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Inhouse Test 04 IN4324 Polity Geography QN Pap

This document contains instructions and guidelines for a Prelims Test Series on Polity and Geography conducted by Vajiram & Ravi. It outlines the examination process, including marking responses, penalties for wrong answers, and the handling of the test booklet and answer sheet. Additionally, it includes a series of sample questions related to various aspects of the Indian Constitution and governance.

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shahnaz shah
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
64 views18 pages

Inhouse Test 04 IN4324 Polity Geography QN Pap

This document contains instructions and guidelines for a Prelims Test Series on Polity and Geography conducted by Vajiram & Ravi. It outlines the examination process, including marking responses, penalties for wrong answers, and the handling of the test booklet and answer sheet. Additionally, it includes a series of sample questions related to various aspects of the Indian Constitution and governance.

Uploaded by

shahnaz shah
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 18

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Prelims Test Series – 2023
GS Test - 04 - Polity and Geography (IN4324)

(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check
that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
7. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer,
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.
8. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO


1. With reference to the appointment of the Which of the statements given above is/are
Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the correct?
following statements: (a) 1 only
1. The Union Law Minister seeks the (b) 1 and 2 only
recommendation of the outgoing CJI for (c) 2 and 3 only
the appointment of the next CJI. (d) 1 and 3 only
2. The Government cannot seek
clarifications regarding the selection of 4. With reference to the writ of certiorari,
CJI by the collegium of judges. consider the following statements:
3. One of the puisne judges of the collegium 1. The Supreme Court acts as a court of
of judges needs to be the successor CJI. appeal while exercising the writ of
Which of the statements given above are certiorari.
correct? 2. It will not be available against Central and
(a) 1 and 2 only Local Governments.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. It can be issued on grounds of excess,
(c) 1 and 3 only abuse and absence of jurisdiction.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
2. Which of the following are prohibited under (a) 1 and 2 only
the Fundamental Right against Exploitation (b) 2 and 3 only
mentioned in the Constitution of India? (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Traffic in human beings (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Begar
3. Compulsory service for public purpose 5. With reference to the Seventh Schedule of
4. Employment of children below the age of the Indian Constitution, consider the
fourteen years in a factory following statements:
5. Untouchability 1. While subjects from the State and
Select the correct answer using the code Concurrent List can be transferred to
given below: the Union List, transfer of subjects from
(a) 1 and 2 only the Union List is prohibited.
(b) 3 and 5 only 2. Parliament has the power to make laws
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only for any part of the territory of India not
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
included in a State even if the matter is
mentioned in the State List.
3. With reference to the Tenth Schedule of the
3. Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used
Constitution of India, consider the following
to determine whether a particular law
statements:
1. The Presiding Officer of the House relates to a particular subject of the
functions as a tribunal while deciding a Seventh Schedule.
question of anti-defection. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The decision of the Presiding Officer is correct?
outside the scope of judicial review. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Any question regarding disqualification (b) 2 only
arising out of defection of the Presiding (c) 2 and 3 only
Officer is decided by the President of (d) 3 only
India.

1
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
6. With reference to the Directive Principles of 8. With reference to the Presidential elections in
State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
India, consider the following pairs: 1. As per convention, the Secretary General
of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is appointed
Sl. Directive Principle Implemented by as the Returning Officer.
No. of State Policy 2. The provisions of the Anti-Defection Law
are not applicable to electors.
1. Equitable distribution : Abolition of the 3. It is held by secret ballot.
of resources for Privy Purse in
4. A dispute regarding the election of the
common good 1971
President is inquired into by the Election
2. Separation of : The Code of Commission of India.
judiciary from Criminal Which of the statements given above are
executive in the Procedure Act of correct?
public services 1973 (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Reducing : Establishment of
(b) 2 and 3 only
inequalities of Planning (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
income, status and Commission in (d) 3 and 4 only
opportunities. 1950
9. With reference to the Fundamental Duties in
4. Free legal aid to the : Legal Services
the Indian Constitution, consider the following
poor Authorities Act of
1987 statements:
1. These can be enforced by the Parliament
How many pairs given above is/are correctly through legislation.
matched? 2. These are applicable to foreigners
(a) Only one pair residing temporarily in India.
(b) Only two pairs 3. These were included in the Constitution
(c) Only three pairs by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(d) All four pairs Act, 1976.
Which of the statements given above is/are
7. Which of the following is/are mentioned in the correct?
Indian Constitution with reference to the (a) 1 only
appointment of the Governor of a State? (b) 2 only
1. S/he should have completed the age of 35 (c) 1 and 2 only
years (d) 1 and 3 only
2. S/he should not belong to the State where
s/he is appointed 10. Which one of the following doctrines is based
3. Chief Minister is consulted by the on the principle that if any law enacted prior
President before the appointment of to Indian independence infringes upon or is in
Governor. conflict with the Fundamental Rights, then it
Select the correct answer using the code should be void up to that inconsistency?
given below: (a) Doctrine of Eclipse
(a) 1 only (b) Doctrine of Waiver
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
(c) 3 only (d) Doctrine of Territorial Nexus
(d) None

2
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
11. Consider the following statements: 14. Who among the following makes rules for
1. The Constitution of India declares Delhi more convenient transactions of the business
as the seat of the Supreme Court. of the Government of India?
2. The President after consultation with the (a) President
Chief Justice of India can change the seat (b) Prime Minister
of the Supreme Court. (c) Cabinet Secretary
3. The Supreme Court has never sat outside (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
New Delhi in the history of independent
India. 15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Vice-President of India is indirectly
Which of the statements given above is/are
elected while the Vice-President of the
correct?
United States of America is nominated by
(a) 1 only the President.
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Unlike in India, when the office of the
(c) 3 only President of the USA falls vacant, the
(d) 1 and 3 only Vice-President acts as the President for
the unexpired term of his/her
12. Which one of the following statements is predecessor.
correct with reference to the ordinance 3. Unlike the USA, no female has been
making power of the President? elected to the office of the Vice-President
(a) An ordinance can be issued by the in India.
President only when both the Houses of Which of the statements given above is/are
Parliament are not in session. correct?
(b) While the President can promulgate an (a) 1 and 2 only
ordinance on the advice of the Council of (b) 2 only
Ministers, s/he can withdraw it at her/his (c) 2 and 3 only
own discretion. (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) The satisfaction of the President for
promulgation of an ordinance is non- 16. Who among the following is considered ‘de
justiciable in nature. facto’ executive in the Indian Parliamentary
system of Government?
(d) An ordinance cannot be issued by the
(a) Council of Ministers
President to amend the Constitution of
(b) President
India.
(c) Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister
13. With reference to the judicial review, consider
the following statements: 17. Consider the following statements:
1. The concept of judicial review in the 1. A decision of a High Court is binding on
Constitution of India is taken from the all the subordinate courts in that State.
British Constitution. 2. A decision of a Full Bench of a High Court
2. Judicial review of legislative and is binding on another Full Bench of the
same High Court.
administrative action is part of the Basic 3. A decision of one High Court is not
Structure of the Indian Constitution. binding on any other High Court in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
18. With reference to the Union Cabinet 21. With reference to the Constitutional Bench of
Committee in India, consider the following the Supreme Court, consider the following
statements: statements:
1. These are extra-Constitutional bodies. 1. It consists of at least five judges of the
2. It can include a non-Cabinet Minister as Supreme Court.
its member. 2. The President of India has the power to
3. The Prime Minister automatically set up a Constitution Bench.
becomes the head of the committee that 3. It can be formed if the President seeks the
she/he is a member of. Supreme Court’s opinion on law or fact.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
19. With reference to the Union Council of
Ministers, consider the following statements: 22. With reference to the veto powers of the
1. Unlike the Deputy Ministers, the Ministers Governor and the President, consider the
of State can be given independent charge following statements:
of ministries. 1. Both the President and the Governor
2. Union Cabinet Ministers rank higher in the enjoy a suspensive veto in the case of
table of precedence than the Leader of ordinary bills.
Opposition in Lok Sabha. 2. The President can return a money bill
Which of the statements given above is/are reserved by the Governor for
correct? reconsideration of the State Legislature.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
20. Consider the following Statements: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Bills imposing restrictions on the
freedom of trade and commerce can be 23. Who among the following are part of the
introduced in the State legislature only Union Executive in India?
after the approval from the Governor of 1. Attorney General
the State. 2. Vice-President
2. The State Legislature is empowered to 3. Comptroller and Auditor General
make laws for providing monopolies in 4. Ministers of State
trade in its favour. 5. Chief of Defence Staff
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

4
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
24. With reference to the Fundamental Rights in the (a) 1 and 2 only
Constitution of India, consider the following (b) 2 and 3 only
statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. All Fundamental Rights are qualified in (d) 1, 2 and 3
nature as State can impose reasonable
restrictions on them. 27. Consider the following:
2. Some Fundamental Rights can be enforced 1. Protect historic monuments, places and
by a law made by the State Legislature. objects of national importance
3. All Fundamental Rights are available to 2. Secure a uniform civil code for all the
citizens and foreigners.
citizens throughout the country
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Prohibit the consumption of intoxicating
correct?
drinks and drugs
(a) 1 only
4. Secure the participation of workers in the
(b) 1 and 2 only
management of the industries
(c) 3 only
Which of the Directive Principles of State
(d) None
Policy given above can be classified as
25. With reference to the duration of the State Liberal-Intellectual?
Legislature, consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Governor is authorized to dissolve the (b) 2 and 3 only
State Legislative Assembly. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Parliament can extend the term of the (d) 1 and 4 only
State Legislative Assembly during the
period of national emergency. 28. Consider the following statements:
3. The State Legislative Council is a 1. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
permanent body and is not subject to mentions the use of ‘house arrest’ as a
dissolution. means of preventive detention.
4. The retiring members of a State Legislative 2. Electors under preventive detention are
Council are eligible for re-election and re- not entitled to vote in general elections.
nomination any number of times. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. Consider the following statements:
26. With reference to the Fundamental Right to 1. The Nehru Report of 1928 was against
Equality under the Constitution of India, the reservation of minorities in
consider the following statements:
legislatures.
1. It prohibits discrimination in access to public
2. The Sapru Report of 1945 made
places both by the State and private
distinction between justiciable rights and
individuals.
2. The State Legislature can prescribe non-justiciable rights.
residence as a condition for certain 3. The Constituent Assembly’s Advisory
employment within its territory. Committee of Fundamental Rights,
3. The State can use grounds of discrimination minority Rights and Tribal and Excluded
for making special provisions for women. Areas was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?

5
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
Which of the statements given above is/are 33. With reference to the office of Governor of a
correct? state in India, consider the following
(a) 1 and 2 only statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The nomination of a Governor by the
(c) 3 only Union is based on the American model of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 governance.
2. The Draft Constitution provided for the
30. With reference to the State Legislative direct election of the Governor based on
Council, consider the following statements: universal adult suffrage.
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. One-third of its members are elected by
correct?
the members of the State Legislative
(a) 1 only
Assembly.
(b) 2 only
2. The Parliament by law can modify the (c) Both 1 and 2
composition of the State Legislative (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are 34. With reference to the removal of judges of a
correct? High Court, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements:
(b) 2 only 1. A judge of a High Court can be removed
(c) Both 1 and 2 from her/his office by an order of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Governor.
2. Unlike the Supreme Court, the removal
31. Consider the following statements: order of a judge of the High Court must be
1. While an Ordinary Bill can be introduced in supported by a simple majority of each
the Rajya Sabha, it cannot be introduced in House of Parliament.
the State Legislative Council. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. While Lok Sabha cannot override the Rajya correct?
Sabha by passing the bill for the second (a) 1 only
time, the Legislative assembly can do so in (b) 2 only
case of State Legislative Council. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only 35. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The Constitution contains specific
(c) Both 1 and 2 provisions for the selection and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 appointment of the Prime Minister.
2. The Constitution does not require a
32. In the context of India, which one of the person to prove her/his majority in the Lok
following statements best describes the term Sabha before being appointed as the
Cabinet? Prime Minister.
(a) A legislative body that is collectively Which of the statements given above is/are
responsible to the Indian Parliament. correct?
(b) A Constitutional body that enforces the (a) 1 only
collective responsibility of the Council of (b) 2 only
Ministers to the Lok Sabha. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) A statutory body that implements the policy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
decisions taken by the Council of Ministers.
(d) An extra-constitutional body that enforces
the collective responsibility of its members
to the Parliament.
6
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
36. In which of the following circumstances does 39. With reference to the State Council of
the Vice-President act as the President of Ministers, consider the following statements:
India? 1. The nature of advice tendered by the
1. Delay in the Presidential elections after State Council of Ministers to the Governor
the expiry of the term of sitting President cannot be enquired by a court of law.
2. Resignation of the President from the 2. The Council of Ministers aid and advise
office the Governor even after the dissolution of
3. Removal of the President by the the State Legislative Assembly.
impeachment Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Vacancy in the office of President due to correct?
the death of the sitting President (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 40. With reference to the Central Administrative
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Tribunal (CAT), consider the following
statements:
37. Which of the following are safeguarded by 1. Its jurisdiction extends to the civilian
Right to Life and Personal Liberty under employees of defense services.
Article 21 of the Constitution of India? 2. Appeals against the order of CAT lie
1. Right of women to be treated with dignity directly with the Supreme Court.
2. Right to die with dignity 3. It is bound by the procedure laid down in
3. Right to travel inside the country the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
4. Right to default bail Which of the statements given above is/are
5. Right to appropriate life insurance policy correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below: (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
41. With reference to the Family Courts, consider
the following statements:
38. Consider the following statements: 1. It is obligatory for the State Government
1. Administrative expenses of the Supreme to set up a Family Court in every district.
Court are charged on the Consolidated 2. Parties to a dispute have a right to be
Fund of India.
represented by a legal practitioner.
2. The retired judges of the Supreme Court
are prohibited from pleading in any Court 3. The appeal from Family Courts lies
within the territory of India. directly to the High Court.
3. The Parliament is authorized to extend or Which of the statements given above is/are
curtail the jurisdiction of the Supreme correct?
Court. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
42. In which of the following cases the Parliament Which of the statements given above is/are
becomes empowered to enact laws on a subject correct?
mentioned in the State List of the Seventh (a) 1 only
Schedule of the Constitution of India? (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported
(c) 2 and 3 only
by half of the members present and voting
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Financial Emergency is in operation in the
country
3. Two State Legislatures pass resolutions 45. Which of the following are the federal features
requesting the Parliament to enact such of the Constitution of India?
laws 1. Single Constitution
4. The Parliament has to implement 2. Independent Judiciary
international agreements 3. All India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code
below: given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
43. Which of the following statements is/are
46. With reference to martial law in India,
correct with reference to the pardoning power
consider the following statements:
of the President of India?
1. The Parliament can indemnify any person
1. It is exercised by the President on the
for her/his act of restoration of order in an
advice of the Union Cabinet. area where martial law was in force.
2. The petitioner does not have a right to an 2. Declaration of martial law automatically
oral hearing before the President. results in the suspension of writ of habeas
Select the correct answer using the code corpus.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. In context of Grants-in-Aid to the States under
47. Which of the following are the Fundamental
the Constitution of India, consider the following
Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India?
statements:
1. To provide opportunities for education to
1. The statutory grants are given to the States
children between the age of six and
on the recommendation of the Finance
fourteen years.
Commission of India. 2. To safeguard public property and to
2. The Centre and States can make grants for abjure violence.
any public purpose, even if it is not within 3. To prevent the slaughter of cows, calves
their respective legislative competence. and other draught and milch cattle.
3. While statutory grants are provided to all 4. To value and preserve the rich heritage of
States, discretionary grants are given to the country's composite culture.
States that are in need of financial
assistance.

8
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 4 only
given below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 51. Which one of the following is not a cause for
the increase in the intensity of the southwest
48. On which of the following grounds can the monsoon in India?
constitutional validity of a legislative (a) Strong Mascarene High
enactment be examined under judicial review (b) Strong Somali jet stream
by the Supreme Court and the High Courts? (c) Low pressure over Tibetan plateau
1. Infringement of the Fundamental Rights (d) Negative phase of Indian Ocean Dipole
2. Outside the competence of the authority
which has framed it 52. Consider the following pairs:
3. Repugnant to the Constitutional Sl. Soils Suitable Crops
provisions No.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only 1. Alluvial Soil : Wheat
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Laterite Soil : Cashew nuts
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Red and Yellow : Groundnut
49. Consider the following statements: Soil
1. State Council of Ministers are appointed
by the Governor on the recommendation Which of the pairs given above are correctly
of the Chief Minister. matched?
2. A State Council of Ministers can be (a) 1 and 2 only
dismissed by the Chief Minister on advice (b) 2 and 3 only
of the State Cabinet. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. The State Legislative Assembly is (d) 1, 2 and 3
automatically dissolved upon the
resignation or death of an incumbent 53. Consider the following statements:
Chief Minister. 1. Contour ploughing involves planting of
Which of the statements given above is/are crops across the slopes of hills.
correct? 2. Shelterbelts refers to the planting of
(a) 1 only legume plants along with cash crops.
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. Terrace farming prevents the washing
(c) 3 only away of soil nutrients by the rains.
(d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
correct?
50. Which of the following are the characteristics (a) 1 and 2 only
of Human Rights? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Culture-specific (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Inalienable (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Indivisible
4. Absolute and unlimited
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
9
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
54. Consider the following pairs: 57. Which of the following are the major features
of the Shola forests of Southern India?
Sl. Biosphere State
1. Evergreen vegetation
No. Reserve 2. Fast-growing varieties of trees
3. Stunted trees
1. Seshachalam : Tamil Nadu 4. Growth of epiphytes on trees
Hills Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. Dehang- : Assam (b) 2 and 3 only
Dibang (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Nanda Devi : Uttrakhand 58. With reference to the Western Disturbances,
consider the following statements:
4. Pachmarhi : Madhya Pradesh 1. These are low-pressure extra-tropical
storms that travel from west to east.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
2. These originate in the Atlantic Ocean,
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only Caspian Sea and/or Mediterranean Sea.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. These are harmful for the rabi crops as
(c) 1 and 3 only these bring the non-monsoonal rainfall in
(d) 3 and 4 only northern India.
Which of the statements given above are
55. Adam’s Bridge, recently talked about in the correct?
media, corresponds to which of the following? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) A bridge separating the Gulf of Mannar (b) 2 and 3 only
from the Palk Strait (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Disputed region between Kyrgyzstan and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Tajikistan
(c) A land bridge connecting the
southeastern point of Spain and the 59. Which of the following statements are correct
westernmost point of Africa with reference to local winds?
(d) Disputed region between Turkey and 1. Nor Westers are hot and dry winds
Greece in Aegean Sea blowing over the regions in Gujarat and
Rajasthan.
56. With reference to the Rubber Board in India, 2. Cherry blossom is a local wind in
consider the following statements: Karnataka that is beneficial for coffee
1. It is a statutory body established under the cultivation.
Rubber Act, 1947. 3. Mango showers are pre-monsoon
2. It functions under the Ministry of showers in Kerala that help in early
Environment, Forest and Climate ripening of mangoes.
Change. Select the correct answer using the code
3. It is headquartered at Kottayam in Kerala. given below:
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
60. With reference to Indian Physiography, the Which of the pairs given above are correctly
term ‘marusthali’ refers to: matched?
(a) fertile plains of the Brahmaputra river (a) 1 and 4 only
basin (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) plateau region between Eastern and (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Western Ghats (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) sand dune covered area in the Thar
Desert region 64. Which of the following are freshwater lakes in
(d) coastal plains along the Ganges delta India?
1. Pangong Tso Lake
61. Cyclone Asani and Karim were the twin 2. Lonar Lake
cyclones formed on either side of the equator 3. Sasthamkotta Lake
in the Indian Ocean. In this context, which of 4. Loktak Lake
the following phenomenon influence the Select the correct answer using the code
formation of Twin Cyclones? given below:
1. Wind Shear (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Coriolis effect (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Rossby Waves (c) 3 and 4 only
4. Madden Jullian Oscillations (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: 65. With reference to land-use categories in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only India, consider the following statements:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Current Fallows includes all land, which
(c) 2 and 4 only was taken up for cultivation but is
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 temporarily out of cultivation for one to five
years.
62. Which one of the following statements best 2. Culturable waste land includes land not
describes the term “monsoon trough”? cultivated during the last five years or
(a) It is a high-pressure zone located at the more in succession.
equator where trade winds converge. Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) It is a zone of low pressure over the correct?
Arabian Sea created by the movement of (a) 1 only
monsoon winds. (b) 2 only
(c) It is a portion of the inter-tropical (c) Both 1 and 2
convergence zone that extends into a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
monsoon circulation. 66. Consider the following statements:
(d) It is a portion of the Ferrel cell that moves 1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through nine
south due to the presence of low Indian states only.
pressure.
2. The Standard Meridian of India passes
63. Consider the following pairs: through five Indian states only.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Sl. Dam River correct?
No.
(a) 1 only
1. Salal Dam : Jhelum (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Narora Dam : Ganga (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Bhakra Nangal Dam : Sutlej

4. Mettur Dam : Kaveri

11
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
67. Consider the following pairs:
3. Composite : NITI Aayog
Sl. Island State Water
No. Management
Index
1. Sriharikota Island : Andhra
Pradesh Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
2. Majuli Island : Manipur (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Khadir Bet Island : Gujarat (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Char Chinari Island : Himachal
Pradesh
70. Marble rocks gorge and Dhuandhar falls in
5. Abdul Kalam Island : Odisha Madhya Pradesh are formed by which one of
the following rivers?
How many pairs given above are correctly (a) Chambal
matched?
(b) Son
(a) Only two pairs
(c) Tapi
(b) Only three pairs
(d) Narmada
(c) Only four pairs
(d) All five pairs
71. Which of the following can be classified as
68. Consider the following statements: antecedent rivers?
1. Farm forestry is the practice of growing 1. Kosi
trees by farmers on their own lands for 2. Subansiri
commercial purposes. 3. Godavari
2. Community forestry is the practice of 4. Krishna
cultivating agricultural crops by pooling Select the correct answer using the code
private lands of small farmers. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. With reference to Bay of Bengal branch of
monsoon, consider the following statements:
69. Consider the following pairs: 1. Arakan Hills of Myanmar deflect a portion
of this branch towards the Indian
Sl. Index Published by subcontinent.
No. 2. It meets the Arabian Sea branch of
monsoon near the Garo and Khasi hills of
1. Coastal : Indian Institute Meghalaya.
Vulnerability of Tropical 3. The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during
Index Meteorology southwest monsoon as it is situated
parallel to this branch.
2. Aridity Anomaly : Indian
Outlook Index Meteorological
Department

12
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
Which of the statements given above are (d) delay in the arrival of southwest monsoon
correct? and subsequent increase in temperature
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 76. Mountain peaks that are above 8000 meters
(c) 1 and 3 only in height are called Eight Thousanders. In this
(d) 1, 2 and 3 context, which of the following are considered
Eight Thousanders?
73. With reference to Shiwaliks, consider the 1. Kanchenjunga
following statements: 2. Nanda Devi
1. They are found between the Great
3. Nanga Parbat
Northern Plains and Lesser Himalayas.
4. Kamet
2. They cover Jammu & Kashmir, Assam
Select the correct answer using the code
and Arunachal Pradesh.
given below:
3. The slopes of Shiwaliks are dissected by
(a) 1 and 3 only
seasonal streams called Chos.
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
correct? (c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 77. Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in Meghalaya
(d) 1, 2 and 3 receive the highest average annual rainfall in
India. Which one of the following is the most
74. Consider the following statements: appropriate cause for this phenomenon?
1. India shares its longest border with (a) These regions have an intense low
Bangladesh. pressure area as these receives high
2. Only four Indian states share their borders insolation from the sun.
with Myanmar. (b) The presence of Tropical Evergreen
3. Only two Indian states share their borders forests results in increased transpiration.
with Bhutan. (c) These regions have dense vegetation
Which of the statements given above is/are growth that result in increased rainfall.
correct? (d) These areas are located on the windward
(a) 1 only side of Khasi hills which traps monsoon
(b) 1 and 2 only winds.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. With reference to Dharwar Rock Systems in
India, consider the following statements:
75. With reference to Indian climate, break in
1. These are the first metamorphosed rock
monsoon refers to:
systems in India.
(a) dry period between the South-west
2. These are devoid of any metalliferous
monsoon and the North-east monsoon minerals but are a source of limestone.
(b) rise in temperature in October when Which of the statements given above is/are
weather transitions from the hot rainy correct?
season to dry winter conditions (a) 1 only
(c) dry spell when there is no rain for one or (b) 2 only
two weeks during the South-west (c) Both 1 and 2
monsoon (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
79. With reference to Deccan Traps, consider the 83. With reference to the Indian Meteorological
following statements: Department (IMD) guidelines on
1. These are a type of Flood Basalt Province Heatwaves, which one of the following
located in west-central India. statements is correct?
2. The lava flows of the traps are separated by
(a) Heatwave is declared when the
sedimentary and volcanic ash beds.
maximum temperature departure is 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? degrees Celsius or more than normal in
(a) 1 only coastal regions.
(b) 2 only (b) Severe heatwave is declared when
(c) Both 1 and 2 actual maximum temperatures reaches
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 47 degrees Celsius or more in a plain
region.
80. Consider the following statements: (c) Heatwave is declared when actual
1. Bugyals are high altitude alpine grasslands. maximum temperature reaches 35
2. Duns are the longitudinal valley lying degrees Celsius in a coastal region.
between the lesser Himalayas and the (d) Severe Heatwave is declared when
Shiwaliks.
there is a departure from normal
3. Duars are the foothills of the eastern
temperature by 5 degrees Celsius or
Himalayas in North-East India.
Which of the statements given above are
more in a plain region.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 84. Which one of the following sectors in India
(b) 2 and 3 only is the largest consumer of groundwater?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Irrigation
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Industrial
(c) Domestic
81. Consider the following statements: (d) Power generation
1. The Purvanchal or the Eastern hills are
mostly composed of igneous rocks. 85. Which of the following factors can impact
2. The Garo-Rajmahal gap is a the difference in height of snowline?
physiographic gap in the outcrop 1. Latitude
continuity of Satpuras. 2. Amount of snowfall
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Direction of winds
correct? 4. Slope of the land
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
82. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers merge to (c) 3 only
form the River Ganga at which one of the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
following places?
(a) Vishnuprayag
(b) Karnaprayag
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Devprayag

14
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
86. Consider the following statements with 88. Northern Circars roughly corresponds to
reference to India State of Forests Report, which one of the following regions?
2021: (a) Coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh and
1. Recorded Forest Area includes Reserved Odisha
Forests, Protected Forests and (b) Territories between frontier of
Unclassed Forests notified under the Afghanistan and upper course of River
Indian Forests Act, 1927. Indus
2. Arunachal Pradesh has the largest (c) Coastal regions of Gujarat and
Recorded Forest Area as well as the Maharashtra
largest Forest cover in India. (d) Narrow strip of coastal districts from
Mumbai to Goa
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
89. Which one of the following rivers forms the
(a) 1 only
largest riverine island in the world?
(b) 2 only (a) Amazon
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Mississippi
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Brahmaputra
(d) Godavari
87. Consider the following pairs:
90. With reference to the Andaman and Nicobar
Sl. Plateau State Islands, consider the following statements:
No 1. Mount Thullier is the highest point in the
. Andaman Islands.
2. Barren Island is located on the seismically
1. Malwa Plateau : Madhya active tectonic plates in the Andaman
Pradesh Sea.
3. Indira Point, the southernmost tip of India,
2. Bundelkhand : Uttar Pradesh is located in South Andaman Island.
Plateau 4. Duncan passage separates Andaman
Islands from the Nicobar Islands.
3. Vindhyachal- : Bihar Which of the statements given above is/are
Baghelkhand correct?
Plateau (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Chota Nagpur : West Bengal (d) 1 and 4 only
Plateau
91. Both Narmada and Tapi rivers drain into the
Arabian Sea instead of the Bay of Bengal.
How many pairs given above is/are correctly Which of the following factors is responsible
matched? for this phenomenon?
(a) Only one pair (a) Peninsular block has a slight tilt towards
(b) Only two pairs the west
(c) Only three pairs (b) Both the rivers flow through rift valley
(d) All four pairs (c) Both the rivers are eastern flowing rivers
(d) Both the rivers flow through plateau
surface instead of rift valleys

15
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
92. It is the most recent subdivision of the 95. Consider the following statements:
Holocene Epoch which began about 4200 1. Radcliff line demarcates the boundary
years ago when agricultural societies around between India and China.
the world went through abrupt drought and 2. MacMohan Line is the boundary between
cooling. It is unique as its beginning overlaps India and Pakistan.
with a cultural event produced by a global 3. Durand line represents the boundary
climatic event. Which one of the following between India and Bangladesh.
geological time scales is best described in the Which of the statements given above is/are
statements given above? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Anthropocene Epoch (b) 2 only
(b) Northgrippian Age (c) 3 only
(c) Greenlandian Age (d) None
(d) Meghalayan Age
96. With reference to the Cold Desert Landscape
93. Consider the following pairs: of India, consider the following statements:
Sl. Mountain Connects 1. It stretches across Ladakh and Himachal
No. pass Pradesh.
2. Its location on the leeward side of the
1. Debsa Pass : Kullu and Spiti Himalayas makes it inaccessible to the
southeastern monsoon winds.
2. Mangsha : Uttarakhand and 3. The soil here is not fertile and the climatic
Dhura Pass Tibet conditions allow very short growing
seasons.
3. Zoji La : Srinagar and Which of the statements given above is/are
Kargil
correct?
4. Dihang Pass : Sikkim and (a) 1 and 2 only
Bhutan (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
How many pairs given above is/are correctly (d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
(a) Only one pair 97. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two pairs Statement 1: Winter monsoons do not cause
(c) Only three pairs rainfall as they move from land to the sea.
(d) All four pairs Statement 2: Anti-cyclonic circulation on land
reduces the possibility of rainfall from winter
94. With reference to Indus River, consider the
monsoons.
following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in
1. The Chenab is the largest tributary of the
Indus.
respect of the above statements?
2. The Ravi rises west of the Rohtang pass in (a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh. correct and Statement 2 is the correct
3. The Beas flows through the Kullu valley and explanation for statement 1
merges into Chenab. (b) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
Which of the statements given above are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
correct? explanation for Statement 1
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
(b) 2 and 3 only not correct
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2 is correct
16
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)
98. Which one of the following best describes the 100. Consider the following pairs:
term ‘Double-Dip La Nina’?
(a) Occurrence of La Nina for two
Sl. Mountains Himalayas
consecutive years
No.
(b) Absence of La Nina for two consecutive
years 1. Nanga Parbat : Great
(c) Occurrence of La Nina with double Himalayas
intensity as compared to its previous
occurrence 2. Mount K2 : Tibetan
(d) Fall in the intensity of La Nina for two Himalayas
consecutive years
3. Pir Panjal : Shiwaliks
99. This mountain range forms the northern-most
boundary of the Deccan plateau. It is a classic Which of the pairs given above is/are
example of the relict mountains that are highly correctly matched?
denuded and form discontinuous ranges. (a) 1 and 2 only
The above statements describe which of the (b) 2 only
following? (c) 3 only
(a) Satpura range (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) Gir range
(c) Aravalli range
(d) Mahadeo hills

17
Vajiram and Ravi Prelims Test Series (2023)
Test No. 04- Polity and Geography (IN4324)

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