Board

ICSE 2024 EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

MATHEMATICS
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two and half hours
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown, and must be done on the same sheet as
the rest of the answer.
Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]
Mathematical tables are provided.
SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)
Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)
(i) 1 −2
𝐼𝑓 𝐴 = [−1 2] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = [ ]
0 3
Which of the following operation is possible?
(a) A–B
(b) A+B
(c) AB
(d) BA
T24 511 – SPECIMEN 1 of 12

(ii) If 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 6 = (𝑥 − 2 )(𝑥 − 3) for all values of x, then the value of k is:
(a) –5
(b) –3
(c) –2
(d) 5
(iii) A retailer purchased an item for ₹1500 from a wholesaler and sells it to a customer
at 10% profit. The sales are intra-state and the rate of GST is 10%. The amount of
GST paid by the customer:
(a) ₹15
(b) ₹30
(c) ₹150
(d) ₹165
(iv) If the roots of equation 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 are real and distinct, then value of k is:
(a) > –9
(b) > –6
(c) <6
(d) <9
(v) Which of the following is/are an Arithmetic Progression (A.P.)?
1. 1, 4, 9, 16,……….
2. √3, 2√3, 3√3, 4√3,………
3. 8, 6, 4, 2,………
(a) only 1.
(b) only 2.
(c) only 2. and 3.
(d) all 1., 2. and 3.

(vi) The table shows the values of x and y, where x is proportional to y.
x 6 12 N
y M 18 6
What are the values of M and N?

(a) M = 4, N = 9
(b) M = 9, N = 3
(c) M = 9, N = 4
(d) M = 12, N =0
(vii) 𝐴𝐷 3
In the given diagram, ∆ ABC ~ ∆ PQR and = 8. The value of AB : PQ is:
𝑃𝑆
P
A
B D CQ R
S
(a) 8:3
(b) 3:5
(c) 3:8
(d) 5:8
(viii) A right angle triangle shaped piece of hard board is rotated completely about its
hypotenuse, as shown in the diagram. The solid so formed is always:
1. a single cone
2. a double cone
Which of the statement is valid?
(a) only 1.
(b) only 2.
(c) both 1. and 2.
(d) neither 1. nor 2.

(ix) Event A: The sun will rise from east tomorrow.
Event B: It will rain on Monday.
Event C: February month has 29 days in a leap year.
Which of the above event(s) has probability equal to 1?
(a) all events A, B and C
(b) both events A and B
(c) both events B and C
(d) both events A and C
(x) The three vertices of a scalene triangle are always equidistant from a fixed point.
The point is:
(a) Orthocentre of the triangle.
(b) Incentre of the triangle.
(c) Circumcentre of the triangle.
(d) Centroid of the triangle.
(xi) In a circle with radius R, the shortest distance between two parallel tangents is equal
to∶
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 2πR
(d) πR
(xii) An observer at point E, which is at a certain distance from the lamp post AB, finds
the angle of elevation of top of lamp post from positions C, D and E as α, β and γ.
It is given that B, C, D and E are along a straight line.
Which of the following condition is satisfied?
(a) tanα > tan β A
(b) tan β < tan γ

(c) tan γ > tan α
(d) tan α < tan β 𝛼 𝛽 𝛾
B C D E

(xiii) 1. Shares of company A, paying 12%, ₹100 shares are at ₹80.
2. Shares of company B, paying 12%, ₹100 shares at ₹100.
3. Shares of company C, paying 12%, ₹100 shares are at ₹120.
Shares of which company are at premium?
(a) Company A
(b) Company B
(c) Company C
(d) Company A and C
(xiv) Which of the following equation represent a line passing through origin?
(a) 3x – 2y + 5 = 0
(b) 2x – 3y = 0
(c) x=5
(d) y = –6
(xv) For the given 25 variables: 𝒙𝟏 , 𝒙𝟐 , 𝒙𝟑 … … … … … . 𝒙𝟐𝟓

Assertion (A): To find median of the given data, the variate needs to be arranged
in ascending or descending order.
Reason (R): The median is the central most term of the arranged data.
(a) A is true, R is false
(b) A is false, R is true
(c) both A and R are true
(d) both A and R are false
Question 2
(i) Shown below is a horizontal water tank composed of a cylinder and two [4]
hemispheres. The tank is filled up to a height of 7 m. Find the surface area of the
22
tank in contact with water. Use π = .
7

(ii) In a recurring deposit account for 2 years, the total amount deposited by a person is [4]
₹ 9600. If the interest earned by him is one-twelfth of his total deposit, then find:
(a) the interest he earns.
(b) his monthly deposit.
(c) the rate of interest.
(iii) Find: [4]
(a) (sin 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2
(b) (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2
Using the above results prove the following trigonometry identity.
(sin 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2 + (cos 𝜃 + sec 𝜃)2 = 7 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝜃
Question 3
(i) If a, b and c are in continued proportion, then prove that: [4]
3𝑎2 + 5𝑎𝑏 + 7𝑏 2 𝑎
=
3 𝑏 2 + 5 𝑏𝑐 + 7𝑐 2 𝑐
(ii) In the given diagram, O is the centre of circle circumscribing the ∆ABC. [4]
CD is perpendicular to chord AB. ∠OAC=32°. Find each of the unknown angles
x, y and z.

(iii) Study the graph and answer each of the following: [5]
(a) Name the curve plotted
(b) Total number of students
(c) The median marks
(d) Number of students scoring between 50 and 80 marks

SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)
Question 4
(i) 4 −4 [3]
If 𝐴 = [ ] , find 𝐴2 . If 𝐴2 = 𝑝 𝐴, then find the value of 𝑝.
−4 4
(ii) Solve the given equation 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 2 = 0 and express your answer correct to two places [3]
of decimal.
(You may use mathematical tables for this question).
(iii) In the given diagram, ∆ABC is right angled at B. BDFE is a rectangle. [4]
AD = 6 cm, CE = 4 cm and BC = 12 cm
C
(a) prove that ∆ADF ~∆FEC 4 cm
F
E
(b) prove that ∆ADF ~∆ABC
(c) find the length of FE

A 6 cm D B
(d) find area ∆ADF : area ∆ABC
Question 5
(i) Shown below is a table illustrating the monthly income distribution of a company with [3]
100 employees.
Monthly Income
0-4 4-8 8 - 12 12 - 16 16 - 20 20 - 24
(in ₹10, 000)
Number of
55 15 06 08 12 4
employees
Using step- deviation method, find the mean monthly income of an employee.
(ii) The following bill shows the GST rate and the marked price of articles: [3]
Vidhyut Electronics
S. No. Item Marked Price Quantity Rate of GST
(a) LED TV set ₹ 12000 01 28%
(b) MP4 player ₹ 5000 01 18%
Find the total amount to be paid (including GST) for the above bill.

(iii) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and AB is a tangent to the circle at B. [4]
If ∠PQB=55o.
P
(a) find the value of the angles x, y and z.
(b) prove that RB is parallel to PQ. R

O
𝑥°
S 𝑦°
55° 𝑧°
A Q B
Question 6
(i) There are three positive numbers in a Geometric Progression (G.P.) such that: [3]
(a) their product is 3375
(b) the result of the product of first and second number added to the product of second and
third number is 750.
Find the numbers.
(ii) The table given below shows the ages of members of a society. [3]
Age (in years) Number of Members of the Society

25 – 35 05
35 – 45 32
45 – 55 69
55 - 65 80
65 – 75 61
75 - 85 13
Use graph sheet for this question.
Take 2cm = 10 years along one axis and 2cm=10 members along the other axis.
(a) Draw a histogram representing the above distribution.
(b) Hence find the modal age of the members.

(iii) A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and radius of [4]
the cylindrical part are 7 m each and the total height of the tent is 14 m. Find the:
(a) quantity of air contained inside the tent.
(b) radius of a sphere whose volume is equal to the quantity of air inside the tent.
22
Use 𝜋 =
7
Question 7
(i) The line segment joining A(2,-3) and B(-3, 2) is intercepted by the 𝑥-axis at the point M [5]
and the y axis at the point N. PQ is perpendicular to AB produced at R and meets the y- axis
at a distance of 6 units from the origin O, as shown in the diagram, at S. Find the:
(a) coordinates of M and N P

6 S
(b) coordinates of S 5
4
3
(c) slope of AB. R
B (-3, 2) 2
(d) equation of line PQ. M 1
Q -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 O 1 2 3
-1 N
-2
-3 A (2, -3)
-4
(ii) The angle of depression of two ships A and B on opposite sides of a light house of height [5]
100m are respectively 42o and 54o. The line joining the two ships passes through the foot
of the lighthouse.
(a) Find the distance between the two ships A and B.
(b) Give your final answer correct to the nearest whole number.
(Use mathematical tables for this question)

Question 8
(i) Solve the following inequation write the solution set and represent it on the real number [3]
line.
1 − 𝑥 2𝑥
3 − 2𝑥 ≥ 𝑥 + > ,𝑥 ∈ 𝑅
3 5
(ii) ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which BC = CD and EF is a tangent at A. [3]
∠CBD = 43° and ∠ADB = 62°. Find:
(a) ∠ADC
F
(b) ∠ABD
A
(c) ∠FAD
D
62°
E
43°
B C
(iii) A (a, b), B(-4, 3) and C(8,-6)are the vertices of a ∆ABC. Point D is on BC such that [4]
BD : DC is 2 : 1 and M (6, 0) is mid point of AD. Find:
(a) coordinates of point D.
(b) coordinates of point A.
(c) equation of a line passing through M and parallel to line BC.
Question 9
(i) Using componendo and dividend, find the value of x, when: [3]
𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 14
=
3𝑥 2 + 1 13
(ii) The total expense of a trip for certain number of people is ₹18000. If three more people join [3]
them, then the share of each reduces by ₹3000. Taking x to be the original number of people,
form a quadratic equation in x and solve it to find the value of x.

(iii) Using ruler and compass only construct ∠ABC = 60°, AB = 6 cm and BC = 5 cm. [4]
(a) construct the locus of points equidistant from AB and BC.
(b) construct the locus of points equidistant from A and B.
(c) Mark the point which satisfies both the conditions (a) and (b) as P.
Hence, construct a circle with centre P and passing through A and B.
Question 10
(i) Using remainder and factor theorem, factorize completely, the given polynomial: [3]
2𝑥 3 − 9𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 6
(ii) Each of the letter of the word “HOUSEWARMING”" is written on cards and put in a bag. [3]
If a card is drawn at random from the bag after shuffling, what is the probability that the
letter on the card is∶
(a) a vowel
(b) one of the letters of the word SEWING.
(c) not a letter from the word WEAR.
(iii) Use graph sheet for this question. Take 2 cm = 1 unit along the axes. [4]
(a) Plot A (1, 2), B(1, 1)and C (2, 1)
(b) Reflect A, B and C about y-axis and name them as Aʹ, Bʹ and Cʹ.
(c) Reflect A, B, C, Aʹ, Bʹ and Cʹ about x-axis and name them as Aʺ, Bʺ, Cʺ, Aʺʹ, Bʺʹ
and Cʺʹ respectively.
(d) Join A, B, C, Cʺ, Bʺ, Aʺ, Aʺʹ, Bʺʹ, Cʺʹ, Cʹ, Bʹ, Aʹ and A to form a closed figure.

MATHEMATICS
(Two hours and a half)

You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be done on the
same sheet as the rest of the answer.
Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
Mathematical tables are provided.
SECTION A (40 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Section
Question 1
(a) Find the value of a and b if x 1 and x 2 are factors of x 3 ax b . [3]
(b) In the figure given below, ABCD is a parallelogram. E is a point on AB.
CE intersects the diagonal BD at G and EF is parallel to BC.
If AE : EB = 1 : 2 find
(i) EF : AD
(ii) area of triangle BEF : area of triangle ABD [3]
D C
A B
E
57 ICSE Specimen Question Paper

(c) On a certain sum of money, the difference between the compound interest
for a year, payable half yearly, and the simple interest for a year is Rs 16.
Find the sum lent out, if the rate of interest in both cases is 8 % . [4]
Question 2
(a) Plot the points A(9,6) and B(5,9) on the graph paper. These two points are
the vertices of a figure ABCD which is symmetrical about x = 5 and y = 6.
Complete the figure on the graph. Write down the geometrical name of
the figure. [3]
(b) In the diagram given below EDC. The tangent drawn to the circle at C
makes an angle of 500 with AB produced. Find the measure of ACB. [3]
D
C
G
A B
(c) PQRS is a square piece of land of side 56 m. Two semicircular grass

covered lawns are made on two of its opposite sides as shown in the figure.
Calculate the area of the uncovered portion. [4]
S R
P Q

Question 3
4 4 2 1
(a) If A and B = find the matrix D such that
-2 6 3 -2
3A – 2B + 2D = 0 [3]
(b) A point P(a, b) is reflected in the Y-axis to P1 (-3, 1)
Write down the values of a and b.
P11 is the image of P when reflected in the X axis.
Write down the coordinates of P 11.
P111 is the image of P when reflected in the line X = 5.
Write down the coordinates of P 111. [3]
(c) Given : A { x : 3 2 x 1 9, x R} , B { x :11 3 x 2 23, x R}
where R is the set of real numbers.
(i) Represent A and B on number lines
(ii) On the number line also mark A B. [4]
Question 4
(a) Without using a trigonometric table calculate:
sin 32 tan 48 sec 72
4 5 8 [3]
cos58 cot 42 cosec18
(b) Mr. Jacob has a two years recurring deposit account in State Bank of India
and deposits Rs.1500 per month. If he receives Rs.37,875 at the time of
maturity, find the rate of interest. [3]
(c) Calculate the arithmetic mean, correct to one decimal place, for the
following frequency distribution of marks obtained in a Geometry test.
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
No of students 7 13 15 12 3
[4]
SECTION B (40 Marks)
Attempt any four questions from this Section
Question 5
2 4 3x 3 4
(a) If +2 =5 find the values of x and y. [3]
6 2 2 4 y

(b) In the diagram given below if AF = 21 cm, CE = 30 cm and FB = 7 cm.
Find the volume of the figure. [3]
C 30 cm E
21 cm F 0
A 0
7 cm
B D
(c) A man bought 200 shares each of face value Rs.10 at Rs. 12 per share. At
the end of the year, the company from which he bought the shares declares
a dividend of 15%. Calculate:
(i) the amount of money invested by the man
(ii) the amount of dividend he received
(iii) the percentage return on his outlay. [4]
Question 6
(a) Solve the following quadratic equation for x and give your answer correct
to three significant figures:
2 x2 4x 3 0 [3]
(b) An integer is chosen at random from 1 to 50. Find the probability that the
number is:
(i) divisible by 5
(ii) a perfect cube
(iii) a prime number. [3]
(c) Find x from the following equation using properties of proportion:
x 2 x 1 14( x 1)
[4]
x 2 x 1 13( x 1)
Question 7
(a) Bosco wishes to start a 200 m2 rectangular vegetable garden. Since he has
only 50 m barbed wire, he fences three sides of the rectangular garden
letting his house compound wall act as the fourth side of the fence. Find the
dimensions of the garden. [3]

(b) Construct a triangle ABC, with AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm and ABC = 60 .
Locate by construction the point P such that
(i) P is equidistant from B and C.
(ii) P is equidistant from AB and BC
(iii) Measure and record the length of PA. [3]
(c) Mr. A. Ramchander has an account with Central Bank of India. The
following entries are from his pass book:
Date Particulars Withdrawal Deposits Balance

05.01.2009 B/F 8000
20.01.2009 To self 2500
04.02.2009 By cash 9000
20.02.2009 By cash 3000
04.03.2009 To self 1000
15.04.2009 By cash 12000
Complete the above page of his passbook and calculate the interest
accumulated in four months, January to April at the rate of 3.5% per
annum. If the interest is added on 30th April, find his balance on that date. [4]
Question 8
1 1 2
(a) Prove that . [3]
sec x tan x sec x tan x cos x
(b) In the figure given below, CD is the diameter of the circle which meets the
chord AB at P such that AP = BP = 12 cm. If DP = 8 cm, find the radius
C
of the circle. [3]
A P B

(c) Prove that A(2, 1), B(0,3) and C(-2,1) are the three vertices of an
isosceles right angled triangle. Hence find the coordinates of a point D, if
ABCD is a square. [4]
Question 9
(a) A fair dice is rolled. Find the probability of getting
(i) 3 on the face of the dice
(ii) an odd number on the face of the dice
(iii) a number greater than 1 on the face of the dice. [3]
(b) A (4,2), B(6,8) and C (8,4) are the vertices of a triangle ABC. Write down
the equation of the median of the triangle through A. [3]
(c) The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point P on the ground is 60o.
After 12 seconds from the same point P, the angle of elevation of the same
plane changes to 30o. If the plane is flying horizontally at a speed of
600 3 km / h, find the height at which the plane is flying. [4]
Question 10
(a) The following table shows the distribution of the heights of a group of
students:
Height 140-145 145-150 150-155 155-160 160-165 165-170 170-175
(cm)
No of 8 12 18 22 26 10 4
students
Use a graph sheet to draw an Ogive for the distribution.

Use the Ogive to find:
(i) the inter quartile range
(ii) the number of students whose height is more than 168 cm
(iii) the number of students whose height is less than 148 cm. [6]
(b) The manufacturer sold a TV to a wholesaler for Rs.7000. The wholesaler
sold it to a trader at a profit of Rs.1000. If the trader sold it to the customer
at a profit of Rs.1500, find:
(i) the total VAT (value added tax) collected by the state
government at the rate of 5% .
(ii) the amount that the customer pays for the TV. [4]

Question 11
(a) In the diagram given below, equation of AB is x 3 y 1 0 and equation
of AC is x y 2 0
Y
A
B C
X
(i) Write down the angles that the lines AC and AB make with the
positive direction of X- axis.
(ii) Find BAC. [3]
(b) In the figure given below, O is the center of the circle. Chord CD is parallel
to the diameter AB. If ABC = 35 , calculate CED. [3]
E
O
A B
C D
(c) Construct a triangle ABC, given that AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and median

AD = 5 cm. Construct an incircle to triangle ABC and measure its radius. [4]

PHYSICS
SCIENCE Paper – 1
(7ZR hourV)
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
____________________________________________________________________
Attempt all the questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
SECTION I (40 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Section.
Question 1
(a) Derive the relation between C G S and S I unit of force. [2]
(b) Classify the following into contact and non contact forces:
1. Tension 2. Friction 3. Gravitational force 4. Magnetic force. [2]
(c) Classify the following into levers as class I, class II or class III:
1. A door 2. Catapult 3. Wheelbarrow 4. Fishing rod. [2]
(d) Where is the centre of gravity of the following objects situated?
l. Ring 2. Rhombus 3. Scalene triangle 4. Cylinder. [2]
(e) Calculate the resultant torque from the following diagram: [2]
C 80N
4m 3m
30 N
B 200 N
O
1m D
5m 50 N
20 N A
E

Question 2
(a) A uniform metre scale is in equilibrium position. Calculate the mass of the
ruler. [2]
5 cm 30 cm
0 100 cm
40 gf
(b) When a ray of light passes from air to glass, for what angle of incidence, the
ray will not be deviated. [2]
(c) Name the lens that always forms a virtual and erect image. [2]
(d) A coin at the bottom of a trough containing water to a depth of 15 cm
appears to be 3.75 cm raised above from the bottom. Calculate the refractive
index of water. [2]
(e) Draw a ray diagram to illustrate how a ray of light incident obliquely on
one face of a rectangular glass slab of uniform thickness emerges. [2]
Question 3
(a) What are the factors on which the following characteristics of a musical note
depends? 1. intensity 2. timbre. [2]
(b) How does a trawler man catch fish in deep water? [2]
(c) What are the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends? [2]
(d) Name the material used for:
(i) Electric fuse.
(ii) Connecting wire.
(iii) Filament of an electric bulb.
(iv) Heating element of an electric toaster. [2]
(e) Give the harmful effects of global warming on lakes and oceans found
frozen during winter. [2]
Question 4
(a) Calculate the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave of frequency 15 MHz. [2]
(b) State the function of a transformer. [2]

(c) State two uses of a cathode ray tube. [2]
(d) Show by equations, the effect on the proton number Z and mass number A
of the parent nucleus brought about by the two types of radioactive decay. [2]
(e) State one industrial use of , , and radiation. [2]
SECTION II (40 Marks)

Question 5
(a) An engine can pump 30,000 litres of water to a vertical height of 45 metres
in 10 minutes. Calculate the work done by the machine and the power.
(Density of water = 103 kg/m3, 1000 litre = 1 m3, g= 9.8 m s-2). [3]
(b) ‘Renewable sources of energy must be encouraged to meet growing
demands of energy’. Give suggestions to support your answer. [3]
(c) A pulley system has a velocity ratio 5. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the
pulley system to lift a load by applying the effort in a convenient direction.
Mark the tension in your diagram.
(i) If the efficiency of the system is 80% find its mechanical advantage.
(ii) If a load of 10 kgf is pulled up by a distance of 2 m in 10 s, calculate
the power developed by the effort (given g = 10 m s-2). [4]
Question 6
(a) L
B
A
X O X
L
(i) Copy and complete the ray diagram to show the formation of the image
of the object AB
(ii) Name the lens LL'.
(iii) Name a device in which this principle is used. [3]

(b) Copy and complete the following diagrams to show the path of the ray of
monochromatic light in each case as it enters and emerges out of the prism.
Mark the angle wherever necessary (critical angle is 42°) . [3]
30
70
60 45
(i) (ii) (iii)
(c) (i) Name any four regions of electromagnetic spectrum in increasing

order of frequency.
(ii) Calculate the refractive index of a liquid with respect to air
applying Snell's law (use geometric construction). [4]
Air
30
45 Liquid
Question 7
(a) (i) Draw a displacement-distance graph for two waves A and B such that
the amplitude of wave A is three times that of wave B.
(ii) Give one example of forced vibration.
(iii) State two necessary conditions for hearing a distinct echo. [3]
(b) John fires a gun towards a hill and hears its echo after 5 seconds. He then
moves 320 m towards the hill and fires his gun again. This time he hears the
echo after 3 seconds. Calculate the velocity of sound. [3]

(c) The diagram shows an electrical circuit used for the verification of Ohm's law.
Label A, B C, D and E. Draw a sketch to show how the value of current
varies for different values of voltage across C. [4]
E D
Question 8
(a) 10V Switch
(•)
A 4 K
Calculate the reading of A when

(i) K is closed.
(ii) K is open. [3]
(b) In Mrs. Pinto’s flat there are 6 bulbs of 100 W each, a heater of 2 kW and 5
fans of 50W each. If these are used everyday as shown below, calculate the
cost of energy consumption for a month of 30 days at the rate of Rs.3.50
per kW h.
6 bulbs of 100 W each used 8 h per day
1 heater of 2 kW used half hour daily
5 fans of 50 W each are used 6 h everyday. [3]

(c) From the diagram given below:
G 0
(i) What will you observe when-

(1) the magnet is dropped into the coil.
(2) the number of turns of the coil is increased?
(ii) What will be the direction of current flowing through the coil when the
magnet is dropped in? (Clockwise or anticlockwise).
(iii) State the law which explains this observation. [4]
Question 9
(a) Calculate the amount of heat given out while 400 g of water at 30 °C is
cooled and converted into ice at -2 °C.
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg K
Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J/ kg K
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336000 J/kg [3]
(b) A body of mass "m1" of a substance of specific heat capacity cl, at a

temperature t1 is mixed with another body of mass "m2" of specific heat
capacity "c2" at a lower temperature t2. Deduce an expression for the
temperature of the mixture t3. [3]
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of an alternating current generator. Write the
function of its two main parts. [4]

Question 10
(a) (i) Define work function of a metal.

(ii) State two factors on which the rate of emission of thermions depend. [3]
(b) (i) Define Radioactivity.
(ii) A radioactive substance is oxidized. What change would you expect to
take place in the nature of its radioactivity? Give a suitable reason. [3]
(c) ‘Radioactive materials as an alternative source of energy must be used
wisely’. Give reasons to justify this statement. [4]

CHEMISTRY
(SCIENCE PAPER – 2)
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two hours
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
SECTION A
Question 1
(i) An aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless on electrolysis.
Which of the following could be the electrodes?
P. anode: copper; cathode: copper
Q. anode: platinum; cathode: copper
R. anode: copper; cathode: platinum
(a) only P
(b) only Q
(c) only R
(d) both Q and R

(ii) A compound P is heated in a test tube with sodium hydroxide solution. A red litmus
paper held at the mouth of the test tube turns blue.
Which of the following could compound P be?
(a) zinc sulphate
(b) copper sulphate
(c) ferrous sulphate
(d) ammonium sulphate
(iii) The atomic masses of sulphur (S), oxygen (O), and helium (He) are approximately
32, 16, and 4 respectively.
Which of the following statements regarding the number of atoms in 32 g of sulphur,
16 g of oxygen, and 4 g of helium is correct?
P. 16 g of oxygen contains four times the number of atoms as 4 g of helium.
Q. 16 g of oxygen contains half the number of atoms as 32 g of sulphur.
(a) only P
(b) only Q
(c) both P and Q
(d) neither P nor Q
(iv) Ammonia gas is passed through quicklime and then collected in a jar. Red and blue
litmus papers are placed in the jar. W, X, Y and Z are the four observations.
Which of the above observations correctly shows the reaction of the litmus papers
to ammonia?
Red litmus paper Blue litmus paper

W turns blue remains blue
X remains red remains blue
Y remains red turns red
Z turns blue turns red
(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z

(v) Glucose reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to give a very pure form of carbon
called sugar charcoal.
The reaction taking place is:
(a) oxidation
(b) combustion
(c) dehydration
(d) combination
(vi) In which of the following electrolytic cells [P, Q, R or S] will silver plating be done
on the spoon?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(vii) The basicity of acetic acid is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

(viii) A  A+3; B  B-1
Number of electrons present in the outermost shell of atoms A and B respectively are:
(a) 5, 1
(b) 3, 1
(c) 3, 7
(d) 5, 7
(ix) A __________ solution is observed after placing Magnesium metal in a solution of

Copper sulphate for half an hour.
(a) Blue
(b) Colourless
(c) Reddish brown
(d) Dirty green
(x) An element with atomic no. __________ will form an acidic oxide.
(a) 3
(b) 17
(c) 11
(d) 13
(xi) Which of the following is NOT true with respect to nitric acid?
(a) It is a strong reducing agent
(b) It is a strong oxidizing agent
(c) It is unstable to heat
(d) It liberates sulphur dioxide gas when treated with potassium sulphite
(xii) __________ is the functional group in methanol.
(a) >C=O
(b) –OH
(c) –CHO
(d) –COOH

(xiii) The process of electrolysis is an example of:
(a) Oxidation reaction
(b) Reduction reaction
(c) Redox reaction
(d) Displacement reaction
(xiv) The catalyst used in Ostwald’s process is ___________.

(a) Finely divided iron
(b) Graphite
(c) Vanadium pentoxide
(d) Platinum
(xv) An element belongs to third period and sixteenth group. It will have __________
electrons in its valence shell.
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
Question 2
(i) The setup shown below is that of the fountain experiment with hydrogen chloride [5]
gas in the flask.

The fountain starts when a few drops of water from the dropper are introduced into
the flask. Instead of the drops of water, Pooja started the fountain by introducing a
few drops of Sodium hydroxide into the flask.
(a) Explain why the litmus solution gets sucked up when Sodium hydroxide is
used.
(b) What will be the colour of the fountain when Sodium hydroxide is used?
Justify your answer.
(c) If instead of HCl gas, ammonia gas is filled in the flask and water is introduced
from the dropper, will there be a different observation? Justify your answer.
(ii) Match the following Column A with Column B. [5]

Column A Column B
(a) Aluminium 1. Covalent compound
(b) Sulphuric acid 2. Carbonate ore
(c) Calcination 3. Hall Heroult’s process
(d) Calcium Chloride 4. Contact Process
(e) Carbon tetrachloride 5. Electrovalent compound
(iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [5]
(a) If an element has one electron in the outermost shell then it is likely to have
the ___________ [smallest/ largest] atomic size amongst all the elements in
the same period.
(b) ___________ [sulphuric acid/ hydrochloric acid] does not form an acid salt.
(c) A __________ [reddish brown/ dirty green] coloured precipitate is formed

when ammonium hydroxide is added to a solution of ferric chloride.
(d) Alkanes undergo __________ [addition/ substitution] reactions.
(e) An __________ [alkaline/acidic] solution will turn methyl orange solution

pink.

(iv) Identify the following: [5]
(a) A bond formed between two atoms by sharing of a pair of electrons, with both
electrons being provided by the same atom.
(b) A salt formed by the complete neutralization of an acid by a base.
(c) A reaction in which the hydrogen of an alkane is replaced by a halogen.
(d) The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral gaseous atom.
(e) A homogenous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal in a

definite proportion in their molten state.
(v) (a) Draw the structural diagram for the following compounds: [5]
1. 1- propanal
2. 1, 2 dichloro ethane
3. But-2-ene
(b) Give the IUPAC name of the following organic compounds:
1. 2.
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions.)
Question 3
(i) Identify the reactant and write the balanced equation for the following: [2]
Nitric acid reacts with compound Q to give a salt Ca(NO3)2, water and carbon
dioxide.
(ii) What property of Sulphuric acid is exhibited in each of the following cases: [2]
(a) In the preparation of HCl gas when it reacts with Sodium chloride.
(b) When conc. Sulphuric acid reacts with Copper to produce Sulphur dioxide gas.

(iii) The electron affinity of an element X is greater than that of element Y. [3]
(a) How is the oxidising power of X likely to compare with that of Y?
(b) How is the electronegativity of X likely to compare with that of Y?
(c) State whether X is likely to be placed to the left or to the right of Y in the
periodic table?
(iv) (a) State wether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Justify your [3]
answer.
1. In an electrovalent compound, the cation attains the electronic
configuration of the noble gas that comes after it in the periodic table.
2. In the formation of a compound PQ2, atom P gives one electron to each
atom of Q. The compound PQ2 is a good conductor of electricity.
(b) Calculate the number of moles in 22 grams of carbon dioxide .
Question 4
(i) The following questions relate to the extraction of Aluminium by electrolysis. [2]
(a) Name the other aluminum containing compound added to alumina.
(b) Give a balanced equation for the reaction that takes place at the cathode.
(ii) A gas cylinder of capacity 40 dm3 is filled with gas X the mass of which is 20 g. [2]
When the same cylinder is filled with hydrogen gas at the same temperature and
pressure the mass of hydrogen is 2 g. Find the relative molecular mass of the gas.
(iii) Give balanced equations for each of the following: [3]
(a) Action of warm water on Aluminium nitride.
(b) Oxidation of carbon with conc. Nitric acid.
(c) Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid at a temperature of 170oC.
(iv) With respect to Haber’s process answer the following: [3]

(a) Temperature of the reaction
(b) Catalyst used
(c) Balanced equation for the reaction occurring

Question 5
(i) (a) Ranjana wants to prove that ammonia is a reducing agent. To demonstrate this, [2]
she passes ammonia gas over heated copper oxide. What will she observe?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above reaction.
(ii) Name the alloy which is made up of: [2]
(a) Copper, Zinc and Tin
(b) Lead and Tin
(iii) Seema takes a blue crystalline salt P in a test tube. On heating it produces a white [3]
anhydrous powder. P is dissolved in water. Zinc is added to one part of the solution
and to another part of the solution Barium chloride is added.
(a) Name the compound P.
(b) Mention one observation when zinc is added to the solution of P.
(c) State the colour of the precipitate formed when barium chloride is added to the
solution of P.
(iv) Give reasons: [3]
(a) Ethene undergoes addition reaction.
(b) Hydrocarbons can be used as fuels.
(c) Hydrogen chloride gas cannot be collected over water.
Question 6
(i) Name the following: [2]
(a) The ore of Zinc containing its sulphide .
(b) The most commonly used oxide ore of Aluminium.
(ii) State one observation in the following cases: [2]
(a) Sodium chloride solution is added to a solution of lead nitrate.
(b) Barium chloride solution is added to a solution of Zinc sulphate.

(iii) Copper sulphate solution is electrolysed using copper electrodes. [3]
(a) Which electrode [cathode or anode] is the oxidizing electrode? Why?
(b) Write the equation for the reaction occurring at the above electrode.
(iv) X [2, 8, 7] and Y [2, 8, 2] are two elements. Using this information complete the [3]
following:
(a) __________ is the metallic element.
(b) Metal atoms tend to have a maximum of __________ electrons in the

outermost shell.
(c) ___________ is the reducing agent.
Question 7
(i) The empirical formula of an organic compound is C3H4N. Its molecular weight is 108. [3]
Find the amount of carbon in one mole of the compound. Show all the steps involved.
(Atomic weights: C- 12; H- 1; N- 14)
(ii) (a) Mahesh prepared a basic solution X that has a pH 7. [3]

How will the pH of the solution X change on addition of the following:
1. Hydrochloric acid
2. a solution of a base
(b) The atomic number of an element is 15. To which group will this element
belong to?
(iii) 8.2 grams of calcium nitrate is decomposed by heating according to the equation [4]
2Ca (NO3)2 _____  2CaO +4NO2 + O2
Calculate the following:
(a) Volume of nitrogen dioxide obtained at STP
(b) Mass of CaO formed
[Atomic weights: Ca –40 , N—14, O—16]

Question 8
(i) State giving reasons if: [2]
(a) zinc and aluminium can be distinguished by heating the metal powder with
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution.
(b) calcium nitrate and lead nitrate can be distinguished by adding ammonium
hydroxide solution to the salt solution.
(ii) Draw the electron dot diagram of Hydronium ion. [2]
(iii) Give balanced equations for the following: [3]

(a) Laboratory preparation of ethyne from calcium carbide.
(b) Conversion of acetic acid to ethyl acetate.
(c) Laboratory preparation of nitric acid.
(iv) Identify the following substances: [3]

(a) An alkaline gas which produces dense white fumes when reacted with HCl
gas.
(b) The anion present in the salt, which produces a gas with the smell of rotten
eggs when reacted with dil. HCl.
(c) The particles present in strong electrolytes.

BIOLOGY
(SCIENCE PAPER – 3)
Maximum Marks: 80
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.
SECTION A
Question 1
(i) Loss of water as droplets from the hydathodes is called:
(a) Transpiration
(b) Bleeding
(c) Guttation
(d) Evaporation
(ii) Synthesis phase in the cell cycle is called so, because of the synthesis of more:
(a) Glucose
(b) Proteins
(c) RNA
(d) DNA

(iii) While playing with his friends, Peter inserted a stick into his ear. He lost his
hearing due to the rupture of:
(a) Ear drum
(b) Pericardium
(c) Cornea
(d) Pinna
(iv) The prime source of Chloro fluorocarbons is:

(a) Vehicular emissions
(b) Refrigeration equipment
(c) Sewage
(d) Effuents
(v) Oxygenated blood to heart is supplied by:

(a) Hepatic artery
(b) Coronary artery
(c) Renal artery
(d) Pulmonary artery
(vi) Assertion (A): There is frequent urination in summer than in winter.

Reason (R): In summer we lose a lot of water as sweat, so the kidneys reabsorb
more water. Hence, urine formed is less in summer than in winter.
(a) Both A and R are True
(b) Both A and R are False
(c) A is True and R is False
(d) A is False and R is True
(vii) The age restrictions for marriage for boys and girls by law in India is:
(a) Boys 18 years, Girls 21 years
(b) Boys 17 years, Girls 16 years
(c) Boys 21 years, Girls 18 years
(d) Boys 20 years, Girls 17 years

(viii) Hari is fond of watching the fish in an aquarium. So, he set up an aquarium in his
house. Along with a number of fresh water fish, he also placed a clown fish which
is a salt water fish. After few hours, the clown fish was found dead and floating on
water. This was due to:
(a) Endosmosis
(b) Exosmosis
(c) Osmoregulation
(d) Excretion
(ix) The solvent used for dissolving chlorophyll while testing a leaf for starch is:
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Lime water
(c) Water
(d) Ethyl alcohol
(x) The structure related to storage and maturation of sperms in a human male is:
(a) Epididymis
(b) Epidermis
(c) Epithelium
(d) Endothelium
(xi) A sequence of DNA has 200 nitrogenous base pairs, of which 100 are Thymine-
Adenine pairs. What is the number of Cytosine-Guanine pairs in this sequence:
(a) 50
(b) 200
(c) 100
(d) 25
(xii) The stress hormone in plants which functions during a drought is:
(a) Auxins
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinins

(xiii) Compressed natural gas (CNG) is proposed to be a better alternative to fossil fuel
Which of the following reasons makes it a better alternative?
P. Combustion leaves little or no residue
Q. Absence of Carbon in CNG
R. Easily available
(a) Only P
(b) Only Q
(c) Only P and R
(d) Only Q and R
(xiv) The ground substance present in chloroplast is:

(a) Stoma
(b) Stroma
(c) Grana
(d) Thylakoids
(xv) Lata wanted to cross the road. She looked on either side of the road and then
walked across to the other side of the road.
Which of the following is / are involved in the process described above?
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Skeletal muscles
4. Medulla Oblongata
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Question 2
(i) Name the following: [5]

(a) The respiratory pigment in Erythrocytes.
(b) The tissue that transports manufactured food from the leaves to all the parts of
the plant.
(c) The type of gene, which in the presence of a contrasting allele, is not expressed.
(d) The duct which carries urine from the urinary bladder to outside the body.
(e) The collective term for the protective membranes of the brain.
(ii) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a [5]
logical sequence beginning with the term that is underlined.
(a) Snake, Grass, Frog, Grasshopper
(b) Cochlea, Malleus, Pinna, Stapes
(c) Fibrin, Thrombin, Fibrinogen, Platelets
(d) Endodermis, Cortex, Xylem, Epidermis
(e) Embryo, Foetus, Blastocyst, Morula
(iii) Fill in the blanks with suitable words: [5]
The technical term for short sightedness is (a) __________. This defect is caused
because the eyeball is (b) __________ from front to back or the lens is too
(c) __________. It can be corrected by using a suitable (d) __________ lens. The
power of the lens is mentioned in (e) __________.
(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following terms and name the category to which [5]
the others belong:
(a) Newspapers, Vegetable peels, Electric bulbs, Animal excreta
(b) Renal pelvis, Renal artery, Renal Cortex, Renal medulla
(c) Urochrome, Urea, Keratin, Uric acid
(d) Oval window, Cochlea, Auditory canal, Round window
(e) ADH, TSH, ACTH, NADP

(v) Match the items given in Column I with the most appropriate ones in Column II and [5]
rewrite the correct matching pairs.
Column I Column II
(a) Spinal Cord 1. Adrenalin
(b) Adrenal medulla 2. 44
(c) Number of autosomes in man 3. Nephrons
(d) Kidney 4. 46
(e) Adrenal cortex 5. Thyroxine
6. Neurons
7. Cortisones
SECTION B
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)
Question 3
(i) The gene of red hair is recessive to the gene for black hair. What will be the hair [1]
colour of a person if he inherits a gene for red hair from his mother and a gene for
black hair from his father?
(ii) State Mendel’s Law of Dominance. [2]
(iii) What are Homologous chromosomes? [2]
(iv) Differentiate between Phenotype and Genotype. [2]
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a duplicated chromosome. [3]
Question 4
(i) Mention the exact location of Corpus callosum. [1]
(ii) What are the two hormones secreted by Corpus luteum? [2]
(iii) Differentiate between Menarche and Menopause. [2]
(iv) What is the significance of placenta in the growth of foetus? [2]
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a human gamete that has the sex chromosome.Y [3]

Question 5
(i) Explain the term – Photsynthesis. [1]
(ii) Write the overall chemical equation of Photosynthesis. [2]
(iii) A potted plant having variegated leaves was exposed to sunlight for 3 hours. One of [2]
the leaves was plucked and tested for starch. What will be your observation after the
starch test?
(iv) The initial food prepared by a green plant is A, which is later converted to food B by [2]
polymerization. Name food A and food B.
(v) Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
(a) Name the gas released when the setup was placed in sunlight.
(b) Give an example of an aquatic plant that can be used in the above experiment.
(c) What will happen if a pinch of Sodium bicarbonate is added to the water?
Question 6
(i) Give the exact location of genes. [1]
(ii) Differentiate between Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis. [2]
(iii) Mention two significant features of the stage Anaphase during Mitosis. [2]
(iv) How many daughter cells are formed at the end of Mitosis and Meiosis? [2]

(v) Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
(a) Name the phenomenon depicted by the shoot in the above diagram.
(b) Which plant hormone plays an important role in the above movement?
(c) Name one stimulus which gives a positive response for the roots but negative
response for the shoot.
Question 7
(i) What is the scientific name for man? [1]
(ii) What are vestigial organs? Give one example. [2]
(iii) State two structural differences between an artery and vein. [2]
(iv) Mention any two features of the Cro-Magnon man. [2]
(v) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]
(a) Name the category of waste that is being disposed.
(b) Give an example of such a waste.
(c) Are they hazardous to humans and animals? Give a suitable reason to justify
your answer.
Question 8
(i) Define – Osmosis. [1]
(ii) Name the two sensory cells in retina meant for light adaptation. [2]
(iii) Mention one function each for – Cerebrum and Cerebellum. [2]
(iv) State any two objectives of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. [2]
(v) Given below is the diagram of human blood smear. Answer the questions that follow: [3]
(a) Mention one structural difference between 1 and 2.

(b) What is the function of part 3?
(c) Name the part labelled 4.

HISTORY & CIVICS

(H.C.G. Paper – 1)
Maximum Marks: 80
Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately.
Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory).
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from
Section A and three out of five questions from Section B.
PART I
Attempt all questions from this Part
Question 1
(i) An ordinance is called a temporary law. Which of the following statements
correctly describes the same?
(a) Only the Cabinet can prepare an ordinance.
(b) It is issued when the Parliament is not functioning.
(c) If the Parliament does not approve it within six weeks it becomes
inoperative.
(d) Only the President can promulgate an ordinance.
T24 501 - SPECIMEN 1 of 10

(ii) Given below are details of a few Indian citizens.
Select the person who fulfils the eligibility criteria to become a member of the
Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament.
(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z
(iii) The opposition feels that the ruling government does not have the majority in the
Lok Sabha and wants to bring down the Government.
Which of these motions will the Leader of the Opposition move?
(a) Adjournment Motion
(b) No-confidence Motion
(c) Motion of Thanks
(d) Censure Motion
(iv) When the Supreme Court reviews any judgement made by it to remove an error,
it falls under __________ jurisdiction.
(a) Advisory
(b) Revisory
(c) Original
(d) Appellate

(v) Identify the officials who form the electoral college for the Presidential elections
in India.
P: elected members of Parliament
Q: nominated members of Parliament
R: elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
S: nominated members of State Legislative Councils
(a) P and Q
(b) R and S
(c) P and R
(d) Q and S
(vi) Court of District Judge : Civil Cases : : Sessions Court : __________ Cases
(a) Advisory
(b) Criminal
(c) Constitutional
(d) Appellate
(vii) Read the two statements given below about the Civil Disobedience Movement
and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (B).
(A) Gandhi's Civil Disobedience was based on engaging in dialogue and

negotiation with the British.
(B) Gandhi believed that violence and aggression are counterproductive to

achieve any goal.
(a) (B) contradicts (A).
(b) (B) is the reason for (A).
(c) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(d) (A) and (B) are independent of each other.

(viii) The central government of a country named X has decided to enforce a law
similar to the Vernacular Press Act, which was enacted by the British in India in
1878 to control and regulate the vernacular press.
Based on this information, who among the following is most likely to benefit
from the enforcement of the law in X?
(a) its citizens
(b) the media industry
(c) the opposition party
(d) the ruling political party
(ix) In 1856, the British East India Company justified the annexation of Awadh, a
princely state in northern India, on what grounds?
(a) acquire more land for British colonies
(b) stop the rebellion against the British
(c) punish the Nawab of Awadh for opposing British rule
(d) due to alleged misgovernance by the Nawab of Awadh
(x)
Source: Daily Express, 29th June, Monday 1914

Which of the following is an immediate impact of the above incident?
(a) It led to the supremacy of America
(b) It led to the First World War
(c) Austria and Hungary became two independent nations.
(d) Democracy replaced monarchy in many countries.

(xi) Identify the odd one out of the following objectives:
(a) To promote among Muslims of India, support for the British government
(b) To remove any misconceptions regarding the intention of the government
(c) To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims
(d) To abolish the zamindari system
(xii) A college student named Roshni is doing a project on a prominent Indian leader
whose core work revolved around Dalit rights.
Who is Roshni MOST LIKELY writing about?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Jyotiba Phule
(xiii) __________ was the cause for the renewal of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Failure of the Cripps Mission
(xiv) The non-permanent members of the Security Council have a term of __________
years.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10

(xv) Which of the following policies of a dictator ruling over Country X is MOST
aligned with the ideologies of Mussolini during his time in power?
(a) prioritising military expansion
(b) promoting environmental sustainability
(c) creating a healthcare program for all citizens equally
(d) offering financial aid to support the education of students from poor
backgrounds
(xvi) Which of the following scenarios describes the Non-Alignment Policy (NAM)?
(a) A country forms a military alliance only with the United States.
(b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and
does not take sides.
(c) A country is part of a religious movement advocating non-violence
(d) A country aligns with Soviet Union and receives military aid
Question 2
(i) Read the given news carefully. [2]
Headline: Mysuru Lok Adalat settles 53-year-old civil case involving Kannada
poets' kin. This case went on for a total of 53 years in various courts and involved
10 advocates and 40 witnesses.
Source: news18.com published on March 14, 2022
State any two advantages of Lok Adalats that can be deduced from the above
news headline.
(ii) Imagine you were part of the German military in the year 1919, mention any two [2]
terms of the Treaty of Versailles which would impact you.
(iii) Mention any two contributions of Subash Chandra Bose. [2]
(iv) Give two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [2]
(v) Mention any two methods of the Assertive Nationalists. [2]

(vi) Mention any two objectives of the League of Nations. [2]
(vii) Name the two alliances formed in Europe before the beginning of the First World [2]
War.
PART II
SECTION A
Attempt any two questions from this Section.
Question 3
The Union Legislature of India is not only the lawmaking body, but the center of all
democratic political process. With reference to the Parliament, answer the following
questions:
(i) Mention any three circumstances under which the Lok Sabha can make laws on a [3]
subject in the State list.
(ii) Mention any three financial powers of the Union Parliament. [3]
(iii) The Speaker plays a key role in maintaining order and ensuring the smooth [4]
functioning of the Lok Sabha. Mention any four functions of the Speaker to
support this statement.
Question 4
The President is the nominal head of the executive, the first citizen of the country, as well
as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. With reference to this, answer the
following questions:
(i) Mention any three qualifications required for a person to be nominated to the post [3]
of the President.
(ii) Mention any three discretionary powers of the President. [3]
(iii) Describe the procedure of impeachment of the President. [4]

Question 5
The Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial authority and the highest court of the
Republic of India. It is the final court of appeal for all civil and criminal cases . With
reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:
(i) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? [3]

Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a judge of
the Supreme Court.
(ii) Explain the term Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with any two [3]
examples.
(iii) Name any four writs issued by the Supreme Court. [4]
SECTION B
Attempt any three questions from this Section.
Question 6
The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a major uprising against the rule of the British East
India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown.
With reference to this, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any three administrative changes made in India as a consequence of the [3]
Revolt.
(ii) How did the failure of this Revolt impact the Mughals and the Peshwas? [3]
(iii) Mention any four changes made in the army after the Revolt. [4]

Question 7
Nationalism refers to the feeling of oneness that emerges when people consider
themselves as one nation. With reference to the growth of nationalism, answer the
following:
(i) Name the founder of the Indian National Congress. [3]
Mention any two of its objectives.
(ii) How did the press contribute to the growth of nationalism? [3]
(iii) Mention any four repressive policies of Lord Lytton. [4]
Question 8
Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow-
The movement had generated worldwide publicity, and British were looking for a way to
end it. Gandhiji was released from custody in January 1931, and the two men began
negotiating the terms of the pact. For many conservatives in England, the meetings and
talks seemed unacceptable. They thought it was inappropriate for the Viceroy, who was
the representative of the British Monarch, to receive their arch-enemy. Gandhiji was
authorised by the then President of the Congress, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, to negotiate
with the Viceroy. He advised the nation to wait, watch, pray and hope for a better
prospect for India. He was full of admiration for the people, their heroic struggle and hard
suffering.
Source: The Hindu
(i) Who was the Viceroy who negotiated with Gandhiji? [3]
Name any two causes of the movement being discussed above.
(ii) Mention any three impacts of this movement. [3]
(iii) As a consequence of this meeting, a pact was signed. [4]

Mention any four conditions that the Congress and the British Government
agreed to according to this pact.

Question 9
Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:
(i) Identify the leader in the above picture. Mention any two of his ideologies. [3]
(ii) Mention any three causes for his rise to power. [3]
(iii) What was the immediate cause of the Second World War? [4]
Mention any three reasons given by this leader to justify his action.
Question 10
The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference to
its organs and agencies, answer the following:
(i) What is the composition of the International Court of Justice? [3]
(ii) Mention any three functions of the Security Council. [3]
(iii) Give the full form of UNICEF. Mention any three of its functions. [4]

GEOGRAPHY
(H.C.G. PAPER – 2)
Maximum Marks: 80
Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
To be supplied with this Paper: Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S7
and 20 cm of twine.
Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S7 must not be taken out of the examination
hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking, must be
fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to
answer the rest of the paper.

PART I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Part.)
Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. G43S7 and answer the following
questions:
(i) (a) Give the six-figure grid reference for .201 in the eastern part of the map [2]
extract.
(b) What are the brown patches in the northeast quarter of the map extract?
(ii) Mohan goes on a bicycle from 02 northing to 12 northing in a straight line. If he [2]
moves at a speed of 10 kilometers per hour, how much time will he take to reach
his destination?
(iii) (a) What is the compass direction of Rampura (2709) to Kotda (3005)? [2]
(b) What is the nature of streams seen in the map extract?
(iv) (a) Ramesh returned to his native place Mahudi Moti (2404) after a gap of ten [2]
years and was happy to see the development around his village. What
according to you show that the area around his village has developed?
(b) What is the black vertical line made between the easting 25 and 26?
(v) Mention two man made and two natural features in the grid square 2508. [2]
Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:
(i) Shade and label an alluvial soil area of India. [1]
(ii) Mark with a dot and name the city which lies on the banks of river Jhelum. [1]
(iii) Mark and name the highest peak of India. [1]
(iv) Shade and label Gulf of Kutch. [1]
(v) Mark with arrow and label N E Monsoon wind. [1]
(vi) Shade and label a densely populated area in South India. [1]
(vii) Mark and label Himalayas. [1]
(viii) Mark and label Brahmaputra. [1]
(ix) Mark and label Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(x) Mark and label Malabar coast. [1]

Question 3
(i) Which of the following is the CORRECT set of water bodies from which the
Southwest monsoon picks up moisture?
(a) Arabian sea + Bay of Bengal + Indian Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean + Andaman Sea + Arabian Sea
(c) Bay of Bengal + Indian Ocean + Andaman Sea
(d) Gulf of Mannar + Mediterranean Sea + Indian Ocean
(ii) Feel and consistency of soil is called _________ of the soil.
(a) Profile
(b) Parent rock
(c) Texture
(d) Nature
(iii) Teak and Shisham are the typical trees of which of the following natural vegetation
belt?
(a) Tropical Evergreen
(b) Tropical Monsoon
(c) Tropical Desert
(d) Littoral forest
(iv) Which of the following may be used for the recharging of underground water?
(a) Planting of shelter belt
(b) Gullies and ravines
(c) Percolation pit
(d) Commercial farming
(v) Which type of coal is called an industrial coal?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Anthracite

(vi) Maharashtra is the leading producer of which of the following cash crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Coffee
(d) Tea
(vii) Which crop is associated with Ratooning?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Jute
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton
(viii) Which steel plant amongst the following was set up with the collaboration with
Germany?
(a) Bhilai
(b) Tata Steel
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Rourkela
(ix) Which is the busiest artificial port of India?
(a) Goa
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Vishakhapatnam
(x) What is the depletion of oxygen in a water body resulting from pollution called?
(a) Decay of water
(b) Eutrophication
(c) Bio magnification
(d) Greenhouse effect

PART II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any five questions from this Part.)
Question 4
(i) The southwest monsoon is late this year. The Indian Meteorological Department [2]
(IMD) on Tuesday, May 16, had predicted that the onset of southwest monsoon is
delayed by four days. An agricultural economy, India is heavily reliant on the
monsoon which brings 75 percent of its annual rainfall.
— Indian Express
(a) As a student of Geography, what according to you may be the reason for the
delay of monsoon?
(b) What is the usual time for the onset of summer monsoon in Kerala?
(ii) What is the source of winter rainfall in the following areas? [2]
(a) Punjab
(b) Tamil Nadu
(iii) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]
(a) West Bengal gets rainfall from summer monsoons much before Uttar
Pradesh.
(b) Mawsynram is the rainiest place in the world
(c) Himalayas act as a climate divide
(iv) Study the climatic data of station X and answer the following questions: [3]
Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun July Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Temp (oC) 23.1 24.8 26.5 29.3 32 32.8 33.1 32.1 30.5 29.3 28.7 26.1
Rainfall
15.3 10.1 0.3 0.1 1.3 4.5 6.1 10.2 10.5 20.1 16.8 19.0
(cm)
(a) What is the annual range of temperature of station X?
(b) Which is the driest month?
(c) Name the wind that brings maximum rainfall to this station.

Question 5
(i) Define the following terms: [2]
(a) Soil Fertility
(b) Soil conservation
(ii) With reference to soil erosion in India answer the following questions. [2]
(a) State any two human activities that have led to soil erosion in India.
(b) Mention any two agricultural techniques that can help to prevent soil erosion.
(iii) With reference to Red Soil, answer the following: [3]
(a) How is it formed?
(b) Why is it good for Dry Farming?
(c) Name any two areas where it is found.
(iv) Give a reason for the following statements: [3]
(a) Black Soil has self-ploughing property.
(b) Laterite Soil is not suitable for cultivation.
(c) Alluvial soil is the most fertile soil.
Question 6
(i) Mahesh went for an excursion with his friend and came across a marshy area with [2]
the trees that had stilt like roots.
(a) Which natural vegetation belt did he come across?
(b) Name one area in India where this kind of vegetation is found.
(ii) (a) Why is tropical deciduous forest commercially the most important forest belt [2]
of India?
(b) Why are long and deep roots a typical characteristic of desert vegetation?
(iii) Why is forest conservation the need of the hour? (Three points) [3]

(iv) (a) Name a forest conservation method that involves the local community. [3]
(b) Which primitive system of agriculture had led to large scale destruction of
forest in the past?
(c) Name the process which involves planting two saplings for each tree that is
felled.
Question 7
(i) Why is there a need for irrigation in India? (Two reasons) [2]
(ii) Distinguish between Inundation Canals and Perennial Canals. [2]
(iii) Name a state in India where tube wells are commonly used. Give two reasons to [3]
support your answer.
(iv) (a) What is meant by Rainwater Harvesting? [3]
(b) Mention any two water harvesting practices followed in India.
Question 8
(i) (a) Give any one use of Iron ore. [2]
(b) Name two Indian states where copper is found.
(ii) With reference to Hirakud project answer the following: [2]
(a) On which river is it based?
(b) Name an Indian state benefited by the project.
(iii) (a) Give two disadvantages of using Petroleum as a source of power. [3]
(b) Name an offshore oil field of India.
(iv) (a) Mention two advantages of wind energy. [3]
(b) What is the advantage of using nuclear power in place of conventional sources
of energy?

Question 9
(i) Mention two agricultural reforms done by the government for the betterment of [2]
the agricultural sector.
(ii) (a) Mention the climatic conditions found suitable for growing groundnut. [2]
(b) Name the state that is the leading producer of groundnut in India.
(iii) With reference to cultivation of pulses answer the following: [3]
(a) Name a soil found suitable for the growth of pulses.
(b) Name any two pulses grown in India.
(c) Why is it a popular food crop of India?
(iv) Rohan is a farmer. He asked his friend to help him get some labourers for [3]
‘GINNING’.
(a) Which crop do you think is grown by Rohan?
(b) Mention any two climatic conditions suitable for this crop.
Question 10
(i) Differentiate between large scale and small-scale industries. [2]
(ii) Give two ways in which the Electronic Industry is important for India. [2]
(iii) With reference to petrochemical industry answer the following: [3]
(a) Why is it becoming popular in recent times?
(b) Why is it located close to oil refineries?
(c) Name any two petrochemical products.
(iv) (a) Name the country that had helped in the establishment of Bhilai steel plant. [3]
(b) Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic or key industry?
(c) Where is Tata Steel located?

Question 11
(i) Mention two advantages of using waterways. [2]
(ii) What is the importance of the Golden Quadrilateral? [2]
(iii) Mention three disadvantages of roadways. [3]
(iv) Give a reason for the following: [3]
(a) Railways are well developed in the northern states of India.
(b) Sea transport has lost its popularity in recent times.
(c) Helicopter services are crucial during emergencies.
Question 12
(i) What is the impact for waste generation on the following? [2]
(a) Surface water
(b) Landscape.
(ii) Why is dumping considered a harmful method of waste disposal? (Two points.) [2]
(iii) A fire broke out at the Kochi city corporation-run waste treatment plant. Thick [3]
clouds of toxic smoke engulfed the city. The unsorted waste at the plant contained
PVC and clinical waste, both of which on combustion are extremely harmful for
the general health of people.
— Economic times
(a) Which method of waste management would have helped in reducing health
hazard in the above case?
(b) What measures may be undertaken by individuals to reduce waste?
(c) How can urban waste be made useful?
(iv) Mention three ways to reuse waste that is generated at home. [3]

Question No. 2
Index No.……………………………………………. UID……………………………..
(This map, if used, must be fastened with all other answers)
Map of India for Question 2.
ONLY FOR THE EXAMINER

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) Total

HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. - Paper – 1
(Two Hours)
Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be
attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five
questions from Section B.
PART I (30 Marks)

Question 1
(a) How are the members of the Lok Sabha elected? [1]
(b) Mention any two electoral functions of the Union Parliament. [1]
(c) Mention two provisions of the Constitution, which clearly establish the
supremacy of the Lok Sabha with regard to the Money Bill. [1]
(d) What is the composition of the Electoral College for the election of the
President of India? [1]
(e) Mention one difference between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. [1]
(f) Mention one important function of the Vice-President of India. [1]
(g) Mention one important function of the Prime Minister in relation to the
Council of Ministers. [1]
(h) What is meant by the discretionary power of the President of India ? [1]
(i) Mention two ways in which the Constitution ensures the Independence and
impartiality of the judges of the Supreme Court. [1]
(j) What is meant by High Court being a Court of Record? [1]
ICSE Specimen Question Paper

Question 2
(a) What is meant by Doctrine of Lapse? [2]
(b) Mention any two objectives of the Early Nationalists. [2]
(c) When and by whom was Bengal partitioned? [2]
(d) State any two objectives of the All-India Muslim League. [2]
(e) Briefly explain the terms ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’. [2]
(f) Mention any two clauses of the Mountbatten Plan. [2]
(g) What was the immediate cause of the First World War? [2]
(h) Mention two similarities between the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism. [2]
(i) What do you understand by the term ‘Human Rights’? [2]
(j) Mention any two objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [2]
PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A (CIVICS)
Attempt any two questions from this Section
Question 3
Compare the powers of the two Houses of the Union Parliament with reference to the
following:
(a) Legislative powers [3]

(b) Financial Powers [3]
(c) Control over the Executive. [4]
Question 4
With reference to the President of India briefly explain the following:
(a) Reasons for the indirect election [3]

(b) Emergency Powers [3]
(c) Procedure for removal. [4]

Question 5
With reference to the jurisdiction and functions of the Supreme Court, explain the
following:
(a) Advisory function [3]
(b) Custodian of fundamental rights [3]
(c) Judicial review. [4]
SECTION B
Attempt any three questions from this Section
Question 6
Many factors contributed to the growth of nationalism in India. In this context,
explain the relevance of the following:
(a) Contribution of socio-religious reformers [3]
(b) Repressive policies of the British [3]
(c) Economic exploitation. [4]
Question 7
The Assertive Nationalists lost faith in the methods and ultimate success of the
early nationalists. In the light of this statement, briefly describe:
(a) Basic beliefs of assertive nationalists [3]
(b) Difference between their methods and those of the early nationalists [3]
(c) Any two contributions made by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai. [4]

Question 8
(a) Identify the event in the above picture. Briefly explain any two causes that
led to this event. [3]
(b) Programme of the movement. [3]
(c) Impact of the movement. [4]
Question 9
With reference to the Second World War, explain the following:
(a) Any two causes of the War [3]
(b) Impact of the Treaty of Versailles [3]
(c) The Cold War. [4]
Question 10
With reference to the United Nations, examine the following:
(a) Main objectives [3]
(b) Any three functions of the General Assembly [3]
(c) Composition of the Security Council, and any two of its functions. [4]

T08 501 5
GEOGRAPHY
H.C.G. – Paper – 2
(Two hours)

Attempt seven questions in all.

Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
To be supplied with this Paper: Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7
and 20 cm of twine.
Note:
(i) In all Map Work, by a wise use of arrows to indicate positions of countries, cities
and other insertions that you make, you will be able to avoid overcrowding parts
of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 must not be taken out of the
examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on the
completion of the Paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be fastened with your
answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of each question must be answered in the correct order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet as the
rest of the answer.

PART I (30 Marks)
Question 1
Study the extract of the survey of India Map Sheet No. 45 D/7 (Eastings 91 to 01 and
Northings 73 to 83) and answer the following questions:
(a) Give a six figure grid reference of:
(i) Spot height . 542. [1]
(ii) Temple at Juvol. [1]
(b) (i) What is meant by the term R F? [1]
(ii) What is the total area of the given map extract in kilometres? [1]
(c) Calculate the distance in kilometres along the cart track linking Juvol in grid
square 9282 to Arniwada in grid square 9481. [2]
(d) (i) What is the direction of the main river given in the map extract? [1]
(ii) On which bank of the main river is the village Chekhla situated? [1]
(e) (i) What is the main form of irrigation in the South East area of the map
extract? [1]
(ii) Give a reason why the streams in grid square 9478 do not join a river. [1]
(f) (i) Identify the land form shown by the contours in grid square 9473. [1]
(ii) What does 4r written against the blue dot in grid square 9973 represent? [1]
(g) (i) In what way is the pattern of settlement in grid square 9576 different from
that in grid square 9774? [1]
(ii) What difference do you notice in the pattern of drainage in grid square 9574
and the drainage pattern in grid square 9382? [1]
(h) (i) What is the compass direction of Antroli from Sangla ? [1]
(ii) Which is the most important settlement shown on the map extract? Give a
reason for your answer. [1]
(i) (i) Name one manmade and one natural feature in grid square 9473. [1]
(ii) Identify the feature given in black curved lines in grid square 9679. [1]
(j) (i) Name any two modes of transport used in the given map extract. [1]
50
Specimen 2011
(ii) What inference can be drawn about the general occupation of the people
living in the South East area of the map extract? Give a reason for your
answer. [1]
Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. [1]
(b) River Chenab. [1]
(c) Mark with arrow, the direction of the Bay of Bengal branch of South West
Monsoon. [1]
(d) Shade and name an area where red soil is found extensively. [1]
(e) The Longitude 82 ½ °E. [1]
(f) Coromandel Coast. [1]
(g) Nathu-La-pass. [1]
(h) Mark and label the leading states for coal and iron ore. [1]
(i) Shade and name the state with highest density of population. [1]
(j) Mark with a red dot and name Allahabad. [1]
PART II (50 Marks)

Attempt any five questions from this Part.
Question 3
(a) Name the different seasons in India stating the months when they are
experienced. [2]
(b) (i) Why is the annual range of temperature more at Agra than at Mumbai?
(ii) Name a region in India which receives rainfall both in summer and
winter. [2]
(c) (i) Explain in what way are retreating monsoon winds different from North
East Monsoon winds.
(ii) Give two reasons why Arabian Sea branch of the South West Monsoon
does not shed any moisture in Western Rajasthan. [3]

(d) Study the climatic data of two cities of India provided below and answer the
questions that follow:
Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Station A
Temperature 24.5 26.0 28.0 30.0 32.0 32.5 30.7 30.0 29.7 28.0 26.0 24.6
(°C)
Rainfall 2.8 0.7 0.7 1.5 4.5 5.1 9.5 11.3 12.4 28.1 34.5 13.6
(cm)
Station B
Temperature 24.4 24.4 26.7 28.3 30.0 28.9 27.2 27.2 27.2 28.3 27.2 25.0
(°C)
Rainfall 0.25 0.25 ----- 1.75 50.2 61.0 37.0 27.0 4.75 1.00 -----
(cm) -----
(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature of Station A.

(ii) What is the total rainfall experienced by Station B?
(iii) On which coast is Station A situated? Name the rains that bring rainfall
to this region. [3]
Question 4
(a) (i) How is black soil formed?
(ii) Name one cash crop for which black soil is most suited. [2]
(b) (i) Name the transported soil most widely found in India.
(ii) How is this soil formed? [2]
(c) (i) Name the soil found on the summits of Eastern Ghats.
(ii) How is this soil formed?
(iii) Why is this soil not suitable for cultivation? [3]
(d) (i) What is meant by soil erosion?
(ii) How is it caused?
(iii) Give two methods adopted by the government to conserve soil. [3]
Question 5
(a) (i) What is the name given to the natural vegetation found on the coastal
strip of the Ganges Delta? Name the typical tree found in this region.
(ii) What is the most commercially important vegetation belt in India?
In what rainfall range is it located? [2]
52
Specimen 2011
(b) Distinguish between agro forestry and social forestry. [2]
(c) (i) Why are the forests grown around the cities having the Iron and Steel
industries ?
(ii) State the characteristic feature of Tropical Evergreen forests.
(iii) Name an important tree of Tropical Evergreen forest and state its use. [3]
(d) (i) State two characteristic features of vegetation found in tropical deserts.
(ii) Give an example of the desert vegetation and state its uses. [3]
Question 6
(a) (i) State two reasons why irrigation is important in India.
(ii) State any two favourable conditions necessary for digging wells. [2]
(b) (i) Why are perennial canals more useful than inundation canals?
(ii) Name one state where canal irrigation is popular. [2]
(c) (i) State one advantage of tank irrigation. Where is it commonly used in
India?
(ii) What is a tube-well? Why is it useful during drought conditions?
(iii) How is the new method like drip irrigation useful for the farmers? [3]
(d) (i) Why is rain water harvesting important in India? Give two reasons.
(ii) Name two states which practice rain water harvesting in India. [3]
Question 7
(a) (i) Why is manganese an important raw material for iron and steel
industry?
(ii) Name one iron-ore field in Orissa. [2]
(b) (i) Name the best quality of iron ore which has magnetic property.
(ii) Name an important coal field located in West Bengal. [2]
(c) (i) State any one important use of bauxite as a raw material.
(ii) Name one state where bauxite is found.
(iii) Name an industry which uses limestone as raw material. [3]
(d) (i) Mention two main uses of petroleum.
(ii) Name one new and one old oilfield in India. [3]

Question 8
(a) Differentiate between subsistence farming and commercial farming. [2]
(b) Name two non-edible oilseeds grown in India. State one use of each. [2]
(c) (i) What are the two main crop seasons of India?
Explain giving one example of each.
(ii) State the method of cultivation of growing wheat. [3]
(d) (i) Which state in India is the largest producer of coffee?

(ii) State the climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of coffee.
(iii) Mention one problem faced by the sugarcane cultivators in India. [3]
Question 9
(a) Why is the jute industry concentrated in and around West Bengal? Give two
reasons. [2]
(b) Give two reasons why Ahmedabad in Gujarat is famous for cotton-textile
industry. [2]
(c) (i) Explain the term Sericulture.
(ii) Why is Karnataka famous for silk industry? Give two reasons. [3]
(d) (i) Name two industries using animal fibre. Mention one important centre
of production for each.
(ii) Give two problems faced by the woollen textile industry in India. [3]
Question 10
(a) (i) What is the most important requirement for Heavy Engineering industry
in India?
(ii) Name one important centre for each of the following:
(1) Ship Building
(2) Aircraft [2]
(b) (i) Name the foreign collaborations for the following iron and steel plants.
(1) Rourkela
(2) Durgapur
(iii) From where do they obtain their supply of coal and iron-ore? [2]
54
Specimen 2011
(c) (i) Name the raw materials required by the petrochemical industry.
(ii) Mention two products of this industry.
(iii) Give a reason why the petrochemical products are gaining importance. [3]
(d) (i) Name the two most important centres of electronic industry in India.
(ii) Name the largest and the oldest integrated iron and steel plant in private
sector in India.
(iii) What is meant by a mini steel plant? State its advantage. [3]
Question 11
(a) State two reasons why waste management is important. [2]
(b) (i) Why is rail transport more comfortable and popular in India?
(ii) State any two problems faced by the railways. [3]
(c) What is the importance of Roadways in India? Give two reasons. [2]
(d) List some important initiatives of the Indian Government to improve the
management of solid wastes. [3]

Name ………………………………………………..Index No. ………………………….
(This map, if used, must be fastened with all other answers)
Map of India for Question 2.
56
Specimen 2011
CHEMISTRY
SCIENCE Paper – 2
(Two hours)
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.

Question 1
(a) Choose the most appropriate answer.
(i) Which of the following is a common characteristic of a covalent compound?
A High melting point.
B Conducts electricity when it is in the molten state.
C Consists of molecules.
D Always soluble in water.
(ii) Ammonium hydroxide will produce a reddish brown precipitate when added to
a solution of :
A CuSO4
B Zn(NO3)2
C FeSO4
D FeCl3
(iii) A salt which in solution gives a bluish white precipitate with NaOH solution
and a white precipitate with BaCl2 solution is:
A CuSO4
B FeSO4
C Fe2 (SO4)3
D CuCl2

(iv) The gas law which relates the volume of a gas to moles of the gas is:
A Avogadro’s Law
B Gay-Lussac’s Law
C Boyle’s Law
D Charle’s Law
(v) During the electrolysis of acidified water which of the following takes place:
A Oxygen is released at cathode.
B Oxygen is released at anode.
C Hydrogen is released at anode.
D Sulphur dioxide is released at anode.
(vi) Duralumin is an alloy of
A Al and Cu
B Cu and Sn
C Al and Ag
D Al and Fe
(vii) Hydrogen chloride can be obtained by adding concentrated Sulphuric acid to:
A NaCl
B Na2SO4
C Na2CO3
D NaNO3.
(viii) Which of the following reactions gives copper as a product
A Passing dry ammonia over heated copper oxide.
B Adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide.
C Heating copper oxide.
D Passing oxygen over heated copper oxide?
(ix) Formation of chloroform from methane and chlorine is an example of:
A Addition
B Dehydration
C Substitution
D Elimination.

(x) The element with the highest ionization potential in the periodic table is:
A He
B Ne
C Ar
D Xe [10]
(b) The equation for the action of heat on calcium nitrate is:
2Ca(NO3)2 2CaO + 4 NO2 + O2
(i) How many moles of NO2 are produced when 1 mole of Ca(NO3)2 decomposes?
(ii) What volume of O2 at S.T.P. will be produced on heating 65.6 g of Ca (NO3)2?
(iii) Find out the mass of CaO formed when 65.6 g of Ca(NO3)2 is heated.
(iv) Find out the mass of Ca(NO3)2, required to produce 5 moles of gaseous
products.
(v) Find out the mass of Ca(NO3)2 required to produce 44. 8 L of NO2 at S.T.P.
(Relative molecular mass of Ca(NO3)2 = 164 and of CaO = 56) [5]
(c) Name the organic compound prepared by each of the following reactions:
(i) CH3 COONa + NaOH CaO
(ii) CaC2 + H2O

(iii) C2H5Br + KOH (alc)
(iv) C2H5Br + KOH (aq)
Con. H 2 SO4
(v) C2H5OH + CH3COOH [5]
(d) Identify the following substances:
(i) An acidic gas which gives dense white fumes with NH3.
(ii) An alkane which can also be called a green house gas.
(iii) A solid which when kept in the open, forms a solution after sometime.
(iv) An alloy used in electrical fittings.
(v) A metal which gives hydrogen gas on reacting with both dilute acid and alkali. [5]
(e) Write equations for the following reactions:
(i) Aluminium oxide and Sodium hydroxide.
(ii) Zinc and dilute sulphuric acid.

(iii) Nitrogen dioxide and water.
(iv) Concentrated sulphuric acid and sugar.
(v) Copper with concentrated nitric acid. [5]
(f) Name the following:
(i) Second member of alkene series
(ii) First member of alkane series
(iii) Third member of aldehyde series.
(iv) Second member of carboxylic acid.
(v) Fourth member of alcohol series. [5]
(g) Write the I.U.P.A.C. names of the following compounds:
O
(i) H C H
O
(ii) H3C CH3
C
H OH H H
(iii) H C C C C H
H H H H
(iv) C 2 H5 O C2H5
CH3
(v) H3C C CH3 [5]
CH3

Attempt any four questions from this Section.
Question 2.
(a) The following questions refer to the periodic table:
(i) Name the second last element of the period 3.

(ii) How many elements are in the second period?
(iii) Name the element which has the highest electron affinity.
(iv) Name the element which has the highest electro negativity.
(v) Name the element which may be placed on group 1 but is not a metal. [5]
(b) Fill in the blanks using the correct options:

(i) Metals have ------ ionisation potential. (low/ high)
(ii) Group 18 elements have ------ valence electrons (4 / 8) with the
exception of ---- ( He / Ne) with -------- electrons (2 / 8) in valence
shell.
(iii) Group 2 elements are called ----- metals (alkali / alkaline earth). [5]
Question 3.
(a) Draw different isomers having the following molecular formula:
(i) C5H12 (chain)
(ii) C4H8 (position). [5]
(b) What is denatured alcohol? [1]
(c) Give two important uses of ethanol. [2]
(d) Write equations for:
(i) Preparation of ethanol by hydration of C2H4.
(ii) Preparation of acetic acid from ethanol. [2]
Question. 4
(a) Name the method by which following compounds can be prepared:
Select the appropriate method from the following list Neutralization; direct
combination; precipitation; metal + acid – use a method only once.
(i) Sodium sulphate
(ii) Silver chloride
(iii) Iron sulphide. [3]
(b) How will you distinguish between following pairs of compounds using
NH4OH.
(i) Copper sulphate and iron(II) sulphate.

(ii) Zinc nitrate and lead nitrate.
(iii) Iron(II) sulphate and iron(III) sulphate. [3]
(c) Name:
(i) A greenish yellow gas with pungent smell.
(ii) An oxide which is yellow when hot and white when cold.
(iii) A chemical used to deplete ozone layer.
(iv) A crystalline salt without water of crystallization. [4]
Question. 5
(a) Name one:
(i) metal liquid at room temperature.
(ii) non-metal which is a conductor of electricity.
(iii) neutral oxide.
(iv) metallic oxide which cannot be reduced by hydrogen.
(v) non-metal which has lustre. [5]
(b) (i) Name the chief ore of aluminium.
(ii) Name the process used to concentrate the above mentioned ore.
(iii) Why is alumina added to cryolite in the electrolytic reduction of
aluminium?
(iv) Give cathode and anode reactions involved in extraction of aluminium
from its above mentioned ore.
(v) Name the process used for the concentration of zinc blende. [5]
Question 6.
(a) Draw a neat and well labelled diagram for the silver plating on an iron
spoon. [3]
(b) Copy and complete the following table related to electrolysis.
S.No. Name of Electrolyte Name of Name of Product at Product at
Cathode Anode Cathode Anode
1. CuSO4 (aq.) Copper Copper
2. PbBr2 (molten) Platinum Platinum

[4]

(c) Classify the following as oxidation and reduction reaction, also complete the
reaction.
(i) Cu Cu2+
(ii) Fe3+ Fe2+
(iii) Cl- Cl
[3]
Question. 7
(a) A compound has the following percentage composition by mass:
Carbon – 54.55%, Hydrogen – 9.09% and Oxygen – 36.26%. Its vapour density
is 44. Find the Empirical and Molecular formula of the compound.
(H = 1; C = 12; O = 16) [5]
(b) Give the electron dot structure of the following:
(i) NH3
(ii) CH4
(iii) H3O+ [3]
(c) Compare the properties of covalent and electrovalent compounds on the
following points:
(i) Solubility
(ii) Structure. [2]

BIOLOGY
SCIENCE Paper – 3
(Two hours)
Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.

Question 1
(a) Name the following:
(i) The respiratory pigment found in erythrocytes.
(ii) The organ that produces urea.
(iii) The part of the chloroplast where the light reaction of photosynthesis
takes place.
(iv) The Vehicular Standard for controlling air pollution.
(v) The part of the ovary that produces progesterone. [5]
(b) State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, rewrite
the correct form of the statement by changing the first word only:
(i) Cones are photoreceptor cells that are sensitive to dim light.
(ii) The Beta cells of the pancreas secrete insulin.
(iii) Tubectomy is the surgical method of sterilization in man.
(iv) Guttation is the loss of water in the form of water droplets from
hydathodes.
(v) Nephrons are the basic unit of the brain. [5]
(c) Give technical terms for the following:
(i) Plasma devoid of fibrinogen.

(ii) Movement of water molecules across the cell membrane from
hypertonic to hypotonic solution.
(iii) The stage where chromosomes lie on the equator of the achromatic
spindle.
(iv) Alternative form of a gene on a pair of homologous chromosome.
(v) Period of complete intrauterine development of the foetus. [5]
(d) Given below are five sets with four terms each. In each set one term is
odd. Choose the odd one out of the following terms given and name the
category to which the others belong: [5]
SET ODD TERM CATEGORY

(i) Sneezing, coughing,
blinking, typing
(ii) ADH, TSH, NADPH,
ACTH
(iii) Detergents, sewage, X-rays;
oil spills.
(iv) Stoma, stroma,
lamellae, quantosome.
(v) Basophil, neutrophil,
Eosinophil, lymphocyte.
(e) Given below is an apparatus used to study a particular process in plants.

Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Name the apparatus.
(ii) Mention one limitation of this apparatus.
(iii) Which phenomenon is studied with the help of this apparatus?
(iv) What is the function of the part marked reservoir?
(v) What is the role of the air bubble in the experiment? [5]
(f) Choose the correct alternative from the choices given below each statement so
as to complete its meaning:
(i) The number of daughter cells formed at the end of meiosis from a cell
are.
(a) 2 Haploid cells
(b) 2 Diploid cells
(c) 4 Haploid cells
(d) 4 Diploid cells.
(ii) Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system
in human beings?
(a) Uterus
(b) Ovary
(c) Ureter
(d) Fallopian tube.
(iii) Ovulation occurs:
(a) at the beginning of menstrual cycle
(b) in the mid of the menstrual cycle
(c) at the end of the menstrual cycle
(d) during any time of the menstrual cycle.
(iv) Phototrophic mode of nutrition requires:
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Sunlight
(c) CO2 and water
(d) All the above.
(v) Plasmolysis identifies the process of:
(a) Imbibition
(b) Diffusion

(c) Active transport
(d) Osmosis. [5]
(g) Given below are five sets of terms. In each case, arrange and rewrite each set
so as to be in logical sequence.
(i) Tympanum, stapes, malleus, incus, fenestra ovalis
(ii) Graafian follicle, uterus, oviducal funnel, fallopian tube, ovum
(iii) Soil, water, root hair, xylem, cortex, endodermis
(iv) Association neuron, effector, motor neuron, receptor, sensory neuron.
(v) Lens, pupil, conjunctiva, yellow spot, cornea. [5]
(h) Explain the following terms:
(i) Antiseptic
(ii) Photolysis
(iii) Growth rate of population
(iv) Pollutant
(v) Trophic hormone. [5]

Question 2
(a) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a certain part of the process
of circulation of blood in man. Study the same and then answer the questions
that follow:

(i) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 4 and 6.
(ii) Give the number and name of the vessel which contains the maximum
amount of urea a few hours after a protein rich meal.
(iii) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the cross sectional view of the blood
vessel numbered 3.
(iv) Mention two structural differences between blood vessels ‘3’ and ‘8’. [5]
(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is given in
brackets:
(i) Lymphocytes and Neutrophils. (structure of the nucleus)
(ii) Beginning of the ventricular systole and the end of ventricular systole.
(type of heart sound)
(iii) Prostrate gland and Cowper’s gland. (the nature of secretion)
(iv) Rod cells and Cone cells. (pigment)
(v) Simple goitre and exophthalmic goitre. (cause of the disorder) [5]
Question 3
(a) Complete the following table by filling in the numbered blanks with an
appropriate term/answer:
Gland Hormone produced Function

Thyroid 1 2
3 4 Dilates pupil of eye
5 Insulin 6
7 ADH 8
9 10 Conversion of glycogen to
glucose
[5]
(b) (i) Draw a neat diagram of a single Malpighian corpuscle and label the
following parts:
Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Afferent arteriole, and Efferent
arteriole.
(ii) Name and explain the process that occurs in the glomerulus. [5]

Question 4
(a) Study the diagram given below and then answer the questions that follow:
(i) Name the parts labelled 1 and 2. State the functions of each part.
(ii) State any two functions of the amniotic fluid.
(iii) What is the role of the umbilical cord in the development of the
foetus?
(iv) Name the part in the diagram which is endocrine in nature. [5]
(b) (i) State Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment.

(ii) A homozygous Tall plant (T) bearing red coloured (R) flowers is
crossed with a homozygous Dwarf plant (t) bearing white flowers (r):-
(1) Give the Genotype and Phenotype of the F1 generation.
(2) Give the possible combinations of the gametes that can be
obtained from the F1 hybrid.
(3) Give the dihybrid ratio and the phenotype of the offsprings of
the F2 generation when two plants of the F1 generation above
are crossed. [5]

Question 5
(a) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye. Study the
same and then answer the questions that follow:
(i) Name the defect shown in the diagram.

(ii) Name two possible reasons for this defect of the eye in human beings.
(iii) Name the parts labelled 1 to 4.
(iv) Draw a labelled diagram to show how the above mentioned defect is
rectified using an appropriate lens. [5]
(b) (i) Mention three reasons for the increase in population in India.
(ii) Write the full forms of NADP and BCG.
(iii) Explain the term antibiotic. Give an example of an antibiotic.
(iv) State any three functions of the World Health Organization. [5]
Question 6
(a) (i) Explain the term Plasmolysis. Give one application of this
phenomenon in our daily lives.
(ii) Enumerate the steps involved in testing a green leaf for the presence of
starch.
(iii) Mention any three causes of soil pollution. [5]
(b) (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the membranous labyrinth found in
the inner ear. Name the part of the structure that is responsible for
static balance in human beings.

(ii) Name the tube which connects the cavity of the middle ear with the
throat.
(iii) Name any two microbial diseases and the vaccines used as preventive
measures for each. [5]
Question 7
(a) The diagram given below represents a stage during mitotic cell division in
an animal cell:-
(i) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.

(ii) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
(iii) What is the chromosome number of the cell?
(iv) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the cell as it would appear in the
next stage. Name the stage. [5]
(b) Give reasons for the following:-

(i) Plants begin to die when excess of soluble fertilizers are added to
the soil.
(ii) Injury to the medulla oblongata results in death.
(iii) Gametes have a haploid number of chromosomes.
(iv) Green leaves are thin and broad.
(v) There is a need to check the present rate of urbanisation. [5]

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ICSE 2024 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

Time allowed: Two and half hours

Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.

This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks.

Mathematical tables are provided.

(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 1 of 12

(v) Which of the following is/are an Arithmetic Progression (A.P.)?

2. √3, 2√3, 3√3, 4√3,………

(c) only 2. and 3.

(d) all 1., 2. and 3.

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 2 of 12

What are the values of M and N?

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 3 of 12

(b) tan β < tan γ

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 4 of 12

(xv) For the given 25 variables: 𝒙𝟏 , 𝒙𝟐 , 𝒙𝟑 … … … … … . 𝒙𝟐𝟓

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 5 of 12

(a) the interest he earns.

(b) his monthly deposit.

(c) the rate of interest.

(iii) Find: [4]

(a) (sin 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2

(b) (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2

Using the above results prove the following trigonometry identity.

(sin 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2 + (cos 𝜃 + sec 𝜃)2 = 7 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝜃

(i) If a, b and c are in continued proportion, then prove that: [4]

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 6 of 12

(a) Name the curve plotted

(b) Total number of students

(c) The median marks

(d) Number of students scoring between 50 and 80 marks

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 7 of 12

(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)

(c) find the length of FE

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 8 of 12

(b) prove that RB is parallel to PQ. R

Age (in years) Number of Members of the Society

Use graph sheet for this question.

(a) Draw a histogram representing the above distribution.

(b) Hence find the modal age of the members.

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 9 of 12

(a) coordinates of M and N P

(a) Find the distance between the two ships A and B.

(Use mathematical tables for this question)

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 10 of 12

(ii) ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which BC = CD and EF is a tangent at A. [3]

∠CBD = 43° and ∠ADB = 62°. Find:

(a) coordinates of point D.

(b) coordinates of point A.

(c) equation of a line passing through M and parallel to line BC.

T24 511 – SPECIMEN 11 of 12

(a) construct the locus of points equidistant from AB and BC.

(b) construct the locus of points equidistant from A and B.

Hence, construct a circle with centre P and passing through A and B.