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Part - II
Question No.1 is compulsory.
Answer any four questions out of the remaining five questions.
Working notes should form part of the answer
All questions relate to Assessment Year 2022-23, unless stated otherwise in the question.
Question 1
M/s Kaveri Ltd., a manufacturing company, having an annual turnover of ` 6,000 lakhs, shows
a net profit of ` 850 lakhs after debit / credit of following amounts to its Statement of Profit and
Loss for the year ended 31st March, 2022:
(a) Depreciation as per Companies Act ` 65 lakhs.
(b) Employer's contribution to EPF of ` 18 lakhs together with similar amount of Employee's
contribution for the month of March, 2022 was remitted on 20th May, 2022. (The due date
for the remittance to the credit of employee's EPF account being 15th April, 2022.)
(c) GST paid includes an amount of ` 10,500 charged as penalty for delayed filing of returns
and ` 15,400 towards interest for delay in deposit of tax.
(d) An amount of ` 10 lakhs was incurred on notified skill development project u/s. 35CCD.
(e) Loss of ` 20 lakhs, on destruction of an old machinery by fire in the factory and ` 5 lakhs
received as scrap value on this machinery. The insurance company did not admit the
claim of the company on the charge of gross negligence.
(f) Dividend ` 15 lakhs received from a foreign company in which the company holds 32% of
the equity share capital of the company, ` 50,000 was also expended on earning this
income.
(g) Profit of ` 15 lakhs on sale of a building to X Ltd., a domestic company, the entire shares
of which are held by the assessee company. The building was acquired by Kaveri Ltd. on
1st December, 2020.
Additional information:
(i) Normal depreciation computed as per Income-tax Rules, 1962 is ` 92 lakhs.
(ii) During the previous year 2020-21, the company has purchased a new plant and
machinery worth ` 20 lakhs on 10th January, 2021. Balance of Additional depreciation on
this machine is not included in the depreciation computed for the previous year 2021-22.
The Suggested Answers for Paper 7: Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation are based on
the provisions of direct tax laws as amended by the Finance Act, 2021, which are relevant for
May, 2022 examination. The relevant assessment year is A.Y.2022-23.
(iii) The company had credited in the account of a sub-contractor, an amount of ` 7 lakhs on
31st March, 2021 towards repairs of factory building. The tax deducted on such payment
was remitted on 31st December, 2021.
(iv) On 15th May, 2022, M/s Kaveri Ltd. declared and distributed dividend of ` 20 lakhs.
Compute the total income and tax payable by M/s Kaveri Ltd. for the Asst. Year 2022-23
clearly stating the reasons for treatment of each item. Assume that the company has opted
for section 115BAA for the A.Y. 2022-23. (14 Marks)
Answer
Computation of Total Income of M/s Kaveri Ltd. for the A.Y. 2022-23 under section 115BAA
Particulars Amount (in `)
I. Profits and gains of business and profession
Net profit as per Statement of profit and loss 8,50,00,000
Add: Items debited but to be considered
separately or to be disallowed
(a) Depreciation as per Companies Act 65,00,000
(b) Employees’ contribution to EPF 18,00,000
[Since employees’ contribution to EPF has not
been deposited on or before the due date under
the PF Act, the same is not allowable as
deduction as per section 36(1)(va) read with
Explanations 1 and 2 thereto. Since the same
has been debited to Statement of profit and loss,
it has to be added back for computing business
income].
(c) Employer’s contribution to EPF Nil
[As per section 43B, employers’ contribution to
EPF is allowable as deduction since the same
has been deposited on or before the due date of
filing of return under section 139(1). Since the
same has been debited to Statement of profit
and loss, no further adjustment is necessary]
(d) Penalty for delayed filing of GST return 10,500
[Penalty imposed for delay in filing GST return is
not deductible since it is on account of infraction
of the law requiring filing of the return within the
10(23FCA).
However, the component of such rental income
distributed to unitholders is deemed as income of
the unit holders as per section 115UA(3).
Accordingly, ` 1.75 crores, being 70% of ` 2.5
crores would be taxable in the hands of Mr. Vijay.
Total income 1,10,00,000 10,85,00,000
Particulars ` `
Computation of tax payable
In the hands of REIT (M/s Buildwell)
Tax on total income of ` 1,10,00,000 @ 42.744% 47,01,840
[Maximum marginal rate – 30% + surcharge@37% +
cess@4%]
In the hands of the unitholder, Mr. Vijay who has
opted for section 115BAC
Upto ` 2,50,000 Nil
` 2,50,001 – ` 5,00,000 @5% 12,500
` 5,00,001 – ` 7,50,000 @10% 25,000
` 7,50,001 – ` 10,00,000 @15% 37,500
` 10,00,001 – `12,50,000 @20% 50,000
` 12,50,001 – `15,00,000 @25% 62,500
` 15,00,001 – ` 10,85,00,000 @30% 3,21,00,000
3,22,87,500
Add: Surcharge@37% since total income exceeds ` 5
crores 1,19,46,375
4,42,33,875
Add: Health and education cess@4% 17,69,355
Tax payable 4,60,03,230
Notes:
(i) It has been assumed that 100% of income received by the REIT is distributed to its
unitholders.
(ii) Since question specifically contains a note at the end to ignore TDS implications,
tax payable is computed without deducting the amount of tax deducted at source.
Particulars `
Income from delivery of goods by Mr. Lal Singh, an agent of BnB 2,00,00,000
As per section 9(1)(i), business profits of a foreign company would be
deemed to accrue or arise in India, if such income accrues or arises
through or from any business connection in India. In case of BnB,
business connection is established, since Mr. Lal Singh acting on its
behalf habitually maintains in India a stock of goods or merchandise
from which he regularly delivers goods or merchandise on its behalf.
Therefore, such income is taxable in the hands of BnB.
Fee for technical services (FTS) 61,00,000
FTS would be taxable in the hands of a foreign company, since the
FTS has been received in India. Assuming that the Agreement has
been approved by the Central Govt., as per section 115A, such FTS
would be taxable in the hands of BnB without deducting expenditure
on earning such income. Accordingly, ` 61 lakhs would be taxable.
Long-term capital gains from sale of unlisted debentures of White 14,00,000
Ltd. an Indian company, would be taxable in the hands of BnB, since
it arises from the capital asset situated in India.
Total Income 2,75,00,000
previous year 2022-23 and claimed that since the donor gave the donation with a
specific direction that it is towards the corpus of the trust, it is exempt from tax
under section 11(1)(d). Further, during the year, the trust took a loan of ` 20 lakhs
from a nationalized bank and out of it, applied ` 18 lakhs on the construction of its
building. The trust claimed ` 18 lakhs as application for charitable purposes during
the year.
(ii) Smile Foundations is a 'not for profit' trust that runs a secondary school. The total
receipts consisting of voluntary contributions and the government grants of the trust
during the previous year 2021-22 amounted to ` 30 lakhs (` 14 lakhs and 16 lakhs
respectively). Is the trust required to get an approval to claim exemption under
section 10(23C)?
(iii) Mani Foundations is a charitable trust registered under section 12AB. On
31.07.2021, it gets an approval under section 10(23C) also. The trust intends to
know whether it can enjoy the benefits of both the sections that is, section 11 and
section 10(23C).
(iv) Little Angels is a charitable institution registered under section 12AA. To continue
claiming the benefits of the exemption provisions contained in sections 11 & 12 for
the assessment year 2022-23, it wants to apply for re-registration under section
12AB. What would be the effective date for making the application for re-registration
under section 12AB?
The trust wants to confirm whether the registration granted under section 12AB has
the same perpetual validity as granted under section 12AA. (8 Marks)
(b) Mr. Chetan, an Indian citizen aged 51 years, left India on 1st April 2018 to settle in
Country Y. But owing to some personal unavoidable circumstances, he returned back to
India permanently on 1st June 2021.
He has a residential property in Country Y from which he earned an income of $ 25,000
for the year ended 31st March 2022. He is eligible for basic exemption limit of $ 8,000 and
on balance income, he paid income tax @20% in Country Y. The tax was paid on
10th May 2022 from his bank account in India.
His income from business in India is ` 5,00,000 for the year ended on 31st March 2022.
He also received dividend amounting to ` 1,25,000 from an Indian company and interest
of ` 11,500 on saving bank account with SBI, during the year.
The exchange rates of 1 $ on various dates is given below:
1.04.2021 - ` 74; 31.03.2022, ` 75; 10.05.2022 - ` 75.5;
Compute the net tax liability of Mr. Chetan in India for the assessment year 2022-23 on
the assumption that there is no DTAA between India and Country Y.
Assume that the assessee does not opt for the provisions of Section 115BAC. (6 Marks)
Answer
(a) (i) Corpus donations of ` 5 lakhs would be exempt from tax only if they are received
with a specific direction that they shall form part of the corpus and are invested in
any of the modes specified under section 11(5).
If the same is not so invested, then, it would not be exempt under section 11(1)(d)
for P.Y.2021-22.
Application for charitable purposes from a loan or borrowing shall not be treated as
application of income for charitable purposes. Accordingly, ` 18 lakhs applied by
the trust out of loan of ` 20 lakhs taken from a nationalised bank cannot be claimed
as application for charitable purposes. However, the same can be claimed as
application at the time of repayment of loan to the extent of repayment in the
relevant previous year.
Therefore, both the claims of Raj Charitable trust are not correct.
(ii) Smile foundations is an education institution existing solely for educational purposes
and not for the purposes of profit.
It is substantially financed by the Government, since government grants of `16
lakhs constitute 53.33% of its total receipts of ` 30 lakhs (`14 lakhs voluntary
contributions + ` 16 lakhs government grants), which is more than 50% of its total
receipts.
The income of the institution is exempt u/s 10(23C)(iiiab).
Hence, it is not required to get the approval of prescribed authority for claiming
exemption under section 10(23C).
(iii) No, the trust cannot enjoy the benefits under both section 11 and 10(23C).
The registration granted to Mani Foundations under section 12AB for availing
exemption under section 11 would become inoperative from 31.7.2021, being the
date on which it is approved under section 10(23C).
The trust, whose registration has become inoperative, may apply to get its
registration operative under section 12AB subject to the condition that on doing so,
the approval under section 10(23C) to such trust shall cease to have any effect from
the date on which the said registration becomes operative.
(iv) The effective date of making the application for re-registration under section 12AB is
30.6.2021, being three months from 1st April, 2021. CBDT has, vide Circular
No.16/2021 dated 29.8.2021, extended the date upto 31.3.2022.
No, the registration granted under section 12AB would be valid only for 5 years and
not perpetually, as in the case of registration granted under section 12AA.
(b) Mr. Chetan is a resident in India for A.Y.2022-23, since his stay in India in the
P.Y.2021-22 is for 304 days which exceeds the minimum required stay of 182 days in that
previous year. Also, his stay in India is for 1461 days (i.e., 365 days each in P.Y.2014-15
to P.Y.2017-18 + 1 day for leap year) during the last seven years (which exceeds the
minimum specified requirement of 730 days in the immediately preceding seven years)
and he has been resident in 7 years (P.Y.2011-12 to P.Y.2017-18) out of 10 years
immediately preceding P.Y.2021-22.
Hence, he is resident and ordinarily resident in India for A.Y.2022-23. Accordingly, his
global income would be subject to tax. He would, however, be entitled for deduction
under section 91 in respect of doubly taxed income earned in Country Y.
Computation of total income of Mr. Chetan for A.Y.2022-23
Particulars ` `
Income from House Property [Residential property in
Country Y]
Annual Value2 ($ 25,000 x ` 75, exchange rate on 18,75,000
31.3.2022)
Less: Deduction under section 24 – 30% of NAV 5,62,500
13,12,500
Profits and Gains of Business or Profession
Income from business in India 5,00,000
Income from Other Sources
Dividend from Indian company [`1,25,000 x 100/90] 1,38,889
Interest on savings bank account with SBI 11,500
1,50,389
Gross Total Income 19,62,889
Less: Deduction under Chapter VIA
Under section 80TTA – Interest on savings bank 10,000
account (actual interest of ` 11,500 or ` 10,000,
whichever is lower)
Total Income 19,52,889
Total Income (rounded off) 19,52,890
2Rental Income has been taken as GAV in the absence of other information relating to fair rent, municipal
value etc.
(iv) Beta Ltd. offered one month credit to Alfa Ltd. The cost of providing such credit may
be valued at 5% of the normal gross profits. No such credit was given to Gama Ltd.
Compute the Arm's Length Price alongwith income to be adjusted under the cost plus
method. (6 Marks)
Answer
(a) (i) Mr. Rajat is a specified person as per section 194P as he is of age of 79 years,
having pension income and only interest on fixed deposit with ABC Bank. His
pension income is also received in savings bank with ABC Bank.
As per section 194P, ABC Bank (specified bank) is required to deduct tax at source
on the basis of rates in force on the total income of Mr. Rajat for A.Y. 2022-23,
computed after giving effect to -
- deduction allowable under Chapter VI-A; and
- rebate allowable under section 87A
Particulars ` `
Pension (` 55,000 x 12) 6,60,000
Less: Standard deduction u/s 16(ia) 50,000 6,10,000
Interest on fixed deposit 1,20,000
Interest on Saving bank account 75,100 1,95,100
Gross Total Income 8,05,100
Deduction u/s 80TTB [Interest on fixed deposit and 50,000
savings account, restricted to 50,000, since Mr. Rajat
is a resident Indian of the age of 79 years]
Total Income 7,55,100
Tax to be deducted by the specified bank i.e., ABC
Bank [20% x ` 2,55,100 (` 7,55,100 – ` 5,00,000) +
` 10,000 (being 5% of ` 2,00,000)] plus HEC@4% 63,461
(ii) Mr. John, a resident, is entering into an agreement with High and Tall Ltd., a real
estate developer, to develop a high-rise apartment complex on his land in
consideration of ` 6 crore and 6 flats in the apartment. This is a specified
agreement under section 45(5A).
As per section 194-IC, High and Tall Ltd. is required to deduct tax at source @ 10%
on ` 6 crores, being the consideration paid other than consideration in kind, under a
specified agreement to Mr. John.
Tax is to be deducted at the time of credit of such sum or payment, whichever is earlier.
Tax u/s 194-IC would be = ` 6 crore x 10% = ` 60 lakhs
(iii) M/s Varun & Co. is not required to collect tax at source on the sale of goods to
M/s Aryan Ltd., since his turnover for the P.Y. 2020-21 does not exceed ` 10 crores.
Since turnover of M/s Aryan Ltd. for the P.Y. 2020-21 exceeds ` 10 crores and the
aggregate value of purchases from M/s Varun & Co. exceeds ` 50 lakhs, M/s Aryan
Ltd. is required to deduct tax at source u/s 194Q@0.1% of such sum exceeding
` 50 lakhs. However, the provisions of section 194Q are applicable with effect from
1.7.2021.
In case of purchase return, if the money is refunded by the seller, then, this tax
deducted on purchase return would be adjusted against the next purchase from the
same seller.
Applicability of TDS on purchases from M/s Varun & Co
25.05.2021 ` 30 lakhs Not required to deduct tax at source
28.06.2021 ` 25 lakhs Aggregate value of purchase exceeds ` 50 lakhs
but still M/s Aryan Ltd. is not required to deduct tax
at source u/s 194Q as the provisions of section
194Q are effective only from 1.7.2021
10.12.2021 ` 20 lakhs TDS = ` 2,000 [0.1% x ` 20 lakhs]
20.02.2022 ` 10 lakhs TDS = ` 500 [` 1,000, being 0.1% x ` 10 lakhs –
` 500, being the TDS on purchase return of ` 5
lakhs]
(i) Mr. X filed his return of income for A.Y. 2022-23 by declaring a total income of ` 10
lakhs. His case was selected for scrutiny assessment and an addition of ` 4 lakhs
was made by the Assessing Officer on account of disallowances of certain
expenses. During the course of the assessment proceedings, Mr. X found that he
erroneously failed to claim the set-off of brought forward losses under section 72
amounting to ` 3 lakhs, which he was otherwise entitled to. By the time the error
was discovered by Mr. X, the time-limit for filling revised return had also expired.
Hence, during the course of the proceedings, Mr. X approached the Assessing
Officer to allow the set-off of the brought forward losses which was erroneously not
claimed in the return of income filed under section 139(1). Whether the Assessing
Officer is bound to accept the request of Mr. X?
OR
On 14.10.2021, a search under section 132 of Income-tax Act, 1961 was conducted
in the premises of Mr. Sahir, a resident individual. On verification of bank account of
the assessee, a sum of ` 20 crores was found to have been credited in the bank
account of the assessee. The Assessing Officer added such sum as unexplained
cash credit under section 68. On appeal, the assessee declared that the sum was
received from Mr. Shekhar, one of his close friends. Mr. Shekhar agreed to have
transferred such sum to the account of the assessee. However, the Assessing
Officer is of the view that since Mr. Shekhar is unable to explain the source of this
sum, it should be treated as unexplained cash credit in the hands of the assessee.
Whether the claim of the Assessing Officer is justified?
(ii) On 1st May, 2020, D. Venkatswami, a resident individual, received 1,000 bonus
shares from ABC Pvt. Ltd. in which he held 1,000 equity shares. The Assessing
Officer held that since the assessee has not paid any consideration for bonus
shares, he was under an obligation in law to offer the market value as income from
other sources under section 56(2)(vii)(c) of the Act. The Assessing Officer computed
the fair value of these bonus shares and added the amount to the income of D.
Venkatswami as “Income from other sources”.
Whether the decision of the Assessing Officer is correct in law? (4 x 2 = 8 Marks)
(b) Sun Ltd., an Indian company, is engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of
carpets. To expand its international sales, it hired the services of a London based
company, Shine Inc., for online advertisements. Shine Inc. has no permanent
establishment in India. During the previous year 2021-22, Sun Ltd. paid ` 5 lakh to Shine
Inc. for such services and deducted the equalization levy on 15.03.2022 and credited it to
the account of Central Government on 15.04.2022.
You are required to -
(i) Compute interest leviable to Sun Ltd. on the delayed payment of equalization levy.
(ii) What are the circumstances under which penalty cannot be imposed?
(iii) Sun Ltd. is aggrieved by the order imposing penalty. What is the time limit for filing of
appeal against the order of the Assessing Officer imposing the penalty? (6 Marks)
Answer
(a) (i) [First Alternative]
Issue Involved: The issue under consideration is whether the Assessing Officer is
bound to allow the set-off of brought forward losses under section 72 even if the
assessee, Mr. X, in this case, has not claimed the same in the return filed by him
and the time limit for filing revised return has expired.
Provision Applicable: Under section 72, business losses shall be carried forward
and shall be set-off against the profits and gains of any business in the next
assessment year. It is assumed that the assessee has filed the Return of income
within the time stipulated u/s 139(1) and hence is eligible for set off of the
unabsorbed loss in the subsequent year.
The wording used in section 72 is “shall”, indicating that the provisions relating to
set off of brought forward business loss are mandatory provided the loss was
determined in pursuance of a return filed under section 139(3) in any earlier
previous year.
Analysis: As per CBDT Circular No.14 (XL-35) of 1955 dated 11.04.1955, it is the
duty of the Assessing Officer to assist a taxpayer in every reasonable way,
particularly in the matter of claiming and securing reliefs and in this regard, they
should take the initiative in guiding a taxpayer where proceedings or other
particulars before them indicate that some refund or relief is due to him.
Thus, it is the duty of the Assessing Officer to apply the relevant provisions of the
Act for the purpose of determining the true figure of Mr. X’s total income and
consequential tax liability. Merely because Mr. X has not claimed the set-off of
brought forward losses of ` 3 lakh in the original return filed and the time limit for
filing revised return has expired, it cannot relieve the Assessing Officer of his duty to
apply section 72 in the appropriate case.
Conclusion: The Assessing Officer is bound to accept the request of Mr. X and
allow the set-off of brought forward losses of ` 3 lakh under section 72, even if
Mr. X has not claimed the same in the return filed, and the time limit for filing the
revised return has expired.
Note – This facts given in the question are similar to the facts in CIT v. Mahalakshmi
Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. (1986) 160 ITR 920, wherein the above issue came up before
the Supreme Court. The above answer is based on the rationale of the Supreme
Court ruling in that case, taking note of the CBDT Circular No.14 (XL-35) of 1955
dated 11.04.1955.
[Second Alternative]
Issue Involved: The issue involved in this case is whether, for cash credit to be
genuine, is the assessee required to explain the source of sum in the hands of the
lender also.
Provision applicable: Section 68 brings to tax any sum found credited in the books
of an assessee, where the assessee does not offer explanation about the nature
and source thereof or the explanation offered by him is not found satisfactory by the
Assessing Officer.
Analysis: For cash credits to be genuine, Mr. Sahir has to prove the identity of the
creditor, Mr. Shekhar, in this case, the capacity of the creditor to advance money
and finally, the genuineness of the transaction.
Mere confirmation from Mr. Shekhar will not suffice.
Conclusion: Accordingly, the action of the Assessing Officer in bringing to tax
unexplained cash credit in the hands of Mr. Sahir is correct, since his friend Mr. Shekhar,
from whom he had received ` 20 crores which was found credited to his (Mr. Sahir’s)
bank account, is unable to explain the source of this sum in his hands.
Note - The facts given in the question are similar to the facts in CIT v. Sadiq Sheikh
(2020) 429 ITR 163, wherein the above issue came up before the Bombay High Court.
The above answer is based on the rationale of the Bombay High Court in that case.
(ii) Issue Involved: The issue under consideration is whether bonus shares received
by shareholders would be taxable under the head ‘Income from other sources’ as
per the provisions of section 56(2)(x), as they are received without consideration.
Provision Applicable: Section 56(2)(x) brings to tax any sum of money or value of
property received by any person without consideration or for inadequate
consideration from any person.
Analysis: When a shareholder gets bonus shares, the value of the original shares
held by him goes down and the market value as well as intrinsic value of the two
shares put together will be the same or nearly the same as the value of original
share before the issue of bonus shares.
Thus, any profit derived by the assessee shareholder on account of receipt of bonus
shares is adjusted by depreciation in the value of equity shares originally held by him.
Conclusion: Accordingly, the action of the Assessing Officer in including the fair
value of bonus shares as Income from other sources of D. Venkatswami is incorrect.
Note – The facts given in the question are similar to the facts in PCIT v. Dr. Ranjan
Pai (2021) 431 ITR 250, wherein the issue came up before the Karnataka High
Court. The above answer is based on the rationale of the Karnataka High Court in
the said case.
income of Mrs. D (upto ` 5 lakhs) and claim expenditure in the books of the
company without provision of any professional service by Mrs. D to the company.
(4 Marks)
(b) In respect of insolvency proceedings initiated against D Ltd., Mr. Prateek was appointed·
as "Official Assignee", You are required to advise him as to whether he will be treated as
Representative Assessee in this regard and what will be his status and his liability with
respect to other procedures under the Income-tax Act, 1961. (4 Marks)
(c) What is meant by Digital economy? What are the taxation issues in E-Commerce? List
out the OECD recommendations under Action Plan 1 which deals with the digital
economy. (6 Marks)
Answer
(a)
Answer Reason
(i) Tax planning Depositing money in Sukanya Samriddhi Account of his
daughter for claiming deduction under section 80C to reduce
total income from ` 5,05,000 to ` 4,95,000 in order to avail
rebate under section 87A, which consequently reduces his
tax liability to ‘Nil’, is a permitted tax planning measure under
the provisions of income-tax law.
(ii) Tax management Obtaining declaration from customers in Form No. 60 by the
company is in the nature of compliance of statutory
obligation under the Income-tax Law.
(iii) Tax evasion A refrigerator fitted at the residence of a partner and shown
as being installed in the office of the firm for claiming
depreciation would tantamount to furnishing of false
particulars with an attempt to evade tax.
(iv) Tax evasion Payment of ` 4 lakhs to Mrs. D (wife of Director Mr. D) without
provision of any professional services, to increase her total
income upto ` 5 lakhs and to correspondingly reduce the
company’s total income is a method of reducing the tax
liability of the company by recording a fictitious transaction.
The company is liable to tax at a flat rate of 30%/25%/22%, as
the case may be, whereas Mrs. D would not be liable to pay
any tax, since her total income does not exceed
` 5,00,000, consequent to which she would be eligible for tax
rebate of ` 12,500 under section 87A. Reducing tax liability
by recording a fictitious transaction would tantamount to tax
evasion.
(b) CBDT Circular No. 4/2019, dated 28.1.2019 has clarified that since Official Assignee
does not receive the income or manage the property on behalf of the debtor, he cannot
be considered as a 'Representative Assessee' of the debtor under the Act while
computing the tax-liability arising from the estate of the debtor. Therefore, Mr. Prateek
appointed as “Official Assignee” in respect of insolvency proceedings initiated against D
Ltd. will not be treated as representative assessee.
As property of the insolvent is vested with the Official Assignees as per specific
provisions of the Act/Law regulating functioning of the Official Assignees, they have to be
treated as a 'juristic entity' for purposes of the Income-tax Act.
For purpose of discharge of tax-liability under the Act, the status of Official Assignee is
that of an 'artificial juridical person' as prescribed in section 2(31)(vii), not being one of
the 'persons' falling in section 2(31)(i) to (vi).
Therefore, Official Assignee is required to file income-tax return electronically in the ITR
Form applicable to 'artificial juridical person' separately for each of the estate of the
insolvent, D Ltd., in this case, and the income shall be taxed as per the rates applicable
in a particular year to an 'artificial juridical person'.
In view of the above position, Official Assignees would have to obtain a separate PAN for
each of the estate of the insolvent.
(c) In digital economy transactions like sale, purchase, payment, rendering services are
performed through digital or virtual mode. In the digital domain, business do not actually
occur in any physical location but instead takes place in "cyberspace."
Taxation issues in e-commerce
The typical taxation issues relating to e-commerce are:
(i) the difficulty in characterizing the nature of payment and establishing a nexus or link
between taxable transaction, activity and a taxing jurisdiction,
(ii) the difficulty of locating the transaction, activity and identifying the taxpayer for
income tax purposes.
The following are OECD recommendations under Action Plan 1 dealing with digital economy:
(1) Modifying the existing permanent establishment rule to provide for whether an
enterprise engaged in fully de-materialized digital activities would constitute a PE, if
it maintained a significant digital presence in another country's economy.
(2) a virtual fixed place of business in the concept of permanent establishments
i.e., creation of a PE when the enterprise maintains a website on a server of another
enterprise located in a jurisdiction and carries on business through that website.
(3) Imposition of a final withholding tax on certain payments for digital goods or
services provided by a foreign e-commerce provider or imposition of equalisation
levy on consideration for certain digital transactions received by a non-resident from
a resident or from a non-resident having permanent establishment in other
contracting state.