the
the Vice Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Parliamentary Department Related
correct? Standing Committees
(a) 1 only 3. Finance Commission
(b) 2 only 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
(c) Both 1 and 2 Commission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. NITI Aayog
Miscellaneous Select the correct answer using the code
Union Government (2021) given below.
567. With reference to the Union Government, (a) 1 and 2
consider the following statements : (b) 1, 3 and 4
1. N. Gopalaswamy lyengar Committee (c) 3,4 and 5
suggested that a minister and a secretary (d) 2 and 5
be designated solely for pursuing the Cabinet Secretariat (2014)
subject of administrative reform and 572. Which of the following is/are the
promoting it. function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
was constituted on the recommendation Meetings
of the Administrative Reforms 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet
Commission, 1966, and this was placed Committees
under the Prime Minister's charge. 3. Allocation of financial resources to the
Which of the statements given above is/are Ministries
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.

51
 (a) 1 only (c) No procedure has been laid down in the
(b) 2 and 3 only Constitution of India for the removal of a
(c) 1 and 2 only Governor from his/her post
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
State Government legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
Governor (2019) appointed by the Lt. Governor on the
573. Which one of the following suggested that the basis of majority support
Governor should be an eminent person from State Council of Ministers
outside the State and should be a detached State Legislature
figure without intense political links or should State Legislature (2019)
not have taken part in politics in the recent 578. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of
past? a State in India, consider the following
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission statements:
(1966) 1. The Governor makes a customary
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969) address to Members of the House at the
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) commencement of the first session of the
(d) National Commission to Review the year.
Working of the Constitution (2000) 2. When a State Legislature does not have a
Special Provisions of Governor (2018) rule on a particular matter, it follows the
574. Consider the following statements : Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
1. No criminal proceedings shall be Which of the statements given above is/are
instituted against the Governor of a State correct?
in any court during his term of office. (a) 1 only
2. The emoluments and allowances of the (b) 2 only
Governor of a State shall not be (c) Both 1 and 2
diminished during his term of office. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are Speaker of state legislature (2018)
correct? 579. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(b) 2 only shall vacate his/her office if he/she
(c) Both 1 and 2 ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is
Chief Secretary (2016) dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate
575. Consider the following statements : his/her office immediately.
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is Which of the statements given above is/are
appointed by the Governor of that State. correct?
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed (a) 1 only
tenure. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only Legislative Council (2015)
(b) 2 only 580. Consider the following statements :
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 can be larger in size than half of the
Discretionary Powers (2014) Legislative Assembly of that particular
576. Which of the following are the discretionary State.
powers given to the Governor of a State? 2. The Governor of a State nominates the
1. Sending a report to the President of India Chairman of Legislative Council of that
for imposing the President's rule particular State.
2. Appointing the Ministers Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the correct?
State Legislature for consideration of the (a) 1 only
President of India (b) 2 only
4. Making the rules to conduct the business (c) Both 1 and 2
of the State Government (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code Special Provisions for some States
given below. Judiciary
(a) 1 and 2 only Supreme Court & High Court
(b) 1 and 3 only Writs by Courts (2022)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 581. With reference to the writs issued by the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Courts in India, consider the following
Governor (2013) statements :
577. Which one of the following statements is 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
correct? organisation unless it is entrusted with a
(a) In India, the same person cannot be public duty.
appointed as Governor for two or more 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company
States at the same time even though it may be a Government
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States Company.
in India are appointed by the Governor of 3. Any public minded person can be a
the State just as the Judges of the petitioner to move the Court to obtain the
Supreme Court are appointed by the writ of Quo Warranto.
President Which of the statoments given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

52
 (b) 2 and 3 only 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction
(c) 1 and 3 only to declare any central law to be
(d) 1,2 and 3 constitutionally invalid.
Indian Judiciary (2021) 2. An amendment to the Constitution of
582. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider India cannot be called into question by
the following statements : the Supreme Court of India.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of Which of the statements given above is/are
India can be called back to sit and act as correct?
a Supreme Court judge by the Chief (a) 1 only
Justice of India with prior permission of (b) 2 only
the President of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. A High Court in India has the power to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
review its own judgement as the Custodian of Indian Constitution (2015)
Supreme Court does. 586. Who/Which of the following is the custodian
Which of the statements given above is/are of the Constitution of India?
correct? (a) The President of India
(a) 1 only (b) The Prime Minister of India
(b) 2 only (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The Supreme Court of India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Powers of Supreme Court (2014)
Impeachment of Judges (2019) 587. The power of the Supreme Court of India to
583. Consider the following statements : decide disputes between the Centre and the
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the States falls under its
Supreme Court of India cannot be (a) advisory jurisdiction
rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) appellate jurisdiction
as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. (c) original jurisdiction
2. The Constitution of India defines and (d) writ jurisdiction
gives details of what constitutes Number of Judges in Supreme court (2014)
incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of 588. The power to increase the number of judges
the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
3. The details of the process of (a) the President of India
impeachment of the Judges of the (b) the Parliament
Supreme Court of India are given in the (c) the Chief Justice of India
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. (d) the Law Commission
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judicial Review & Activism
Judge is taken up for voting. the law Judicial Review (2017)
requires the motion to be backed by each 589. In India, Judicial Review implies
House of the Parliament and supported (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce
by a majority of total membership of that upon the constitutionality of laws and
House and by not less than two-thirds of executive orders.
total members of that House present and (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the
voting. wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Which of the statements given above is/are Legislatures.
correct? (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all
(a) 1 and 2 the legislative enactments before they
(b) 3 only are assented to by the President.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its
(d) 1, 3 and 4 own judgements given earlier in similar or
Article 142 (2019) different cases.
584. With reference to the Constitution of India, Tribunals
prohibitions or limitations or provisions Subordinate Courts
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as Lok Adalat
prohibitions or limitations on the Miscellaneous
constitutional powers under Article 142. It Contempt of Court (2022)
could mean which one of the following? 590. Consider the following statements :
(a) The decisions taken by the Election 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal
Commission of India while discharging its Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,
duties cannot be challenged in any court 1971 was passed.
of law. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not Supreme Court and the High Courts to
constrained in the exercise of its powers punish for contempt of themselves.
by laws made by the Parliament. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
country, the President of India can 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
declare Financial Emergency without the powers to make laws on Contempt of
counsel from the Cabinet. Court.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on Which of the statements given above is/are
certain matters without the concurrence correct ?
of Union Legislature. (a) 1 and 2 only
Jurisdiction (2019) (b) 1,2 and 4
585. With reference to the Constitution of India, (c) 3 and 4 only
consider the following statements : (d) 3 only
Advocates and Bar Council (2022)

53
591. With reference to India, consider the following 3. Democratic decentralization
statements : 4. Financial mobilization
1. Government law officers and legal firms Select the correct answer using the code
are recognised as advocates, but given below.
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys (a) 1,2 and 3 only
are excluded from recognition as (b) 2 and 4 only
advocates. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down (d) 1,2,3 and 4
the rules relating to legal education and Municipalities
recognition of law colleges. Union Territories & Special Areas
Which of the statements given above is/are Union Territories
correct? Scheduled & Tribal Areas
(a) 1 only Notification of an area as Scheduled Area
(b) 2 only (2023)
(c) Both 1 and 2 596. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements :
Judicial Custody (2021) 1. Within a State, the notification of an area
592. With reference to India, consider the following as Scheduled Area takes place through
statements : an Order of the President.
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in 2. The largest administrative unit forming
the custody of the concerned magistrate the Scheduled Area is the District and the
and such accused is locked up in police lowest is the cluster of villages in the
station, not in jail. Block.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned
in charge of the case is not allowed to States are required to submit annual
interrogate the suspect without the reports to the Union Home Ministry on the
approval of the court. administration of Scheduled Areas in the
Which of the statements given above is/are States.
correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
Free Legal Services (2020) (d) None
593. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide Area under fifth schedule (2022)
free legal services to which of the following 597. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
type of citizens? Schedule of the Constitution of India, which
1. Person with an annual income of less one of the following statements best reflects
than ₹ 1,00,000 the consequence of it ?
2. Transgender with an annual income of (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
less than ₹ 2,00,000 tribal people to non-tribal people.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes OBC (b) This would create a local self-governing
with an annual income of less than ₹ body in that area.
3,00,000 (c) This would convert that area into a Union
4. All Senior Citizens Territory.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) The State having such areas would be
given below: declared a Special Category State.
(a) 1 and 2 only Nodal agency for implementation of ST Act
(b) 3 and 4 only (2021)
(c) 2 and 3 only 598. At the national level, which ministry is the
(d) 1 and 4 only nodal agency to ensure effective
Local Government implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and
Panchayati Raj Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
Panchayat (2016) (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
594. Consider the following statements : (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
1. The minimum age prescribed for any Climate Change
person to be a member of Panchayat is (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
25 years. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
premature dissolution continues only for Transfer of Tribal land (2019)
the remainder period. 599. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of
Which of the statements given above is/are India can the transfer of tribal land to private
correct? parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) 1 only (a) Third Schedule
(b) 2 only (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Twelfth Schedule
Fundamental object of Panchayat Raj System PVTG's (2019)
(2015) 600. Consider the following statements about
595. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
system is to ensure which among the in India :
following? 1. PVTGs reside in \mathbf{1 8 States and
1. People's participation in development one Union Territory.
2. Political accountability

54
 2. A stagnant or declining population is one 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor
of the criteria for determining PVTG General of India are the only officers of
status. the Government who are allowed to
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in participate in the meetings of the
the country so far. Parliament of India.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
included in the list of PVTGs. Attorney General of India submits his
Which of the statements given above are resignation when the Government which
correct? appointed him resigns.
(a) 1,2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2, 3 and 4 correct?
(c) 1,2 and 4 (a) 1 only
(d) 1,3 and 4 (b) 2 only
Scheduled tribes and forest dwellers (2019) (c) Both 1 and 2
601. Consider the following statements : (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Attorney General (2013)
Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the 605. Consider the following statements :
right to fell the bamboos grown on forest Attorney General of India can
areas. 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Sabha
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 , bamboo is a Sabha
minor forest produce. 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Which of the statements given above is/are
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows correct?
ownership of minor forest produce to (a) 1 only
forest dwellers. (b) 2 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1,2 and 3
correct? (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only Examples of Constitutional Bodies (2023)
(b) 2 and 3 only 606. Consider the following organizations/ bodies
(c) 3 only in India :
(d) 1,2 and 3 1. The National Commission for Backward
Constitutional Bodies Classes
Election Commission 2. The National Human Rights Commission
602. Election Commission of India (2017) Consider 3. The National Law Commission
the following statements: 4. The National Consumer Disputes
1. The Election Commission of India is a Redressal Commission
five-member body. How many of the above are constitutional
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides bodies?
the election schedule for the conduct of (a) Only one
both general elections and bye-elections. (b) Only two
3. Election Commission resolves the (c) Only three
disputes relating to splits/mergers of (d) All four
recognised political parties. Internal disturbance, preventive detention
Which of the statements given above is/are and POTA 2002 (2023)
correct? 607. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. According to the Constitution of India, the
(b) 2 only Central Government has a duty to protect
(c) 2 and 3 only States from internal disturbances.
(d) 3 only 2. The Constitution of India exempts the
Finance Commission States from providing legal counsel to a
14th Finance Commission (2015) person being held for preventive
603. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance detention.
Commission, which of the following 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism
statements is/are correct? Act, 2002, confession of the accused
1. It has increased the share of States in the before the police cannot be used as
central divisible pool from 32 percent to evidence.
42 percent. How many of the above statements are
2. It has made recommendations correct?
concerning sector-specific grants. (a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Only two
given below. (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only Constitutional Bodies (2013)
(c) Both 1 and 2 608. Which of the following bodies does not/do not
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 find mention in the Constitution?
GST Council 1. National Development Council
National Commissions for SC, ST & BC 2. Planning Commission
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities 3. Zonal Councils
CAG Select the correct answer using the codes
Attorney General and Solicitor General (2022) given below.
604. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 and 2 only

55
 (b) 2 only Elections
(c) 1 and 3 only Lok Sabha Election (2021)
(d) 1,2 and 3 613. Consider the following statements :
Planning (2013) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the
609. Consider the following statements : candidates from contesting in one Lok
1. National Development Council is an organ Sabha election from three constituencies.
of the Planning Commission. 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept contested from three Lok Sabha
in the Concurrent List in the Constitution constituencies.
of India. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that contests in one Lok Sabha election from
Panchayats should be assigned the task many constituencies, his/her party should
of preparation of plans for economic bear the cost of byeelections to the
development and social justice. constituencies vacated by him/her in the
Which of the statements given above is/are event of him/her winning in all the
correct? constituencies.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 only
National Legal Services Authority (2013) (c) 1 and 3
610. With reference to National Legal Services (d) 2 and 3
Authority, consider the following statements : Lok Sabha Election (2017)
1. Its objective is to provide free and 614. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination
competent legal services to the weaker paper can be filed by
sections of the society on the basis of (a) anyone residing in India.
equal opportunity. (b) a resident of the constituency from which
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal the election is to be contested.
Services Authorities to implement the (c) any citizen of India whose name appears
legal programmes and schemes in the electoral roll of a constituency.
throughout the country. (d) any citizen of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Election Laws
correct? Provisions and RPA 1951 (2020)
(a) 1 only 615. Consider the following statements :
(b) 2 only 1. According to the Constitution of India, a
(c) Both 1 and 2 person who is eligible to vote can be
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 made a minister in a State for six months
National Development Council (2013) even if he/she is not a member of the
611. Who among the following constitute the Legislature of that State.
National Development Council? 2. According to the Representation of
1. The Prime Minister People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission criminal offence and sentenced to
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet imprisonment for five years is
4. Chief Ministers of the States permanently disqualified from contesting
Select the correct answer using the codes an election even after his release from
given below. prison.
(a) 1,2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only correct?
(c) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
Non-Constitutional Bodies (c) Both 1 and 2
NITI Aayog (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Niti Aayog (2015) Right to Vote (2017)
612. The Government of India has established NITI 616. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Aayog to replace the (a) Fundamental Right
(a) Human Rights Commission (b) Natural Right
(b) Finance Commission (c) Constitutional Right
(c) Law Commission (d) Legal Right
(d) Planning Commission Anti-Defection Law
National Human Rights Commission & State Anti-defection law (2022)
Human Rights Commissions 617. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
Central Information Commission & State consider the following statements
Information Commissions 1. The law speeifies that a nominated
Central Vigilance Commission, Central Bureau legislator cannot join any political party
of Investigation & National Investigation within six months of being appointed to
Agency the House.
Lokpal & Lokayukta 2. The law does not provide any time-frame
National Disaster Management Authority & within which the presiding officer has to
State Disaster Management Authority decide a defection case.
Other Constitutional Dimensions Which of the statements given above is/are
Co-operative Societies correct?
Official Languages (a) 1 only
Political Dynamics (b) 2 only
Political Parties (c) Both 1 and 2

56
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Different acts related to Armed Forces and
Tenth Schedule (2014) Police Forces (2023)
618. Which one of the following Schedules of the 622. With reference to India, consider the following
Constitution of India contains provisions pairs :
regarding anti-defection? Action The Act under which
(a) Second Schedule it is covered
(b) Fifth Schedule 1.Unauthorized : The Official Secrets
(c) Eighth Schedule wearing of police or military
(d) Tenth Schedule Act, 1923 uniforms
Pressure Groups Foreign Policy 2. Knowingly : The Indian Evior
Acts, Orders & Rules misleading otherwise inter- dence
Notification of an area as Community Reserve Act, 1872 fering with a
(2023) police officer or
619. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, military officer when
consider the following statements : engaged in their
1. Within a State, the notification of an area duties
as Scheduled Area takes place through 3. Celebratory : The Arms
an Order of the President. gunfire (Amendwhich can
2. The largest administrative unit forming endanger ment) Act,
the Scheduled Area is the District and the 2019 the personal
lowest is the cluster of villages in the safety of others
Block. How many of the above pairs are correctly
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned matched?
States are required to submit annual (a) Only one
reports to the Union Home Ministry on the (b) Only two
administration of Scheduled Areas in the (c) All three
States. (d) None
How many of the above statements are Prisoner and Parole rules (2021)
correct? 623. With reference to India, consider the following
(a) Only one statements :
(b) Only two 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient
(c) All three case, parole cannot be denied to such
(d) None prisoner because it becomes a matter of
Flag Code of India (2023) his/her right.
620. Consider the following statements in respect 2. State Governments have their own
of the National Flag of India according to the Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Flag Code of India, 2002: Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement-I : correct?
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag (a) 1 only
of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. (b) 2 only
Statement-II : (c) Both 1 and 2
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Flag shall be 3: 2. Maternity Benefit Amendment Act 2017
Which one of the following is correct in (2019)
respect of the above statements? 624. Which of the following statements is/are
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit
correct and Statement-II is the correct (Amendment) Act, 2017?
explanation for Statement-I 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are months pre-delivery and three months
correct and Statement-II is not the correct post-delivery paid leave.
explanation for Statement-I 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
incorrect 3. Women with two children get reduced
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II entitlements.
is correct Select the correct answer using the code
Home Guards (2023) given below.
621. With reference to Home Guards, consider the (a) 1 and 2 only
following statements : (b) 2 only
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home (c) 3 only
Guards Act and Rules of the Central (d) 1,2 and 3
Government. Right to Education Act (2018)
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve 625. Consider the following staterments:
as an auxiliary force to the police in 1. As per the kight to Fducation (RTE) Act, to
maintenance of internal security. be oligible for appointment as a teacher
3. To prevent infiltration on the international in a Stato, a person would be required to
border/coastal areas, the Border Wing possess the minimum qualifiention laid
Home Guards Battalions have been raised down by the concerned State Couneil of
in some States. Teacher Fducation.
How many of the above statements are 2. As per the RTE Aet, for tenching primary
correct? olaseses, a candidate is required to pass
(a) Only one a Teacher Eligibility Test conduoted in
(b) Only two acoordanee with the Nationel Couneil of
(c) All three Teneher Fduention Euidelines.
(d) None

57
 3. In India, more than 9096 of teacher 630. Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions
edusation institutions are dinoctly under Act (2017) With reference to the 'Prohibition
the State Governments. of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988
Which of the statements given above is/are (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements
eorreet? :
(a) 1 and 2 1. A property transaction is not treated as a
(b) 2 only benami transaction if the owner of the
(c) 1 and 3 property is not aware of the transaction.
(d) 1 only 2. Properties held benami are liable for
Food Safety and Standards Act (2018) confiscation by the Government.
626. Consider the following statements : 3. The Act provides for three authorities for
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act., 2006 investigations but does not provide for
replaced the Prevention of Food any appellate mechanism.
Adulteration Act, 1954. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority correct?
of India (FSSAN) is under the charge of (a) 1 only
Director General of Health Services in the (b) 2 only
Union Ministry of Health and Family (c) 1 and 3 only
Welfare. (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are Quality Council of India (2017)
correct? 631. With reference to "Quality Council of India
(a) 1 only (QCI)', consider the following statements :
(b) 2 only 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government
(c) Both 1 and 2 of India and the Indian Industry.
(d) Neither 1 now 2 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the
National Food Security Act (2018) Prime Minister on the recommendations
627. With reference to the provisions made under of the industry to the Government.
the National Food Security Act, 2013, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
consider the following statements : (a) 1 only
1. The families coming under the category (b) 2 only
of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are (c) Both 1 and 2
eligible to receive subsidised food grains. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age Food Safety and Standard Regulations (2016)
18 years or above, shall be the head of 632. With reference to pre-packaged items in
the household for the purpose of issuance India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to
of a ration card. put which of the following information on the
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers main label, as per the Food Safety and
are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of Standards (Packaging and Labelling)
1600 calories per day during pregnancy Regulations, 2011?
and for six months thereafter. 1. List of ingredients including additives
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Nutrition information
correct? 3. Recommendations, if any, made by the
(a) 1 and 2 medical profession about the possibility
(b) 2 only of any allergic reactions
(c) 1 and 3 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
(d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
Geographical Indications of Goods given below.
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (2018) (a) 1,2 and 3
628. Geographical Indications of Goods (b) 2, 3 and 4
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (c) 1,2 and 4
(2018) India enacted The Geographical (d) 1 and 4 only
Indications of Goods (Registration and Gram Nyayalaya Act (2016)
Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with 633. With reference to the "Gram Nyayalaya Act',
the obligations to which of the following statements is/are
(a) ILO correct?
(b) IMF 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can
(c) UNCTAD hear only civil cases and not criminal
(d) WTO cases.
BHIM app (2018) 2. The Act allows local social activists as
629. With reference to digital payments, consider mediators/reconciliators.
the following statements : Select the correct answer using the code
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer given below.
money to anyone with a UPI-enabled (a) 1 only
bank account. (b) 2 only
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four (c) Both 1 and 2
factors of authentication, BHIM app has (d) Neither 1 nor 2
only two factors of authentication. Objectives of PESA Act (2013)
Which of the statements given above is/are 634. The Government enacted the Panchayat
correct? Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in
(a) 1 only 1996. Which one of the following is not
(b) 2 only identified as its objective?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) To provide self-governance
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) To recognize traditional rights

58
 (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal 3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
areas 4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation Which of the statements given above is/are
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest correct ?
Dwellers Act (2013) (a) 1 and 2
635. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other (b) 2 only
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of (c) 2 and 4
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the (d) 1,3 and 4
authority to initiate the process for Capital Formation (2018)
determining the nature and extent of 641. Despite being a high saving economy, capital
individual or community forest rights or both? formation may not result in significant
(a) State Forest Department increase in output due to
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner (a) weak administrative machinery
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development (b) illiteracy
Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer (c) high population density
(d) Gram Sabha (d) high capital-output ratio
Economy GDP and Fiscal Deficit (2017)
Terms and Definitions 642. Consider the following statements :
Types of Goods (2021) 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India
636. Consider the following statements : has steadily increased in the last decade.
Other things remaining unchanged, market 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India
demand for a good might increase if has steadily increased in the last decade.
1. price of its substitute increases Which of the statements given above is/are
2. price of its complement increases correct?
3. the good is an inferior good and income (a) 1 only
of the consumers increases (b) 2 only
4. its price falls (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 4 only Tax to GDP ratio (2015)
(b) 2, 3 and 4 643. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country
(c) 1, 3 and 4 indicates which of the following?
(d) 1,2 and 3 1. Slowing economic growth rate
National Income Accounting 2. Less equitable distribution of national
Gross National Product (2018) income
637. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP Select the correct answer using the code
do not connote a higher level of economic given below.
development, if (a) 1 only
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with (b) 2 only
agricultural output. (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
industrial output. GDP growth (2015)
(c) poverty and unemployment increase. 644. With reference to Indian economy, consider
(d) imports grow faster than exports. the following statements :
National income (2013) 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross
638. The national income of a country for a given Domestic Product has steadily increased
period is equal to the in the last decade.
(a) total value of goods and services 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market
produced by the nationals prices (in rupees) has steadily increased
(b) sum of total consumption and investment in the last decade.
expenditure Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals correct?
(d) money value of final goods and services (a) 1 only
produced (b) 2 only
Growth, Development & Happiness (c) Both 1 and 2
Recession (2021) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
639. Which among the following steps is most Economic growth (2013)
likely to be taken at the time of an economic 645. Economic growth in country X will necessarily
recession? have to occur if
(a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase (a) there is technical progress in the world
in interest rate economy
(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects (b) there is population growth in X
(c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by (c) there is capital formation in X
reduction of interest rate (d) the volume of trade grows in the world
(d) Reduction of expenditure on public economy
projects Evolution of Indian Economy & Planning
Human Capital Formation (2018) Economy post 1991 (2020)
640. Consider the following statements: 646. With reference to the Indian economy after
Human capital formation as a concept is the 1991 economic liberalization, consider
better explained in terms of a process which the following statements :
enables 1. Worker productivity (₹ per worker at
1. individuals of a country to accumulate 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas
more capital. while it decreased in rural areas.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and 2. The percentage share of rural areas in
capacities of the pcople of the country. the workforce steadily increased.

59
 3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm 2. The National Development Council
economy increased. 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The growth rate in rural employment 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
decreased. 5. The Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1,2 and 5 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Land reforms (2019) Inflation & Business Cycle
647. With reference to land reforms in 652. Price stability & Inflation (2022) In India,
independent India, which one of the following which one of the following is responsible for
statements is correct? maintaining price stability by controlling
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family inflation?
holdings and not individual holdings. (a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) The major aim of land reforms was (b) Expenditure Management Commission
providing agricultural land to all the (c) Financial Stability and Development
landless. Council
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as (d) Reserve Bank of India
a predominant form of cultivation. Demand Pull Inflation (2021)
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to 653. With reference to Indian economy, demand-
the ceiling limits. pull inflation can be caused/ increased by
Five year plans (2019) which of the following?
648. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, 1. Expansionary policies
which of the following statements is/are 2. Fiscal stimulus
correct? 3. Inflation-indexing wages
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there 4. Higher purchasing power
was a determined thrust towards 5. Rising interest rates
substitution of basic and capital good Select the correct answer using the code
industries. given below.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the (a) 1,2 and 4 only
objective of correcting the earlier trend of (b) 3,4 and 5 only
increased concentration of wealth and (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
economic power. (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first Most inflationary in effect (2021)
time, the financial sector was included as 654. Which one of the following is likely to be the
an integral part of the Plan. most inflationary in its effects?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Repayment of public debt
given below. (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a
(a) 1 and 2 only budget deficit
(b) 2 only (c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a
(c) 3 only budget deficit
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) Creation of new money to finance a
Effects of Liberalization (2017) budget deficit
649. Which of the following has/have occurred in CPI and WPI (2020)
India after its liberalization of economic 655. Consider the following statements :
policies in 1991 ? 1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price
1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased Index (CPI) is higher than that in
enormously. Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. Share of India's exports in world trade 2. The WPI does not capture changes in the
increased. prices of services, which CPI does.
3. FDI inflows increased. 3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted
4. India's foreign exchange reserves WPI as its key measure of inflation and to
increased enormously. decide on changing the key policy rates.
Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the statements given above is/are
given below : correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1.2. 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 3
12th Five Year Plan (2014) Distribution of Commodities (2018)
650. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan 656. If a commodity is provided free to the public
is by the Government, then
(a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction (a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) inclusive and sustainable growth (b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from
reduce unemployment the consumers of the product to the tax-
(d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive paying public.
growth (d) the opportunity cost is transferred from
Planning (2014) the consumers of the product to the
651. Which of the following are associated with government.
'Planning' in India? National Investment and Manufacturing Zone
1. The Finance Commission (2016)

60
657. Recently, India's first 'National Investment land which they cultivate collectively and
and Manufacturing Zone' was proposed to be share the produce
set up in (b) Many marginal farmers in an area
(a) Andhra Pradesh organize themselves into groups and
(b) Gujarat synchronize and harmonize selected
(c) Maharashtra agricultural operations
(d) Uttar Pradesh (c) Many marginal farmers in an area
Inflation (2015) together make a contract with a
658. With reference to inflation in India, which of corporate body and surrender their land
the following statements is correct? to the corporate body for a fixed term for
Controlling the inflation in India is the which the corporate body makes a
responsibility of the Government of India payment of agreed amount to the
only farmers
(a) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in (d) A company extends loans, technical
controlling the inflation Decreased money knowledge and material inputs to a
circulation helps number of small farmers in an area so
(b) in controlling the inflation that they produce the agricultural
(c) Increased money circulation helps. commodity required. by
(d) in controlling the inflation the company for its manufacturing
Indian Renewable Energy Development process commercial production
Agency (2015) Niger Seeds (2023)
659. With reference to the Indian Renewable 664. Consider the following statements
Energy Development Agency Limited. 1. The Government of India provides
(IREDA), which of the following statements Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia
is/are correct. abyssinica) seeds.
1. It is a Public Limited Government 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Company. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company. oil for cooking.
Select the correct answer using the code How many of the above statements are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
Inflation (2013) Public Investment in Agriculture (2020)
660. Consider the following statements: 665. In India, which of the following can
1. Inflation benefits the debtors. be considered as investment
2. Inflation benefits the bond- holders. public in agriculture?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Fixing Minimum Support Price
correct? for agricultural produce of all crops
(a) 1 only 2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural
(b) 2 only Credit Societies
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Social Capital development
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Free electricity supply to farmers
Rise in Prices (2013) 5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the
661. A rise in general level of prices may be banking system
caused by 6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the
1. an increase in the money supply governments
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of Select the correct answer using the code
output given below:
3. an increase in the effective demand (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
given below. (c) 2, 3 and 6 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(b) 1 and 2 only Factors affecting price of rice (2020)
(c) 2 and 3 only 666. Which of the following factors/policies
(d) 1, 2 and 3 were affecting the price of rice in India in
Inflationary Practises (2013) the recent past?
662. Which one of the following is likely to be the 1. Minimumn Support Price
most inflationary in its effect? 2. Government's trading
(a) Repayment of public debt 3. Government's stockpiling
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a 4. Consumer subsidies
budget deficit Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget given below:
deficit. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
deficit (c) 2 and 3 only
Primary Sector & Food Management (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Small Farmer Large Field Concept (2023) MSP of Cereals, pulses and Oil Seeds (2020)
663. Which one of the following best describes the 667. Consider the following statements:
concept of Small Farmer Large Field? 1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-
(a) Resettlement of a large number of seeds, the procurement at Minimum
people, uprooted from their countries due Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any
to war, by giving them a large cultivable State/UT of India.

61
 2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which Fair and Remunerative Price for Sugar Cane
the market price will never rise. (2015)
Which of the statements given above is/are 673. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of
correct? sugarcane is approved by the
(a) 1 only (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(b) 2 only (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and
(c) Both 1 and 2 Prices
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection,
Economic Cost of Food grains (2019) Ministry of Agriculture
668. The economic cost of food grains to the Food (d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price Regulation of Agricultural Products (2015)
and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus 674. In India, markets in agricultural products are
(a) transportation cost only regulated under the
(b) interest cost only (a) Essential Commodities Act 1955
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee
cost Act enacted by States
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for (c) Agricultural Produce (Grading
godowns and Marking) Act, 1937
Kharif Crop (2019) (d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and
669. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif Food Products Order, 1973
crops in India in the last five years, consider Seed Village Concept (2015)
the following statements 675. Which one of the following best describes the
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. main objective of 'Seed Village. Concept?
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is (a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own
more than that of oilseeds. fan seeds and discouraging them to buy
3. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than the seeds from others
that of sugarcane. (b) Involving the farmers for training in
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has quality seed production and thereby to
steadily decreased. make available quality seeds to others at
Which of the statements given above are appropriate time and affordable cost
correct? (c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for
(a) 1 and 3 only the production of certified seeds
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages
(c) 2 and 4 only and providing them technology and
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 finance to set up seed companies
Highest Imports (2019) Food and Nutritional Security (2014)
670. Among the agricultural commodities imported 676. In the context of food and nutritional security
by India, which one of the following accounts of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement
for the highest imports in terms of value in Rates' of various crops helps in achieving the
the last five years? food production targets of the future. But
(a) Spices what constraints are the constraint/ in its
(b) Fresh fruits wider/greater implementation?
(c) Pulses 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in
(d) Vegetable oils place.
Edible oils (2018) 2. There is no participation of private sector
671. Consider the following statements : seed companies in the supply of quality
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is seeds of vegetables and planting
more than the domestic production of materials of horticultural crops.
edible oils in the last five years. 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding
2. The Government does not impose any quality seeds in case of low value and
customs duty on all the imported edible high volume crops.
oils as a special case. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Secondary Sector
Minimum Support Price (2018) MSME Classification and funding (2023)
672. Consider the following: 677. Consider the following statements
1. Areca nut with reference to India:
2. Barley 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and
3. Coffee Medium Enterprises Development
4. Finger millet (MSMED) Act, 2006', the
5. Groundnut 'medium enterprises'
6. Sesamum are those with investments in plant and
7. Turmeric machinery between Rs.15 crore
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs and Rs.25 crore.
has announced the Minimum Support Price 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and
for which of the above" Medium Enterprises qualify under the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only priority sector.
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only correct?

62
 (a) 1 only (a) labour-augmenting
(b) 2 only technological progress
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) capital-augmenting
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 technological progress
Real sector of Economy (2022) (c) capital-reducing technological progress
678. Which of the following activities (d) None of the above
constitute real sector in the economy? Service Sector
1. Farmers harvesting their crops Foreign Owned E-Commerce firms (2022)
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into 685. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce
fabrics firms operating in India, which of
3. A commercial bank lending money to a the following statements is/are correct
trading company 1. They can sell their own goods in addition
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee to offering their platforms as market-
Denominated Bonds overseas places.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The degree to which they can own big
given below: sellers on their platforms is limited.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only given below
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
Information on industries (2022) (c) Both 1 and 2
679. In India, which one of the following compiles (d) Neither 1 nor 2
information on industrial disputes, closures, Certification (2017)
retrenchments and lay-offs in factories 686. Consider the following statements
employing workers? 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian
(a) Central Statistics Office Standards (BIS) is mandatory for
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and automotive tyres and tubes.
Internal Trade 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark
(c) Labour Bureau issued by the Food Agriculture
(d) National Technical Manpower Information Organisation (FAO).
System Which of the statements given above is/are
Industrial Employment Central Rules (2019) correct?
680. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 only
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing (b) Both 1 and 2
Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 (c) 2 only
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
implemented, it becomes easier for the Indian Financial Market
firms/companies to lay off workers InvITs (2023)
2. No notice of termination of employment 687. Consider the following statements:
shall be necessary in the case of Statement-1 :
temporary workman Interest income from the deposits in
Which of the statements given above is/are Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
correct? distributed to their investors is exempted
(a) 1 only from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
(b) 2 only Statement-II:
(c) Both 1 and 2 InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 'Securitization and Recon- struction of
Index of Eight Core Industries (2015) Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security
681. In the Index of Eight Core Industries', which Interest Act, 2002'.
one of the following is given the highest Which one of the following is correct in
weight? respect of the above statements?
(a) Coal production (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) Electricity generation. correct and Statement-II is the correct
(c) Fertilizer production explanation for Statement-1
(d) Steel production (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Consumer Price Index (2015) correct and Statement-II is not the correct
682. Which of the following brings out the explanation for Statement-I
'Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial (c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is
Workers? incorrect
(a) The Reserve Bank of India (d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs correct
(c) The Labour Bureau Capital Market (2023)
(d) The Department of Personnel 688. Consider the following markets
and Training 1. Government Bond Market
Steel Production Industry (2015) 2. Call Money Market
683. In India, the steel production 3. Treasury Bill Market
industry requires the import of 4. Stock Market
(a) saltpetre How many of the above are included in
(b) rock phosphate capital markets?
(c) coking coal (a) Only one
(d) All of the above. (b) Only two
Technological Progress in Agriculture (2015) (c) Only three
684. The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs (d) All four
in agricultural production is an example of Examples of Intangible Assets (2023)

63
689. Consider the investments in the 3. The interest received as well as capital
following assets : gains on IIBs are not taxable.
1. Brand recognition Which of the statements given above
2. Inventory are correct?
3. Intellectual property (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Mailing list of clients (b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above are (c) 1 and 3 only
considered intangible investments? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one Indirect Transfers (2022)
(b) Only two 695. Which one of the following situations best
(c) Only three reflects "Indirect Transfers" often
(d) All four talked about in media recently with reference
Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and to India ?
Innovation (S31) (2023) (a) An Indian company investing in a mene
690. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: foreign enterprise and paying taxes to
1. Affordable housing the foreign country on the profits arising
2. Mass rapid transport out of its investment
3. Wealth care (b) A foreign company investing in India. and
4. Renewable energy paying taxes to the country of its base on
On how many of the above does UNOPS the profits arising out of its investment
Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and (c) An Indian company purchases tangible
Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its assets in a foreign country and sells. such
investments? assets after their value increases and
(a) Only one transfers the proceeds to India
(b) Only two (d) A foreign company transfers shares
(c) Only three and such shares derive their
(d) All four substantial value from assets located in
Central Bank Digital Currency (2023) India
691. With reference to Central Bank digital Government Borrowings and Dated securities
currencies, consider the following (2022)
statements : 696. With reference to the Indian
1. It is possible to make payments in a economy, consider the following
digital currency without using US dollar or statements :
SWIFT system. 1. A share of the household
2. A digital currency can distributed be with financial savings goes towards
a condition programmed into it such as a government borrowings.
time- frame for spending it. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related
Which of the statements given above is/are rates in auctions form a large component
correct? of internal debt.
(a) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
Beta in finance (2023) (c) Both 1 and 2
692. In the context of finance, the term (d) Neither 1 nor 2
'beta' refers to External Commercial Borrowings (2022)
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and 697. Consider the following statements:
selling of an asset from different 1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal
platforms Reserve could lead to capital flight.
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio 2. Capital flight may increase the interest
manager to balance risk versus reward cost of firms with existing External
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
perfect hedging is not possible 3. Devaluation of domestic currency
(d) a numeric value that measures decreases the currency risk associated
the fluctuations of a stock to changes in with ECBs.
the overall stock market Which of the statements given above are
Rapid Financing Instrument and Rapid Credit correct?
Facility (2022) (a) 1 and 2 only
693. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid (b) 2 and 3 only
Credit Facility" are related to the provisions (c) 1 and 3 only
of lending by which one of the following? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Asian Development Bank Convertible Bonds (2022)
(b) International Monetary Fund 698. With reference to Convertible Bonds,
(c) United Nations Environment Programme consider the following statements:
Finance Initiative 1. As there is an option to exchange the
(d) World Bank bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a
Inflation Indexed Bonds (2022) lower rate of interest.
694. With reference to the Indian economy, 2. The option to convert to equity affords.
what are the advantages of "Inflation- the bondholder a degree of indexation to
Indexed Bonds (IIBs"? rising consumer prices.
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates Which of the statements given above is/are
on its borrowing by way of LIBs. correct?
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors (a) 1 only
from uncertainty regarding inflation. (b) 2 only

64
 (c) Both 1 and 2 4. Zero-Coupon Bonds' are the interest
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 bearing short-term bonds issued by the
Non-Fungible Tokens (2022) Scheduled Commercial Banks
699. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens to corporations.
(NFTs), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. They enable the digital representation of correct?
physical assets. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens (b) 4 only
that exist on a blockchain. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. They can be traded or exchanged (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
at equivalency and therefore can be FPI in Indian Stock Market (2019)
used as a 704. Which of the following is issued by registered
medium of commercial transactions. foreign portfolio investors to overseas
Which of the statements given above investors who want to be part of the Indian
are correct? stock market without registering themselves
(a) 1 and 2 only directly?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Certificate of Deposit
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Commercial Paper
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Promissory Note
Indian markets (2021) (d) Participatory Note
700. With reference to India, consider the following Inter creditor agreement (2019)
statements: 705. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor
1. Retail investors through demat account Agreement signed by Indian banks and
can invest in "Treasury Bills' and financial institutions recently?
'Government of India Debt Bonds' in (a) To lessen the Government of India's
primary market. 2. The Negotiated perennial burden of fiscal deficit and
Dealing System- Order Matching is a current account deficit
government securities trading platform of (b) To support the infrastructure and
the Reserve Bank of India. State projects of Central and state
2. The Central Depository Services Ltd. is Governments
jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of (c) To act as independent regulator in case
India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. of applications for loans of 50 crore or
Which of the statements given above is/are more
correct? (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed
(a) 1 only assets of 50 crore or more which are
(b) 1 and 2 under consortium lending
(c) 3 only Legal Tender Money (2018)
(d) 2 and 3 706. Which one of the following statements
Indian Government Bond Yields (2021) correctly describes the meaning of legal
701. Indian Government Bond Yields are tender money?
influenced by which of the following? (a) The money which is tendered in courts of
1. Actions of the United States Federal law to defray the fee of legal cases
Reserve (b) The money which a creditor is under
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India compulsion to accept in settlement of his
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates claims
Select the correct answer using the code (c) The bank money in the form of cheques,
given below. drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) The metallic money in circulation in
(b) 2 only a country
(c) 3 only Government securities and treasury bills
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (2018)
Non-financial debt (2020) 707. Consider the following statements:
702. In the context of the Indian economy, non- 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and
financial debt includes which of the services Government of India Securities
following? but not any State Government
1. Housing loans owed by households Securities.
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards 2. Treasury bills are issued by the
3. Treasury bills Government of India and there are no
Select the correct answer using the code treasury bills issued by issued by the
given. below: State Governments.
(a) 1 only 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a
(b) 1 and 2 only discount from the par value.
(c) 3 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?
Financial Instruments (2020) (a) 1 and 2 only
703. With reference to the Indian economy, (b) 3 only
consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Commercial Paper is a short-term (d) 1, 2 and 3
unsecured promissory note. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund
2. Certificate of Deposit is a long-term (2017)
instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of 708. With reference to 'National Investment and
India to a corporation. Infrastructure Fund', which of the following
3. 'Call Money' is a short-term finance used statements is/are correct?
for interbank transactions. 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

65
 2. It has a corpus of Rs.4,00,000 crore (d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking
at present. Financial Institutions
Select the correct answer using the code Credit to SHGS (2023)
given below: 714. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only (a) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme
(b) 2 only was originally initiated by the State Bank
(c) Both 1 and 2 of India by providing microcredit to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 financially deprived.
IFC Masala Bonds (2016) (b) In an SHG, all members of a group take
709. With reference to IFC Masala Bonds', responsibility for a loan that an individual
sometimes seen in the news, which of the member takes.
statements given below is/are correct? (c) The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
1. The International Finance Corporation, Commercial Banks support SHGs.
which offers these bonds, is an arm of the How many of the above statements are
World Bank. correct?
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds (d) Only one
and are a source of debt financing for the (e) Only two
public and private sector. (f) All three
Select the correct answer using the code (g) None
given below. Monetary Policy (2022)
(a) 1 only 715. With reference to the Indian economy,
(b) 2 only consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of India (RBI) is likely to buy government
Venture Capital (2014) securities.
710. What does venture capital mean? 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is
(a) A short-term capital provided to likely to sell dollars in the market.
industries 3. If interest rates in the USA or European
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to Union were to fall, that is likely to induce
new entrepreneurs RBI to buy dollars.
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of Which of the statements given above are
incurring losses correct?
(d) Funds provided for replacement and (a) 1 and 2 only
renovation of industries (b) 2 and 3 only
Deficit financing (2013) (c) 1 and 3 only
711. In India, deficit financing is used for raising (d) 1, 2 and 3
resources for Banks Board Bureau (2022)
(a) economic development 716. With reference to the Banks Board
(b) redemption of public debt Bureau (BBB), which of the following
(c) adjusting the balance of payments statements are correct?
(d) reducing the foreign debt. 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman
Banking & Insurance in India of BBB
Monetary Policy (2023) 2. BBB recommends for the selection
712. Consider the following statements of heads for Public Sector Banks.
Statement-I : 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks
In the post-pandemic recent past, many in developing strategies and capital
Central Banks worldwide had carried out raising plans.
interest rate hikes. Select the correct answer using the code
Statement-II : given below:
Central Banks generally assume that they (a) 1 and 2 only
have the ability to counteract the rising (b) 2 and 3 only
consumer prices via monetary policy means. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which one of the following is correct in (d) 1, 2 and 3
respect of the above statements? Credit Rating Agency India (2022)
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 717. Consider the following statements:
correct and Statement-II is the correct 1. In India, credit rating agencies are
explanation for Statement-I regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The rating agency popularly known as
correct and Statement-II is not the correct ICRA is a public limited company.
explanation for Statement-I 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is credit rating agency.
incorrect Which of the statements given above are
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II correct?
is correct (a) 1 and 2 only
Sterilization by RBI (2023) (b) 2 and 3 only
713. Which one of the following activities of the (c) 1 and 3 only
Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part (d) 1, 2 and 3
of 'sterilization? Lender of last Resort (2021)
(a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations' 718. In India, the central bank's function as the
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment lender of last resort' usually refers to which of
systems the following?
(c) Debt and cash management for 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies
the Central and State Governments when they fail to borrow from other
sources

66
 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a immediate effect on aggregate money supply
temporary crisis in the economy will be
3. Lending to governments to (a) to reduce it by 1,00,000
finance budgetary deficits (b) to increase it by 1,00,000
Select the correct answer using the code (c) to increase it by more than 1,00,000
given below. (d) to leave it unchanged
(a) 1 and 2 Expansionist Monetary Policy (2020)
(b) 2 only 724. If the RBI decides to adopt an
(c) 2 and 3 expansionist monetary policy, which of the
(d) 3 only following would it not do?
Money Multiplier (2021) 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity
719. The money multiplier in an Ratio
economy increases with which one of 2. Increase the Marginal Standing
the following? Facility Rate
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the 3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
banks Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity. Ratio given below:
in the banks (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the (b) 2 only
people (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Increase in the population of the country (d) 1, 2 and 3
Urban Cooperative Banks (2021) Cyber Insurance (2020)
720. With reference to 'Urban Cooperative Banks' 725. In India, under cyber insurance individuals,
in India, consider the following statements : which of the following benefits are generally
1. They are supervised and regulated by covered, in addition to payment for the loss
local boards set up by the State of funds and other benefits?
Governments. 1. Cost of restoration of the computer
2. They can issue equity shares system in case of malware disrupting
and preference shares. access to one's computer
3. They were brought under the purview of 2. Cost of a new computer if some
the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved
an Amendment In 1980. so
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to
correct? minimize the loss in case of
(a) 1 only cyber extortion
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any
(c) 1 and 3 only third party files a suit
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
RBI governor (2021) given below:
721. Consider the following statements: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
India (RBI) is appointed by the Central (c) 2 and 3 only
Government. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Certain provisions in Constitution of India Interest Coverage Ratio (2020)
give the Central Government the right to 726. What is the importance of the term "Interest
issue directions to the RBI in public Coverage Ratio" of a firm in India?
interest. 1. It helps in understanding the present risk
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power of a firm that a bank is going to give loan
from the RBI Act. to.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of
(a) 1 and 2 only a firm that a bank is going to give loan
(b) 2 and 3 only to.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 interest coverage ratio, the worse is its
District Central Co-operative Bank (2020) ability to service its debit.
722. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to given below:
the agriculture sector, District Central (a) 1 and 2 only
Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more (b) 2 only
credit in comparison to Scheduled (c) 1 and 3 only
Commercial Banks and Regional (d) 1, 2 and 3
Rural Banks. Service area Approach (2019)
2. One of the most important functions of 727. The Service Area Approach was implemented
DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary under the purview of
Agricultural Credit Societies. (a) Integrated Rural development
Which of the statements given above is/are Programme
correct? (b) Lead Bank Scheme
(a) 1 only (c) Mahatma Gandhi National
(b) 2 only Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) National Skill Development Mission
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Assets of commercial bank (2019)
Money supply (2020) 728. Which of the following is not included in the
723. If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your assets of a commercial bank in India?
Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the (a) Advances

67
 (b) Deposits offset any loss that banks incur if
(c) Investments the account-holders fail to repay dues.
(d) Money at call and short notice 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Chairman of PSB's (2019) Which of the statements given above
729. The Chairmen of public sector banks is/are correct?
are selected by the (a) 1 only
(a) Banks Board Bureau (b) 2 only
(b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Management of concerned bank Governance of Public sector Banking (2018)
Data diktat (2019) 735. With reference to the governance of public
730. Consider the following statements sector banking in India, consider the following
The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives statements:
relating to "Storage of Payment System 1. Capital infusion into public sector banks
Data', popularly known as data diktat, by the Government of India has steadily
command the payment system providers increased in the last decade.
that 2. To put the public sector banks in order.
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating the merger of associate banks with the
to payment systems operated by them parent State Bank of India has been
are stored in a system only in India affected.
2. they shall ensure that the systems. are Which of the statements given above is/are
owned and operated by public sector correct?
enterprises (a) 1 only
3. they shall submit the consolidated (b) 2 only
system audit report to the Comptroller (c) Both 1 and 2
and Auditor General of India by the end of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the calendar year Monetary Policy Committee (2017)
Which of the statements given above is/are 736. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? correct regarding the Monetary Policy
(a) 1 only Committee (MPC)?
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark
(c) 3 only interest rates.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. It is a 12-member body including the
Money Multiplier (2019) Governor of RBI and is
731. The money multiplier in an economy reconstituted every year.
increases with which with which one 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the
of following? Union Finance Minister.
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the given below:
population (a) 1 only
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Increase in the population of the country (c) 3 only
Merchant Discount Rate (2018) (d) 2 and 3 only
732. Which one of the following best describes the Small Finance Banks (2017)
term "Merchant Discount Rate" 737. What is the purpose of setting up of Small
sometimes seen in news? Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a 1. To supply credit to small business units
merchant for accepting payments 2. To supply credit to small and marginal.
through debit cards pertaining to farmers
that bank. 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their up business particularly in rural areas.
customers when they use debit cards for Select the correct answer using the code
financial transactions for purchasing given below:
goods or services. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for (b) 2 and 3 only
accepting payments from his customers (c) 1 and 3 only
through the bank's debit cards. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The incentive given by the Government Payment Banks (2016)
to merchants for promoting digital 738. The establishment of Payment Banks' is being
payments by their customers through allowed in India to promote financial
Point of Sale (POS) machines and inclusion. Which of the following statements
debit cards. is/are correct in this context?
ATMs (2018) 1. Mobile telephone companies
733. Which one of the following links all the and Supermarket chains that are owned
ATMs in India? and controlled, by residents. are eligible
(a) Indian Banks' Association. to be promoters of Payment Banks.
(b) National Securities Depository Limited. 2. Payment Banks can issue both credit
(c) National Payments Corporation of India cards and debit cards.
(d) Reserve Bank of India 3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending
Capital Adequacy Ratio (2018) activities.
734. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is given below.
the amount that banks have to maintain (a) 1 and 2 only
in the form of their own funds to (b) 1 and 3 only

68
 (c) 2 only (b) communication networking
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) military strategies
Core Banking Solutions (2016) (d) supply and demand of agricultural
739. The term 'Core Banking Solutions' is products
sometimes seen in the news. Which of the Bank Saathi (2014)
following statements best describes/ describe 744. What is/are the facility/facilities the
this term? beneficiaries can get from the services of
1. It is a networking of a bank's branches Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in
which enables customers to operate their branchless areas?
accounts from any branch of the bank on 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their
its network regardless of where they subsidies and social security benefits in
open their accounts. their villages.
2. It is an effort to increase. RBI's control 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural
over commercial banks. through areas to deposits and withdrawals.
computerization. Select the correct answer using the code
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank given below.
with huge non-performing assets is taken (a) 1 only
over by another bank. (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Both 1 and 2
given below. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only Statutory Reserve Requirements (2014)
(b) 2 and 3 only 745. In the context of Indian economy. which of
(c) 1 and 3 only the following is/are the purpose/purposes of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 'Statutory Reserve Requirements?
Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the
(2016) amount of advances the banks can create
740. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the 2. To make the people's deposits with banks
'Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate safe and liquid
(MCLR) announced by RBI? 3. To prevent the commercial banks from
1. These guidelines help improve the making excessive profits
transparency in the methodology 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault
followed by banks for determining the cash to meet their day-to-day
interest rates on advances. requirements
2. These guidelines help ensure availability Select the correct answer using the code
of bank credit at interest rates which are given below.
fair to the borrowers as well as the (a) 1 only
banks. (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 2 and 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only Interest Rates (2014)
(b) 2 only 746. If the interest rate is decreased in an
(c) Both 1 and 2 economy, it will
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Decrease the consumption expenditure in
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (2015) the economy.
741. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the (b) increase the tax collection of the
Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis. points, Government
which of the following is likely to happen? (c) increase the investment expenditure in
(a) India's GDP growth rate increases the economy
drastically (d) increase the total savings in the
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring economy
more capital into our country RBI regulation (2013)
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut 747. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the
their lending rates. commercial banks in matters of
(d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to 1. liquidity of assets
the banking system 2. branch expansion
Components of Monetary Policy (2015) 3. merger of banks
742. With reference to Indian economy, consider 4. winding-up of banks
the following: Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Bank rate given below.
2. Open market operations (a) 1 and 4 only
3. Public debt (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. Public revenue (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the above is/are (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
component/ components of Monetary Policy? Bank rate (2013)
(a) 1 only 748. An increase in the Bank Rate generally
(b) 2, 3 and 4 indicates that the
(c) 1 and 2 (a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to
Marginal Standing Facility, NDTL (2014) commercial. banks
743. The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility Rate' (c) Central Bank is following an easy money
and 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities', policy
sometimes appearing in news, are used in (d) Central Bank is following a tight money
relation to policy.
(a) banking operations Open market operations (2013)

69
749. In the context of Indian economy, 'Open 755. With reference to the
Market Operations' refers to Indian economy, consider the following
(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the statements:
RBI 1. An increase in Nominal
(b) lending by commercial banks to industry Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates
and trade the appreciation of rupee.
(c) purchase and sale of government 2. An increase in the Real
securities by the RBI Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates
(d) None of the above an improvement in trade
Liquid Assets (2013) competitiveness.
750. Consider the following liquid assets: 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation
1. Demand deposits with the banks relative to inflation in other countries is
2. Time deposits with the banks likely to cause an increasing divergence
3. Savings deposits with the banks between NEER and REER.
4. Currency Which of the above statements are correct?
The correct sequence of assets in the (a) 1 and 2 only
decreasing of these liquidity is order of (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1-4-3-2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 4-3-2-1 (d) 1.2 and 3
(c) 2-3-1-4 Devaluation of currency (2021)
(d) 4-1-3-2 756. Consider the following statements:
Priority Sector Lending (2013) The effect of devaluation of a currency is that
751. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India it necessarily
constitutes the lending to 1. improves the competitiveness of the
(a) agriculture domestic exports in the foreign markets
(b) micro and small enterprises 2. increases the foreign value of domestic
(c) weaker sections currency
(d) All of the above 3. improves the trade balance
Money Supply (2013) Which of the above statements is/are
752. Supply of money remaining the same when correct?
there is an increase in demand for money, (a) 1 only
there will be (b) 1 and 2
(a) a fall in the level of prices (c) 3 only
(b) an increase in the rate of interest (d) 2 and 3
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest FDI (2021)
(d) an increase in the level of income and 757. Consider the following:
employment 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
Credit assistance to rural households (2013) 2. Foreign institutional investment with
753. Which of the following grants/grant direct certain conditions
credit assistance to rural households? 3. Global depository receipts.
1. Regional Rural Banks 4. Non-resident external deposits
2. National Bank for Agriculture. and Rural Which of the above can be included in
Development Foreign Direct Investments?
3. Land Development Banks (a) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) 3 only
given below. (c) 2 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 4
(b) 2 only Global Financial Crisis (2020)
(c) 1 and 3 only 758. If another global financial crisis happens in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the near future, which of the following
External Sector in India actions/policies are most likely to give some
India's position in Global Exports (2023) immunity to India?
754. Consider the following statements: 1. Not depending on short-term
Statement-I: foreign borrowings
India accounts for 3-2% of global export of 2. Opening up to more foreign banks
goods. 3. Maintaining full capital account
Statement-II : convertibility
Many local companics and some foreign Select the correct answer using the code
companies operating in India. have taken given below:
advantage of India's Production-linked (a) 1 only
Incentive' scheme. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct in (c) 3 only
respect of the above statements? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are FDI (2020)
correct and Statement-II is the correct 759. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment
explanation for Statement-l in India, which one of the following is
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are considered its major characteristic?
correct and Statement-II is not the correct (a) It is the investment through capital
explanation for Statement-I instruments essentially in a
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is listed company.
incorrect (b) It is a largely non-debt creating
(d) Statement-I 15 incorrect but Statement-II capital flow.
is correct (c) It is the investment which involves debt-
REER and NEER (2022) servicing.

70
 (d) It is the investment made by foreign (d) Neither 1 nor 2
institutional investors in the Government Currency crisis (2019)
securities. 765. In the context of India, which of the following
International Trade (2020) factors is/are contributor/ contributors to
760. With reference to the international trade of reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
India at present, which of the following 1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT
statements is/are correct? sector
1. India's merchandise exports are than its 2. Increasing the government expenditure
merchandise imports. 3. Remittances from Indians abroad
2. India's imports of iron and steel, Select the correct answer using the
chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have code given below.
decreased in recent years. (a) 1 only
3. India's exports of services are more than (b) 1 and 3 only
its imports of services. (c) 2 only
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current (d) 1, 2 and 3
account deficit. Purchasing Power Parity (2019)
Select the correct answer using the code 766. Consider the following statements:
given below: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange
(a) 1 and 2 only rates are calculated by comparing the
(b) 2 and 4 only prices of the same basket of goods and
(c) 3 only services in different countries.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth
TRIMS (2020) largest economy in the world.
761. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Which of the statements given above is/are
Measures (TRIMS), which of the following correct?
statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by (b) 2 only
foreign investors are prohibited. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. They apply to investment measures (d) Neither 1 nor 2
related to trade in both goods and Sliding of Indian Rupee (2019)
services. 767. Which one of the following is not the most
3. They are not concerned with the likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to
regulation of foreign investment. stop the slide of Indian rupee?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods
given below: and promoting exports
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue
(b) 2 only rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Easing conditions relating to external
(d) 1, 2 and 3 commercial borrowing
External Trade (2020) (d) Following an expansionary monetary
762. Consider the following statements: policy
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has Domestic Content Requirement (2017)
consistently increased in the last decade. 768. The term 'Domestic Content Requirement'
2. "Textile and textile articles" constitute an is sometimes seen in the news with
important item of trade between India reference to
and Bangladesh. (a) Developing solar power production in our
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the country
largest trading partner of India in South (b) Granting licences to foreign TV. channels
Asia. in our country
Which of the statements given above (c) Exporting our food products to
is/are correct? other countries
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Permitting foreign educational institutions
(b) 2 only to set up their campuses in our country
(c) 3 only Global Infrastructure Facility (2017)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 769. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
Gold Tranche (2020) (a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure
763. "Gold Tranche" (Reserve Tranche) refers to in Asia and financed by credit from the
(a) a loan system of the World Bank Asian Development Bank.
(b) one of the operations of a Central Bank (b) World Bank collaboration facilitates the
(c) a credit system granted by WTO to preparation structuring of complex
its members infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships
(d) a credit system granted by IMF to (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private
its members sector and institutional investor capital.
India's External debt (2019) (c) Collaboration among the major banks of
764. Consider the following statements the world working with the OECD and
1. Most of India's external debt is owed by focused on expanding the set of
governmental entities. infrastructure projects that have the
2. All of India's external debt potential to mobilize private investment.
is denominated in US dollars. (d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to
Which of the statements given above is/are finance and facilitate infrastructure
correct? development in the world.
(a) 1 only IMF's SDR (2016)
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

71
770. Recently, which one of the following (c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee
currencies has been proposed to be added to to other currencies and vice versa
the basket of IMF's SDR? (d) developing an international market for
(a) Rouble currencies in India
(b) Rand
(c) Indian Rupee International Liquidity (2015)
(d) Renminbi 776. The problem of international liquidity is
International Monetary and Financial related to the non-availability of
Committee (2016) (a) goods and services
771. With reference to the International Monetary (b) gold and silver
and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider (c) dollars and other hard currencies
the following statements: (d) exportable surplus
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern Balance of Payments (2014)
affecting the global economy, and 777. With reference to Balance of Payments, which
advises the International Monetary Fund of the following constitutes/constitute the
(IMF) on the direction of its work. Current Account?
2. The World Bank participates as observer 1. Balance of trade
in IMFC's meetings. 2. Foreign assets
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Balance of invisibles
correct? 4. Special Drawing Rights
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3
Import Cover (2016) (c) 1 and 3
772. Which of the following best describes the (d) 1, 2 and 4
term 'import cover', sometimes seen in the Balance of Payments (2013)
news? 778. The balance of payments of a country is a
(a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the systematic record of
Gross Domestic Product of a country (a) all import and export transactions of of
(b) It is the total value of imports of a country during a given period of
a country in a year time, normally a year
(c) It is the ratio between the value of (b) goods exported from a country during a
exports and that of imports. between two year
countries. (c) economic transaction between the
(d) It is the number of months of imports that government of country to one another
could be paid for by a country's (d) capital movements from one country to
international reserves. another
Bitcoins (2016) Capital Account (2013)
773. With reference to Bitcoins', sometimes seen 779. Which of the following constitute Capital
in the news, which of the following Account?
statements is/are correct? 1. Foreign Loans
1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks 2. Foreign Direct Investment
of the countries. 3. Private Remittances
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send 4. Portfolio Investment
and receive Bitcoins from anyone else Select the correct answer using the codes
with a Bitcoin address. given below.
3. Online payments can be sent without (a) 1, 2 and 3
either side knowing the identity of the (b) 1, 2 and 4
other. (c) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code. (d) 1, 3 and 4
given below. Foreign Exchange Reserves (2013)
(a) 1 and 2 only 780. Which one of the following groups of items is
(b) 2 and 3 only included in India's foreign-exchange
(c) 3 only reserves?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Foreign-currency assets Special Drawing
New Development Bank (2016) Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign be
774. Consider the following statements: the countries
1. New Development Bank has been set up (b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
by APEC. the RBI and SDRS
2. The headquarters of New Development (c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the
Bank is in Shanghai. World Bank and SDRS
Which of the statements given above. is/are (d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
correct? the RBI and loans. from the World Bank
(a) 1 only Black Money (2021)
(b) 2 only 781. Which one of the following effects of creation
(c) Both 1 and 2 of black money in India has been the main
(d) Neither I nor 2 cause of worry to the Government of India?
Convertibility of Rupee (2015) (a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of
775. Convertibility of rupee implies real estate investment in luxury housing
(a) being able to convert rupee notes into (b) Investment in unproductive activities and
gold purchase of precious stones, jewellery,
(b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by gold, etc.
market forces

72
 (c) Large donations to political parties and 786. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a
growth of regionalism toothpaste is a
(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer (a) tax imposed by the Central Government
due to tax evasion (b) tax imposed by the Central Government
Equalization tax (2018) but collected by the State Government
782. With reference to India's decision to levy (c) tax imposed by the State Government
an equalization Lax of 6% on but collected by the Central Government
online advertisement (d) tax imposed and collected by the State
1. services offered by non-resident entities, Government
which of the following statements is/are Public Finance in India
correct ? Horizontal tax devolution (2023)
2. It is introduced as a part of the 787. Consider the following:
Income Tax Act. 1. Demographic performance
3. Non-resident 2. Forest and ecology
entities that offer advertisement services 3. Governance reforms
in India can claim a tax credit in their 4. Stable government
home country under the "Double Taxation 5. Tax and fiscal efforts
Avoidance Agreements". For the horizontal tax devolution, the
Select the correct answer using the code Fifteenth Finance Commission used how
given below: many of the above as criteria other than
(a) 1 only population area and income distance?
(b) 2 only (a) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only four
Items under GST (2018) (d) All five
783. Consider the following items Capital and Revenue Expenditure (2022)
1. Cereal grains hulled 788. With reference to the expenditure made by
2. Chicken eggs cooked an organisation or a company, which of
3. Fish processed and canned the following statements is/are correct?
4. Newspapers containing advertising 1. Acquiring new technology is
material capital expenditure.
Which of the above items is/are exempted 2. Debt financing is considered
under GST (Goods and Services Tax)? capital expenditure, while equity
(a) 1 only financing is considered revenue
(b) 2 and 3 only expenditure.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below:
Advantages Of GST (2017) (a) 1 only
784. What is/are the most likely advantages of (b) 2 only
implementing Goods and Services Tax (c) Both 1 and 2
(GST)? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by Loans and Liabilities (2018)
multiple authorities and will thus create a 789. Consider the following statements:
single market in India. 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Management (FRBM) Review Committee
Account Deficit' of India and will enable it Report has recommended a debt to GDP
to increase its foreign exchange ratio of 60% for the general (combined)
reserves. government by 2023, comprising 40% for
3. It will enormously increase the growth the Central Government and 20% for the
and size of economy of India and will State Governments.
enable it to overtake China in the 2. The Central Government has domestic
near future. liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to
Select the correct answer using the code that of 49% of GDP of the
given below: State Governments.
(a) 1 only 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is
(b) 2 and 3 only mandatory for a State to take the Central
(c) 1 and 3 only Government's consent raising any loan if
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the former owes any outstanding
Base erosion and Profit sharing (2016) liabilities to the latter.
785. The term "Base Erosion and Profit Shifting' is Which of the statements given above is/are
sometimes seen in the news. in the context correct?
of (a) 1 only
(a) mining operation by multinational (b) 2 and 3 only
companies in resource-rich but backward (c) 1 and 3 only
areas (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) curbing of the tax evasion Financial stability and Development Council
bymultinational companies. (2016)
(c) exploitation of genetic resources. of a 790. With reference to Financial Stability and
country by multinational companies Development Council', consider the following
(d) lack of consideration of environmental statements :
costs in the planning and implementation 1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
of developmental projects 2. It is headed by the Union Finance
Minister.
Sales Tax (2014)

73
 3. It monitors macroprudential super- vision 795. As per the NSSO 70th Round
of the economy. "Situation Assessment Survey of
Which of the statements given above is/are Agricultural Households", consider the
correct? following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage
(b) 3 only share of agricultural households among
(c) 2 and 3 only its rural households.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Out of the total agricultural households in
Poverty, Unemployment & Human the country, a little over 60 percent
Development belong to OBCs.
Public health care system in India (2023) 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent
791. Consider the following statements : of agricultural households reported to
Statement-I: have received maximum income from
India's public sector health care system sources other than agricultural activities.
largely focuses on curative care with limited Which of the statements given above is/are
preventive, promotive and rehabilitative correct?
care. (a) 2 and 3 only
Statement-II: (b) 2 only
Under India's decentralized approach to (c) 1 and 3 only
health care delivery, the States are primarily (d) 1, 2 and 3
responsible for organizing health services. Disguised Unemployment (2013)
Which one of the following is correct in 796. Disguised unemployment generally means
respect of the above statements? (a) large number of people
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are remain unemployed
correct and Statement-II is the correct (b) alternative employment is not available
explanation for Statement-1 (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) productivity of workers is low
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Union Budget & Economic Survey
explanation for Statement-I Budget Deficit (2016)
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 797. There has been a persistent deficit budget
incorrect. year after year. Which action/actions of the
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II following can be taken by the Government to
is correct reduce the deficit?
Casual Workers (2021) 1. Reducing revenue expenditure
792. With reference to casual casual workers 2. Introducing new welfare schemes
employed in India, consider the following 3. Rationalizing subsidies
statements: 4. Reducing import duty
1. All casual workers are entitled for Select the correct answer using the code
Employees Provident Fund coverage. given below.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular (a) 1 only
working hours and overtime payment. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. The government can by notification (c) 1 and 3 only
specify that an establishment or industry (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
shall pay wages only through its Capital Budget (2016)
bank account. 798. Which of the following is/are included. in the
Which of the above statements are correct? capital budget of the Government of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like
(b) 2 and 3 only roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Loans received from foreign
(d) 1, 2 and 3 governments
Official Poverty lines of states (2019) 3. Loans and advances granted to the
793. In a given year in India, official poverty lines States and Union Territories
are higher in some States than in others Select the correct answer using the
because code given below.
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State (a) 1 only
(b) price levels vary from State to State (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to (c) 1 and 3 only
State (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) quality of public distribution varies from Reducing Deficit Budget (2015)
State to State 799. There has been a persistent deficit budget
Social Capital (2019) year after year. Which of the following actions
794. In the context of any country, which one of can be taken by the government to reduce
the following would be considered as part of the deficit?
its social capital? 1. Reducing revenue expenditure
(a) The proportion of literates in 2. Introducing new welfare schemes.
the population 3. Rationalizing subsidies.
(b) The stock of its buildings, 4. Expanding industries
other infrastructure and machines Select the correct answer using the code
(c) The size of population in the working age given below.
group (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in (b) 2 and 3 only
the society (c) 1 only
NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Survey of Agricultural Households" (2018) Non-Plan Expenditure (2014)

74
800. With reference to Union Budget, which of the (c) 1 and 3 only
following is/are covered under Non- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Plan Expenditures India's Satellite Launch Vehicle (2018)
1. Defence expenditure 806. With reference to India's satellite launch
2. Interest payments vehicles, consider the following statements:
3. Salaries and pensions 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for
4. Subsidies Earth resources monitoring whereas
Select the correct answer using the code GSLVS are designed mainly to launch
given below. communication satellites.
(a) 1 only 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to
(b) 2 and 3 only remain permanently fixed in the same
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 position in the sky, as viewed from a
(d) None particular location on Earth.
Science & Technology 3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch
Space Technology vehicle with the first and third stages
Countries with Own satellite Navigation using solid rocket motors; and the second
System (2023) and fourth stages using liquid rocket
801. Which one of the following countries has its engines.
own Satellite Navigation System? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Australia correct?
(b) Canada (a) 1 only
(c) Israel (b) 2 and 3
(d) Japan (c) 1 and 2
Astronomical distances (2021) (d) 3 only
802. Which one of the following is a reason why Space Exploration (2017)
astronomical distances are measured in light- 807. The terms Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String
years? Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes
(a) Distances among stellar bodies do not seen in the news in the context of
change. (a) Observation and understanding of
(b) Gravity of stellar bodies does the Universe
not change. (b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Light always travels in straight line. (c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Speed of light is always same. (d) Origin and evolution of living
Space Experiment (2020) organisms on the Earth
803. "The experiment will employ a trio of evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna
spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of Project (2017)
an equilateral triangle that has sides one 808. What is the purpose of 'evolved
million kilometres long, with lasers shining Laser Interferometer Space
between the craft. The experiment in Antenna (eLISA)' project?
question refers to (a) To detect neutrinos
(a) Voyager-2 (b) To detect gravitational waves
(b) New Horizons (c) To detect the effectiveness of
(c) LISA Pathfinder missile defence system
(d) Evolved LISA (d) To study the effect of solar flares on
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System our communication systems
(2018) Astrosat (2016)
804. With reference to the Indian Regional 809. With reference to 'Astrosat" the astronomical
Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider observatory launched by India, which of the
the following statements: following statements is/are correct?
1. IRNSS has three satellites in 1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the
geostationary and four satellites only country to have launched a similar
in geosynchronous orbits. observatory into space.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in
sq. km beyond its borders. an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of
3. India will have its own satellite navigation the Earth.
system with full global coverage by the Select the correct answer using the code -
middle of 2019. given below.
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only Mangalyaan (2016)
(d) None 810. Consider the following statements:
General theory of Relativity (2018) The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
805. Consider the following phenomena: 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. made India the second country to have a
2. The Universe is constantly expanding. spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. 3. made India the only country to be
Which of the of the above is/are successful in making its spacecraft orbit
the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's the Mars in its very first. attempt
General Theory of Relativity, often Which of the statements given above is/are
discussed in media? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

75
 (c) 1 and 3 only 815. Which one of the following statements
(d) 1, 2 and 3 best reflects the idea behind the
IceCube (2015) "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System"
811. In the context of modern scientific research, often talked about in media?
consider the following statements about (a) A hypersonic missile is launched
IceCube', a particle detector located at South into space to counter the asteroid
Pole, which was recently in the news : approaching the Earth and explode it
1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, in space.
encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for after making several orbital motions.
dark matter. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around
3. It is buried deep in the ice. the Earth and deorbits over a target on
Which of the statements given above is/are the Earth.
correct? (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet
(a) 1 only with the same speed and places a probe
(b) 2 and 3 only on its surface.
(c) 1 and 3 only Thermal High Altitude Area Defence (2018)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 816. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense
Space exploration Missions (2014) (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
812. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly (a) An Israeli radar system
matched? (b) India's indigenous anti-
Spacecraft Purpose missile programme
1. Cassini- : Orbiting the Venus (c) An American anti-missile system
Huygens and transmitting data to (d) A defence collaboration between Japan
the Earth and South Korea
2. : Mapping and investigating INS Astradharini (2016)
Messenger the Mercury 817. Which one of the following is the best
3. Voyager 1 : Exploring the outer description of INS Astradharini', that was in
and 2 solar system the news recently?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Amphibious warfare ship
given below. (b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(a) 1 only (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
(c) 1 and 3 only Greased Lightning 10 (2016)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 818. What is 'Greased Lightning-10 (GL-
Higgs Boson Particle (2013) 10), recently in the news?
813. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs (a) Electric plane tested by NASA
boson particle have become frequent news in (b) Solar-powered two-seater
the recent past. What is/are the importance/ aircraft designed by Japan
importances of discovering this particle? (c) Space observatory launched by China
1. It will enable us to under- stand as to why (d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO
elementary particles have mass. Agni IV missile (2014)
2. It will enable Us in the near future to 819. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the
develop the technology of transferring following statements is/are correct?
matter from one point to another without 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
traversing the physical space between 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
them. 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for warheads about 7500 km away.
nuclear fission. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only. (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Nuclear Technology
Defence Technology Reactors under IAEA Safeguards (2020)
Ballistic Missiles (Agni V) (2023) 820. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept
814. Consider the following statements : under "IAEA Safeguards" while others are
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at not?
subsonic speeds throughout their flights, (a) Some use uranium and others
while cruise missiles. are rocket-powered use thorium
only in the initial phase of flight. (b) Some use imported uranium and others
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic use domestic supplies
cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid- (c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises
fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. and others are operated by domestic
Which of the statements given above is/are enterprises
correct? (d) Some are State-owned and others a
(a) 1 only are privately-owned
(b) 2 only Nuclear Suppliers Group(2018)
(c) Both 1 and 2 821. What is/are the consequence/consequences
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of a country becoming the member of the
Fractional Orbital Bombardment System 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?
(2022) 1. It will have access to the latest and most
efficient nuclear technologies.

76
 2. It automatically becomes a member of 3. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases
"The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of entirely from mother and not from
Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". father.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
International Thermonuclear Experimental Mosquito Repellent (2021)
Reactor (2016) 828. Which one of the following is used in
822. India is an important member the preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
International Thermonuclear Experimental (a) Congress grass
Reactor'. If this experiment succeeds, what is (b) Elephant grass
the immediate advantage for India? (c) Lemongrass
(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for (d) Nut grass
power generation Plant and animal cells (2020)
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite 829. Which of the following statements are correct
navigation regarding the general difference between
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of plant and animal cells?
its fission reactors in power generation 1. Plant cells have cellulose cell
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power walls whilst animal cells do not.
generation 2. Plant cells do not have
B & T-cells (2022) plasma membrane unlike animal cells
823. Which one of the following statements best which do.
describes the role of B cells and T cells in the 3. Mature plant cell has one large
human body? vacuole whilst animal cell has many
(a) They protect the body small vacuoles.
from environmental allergens. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) They alleviate the body's pain given below:
and inflammation. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in (b) 2 and 3 only
the body. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) They protect the body from the (d) 1, 2 and 3
diseases caused by pathogens. Chemical fertilizer (2020)
Triclosan (2021) 830. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India,
824. "Triclosan", considered harmful consider the following statements:
when exposed to high levels for a long 1. At present, the retail price of chemical
time, is most likely present in which of the fertilizers is market-driven and not
following? administered by the Government.
(a) Food preservatives 2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is
(b) Fruit-ripening substances produced from natural gas.
(c) Reused plastic containers 3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for
(d) Toiletries phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product
General Science of oil refineries.
Water (2021) Which of the statements given above is/are
825. Water can dissolve more substances than any correct?
other liquid because (a) 1 only
(a) it is dipolar in nature (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) it is a good conductor of heat (c) 2 only
(c) it has high value of specific heat (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) it is an oxide of hydrogen Hepatitis Virus (2019)
Pressure Cooker (2021) 831. Which one of the following statements is not
826. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at correct?
which the food is cooked depends mainly (a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like
upon which of the following? HIV.
1. Area of the hole in the lid (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not
2. Temperature of the flame have a vaccine.
3. Weight of the lid (c) Globally, the number of people infected
Select the correct answer using the code with Hepatitis B and C. viruses are
given below. several times more than those infected
(a) 1 and 2 only with HIV.
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B
(c) 1 and 3 only and C viruses do not show the symptoms
(d) 1, 2 and 3 for many years.
Hereditary diseases (2021) Leaf Modifications (2018)
827. In the context of hereditary 832. Which of the following leaf
diseases, consider the following statements: modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from inhibit water Joss?
parent 1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. child сап be prevented by mitochondrial 2. Tiny leaves
replacement therapy either before or 3. Thorns instead of leaves
after in vitro fertilization of egg- Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

77
 (a) 2 and 3 only (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and
(b) 2 only water vapour are given out
(c) 3 only Vegetative Propagation (2014)
(d) 1,2 and 3 839. Which of the following statements is/are
Zika virus (2017) correct regarding vegetative propagation of
833. Consider the following statements: plants?
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is 1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal
transmitted by the same mosquito that population.
transmits dengue. 2. Vegetative propagation helps in
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease eliminating the virus.
is possible. 3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced
Which of the statements given above is/are most of the year.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
Viruses (2016) (d) 1, 2 and 3
834. Which of the following statements Chemical Change (2014)
is/are correct? 840. Which of the following is/are
Viruses can infect the example/examples of chemical change?
1. bacteria 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. fungi 2. Melting of ice.
3. plants 3. Souring of milk.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
H1N1 (2015) Vitamins (2014)
835. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the 841. Consider the following pairs
news with reference to which one of the Vitamin Deficiency
following diseases? disease
(a) AIDS Vitamin C Scurvy
(b) Bird flu Vitamin D Rickets
(c) Dengue Vitamin E Night blindness
(d) Swine flu Which of the pairs given above is/are
Diseases (2014) correctly matched?
836. Consider the following diseases: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Diphtheria (b) 3 only
2. Chickenpox (c) 1, 2 and 3
3. Smallpox (d) None
Which of the above diseases has/have been Essential minerals for contraction of Muscles
eradicated in India? (2013)
(a) 1 and 2 only 842. Consider the following minerals
(b) 3 only 1. Calcium
(c) 1, 2 and 3 2. Iron
(d) None 3. Sodium
Medicinal Properties of Neem Tree (2014) Which of the minerals given above is/are
837. With reference to Neem tree, consider the required by human body for the contraction
following statements: of muscles?
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to (a) 1 only
control the proliferation of some species (b) 2 and 3 only
of insects and mites. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture (d) 1, 2 and 3
of biofuels and hospital detergents. Aflatoxins (2013)
3. Neem oil has applications 843. Improper handling and storage of cereal
in pharmaceutical industry. grains and oilseeds result in the production of
Which of the statements given above is/are toxins known as aflatoxins which are not
correct? generally destroyed by normal
(a) 1 and 2 only cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
(b) 3 only (a) bacteria
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) protozoa
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) moulds
Photosynthesis (2014) (d) viruses
838. Which one of the following is the process Diseases (2013)
involved in photosynthesis? 844. Which of the following diseases can be
(a) Potential energy is released to form free transmitted from one person to another
energy through tattooing?
(b) Free energy is converted into potential 1. Chikungunya
energy and stored 2. Hepatitis B
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide 3. HIV-AIDS
and water

78
 Select the correct answer using the codes (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only Leaf Modifications (2013)
(c) 1 and 3 only 851. Which of the following
(d) 1. 2 and 3 leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert
Biology (2013) areas to inhibit water loss?
845. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer 1. Hard and waxy leaves
storage life because 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
(a) exposure to sunlight is prevented 3. Thorns instead of leaves
(b) concentration of carbon dioxide in Select the correct answer using the codes
the environment is increased given below.
(c) rate of respiration is decreased. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) there is an increase in humidity (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Physics (2013) (d) 1, 2 and 3
846. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., Forces of Nature (2013)
because 852. The known forces of nature can be divided
(a) the actual area of contact between the into four classes, viz., gravity,
wheel and axle is increased electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and
(b) the effective area of contact between the strong nuclear force. With reference to them,
wheel and axle is increased which one of the following statements is not
(c) the effective area of contact between the correct?
wheel and axle is reduced (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
(d) None of the above statements is correct (b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles
Optical Illusion (2013) with an electric charge
847. Consider the following phenomena (c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
1. Size of the sun at dusk (d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and
2. Colour of the sun at dawn neutrons inside. the nucleus of an atom
3. Moon being visible at dawn Bio Technology
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky Biofilter (2023)
5. Polestar being visible in the sky 853. With reference to the role of biofilters in
Which of the above are optical illusions? Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider
(a) 1, 2 and 3 the following statements:
(b) 3, 4 and 5 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by
(c) 1, 2 and 4 removing uneaten fish feed.
(d) 2, 3 and 5 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish
Rainbow (2013) waste to nitrate.
848. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient
drops of rain. Which of the following physical for fish in water.
phenomena are responsible for this? How many of the statements given above are
1. Dispersion correct?
2. Refraction (a) Only one
3. Internal reflection (b) Only two
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) All three
given below. (d) None
(a) 1 and 2 only Wolbachia Method (2023)
(b) 2 and 3 only 854. Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked
(c) 1 and 3 only about with reference to which one of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following?
Seed Transplantation (2013) (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by
849. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow mosquitoes
because (b) Converting crop residues into packing
(a) the new soil does not contain favourable material
minerals (c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil (d) Producing biochar from thermos chemical
too hard conversion of biomass
(c) most of the root hairs are lost. during Aerial Metagenomics (2023)
transplantation 855. 'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which
(d) leaves get damaged one of the following situations?
during transplantation (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a
Viruses (2013) habitat at one go
850. Which of the following statements is/are (b) Understanding the genetic makeup of
correct? avian species of a habitat
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the (c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood
generation of energy. samples from moving animals
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic (d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to
medium. collect plant and animal samples from
3. Viruses are transmitted from one land surfaces and water bodies
organism to another by biological vectors Microsatellite DNA (2023)
only. 856. 'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of
Select the correct answer using the codes which one of the following?
given below. (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships
(a) 1 only among various species of fauna

79
 (b) Stimulating Stem cells' to transform into 2. Common cold is sometime caused by an
diverse functional tissues adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a
(c) Promoting clonal propagation retrovirus.
of horticultural plants Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs correct?
by conducting series of drug trials in a (a) 1 only
population (b) 2 only
Biofilms (2022) (c) Both 1 and 2
857. Consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Biofilms can form on medical Culturing in synthetic medium (2021)
implants within human tissues. 862. Consider the following:
2. Biofilms can form on food and 1. Bacteria
food processing surfaces. 2. Fungi
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. 3. Virus
Which of the statements given above Which of the above can be cultured
are correct? in artificial/synthetic medium?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Probiotics (2022) Bollgard I & II (2021)
858. Consider the following statements in 863. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are
respect of probiotics mentioned in the context of
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria (a) clonal propagation of crop plants
and yeast. (b) developing genetically modified crop
2. The organisms in probiotics are found plants
in foods we ingest but they do not (c) production of plant growth substances
naturally occur in our gut. (d) production of biofertilizers
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of Recombinant Vector Vaccines (2021)
milk sugars. 864. With reference to recent
Which of the statements given above developments regarding
is/are correct? Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the
(a) 1 only following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. Genetic engineering is applied in the
(c) 1 and 3 development of these vaccines.
(d) 2 and 3 2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Covid-19 vaccines (2022) Which of the statements given above is/are
859. In the context of vaccines manufactured correct?
to prevent COVID-19 pandemie, consider (a) 1 only
the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. The Serum Institute of India produced (c) Both 1 and 2
COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield (d) Neither 1 nor 2
using mRNA platform. Pronuclear Transfer (2020)
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using 865. In the context of recent advances in
vector based platform. T human reproductive technology,
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated "Pronuclear Transfer" is used for
pathogen based vaccine. (a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the
Which of the statements given above are donor sperm
correct? (b) genetic modification of sperm
(a) 1 and 2 only producing cells
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) development of stem cells into functional
(c) 1 and 3 only embryos
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases
DNA Barcoding (2022) in offspring
860. Consider the following statements: Genetic changes, genome (2020)
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 866. Consider the following statements:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the
2. distinguish among species that cells that produce eggs or sperms of a
look alike. prospective parent.
3. identify undesirable animal or 2. A person's genome can be edited before
plant materials in processed foods. birth at the early embryonic stage.
Which of the statements given above 3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells
is/are correct? can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
Adenovirus & Retrovirus (2021) (c) 2 only
861. Consider the following statements : (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (2020)
genomes whereas retroviruses have 867. What 15 the importance of using
double-stranded DNA genomes. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

80
 1. These vaccines are effective against (c) 1, 3 and 4
pneumonia as well as meningitis and (d) 2, 3 and 4
sepsis. Genetically Modified Mustard (2018)
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not 872. With reference to the Genetically Modified
effective against drug-resistant bacteria mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,
can be reduced. consider the following statements:
3. These vaccines have no side effects and 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil
cause no allergic reactions. bacterium that give the plant the
Select the correct answer using the code property of pest-resistance to a wide
given below: variety of pests.
(a) 1 only 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the
(b) 1 and 2 only plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
(c) 3 only 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly
(d) 1, 2 and by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural
India Patents Act (2019) University.
868. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a correct?
biological process to create a seed can be (a) 1 and 3 only
patented in India. (b) 2 only
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property (c) 2 and 3 only
Appellate Board. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to 3D printing (2018)
be patented in India. 873. "3D printing" has applications in which of the
Which of the statements given above is/are following?
correct? 1. Preparation of confectionery items
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. Manufacture of bionic ears.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Automotive industry
(c) 3 only 4. Reconstructive surgeries
(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Data processing technologies
Developments in Science (2019) Select the correct answer using the code
869. With reference to the recent developments in given below:
science, which one of the following (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
statements is not correct? Functional (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
chromosomes can be created by joining (c) 1 and 4 only
segments of DNA taken from cells of different (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
species. Algae based Biofuels (2017)
(a) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be 874. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels,
created in laboratories. but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of
(b) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal developing countries in promoting this
cell can be made to replicate outside a industry?
living cell in a laboratory. 1. Production of algae based biofuels
(c) Cells taken out from plants and animals possible in seas only and not on
can be made to undergo continents.
(d) cell division in laboratory petri dishes. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae
RNA Interference Technology (2019) based biofuel production requires high
870. RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has level of expertise/technology until the
gained popularity in the last few years. Why? construction is completed.
1. It is used in developing gene silencing 3. Economically viable production
therapies. necessitates the setting up of large scale
2. It can can be used in developing facilities which may raise ecological and
therapies for the treatment of cancer. social concerns.
3. It can be used to develop hormone Select the correct answer using the code
replacement therapies. given below:
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that (a) 1 and 2 only
are resistant to viral pathogens. (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 4 Genome Sequencing (2017)
(b) 2 and 3 875. With reference to agriculture in India, how
(c) 1 and 3 can the technique of genome sequencing',
(d) 1 and 4 only often seen in the news, be used in the
Multi-drug resistance (2019) immediate future?
871. Which of the following are the reasons for the 1. Genome sequencing can be used to
occurrence of multi-drug resistance in identify genetic markers for disease
microbial pathogens in India? resistance and drought tolerance in
1. Genetic predisposition of some people various crop plants.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to 2. This technique helps in reducing the time
cure diseases required to develop new varieties. of crop
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming plants.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people 3. It can be used to decipher the host-
Select the correct answer using the pathogen relationships in crops.
code given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only

81
 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
Somatic cell Nuclear Transfer Technology (d) 1, 2 and 3
(2017) Usefulness of by-products in Sugar industry
876. What is the application of Somatic (2013)
Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? 882. With reference to the usefulness of the by-
(a) Production of biolarvicides products of sugar industry, which of the
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics following statements is/are correct?
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals 1. Bagasse can be used biomass fuel for the
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases. generation of energy.
Transcriptome (2016) 2. Molasses can be used as one of the
877. In the context of the developments in feedstocks for the
Bioinformatics, the term 'transcriptome", production of synthetic chemical
sometimes seen in the news, refers to fertilizers.
(a) a range of enzymes used in genome 3. Molasses can be used for the production
editing of ethanol.
(b) the full range of Mrna Select the correct answer using the codes
molecules expressed by an organism given below.
(c) the description of the mechanism of gene (a) 1 only
expression (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) a mechanism of genetic mutations taking (c) 1 and 3 only
place in cells (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bio toilets (2015) Mycorrhizal biotechnology (2013)
878. With reference to bio-toilets used by the 883. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in
Indian Railways, consider the following rehabilitating degraded sites because
statements : mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1. The decomposition of human waste in the 1. resist drought and increase absorptive
bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal area
inoculum. 2. tolerate extremes of pH
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only 3. resist disease infestation
end products in this decomposition which Select the correct answer using the codes
are released into the atmosphere. given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 Nano Technology
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Nanoparticles (2022)
Transgenic Crops (2014) 884. Consider the following statements:
879. Consider the following 1. Other than those made by
techniques/ phenomena: humans, nanoparticles do not exist in
1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants nature.
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are
3. Gene silencing used in the manufacture of
Which of the above is/are used to create some cosmetics.
transgenic crops? 3. Nanoparticles f some
(a) 1 only commercial products which enter the
(b) 2 and 3 environment are unsafe for humans.
(c) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None correct?
Maize (2014) (a) 1 only
880. Consider the following statements: (b) 3 only
1. Maize can be used for the production of (c) 1 and 2
starch. (d) 2 and 3
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a Nanotubes (2020)
feedstock for biodiesel. 885. With reference to carbon nanotubes,
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by consider the following statements:
using maize. 1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and
Which of the statements given. above is/are antigens in the human body.
correct? 2. They can be made into artificial
(a) 1 only blood capillaries for an injured part of
(b) 1 and 2 only human body.
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. They can be used in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 biochemical Bensors.
Recombinant DNA technology (2013) 4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
881. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Which of the statements given above
Engineering) allows genes to be transferred are correct?
1. across different species of plants (a) 1 and 2 only
2. from animals to plants (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. from microorganisms to (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
higher organisms (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes Technology in News (2018)
given below. 886. Consider the following pairs:

82
 Terms Context/Topic (c) 1 and 3 only
sometimes seen in (d) 1, 2 and 3
news Qubits (2022)
1. Belle Artificial Intelligenc 891. Which one of the following is the context
II experiment e in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?
2. Digital/ Cryptocurre (a) Cloud Services
Blockchain technolog ncy (b) Quantum Computing
y (c) Visible Light
3. CRISPR- Cas9 Particle Physics Communication Technologies
Which of the pairs given above is/are (d) Wireless Communication Technologies
correctly matched? Communication Technologies (2022)
(a) 1 and 3 only 892. Consider the following
(b) 2 only communication technologies:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Closed-circuit Television
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Radio Frequency Identification
Technology In Health sector (2015) 3. Wireless Local Area Network
887. With reference to the use of nano- technology Which of the above are considered Short-
in health sector, which of the following Range devices/technologies?
statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible (b) 2 and 3 only
by nanotechnology. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to (d) 1, 2 and 3
gene therapy. Artificial Intelligence (2020)
Select the correct answer using the code 893. With the present state of development,
given below. Artificial Intelligence can effectively do
(a) 1 only which of the following?
(b) 2 only 1. Bring down electricity consumption
(c) Both 1 and 2 in industrial units
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Create meaningful short stories
Electronics, Information & Communication and songs
Technology 2. Bring down electricity consumption
E-governance initiatives built on open-source in industrial units
digital platforms (2022) 3. Disease diagnosis
888. Consider the following: 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
1. Aarogya Setu 5. Wireless transmission of
2. CoWIN electrical energy
3. DigiLocker Select the correct answer using the code
4. DIKSHA given below:
Which of the above are built on top of open- (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
source digital platforms? (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Visible Light Communication (VLC)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Technology (2020)
Web 3.0 (2022) 894. With reference to Visible
889. With reference to Web 3-0, consider Light Communication (VLC) technology, which
the following statements: of the following statements are correct?
1. Web 3-0 technology enables people 1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum
to control their own data. wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
2. In Web 3-0 world, there can be blockchain 2. VLC is known as long-range optical
based social networks. wireless communication.
3. Web 3-0 is operated by users 3. VLC can transmit large amounts of
collectively rather than a corporation. data faster than Bluetooth.
Which of the statements given above 4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Software as a Service (2022) (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
890. With reference to "Software as a Block chain Technology (2020)
Service (SaaS)", consider the following 895. With reference to "Block chain Technology".
statements: consider the following statements:
1. SaaS buyers can customise the 1. It is a public ledger that everyone can
user interface and can change data inspect, but which no single
fields. user controls.
2. SaaS users can access their data through 2. The structure and design of block chain is
their mobile devices. such that all the data in it are
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail about cryptocurrency only.
are forms of SaaS. 3. Applications that depend on basic
Which of the statements given above features of block chain can be developed
are correct? without anybody's permission.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?

83
 (a) 1 only 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of ап
(b) 1 and 2 only individual to access information or server
(c) 2 only on Internet
(d) 1 and 3 only 3. an electronic method of signing an
Public Key Infrastructure (2020) electronic document and ensuring that
896. In India, the term "Public Key the original content unchanged
Infrastructure" is used in the context of Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Digital security infrastructure correct?
2. Food security infrastructure (a) 1 only
3. Health care and education infrastructure (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Telecommunication and (c) 3 only
transportation infrastructure (d) 1, 2 and 3
Satellite Images and Remote sensing (2019) Wearable Technology (2019)
897. For the measurement/estimation of which of 901. In the context of wearable technology, which
the following are satellite images/remote of the following tasks is/are accomplished by
sensing data used? wearable devices?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a 1. Location identification of a person
specific location 2. Sleep monitoring of a person
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
paddies of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific given below.
location (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only GPS Technology (2018)
(c) 3 only 902. In which of the following areas can GPS
(d) 1, 2 and 3 technology be used?
LTE and VoLTE (2019) 1. Mobile phone operations.
898. With reference 2. Banking operations
to communication technologies, what is/are 3. Controlling the power grids
the difference/differences between Select the correct answer using the code
LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice given below:
over Long-Term Evolution)? (a) 1 only
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 30 and (b) 2 and 3 only
VoLTE is commonly marketed as (c) 1 and 3 only
advanced 30. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is Cyber attacks in news (2018)
voice-only technology. 903. The terms WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue"
Select the correct answer using the code sometimes mentioned in the news recently
given below. are related to
(a) 1 only (a) Exoplanets
(b) 2 only (b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Cyber attacks
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Mini satellites
Digital Technologies for entertainment Communication Technology (2018)
(2019) 904. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in
899. In the context of digital technologies for the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop
entertainment, consider the the alarm which causes your geyser to be
following statements : switched on automatically. The smart mirror
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated in your bathroom shows the day's weather
environment is created and the physical and also indicates the level of water in your
world completely shut out. overhead tank. After you take some groceries
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it
from a computer are projected onto real- recognises the shortage of stock in it and
life objects or surroundings. places an order for the supply of fresh
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the grocery items. When you step out of your
world and improves the experience using house and lock the door, all lights, fans,
the camera of smart-phone or PC. geysers and AC machines get switched off
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an automatically. On your way to office, your car
individual, providing complete immersion warns you about traffic congestion ahead and
experience. suggests an alternative route, and if you are
Which of the statements given above is/are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your
correct? office accordingly.
(a) 1 and 2 only In the context of emerging communication
(b) 3 and 4 technologies, which one of the following
(c) 1, 2 and 3 terms best applies to the above scenario?
(d) 4 only (a) Border Gateway Protocol
Digital Signature (2019) (b) Internet of Things
900. Consider the following statements: (c) Internet Protocol
A digital signature is (d) Virtual Private Network
1. an electronic record that identifies the OLEDs (2017)
certifying authority issuing it 905. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are
used to create digital display in many

84
 devices. What are the advantages of OLED Green Hydrogen (2023)
displays over Liquid Crystal displays? 910. With reference to green hydrogen, consider
1. OLED displays can be fabricated on the following statements :
flexible plastic substrates. 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing. internal combustion.
can be made using OLEDs. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and
3. Transparent displays are possible used as fuel for heat or power
using OLEDs. generation.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to
given below: run vehicles.
(a) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one
(d) None of the above statements is correct (b) Only two
LiFi (2016) (c) All three
906. With reference to LiFi, recently in the news, (d) None
which of the following statements. is/are Sodium and LED lamps (2021)
correct? 911. With reference to street-lighting, how do
1. It uses light as the medium for sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?
high- speed data transmission. 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360
2. It is a wireless technology and is several degrees but it is not so in the case of LED
times faster than 'WiFi. lamps.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. As street-lights, sodium lamps
given below. have longer life span than LED lamps.
(a) 1 only 3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium
(b) 2 only lamps is almost monochromatic while
(c) Both 1 and 2 LED lamps offer significant colour
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 advantages in street-lighting,
Near Field Communication Technology (2015) Select the correct answer using the code
907. With reference to Near Field Communication given below.
(NFC) Technology', which of the following (a) 3 only
statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
1. It is a contactless communication (c) 1 and 3 only
technology that uses electromagnetic (d) 1, 2 and 3
radio fields.. National Policy of Biofuels (2020)
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which 912. According to India's National Policy on
can be at a distance of even a metre from Biofuels, which of the following can be used
each other. as raw materials for the production of
3. NFC can use encryption when sending biofuels?
sensitive information. 1. Cassava
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Damaged wheat grains
given below. 3. Groundnut seeds
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. Horse gram
(b) 3 only 5. Rotten potatoes
(c) 1 and 3 only 6. Sugar beet
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
Indian Remote Sensing Satellite (2015) given below:
908. In which of the following activities are Indian (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
1. Assessment of crop productivity (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. Locating groundwater resources (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
3. Mineral exploration Solar water pumps (2020)
4. Telecommunications 913. With reference to solar water pumps,
5. Traffic studies. consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Solar power can be used for running
given below. surface pumps and not for submersible
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only pumps.
(b) 4 and 5 only 2. Solar power can be used for running
(c) 1 and 2 only centrifugal pumps and not the ones with
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 piston.
Biometric (2014) Which of the statements given above
909. In addition to fingerprint scanning which of is/are correct?
the following can be used in the biometric (a) 1 only
identification of a person? (b) 2 only
1. Iris scanning (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Retinal scanning (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Voice recognition Solar power (2018)
Select the correct answer using the code 914. With reference to solar power production in
given below. India, consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. India is the third largest in the world in
(b) 2 and 3 only the manufacture of silicon wafers used in
(c) 1 and 3 only. photovoltaic units.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The solar power tariffs are determined by
Energy the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

85
 Which of the statements given above 3. Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone
is/are correct which results in the rotation. of display
(a) 1 only between portrait and landscape mode
(b) 2 only In how many of the above actions is the
(c) Both 1 and 2 function of accelerometer required?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
Fuel cells (2015) (b) Only two
915. With reference to fuel cells in which (c) All three
hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to (d) None
generate electricity, consider the following Consequences of Solar Flames reaching earth
statements : (2022)
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the 919. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the
fuel cell emits heat and water as by- Earth, which of the following are the
products. possible effects on the Earth?
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
buildings and not for small devices like 2. Tsunamis could occur at
laptop computers. equatorial regions.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form 3. Power grids could be damaged.
of Alternating Current (AC). 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of
Which of the statements given above is/are the Earth.
correct? 5. Forest fires could take place over much of
(a) 1 only the planet.
(b) 2 and 3 only 6. Orbits of the satellites could
(c) 1 and 3 only be disturbed.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 7. Shortwave radio communication of
Technology for Solar Power Production the aircraft flying over polar regions
(2014) could be interrupted.
916. With reference to technologies for solar Select the correct answer using the code
power production, consider the following given below
statements: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
generates electricity by direct conversion (c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
of light into electricity, while 'Solar (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Polyethylene terephthalate (2022)
Sun's rays to generate heat, which is 920. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate,
further used in electricity generation the use of which is se widespread in our daily
process. lives, consider the following statements:
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and
Current (AC), while Solar Thermal cotton fibres to reinforce their properties,
generates Direct Current (DC). 2. Containers made of it can be used to
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar store any alcoholic beverage.
Thermal technology, but not for 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into
Photovoltaics. other products.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed
correct? of by incineration without causing
(a) 1 only greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(d) None (a) 1 and 3
Miscellaneous (b) 2 and 4
Carbon Fibre (2023) (c) 1 and 4
917. Consider the following statements: (d) 2 and 3
1. Carbon fibres are used in the Bisphenol (2021)
manufacture of components used in 921. India's Best Knowledge Bar Bisphenol A
automobiles and aircrafts. (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be component in the manufacture of which of
recycled. the following kinds of plastics?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Low-density polyethylene
correct? (b) Polycarbonate,
(a) 1 only (c) Polyethylene terephthalate
(b) 2 only (d) Polyvinyl chloride
(c) Both 1 and 2 ACE2 (2021)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 922. The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context
Accelerometer (2023) of
918. Consider the following actions : (a) genes introduced in the
1. Detection of car crash/collision which genetically modified plants
results in the deployment of airbags (b) development of India's own
almost instantaneously satellite navigation system
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a (c) radio collars for wildlife tracking
laptop towards the ground which results (d) spread of viral diseases
in the immediate turning off of the hard Drone applications (2020)
drive 923. Consider the following activities:
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field

86
 2. Inspecting the craters of 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create
active volcanoes durable like physical infrastructure for
3. Collecting breath samples from health, education, etc.
spouting whales for DNA analysis 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund
At the present level of technology, which of must benefit SC/ST populations.
the above activities can be successfully 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly
carried out by using drones? basis and the unused funds cannot be
(a) 1 and 2 only carried forward to the next year.
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. The district authority must inspect at
(c) 1 and 3 only least 10% of all works
(d) 1, 2 and 3 under implementation every year.
Policies, Governance and Schemes Select the correct answer using the code
Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) given below:
924. Consider the following statements in relation (a) 1 and 2 only
to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (b) 3 and 4 only
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention. of (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
the State Health Departments. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and Kisan Credit Card Scheme (2020)
neonatal mortality among poor pregnant 928. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-
women. term credit support is given to farmers for
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery which of the following purposes?
among poor pregnant Women. 1. Working capital for maintenance of farm
4. Its objective includes providing public assets
health facilities to sick infants up to one 2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors
year of age. and mini trucks
How many of the statements given above are 3. Consumption requirements of
correct? farm households
(a) Only one 4. Post-harvest expenses
(b) Only two 5. Construction of family house and setting
(c) Only three up of village cold storage facility
(d) All four Select the correct answer using the code
Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy (2023) given below:
925. Consider the following statements in the (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
context of interventions undertaken under (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Anaemia Bharat Strategy: (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1. It provides prophylactic calcium (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
supplementation for pre-school children, Atal innovation Mission (2019)
adolescents and pregnant women. 929. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord (a) Department of Science and Technology
clamping at the time of child- birth. (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
3. It provides for periodic deworming to (c) NITI Aayog
children and adolescents. (d) Ministry of Skill Development
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of and Entrepreneurship
anaemia in endemic pockets with special Digital India (2018)
focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies 930. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of
and fluorosis. "Digital India" Plan of the Government of
How many of the statements given above are India?
correct? 1. Formation of India's own Internet
(a) Only one companies like China did.
(b) Only two 2. Establish a policy framework
(c) Only three to encourage overseas
(d) All four multinational corporations that collect Big
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (2022) Data to build their large data centres
926. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital within our national geographical
Mission, consider the following statements: boundaries.
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 3. Connect many of our villages to the
2. As it aims to achieve universal health Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of
coverage, every citizen of India should be our schools, public places and major
part of it ultimately. tourist centres.
3. It has seamless portability across Select the correct answer using the code
the country. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (2018)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 931. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
MPLADS Scheme (2020) Vikas Yojana, consider the
927. With reference to the funds under Members following statements:
of Parliament Local Area Development 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following Labour and Employment.
statements are correct? 2. It, among other things, will also impart
training in soft skills, entrepreneurship,
financial and digital literacy.

87
 3. It aims to align the competencies of 936. With reference to the National Intellectual
the unregulated workforce of the country Property Rights Policy', consider the following
to the National Skill statements:
Qualification Framework. 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the
Which of the statements given above Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS
is/are correct? Agreement.
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. Department of Industrial Policy and
(b) 2 only Promotion is the nodal agency for
(c) 2 and 3 only regulating intellectual property rights in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India.
Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme (2017) Which of the above statements is/are
932. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' correct?
is sometimes mentioned in the news (a) 1 only
with reference to (b) 2 only
(a) Certifying the skills acquired (c) Both 1 and 2
by construction workers through tradition (d) Neither 1 nor 2
al channels. Unified Payment Interface (2017)
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for 937. Which of the following is a most likely
distance learning programmes consequence of implementing the Unified
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and Payments Interface (UPI)'?
urban poor in (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for
some public sector undertakings. online payments.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees (b) Digital currency will totally replace
under the National Skill Development the physical currency in about two
Programme. decades.
National Nutrition Mission (2017) (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
933. Which of the following are the objectives of (d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people
"National Nutrition Mission? will become very effective.
1. To create awareness relating National Skills Qualification Framework
to malnutrition among pregnant women (2017)
and lactating mothers. 938. With reference to 'National Skills Qualification
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia Framework (NSQF), which of the statements
among young children, adolescent given below is/are correct?
girls and women. 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the
3. To promote the consumption of millets, certification for competency only through
coarse cereals and unpolished rice. formal learning.
4. To promote the consumption of 2. An outcome expected from the
poultry eggs. implementation of NSQF is the mobility.
Select the correct answer using the code between vocational and general
given below: education.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only given. below:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
National Pension System (2017) (c) Both 1 and 2
934. Who among the following can join the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Pension System (NPS)? National Career Service (2017)
(a) Resident Indian citizens only 939. Consider the following in respect of 'National
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only Career Service':
(c) All State Government employees joining 1. National Career Service is an initiative of
the services after the date of notification the Department of Personnel and
by the respective State Governments Training. Government of India.
(d) All Central Government employees 2. National Career Service has been
including those of Armed Forces joining launched in a Mission Mode to improve
the services on or after 1st April, 2004 the employment opportunities
National Agriculture Market Scheme (2017) uneducated youth of the country.
935. What is/are the advantage/advantages of Which of the above statements is/are
implementing the National correct?
Agriculture Market' scheme? (a) 1 only
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading (b) 2 only
portal for agricultural commodities. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It provides the farmers access to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
nationwide market, with prices. Scheme for Sustainable structuring of
commensurate with the quality of their stressed Assets (2017)
produce. 940. Which of the following statements
Select the correct answer using the code best describes the term 'Scheme for
given below: Sustainable. Structuring of Stressed Assets
(a) 1 only (S4A), recently seen in the news?
(b) 2 only (a) It is a procedure for considering
(c) Both 1 and 2 ecological costs of developmental
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 schemes formulated by the Government.
National Intellectual Property Rights Policy (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the
(2017) financial structure of big corporate
entities facing genuine difficulties.

88
 (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the (a) Achieving 100% literacy by
Government regarding Central Public promoting collaboration between
Sector Undertakings. voluntary organizations and government'
(d) It is an important provision in 'The s education system and local communitie
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' s.
implemented by the Government. (b) Connecting institutions of higher
Soil Health Card Scheme (2017) education with local communities to
941. Consider the following statements: address development challenges through
The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card appropriate technologies.
Scheme' aims at (c) Strengthening India's scientific research
1. expanding the cultivable area under institutions in order to make India a
irrigation. scientific and technological power.
2. enabling the banks to assess the (d) Developing human capital by allocating
quantum of loans to be granted to special funds for health. care and
farmers on the basis of soil quality. education of rural and urban poor,
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in organizing skill and
farmlands. development programmes and vocational
Which of the above statements is/are training for them.
correct? UDAY Scheme (2016)
(a) 1 and 2 only 946. Which one of the following is a purpose of
(b) 3 only 'UDAY', a scheme of the Government?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Providing technical and financial
(d) 2 and 3 assistance to start-up entre- preneurs in
National Payments Corporation of India the field of renewable sources of energy
(2017) (b) Providing electricity to every household in
942. Consider the following statements the country by 2018
1. National Payments Corporation of India (c) Replacing the coal-based power plants
(NPCI) helps in promoting the financial with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and
inclusion in the country. tidal power plants over a period of time
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card (d) Providing for financial turnaround and
payment scheme. revival of power distribution companies
Which of the statements given above Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan (2016)
is/are correct? 947. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan' is a
(a) 1 only national campaign to
(b) 2 only (a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute
(c) Both 1 and 2 persons and provide them with suitable
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sources of livelihood
Bodies that report on cyber security Incidents (b) release the sex workers from their
(2017) practice and provide them with
943. In India, it is legally mandatory for which alternative sources of livelihood
of the following to report on cyber security (c) eradicate the practice of manual
incidents? scavenging and rehabilitate the manual
1. Service providers scavengers
2. Data centres (d) release the bonded labourers from their
3. Body corporate bondage and rehabilitate them
Select the correct answer using the code PM Fasal Bhima Yojana (2016)
given below: 948. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
(a) 1 only Yojana', consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to
(c) 3 only pay a uniform premium of two percent
(d) 1, 2 and 3 for any crop they cultivate in any season
Vidyanjali Yojana (2017) of the year.
944. What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'? 2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses
1. To enable the famous foreign educational arising out of cyclones and unseasonal
institutions to open their campuses in rains.
India. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. To increase the quality of education. correct?
provided in government schools by taking (a) 1 only
help from the private sector and the (b) 2 only
community. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. To encourage voluntary monetary (d) Neither 1 nor 2
contributions from private individuals and Stand Up India Scheme (2016)
organizations so as to improve the 949. With reference to Stand Up India Scheme",
infrastructure facilities for primary and which of the following statements is/are
secondary schools. correct?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Its purpose is to promote
given below: entrepreneurship among SC/ST and
(a) 2 only women entrepreneurs.
(b) 3 only 2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
(c) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 2 and 3 only given below.
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (2017) (a) 1 only
945. What is the aim of the programme Unnat (b) 2 only
Bharat Abhiyan'? (c) Both 1 and 2

89
 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 District Mineral Foundations (2016)
Mission Indradhanush (2016) 955. What is/are the purpose/purposes of District
950. 'Mission Indradhanush' launched by Mineral Foundations' in India?
the Government of India pertains to 1. Promoting mineral exploration activities
(a) immunization of children and pregnant in mineral-rich districts
women 2. Protecting the interests of the persons
(b) construction of smart cities across the affected by mining operations
country 3. Authorizing State Governments to issue
(c) India's own search for the Earth-like licences for mineral exploration
planets in outer space Select the correct answer using the
(d) New Educational Policy code given below.
Green India Mission (2016) (a) 1 and 2 only
951. Which of the following best describes/ (b) 2 only
describe the aim of Green India Mission" of (c) 1 and 3 only
the Government of India? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and SWAYAM (2016)
costs into the Union and State Budgets 956. 'SWAYAM", an initiative of the Government of
thereby implementing the 'green India, aims at
accounting' (a) promoting the Self Help Groups in rural
2. Launching the second green revolution to areas
enhance agricultural output 80 as to (b) providing financial and technical
ensure food security to one and all in the assistance to young start-up
future entrepreneurs
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and (c) promoting the education and health of
responding to climate change by a adolescent girls
combination of adaptation and mitigation (d) providing affordable and
measures quality education to the citizens for free
Select the correct answer using the code Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme (2016)
given below. 957. What is/are the purpose/purposes of
(a) 1 only Government's 'Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme
(b) 2 and 3 only and 'Gold Monetization Scheme?
(c) 3 only 1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian
(d) 1, 2 and 3 households into the economy
Project Loon (2016) 2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery
952. Project Loon', sometimes seen in the news, is sector
related to 3. o reduce India's dependence on gold
(a) waste management technology imports
(b) wireless communication technology Select the correct answer using the code
(c) solar power production technology given below.
(d) water conservation technology (a) 1 only
Net metering (2016) (b) 2 and 3 only
953. "Net metering' is sometimes seen in the news (c) 1 and 3 only
in the context of promoting the (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) production and use of solar energy by the PM Mudra Yojana (2016)
households/consumers 958. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at
(b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of (a) bringing the small entrepreneurs into
households formal financial system
(c) installation of CNG kits in motor- Cars (b) providing loans to poor farmers
(d) installation of water meters in urban for cultivating particular crops
households (c) providing pensions to old and destitute
Initiative for Nutritional Security through persons
Intensive Millets Promotion (2016) (d) funding the voluntary
954. With reference to Initiative for Nutritional organizations involved in in the
Security through Intensive Millets Promotion', promotion of skill development and
which of the following statements is/are employment generation
correct? Atal Pension Yojana (2016)
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the 959. Regarding 'Atal Pension Yojana', which of the
improved production and post- harvest following statements is/are correct?
technologies, and to demonstrate value 1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension
addition techniques, in an integrated scheme mainly targeted at unorganized
manner, with cluster approach. sector workers.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers 2. Only one member of a family can join the
have larger stake in this scheme." scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is 3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed
to encourage farmers of commercial for the spouse for life after subscriber's
crops to shift to millet cultivation by death.
offering them free kits of critical inputs of Select the correct answer using the
nutrients and microirrigation equipment. code given below.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only Bureau of Energy Efficiency (2016)
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90
960. On which of the following can you find the 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label? 3. Tirupathi Laddu
1. Ceiling fans Select the correct answer using the code
2. Electric geysers given below.
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only.
given below. (c) 1 and 3 only.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only Programs and Ministry (2014)
(c) 2 and 3 only 966. Consider the following pairs:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Programme/Project Ministry
Digi Locker (2016) 1. Drought-Prone Area Ministry
961. Regarding DigiLocker', sometimes seen in the Programme of Agriculture
news, which of the following statements Desert Ministry of
is/are correct? Development Program Environment and
1. It is a digital locker system offered by the me Forests
Government under Digital India National Ministry of
Programme. Watershed Developme Rural Developme
2. It allows you to access your e-documents nt Project for Rainfed nt
irrespective of your physical location. Areas
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
given below. matched?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
PM Jandhan Yojana (2015) Bombay Natural History Society (2014)
962. 'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been 967. With reference to Bombay Natural History
launched for Society (BNHS), consider the following
(a) providing housing loan to poor people at statements:
cheaper interest rates 1. It is an autonomous organization under
(b) promoting women's Self-Help Groups in the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
backward areas 2. It strives to conserve nature through
(c) promoting financial inclusion in action-based research,
the country education awareness.
(d) providing financial help to 3. It organizes and conducts nature trails
the marginalized communitics and camps for the general public.
National Innovation Foundation (2015) Which of the statements given above is/are
963. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
correct regarding National Innovation (a) 1 and 3 only
Foundation-India (NIF)? (b) 2 only
1. NIF is an autonomous body of the (c) 2 and 3 only
Department of Science and Technology (d) 1, 2 and 3
under the Central Government. Integrated Watershed Development Program
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the (2014)
highly advanced scientific research in 968. What arc the benefits of implementing the
India's premier scientific institutions in Integrated Watershed Development
collaboration with highly Programme?
advanced foreign scientific institutions. 1. Prevention of soil runoff
Select the correct answer using the 2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with
code given below. seasonal rivers
(a) 1 only 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of
(b) 2 only groundwater table
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code
Programmes (2015) given below.
964. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits (b) 2, 3 and 4 only.
Programme was launched during 1996-97 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
to provide loan assistance to poor (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
farmers. Global Competitiveness Report (2019)
2. The Command Area Development 969. The Global Competitiveness Report
Programme was launched in 1974-75 for is published by the
the development of water-use efficiency. (a) International Monetary Fund
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and
correct? Development
(a) 1 only (c) World Economic Forum
(b) 2 only (d) World Bank
(c) Both 1 and 2 Ease of Doing Business (2019)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 970. Which one of the following is not a sub-index
GI Tag Products (2015) of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business
965. Which of the following has/ have been Index?
accorded 'Geographical Indication' status? (a) Maintenance of law and order
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees (b) Paying taxes

91
 (c) Registering property Recently, the United States of America (USA)
(d) Dealing with construction permits and the European Union (EU) have launched
Rule of Law Index (2018) the Trade and Technology Council'.
971. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of Statement-II :
the following? The USA and the EU claim through this they
(a) Amnesty International. are trying to bring technological progress and
(b) International Court of Justice physical productivity under their control.
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner Which one of the following is correct in
for Human Rights respect of the above statements?
(d) World Justice Project (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Global Gender Gap Index (2017) correct and Statement-II is the correct
972. Which of the following gives 'Global Gender explanation for Statement-I
Gap Index ranking to the countries of the (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
world? correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(a) World Economic Forum explanation for Statement-I
(b) UN Human Rights Council (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) UN Women incorrect
(d) World Health Organization (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Global Hunger Index (2016) is correct
973. Which of the following is/are the Stability and Growth Pact (2023)
indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute 979. Consider the following statements:
the Global Hunger Index Report? The Stability and Growth Pact" of the
1. Undernourishment European Union is a treaty that
2. Child stunting 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit
3. Child mortality of the Countries of the European Union
Select the correct answer using the code 2. makes the countries of the European
given below. Union to share their infrastructure
(a) 1 only facilities
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. enables the countries of the European
(c) 1, 2 and 3 Union to share their technologies
(d) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements are
Ease of Doing Business Index (2016) correct?
974. India's ranking in the Ease of Doing Business (a) Only one
Index' is sometimes seen in the news. Which (b) Only two
of the following has declared that ranking? (c) All three
(a) Organization for Economic Cooperation (d) None
and Development (OECD) Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular
(b) World Economic Forum Migration (2023)
(c) World Bank 980. Consider the following statements:
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO) 1. Recently, all the countries of the United
Global Financial Stability report (2016) Nations have adopted the first-ever
975. 'Global Financial Stability. Report' is prepared compact for international migration, the
by the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and
(a) European Central Bank Regular Migration (GCM)".
(b) International Monetary Fund 2. The objectives and commitments stated
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and in the GCM are binding on the UN
Development member countries.
(d) Organization for Economic Cooperation 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or
and Development internally displaced people also in its
Global Economic Prospects (2015) objectives and commitments.
976. Which one of the following issues the 'Global How many of the above statements are
Economic Prospects' report periodically? correct?
(a) The Asian Development Bank (a) Only one
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction (b) Only two
and Development (c) All three
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank (d) None
(d) The World Bank Israel and Arab Peace Initiative (2023)
World Economic Outlook (2014) 981. Consider the following statements:
977. Which of the following organizations brings Statement-I:
out the publication known. as "World Israel has established diplomatic relations
Economic Outlook? with some Arab States.
(a) The International Monetary Fund Statement-II :
(b) The United Nations Development The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi
Programme Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab
(c) The World Economic Forum League.
(d) The World Bank Which one of the following is correct in
Current Affairs respect of the above statements?
International Current Affairs (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Events in News correct and Statement-II is the correct
Trade and Technology Council (2023) explanation for Statement-I
978. Consider the following statements: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-1: correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I

92
 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is research studies in the North Pole and
incorrect South Pole.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (d) It is a trade and security agreement of
is correct the member countries of the Arctic
G20 (2023) Council.
982. Consider the following statements about G- United Nations General Assembly (2022)
20: 987. With reference to the United Nations General
1. The G-20 group was originally established Assembly, consider the following statements:
as a platform for the Finance Ministers 1. The UN General Assembly can grant
and Central Bank Governors to discuss observer status to the non-member
the international economic and financial States.
issues. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of seek observer status in the UN General
India's G-20 priorities. Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General
correct? Assembly can maintain missions at the
(a) 1 only UN headquarters.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
G20 Common Framework (2022) (b) 2 and 3 only
983. With reference to the (c) 1 and 3 only
"G20 Common Framework", consider the (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements : Refugee (2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the C20 988. Consider the following statements:
together with the Paris Club. 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in
2. It is an initiative to support Low north-western Kenya.
Income Countries with unsustainable 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan
debt. civil war live in Bidibidi.
Which of the statements given above 3. Some people who fled from civil war in
is/are correct? Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex
(a) 1 only in Kenya.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2
International Organisations (2022) (b) 2 only
984. Consider the following: (c) 2 and 3
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (d) 3 only
2. Missile Technology Control Regime Organisation of Turkic States (2022)
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation 989. Consider the following countries:
India is a member of which of the above? 1. Armenia
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Azerbaijan
(b) 3 only 3. Croatia
(c) 2 and 3 only 4. Romania
(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Uzbekistan
United Nations Credentials Committee (2022) Which of the above are members of
985. With reference to the "United Nations the Organization of Turkic States?
Credentials Committee, consider the (a) 1, 2 and 4
following statements: (b) 1 and 3
1. It is a committee set up by the UN (c) 2 and 5
Security Council and works under its (d) 3, 4 and 5
supervision. UNCLOS (2022)
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and 990. With reference to the United
September every year. Nations Convention on the Law of Sea,
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN consider the following statements:
members before submitting a report to 1. A coastal state has the right to establish
the General Assembly for approval. the breadth of its territorial sea up to a
Which of the statements given above is/are limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles,
correct? measured from baseline determined in
(a) 3 only accordance with the convention.
(b) 1 and 3 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or
(c) 2 and 3 land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent
(d) 1 and 2 passage through the territorial sea.
Polar Code (2022) 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not
986. Which one of the following statements best extend beyond 200 nautical miles from
describes the 'Polar Code'? the baseline from which the breadth of
(a) It is the international code of safety for the territorial sea is measured.
ships operating in polar waters. Which of the statements given above are
(b) It is the agreement of the countries correct?
around the North Pole regarding the (a) 1 and 2 only
demarcation of their territories in the (b) 2 and 3 only
polar region. (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the (d) 1, 2 and 3
countries whose scientists undertake International Agreements (2020)

93
991. Consider the following pairs: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted
International agree Subject gene editing
ment/set-up (b) A biosensor used in the
1. Alma- Healthcare of the accurate detection of pathogens in
Ata Declaration people patients
2. Hague Convention Biological (c) A gene that makes plants pest- resistant
and chemical wea (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in
pons genetically modified crops
3. Talanoa Dialogue Global United Nations Convention against Corruption
climate change (2019)
4. Under2 Coalition Child rights 998. Consider the following statements;
Which of the pairs given above is/are 1. The United Nations Convention against
correctly matched? Corruption (UNCAC) has a Protocol
(a) 1 and 2 only against the Smuggling of Migrants by
(b) 4 only Land, Sea and Air'.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only legally binding global anti-corruption
West Texas Intermediate (2020) instrument.
992. The term 'West Texas Intermediate", 3. A highlight of the United Nations
sometimes found in news, refers to a grade Convention against Transnational
of Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion
(a) Crude oil of a specific chapter aimed at returning
(b) Bullion assets to their rightful owners from whom
(c) Rare earth elements they had been taken illicitly.
(d) Uranium 4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and
Members of G20 Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its
993. In which one of the following groups are member States to assist in the
all the four countries members of G20? implementation of both UNCAC and
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa UNTOC.
and Turkey Which of the statements given above are
(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New correct?
Zealand (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and (c) 2 and 4 only
South Korea (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (2019) International Atomic Energy Agency (2018)
994. With reference to Asian Infrastructure 999. In the Indian context, what is the
Investment Bank (AIB), consider the following implication of ratifying the 'Additional
statements: Protocol' with the Atomic Energy
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. Agency International (IAEA)?
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under
3. AIIB does not have any members from IAEA safeguards.
outside Asia. (b) The military nuclear installations
Which of the statements given above is/are come under the inspection of IAEA.
correct? (c) The country will have the privilege to the
(a) 1 only Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) The country automatically becomes
(c) 1 and 3 only a member of the NSG.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 International Labour Organisation (2018)
General Data Protection Regulation (2019) 1000. International Labour Organization's Convent
995. Which of the following adopted a law on data ions 138 and 182 are related to
protection and privacy for its citizens known (a) Child labour
as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in (b) Adaptation of agricultural practices
April 2016 and started implementation of it to global climate change
from 25th May, 20187 (c) Regulation of food prices and
(a) Australia food security
(b) Canada (d) Gender parity at the workplace
(c) The European Union ASEAN Free Trade Partners (2018)
(d) The United States of America 1001. Consider the following countries:
Action plan for prioritisation and 1. Australia
implementation of cooperation areas in the 2. Canada
nuclear field (2019) 3. China
996. Recently, India signed a deal known as 4. India
'Action Plan for Prioritization and 5. Japan
Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the 6. USA
Nuclear Field' with which of the following Which of the above are among the "free-
countries? trade partners' of ASEAN?
(a) Japan (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) Russia (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) The United Kingdom (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) The United States of America (d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Cas9 Protein (2019) Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture
997. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned (2018)
in news?

94
1002. With reference to the Global Alliance for Which of the statements given above is/are
Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA), which of correct?
the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only
1. GACSA is an outcome of the (b) 2 only
Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Membership of GACSA does not create (d) Neither 1 nor 2
any binding obligations. UN Habitat (2017)
3. India was instrumental in the creation of 1008. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in
GACSA. the United Nations programme working
Select the correct answer using the code towards a better urban future, which of the
given below: statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the
(b) 2 only United Nations General Assembly to
(c) 2 and 3 only promote socially and environmentally
(d) 1, 2 and 3 sustainable towns and cities to provide
Partnership for Action on Green Economy adequate shelter for all.
(2018) 2. Its partners are either governments or
1003. The Partnership for Action on Green local urban authorities only.
Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall
countries transition towards greener and objective of the United Nations system to
more inclusive economies, emerged at reduce poverty and to promote access to
(a) The Earth safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Summit on Sustainable Development Select the correct answer using the code
2002, Johannesburg given below:
(b) The United Nations (a) 1, 2 and 3
Conference on Sustainable Development (b) 1 and 3 only
2012. Rio de Janeiro (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) The United Nations (d) 1 only
Framework Convention on Climate Climate and Clean Air Coalition (2017)
Change 2015, Paris 1009. Consider the following statements:
(d) The World Sustainable 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to
Development Summit 2016, New Delhi Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is
International Initiatives (2018) a unique initiative of G20 group of
1004. "Momentum for Change: Climate countries.
Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Change Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) The UNEP Secretariat correct?
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat (a) 1 only
(d) The World Meteorological Organization (b) 2 only
Digital Single Market Strategy (2017) (c) Both 1 and 2
1005. The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' (d) Neither 1 nor 2
seen in the news refers to Broad-Based Trade and Investment
(a) ASEAN Agreement (2017)
(b) BRICS 1010. 'Broad-based Trade and
(c) EU Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes
(d) G20 seen in the news in the context of
Nuclear Security Summit (2017) negotiations held between India and
1006. Consider the following statements: (a) European Union
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are (b) Gulf Cooperation Council
periodically held under the aegis of the (c) Organization for Economic
United Nations. Cooperation and Development
2. The International Panel on (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Fissile Materials is an organ of Trade Facilitation Agreement (2017)
International Atomic Energy Agency. 1011. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. India has ratified the Trade
correct? Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
(a) 1 only 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial
(b) 2 only Package of 2013.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above
Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference (2017) is/are correct?
1007. With reference to 'Asia Pacific (a) 1 and 2 only
Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban (b) 1 and 3 only
Development (APMCHUD), consider the (c) 2 and 3 only
following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban (2016)
Forms Policy Responses and Governance 1012. The term Intended Nationally Determined
Structure'. Contributions' is sometimes seen in the news
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial in the context of
Conferences in partnership with ADB, (a) pledges made by the European countries
APEC and ASEAN. to rehabilitate refugees from the war-
affected Middle East

95
 (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of 3. To provide Geographical Indication status
the world to combat climate change to all the varieties of agricultural produce
(c) capital contributed by the member in such identified GIAHS
countries in the establishment of Asian Select the correct answer using the code
Infrastructure Investment Bank given below.
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of (a) 1 and 3 only
the world regarding Sustainable (b) 2 only
Development Goals (c) 2 and 3 only
WTO Affairs (2016) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1013. In the context of which of the following do Protocols (2016)
you sometimes-find the terms 'amber box, 1017. Consider the following pairs
blue box and green box' in the news? Terms sometimes seen Their origin
(a) WTO affairs in the news
(b) SAARC affairs 1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena
(c) UNFCCC affairs. Protocol
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA 2. Certified : Nagoya
United Nations Convention to Combat Emissions Reductions Protocol
Desertification (2016) 3. Clean : Kyoto
1014. What is/are the importance/ importances of Development Mechanism Protocol
the United Nations Convention to Combat Which of the pairs given above is/are
Desertification? correctly matched?
1. It aims to promote effective action (a) 1 and 2 only
through innovative national programmes (b) 2 and 3 only
and supportive inter- national (c) 3 only
partnerships. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Trans-Pacific Partnership (2016)
Asia and North Africa regions, and its 1018. With reference to the Trans-Pacific
Secretariat facilitates the allocation of Partnership', consider the
major portion of financial resources to following statements
these regions. 1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, Rim countries except China and Russia.
encouraging the participation of local 2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of
people in combating the desertification. maritime security only.
Select the correct answer using the Which of the statements given above is/are
code given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Organisation for Prohibition of Chemical India-Africa Summit (2016)
Weapons (2016) 1019. Consider the following statements:
1015. With reference to Organization for the 1. The India-Africa Summit
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons. (OPCW)", 2. held in 2015 was the third such Summit
consider the following statements: 3. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru
1. It is an organization of European Union in in 1951
working relation with NATO and WHO. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent correct?
new weapons from emerging. (a) 1 only
3. It provides assistance and protection to (b) 2 only
States (Parties) against chemical (c) Both 1 and 2
weapons threats. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are Doctors without Borders (2016)
correct? 1020. 'Doctors Without Borders (Medecins
(a) 1 only Sans Frontieres)', often in the news, is
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) a division of World Health Organization
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) a non-governmental
(d) 1, 2 and 3 international organization
Globally Important Agricultural Heritage (c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored
System (2016) by European Union.
1016. The FAO accords the status of Globally (d) a specialized agency of the
Important Agricultural Heritage System United Nations
(GIAHS) to traditional agricultural systems. The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
What is the overall goal of this initiative? (2016)
1. To provide modern technology, training in 1021. With reference to an initiative called The
modern farming methods and financial Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
support to local communities of identified (TEEB)', which of the following statements
GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their is/are correct?
agricultural productivity 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly World Economic Forum.
traditional farm practices and their 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on
associated landscapes, agricultural drawing attention to the economic
biodiversity and knowledge systems of benefits of biodiversity.
the local communities 3. It presents an approach that can help
decision-makers recognize, demonstrate

96
 and capture the value of ecosystems and 1028. With reference to the Agreement at the
biodiversity. UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of
Select the correct answer using the code the following statements is/are correct?
given below. 1. The Agreement was signed by all the
(a) 1 and 2 only member countries of the UN and it will go
(b) 3 only into effect in 2017.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. The Agreement aims to limit the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 greenhouse gas emissions that the rise in
Gulf Cooperation Council (2016) average global temperature by the end of
1022. Which of the following is not a member this century does not exceed 2 °C or even
of 'Gulf Cooperation Council? 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels.
(a) Iran 3. Developed countries acknowledged their
(b) Saudi Arabia historical responsibility in global warming
(c) Oman and committed to donate 1000 billion a
(d) Kuwait year from 2020 to help developing
Belt and Road Initiative (2016) countries to cope with climate change.
1023. Belt and Road Initiative' is sometimes Select the correct answer using the code
mentioned in the news in the context of the given below.
affairs of (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) African Union (b) 2 only
(b) Brazil (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) European Union (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) China Fortaleza Declaration (2015)
Regional Comprehensive Economic 1029. The Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the
Partnership (2016) news, is related to the affairs of
1024. The term Regional Comprehensive (a) ASEAN
Economic Partnership' often appears in the (b) BRICS
news in the context of the affairs of a group (c) OECD
of countries known as (d) WTO
(a) G20 Terms in News (2015)
(b) ASEAN 1030. The terms Agreement on
(c) SCO Agriculture', 'Agreement OT1 the Application
(d) SAARC of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures" and
International Solar Alliance (2016) 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently
1025. Consider the following statements: in the context of the affairs of the
1. The International Solar Alliance was (a) Food and Agriculture Organization
launched at the United Nations Climate (b) United Nations Framework Conference on
Change Conference in 2015. Climate Change.
2. The Alliance includes all the member (c) World Trade Organization
countries of the United Nations. (d) United Nations Environment Programme
Which of the statements given above is/are Rio+20 conference (2015)
correct? 1031. What is Rio+20 Conference,
(a) 1 only often mentioned in the news?
(b) 2 only (a) It is the United Nations Conference on
(c) Both 1 and 2 Sustainable Development
(d) Neither 1 nor 2. (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World
European Stability Mechanism (2016) Trade Organization
1026. "European Stability Mechanism', sometimes (c) It is a Conference of the Inter-
seen in the news, is an governmental Panel on Climate Change
(a) agency created by EU to deal with the (d) It is a Conference of the Member
impact of millions of refugees arriving Countries of the Convention on Biological
from Middle East Diversity
(b) agency of EU that provides financial Amnesty International (2015)
assistance to eurozone countries 1032. Amnesty International is
(c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral (a) an agency of the United Nations to help
and multilateral agreements on trade refugees of civil wars
(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflicts (b) a global Human Rights Movement
arising among the member countries (c) a non-governmental voluntary
Sustainable Development Goals (2016) organization to help very poor people
1027. Consider the following statements: (d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were medical emergencies in war-ravaged
first proposed in 1972 by a global think regions
tank called the 'Club of Rome. Biocarbon Fund initiative for sustainable
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have forest landscape (2015)
to be achieved by 2030. 1033. BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustain- able
Which of the statements given above is/are Forest Landscapes' is managed by the
correct? (a) Asian Development Bank
(a) 1 only (b) International Monetary Fund
(b) 2 only (c) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) World Bank
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India's Membership (2015)
UNFCCC meeting in Paris (2016) 1034. India is a member of which among
the following?
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation

97
 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations 1039. With reference to a grouping of countries
3. East Asia Summit known as BRICS, consider the following
Select the correct answer using the code statements:
given below. 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio
(a) 1 and 2 only de Janeiro in 2009.
(b) 3 only 2. South Africa was the last to join the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 BRICS grouping.
(d) India is a member of none of them Which of the statements given above is/are
Indian Ocean Rim Association (2015) correct?
1035. With reference to Indian Ocean Rim (a) 1 only
Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR- (b) 2 only
ARC)', consider the following statements : (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It was established very recently in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
response to incidents of piracy and Arctic Council (2014)
accidents of oil spills. 1040. Consider the following countries:
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime 1. Denmark
security only. 2. Japan
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Russian Federation
correct? 4. United Kingdom
(a) 1 only 5. United States of America
(b) 2 only Which of the above are the members of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 'Arctic Council?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3
BirdLife International (2015) (b) 2, 3 and 4
1036. With reference to an organization known as (c) 1, 4 and 5
BirdLife International', which of the following (d) 1, 3 and 5
statements is/are correct? International Agreements (2014)
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation 1041. Consider the following
Organizations. international agreements:
2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
originated from this organization. Resources for Food and Agriculture
3. It identifies the sites known/ referred to 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat
as Important Bird and Biodiversity Desertification
Areas". 3. The World Heritage Convention
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the above has/have a bearing on the
given below. biodiversity?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Beijing Declaration (2015) Earth Hour (2014)
1037. Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action', 1042. Consider the following statements regarding
often seen in the news, is 'Earth Hour':
(a) a strategy to tackle the regional 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the 2. It is a movement in which the participants
Shanghai Cooperation Organization switch off the lights for one hour on a
(b) a plan of action for sustainable economic certain day every year.
growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness
outcome of the deliberations of the Asia- about the climate change and the need to
Pacific Economic Forum save the planet.
(c) an agenda for women's empowerment, Which of the statements given above is/are
an outcome of a World Conference correct?
convened by the United Nations (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a (b) 2 only
declaration of the East Asia Summit (c) 2 and 3 only
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (2015) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1038. Consider the following countries: Communities in News (2016)
1. China People in News
2. 1234 1043. Consider the following pairs:
3. France Community In the
4. India sometimes mentione affairs of
5. Israel d in the news
6. Pakistan Kurd Bangladesh
Which among the above are Nuclear Madhesi Nepal
Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty Rohingya Myanmar
on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, Which of the pairs given above
commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation is/are correctly matched?
Treaty (NPT)? (a) 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 The Man Who Knew Infinity (2016)
BRICS Summit (2014) 1044. A recent movie titled The Man Who
Knew Infinity is based on the biography of

98
 (a) S. Ramanujan 3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to
(b) S. Chandrasekhar its integration with global supply chains
(c) S. N. Bose and focus on exports.
(d) C. V. Raman 4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour
Places in News costs and stable exchange rates have
Somalia (2023) attracted global manufacturers.
1045. Which one of the following countries has 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-
been suffering from decades of civil strife and service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
food shortages and was in news in the recent Which of the statements given above are
past for its very severe famine? correct?
(a) Angola (a) 2 and 4
(b) Costa Rica (b) 3 and 5
(c) Ecuador (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Somalia (d) 1 and 2
North Kivu, Nagorno and Kherson (2023) Senkaku Islands (2022)
1046. Consider the following pairs: 1051. Which one of the following statements best
Regions Reason for being reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands,
often mentioned in news sometimes mentioned in the news?
in news (a) It is generally believed that they are
artificial islands made by a
1. North Kivu and : War
country around South China Sea.
Ituri between Armenia
(b) China and Japan engage in
and Azerbaijan
maritime disputes over these islands in
2. Nagorno- : Insurgency in
East China Sea.
Karabakh Mozambique
(c) A permanent American military base has
3. Kherson : Dispute
been set up there to help Taiwan to
and Zaporizhzhia between Israel and
increase its defence capabilities.
Lebanon
(d) Though International Court of Justice
How many of the above pairs are correctly
declared them as no man's land, some
matched? South-East Asian countries claim them.
(a) Only one Countries in news (2022)
(b) Only two 1052. Consider the following pairs:
(c) All three Country Important reason
(d) None for being in the news recently
1047. Countries and conflicts (2023) 1. Chad - Setting up
Consider the following pairs: of permanent military base by China
Area of Country 2. Guinea - Suspension of
conflict mentioned where it is Constitution and Government by military
in news located 3. Lebanon - Severe and
1. Donbas Syria prolonged economic depression
2. Kachin Ethiopia 4. Tunisia - Suspension of
3. Tigray North Yemen Parliament by President
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many pairs given above are
matched? correctly matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) Only three pairs
(d) None (d) All four pairs
Reason for Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan in Region in news & Country (2022)
news (2023) 1053. Consider the following pairs:
1048. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Region often mentioned in Country
Sudan caught the international attention for the news
which one of the following reasons common Anatolia Turkey
to all of them? Amhara Ethiopia
(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth Cabo Delgado Spain
elements Catalonia Italy
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
How many pairs given above are
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
correctly matched?
(d) Successful coups
(a) Only one pair
Lake Faguibine (2022)
(b) Only two pairs
1049. Which one of the following lakes of West
(c) Only three pairs
Africa has become dry and turned into
(d) All four pairs
a desert?
Siachin glacier (2020)
(a) Lake Victoria
1054. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
(b) Lake Faguibine
(a) East of Aksai Chin
(c) Lake Oguta
(b) East of Leh
(d) Lake Volta
(c) North of Gilgit
Vietnam (2022)
(d) North of Nubra Valley
1050. Consider the following statements:
Countries with War/Ethnic conflicts (2018)
1. Vietnam has been one of the
1055. Very recently, in which of the following
fastest growing economies in the world in
countries have lakhs of people either suffered
the recent years.
from severe famine/acute malnutrition or
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party
died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic
political system.
conflicts?

99
 (a) Angola and Zambia 1062. Recently, a series of uprisings of people
(b) Morocco and Tunisia referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally started
(c) Venezuela and Colombia from
(d) Yemen and South Sudan (a) Egypt
Two state solution (2018) (b) Lebanon
1056. The term "two-state solution is (c) Syria
sometimes mentioned in the news in the (d) Tunisia
context of the affairs of Regions in News (2014)
(a) China 1063. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Israel Region often in Country
(c) Iraq news
(d) Yemen Chechnya Russian Federatio
Countries in News (2018) n
1057. Consider the following pairs: Darfur Mali
Towns Country Swat Valley Iraq
sometimes mentioned in Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
news matched?
Aleppo Syria (a) 1 only
Kirkuk Yemen (b) 2 and 3 only
Mosul Palestine (c) 1 and 3 only
Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pairs given above are Sports, Awards & Books
correctly matched? ICC World Test Championship (2021)
(a) 1 and 2 1064. Consider the following statements respect
(b) 1 and 4 of the ICC World Test Championship
(c) 2 and 3 1. The finalists were decided by the number
(d) 3 and 4 of matches they won.
Regions in News (2018) 2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of
1058. Consider the following pairs: England because it won more matches
Regions Country than England.
sometimes mentioned Which of the above statements is/are
in news correct?
Catalonia Spain (a) 1 only
Crimea Hungary (b) 2 only
Mindanao Philippines (c) Both 1 and 2
Oromia Nigeria (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the pairs given above are 32nd Summer Olympics (2021)
correctly matched? 1065. Consider the following statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
(b) 3 and 4 only 1. The official motto for this Olympics is 'A
(c) 1 and 3 only New World".
(d) 2 and 4 only 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, K
Importance of Chabahar Port (2017) arate and Baseball are included included
1059. What is the importance of in this Olympics.
developing Chabahar Port by India? Which of the above statements is/are
(a) India's trade with African countries correct?
will enormously increase. (a) 1 only
(b) India's relations with oil- (b) 2 only
producing India's Arab countries will be (c) Both 1 and 2
strengthened. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan Laureus Sports Award (2021)
for access to Afghanistan and Central 1066. Consider the following statements in
Asia. respect of the Laureus World Sports Award
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect which was instituted in the year 2000:
the installation of a gas pipeline between 1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first
Iraq and India. winner of this award.
Places in News (2015) 2. The award was received mostly
1060. Among the following, which were frequently by Formula One' players so far.
mentioned in the news for the outbreak of 3. Roger Federer received this award
Ebola virus recently? maximum number of times compared to
(a) Syria and Jordan others.
(b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam (b) 2 and 3 only
Golan Heights (2015) (c) 1 and 3 only
1061. The area known as 'Golan Heights' (d) 1, 2 and 3
sometimes appears in the news in the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 (2023)
context of the events related to 1067. Consider the following statements in
(a) Central Asia respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
(b) Middle East. 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad
(c) South-East Asia was held in India.
(d) Central Africa 2. The official mascot was named Thambi'.
Arab Spring (2014) 3. The trophy for the winning team in the
open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
100
 4. The trophy for the winning team in the (d) Salvation was to be obtained
women's section is the Hamilton-Russell through meditation.
Cup. Halbi, Ho and Kui (2021)
How many of the statements given above are 1072. With reference to India, the terms"Halbi, Ho
correct? and Kui' pertain to
(a) Only one (a) dance forms of Northwest India
(b) Only two (b) musical instruments
(c) Only three (c) pre-historic cave paintings
(d) All four (d) tribal languages
National International Mother Language Day (2021)
Events in News 1073. Consider the following statements:
Coal Controller Organisation (2022) 1. 21st February is declared to be the
1068. In India, what is the role of the International Mother Language Day by
Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? UNICEF.
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of
in Government of India. the national languages was raised in the
2. It monitors progress of development of Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. Which of the above statements
3. It hears any objection to the is/are correct?
Government's notification relating to (a) 1 only
acquisition of coal-bearing areas. (b) 2 only
4. It ensures that coal mining companies (c) Both 1 and 2
deliver the coal to end users in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prescribed time. Aadhaar (2020)
Select the correct answer using the code 1074. Consider the following statements:
given below: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for
(a) 1, 2 and 3 more than three months.
(b) 3 and 4 only 2. State cannot enter into any contract with
(c) 1 and 2 only private corporations for sharing of
(d) 1, 2 and 4 Aadhaar data.
Tea Board of India (2022) 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining
1069. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, insurance products.
consider the following statements: 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. funded out of the Consolidated Fund of
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the India.
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Which of the statements given above is/are
Welfare. correct?
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in (a) 1 and 4 only
Bengaluru. (b) 2 and 4 only
4. The Board has overseas offices at (c) 3 only
Dubai and Moscow (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are Chemicals in pesticides (2019)
correct? 1075. In India, the use of carbofuran,
(a) 1 and 3 methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos
(b) 2 and 4 is viewed with apprehension. These
(c) 3 and 4 chemicals are used as
(d) 1 and d (a) pesticides in agriculture
States and significance (2022) (b) preservatives in processed foods
1070. Consider the following statements: (c) fruit-ripening agents
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
India. Aadhaar (2018)
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered 1076. The identity platform 'Aadhaar provides
International Airport. open. "Application Programming Interfaces
3. Goa has the largest floating solar (APIs)". What does it imply?
photovoltaic project in India. 1. It can be integrated into any
Which of the statements given above is/are electronic device.
correct? 2. Online authentication using iris possible.
(a) 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only
(d) 3 only (b) 2 only
Ramanuja Teachings (2022) (c) Both 1 and 2
1071. The world's second tallest statue in sitting (d) Neither 1 nor 2
pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Aadhaar card (2018)
Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. 1077. Consider the following statements
Which one of the following statements 1. Andhaar card can be used as a proof
correctly represents the teachings of of citizenship or domicile.
Ramanuja? 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot
(a) The best means of salvation be deactivated or omitted by the
was devotion. Issuing Authority.
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent Which of the statements given above
and wholly authoritative. is/are correct?
(c) Logical arguments were essential means (a) I only
for the highest bliss. (b) 2 only

101
 (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) an indigenously developed
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 radar system inducted into
Smart India Hackathon (2017) Indian Defence
1078. Which of the following statements is/are (b) India's satellite to provide services to the
correct regarding Smart India Hackathon. countries of Indian Ocean Rim
2017? (c) a scientific establishment set up by India
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for in Antarctic region
developing every city of our country into (d) India's underwater observatory to
Smart Cities in a decade. scientifically study the Arctic region
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital Classical Language (2015)
technology innovations for solving the 1084. Which one of the following was
many problems faced by our country. given classical language status recently?
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the (a) Odia
financial transactions in our country (b) Konkani
completely digital in a decade. (c) Bhojpuri
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Assamese
given below: Kalamkari Paintings (2015)
(a) 1 and 3 only 1085. Kalamkari painting refers to
(b) 2 only (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South
(c) 3 only India
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) a handmade drawing on
Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (2017) bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
1079. Consider the following in respect of Indian (c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western
Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): Himalayan region of India
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 (d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in
under the chairmanship of the Indian North-Western India
Navy. Classical Languages (2014)
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to 1086. Consider the following languages:
increase maritime co-operation among 1. Gujarati
navies of the littoral states of the Indian 2. Kannada
Ocean Region. 3. Telugu
Which of the above statements is/are Which of the above has / have been declared
correct? as Classical Language/ Languages by the
(a) 1 only Government?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
Committees in News (2016) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1080. 'Gadgil Committee Report' and Sattriya Dance (2014)
'Kasturirangan Committee Report', 1087. With reference to the famous Sattriya
sometimes seen in the news, related to dance, consider the following statements:
(a) constitutional reforms 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance
(b) Ganga Action Plan and drama.
(c) linking of rivers 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of
(d) protection of Western Ghats Vaishnavites of Assam.
State Butterfly (2016) 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of
1081. Recently, for the first time in our country, devotional songs composed by Tulsidas,
which of the following States has declared a Kabir and Mirabai.
particular butterfly as 'State Butterfly? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Arunachal Pradesh- correct?
(b) Himachal Pradesh (a) 1 only
(c) Karnataka (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Maharashtra (c) 2 and 3 only
Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (2015) (d) 1, 2 and 3
1082. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an People in News
initiative of six countries, which of the St. Francis Xavier (2021)
following is/are not a participant/ 1088. Consider the following statements:
participants? 1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding
1. Bangladesh members of the Jesuit Order.
2. Cambodia 2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a
3. China church is dedicated to him there.
4. Myanmar 3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is
5. Thailand celebrated in Goa each year.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are
given below. correct?
(a) I only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3
IndArc (2015) Reservoirs & States (2022)
1083. The term IndARC', sometimes seen in the 1089. Consider the following pairs:
news, is the name of Reservoirs States
Ghataprabha Telangana
Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh

102
 Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh 3. Girinagar Gujarat
Maithon Chhattisgarh 4. Sthanesvara Uttar Pradesh
How many pairs given above are not correctly Which of the pairs given above are
matched? correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) Only three pairs (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four pairs (d) 2 and 4 only
Somnath Temple (2022) Reservoirs (2019)
1090. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the 1094. What is common to the places known
new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
Veraval. Which of the following statements (a) Recently discovered deposits
are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (b) Tropical rain forests
1. Somnath Temple is one of the (c) Underground cave systems
Jyotirlinga shrines. (d) Water reservoirs
2. A description of Somnath Temple 1095. Famous place and region (2016)
was given by Al-Biruni. Famous Region
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple place
(installation of the present day temple) Bodhgaya Baghelkhand
was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Khajuraho Bundelkhand
Select the correct answer using the code Shirdi Vidarbha
given below: Nasik (Nashik) Malwa
(a) 1 and 2 only Tirupati Rayalaseema
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(c) 1 and 3 only matched?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 4
Chausath Yogini Temple (2021) (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
1091. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple (c) 2 and 5 only
situated near Morena, consider the following (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
statements: State that constructed Artificial Inland Port
1. It is a circular temple built during the (2016)
reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 1096. Recently, which of the following States has
2. It is the only circular temple built in explored the possibility of constructing an
India. artificial inland port to be connected to sea by
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava a long navigational channel?
cult in the region. (a) Andhra Pradesh
4. Its design has given rise to a popular (b) Chhattisgarh
belief that it was the inspiration behind (c) Karnataka
the Indian Parliament building. (d) Rajasthan
Which of the statements given above are Famous Pilgrimages and state (2015)
correct? 1097. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 Place of Location
(b) 2 and 3 only Pilgrimage
(c) 1 and 4 Srisailam Nallamala Hills
(d) 2, 3 and 4 Omkareshwar Satmala Hills
Hyderabad in News (2021) Pushkar Mahadeo Hills
1092. Consider the following statements: Which of the above correctly matched?
Statement 1: (a) 1 only
The United Nations Capital Development (b) 2 and 3 only
Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation (c) 1 and 3 only
have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Tree City of the World. Sports, Awards & Books
Statement 2: Sports Awards in India (2023)
Hyderabad was selected for the recognition 1098. Consider the following pairs with
for a year following its commitment to grow regard pairs is/are to sports awards:
and maintain the urban forests. Major For the most spectacular and
Which one of the following is correct in Dhyan outstanding регformance by
respect of the above statements? Chand a sportsperson OVCT period
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are Khel Ratna of last four years
correct and Statement 2 is the correct Award
explanation for Statement 1 Arjuna For the lifetime achievement
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are Award by a sportsperson
correct but Statement 2 is not the correct Dronachar To honour eminent coaches
explanation for Statement 1 ya Award who have successfully trained
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is sportspersons or teams
not correct Rashtriya To recognize the contribution
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement Khel Prots made by sportspersons even
2 is correct ahan after their retirement
Famous place and present state (2020) Puraskar
1093. With reference to the history of
How many of the above pairs are correctly
India, consider the following pairs:
matched?
Famous Place Present State (a) Only one
1. Bhilsa Madhya Pradesh (b) Only two
2. Dwarasamudra Maharashtra (c) Only three
103
 (d) All four
Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards (2021)
1099. Consider the following statements
in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma
Awards:
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are
titles under the Article 18(1) of the
Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in
the year 1954, were suspended only
once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is
restricted to a maximum of five in a
particular year.
Which of the above statements are not
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace (2015)
1100. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament
and Development for 2014 was given to
which one of the following?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental

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