CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following metals is/are in liquid state below 30C?

i. Mercury ii. Gallium iii. Rubidium iv. Cesium
(A) i only
(B) i and ii
(C) i and iii
(D) i, ii and iv

2. The names “Chalcogens” and “Pnictogens” represent

(A) Group 14 and Group 15 elements respectively

(B) Group 16 and Group 15 elements respectively
(C) Group 15 and Group 14 elements respectively
(D) Group 15 and Group 16 elements respectively

3. The name ‘coinage metals’ denotes which of the following group of metals?

(A) Cu and Fe
(B) Cu and Ag
(C) Cu, Ag and Fe
(D) Cu, Ag and Au

4. The only radioactive element in the lanthanide series is

(A) Lanthanum
(B) Promethium
(C) Gadolinium
(D) Samarium

5. Among the fluorides of alkali metals, the lowest solubility of

LiF in water is due to the

(A) ionic nature of lithium fluoride

(B) high lattice enthalpy
(C) high hydration enthalpy for lithium ion
(D) low ionisation enthalpy of lithium atom
6. Which of the following properties are the special characteristics of alkali metals?

(i) High boiling point

(ii) High negative standard electrode potential
(iii High density
)
(iv) Large atomic size

(A) i and ii
(B) i and iv
(C) ii and iv
(D) iii and ii

7. Which of the following compounds are readily soluble in water?

(i) BeSO4 (ii) MgSO4 (iii) BaSO4 (iv) SrSO4

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

8. Find the correct formula of halides of alkaline earth metals from the following.

(i) BaCl2.2H2O
(ii) BaCl2.4H2O
(iii CaCl2.6H2O
)
(iv) SrCl2.4H2O

(A) (ii) and (iii)

(B) (iv) and (ii)
(C) (iv) and (i)
(D) (i) and (iii)

9. Match the correct pairs:

Elements Properties
(i) Li (a) Insoluble sulphate
(ii) Na (b) Strongest monoacidic base
(iii) Ca (c) Most negative E– value among alkali metals
(iv) Ba (d) Insoluble oxalate

(A) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a)

(B) (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a)
(C) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(D) (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
10. Match the following pairs.
Elements Colour they impart to the flame
(i) Cs (a) Apple green
(ii) Ca (b) Brick red
(iii) Sr (c) Crimson red
(iv) Ba (d) Blue

(A) (i) - (c); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (b)

(B) (i) - (a); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)
(C) (i) - (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (c)
(D) (i) - (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)

11. A dehydrating agent commonly used in the laboratory is

(A) MgCO3
(B) CaF2
(C) CaCl2
(D) MgF

12. The correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides is

(A) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO

(B) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(C) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(D) MgO < K2O < Na2O < Al2O3

13. Which alkali metal does possess the highest ionization potential?

(A) Na
(B) Li
(C) Rb
(D) Cs

14. Alkali and alkaline earth metals exhibit coloured flame when heated over burner,
which is due to

(A) smaller electronegativity of alkali metals

(B) smaller ionic radius of these metals
(C) de-excitation of electrons from higher energy levels to lower energy level
(D) excitation of electrons from low energy levels to higher energy levels
15. Sodium is not observed in +2 oxidation state because of its

(A) high first ionization potential

(B) high second ionization potential
(C) high ionic radius
(D) high electronegativity

16. The oxides of beryllium are

(A) acidic
(B) basic
(C) neutral
(D) amphoteric

17. Sodium metal is kept under

(A) water
(B) alcohol
(C) kerosene
(D) benzene

18. Aluminium is more reactive but less easily corroded than iron, because

(A) aluminium is noble metal

(B) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer
(C) iron undergoes reaction easily with water
(D) iron forms mono and divalent ions

19. Inorganic benzene is

(A) B2H6
(B) B3N3H6
(C) B3O3H6
(D) P3N3H6

20. Reaction of PCl3 and PhMgBr would give

(A) Bromobanzene
(B) Chlorobenzene
(C) Triphenylphosphine
(D) Dichlorobenzene
21. Percentage of Au in 20 carat gold ornaments is

(A) 91.6%
(B) 83.3%
(C) 85.4%
(D) 87.5%

22. Which of the following is used in dry cell?

(A) KMnO4
(B) MnO2
(C) K2Cr2O7
(D) K2MnO2

23. The alloy used to fill dental cavities is

(A) Sodium amalgam

(B) Zinc chloride
(C) Mercury
(D) Mercury amalgam

24. The catalyst used in the Haber process for the manufacture of NH3 is

(A) Pt
(B) Fe + Mo
(C) CuO
(D) Al2O3

25. Predict the group of elements which has completely filled d-orbitals

(A) Ag, Pd, Pt

(B) Zn, Hg, Ir
(C) Ag, Au, Pt
(D) Pd, Au, Ag

26. Which of the following has highest value of their second ionization enthalpy?
(Atomic number of V, Cr, Mn and Fe are 23, 24, 25 and 26 respectively)

(A) V
(B) Cr
(C) Mn
(D) Fe
27. Which among the following is due to the lanthanide contraction?

(A) Zn and Zr have same oxidation state

(B) Zr and Hf have same covalent and ionic radius
(C) Zr and Nb have same oxidation state
(D) Zr and Yb have same covalent and ionic radius

2
28. Which group of ions have d configuration?

(A) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+

(B) Ti1+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
(C) Ti4+, V3+, Cr2+, Mn3+
(D) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+

29. What is the atomic number of the element with the electronic configuration [Kr] 4d 10?

(A) 46
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 45

30. [Co(NH3)6]3+ ion is :

(A) Paramagentic
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Square planar
(D) Trigonalbipyramidal

31. The type of isomerism shown by [Co(en)2(NCS)2]Cl and [Co(en)2(NCS)Cl]NCS is

(A) Coordination
(B) Ionization
(C) Linkage
(D) All of the above

32. Diethylene triamine is an example of

(A) Monodentate ligand

(B) Bidentate ligand
(C) Tridentate ligand
(D) Hexadentate ligand
33. Number of possible optical isomers in [Co(en)2Cl2]+ is

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6

34. Which one of the following is true according to the postulates of Werner’s theory for
coordination compounds?

(A) Primary valencies are ionizable

(B) Secondary valencies are ionizable
(C) Only primary valencies are non-ionizable
(D) Primary and secondary valencies are non-ionizable

35. Predict the correct order of the increasing field strength of the ligands NH3,

ethylenediamine (en), CN– and CO.

(A) CO < NH3 < en < CN–

(B) NH3 < en < CN– < CO
(C) CN– < NH3 < CO < en
(D) en < CN– < NH3 < CO

36. Among the following, which metal forms an organometallic bond

in the Grignard reaction?

(A) Sodium
(B) Titanium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Palladium

37. Zeigler-Natta catalyst is used for which type of reaction.

(A) Hydrogenation
(B) Polymerisation
(C) Oxidation
(D) Reduction
38. What is the oxidation state of chromium in Na2[CrF4O] complex?

(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) VI

2– 2–
39. The geometries of Zn(CN)4 and Ni(CN)4 are

(A) tetrahedral and square planar respectively

(B) tetrahedral and tetrahedral respectively
(C) square planar and tetrahedral respectively
(D) square planar and square planar respectively

40. In which of the following reaction, Wilkinson’s catalyst is used?

(A) Polymerisation
(B) Condensation
(C) Halogenation
(D) Hydrogenation

41. Which one of the following halides is soluble in water?

(A) AgF
(B) AgCl
(C) AgBr
(D) AgI

42. The metal whose salts do not give the borax bead test is

(A) Cr
(B) Pb
(C) Ni
(D) Mn

43. Formation of a rose-red precipitate, when a slightly alkaline solution of an inorganic

salt is treated with dimethylglyoxime, confirms the presence of

(A) Fe
(B) Co
(C) Ni
(D) Zn
44. An example for interfering radical is

(A) Phosphate
(B) Sulphate
(C) Sulphide
(D) Nitride

45. Which of the following pairs of ions are not precipitated while
adding acidic solution of H2S?

(A) Cu2+, Cd2+

(B) Bi3+, As3+
(C) Sb3+, Sn4+
(D) Hg2+, Ni2+

46. Nitric acid is generally not used for preparation of original solution in analysis of
basic radicals, because

(A) it is a strong oxidising agent

(B) it is a reducing agent
(C) it forms insoluble nitrates
(D) nitrate ions cause interference with the scheme of analysis

47. CFSE of a cobalt(III) octahedral complex is

(A) Dq
(B) Dq + 3 P
(C) Dq + 2 P
(D) Dq + 2 P

48. The d orbital splitting in a square planar field is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. The metal present in hemocyanin is

(A) Fe
(B) Cu
(C) Fe and Zn
(D) Mo

50. A nickel complex is red in colour and is diamagnetic. The structure of the complex is

(A) octahedral
(B) tetrahedral
(C) square pyramidal
(D) square planar

51. IUPAC name of the following compound

(A) N-Ethyl-N-methylcyclopropanamide
(B) N-Ethyl-N-methylcyclopropanecarboxamide
(C) N-methyl-N-ethylcyclopropanamide
(D) N-cyclopropanoyl-N-methylethanamine

52. Alkanamines have the general formula

(A) Cn H2n–1 N
(B) Cn H2n+1 N
(C) Cn H2n+3 N
(D) Cn H2n–3 N

53. Index of hydrogen deficiency for C6N4 is

(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 4
54. Steam distillation is applicable for the separation and purification of organic
compounds which

(i) are insoluble in H2O

(ii) are volatile in steam
(iii) possess a high vapour pressure at 373 K
(iv) contain non-volatile impurities

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible

(A) C2H6O
(B) C2H4O2
(C) C2H5Cl
(D) C2H3N

56. The principle involved in paper chromatography is

(A) Adsorption
(B) Differential solubility
(C) Partition
(D) Size exclusion

57. The correct stability order of the following cations

(I) (II) (III)

(A) (II) > (I) > (III)

(B) (II) > (III) > (I)
(C) (III) > (I) > (II)
(D) (I) > (II) > (III)

58. The state of hybridization of C1 and C3 in CH2=C=CH-CN

(A) sp and sp2

(B) sp2 and sp
(C) Both sp2
(D) Both sp
59. Among the following, strongest Hydrogen bonds are present in

(A) CH3CO2H
(B) CH3CH2NH2
(C) CH3CH2OH
(D) CH3CH2SH

60. Which of the following free radicals is most stable?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

61. Cyclopentadienyl anion is

(A) anti-aromatic
(B) aromatic
(C) non-aromatic
(D) homoaromatic

62. Higher stability of but-2-ene over but-1-ene is attributable to

(A) Inductive effect

(B) -delocalization
(C) Steric effect
(D) Hyperconjugative effect

63. Hunsdiecker reaction proceeds by …………… mechanism.

(A) Carbocation
(B) Carbanion
(C) Free radical
(D) Nitrene
64. The compound/s which shows tautomerism is/are

CH3COCH3 NH2CONH2 NH2CSNH2

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) (I) only

(B) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
(C) (IV) only
(D) (II) and (III)

65. The most stable conformer of ethylene glycol (HO-CH2-CH2OH)

(A) Gauche
(B) Staggered
(C) Anti
(D) Eclipsed

66. Number of π-electrons in cyclobutadienyl anion

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6

67. Which among the following reactions proceeds through a radical intermediate?

(A) CH3-CH=CH2 + HBr CH3-CH(Br)CH3

(B) CH3-CH=CH2 + HBr CH3-CH2-CH2Br
(C) CH3-CH=CH2 + Br2 CH3-CH(Br)CH2(Br)
(D) CH3-CH=O + HCN CH3CH(OH)CN

68. Which of the following statements is not true for SN1 substitution reaction?

(A) The rate of reaction does not depend on the molar concentration of
the nucleophile
(B) Is accelerated by nonpolar solvents
(C) The rate of reaction is altered by the addition of electrolyte
(D) E1 elimination completes with SN1 substitution
69. Which compound would give 5-oxo-4-methylhexanal upon ozonolysis?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

70. Which among the following compounds does not show geometrical isomerism?

(A) 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene
(B) 1,2-dibromopropene
(C) 2,3-dibromobut-2-ene
(D) 3-methylpent-2-ene

71. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

72. The number of possible stereoisomers for a compound of the structural formula
CH3-CH=CH-CH(OH)-CH3 is

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
73. The correct statement about compounds A and B are

(A) A and B are identical

(B) A and B are enantiomers
(C) A and B diastereomers
(D) None of the above

74. Major product X formed in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
75. The stable product (X) formed in the following reaction

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

76. Major carbene intermediate (X) formed in the following reaction

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

77. Consider the following reaction

The structure of C3H6Cl2

(A) 1,1-dichloropropane
(B) 2,2-dichloropropane
(C) 1,2-dichloropropane
(D) 1,3-dichloropropane
78. The IUPAC name of the major product X formed in the following reaction when the
two reagents are taken in a 1:1 molar ratio is:

(A) ethoxy-2-bromoethane
(B) ethoxy-2-chloroethane
(C) 2-chloroethoxyethane
(D) 1-chloroethoxyethane

79. How many monohalogenated hydrocarbons, including stereoisomers are possible

when 2-methylbutane is chlorinated?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

80. Choose the correct set of products formed in the following reaction

(A) All five products

(B) (I), (II), (IV), (V)
(C) (I) only
(D) (I) and (IV)

81. The product (X) of the following deamination reaction via Hofmann exhaustive
methylation is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
82. Which path is most suitable for the preparation of 4-bromonitrobenzene?

(A) (I)
(B) (II)
(C) Either (I) or (II)
(D) Neither (I) nor (II)

83. Major product/products formed when ethanol is heated with bleaching powder
followed by acidification is/are

(A) CHCl3 and formic acid

(B) CH3CHO
(C) CH3CO2H
(D) ClCH2CH2OH

84. Product Y obtained in the following reaction sequence is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
85. Consider the following sequence of reactions

The final product Z is

(A) propionic acid

(B) propyne
(C) 2-ethoxypropane
(D) 1-ethoxypropane

86. Consider the following sequence of reaction

Which among the following is formed as the major product Z?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
87. Major product (X) in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
88. Major product (X) in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

89. Major product (X) formed in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
90. The number of aldol products (excluding stereoisomers) formed when a 1:1 mixture
of propanal and ethanal is treated with alkali is:

(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4

91. Major product (X) in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
92. The product (X) in the following is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

93. Major product (Z) in the following reaction sequence is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

94. The reactivity of RCOCl (I), RCOOCOR (II), RCOOR (III) and RCONH2 (IV) with
nucleophilic reagents follows the order

(A) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)

(B) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(C) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II)
(D) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
95. The strongest base among the following compounds is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
96. The final product (P) in the following reaction is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

97. Nitrobenzene can be reduced to phenylhydroxylamine (PhNHOH) using

(A) Sn/HCl
(B) (NH4)2S
(C) Pd/H2
(D) Zn/NH4Cl

98. Which of the following will form the same aldaric acid on oxidation with dil. HNO3?

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) (I), (II)

(B) (II), (III)
(C) (III), (IV)
(D) (IV), (I)
99. A tripeptide contains glycine, alanine and serine. How many different
sequences are possible?

(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 4

100. Bakelite is a condensation polymer formed from

(A) Phenol and formaldehyde

(B) Urea and formaldehyde
(C) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
(D) Melamine and formaldehyde

101. Zero-point energy of harmonic oscillator

(A)
(B) hv
(C)
zero

(D)

102. 1 eV = ……………

(A) 1.38 × 10–23 J

(B) 1.602 × 10–19 J
(C) 4.186 J
(D) 8.314 J

103. The wavelength of electromagnetic radiation of wave number 1.5 × 106 m–1

(A) 660 nm
(B) 66 nm
(C) 6.6 nm
(D) 0.66 nm
104. The mean relative speed, ʋrel, is

(A) ʋrel = 2½ ʋmean

(B) ʋrel = (2RT) ʋmean

(C) ʋrel = (½RT) ʋmean

(D) ʋrel = (log 2) ʋmean

105. Choose the correct expression.

(A) 1 A = 1 Cs–1, where A is ampere and C is coulombs

(B) 1 A = 1 Cs, where A is ampere and C is coulombs
(C) 1 A = 1 V ohm–1
(D) 1 A = 1 V s–1

106. The …………… is the variation of internal energy with volume at

constant temperature.

(A) Joule-Thomson effect

(B) isenthalpic expansion
(C) heat capacity
(D) internal pressure

107. The principal axis in benzene

(A) C3
(B) S3
(C) C2
(D) C6

108. A differential scanning calorimeter measures the

(A) Weight
(B) Temperature
(C) Heat capacity
(D) Energy transferred as heat
109. Choose the molecules belonging to the point group C2v

I. H2O
II. CH2Cl2
III. C6H5Cl
IV. NH3

(A) I, II and III

(B) IV only
(C) II and IV
(D) None of the above

110. Number of symmetry operations associated with C3v

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
111. The selection rule for anharmonic oscillator

(A) ∆v = 0
(B) ∆v = ±1, ±2, ±3…
(C) ∆v = ±1
(D) ∆v = ±½

112. a ≠ b ≠ c and γ ≠  = β = 90° belong to the class

(A) Monoclinic
(B) Cubic
(C) Orthorhombic
(D) Tetragonal

113. Which molecule belongs to asymmetric top type?

(A) O3
(B) HCN
(C) CH4
(D) NH3

114. Pick out the molecule showing both microwave and infrared spectra:
Br2, CS2, HBr, H2

(A) HBr
(B) H2
(C) Br2
(D) CS2

115. Ramachandran plot

(A) The logarithmic dependence of the molar Gibbs energy on the pressure
(B) A contour diagram of potential energy against the angles Ѱ and φ
(C) log k vs 1/T
(D) Internal energy, V vs Temp
116. Which of the following are nonlinear operators?

I. Â f(x) = SQR f(x)

II. Â f(x) = 0
III. Â f(x) = ln f(x)
IV. Â f(x) = [f(x)]–1

(A) none
(B) all
(C) II Only
(D) I, III and IV

117. Number of vibrational degrees of freedom of CO2

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0

118. Unit of g-factor

(A) dimensionless
(B) s–1
(C) oC
(D) mol–1

119. Point group of transCHCl = CHCl

(A) C2h
(B) C3v
(C) C∞v
(D) C1

120. Which one of the following molecules does not have IR active vibrations?
(A) NO
(B) H2
(C) N2O
(D) CH4
121. Pick out the spherical rotors: CH4, CH3Cl, C6H6 and HCl

(A) HCl
(B) C6H6
(C) CH4
(D) C6H6 and HCl

122. Pick out the ion possessing the high value of equivalent
conductance at infinite dilution?

(A) OH–
(B) H+
(C) Li+
(D) F–

123. The point group associated with a linear molecule

(A) C∞v and Dh

(B) Cv only
(C) C1
(D) Dh only

124. Number of one-dimensional irreducible representations

associated with C2v point group

(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 1

125. Which one of the following molecules is microwave active?

HCl, H2, CH4 and SF6

(A) HCl
(B) H2
(C) SF6
(D) CH4

126. Lowest energy electronic transition

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
127. Ionic strength of uni-univalent electrolyte is equal to
(A) zero
(B) molarity
(C) one
(D) infinity

128. X-rays are used in …………… spectroscopy.

(A) UV
(B) IR
(C) Photoelectron
(D) ESR

129. Symmetry number of methane

(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 3
(D) 0

130. Root – mean – square speed of NO2 at 25°C

(A) 515 ms–1

(B) 5.15 ms–1
(C) 0.515 ms–1
(D) 51.5 ms–1

131. Spin angular momentum of a photon

(A) 1.49 × 10–23 Js

(B) 1.49 × 10–34 Js
(C) 1.49 × 10–10 Js
(D) 1.49 × 10–2 Js

132. Pick out the Boson

(A) proton
(B) neutron
(C) deuteron
(D) electron

133. Essential symmetry of triclinic system

(A) one C3 axis

(B) none
(C) one C6 axis
(D) one C2 axis
134. Choose the Fermion(s) from the following: photons, deuterons, electrons and protons
(A) photons and deuterons
(B) electrons and protons
(C) deuterons and protons
(D) photons and electrons

135. The half-life of a second order reaction

1
(A) t½ =
k [ A]0 , where [A]0 is initial concentration
0.693
(B) t½ =
k , where [A]0 is initial concentration
(C) t½ = k, where [A]0 is initial concentration

(D) t½ = 0.693k, where [A]0 is initial concentration

136. Dispersion of liquid into a gas is called

(A) foam
(B) aerosol
(C) smoke
(D) gel
137. Choose the molecule(s) with a center of symmetry

(I) SF6
(II) CO2
(III) XeF4
(IV) H2O

(A) I, II and III

(B) IV only
(C) III and IV
(D) I and IV

138. Possible microstates for a carbon atom with the configuration 1s2 2s2 2p2

(A) 12
(B) 6
(C) 15
(D) 9

139. Unit of partition function

(A) dimensionless
(B) s–1
(C) J
(D) K–1

140. Pick out the nuclei having spin, I = 1

1
(I) H
2
(II) D
14
(III) N
19
(IV) F

(A) (II) and (III)

(B) (I) only
(C) (IV) only
(D) (I) and (IV)

141. The bond order of NO

(A) 2½
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
142. Used as sensitizer for the production of hydrogen atoms from H2

(A) Hg
(B) Ag
(C) Pb
(D) Al

143. First line in the rotational spectrum of CO is 3.842 cm–1. The rotational
constant is equal to

(A) 19.21 cm–1

(B) 0.1921 cm–1
(C) 1.921 cm–1
(D) 38.42 cm–1

144. A solution shows absorbance A = 1.0. What percentage of radiation is absorbed by

the sample?
(A) 10
(B) 50
(C) 90
(D) 100

145. The number of radial nodes of 4d atomic orbital is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

146. For the reaction A P the plot of concentration of P Vs time is linear passing
through the origin. The order of the reaction is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D)

147. A buffer is prepared by mixing 100 ml, 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa = 4.76) and 100 ml,
0.1 M sodium acetate. The pH of the solution is
(A) 4.76
(B) 7.00
(C) 3.76
(D) 5.76
148. Which of the following is not an electrokinetic phenomena?
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) Electro osmosis
(C) Streaming potential
(D) Donnan membrane equilibrium

149. Which of the following photochemical reaction has highest quantum yield?

(A) H2 – Cl2
(B) H2 – Br2
(C) H2 – I2
(D) Decomposition of ozone

150. In Raman spectroscopy …………… radiation is analyzed.

(A) transmitted
(B) emitted
(C) scattered
(D) fluorescent
 ANSWER KEY
Subject Name: 604 CHEMISTRY
SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key SI No. Key
1 D 31 B 61 B 91 A 121 C
2 B 32 C 62 D 92 B 122 B
3 D 33 A 63 C 93 D 123 A
4 B 34 A 64 B 94 B 124 C
5 B 35 B 65 A 95 D 125 A
6 C 36 C 66 C 96 D 126 B
7 A 37 B 67 B 97 D 127 B
8 D 38 C 68 B 98 B 128 C
9 B 39 A 69 D 99 A 129 B
10 D 40 D 70 A 100 A 130 A
11 C 41 A 71 D 101 A 131 B
12 B 42 B 72 B 102 B 132 C
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A 133 B
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 A 134 B
15 B 45 D 75 A 105 A 135 A
16 D 46 A 76 D 106 D 136 B
17 C 47 C 77 A 107 D 137 A
18 B 48 A 78 B 108 D 138 C
19 B 49 B 79 D 109 A 139 A
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 D 140 A
21 B 51 B 81 D 111 B 141 A
22 B 52 C 82 B 112 A 142 A
23 D 53 A 83 A 113 A 143 C
24 B 54 D 84 A 114 A 144 C
25 D 55 C 85 D 115 B 145 B
26 B 56 C 86 B 116 D 146 A
27 B 57 A 87 A 117 A 147 A
28 D 58 D 88 C 118 A 148 D
29 A 59 A 89 B 119 A 149 A
30 B 60 C 90 D 120 B 150 C