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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2026 – Test – 6311

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Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
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THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers
sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
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responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be
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deducted.
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7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
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8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
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should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
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9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. How many of the following statements about 4. Consider the following statements regarding
the functions of the speaker of the state the ‘CROPS Experiment’ recently seen in the
legislative assembly are correct? news.
1. He can direct a member to withdraw from 1. It is ISRO’s first biological experiment to
the House for disorderly conduct. grow plants in space under microgravity
conditions.
2. He summons and prorogues the house in
2. As a part of experiment Pigeon peas seeds
session.
have germinated into space.
3. He is empowered for revocation
Which of the statements given above is/are
of suspension of a member. correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 only
below. (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None 5. In the context of Radio Access Network
(RAN), consider the following statements:
2. If the system of direct elections in India 1. It facilitates wireless communication
between user equipment and the core
was changed from First Past The Post system
network via radio link.
to Proportional Representation, which of
2. RAN can be operable both in licensed
the following would be the most likely
spectrum bands and unlicensed spectrum
outcome of the same? bands.
(a) Political parties will win seats Which of the statements given above is/are
in proportion of the votes they get. correct?
(b) Various sections in the society will (a) 1 only
get more representation in the (b) 2 only
government. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) There may be more number of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
multiparty coalitions for the formation
of government. 6. Consider the following statements regarding
the reservation of Bills by the Governor for
(d) All the statements are correct.
the consideration of the President:
1. If the President returns a Bill for
3. With reference to Parliamentary Committees,
reconsideration, the State LegislatureO
consider the following statements: must act on it within six months.
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1. They are constituted by Parliament
S.

2. If the State Legislature repasses the Bill

through election or nomination. with or without amendments, the
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2. They submit their reports directly to the President is bound to give his assent.
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President. 3. The Governor is required to reserve for

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3. Their secretarial support is provided by Presidential consideration any Bill that

affects the jurisdiction of the State High
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the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Court.
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Which of the statements given above is/are

How many of the statements given above are
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correct?
correct?
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(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
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(b) 2 and 3 only

(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
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7. With reference to the Union Council of 10. Consider the following statements regarding
Ministers, consider the following statements: the removal of the Vice President of India:
1. The original Constitution placed no
1. An impeachment process has been
restriction on the number of ministers in
required to remove the Vice President.
the Union government.
2. The 52th Constitutional Amendment 2. A resolution for removal must be passed
1985 disqualifies a legislator who is separately by both Houses of Parliament
disqualified under the anti-defection law with a effective majority.
from becoming a minister.
3. The Constitution does not specify any
Which of the statements given above is/are
grounds for the removal of the Vice
correct?
(a) 1 only President.

(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
8. Who among the following takes part in
(c) 3 only
the appointment of High Court Judges?
1. President (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Governor of the concerned state 11. Recently, the Union government has
4. Chief Justice of the concerned high court
launched the National Critical Mineral
5. Chief Secretary of the concerned state
Mission. In this context, consider the
6. Leader of opposition in the
state assembly following statements regarding the National
Select the correct answer using the code given Critical Mineral Mission:
below. 1. The mission aims to encourage Indian
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
PSUs and private sector companies to
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only
acquire critical mineral assets abroad.
(c) 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only 2. The mission will encompass all stages ofO
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the value chain from mineral exploration
S.

9. Which of the following statements is not to recovery from end-of-life products.

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correct about Public Accounts Committee 3. It is launched by the Ministry of Science

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(PAC)?
and Technology.
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(a) It was set up first under the provisions of

Which of the statements given above is/are
the Government of India Act of 1919.
D
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(b) Finance Minister is the chairman of the correct?

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PAC. (a) 1, 2 and 3

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(c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have (b) 1 and 2 only
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representation in this committee.

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) The term of office of the member is one
(d) 1 only
year.
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12. Which of the following statements is not 15. Consider the following statements
correct about the money bill in Parliament? with reference to the Legislative Council:
1. All voting citizens of India are eligible to
(a) All finance bills are money bills but all
be elected to any state assembly.
money bills are not finance bills.
2. The council must return a money bill
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies a bill in 14 days.
as a money bill. 3. The member of the Legislative
(c) A minister who is a member of the Rajya Council cannot be the chief minister or
Sabha, cannot introduce a money bill in minister.
How many of the statements given above are
the Rajya Sabha.
correct?
(d) The President can withhold his assent to
(a) Only one
a money bill but cannot return it for (b) Only two
reconsideration of the Houses. (c) All three
(d) None
13. Which of the following conditions are
16. Consider the following statements with
sufficient for a political party to
regard to the Estimates Committee:
be recognized as a national party in India?
1. It comprises of members drawn only
1. It secures six percent of the valid from Lok Sabha.
votes polled in any four or more states 2. It examines the budget estimates only
and four seats in a Lok Sabha after they have been voted by the
general election. Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It wins two percent of the seats from
correct?
at least three states in Lok Sabha
(a) 1 only
general election. (b) 2 only
3. It is recognized as a state party in at (c) Both 1 and 2
least two states. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given
17. Consider the following statements regarding
below.
Centre-State financial relations: O
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. The property or income of corporations
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(b) 2 and 3 only and companies owned by a state
S.

(c) 1 and 3 only government is exempt from taxation by

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(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Centre.

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2. All properties of the Union government

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within a State are subject to State

14. Without seeking the permission of the house,
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taxation.
a member of a state legislature can be absent
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Which of the statements given above is/are

from all its meeting for a maximum period of:
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correct?
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(a) 30 days (a) 1 only

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(b) 60 days (b) 2 only

(c) 90 days (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 120 days
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18. Which one of the following statements is 21. Consider the following statements regarding
correct about Electoral Trusts in India? the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the
(a) Electoral Trusts are non-profit
state legislative assemblies:
organizations registered under the
Companies Act, 2013. 1. They are neither entitled to vote in
(b) These trusts can receive contributions the first instance nor provide a casting
from companies registered in India and
vote when a resolution for their removal
Indian citizens.
(c) Electoral Trusts must renew registration is under consideration.
every year. 2. In case of vacancy in both offices, the
(d) Electoral Trusts are required to distribute
Governor performs the duties of the
50 percent of their total income to eligible
political parties. Speaker.
3. While the Deputy Speaker submits
19. With reference to the Inter-State Council, his resignation to the Speaker, the
consider the following statements:
latter does it to the Governor of the State.
1. The decisions taken by the council are
legally binding on the Centre and States. How many of the statements given above are
2. A standing committee of the council correct?
exists under the chairmanship of the
(a) Only one
Prime Minister.
3. The council is required to meet at least (b) Only two
twice a year. (c) All three
How many of the statements given above are
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 22. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) All three the SVAMITVA Scheme:
(d) None
1. It aims to establish clear ownership of

20. Consider the following statements about the property in rural inhabited (“Abadi”)
National Broadband Mission 2.0:
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areas.
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1. National Broadband Mission 2.0 aims to
S.

2. It is implemented by the Ministry

achieve minimum fixed broadband
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download speed of 100 Mbps all over of Rural Development in collaboration

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India by 2030 with State governments.

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2. The mission is implemented by the

Which of the statements given above is/are
Ministry of Communications.
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correct?
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Which of the statements given above is/are

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correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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23. Under which of the following conditions can 26. “Kampala Declaration", a 10-year strategy to
a member of a State Legislative Assembly be transform agri-food systems and ensure food
disqualified? security, was recently seen in the news,
1. If declared an undischarged insolvent. launched by one of the following
2. If declared of unsound mind by a organizations?
competent court. (a) African Union
3. If disqualified under the provisions of the (b) World Trade Organization
Tenth Schedule. (c) Food and Agriculture Organization
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Consultative Group on International
below:
Agricultural Research
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
27. With reference to the National Livestock
(c) 1 and 3 only
Mission, consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It aims to ensure promoting risk
management measures including
24. Consider the following statements regarding
livestock insurance for farmers.
the duration of municipalities under the 74th
2. Its objective is to promote
amendment act of 1992:
1. The act provides for a five-year term entrepreneurship in the field of rural
of office for every municipality. poultry and fodder sector.
2. Municipality constituted upon 3. It is implemented by the Ministry of
the dissolution shall continue only for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and
the remainder of the period. Dairying.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

25. With reference to a Judge of the High 28. With respect to Gram Nyayalayas,
Court in India, consider the following consider the following statements:
statements: 1. It has been set up through laws O
1. A distinguished jurist cannot of respective state legislatures.
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be appointed as High Court Judge. 2. Its presiding officer, Nyayadhikari
S.

2. To uphold judicial independence,

is appointed by the State Government
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the constitution has fixed the tenure of

in consultation with the High Court.
High Court Judges.
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3. The Gram Nyayalaya shall exercise

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3. A Judge subscribes to an oath

the powers of both Criminal and
or affirmation before the governor of
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Civil Courts.
the state.
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How many of the statements given above are

Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct?
correct?
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(a) Only one

(a) 2 only
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(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two

(c) 1 and 2 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
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29. Which of the following is/are correct 32. With reference to the President of India,
regarding the "Bhargavastra" missile system?
consider the following statements:
1. It is India's first micro-missile system
designed to counter swarm drone threats. 1. To be eligible for election as President, a
2. It can successfully engage virtual targets
candidate must be qualified to become a
beyond 2.5 km.
3. It is not capable of countering large-scale member of either House of Parliament.
drone attacks. 2. The Constitution empowers Parliament to
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. determine the allowances, emoluments,

(a) 1 only and privileges of the President.

(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?

(a) 1 only
30. Which of the following bills lapse on the
dissolution of the legislative assembly of the (b) 2 only
state?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. A Bill pending in the council but
not passed by the assembly. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. A Bill pending in the assembly which has
originated in the assembly.
3. A Bill passed by the legislature 33. Consider the following statements regarding
but pending assent of the Governor or the nomination of members to the Rajya
the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given Sabha:

below. 1. The members are nominated by

(a) 1 and 2 only
the Chairman of Rajya Sabha from the
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only list of members submitted by the House.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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2. The provision has been borrowed from
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S.

31. What is the “PUNCH mission" often talked the constitution of the United States of
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about in the media?

America.
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(a) It is a mission specifically designed to

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make use of the polarization of light to Which of the statements given above is/are
measure the corona and solar wind in 3D.
D

correct?
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(b) It is a planned space probe to detect and

(a) 1 only
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measure gravitational waves.

W

(c) It is a scientific project designed to study (b) 2 only

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and observe neutrinos.

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) It is a mission aims to study space
weather around Mars. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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34. Consider the following statements regarding 36. What happens when an elected member of the
the appointment and tenure of the Prime House does not subscribe to an oath?
1. He can participate in the proceedings
Minister of India:
of the House but not vote.
1. The tenure of the Prime Minister is 2. He is not eligible for Parliamentary
constitutionally fixed at five years. privileges and immunities.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. The President is constitutionally
below.
obligated to appoint the leader of the (a) 1 only
largest party in the Lok Sabha as the (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Prime Minister.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha
is eligible to be appointed as Prime 37. Consider the following statements with
Minister. respect to the collective privileges of the
Houses of Parliament:
How many of the statements given above are
1. Parliament has the right to publish
correct? its reports, debates, and proceedings but
(a) Only one does not have the right to prohibit others
from publishing the same.
(b) Only two
2. Parliament can punish any individual
(c) All three for breach of its privileges.
(d) None 3. Parliament has the right to
receive immediate information about the
arrest, detention, conviction,
35. With reference to the State Council of imprisonment, and release of a member
Ministers, consider the following statements: of the House.
1. The Constitution explicitly defines the Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
number of ministers and their
(a) 1 only
hierarchical structure in a state (b) 2 and 3 only
government. (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 O
2. The Governor cannot be questioned in
C
any court regarding the advice given by
S.

38. The members to the committee are nominated

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the Council of Ministers. by the Presiding officers of both houses. It

secures the accountability of the executive
3. The Constitution prescribes a fixed
O

and also assists in debating the budget. The

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tenure for the Council of Ministers.

committee considers the demand for grants of
D

Which of the statements given above is/are the concerned ministries.

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correct? Which of the following committees is

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described by the above passage?

(a) 1 and 2 only
W

(a) Consultative committee

(b) 2 only
W

(b) Business Advisory Committee

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) A General Purpose committee
(d) Department-Related Standing Committee
(d) 1 and 3 only
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39. Consider the following statements regarding 42. Consider the following statements:
the election process of the President of India: 1. All the legally authorized payments
1. Voting in the Presidential election is
on behalf of the Government of India
conducted through a secret ballot system.
are made out of the Public Account
2. The President is elected based on a simple
majority under the First-Past-The-Post of India.
system. 2. The payments from the Public
3. The option of NOTA (None of the Account of India can be made
Above) is not available in the Presidential
without parliamentary appropriation.
election.
3. The Contingency Fund of India is held by
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? the finance secretary on behalf of
(a) 1 and 3 only the President of India.
(b) 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3

40. Consider the following statements (b) 1 and 2 only

with reference to the Supreme Court of India: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The advice of the Supreme Court on any (d) 1, 2 and 3
dispute arising out of any
preconstitutional treaty is not binding on
43. The term "DeepSeek" sometimes seen in the
the President.
2. The court must tender its opinion to news in the context of:
the President if he/she refers matters (a) India's Artificial Intelligence (AI)-led
related to any question of law or fact of language translation platform.
public importance.
(b) computer programmes AI chatbot
Which of the statements given above are
developed by China based start up which
correct?
(a) 1 only simulate human-style conversation with a
(b) 2 only user.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) cloud-based aerial traffic management
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
system. O
(d) artificial intelligence-based text to-image
C
41. Members of a State Legislative Assembly
S.

participate in the election of which of the generation tool developed by Google.

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following?
1. Members of the Legislative Council
O

44. The Trade Enablement and Marketing

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2. Members of the Rajya Sabha

(TEAM) is Government of India’s initiative
3. President of India
D

designed to help which one of the following

4. Vice-President of India
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Select the correct answer using the code given sectors?

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below. (a) Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises

W

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) Oil refinery

W

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Telecom
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Power
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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45. Consider the following statements regarding 47. To provide independence to Judiciary,

parliamentary legislation on subjects in the the removal of judges of the Supreme Court
and High Courts is made extremely difficult
State List:
by the constitution. In this context, which of
1. Parliament can legislate on matters in the the following statements are correct?
State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a 1. A Chief Justice of High Court can
be removed only on the ground of
resolution with a special majority.
proven misbehavior or incapacity.
2. Such laws remain in force indefinitely
2. A motion containing the charges
unless repealed by Parliament. against the judge must be approved by a

3. Once Parliament enacts such a law, State special majority in both houses of the
Parliament.
Legislatures lose their power to make
3. No High Court Judge has been
laws on that subject.
removed from the office so far.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given

correct? below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following statements regarding
the Central council of local government:
46. Consider the following: 1. It was constituted under Article 263

1. Non-resident Indians of the constitution of India by an order

of the President of India.
2. Members of armed forces
2. Since its inception it has been
O
3. Indian diplomats posted abroad
dealing with matters of urban local
C
S.

How many of the given above are government only.

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'service voters' which are eligible to cast their 3. The Union minister for urban
O

development act as the chairman of the

vote either through postal ballot or through
FN

council.
proxy voting?
D

How many of the statements given above are

.P

(a) Only one not correct?

W

(a) Only one

W

(b) Only two

(b) Only two
W

(c) All three

(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
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49. Consider the following statements 52. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions,
with reference to the dissolution of which of the following committees was
Panchayats, under the Constitution: constituted earliest?
1. The Constitution of India has (a) Thungon committee
not specified the grounds for the (b) Ashok Mehta committee
dissolution of Panchayats. (c) G V K Rao committee
2. The new Panchayat constituted upon (d) LM Singhvi committee
the dissolution of a Panchayat before
the expiration of its duration continues 53. Consider the following statements with
only for the remainder of the period. reference to parliamentary proceedings in
Which of the statements given above is/are India:
correct? 1. The Attorney General of India has the
(a) 1 only right to speak and take part in the
(b) 2 only proceedings of either house but not
(c) Both 1 and 2 during a joint sitting of both houses.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. A minister, who is not a member of either
house, cannot participate in the
50. Which of the following qualifications are
proceedings of any house.
required for the appointment of District
Which of the statements given above is/are
Judges?
correct?
1. He should not already be in the service of
(a) 1 only
the Central or the state government.
(b) 2 only
2. He should have been an advocate or
(c) Both 1 and 2
a pleader for five years.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. He should be recommended by the
high court for appointment.
54. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given
Statement-I: If a person is elected to both
below.
Houses of Parliament, he/she must intimate
(a) 1 and 2 only
within 14 days in which House he/she desires
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only to serve.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement-II: The Representation of People
Act explicitly prescribe a rule in case of dual
O
51. Which of the following committees have membership.
C
Which one of the following is correct with
S.

made recommendations regarding Centre-

respect to the above statements?
TE

State relations?
1. Khusro Committee (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
O

2. Rajamannar Committee are correct and Statement-II is the correct

FN

3. M.M. Punchhi Commission explanation of

D

4. Sarkaria Commission (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

.P

Select the correct answer using the code given correct, but Statement-II is not the correct
W

below. explanation of Statement-I.

W

(a) 1 and 4 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II

W

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only is incorrect.

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 II is correct.
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55. Experimental Advanced Superconducting 59. With reference to Gallantry Awards, consider
Tokamak (EAST) reactor, sometimes seen in the following statements:
news, belongs to which one of the following
1. They are conferred upon an individual
countries?
after the final approval of the Ministry of
(a) South Korea
Defence.
(b) France
(c) India 2. Civilians are not eligible for Gallantry
(d) China awards.
3. All the gallantry awards can be awarded
56. Which of the following statements is
posthumously.
correct regarding the salary and allowances
Which of the statements given above is/are
of Supreme Court judges in India?
(a) They are determined by the President. correct?

(b) It can be altered only by the Parliament to (a) 1 and 2 only

the judge's disadvantage after his (b) 2 and 3 only
appointment. (c) 3 only
(c) It is charged on the Public Account of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India.
(d) None of the above statements are correct.
60. Consider the following statements regarding
57. Dinesh Goswami Committee, Vohra Cabinet Committees:
Committee and Tankha Committee, are all 1. They are extra-constitutional bodies, not
related to: mentioned in the Constitution.
(a) Centre-State Relations Reforms
2. All Cabinet Committees are chaired by
(b) Panchayati Raj Reforms
the Prime Minister.
(c) Judicial Reforms
(d) Electoral Reforms Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
58. With reference to the Global Energy (a) 1 only
Alliance for People and Planet (GEAPP), O
(b) 2 only
consider the following statements:
C
(c) Both 1 and 2
S.

1. It is a coalition formed by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
TE

philanthropic organizations, multilateral

institutions, and private companies.
O
FN

2. It aims to reduce carbon emissions by 4 61. Kokborok language, sometimes mentioned in

gigatons annually by 2030. news, belongs to which one of the following
D

Which of the statements given above is/are

.P

states of India?
correct?
W

(a) Manipur
W

(a) 1 only
(b) Nagaland
W

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Tripura
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Assam
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62. “These toys are traditional toys made by 66. With reference to the Town Area
artisans belonging to Andhra Pradesh and are Committees, consider the following
made from the wood of the Ankudu tree. statements:
Recently, on India’s 76th Republic Day, 1. It is an urban local body set up for the
Andhra Pradesh’s tableau featured these 400- administration of a small town.
year-old craft”. 2. It is set up as a statutory body in the
concerned state.
Which one of the following toys correctly
Which of the statements given above is/are
describes in the above paragraph?
correct?
(a) Kondapalli toys
(a) 1 only
(b) Nirmal toys
(b) 2 only
(c) Etikoppaka toys (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Thanjavur dolls (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Which of the following collective privilege is 67. With reference to the Legislative Council,
provided to the members of the state consider the following statements:
legislatures? 1. To be elected as a member of the
(a) They cannot be arrested during the Legislative Council, a person must be an
session of the state legislature. elector for an Assembly constituency in
(b) Exemption from the jury service the concerned State.
when the state legislature is in session. 2. A Money Bill must be returned by the
(c) Right to receive immediate Legislative Council within 14 days.
3. A member of the Legislative Council is
information on the arrest and detention of
ineligible to become a Chief Minister or
a member.
Minister in the State government.
(d) No member is liable to any proceedings
How many of the statements given above are
in any court for anything said or any vote
correct?
given by him in the state legislature or its
(a) Only one
committees. (b) Only two
(c) All three
64. Which of the following is not provided for by (d) None
the Representation of People Act, 1951?
(a) Qualification of Members of Parliament 68. With reference to the money bill in the state
(b) Qualification of voters legislature, consider the following
O
(c) Registration of political parties statements:
C
(d) Electoral offences 1. Even if the governor reserves a money
S.

bill for the consideration of the President,

TE

65. Consider the following: the governor's assent is required after

O

1. Calling Attention Motion such consideration.

FN

2. The governor cannot return a money bill

2. Privilege Motion
for the reconsideration of the state
D

3. Censure Motion
legislature.
.P

Passing of how many of above motions may

Which of the statements given above is/are
W

lead to the censure of a minister?

not correct?
W

(a) Only one (a) 1 only

W

(b) Only two (b) 2 only

(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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69. Regarding the Vice-President’s role as the 71. Consider the following statements with

Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, consider the reference to the political parties in India:

following statements: 1. They are given free electoral rolls by

1. He has the ultimate authority in the Election Commission.

interpreting constitutional provisions and 2. The election symbol of that party

the Rules of Procedure for the House. cannot be used by any other political

2. His rulings serve as legally binding party in polls across India.

precedents. 3. They get land or buildings from

3. The Chairman has no power to disqualify the government to set up their party

a Rajya Sabha member under the Tenth offices.

Schedule. How many of the above given benefits are

How many of the statements given above are enjoyed by a nationally recognized political

correct? party in India?

(a) Only one (a) Only one

(b) Only two (b) Only two

(c) All three (c) All three

(d) None (d) None

70. Consider the following eligibility conditions 72. With reference to the privileges of a State

for becoming a member of a State Legislative Legislature, which of the following are

Assembly: covered?

1. The candidate must be an elector for any 1. Governor

assembly constituency in the concerned 2. Chairman of the Legislative Council O

C
State. 3. Members of the Legislative Assembly
S.

2. The candidate must have attained the age 4. Members of the Legislative Council
TE

of 30 years. 5. Advocate General of the State

O
FN

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
D

correct? below:
.P

(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 5 only

W
W

(b) 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

W

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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73. Consider the following statements: 75. With respect to the term of members of Rajya
1. In the Rajya Sabha seats are reserved for Sabha, consider the following statements:
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes as 1. The Parliament has fixed the term of
per the fourth schedule of the Indian office of members of Rajya Sabha.
Constitution. 2. One-third of its members retire
2. A member of scheduled castes every second year.
or scheduled tribes can not contest a seat Which of the statements given above is/are
in the Lok Sabha not reserved for them. correct?
3. A candidate contesting an election to the (a) 1 only
Rajya Sabha from a particular state (b) 2 only
should be an elector in that particular (c) Both 1 and 2
state. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 76. Which of the following items has been placed
(a) Only one in the XI Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(b) Only two 1. Agriculture
(c) All three 2. Implementation of land reforms
(d) None 3. Primary and secondary school education
4. Public distribution system
74. Recently, the Union government has re- 5. Marriage and divorce
constituted the Atomic Energy Commission Select the correct answer using the code given
(AEC). In this context, consider the following below.
statements regarding the Atomic Energy (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Commission: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The Atomic Energy Commission was (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
first set up in 1948. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Secretary to the Government of India in
the Department of Atomic Energy is ex-
77. Consider the following statements with
officio Chairman of the Commission.
respect to Appropriation Bill:
O
3. Total number of members in the
C
1. The government cannot withdraw money
S.

commission shall not be less than three

from the Consolidated Fund of India till
TE

and not more than15.

the enactment of the appropriation bill.
4. It is responsible for formulating the
O

2. It can be introduced in either Lok Sabha

FN

policy of the Department of Atomic

or Rajya Sabha.
Energy.
D

Which of the statements given above is/are

.P

How many of the statements given above are

correct?
W

correct?
(a) 1 only
W

(a) Only one

(b) 2 only
W

(b) Only two

(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four
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78. What is Glenn Rocket, which is recently seen 81. In the context of the Pinaka Multi-Barrel
in the news? Rocket Launcher (MBRL), consider the
(a) It is a partially reusable medium lift two- following statements:
stage rocket designed and manufactured 1. The Pinaka system was first used during
by SpaceX. the Kargil War.
(b) It is NASA’s 3-D printed Rotating 2. It has the ability to strike targets located
Detonation Rocket Engine. up to 150 kilometres away.
3. It is developed by the Defence Research
(c) It is a partially reusable Heavy lift launch
and Development Organisation (DRDO).
vehicle developed and operated by the
How many of the statements given above are
American company Blue Origin.
not correct?
(d) It is entirely 3-D printed, semi- cryogenic
(a) Only one
engine rocket launched by AgniKul
(b) Only two
Cosmos.
(c) All three
(d) None
79. With reference to the cantonment boards,
consider the following statements: 82. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider
1. They are under the administrative control the following statements:
of the Ministry of Home Affairs. 1. It has been given statutory status
2. The chief executive officer of the under the Legal Services Authorities
cantonment board is appointed by the Act, 1987.
President of India. 2. The award by the Lok Adalat is
Which of the statements given above is/are not binding and it is appealable.
correct? 3. There is no strict application
(a) 1 only of procedural laws like the Civil
(b) 2 only Procedure Code and the Evidence Act
while assessing the claim by Lok Adalat.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) Only one
80. Under how many of the following
(b) Only two
circumstances does the resignation of the
(c) All three O
Council of Ministers become necessary?
(d) None
C
1. If the Lok Sabha passes a No-Confidence
S.

Motion against the government. 83. Consider the following statements with
TE

2. If the House rejects the Motion of Thanks reference to "Blue Ghost Mission":
O

to the President’s Address. 1. Blue Ghost Mission is launched by ISRO.

FN

3. If the Lok Sabha defeats a Money Bill 2. The objective of the mission is to deliver
introduced by the government.
D

scientific payloads to the lunar surface.

.P

Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
W

below. correct?
W

(a) Only one (a) 1 only

W

(b) Only two (b) 2 only

(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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84. With reference to the 'Mahakumbh Mela', 87. Which of the following statements is correct
consider the following statements: regarding the Legislative Councils?
1. Mahakumbh mela takes place after 144
(a) Currently, seven states have created the
years only at Prayagraj.
Legislative Councils.
2. Kumbh Mela is recognised by UNESCO
(b) There are no nominated members in
in 2023 as an Intangible Cultural
Heritage. legislative councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) One-third of the members of the
correct? Legislative Council are elected directly
(a) 1 only
by the people of the State.
(b) 2 only
(d) The maximum strength of the legislative
(c) Both 1 and 2
council depends on the total strength of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the legislative assembly.
85. An Electronic voting machine (EVM) is
a simple electronic device used to record 88. With reference to the reservation of seats in
votes in place of ballot papers and boxes. In
the panchayats, as provided under the India
this context, consider the following
Constitution, consider the following
statements:
statements:
1. It eliminates the possibility of
invalid votes. 1. Seats for the SCs and the STs are to
2. It makes the process of counting be reserved in every panchayat in
votes much faster. the proportion of their population to the
3. It reduces the cost of printing almost total population in the panchayat area.
nil as only one sheet of ballot paper
2. Of the seats reserved for the SCs and
is required for each polling station.
the STs, not less than one-third of the
How many of the above given are the
advantages of EVMs over the traditional seats are to be reserved for women

ballot box system? belonging to the respective categories. O

(a) Only one 3. The legislature of a state can make
C
S.

(b) Only two any provision for reservation of seats in

TE

(c) All three

any panchayat in favor of backward
(d) None
O

classes.
FN

86. The power to appoint delimitation How many statements given above are not
D

correct?
.P

commission for the delimitation of

W

constituencies is conferred on: (a) Only one

W

(a) The Parliament (b) Only two

W

(b) Election Commission of India

(c) All three
(c) State Election Commission
(d) None
(d) The President
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89. Transparent election processes are critical 92. Union Territories are represented in the Lok
to any functioning democracy. Consider Sabha by:
the following statements regarding the
(a) directly elected MPs
election process:
1. According to the constitution, there can (b) nominated MPs
be no longer than six months between the (c) indirectly elected MPs
last session of the dissolved Loksabha
(d) none
and the recalling of the new house.
2. The Model code of conduct
comes immediately into effect after 93. Consider the following statements:
the announcement of the election
1. A Union Minister must be a Member of
schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are Parliament at the time of appointment.
correct? 2. The Constitution provides details
(a) 1 only regarding the removal of Union
(b) 2 only
Ministers.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
90. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only
the taxation powers of the Union and States:
1. The Parliament exclusively has the (b) 2 only
authority to impose taxes on subjects (c) Both 1 and 2
listed under the Concurrent List.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. State legislatures hold the power to levy
taxes on matters not explicitly mentioned
in any of the three lists. 94. Regarding the election of members to the
Which of the statements given above is/are State Legislative Council, consider the
correct?
following statements:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. One-sixth of the members are elected by
(c) Both 1 and 2 representatives of local bodies.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 O
2. One-twelfth of the members are chosen
C
by graduates who have resided in the state
S.

91. Which of the following statements is not

TE

correct in the context of the prorogation of the for at least three years.
session of Parliament?
3. One-third of the members are elected by
O

(a) Prorogation does not affect the bills

FN

Lok Sabha MPs from that particular state.

pending before the Lok Sabha.
D

(b) In general the presiding officer of the How many of the statements given above are
.P

House issues a notification for the correct?

W

prorogation.
(a) Only one
W

(c) The pending notices (other than those for

(b) Only two
W

introducing bills) lapse on prorogation.

(d) The President of India can prorogue the (c) All three
House while in session.
(d) None
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95. In the context of Indian polity, consider the 98. With reference to Municipal corporation,
following statements regarding the legislative consider the following statements:
assemblies: 1. Municipal corporations are created
1. The uniformity of representation across for the administration of big cities
the different constituencies of a state like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, etc.
is mandated directly by the Constitution. 2. There is a common act for all
2. The 105th Amendment Act, 2019 ceased the municipal corporations in a state.
the reservation of seats for the Anglo- 3. Municipal corporation has
Indian communities. three authorities, namely the council,
How many of the statements given above are
the standing committees, and
correct?
the commissioner.
(a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three
96. Which of the following is/are the
qualifications for being appointed as a judge (d) None
of the Supreme court?
1. He should be more than 35 years of age. 99. With reference to the Chief Minister’s role in
2. He should have been a judge of a the Council of Ministers, consider the
High Court (or high courts in succession) following statements:
for five years 1. The Chief Minister has the authority to
3. He should have been an advocate of a allocate portfolios among the ministers.
High Court (or High Courts in 2. The death of a Chief Minister results in
succession) for ten years. the automatic dissolution of the Council
Select the correct answer using the code given of Ministers.
below. Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Consider the following statements regarding O
the office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha: 100. With reference to Union Cabinet
C
1. The Speaker being a member of
S.

Committees, consider the following

the ruling party vacates his office after
TE

statements:
the election of the new Speaker to avoid
1. The decisions taken by these committees
O

interregnum.
are automatically binding on the Cabinet.
FN

2. The Outgoing Speaker decides the date of

2. Only Cabinet Ministers are eligible to be
election of the next Speaker after
D

members of these committees.

convening of the Lok Sabha.
.P

Which of the statements given above is/are

Which of the statements given above is/are
W

correct? correct?
W

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

W

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 6311 (2026)

Q 1.A
• Each house of the state legislature has its own presiding officer. The Speaker is elected by the
assembly itself and usually, he remains in the office during the life of the assembly. He performs various
functions of the house and has different powers and duties.
• Speaker Adjourns (or adjournment sine die) the assembly or suspends it during the absence of a
quorum. The Governor from time to time summons and Prorogue each house of the state legislature.
After the speaker adjourns the house or declares adjournment sine die after few days, the Governor issues
notification for the prorogation of the house.
• The Speaker has to maintain order and decorum so that the House can function smoothly. If in the
opinion of the speaker the conduct of any Member is grossly disorderly, he may direct such
Member to withdraw immediately from the House. He has the final power in this regard.
• The Speaker is empowered to place a Member under suspension. The authority for revocation of this
order is vested in the House. It is for the House if it so desires can pass the motion to revoke the
suspension. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 2.D
• In a first-past-the-post electoral system members of the electorate cast their vote for the candidate
of their choice and the candidate who receives the most votes wins, even if they did not receive more
than half of the votes. The FPTP system has proved to be simple and familiar to ordinary voters. It has
helped larger parties to win clear majorities at the centre and the State level. Proportional representation
(PR) characterizes electoral systems in which divisions in an electorate are reflected proportionately
in the elected body. If n% of the electorate support a particular political party as their favorite, then
roughly n% of seats will be won by that party. Therefore more sections of the society will get
representation in the legislature and consequently there may be greater possibility of formation of multi-
party coalitions. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
W
W

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Q 3.A
• The Parliament is too unwieldy a body to deliberate effectively the issues that come up before it. The
functions of the Parliament are varied, complex and voluminous. Moreover, it has neither adequate time
nor necessary expertise to make a detailed scrutiny of all legislative measures and other matters.
Therefore, it is assisted by a number of committees in the discharge of its duties.
• The Constitution of India makes a mention of these committees at different places, but without making
any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc.
o All these matters are dealt with by the rules of two Houses. Accordingly, a parliamentary committee
means a committee that:
o Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman. Hence statement
1 is correct.
o Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman.
o Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha. Hence the statement 3 is not
correct.
o The consultative committees, which also consist of members of Parliament, are not parliamentary O
committees as they do not fulfill the above four conditions.
C
• Parliamentary committees are of two kinds:
S.

• Standing Committee:
TE

o They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis.
o For example, the public accounts committee.
O

• Ad Hoc Committees:
FN

o They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them.
o For example, committee on the conduct of certain members during the President's address.
D
.P

Q 4.A
• Recent Context: On January 4, 2025, the Indian space agency announced that the seeds sprouted in just
W

four days under microgravity conditions, utilizing the Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies
W

(CROPS). CROPS Mission

W

o It is an unmanned experimental module designed to develop ISRO’s capabilities for growing

and sustaining plants in space.

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o CROPS Mission, developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), is ISRO’s first
biological experiment to grow plants in space under microgravity conditions. Hence statement 1
is correct.
o Launched aboard PSLV-C60 mission, CROPS utilized the PSLV Orbital Experiment Module
(POEM) 4 platform to cultivate cowpea seeds in a controlled environment with active thermal
management. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 5.C
• Recent Context: AI Touch Limited Liability Partnership company has received funding under
the Department of Telecommunications scheme Digital Bharat Nidhi” to develop components for
5G RAN.
o Radio Access Network (RAN) is a key component of wireless telecommunication systems,
enabling devices like cellphones and computers to connect to a network via a radio link. It
facilitates communication between user equipment and the core network, which manages
subscriber data and location information. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o RANs have evolved from the first generation (1G) to the fifth generation (5G) of cellular networking.
o While RAN systems predominantly operate in licensed spectrum bands, they can also operate
in unlicensed spectrum bands (e.g., Wi-Fi offloading, CBRS in the U.S.) for enhanced connectivity
and flexibility. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 6.B
• The powers of Governor with regard to Bills:
• All the bills passed by the state legislatures are sent to the Governor for assent. Once a bill is sent to
Governor for assent, he can:
o give his assent to the bill
o withhold the assent to the bill
o return the bill to the legislature for reconsideration (if it is not a money bill) .
o If the bill is re-passed by the legislature with or without amendment, the governor has to give assent to
the bill.
• Reserve the bills for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is
where the bill passed by the State Legislature endangers the position of the state high court. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
• When a state bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the president has three
alternatives:
o He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then become and act.
o He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an Act.
o He may return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses of the State Legislature. When a bill
is so returned, the house or houses have to consider it within six months. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• If the bill is passed by the house or houses again with or without amendments and presented to the
President for his assent, the president is not bound to give his assent to the bill. Hence statement 2 is not
correct. O
o He may give his assent to such a bill or withhold his assent.
C
S.

Q 7.A
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed
TE

15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by 91st Amendment Act of
2003. (not mention in the original Constitution). Hence statement 1 is correct.
O

• A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground
FN

of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister. This provision was added by the 91st
Amendment Act of 2003. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
D

Q 8.A
.P

• Article 217, which deals with the appointment of High Court judges, says the President should
W

consult the Chief Justice of India, Governor of the concerned state, and Chief Justice of the
W

High Court concerned. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• After the Third judges' case, the SC opined that in the appointment of high court judges, the chief
W

justice of India should consult a collegium of two very senior judges of the SC. Thus the sole opinion of
chief justice India alone does not constitute the consultation process.

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• In the case of the common high court for two or more states, governors of all states concerned
are consulted by President.
• Moreover, no authority related to state executive apart from Governor takes part in the appointment of
judges of the high court.

Q 9.B
• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the
Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence.
• At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
• The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the
principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due
representation in it.
• The term of office of the members is one year.
• A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• The chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker.
• The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
• General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
• The CAG submits three audit reports to the President:
• Audit report on appropriation accounts, ü Audit report on finance accounts, and ü Audit report on public
undertakings.
• In the fulfillment of the above functions, the committee is assisted by the CAG. In fact, the CAG acts as a
guide, friend and philosopher of the committee.
• Departmental Standing Committees:
• They are the largest Parliamentary Committee.
• There are 24 departmental standing committees, and cover under their jurisdiction all the ministries/
departments of the Central Government.
• Each standing committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

Q 10.C
• The vice president holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
However he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
• A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (i.e. a
majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given.
• Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

Q 11.B
• Government has approved the launch of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with an O
expenditure of Rs.16,300 crore and expected investment of Rs.18,000 crore by PSUs, etc. The mission is
C
launched by Ministry of Mines. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
S.

• About National Critical Mineral Mission:

o It will encompass all stages of the value chain, including mineral exploration, mining,
TE

beneficiation, processing, and recovery from end-of-life products. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The mission will intensify the exploration of critical minerals within the country and in its offshore
O

areas.
FN

o The mission aims to encourage Indian PSUs and private sector companies to acquire critical
mineral assets abroad and enhance trade with resource-rich countries. It also proposes
D

development of stockpile of critical minerals within the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
.P

o The mission includes provisions for setting up of mineral processing parks and supporting the
W

recycling of critical minerals. It will also promote research in critical mineral technologies and
W

proposes setting up Centre of Excellence on Critical Minerals.

• Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, has been amended in 2023 to increase
W

exploration and mining of critical minerals. Consequently, the Ministry of Mines has auctioned 24
blocks of strategic minerals.

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Q 12.A
• Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is deemed to be
a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
o The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax;
o The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
o The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment
of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
o The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
o Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount
of any such expenditure;
o The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India
or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state; or
o Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
• Money bills are simply a species of financial bills. Hence all money bills are financial bills but
all financial bills are not a money bills. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha is final. His decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law or in the either
House of Parliament or even the president.
• It requires the certification of the Speaker when transmitted to the Rajya Sabha.
• A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of
the president.
o Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
• After a money bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration.
The Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with regard to a money bill.
o It cannot reject or amend a money bill.
o It can only make recommendations.
o It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, wither with or without recommendations.
• The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
o If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by
both the Houses in the modified form.
o If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have passed by
both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change.
o If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the bill is deemed to
have been passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha. Thus, the Lok
Sabha has more powers than Rajya Sabha with regard to a money bill. On the other hand, both the
Houses have equal powers with regard to an ordinary bill.
• Finally, when a money bill is presented to the president, he may either give his assent to the bill
or withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
Normally, the president gives his assent to a money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his
prior permission

Q 13.A O
• At present a party is recognized as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:
C
o If it secures six per cent of valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to
S.

the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly; and, in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha
from any state or states; or Hence statement 1 is correct.
TE

o If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are
O

elected from three states; or Hence statement 2 is correct.

o If it is recognized as a state party in four states. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
FN

Q 14.B
D

• Vacation of Seats
.P

• In the following cases, a member of the state legislature vacates his seat:
W

o Double Membership: A person cannot be a member of both Houses of the state legislature at one
W

and the same time. If a person is elected to both Houses, his seat in one of the houses falls vacant as
per the provisions of a law made by the state legislature.
W

o Disqualification: If a member of the state legislature becomes subject to any of the disqualifications,
his seat becomes vacant.

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o Resignation: A member may resign his seat by writing to the Chairman of the legislative council or
Speaker of the legislative assembly, as the case may be. The seat falls vacant when the resignation is
accepted.
o Absence: A House of the state legislature can declare the seat of a member vacant if he absences
himself from all its meeting for a period of sixty days without its permission. Hence option (b)
is the correct answer.
• Other Cases: A member has to vacate his seat in the either House of the state legislature,
o if his election is declared void by the court,
o if he is expelled by the House,
o if he is elected to the office of president or office of vice-president, and
o If he is appointed to the office of governor of a state.

Q 15.A
• A person to be elected to it must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state.
This provision is provided in the Representation of People Act 1951 and not in the constitution.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because
the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Assembly. But the council can discuss and
criticize the policies and activities of the Government.
• A money bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot
amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with
recommendations or without recommendations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a
State Legislature. Usually, Chief Minister has been selected from the lower house, but on a number of
occasions, a member of upper house (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief Minister.
Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 16.C
• The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first
Estimates Committee in the post independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of
John Mathai, the then finance minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was
raised to 30.
• All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this
committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members,
according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• The functions of the committee includes:
o To report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency and administrative reform
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, can be affected
o To suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
o To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
i.e. it examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure.
O
However, it examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament,
C
and not before that. Hence statement 2 is correct.
S.

o To suggest the form in which the estimates are to be presented to Parliament.

TE

Q 17.D
• The property and income of local authorities situated within a state are not exempted from the Central
O

taxation. Similarly, the property or income of corporations and companies owned by a state can be taxed
FN

by the Centre. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

• The property of Centre is exempted from all taxes imposed by a state or any authority within a state like
D

municipalities, district boards, panchayats and so on. But the Parliament is empowered to remove this ban.
.P

The word property ‘includes lands, buildings, chattels, shares, debts, everything that has a money value,
W

and every kind of property— movable or immovable and tangible or intangible. Further, the property may
W

be used for sovereign (like armed forces) or commercial purposes. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
W

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Q 18.B
• Recent Context: After the Supreme Court scrapped electoral bonds last year, political donations through
electoral trusts surged.
• The companies which are registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, are only
eligible to make an application for approval as an electoral trust. These are trusts set up by companies
with the objective to distribute the contributions received from other companies and individuals to
political parties. The names of electoral trusts, currently, do not indicate the name of the company/group
of companies which set up the trusts. Hence statement (a) is not correct.
• Who can contribute to electoral trusts?
o An individual who is a citizen of India Hence statement (b) is the correct answer.
o A company registered in India
o An association of persons (Indian residents)
• For administrative expenses, the electoral trusts are permitted to set aside a maximum of 5 percent of
the total funds collected during a financial year. The remaining 95 percent of total income of the
trusts, including any surplus from the previous financial year, is required to be distributed to eligible
political parties. Electoral trusts are required to apply for renewal every three financial years in
order to continue their registration and operations. Hence statements (c) and (d) are not correct.

Q 19.D
• Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the
states and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it
appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment.
• The council is a recommendatory body on issues relating to inter-state, Centre-state and Centre–union
territories relations. It aims at promoting coordination between them by examining, discussing and
deliberating on such issues. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Council may meet at least thrice in a year. Its meetings are held in camera and all questions are
decided by consensus. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• There is also a Standing Committee of the Council. It was set up in 1996 for continuous consultation and
processing of matters for the consideration of the Council. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It consists of the following members:
o Union Home Minister as the Chairman
o Five Union Cabinet Ministers
o Nine Chief Ministers

Q 20.C
• Recent Context: NBM 2.0 and Sanchar Saathi Mobile App have been launched by the Ministry of
Communications to enhance telecom accessibility, security, and empowerment across India. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Objectives of National Broadband Mission 2.0:
o Extending operational optical fiber cable (OFC) connectivity to 2.70 lakh villages by 2030 with
95% uptime from ~50,000 as of now.
o To provide broadband connectivity to 90% of anchor institutions like Schools, PHCs, Anganwadi O
Centre, and Panchayat offices by 2030.
C
o Improve the Fixed broadband download Speeds- National Average from 63.55 Mbps in November
S.

2024 to a minimum 100 Mbps by 2030. Hence statement 2 is correct.

TE

o To achieve 100% mapping of fiber networks owned by government PSUs by 2026on PM

GatiShakti National MasterPlan Platform (PMGS) and use PMGS for planning of Additional
O

Bharatnet project.
FN

o For Ease of Doing Business - reduce the Right of Way application average disposal time from 60
days (now)to 30 days by 2030. In 2019 it was 449 days.
D

o Increase the number of rural internet subscribers per 100 population from the current 45 to 60 by
.P

2030.
o Achieve the target of powering 30% of mobile towers with sustainable energy by 2030.
W

o Work on enhancing the usage of the ‘Call Before u Dig’ (CBuD) mobile app to protect underground
W

Telecom infrastructure and other utilities

W

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Q 21.D
• Each House of state legislature has its own presiding officer. There is a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker
for the legislative assembly and a Chairman and a Deputy Chairman for the legislative council. A panel
of chairman for the assembly and a panel of vice-chairman for the council is also appointed.
• As per Article 179, a member holding office as Speaker or Deputy Speaker of an Assembly:
o shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly;
o may resign by writing to the Deputy Speaker (in case of Speaker) and the Speaker (in case of
Deputy Speaker). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of all the
then members of the Assembly: However, a resolution for the same can be passed by giving at
least fourteen days' notice.
• According to Article 180, when the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be
performed by the Deputy Speaker or, if the office of Deputy Speaker is also vacant, then by such
member of the Assembly as the Governor may appoint. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• However, during the absence of the Speaker from any sitting of the Assembly, the Deputy Speaker or, if
he is also absent, such person as may be determined by the rules of procedure of the Assembly, or, if no
such person is present, such other person as may be determined by the Assembly, shall act as Speaker.
• All matters at any sitting of either House are decided by a majority of votes of the members present
and voting excluding the presiding officer. Only a few matters that are specifically mentioned in
the Constitution like the removal of the speaker of the assembly, removal of the Chairman of the council,
and so on require a special majority, not the ordinary majority. The presiding officer (i.e., Speaker in the
case of assembly or chairman in the case of council or the person acting as such) does not vote in the
first instance but exercises a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
• According to Article 181, the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker does not preside over the House while a
resolution for his removal from office is under consideration. They have the right to speak, and take
part in the proceedings, and be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or any
other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence statement 1
is not correct.

Q 22.A
• Recent Context: Prime Minister distributed over 65 lakh property cards under SVAMITVA Scheme to
property owners.
o SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) is
a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 24th April 2020, on the
occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day.
o Scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural
inhabited (“Abadi”) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology and providing
‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners with issuance of legal ownership cards (Property
cards/Title deeds) to the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The Scheme is implemented with the collaborative efforts of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj,
State Revenue Department, State Panchayati Raj Department and Survey of India. Hence
statement 2 is not correct. O
o Some objectives of the scheme:
C
> Creation of accurate land records for rural planning and reduce property related disputes
S.

> To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as
a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits
TE

> Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is
devolved or else,
O
FN

Q 23.D
• Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being a member of the
D

legislative assembly:
.P

o if he holds any office of profit under the Union or State government (except that of a minister or any
W

other office exempted by state legislature).

W

o if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

o if he is an undischarged insolvent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
W

o if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under
any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state and
o if he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament
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• The constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified for being a member of either
House of state legislature if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of
the Tenth schedule. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o If one is found guilty of an illegal practice in relation to election and being a director or managing
agent of a corporation in which government has a financial interest.
o Section 8 of the RP Act deals with disqualification on conviction for certain offences: A person
convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for varying terms under Sections 8 (1) (2)
and (3) shall be disqualified from the date of conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a
further period of six years since his release.
o In 2015, Supreme Court held that even after a Returning Officer has declared the result, the election
can be nullified if candidate has not disclosed criminal records.

Q 24.C
• The 74th amendment Act,1992 provides for a five-year term of office for every municipality. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• However, it can be dissolved before the completion of its term. Further, the fresh elections to constitute
a municipality shall be completed
o before the expiry of its duration of five years; or
o in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
o Moreover, a municipality constituted upon the dissolution of a municipality before the expiration
of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved
Municipality would have continued had it not been dissolved. In other words, a municipality
reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in
office only for the remainder of the period. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 25.B
• Statement 1 is correct: A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the
following qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
o He should have held a judicial office for 10 years in the territory of India.
o He should have been an advocate for 10 years of a high court (or high courts in succession).
o It is clear from the above statements that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age
for appointment as a judge of a high court.
o Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision
for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of a high
court. However, following provisions are made in this regard:
o He can hold office until he attains the age of 62 years. He may tender his resignation from his
office by writing to the president of India.
o He can be removed from his office by the President of India on the recommendation of
the Parliament.
o He vacates his office when he is transferred to another high court or appointed as a judge of O
the Supreme Court.(Job tenure is the measure of the length of time an employee has been employed
C
by his/her current employer. For Example the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is of 6 years
S.

with limitation of 65 years of age. Such limitation is not mentioned for Judges.)
• Statement 3 is correct: A person when appointed as a judge of a high court, has to make and
TE

subscribe an oath before the governor of the state or some person appointed by him for this purpose,
before entering upon his office.
O
FN

Q 26.A
• Recent Context: The Extraordinary African Union Summit on the Comprehensive Africa Agriculture
D

Development Program (CAADP) concluded in Kampala, Uganda, on January 11, 2025.

.P

o The African Union (AU), has adopted a new agricultural development strategy that will see the
W

continent increase its agrifood output by 45 per cent by 2035 and transform its agri-food systems
W

as part of its new plan to become food secure in a decade.

o In the Kampala declaration, the 55 AU member states set forth six commitments that should
W

transform and strengthen the agri-food system on the continent. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.

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o The strategy will also see Africa reduce post-harvest loss by 50 per cent, triple intra-African trade
in agrifood products and inputs by 2035, and raise the share of locally processed food to 35 per
cent of agrifood GDP by 2035.The adoption of the strategy is seen as a pivotal moment that will lay
the groundwork for agri-food systems across the continent, and enable countries to act.
• The new declaration is the successor to the Malabo Declaration, whose implementation period
concludes this year.

Q 27.C
• Recent Context: National Livestock Mission (NLM) Operational Guidelines 2.0 have been released by
the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying (FAHD).
• NLM has been implemented by the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, since 2014-15. It
was revised and realigned starting in FY 2021-22 to address current sector needs. The National Livestock
Mission (NLM) seeks to enhance livestock productivity, ensure quality improvement, and support
sustainable livestock rearing practices.
o It aims to develop the livestock sector comprehensively, benefiting farmers and ensuring economic
returns. It also promote risk management measures including livestock insurance for farmers.
Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
o It also promotes the development of small ruminants (goats, sheep), poultry, and other species like
pigs, camels, and yak. It aims for holistic development of the livestock sector. It foster
entrepreneurship, increase per animal productivity, and boost production of meat, milk (goat, camel,
donkey, sheep), eggs, and wool under the umbrella Development Programme.
o Mission will also promote of entrepreneurship in the field of rural poultry, sheep, goat, pig &
fodder and establishment of forward and backward linkages. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 28.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for
the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grass roots level for the purposes of providing access
to justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and toensure that opportunities for securing justice are not
denied to any citizen due to social, economic or other disabilities.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Nyayalaya shall be court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and
its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the
High Court. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be established for every Panchayat at intermediate level or a
group of contiguous Panchayats at intermediate level in a district or where there is no Panchayat at
intermediate level in any State, for a group ofcontiguous Panchayats.The Nyayadhikaris who will preside
over these Gram Nyayalayas are strict judicial officers and will be drawing the same salary, deriving the
same powers at First Class Magistrates working under High courts.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers
of both Criminal and Civil Courts.The seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of
the intermediate Panchayat, they will go to villages, work there and dispose of the cases.

Q 29.C
• Recent Context: India has successfully tested its first indigenous micro-missile system, O
Bhargavastra, designed to counter swarm drone threat. Hence statement 1 is correct.
C
• Bhargavastra micro-missile system:
S.

o The counter-drone system, 'Bhargavastra', demonstrates capability to detect small aerial vehicles at
ranges exceeding 6 km and neutralise them using guided micro munitions.
TE

o The Bhargavastra system features simultaneous launch capability of over 64 micro missiles.
o Economic Explosives Ltd is developing this mobile platform-mounted system, ensuring
O

rapid deployment to threat areas.

FN

o Its design accommodates operations across various terrains, including high-altitude regions,
meeting specific military requirements.
D

o The new micro-missile system, being developed for the Indian Army, successfully engaged
.P

virtual targets beyond 2.5 km, demonstrating an economical solution against large scale drone
W

attacks that pose a continuous security challenge. Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is not
W

correct.
• About Swarm Drones
W

o Swarm drones are groups of drones that operate together to perform tasks without
direct human control.

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o They use advanced algorithms and communication technologies to coordinate their actions, similar
to natural swarms like flocks of birds or schools of fish.
o Swarm drones can efficiently carry out missions while minimizing danger to personnel. They can
search out, overwhelm, and destroy enemy defenses, paving the way for manned aircraft.

Q 30.B
• The legislative council, being a permanent house, is not subject to dissolution. Only the legislative
assembly is subject to dissolution. Unlike a prorogation, a dissolution ends the very life of the
existing House, and a new House is constituted after the general elections are held.
• The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:
o A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to
it by the council).
o A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.
o A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse.
o A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in
a bicameral state) but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse.
o A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a
bicameral state) but returned by the president for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse. Hence,
option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 31.A
• NASA’s PUNCH Mission Tests Solar Arrays before launch. The PUNCH mission is the first mission
specifically designed to make use of the polarization of light to measure the corona and solar wind in 3D.
When particles, such as electrons, scatter sunlight, the waves of light become aligned in a particular way
— this is polarized light.
• PUNCH will measure the light using polarizing filters similar to polarizing sunglasses, allowing
scientists to make a 3D map of features PUNCH sees throughout the corona and inner solar system.
Because PUNCH has more sensitive cameras and a wider field of view than previous pathfinder
instruments, it will provide greater detail and a deeper understanding of the solar wind than ever
before. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• The four PUNCH spacecraft will be in a polar, low Earth orbit and spread out near Earth’s day-
night line.

Q 32.B
• According to Article 58 of the Constitution, no person shall be eligible for election as President unless he–
o is a citizen of India
o has completed the age of thirty-five years and
o is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Hence statement 1
is not correct.
o A person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the
Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to
the control of any of the said Governments. O
• CONDITIONS OF THE PRESIDENT ‘S OFFICE
C
o The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of
S.

any State, and if a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State
is elected President, he shall be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he
TE

enters upon his office as President.

o The President shall not hold any other office of profit.
O

o The President shall be entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residences.
FN

o He shall be also entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined
by Parliament by law. Hence statement 2 is correct.
D

o The emoluments and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office.
.P
W

Q 33.D
W

• Under Article 80 of the Constitution, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is composed of not more
than 250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the President of India from amongst persons who
W

have special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art,
and social service. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

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• The rationale behind this principle of nomination is to provide eminent persons a place in the Rajya
Sabha without going through the process of election.
• The method of nomination of members to Rajya Sabha is borrowed from the Irish Constitution
whereas the election of members of Rajya Sabha is borrowed from the South African Constitution.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct

Q 34.A
• The term of the prime minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the
Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
• In accordance with the conventions of the Parliamentary system of Government, the President has to
appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• Constitutionally the Prime Minister may be a member (elected or nominated) of the two houses of
Parliament. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 35.B
• As per Article 163, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and
advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is required to exercise his
functions in his discretion. The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired
into in any court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The total number of ministers, including the chief minister, in the council of ministers in a state, shall not
exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of that state. But, the number of
ministers, including the chief minister, in a state shall not be less than 12. This provision was added by the
91st Amendment Act of 2003.
• The Constitution does not specify the size of the state council of ministers or the ranking of
ministers. They are determined by the chief minister according to the exigencies of the time and
requirements of the situation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• According to the Indian Constitution, particularly Article 164, the Council of Ministers in a state
hold office "during the pleasure of the Governor," meaning they can be dismissed by the Governor
at any time and do not have a fixed tenure. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Every Minister and the Advocate General for a State shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take
part in the proceedings of, the legislative Assembly of the State or, in the case of a State having a
Legislative Council, both Houses, and to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, any
committee of the Legislature of which he may be named a member, but shall not, by virtue of this article,
be entitled to vote Officers of the State Legislature (Article 177).

Q 36.B
• Every member of either House of Parliament, before taking his seat in the House, has to make
and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the President or some person appointed by him for this
purpose. O
• Unless a member takes the oath, he cannot vote and participate in the proceedings of the House
C
and does not become eligible for parliamentary privileges and immunities. Hence, statement 1 is not
S.

correct and statement 2 is correct.

TE

• A person is liable to a penalty of Rs 500 for each day he sits or votes as a member in a House in
the following conditions:
O

o Before taking and subscribing to the prescribed oath or affirmation; or

FN

o When he knows that he is not qualified or that he is disqualified for its membership; or
o When he knows that he is prohibited from sitting or voting in the House by virtue of
D

any parliamentary law.

.P

Q 37.A
W

• Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two broad categories:

W

o those that are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively, and

W

o those that are enjoyed by the members individually.

• Collective Privileges: The privileges belonging to each House of Parliament collectively are:

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o It has the right to publish its reports, debates and proceedings and also the right to prohibit
others from publishing the same. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored the freedom of the
press to publish true reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior permission of the
House. But this is not applicable in the case of a secret sitting of the House. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct.
o It can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings to discuss some
important matters.
o It can make rules to regulate its own procedure and the conduct of its business and to adjudicate
upon such matters.
o It can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt by
reprimand, admonition or imprisonment (also suspension or expulsion, in case of members).
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o It has the right to receive immediate information of the arrest, detention, conviction,
imprisonment and release of a member. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o It can institute inquiries and order the attendance of witnesses and send for relevant papers
and records.
o The courts are prohibited to inquire into the proceedings of a House or its committees.
o No person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested, and no legal process (civil or criminal)
can be served within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.

Q 38.D
• Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha recommended setting-up of 17 Department Related Standing
Committees (DRSCs).
• Accordingly, 17 Department Related Standing Committees were set up on 8 April 1993. In July
2004, rules were amended to provide for the constitution of seven more such committees, thus raising
the number of DRSCs from 17 to 24.
• Each of the Standing Committees constituted under Rule 268 shall consist of not more than 31
members, 10 members nominated by the Chairman from amongst the members of the Council, and 21
members nominated by the Speaker from amongst the members of the House. The main objective of the
standing committees is to secure more accountability of the Executive (i.e., the Council of Ministers) to
the Parliament, particularly financial accountability. They also assist the Parliament in debating the
budget more effectively.
• The functions of these Committees are:
o To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of the Government of
India and make reports to the Houses.
o To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the
Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
o To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
o To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the Chairman,
Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon. Hence, option
(d) is the correct answer.

Q 39.A
O
• The Constitution of India, there shall always be a President of India ( Article 52 ). He holds the highest
C
S.

elective office in the country and is elected in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and the
Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
TE

• Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President
is vested in the Election Commission of India. As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the
O

election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation
FN

by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot. Hence
statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct.
D

• An election to the Office of the President can be called in question by means of an election petition
.P

presented to the Supreme Court after the election is over. Such election petition should be presented by a
W

candidate or twenty or more electors joined together as petitioners. Provisions of NOTA are not
W

applicable in the election of the President . Hence the statement 3 is correct.

W

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Q 40.A
• The Constitution (Article 143) authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in
the two categories of matters:
• On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise. In this
case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the President. Hencen
statement 2 is not correct.
• On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad
or other similar instruments. In this case, the Supreme Court 'must‘ tender its opinion to the President. The
advice of the Supreme Court on any disputes arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty is not
binding on the President. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 41.C
• Legislative Council election:
o One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state's MLAs.
o Another 1/3rd by a special electorate comprising sitting members of local governments such as
municipalities and district boards,
o 1/12th by an electorate of teachers and another 1/12th by registered graduates.
o The remaining members are appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various fields
namely, literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.
• Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members representing States are elected by elected
members of legislative assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of the single transferable vote, and those representing Union Territories are
chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution;
one-third of its members retire every second year.
• Article 54: Election of President: The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral
college consisting of-
o the elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and
o the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Explanation: In this article and in
article 55, "State" includes the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union territory of
Pondicherry.
• Article 66: Election of Vice-President: The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an
electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system
of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall
be by secret ballot.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 42.C
• The Constitution of India provides for the following three kinds of funds for the Central government:
o Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266)
o Public Account of India (Article 266)
o Contingency Fund of India (Article 267)
• Consolidated Fund of India: O
o It is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited.
C
o All revenues received by the Government of India;
S.

o All loans raised by the Government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means
of advances; and
TE

o All money received by the government in repayment of loans forms the Consolidated Fund
O

of India. All the legally authorized payments on behalf of the Government of India are made out
of this fund. No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in
FN

accordance with parliamentary law. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

D

• Public Account of India:

.P

o All other public money (other than those which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of
India) received by or on behalf of the Government of India shall be credited to the Public Account of
W

India.
W

o This includes provident fund deposits, judicial deposits, savings bank deposits, departmental
deposits, remittances, and so on.
W

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o This account is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be
made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of
banking transactions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Contingency Fund of India:
o The Constitution authorized the Parliament to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’, into
which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted
the contingency fund of India Act in 1950.
o This fund is placed at the disposal of the president, and he can make advances out of it to
meet unforeseen expenditure pending its authorization by the Parliament.
o The fund is held by the finance secretary on behalf of the president. Hence statement 3
is correct.
o Like the public account of India, it is also operated by executive action.

Q 43.B
• Recent Context: Government agencies in countries including South Korea and Australia have blocked
access to Chinese artificial intelligence (AI) startup DeepSeek’s new AI chatbot programme, mostly for
government employees.
• DeepSeek is a Chinese AI startup. Based in Hangzhou city, it was founded by entrepreneur and
businessman Liang Feng in 2023.
• AI chatbots are computer programmes which simulate human-style conversation with a user. Users
can ask the bot questions and it then generates conversational responses using information it has
access to on the internet and which it has been “trained” with. Among a plethora of potential uses,
these programmes can be used to solve mathematics problems, draft text such as emails and documents,
and translate or write codes.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 44.A
• Recently, Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME), in partnership with the
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), has announced the launch of the MSME Trade
Enablement and Marketing (TEAM) Initiative. It has been launched under the "Raising and
Accelerating MSME Productivity (RAMP)" Programme of the Ministry of MSME.
o With a budget of ₹277.35 crore over three years, the initiative aims to onboard 5 lakh Micro and
Small Enterprises (MSEs), with 50% of these being women-led businesses — to embrace digital
commerce and expand their market presence.
• About TEAM Initiative:
o The initiative will empower MSMEs with digital tools and guidance to effectively utilize the e-
commerce marketplace. One of the primary objectives of the MSME TEAM Initiative is to support
MSMEs to help them access different markets by integrating them with Open Network for
Digital Commerce (ONDC).
o This will enable the MSMEs in widening their customer base and increase their income. This will also
strengthen the trustworthiness and credibility of MSMEs by establishing their digital presence and
transaction history. O
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
C
S.

Q 45.A
• The Constitution of India being Federal in structure divides all the power (legislative, executive and
TE

financial) between the Centre and States. Though centre and States are supreme in their respective fields
O

the maximum harmony and coordination are essential for the effective operation of the federal system.
Hence, the constitution contains elaborate provisions to regulate various relations ((legislative, executive
FN

and financial) between them. But in extraordinary times Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws
on any matter enumerated in the State list.
D

• When Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary for the national interest that Parliament should make laws
.P

concerning the matter in the state list, parliament becomes competent to make laws. Such a resolution
W

should be supported by two-thirds of members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one
W

year and can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
W

• The law ceases to have an effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in
force. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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• This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in
case of inconsistency between state law and parliament law, it is parliament law that is to prevail. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 46.B
• Service voters are those who have service qualification. Service voter can cast their vote
either through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him and a service voter
who opts to vote through a proxy is called Classified Service Voter.
• In 2003, the facility to opt to vote through proxy was provided to the service voters belonging to
the Armed Forces and members belonging to a Force to which provisions of the Army Act apply.
Such service voters who opt to vote through proxy have to appoint a proxy in a prescribed format and
intimate the Returning Officer of the constituency.
• Options 2 and 3 are correct: According to the provisions of sub-section (8) of Section 20
of Representation of People Act, 1950, Service Voters are:
o Those serving in the Armed Forces of the Union.
o Those serving in a Force to which the Army Act 1950 applies (Assam rifles, CRPF, BSF, ITBP,
SSB, NSG, GREF in BRO (Border Road Organisation), CISF etc.
o Member of an Armed Police Force of a State, serving outside that state.
o Those employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India (Indian diplomats).
• Option 1 is not correct: A citizen of India, absent from the country owing to employment, education
etc., has not acquired citizenship of any other country and are otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter
in the address mentioned in your passport. However, they have been not yet permitted to vote
through proxy voting.

Q 47.C
• Statement 1 is correct: A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the
President on the recommendation of the Parliament. He can be removed from his office only on the
grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high
court is the same as that for a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of a high
court by the process of impeachment:
o A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case
of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
o The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
o If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to
investigate into the charges.
o The committee should consist of
> the Chief Justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
> chief justice of a high court, and
> a distinguished jurist.-
ü If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an incapacity,
the House can take up the consideration of the motion. O
• Statement 2 is correct: After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an
C
maddress is presented to the president for removal of the judge.- Finally, the president passes an
S.

order removing the judge.

• Statement 3 is correct: No judge of a high court has been impeached, so far.
TE
O

Q 48.A
• The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was constituted under Article 263
FN

of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
D

• Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-Government. However, the term ‘self-
.P

government was found to be superfluous and hence was replaced by the term ‘government’ in
the 1980s. Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after 1958 it
W

has been dealing with matters of urban local government only. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
W

• The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban Development in the Government
W

of India and the ministers for local self-government in states. The Union minister acts as the Chairman
of the Council. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Council performs the following functions with regard to local government:
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o Considering and recommending the policy matters

o Making proposals for legislation
o Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states
o Drawing up a common program of action(v) Recommending Central financial assistance
o Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the Central financial assistance.

Q 49.C
• Article 243E of the Constitution provides that every Panchayat unless sooner dissolved under any
law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting.
(No ground for dissolution of panchayats is provided by the constitution). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As per the ruling of Punjab and Haryana Court in 2002, the panchayats could be dissolved before
the expiry of five years only in accordance with the law, if any, promulgated by the state. There is no
general power with the state government to dissolve the panchayats prior to expiry of the prescribed term
of five years.
• Further, fresh elections to constitute a panchayat shall be completed (a) before the expiry of its duration
of five years; or (b) in case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of
its dissolution.
• But, where the remainder of the period (for which the dissolved panchayat would have continued) is
less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election for constituting the new panchayat for
such period.
• Moreover, a panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a panchayat before the expiration of
its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved
panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved. In other words, a panchayat
reconstituted after premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in office
only for the remainder of the period. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 50.B
• The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state
in consultation with the high court. A person to be appointed as district judge should have the
following qualifications:
o He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government. Hence statement 1
is correct.
o He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o He should be recommended by the high court for appointment. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 51.B
• Sarkaria Commission, M.M. Punchchi Commission and Rajamannar Committee are associated
with Centre-State relations.
• Justice R. S. Sarkaria Commission was appointed in June 1983. It stressed cooperative federalism
and noted that federalism is more a functional arrangement for cooperative action than a static
institutional concept. At the same time, it did not equate a strong centre with centralization of powers
because over-centralization leads to blood pressure at the center and anaemia at the periphery. O
• MM Punchhi Commission was set up in 2007 and it gave its recommendations in 2010. Some of the
C
important recommendations are as follows:
S.

o There should be a consultation process between unions and states via Inter-state Council for
legislation on concurrent subjects.
TE

o Regarding state bills, the President's pocket veto should end and there should be a reasonable time (6
O

months) in which President communicates his decision.

o The treaty-making powers of union should be regulated and states should get greater participation in
FN

treaties where the interests of states are involved.

o Governor should get clear guidelines for the appointment of Chief Ministers so that he does not
D

misuse his discretionary powers in this context. etc.

.P

• Rajmannar committee was set in 1969. Apart from making a call for immediate constitution of the
W

Inter-state Council, this committee made the following recommendations:

W

o Union government should not take any decision without consulting the inter-state council when such a
decision can affect the interests of one or more states.
W

o Every bill which affects the interests of the states should be first referred to the inter-state council
before it is introduced in parliament.

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o Article 356 should be used only in rare cases of a complete breakdown of law and order in the state.
etc.
• Khusro Committee is also known as the Agricultural Review Committee which was established in
1989. The committee examined the problems of agricultural and rural credits and recommended
major systematic improvements and not inter-state relations. Hence, only option 1 is not correct.

Q 52.B
• The term Panchayati raj India signifies the system of rural local self-government. It has been established
in all the states of India by the acts of the state legislatures to build democracy at the grass-root level. It
was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992.
• Committees regarding the evolution of Panchayati raj include like Balwant rai Mehta committee, the
Ashok Mehta committee (1977), the GVK Rao committee (1985), the LM Singhvi committee (1986), the
Thungon committee (1988), Gadgil Committee. As per the timeline Ashok Mehta committee got
constituted earliest. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 53.D
• In addition to the members of a House, every minister and the attorney general of India have the
right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of both the Houses,
and any committee of Parliament of which he is a member, without being entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• There are two reasons underlying this constitutional provision:
o A minister can participate in the proceedings of a House, of which he is not a member of. In
other words, a minister belonging to the Lok Sabha can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya
Sabha and vice-versa.
o A minister, who is not a member of either House, can participate in the proceedings of
both Houses. It should be noted here that a person can remain a minister for six months,
without being a member of either House of Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 54.D
• Statement-I is not correct, but Statement-II is correct: If a person is elected to both Houses
of Parliament, he/she must intimate within the 10 days in which house he/she desires to serve (as per
the Representation of People Act (1951 and not the Indian Constitution). In default of such intimation,
his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.

Q 55.D
• Recently, China’s artificial sun, known as the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak
(EAST), burned for over 1000 seconds, creating a new record for the scientist working on the project.
The artificial sun maintained a steady-state high-confinement plasma operation for 1066 seconds, setting a
new world record and reaching a temperature of 100 million degrees Celsius.
o EAST became operational in 2006. Its purpose is to study and develop nuclear fusion technology
by replicating the process that powers the Sun.
o The EAST project is part of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) O
facility, which will become the world’s largest nuclear fusion reactor when it becomes operational in
C
2035. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
S.

Q 56.D
TE

• The Parliament determines the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme
Court judges. Hence option (a) is not correct.
O

• The Parliament cannot alter any of these privileges and rights to the judge's disadvantage after his
FN

appointment. Hence option (b) is not correct.

• Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated
D

Fund of India. Hence option (c) is not correct.

.P

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

W
W

Q 57.D
• Dinesh Goswami committee (1990) was on electoral reforms in India. It suggested providing state
W

funding in kind to political parties. It also suggested that a candidate should not be allowed to contest
election from more than two constituencies.

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• The Vohra (Committee) Report was submitted by the former Indian Home Secretary, N. N. Vohra, in
October 1993. It studied the problem of the criminalisation of politics and of the nexus among criminals,
politicians and bureaucrats in India.
• Tankha Committee was appointed in 2010. It was to look into the whole gamut of the election laws
and electoral reforms. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 58.C
• Recent Context: The Global Energy Alliance for People and Planet (GEAPP) signed a Multi-
Donor Trust Fund with International Solar Alliance aiming to mobilize $100 million to fund high-
impact solar energy projects.
o GEAPP is an alliance of philanthropy, governments, technology, policy, and financing
partners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It aims to reduce 4 gigatons of future carbon emissions, expand clean energy access to one
billion people, and enable 150 million new jobs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Its mission is to enable emerging and developed economies to shift to a clean energy, pro-
growth model that accelerates universal energy access and inclusive economic growth while
supporting the global community to meet critical climate goals during the next decade.
• Multi-Donor Trust Fund: GEAPP, through its Project Management Unit, will support ISA by providing
governance oversight, facilitating fundraising efforts, and leveraging its expertise in energy
transition planning, financing, and project implementation.

Q 59.C
• Gallantry Awards have been instituted by the Government of India to honor the acts of bravery and
sacrifice of the officers/personnel of the Armed Forces, other lawfully constituted forces and civilians.
These gallantry awards are announced twice a year - first on the occasion of Republic Day and then on the
occasion of Independence Day.
• Gallantry Awards are classified into two categories:
o Gallantry in the Face of Enemy
> Param Vir Chakra (PVC), Mahavir Chakra (MVC), Vir Chakra
o Gallantry Other than in the Face of Enemy
> Ashok Chakra, Kirti Chakra, Shaurya Chakra
> Eligibility:
ü Officers and men and women of all ranks of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, of any of
the Reserve Forces, of the Territorial Army, Militia and of any other lawfully constituted
forces.
ü Members of the Nursing Services of the Armed Forces.
ü Civilian citizens of either sex in all walks of life and members of Police Forces including
Central Para-Military Forces and Railway Protection Force. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o All the gallantry awards may be awarded posthumously. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Selection process
> Ministry of Defence invites recommendations twice in a year from the Armed Forces and Union O
Ministry of Home Affairs for gallantry awards.
C
> Recommendations in respect of civilian citizens (other than Defence personnel) are received from
S.

the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

> Recommendations received directly from private individuals, including VIP references are not
TE

accepted.
> Recommendations received from the Armed Forces and MHA are considered by the Central
O

Honours & Awards Committee (CH&AC) comprising of Raksha Mantri, three Service Chiefs &
FN

Defence Secretary. Home Secretary is also member for the cases recommended by the Ministry of
Home Affairs.
D

> Thereafter, recommendations of the CH&AC are submitted for approval of the Prime Minister
.P

and the President. After approval of the President, awards are announced on the occasion of the
W

Republic Day and Independence Day. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Q 60.A
W

• The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:

W

o They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the
Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment. Hence statement 1
is correct.
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o They are of two types-standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature while the latter are
of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special
problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.
o They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the
situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time.
o Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However,
the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
o They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other
senior Ministers.
o They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers,
particularly the Home Minister or the finance minister, also acts as their chairman. But, in case
the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it. Hence statement
2 is not correct.

Q 61.C
• Recent Context: Tripura is conducting language mapping for development of ‘Kokborok’
language’.
o The Kokborok is a language of Borok people who are geographically known as Tripuris. It is
one of the state languages of Tripura notified on January 19, 1979. The Tripura Tribal Areas
Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) has declared the Kokborok as their official language of on
April 20, 1999.
o It is a Sino-Tibetan language and can be traced back to at least the 1st century AD when the
historical record of Tripuri kings started to be written down in a book called the Raj Ratnakar.
o The word Kokborok is derived from the word ‘Kok’, meaning ‘verbal’, and ‘Borok’,
meaning ‘people’ or ‘human’.
o According to the 2011 Census report, the number of Kokborok-speaking people is 8,80,537, which
is 23.97% of the total population of Tripura. Hence the option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 62.C
• The Republic Day celebrations at Kartavyapath in Delhi showcased Andhra Pradesh’s Etikoppaka
dolls. The display offered a glimpse into the ancient art of Etikoppaka Bommalu, a 400-year-old
craft that has become synonymous with eco-friendly creativity and cultural heritage.
• They are handcrafted in the Etikoppaka village of Andhra Pradesh, India.These toys are primarily
made from a softwood called ‘Ankudu Karra’ (also known as Ivory Wood). The process involves
meticulous carving, shaping, and painting.
• The process culminates in a lacquer-turning technique, an ancient method where lac resin is used to
seal the colours, creating a lustrous, non-toxic finish that is as safe for children as it is beautiful.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 63.C
• Privileges of a state legislature are a sum of special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by
the Houses of the state legislature, their committees, and their members. They are outlined in Article 194
O
of the Constitution.
C
• The privileges of a state legislature can be classified into two broad categories–those that are enjoyed
S.

by each House of the state legislature collectively, and those that are enjoyed by the members
individually.
TE

• Collective Privileges:
o It has the right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings and also the right to prohibit
O

others from publishing the same.

FN

o It can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings to discuss some
important matters.
D

o It can make rules to regulate its procedure and the conduct of its business and to adjudicate upon
.P

such matters.
W

o It can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt by
W

reprimand, admonition, or imprisonment (also suspension or expulsion, in the case of members).

o It has the right to receive immediate information on the arrest, detention, conviction,
W

imprisonment, and release of a member. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
o It can institute inquiries, order the attendance of witnesses, and send for relevant papers and records.
o The courts are prohibited from inquiring into the proceedings of a House or its Committees.
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o No person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested, and no legal process (civil or criminal) can
be served within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.
• Individual Privileges:
o They cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the
beginning and 40 days after the end of such session. This privilege is available only in civil cases
and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
o They have freedom of speech in the state legislature. No member is liable to any proceedings in
any court for anything said or any vote given by him in the state legislature or its
committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules and standing
orders regulating the procedure of the state legislature.
o They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a
case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session.

Q 64.B
• The Representation of People Act, 1951 did not contain all the provisions relating to elections but
merely provided for the allocation of seats in and the delimitation of constituencies for the purpose of
elections to the House of People and Legislatures of States, the qualifications of a voter at such election
and the preparation of electoral rolls.
• Broadly speaking, this Act contains provisions relating to the following electoral matters:
o Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures
o Notification of General Elections
o Administrative machinery for the conduct of elections
o Registration of political parties
o Conduct of elections
o Free supply of certain material to candidates of recognized political parties
o Disputes regarding elections
o Corrupt practices and electoral offenses
• Qualification of voters is provided under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950

Q 65.B
• Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister. It is
moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one
or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose
is to censure the concerned minister.
• Censure Motion: It can be moved against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the
entire council of ministers. It is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies
and actions.
• Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of
a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on
that matter. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 66.C O
• A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority
C
and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and
S.

conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other
matters are governed by the act. It may be wholly elected or wholly nominated by the state government or
TE

partly elected and partly nominated. Hence, both statements are correct.
O

Q 67.A
FN

• A person to be elected to it must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. This
provision is provided in the Representation of People Act 1951 and not in the constitution. Hence
D

statement 1 is not correct.

.P

• The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because
W

the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Assembly. But the council can discuss and
W

criticize the policies and activities of the Government.

• A money bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot amend or
W

reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations
or without recommendations. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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• According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a State
Legislature. Usually, Chief Minister has been selected from the lower house, but on a number of
occasions, a member of upper house (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief Minister.
Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 68.A
• Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature only with the Governor's prior recommendation.
• Every money bill, after it is passed by the state legislature (unicameral or bicameral), is presented to
the governor for his assent. He has three alternatives:
o He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
o He may withhold his assent to the bill, and the bill then ends and does not become an act.
o He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president.
• Thus, the governor cannot return a money bill for reconsideration by the state legislature.
Normally, the governor gives his assent to a money bill as it is introduced in the state legislature
with his previous permission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• When the governor reserves a money bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any
further role in the enactment of the bill. If the President gives his assent to the bill, it becomes an
Act. This means that the assent of the governor is no longer required. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.

Q 69.B
• As the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President presides over the meetings of the House. As the
Presiding Officer, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the unchallenged guardian of the prestige and
dignity of the House. It is the right of the Chairman to interpret the Constitution and rules so far as matters
in or relating to the House are concerned, and no one can enter into any argument or controversy with the
Chairman over such interpretation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Chairman's rulings constitute precedents which are of a binding nature. The Chairman's rulings
cannot be questioned or criticized and to protest against the ruling of the Chairman is a contempt of the
House and the Chairman. The Chairman is not bound to give reasons for his decisions. The rulings are
generally delivered by the Chairman on the floor of the House but in some contingency, his ruling may be
read to the House by the Deputy Chairman, on his request. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, the Chairman determines the question as to disqualification
of a member of the Rajya Sabha on grounds of defection; he also makes rules for giving effect to the
provisions of that Schedule. The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd
Amendment Act. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 70.A
• Qualifications: The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a
member of the state legislature.
o He must be a citizen of India.
o He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election
Commission for this purpose. O
o In his oath or affirmation, he swears
C
o To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
S.

o To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India

o He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25
TE

years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
O

• Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of
FN

People Act (1951):

o A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency
D

in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident
.P

in the concerned state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

W

o A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in
W

the concerned state.

o He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe if he wants to contest a seat reserved for
W

them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved
for them.

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Q 71.C
• A registered party is recognized as a National Party only if it fulfils any one of the following
three conditions: The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha (as of 2014, 11 seats) from at least 3
different States. Benefits/ Facilities to National Party are as follows;
o Recognition as a national or a State party ensures that the election symbol of that party can't
be used by any other political party in polls across India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Recognized 'State' and 'National' party requires only one proposer to file nomination.
o The recognized 'state' and National Parties are given two sets of electoral rolls free of cost
by the Election Commission. In addition to this the candidates contesting on the ticket of National
or state party get a copy of the electoral roll free of cost during the general elections. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
o The National parties receive land or building from the government to establish their
party office. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o National parties can have up to 40 star campaigners while others can have up to 20-star campaigners.
o The expenditure incurred on the travelling and other expenses of star campaigners is not included
in the election expenditure of the party candidate.
o National Parties get the time slot on the national and state television & Radio to address the
people and convey their message to the mass people.

Q 72.C
• Privileges of a state legislature are the special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the
houses of the state legislature, their committees, and their members. These privileges are necessary to
maintain the dignity and decorum of the house. Without these privileges, houses cannot secure the
independence and effectiveness of the actions of their members.
• The constitution has extended these privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in
the proceedings of a house of the state legislature and any of its committees. These include state ministers,
advocate general, members of both the houses of the state legislature, presiding officers of both houses.
• These privileges are not extended to the Governor who is an integral part of the State Legislature.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 73.D
• The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of
the Parliament:
o He must be a citizen of India.
o He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the
election commission for this purpose.
o He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years
of age in the case of the Lok Sabha.
o He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
o The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People
Act (1951):
o He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency. This is the same in the case O
of both, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
C
> The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a
S.

particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed within 2003.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.
TE

o He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in any state or union territory if
he wants to contest a seat in Lok Sabha reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled
O

castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them. Hence statement 2 is not
FN

correct.
• In the Rajya Sabha seats are not reserved for scheduled caste and scheduled tribes. Hence
D

statement 1 is not correct.

.P

• Moreover, the fourth schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to
W

the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
W
W

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Q 74.D
• Recent Context: The government has re-constituted the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) to
include T V Somanathan and Manoj Govil, who took over as the Cabinet Secretary and Expenditure
Secretary respectively.
• About AEC: The Atomic Energy Commission was first setup in August 1948 in the Department
of Scientific Research, which was created a few months earlier in June 1948. Hence statement 1
is correct.
o The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was setup on August 3, 1954 under the direct charge of the
Prime Minister through a Presidential Order. Subsequently, in accordance with a Government
Resolution dated March 1, 1958, the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) was established in
the Department of Atomic Energy.
o According to the Resolution constituting the AEC, the Secretary to the Government of India in
the Department of Atomic Energy is ex-officio Chairman of the Commission. The other Members
of the AEC are appointed for each calendar year on the recommendation of the Chairman, AEC and
after approval by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Commission consists of full time and part time members. Total number of members in the
commission shall not be less than three and not more than15. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Some of the functions of AEC:
o The AEC is responsible for formulating the policy of the DAE. Hence statement 4 is correct.
o To plan and implement the various measures required for the expansion of the atomic energy
programme and responsible for formulating the policy of the DAE.

Q 75.C
• The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not
subject to dissolution.
• The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the
Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided
that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. The act also empowered
the president of India to curtail the term of members chosen in the first Rajya Sabha. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• In the first batch, it was decided by lottery as to who should retire. Further, the act also authorized the
President to make provisions to govern the order of retirement of the members of the Rajya Sabha.
• However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled up by
fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring
members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

Q 76.D
• The eleventh Schedule contains the following 29 functional items placed within the purview of
panchayats:
o Agriculture, including agricultural extension
o Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation O
o Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development
C
o Animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry
S.

o Fisheries
o Social forestry and farm forestry
TE

o Minor forest produce

o Small-scale industries, including food processing industries
O

o Khadi, village and cottage industries

FN

o Rural housing
o Drinking water
D

o Fuel and fodder

.P

o Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication

W

o Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity

W

o Non-conventional energy sources

o Poverty alleviation programme
W

o Education, including primary and secondary schools

o Technical training and vocational education
o Adult and non-formal education
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o Libraries
o Cultural activities
o Markets and fairs
o Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries
o Family welfare
o Women and child development
o Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
o Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes
o Public distribution system
o Maintenance of community assets.
• Marriage and divorce is an item placed under List III—Concurrent List, of the seventh schedule
of the constitution.

Q 77.A
• The Constitution under Article 114 states that no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated
Fund of India except under appropriation made by law‘. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated
Fund of India, all money required to meet:
o The grants voted by the Lok Sabha.
o The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Post the discussions on Budget proposals and the Voting on Demand for Grants, the government
introduces the Appropriation Bill in the Lok Sabha. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it is assented to by the President. This
act authorizes (or legalises) the payments from the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that
the government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of
the appropriation bill.
• The passing of the Appropriation Bill takes time and usually goes on till the end of April. But
the government needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31 March (the end of the financial
year). To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution under Article 116 has authorised the Lok
Sabha to make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial
year, pending the completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the
appropriation bill.
• This provision is known as the ‗vote on account‘. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion
on budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total
estimation.
• To avoid the 'vote on account' and the delay in the enactment of the Budget, the government in
2018 shifted the budget session ahead by 1 month i.e in the last week of January.

Q 78.C
• Recent Context: Blue Origin launched its massive new rocket on its first test flight recently
(January 16, 2025), sending up a prototype satellite to orbit thousands of miles above Earth. O
• Named after the first American to orbit Earth, the New Glenn rocket blasted off from Florida, soaring
C
from the same pad used to launch NASA's Mariner and Pioneer spacecraft a half-century ago. The rocket
S.

successfully sent a prototype satellite into orbit, marking a milestone in private space exploration.
• Specifications:
TE

o It is approximately 320 feet high, two stage engine rocket.

O

o The first stage is reusable, Heavy lift launch vehicle and powered by seven BE-4 engines, which
FN

are liquefied natural gas (LNG)-fuelled, oxygen-rich staged combustion engines.

o New Glenn’s second stage is powered by two BE-3U engines, which use liquid hydrogen and
D

liquid oxygen.
.P

o Reusability: Designed to be reused for a minimum of 25 flights, significantly reducing launch costs.
New Glenn is expected to challenge Falcon 9’s — also a partially reusable launch vehicle of SpaceX.
W

• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

W
W

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Q 79.B
• A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for the civilian population in the
cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006–legislation enacted by
the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defense ministry of the
Central government. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Thus, unlike the four types of urban local bodies (Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Notified Area
Committee, Town Area Committee) which are created and administered by the state government, a
cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
• The chief executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the President of India. He
implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees. He belongs to the central
cadre established for the purpose. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 80.C
• The resignation of the Council of Ministers may take place under the following circumstances:
o Automatic dissolution, that is, on the expiry of its tenure of five years.
o Whenever the President decides to dissolve the House, when:
> A No-Confidence Motion is passed by the Lok Sabha. Hence, option 1 is correct.
> Motion of Thanks i.e. the address of the President at the first session after each general
election and the first session of every fiscal year, is defeated in Lok Sabha. Hence, option 2 is
correct.
• A Money Bill gets defeated in the Lok Sabha. With regard to Money Bill, Rajya Sabha has
restricted powers and can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha can either accept or
reject. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Censure Motion is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it
is passed in Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office.

Q 81.A
• Recent Context: The Cabinet Committee on Security has approved a substantial acquisition of over Rs
10,000 crore worth of ammunition for the Indian Army’s Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher systems.
• The Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) is an indigenous artillery system developed by
the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Hence statement 3 is correct.
o It was first deployed during the Kargil War in 1999, where it effectively neutralized
enemy positions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Each launcher can fire a salvo of 12 rockets in 44 seconds, capable of covering an area of
approximately 700 m x 500 m.
o The system is mounted on a Tatra truck which increases the mobility of the system on the battlefield.
• Range: The ranges for the variants vary as below
o Pinaka Mk-I: approximately 38km
o Pinaka Mk-I Enhanced: Up to 60 km
o Pinaka Mk-II: Up to 90 km. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Future variants are being developed with ranges of 120 km and beyond.
O
Q 82.B
C
• Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at
S.

prelitigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner.
• Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Hence
TE

statement 1 is correct.
O

• According to the Supreme Court, the benefits under Lok Adalat are as follows:
FN

o There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the dispute is
settled at Lok Adalat.
D

o The basic features of Lok Adalat are the procedural flexibility and speedy trail of the disputes.
.P

There is no strict application of procedural laws like the Civil Procedure laws like the Civil Procedure
Code and the Evidence Act while assessing the claim by Lok Adalat. Hence statement 3 is correct.
W

o The Parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their counsel which is
W

not possible in regular courts of law.

W

o The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties and it has the status of a decree of a civil
court and it is non appealable, which does not cause the delay in the settlement of disputes finally.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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Q 83.B
• Recent Context: SpaceX Falcon9 launched U.S.-based Firefly Aerospace’s Blue Ghost Mission 1 and
Japan-based ispace’s RESILIENCE lunar lander. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Blue Ghost Mission:
o Firefly’s first Blue Ghost mission, named Ghost Riders in the Sky, will deliver 10 science
and technology instruments to the lunar surface as part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar
Payload Services (CLPS) initiative. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Upon launching, Blue Ghost will spend approximately 45 days in transit to the Moon,
allowing ample time to conduct health checks on each subsystem and begin payload science. Blue
Ghost will then land in Mare Crisium and operate payloads for a complete lunar day (about 14 Earth
days).
o It will provide critical data on how lunar regolith reacts to solar influences during lunar dusk
conditions.
o The data captured will also benefit humans on Earth by providing insights into how space weather
and other cosmic forces impact Earth, among other valuable research.

Q 84.A
• Recent Context: Maha Kumbh (or Poorna Kumbh) 2025 is being held in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh.
o The Kumbh Mela is the world's largest peaceful gathering, drawing millions of pilgrims for a ritual
bath in holy rivers. This bath symbolises spiritual cleansing and renewal. It takes place four times
every 12 years, rotating between Haridwar on the Ganges, Ujjain on the Shipra, Nashik on the
Godavari, and Prayagraj, where the Ganges, Yamuna, and Sarasvati meet.
o It was recognised by UNESCO in 2017 as an intangible cultural heritage, the Kumbh Mela
holds immense historical and cultural value. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The first written evidence of the Kumbha Mela can be found in the accounts of Chinese monk
Xuanzang (alternately Hsuan Tsang) who visited India in 629-645 CE, during the reign of King
Harshavardhana.
o Types of Kumbh Mela: The Kumbh Mela takes place in several forms:
> Maha Kumbh Mela: It is conducted every 144 years in Prayagraj (Devprayag is where
Alaknanda and Bhaghirathi meet to become one and the Ganges. It is in Uttarakhand). Hence
statement 1 is correct.
> Purna Kumbh Mela: This occurs every 12 years at each of the four places.
> Ardh Kumbh Mela: Half a Kumbh, this is also conducted in alternate intervals of six years at
Haridwar and Prayagraj.

Q 85.C
• An Electronic voting machine (EVM) is a simple electronic device used to record votes in place of
ballot papers and boxes which were used earlier in the conventional voting system. The advantages of the
EVM over the traditional ballot paper/ballot box system are as follows:
o It eliminates the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes which, in many cases, are the root causes
of controversies and election petitions. Hence option 1 is correct.
o It makes the process of counting votes much faster than the conventional system. Hence option 2 O
is correct.
C
o It reduces to a great extent the quantity of paper used thus saving a large number of trees making
S.

the process eco-friendly.

o It reduces the cost of printing (almost nil) as only one sheet of ballot paper is required for each
TE

polling station. Hence option 3 is correct.

O

Q 86.D
FN

• The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of the
Delimitation Act, 2002. It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed
D

for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country. A quota of
.P

constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State.
W

After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of the population in
W

each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population
are reserved for ST. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
W

• In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies
that have a higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in
different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread
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evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the Delimitation
exercise is undertaken.

Q 87.D
• The strength of the legislative council depends on the total strength of the legislative assembly.
The Legislative Council must not have more than a third of the total membership of the Assembly of that
state and in no case fewer than 40 members. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
• About 1/3rd of members are elected by members of the Assembly, another 1/3rd by electorates
consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state,
1/12th by an electorate consisting of teachers, and 1/12th by registered graduates.
• The remaining members are nominated by the Governor from among those who have distinguished
themselves in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Legislative
Councils are permanent Houses, and like the Rajya Sabha, one-third of their members retire every two
years.
• Apart from Andhra Pradesh (58 members), five other states have Legislative Councils: Bihar (58),
Karnataka (75), Maharashtra (78), Telangana (40), Uttar Pradesh (100). Jammu and Kashmir too had a
Council, until the state was bifurcated into the Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh. Thus, there are 6
states which have a legislative council.

Q 88.D
• Article 243-D of the constitution provides for reservation of seats in the Panchayats.
o One third of the positions in all panchayat institutions are reserved for women. Reservations for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are also provided for at all the three levels, in
proportion to their population.
o If the States find it necessary, they can also provide for reservations for the other backward
classes (OBCs).
o It is important to note that these reservations apply not merely to ordinary members in Panchayats
but also to the positions of Chairpersons or "Adhyakshas" at all the three levels. Further, reservation
of one-third of the seats for women is not merely in the general category of seats but also
within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward castes. This
means that a seat may be reserved simultaneously for a woman candidate and one belonging to the
Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes. Thus, a Sarpanch would have to be a Dalit woman or an
Adivasi woman. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 89.C
• When the five-year limit is up, or the legislature has been dissolved and new elections have been
called, the election commission puts into effect the machinery for holding an election. The constitution
states that there can be no longer than six months between the last session of the dissolved Lok Sabha and
the recalling of the new House, so elections have to be concluded before then. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The commission normally announces the schedule of elections in a major press conference a few
weeks before the formal process is set in motion. The Model code of conduct for the guidance of O
candidates and political parties comes immediately into effect after such an announcement. Hence
C
statement 2 is correct.
S.

• The Representation of people act,1951 contains provisions relating to corrupt practices and electoral
offenses of the candidates.
TE

Q 90.D
O

• The Constitution divides the taxing powers between the Centre and the states in the following ways:
FN

o The Parliament has exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the Union List.
o The state legislatures have exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the State List.
D

o Both the parliament and the State legislature can levy taxes on subjects enumerated in the
.P

Concurrent List. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

W

o The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose taxes not enumerated in any of
W

the three lists) is vested with the Parliament. Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed
gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
W

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o The Constitution also draws a distinction between the power to levy and collect a tax and the power to
appropriate the proceeds of the tax. Income tax is levied and collected by the Centre but its proceeds
are distributed between the Centre and the states.

Q 91.B
• The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of
a session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for the
prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session.
• It not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
• It does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. Under Article 107 (3) of
the Constitution, a bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
However, all pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) lapse on prorogation and
fresh notices have to be given for the next session. In Britain, prorogation brings to an end all bills or
any other business pending before the House.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 92.A
• The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives
of the union territories in the Lok Sabha.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of
the People) Act, 1965, by which the members of Lok Sabha from the union territories are also
chosen by direct election. Hence option (c) is correct.

Q 93.B
• As per Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister
at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance
with such advice.
• Usually, the members of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as ministers. A
person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister.
• A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six consecutive months
shall cease to be a minister. But, such a minister can remain as a minister for the duration of 6 months
without being a Member of Parliament (MP). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 75(2) specifically provides that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
All the ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Each minister has an
individual responsibility. The Prime Minister me call for the resignation of any ministers at any time. In
case the Minister refuses, the Prime Minister may advise the President to dismiss the Minister. Losing the
confidence of the Prime Minister leads to dismissal by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 94.D
• The members of the legislative councils are indirectly elected.
• Manner of election of the total number of members of a legislative council:
o 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, O
etc., Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
C
o One-twelfth 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,
S.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

TE

o 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary
school,
O

o 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons
FN

who are not members of the assembly, Hence, statement 3 is not correct. and
o the remainder are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have special knowledge or
D

practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
.P

o Thus, 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected and 1/6 are
nominated by the governor. The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional
W

representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Bonafide or propriety of the governor‘s
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nomination, in any case, cannot be challenged in the courts.

W

o This scheme of the composition of a legislative council as laid down in the Constitution is tentative
and not final. The Parliament is authorised to modify or replace the same. However, it has not enacted
any such law so far.

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Q 95.A
• As per Article 170, to hold direct elections to the assembly, each state is divided into territorial
constituencies. The demarcation of these constituencies is done in such a manner that the ratio
between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout
the state. In other words, the Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between
different constituencies in the state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 ceased the reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in
the Lok Sabha and State Legislative assemblies and extended reservations for SCs and STs for up
to ten years. Therefore, the President (in the case of the Lok Sabha) and the Governor (in the case of the
State Legislative Assemblies) do not need to nominate two members from the Anglo- Indian communities
to the Houses. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 96.B
• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:
o He should be a citizen of India.
> He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years.
Hence option 2 is correct.
> He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years.
Hence option 3 is correct.
> He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.
o The Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Hence option 1 is not correct.

Q 97.D
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The date of election of the
Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Though the Speaker being a member of the ruling party, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, in order to
avoid interregnum. Article 94 of the Indian Constitution states, ''Whenever the House of the People
is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the
House of the People after the dissolution.'' Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Pro-tem speaker is chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies
have been elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken place.
• The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the Lok Sabha, administers the oath of office to the
newly elected MPs, and oversees the election of the Speaker. Once the new Speaker is elected, the office
of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist. He also administers the floor test.
• Her/his Appointment: After a general election and the formation of a new government, a list of senior Lok
Sabha members prepared by the Legislative Section is submitted to the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs,
who selects a pro tem speaker. The appointment has to be approved by the President. The President
appoints a member of the newly-elected Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem immediately before its first
meeting.
O
Q 98.B
C
• Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like Delhi, Mumbai,
S.

Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore, and others. They are established in the states by the acts of the
concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of India.
TE

Hence statement 1 is correct.

O

• There may be one common act for all the municipal corporations in a state or a separate act for
each municipal corporation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
FN

• A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the standing committees, and
D

the commissioner. The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It consists of
.P

the Councillors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having knowledge
or experience of municipal administration. In brief, the composition of the Council including the
W

reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women. Hence statement 3 is correct.
W
W

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Q 99.C
• As the constitution of India provides for a Parliamentary system of government in the states, the Council
of Minister headed by the Chief Minister is the real executive authority. Various Powers and functions of
Chief Minister in relation to the council of Ministers are:
o The Governor appoints only those persons as Ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister.
o He allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among Ministers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o He can ask Minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
o He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers
o He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office. Since he is
the head of the council of ministers his death or resignation automatically dissolves the council
of ministers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 100.D
• The Rules of Business provide for the establishment of Cabinet Committees. They are of two types
Standing and ad-hoc.
• The ad-hoc committees are appointed by the prime ministers according to the exigencies and requirement.
They usually include cabinet ministers as members but non-cabinet ministers can also not debarred from
its membership. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• They take decisions on behalf of the cabinet which can be reviewed by the cabinet. Hence, their decisions
are not completely final. They are generally headed by the prime minister, and for committees in which he
is not a member other cabinet ministers can head it. Hence statement 1 not correct.

O
C
S.
TE
O
FN
D
.P
W
W

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