CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Problem Set #1 Reading Comprehension (18 Essays, 61 Questions) ........... 3

Answer Keys #1 ......................................................................................... 40

Problem Set #2 Reading Comprehension (17 Essays, 57 Questions) ......... 41

Answer Keys #2.......................................................................................... 74

Problem Set #3 Reading Comprehension (84 Essays, 290 Questions) ....... 75

Answer Keys #3........................................................................................ 280

Problem Set #4 Reading Comprehension (8 Essays, 29 Questions) .......... 282

Answer Keys #4........................................................................................ 299

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Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Problem Set #1 Reading Comprehension
(18 Essays, 61 Questions)

Essay #1.
During the nineteenth century, occupational information about women that was provided by the
United States census--a population count conducted each decade--became more detailed and
precise in response to social changes. Through 1840, simple enumeration by household mirrored a
home-based agricultural economy and hierarchical social order: the head of the household
(presumed male or absent) was specified by name, whereas other household members were only
indicated by the total number of persons counted in various categories, including occupational
categories. Like farms, most enterprises were family-run, so that the census measured economic
activity as an attribute of the entire household, rather than of individuals.

The 1850 census, partly responding to antislavery and women's rights movements, initiated the
collection of specific information about each individual in a household. Not until 1870 was
occupational information analyzed by gender: the census superintendent reported 1.8 million
women employed outside the home in "gainful and reputable occupations." In addition, he
arbitrarily attributed to each family one woman "keeping house." Overlap between the two groups
was not calculated until 1890, when the rapid entry of women into the paid labor force and social
issues arising from industrialization were causing women's advocates and women statisticians to
press for more thorough and accurate accounting of women's occupations and wages.

Question #1.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) explain and critique the methods used by early statisticians

(B) compare and contrast a historical situation with a current-day one
(C) describe and explain a historical change
(D) discuss historical opposition to an established institution
(E) trace the origin of a contemporary controversy

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Question #2.

Each of the following aspects of nineteenth-century United States censuses is mentioned in the
passage EXCEPT the

(A) year in which data on occupations began to be analyzed by gender

(B) year in which specific information began to be collected on individuals in addition to the head of
the household
(C) year in which overlap between women employed outside the home and women keeping house
was first calculated
(D) way in which the 1890 census measured women's income levels and educational backgrounds
(E) way in which household members were counted in the 1840 census

Question #3.

The passage suggests which of the following about the "women's advocates and women
statisticians" mentioned in the highlighted text?

(A) They wanted to call attention to the lack of pay for women who worked in the home.
(B) They believed that previous census information was inadequate and did not reflect certain
economic changes in the United States.
(C) They had begun to press for changes in census-taking methods as part of their participation in
the antislavery movement.
(D) They thought that census statistics about women would be more accurate if more women were
employed as census officials.
(E) They had conducted independent studies that disputed the official statistics provided by previous
United States censuses.

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Essay #2.
The general density dependence model can be applied to explain the founding of specialist firms
(those attempting to serve a narrow target market). According to this model, specialist foundings
hinge on the interplay between legitimation and competitive forces, both of which are functions of
the density (total number) of firms in a particular specialist population. Legitimation occurs as a new
type of firm moves from being viewed as unfamiliar to being viewed as a natural way to organize. At
low density levels, each founding increases legitimation, reducing barriers to entry and easing
subsequent foundings. Competition occurs because the resources that firms seek--customers,
suppliers, and employees--are limited, but as long as density is low relative to plentiful resources,
the addition of another firm has a negligible impact on the intensity of competition. At high density
levels, however, competitive effects outweigh legitimation effects, discouraging foundings. The
more numerous the competitors, the fiercer the competition will be and the smaller will be the
incentive for new firms to enter the field.

While several studies have found a significant correspondence between the density dependence
model and actual patterns of foundings, other studies have found patterns not consistent with the
model. A possible explanation for this inconsistency is that legitimation and competitive forces
transcend national boundaries, while studies typically restrict their analysis to the national level.
Thus a national-level analysis can understate the true legitimation and competitive forces as well as
the number of foundings in an industry that is internationally integrated. Many industries are or are
becoming international, and since media and information easily cross national borders, so should
legitimation and its effects on overseas foundings. For example, if a type of firm becomes
established in the United States, that information transcends borders, reduces uncertainties, and
helps foundings of that type of firm in other countries. Even within national contexts, studies have
found more support for the density dependence model when they employ broader geographic units
of analysis--for example, finding that the model's operation is seen more clearly at the state and
national levels than at city levels.

Question #4.
According to the passage, which of the following may account for the inconsistency between the
general density dependence model and the evidence provided by certain studies of foundings?

(A) Such studies have overemphasized the impact of preexisting firms on the establishment of new
firms.
(B) Such studies have not focused strongly enough on the role of competition among newly
established firms operating at the city and state levels.
(C) Such studies fail to differentiate among specialist firms with regard to the degree to which they
deviate from familiar forms of organization.
(D) Such studies have not taken into account the fact that many industries are internationally
integrated.
(E) Such studies have neglected to investigate firms that attempt to serve only a narrow target
market.

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Question #5.

In the second paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with

(A) noting various exceptions to a certain general finding

(B) examining the impact of one type of industry on another
(C) proposing a possible explanation for an inconsistency
(D) providing specific examples of a particular phenomenon
(E) defending the validity of a particular study's conclusions

Question #6.

The passage suggests that when a population of specialist firms reaches a high density level, which
of the following is likely to occur?

(A) Foundings will decline despite legitimation that has occurred in these industries.
(B) Increasing competition will encourage many firms to broaden their target market.
(C) Competition for resources will become stabilized and thus foundings will be encouraged.
(D) Many customers will abandon their loyalty to older firms as more innovative firms enter the
market.
(E) Firms will begin to cross national borders in an attempt to gain a competitive advantage.

Question #7.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) question the validity of an economic model

(B) point out some inconsistencies within an economic model
(C) outline an economic model and suggest revisions to it
(D) describe an economic model and provide specific examples to illustrate its use
(E) explain why an economic model remains valid despite inconsistent research results

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Essay #3.
In its 1903 decision in the case of Lone Wolf v. Hitchcock, the United States Supreme Court rejected
the efforts of three Native American tribes to prevent the opening of tribal lands to non-Indian
settlement without tribal consent. In his study of the Lone Wolf case, Blue Clark properly emphasizes
the Court's assertion of a virtually unlimited unilateral power of Congress (the House of
Representatives and the Senate) over Native American affairs. But he fails to note the decision's
more far-reaching impact: shortly after Lone Wolf, the federal government totally abandoned
negotiation and execution of formal written agreements with Indian tribes as a prerequisite for the
implementation of federal Indian policy. Many commentators believe that this change had already
occurred in 1871 when--following a dispute between the House and the Senate over which chamber
should enjoy primacy in Indian affairs--Congress abolished the making of treaties with Native
American tribes. But in reality the federal government continued to negotiate formal tribal
agreements past the turn of the century, treating these documents not as treaties with sovereign
nations requiring ratification by the Senate but simply as legislation to be passed by both houses of
Congress. The Lone Wolf decision ended this era of formal negotiation and finally did away with
what had increasingly become the empty formality of obtaining tribal consent.

Question #8.

According to the passage, the congressional action of 1871 had which of the following effects?

(A) Native American tribal agreements were treated as legislation that had to be passed by both
houses of Congress.
(B) The number of formal agreements negotiated between the federal government and Native
American tribes decreased.
(C) The procedures for congressional approval and implementation of federal Indian policy were
made more precise.
(D) It became more difficult for Congress to exercise unilateral authority over Native American
affairs.
(E) The role of Congress in the ratification of treaties with sovereign nations was eventually
undermined.

Question #9.

According to the passage, which of the following resulted from the Lone Wolf decision?

(A) The Supreme Court took on a greater role in Native American affairs.
(B) Native American tribes lost their legal standing as sovereign nations in their dealings with the
federal government, but their ownership of tribal lands was confirmed.
(C) The federal government no longer needed to conclude a formal agreement with a Native
American tribe in order to carry out policy decisions that affected the tribe.
(D) The federal government began to appropriate tribal lands for distribution to non-Indian settlers.
(E) Native American tribes were no longer able to challenge congressional actions by appealing to
the Supreme Court.

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Question #10.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) identifying similarities in two different theories

(B) evaluating a work of scholarship
(C) analyzing the significance of a historical event
(D) debunking a revisionist interpretation
(E) exploring the relationship between law and social reality

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Essay #4.
Some historians contend that conditions in the United States during the Second World War gave rise
to a dynamic wartime alliance between trade unions and the African American community, an
alliance that advanced the cause of civil rights. They conclude that the postwar demise of this vital
alliance constituted a lost opportunity for the civil rights movement that followed the war. Other
scholars, however, have portrayed organized labor as defending all along the relatively privileged
position of White workers relative to African American workers. Clearly, these two perspectives are
not easily reconcilable, but the historical reality is not reducible to one or the other.
Unions faced a choice between either maintaining the prewar status quo or promoting a more
inclusive approach that sought for all members the right to participate in the internal affairs of
unions, access to skilled and high-paying positions within the occupational hierarchy, and protection
against management's arbitrary authority in the workplace. While union representatives often
voiced this inclusive ideal, in practice unions far more often favored entrenched interests. The
accelerating development of the civil rights movement following the Second World War exacerbated
the unions' dilemma, forcing trade unionists to confront contradictions in their own practices.

Question #11.

The "unions' dilemma" mentioned in the highlighted text can best be described as the question of
whether or not to

(A) pressure management to create more skilled and high-paying positions

(B) fight for greater union participation in management decisions
(C) include minority workers in their membership
(D) extend full rights and benefits to all their members
(E) emphasize the recruitment of new members over serving the needs of current members

Question #12.

According to the passage, the historians mentioned in the first highlighted portion of text and the
scholars mentioned in the second highlighted portion disagree about the

(A) contribution made by organized labor to the war effort during the Second World War
(B) issues that union members considered most important during the Second World War
(C) relationship between unions and African Americans during the Second World War
(D) effect of the Second World War on the influence of unions in the workplace
(E) extent to which African Americans benefited from social and political changes following the
Second World War

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Question #13.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) providing a context within which to evaluate opposing viewpoints about a historical
phenomenon
(B) identifying a flawed assumption underlying one interpretation of a historical phenomenon
(C) assessing the merits and weaknesses of a controversial theory about a historical phenomenon
(D) discussing the historical importance of the development of a wartime alliance
(E) evaluating evidence used to support a particular interpretation of a historical phenomenon

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Essay #5.
Historians have identified two dominant currents in the Russian women's movement of the late
tsarist period. "Bourgeois" feminism, so called by its more radical opponents, emphasized
"individualist" feminist goals such as access to education, career opportunities, and legal equality.
"Socialist" feminists, by contrast, emphasized class, rather than gender, as the principal source of
women's inequality and oppression, and socialist revolution, not legal reform, as the only road to
emancipation and equality.

However, despite antagonism between bourgeois feminists and socialist feminists, the two
movements shared certain underlying beliefs. Both regarded paid labor as the principal means by
which women might attain emancipation: participation in the workplace and economic self-
sufficiency, they believed, would make women socially useful and therefore deserving of equality
with men. Both groups also recognized the enormous difficulties women faced when they combined
paid labor with motherhood. In fact, at the First All-Russian Women's Congress in 1908, most
participants advocated maternity insurance and paid maternity leave, although the intense hostility
between some socialists and bourgeois feminists at the Congress made it difficult for them to
recognize these areas of agreement. Finally, socialist feminists and most bourgeois feminists
concurred in subordinating women's emancipation to what they considered the more important
goal of liberating the entire Russian population from political oppression, economic backwardness,
and social injustice.

Question #14.

The passage suggests that socialists within the Russian women's movement and most bourgeois
feminists believed that in Russia

(A) women would not achieve economic equality until they had political representation within the
government
(B) the achievement of larger political aims should take precedence over the achievement of
women's rights
(C) the emancipation of women would ultimately bring about the liberation of the entire Russian
population from political oppression
(D) women's oppression was more rooted in economic inequality than was the case in other
countries
(E) the women's movement was more ideologically divided than were women's movements in other
countries

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Question #15.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) identifying points of agreement between two groups

(B) advocating one approach to social reform over another
(C) contrasting two approaches to solving a political problem
(D) arguing that the views espoused by one political group were more radical than those espoused
by another group
(E) criticizing historians for overlooking similarities between the views espoused by two superficially
dissimilar groups

Question #16.

According to the passage, Russian socialists within the women's movement and most bourgeois
feminists disagreed about which of the following?

(A) Whether legal reform was central to the achievement of feminist goals
(B) Whether paid employment was important for the achievement of equality
(C) Whether maternity insurance was desirable for working mothers
(D) Whether working mothers faced obstacles
(E) Whether women's emancipation should be subordinated to the liberation of the Russian
population

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Essay #6.
Colonial historian David Allen's intensive study of five communities in seventeenth-century
Massachusetts is a model of meticulous scholarship on the detailed microcosmic level, and is
convincing up to a point. Allen suggests that much more coherence and direct continuity existed
between English and colonial agricultural practices and administrative organization than other
historians have suggested. However, he overstates his case with the declaration that he has proved
"the remarkable extent to which diversity in New England local institutions was directly imitative of
regional differences in the mother country."

Such an assertion ignores critical differences between seventeenth-century England and New
England. First, England was overcrowded and land-hungry; New England was sparsely populated
and labor-hungry. Second, England suffered the normal European rate of mortality; New England,
especially in the first generation of English colonists, was virtually free from infectious diseases.
Third, England had an all-embracing state church; in New England membership in a church was
restricted to the elect. Fourth, a high proportion of English villagers lived under paternalistic
resident squires; no such class existed in New England. By narrowing his focus to village institutions
and ignoring these critical differences, which studies by Greven, Demos, and Lockridge have shown
to be so important, Allen has created a somewhat distorted picture of reality.

Allen's work is a rather extreme example of the "country community" school of seventeenth-century
English history whose intemperate excesses in removing all national issues from the history of that
period have been exposed by Professor Clive Holmes. What conclusion can be drawn, for example,
from Allen's discovery that Puritan clergy who had come to the colonies from East Anglia were one-
third to one-half as likely to return to England by 1660 as were Puritan ministers from western and
northern England? We are not told in what way, if at all, this discovery illuminates historical
understanding. Studies of local history have enormously expanded our horizons, but it is a mistake
for their authors to conclude that village institutions are all that mattered, simply because their
functions are all that the records of village institutions reveal.

Question #17.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of most villages in seventeenth-century
England?

(A) The resident squire had significant authority.

(B) Church members were selected on the basis of their social status within the community.
(C) Low population density restricted agricultural and economic growth.
(D) There was little diversity in local institutions from one region to another.
(E) National events had little impact on local customs and administrative organization.

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Question #18.

The passage suggests that Professor Clive Holmes would most likely agree with which of the
following statements?

(A) An understanding of seventeenth-century English local institutions requires a consideration of

national issues.
(B) The "country community" school of seventeenth-century English history distorts historical
evidence in order to establish continuity between old and new institutions.
(C) Most historians distort reality by focusing on national concerns to the exclusion of local concerns.
(D) National issues are best understood from the perspective of those at the local level.
(E) Local histories of seventeenth-century English villages have contributed little to the
understanding of village life.

Question #19.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author of the passage considers Allen's "discovery" (see
highlighted text) to be

(A) already known to earlier historians

(B) based on a logical fallacy
(C) improbable but nevertheless convincing
(D) an unexplained, isolated fact
(E) a new, insightful observation

Question #20.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) substantiating a claim about a historical event

(B) reconciling two opposing ideas about a historical era
(C) disputing evidence a scholar uses to substantiate a claim about a historical event
(D) analyzing two approaches to scholarly research and evaluating their methodologies
(E) criticizing a particular study and the approach to historical scholarship it represents

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Essay #7.
The United States government has a long-standing policy of using federal funds to keep small
business viable. The Small Business Act of 1953 authorized the Small Business Administration (SBA)
to enter into contracts with government agencies having procurement powers and to arrange for
fulfillment of these contracts by awarding subcontracts to small businesses. In the mid-1960's,
during the war on poverty years, Congress hoped to encourage minority entrepreneurs by directing
such funding to minority businesses. At first this funding was directed toward minority
entrepreneurs with very low incomes. A 1967 amendment to the Economic Opportunity Act directed
the SBA to pay special attention to minority-owned businesses located in urban or rural areas
characterized by high proportions of unemployed or low-income individuals. Since then, the answer
given to the fundamental question of who the recipients should be--the most economically
disadvantaged or those with the best prospects for business success--has changed, and the social
goals of the programs have shifted, resulting in policy changes.

The first shift occurred during the early 1970's. While the goal of assisting the economically
disadvantaged entrepreneur remained, a new goal emerged: to remedy the effects of past
discrimination. In fact, in 1970 the SBA explicitly stated that their main goal was to increase the
number of minority-owned businesses. At the time, minorities constituted seventeen percent of the
nation's population, but only four percent of the nation's self-employed. This ownership gap was
held to be the result of past discrimination. Increasing the number of minority-owned firms was
seen as a way to remedy this problem. In that context, providing funding to minority entrepreneurs
in middle- and high-income brackets seemed justified.

In the late 1970's, the goals of minority-business funding programs shifted again. At the Minority
Business Development Agency, for example, the goal of increasing numbers of minority-owned firms
was supplanted by the goal of creating and assisting more minority-owned substantive firms with
future growth potential. Assisting manufacturers or wholesalers became far more important than
assisting small service businesses. Minority-business funding programs were now justified as
instruments for economic development, particularly for creating jobs in minority communities of
high unemployment.

Question #21.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) discuss historical changes in a government policy

(B) describe the role of Congress in regulating the work of the SBA
(C) contrast types of funding sources used by minority businesses
(D) correct a misconception about minority entrepreneurship
(E) advocate an alternative approach to funding minority entrepreneurs

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Question #22.

It can be inferred that the "ownership gap" (see highlighted text) would be narrowed if which of the
following were to occur?

(A) Minority entrepreneurs received a percentage of government contracts equal to that received by
nonminority entrepreneurs.
(B) Middle- and high-income minority entrepreneurs gave more assistance to their low-income
counterparts in the business community.
(C) Minority entrepreneurs hired a percentage of minority employees equal to the percentage of
minority residents in their own communities.
(D) The percentage of self-employed minority persons rose to more than ten percent of all self-
employed persons.
(E) Seventeen percent of all persons employed in small businesses were self-employed.

Question #23.

According to the passage, in 1970 funding to minority entrepreneurs focused primarily on which of
the following?

(A) Alleviating chronic unemployment in urban areas

(B) Narrowing the ownership gap
(C) Assisting minority-owned businesses with growth potential
(D) Awarding subcontracts to businesses that encouraged community development
(E) Targeting the most economically disadvantaged minority-owned businesses

Question #24.

Which of the following best describes the function of the second paragraph in the passage as a
whole?

(A) It narrows the scope of the topic introduced in the first paragraph.
(B) It presents an example of the type of change discussed in the first paragraph.
(C) It cites the most striking instance of historical change in a particular government policy.
(D) It explains the rationale for the creation of the government agency whose operations are
discussed in the first paragraph.
(E) It presents the results of policies adopted by the federal government.

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Essay #8.
In terrestrial environments, gravity places special demands on the cardiovascular systems of animals.
Gravitational pressure can cause blood to pool in the lower regions of the body, making it difficult to
circulate blood to critical organs such as the brain. Terrestrial snakes, in particular, exhibit
adaptations that aid in circulating blood against the force of gravity.

The problem confronting terrestrial snakes is best illustrated by what happens to sea snakes when
removed from their supportive medium. Because the vertical pressure gradients within the blood
vessels are counteracted by similar pressure gradients in the surrounding water, the distribution of
blood throughout the body of sea snakes remains about the same regardless of their orientation in
space, provided they remain in the ocean. When removed from the water and tilted at various
angles with the head up, however, blood pressure at their midpoint drops significantly, and at brain
level falls to zero. That many terrestrial snakes in similar spatial orientations do not experience this
kind of circulatory failure suggests that certain adaptations enable them to regulate blood pressure
more effectively in those orientations.

One such adaptation is the closer proximity of the terrestrial snake's heart to its head, which helps
to ensure circulation to the brain, regardless of the snake's orientation in space. The heart of sea
snakes can be located near the middle of the body, a position that minimizes the work entailed in
circulating blood to both extremities. In arboreal snakes, however, which dwell in trees and often
assume a vertical posture, the average distance from the heart to the head can be as little as 15
percent of overall body length. Such a location requires that blood circulated to the tail of the snake
travel a greater distance back to the heart, a problem solved by another adaptation. When climbing,
arboreal snakes often pause momentarily to wiggle their bodies, causing waves of muscle
contraction that advance from the lower torso to head. By compressing the veins and forcing blood
forward, these contractions apparently improve the flow of venous blood returning to the heart.

Question #25.

The passage provides information in support of which of the following assertions?

(A) The disadvantages of an adaptation to a particular feature of an environment often outweigh the
advantages of such an adaptation.
(B) An organism's reaction to being placed in an environment to which it is not well adapted can
sometimes illustrate the problems that have been solved by the adaptations of organisms
indigenous to that environment.
(C) The effectiveness of an organism's adaptation to a particular feature of its environment can only
be evaluated by examining the effectiveness with which organisms of other species have
adapted to a similar feature of a different environment.
(D) Organisms of the same species that inhabit strikingly different environments will often adapt in
remarkably similar ways to the few features of those environments that are common.
(E) Different species of organisms living in the same environment will seldom adapt to features of
that environment in the same way.

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Question #26.

According to the passage, one reason that the distribution of blood in the sea snake changes little
while the creature remains in the ocean is that

(A) the heart of the sea snake tends to be located near the center of its body
(B) pressure gradients in the water surrounding the sea snake counter the effects of vertical pressure
gradients within its blood vessels
(C) the sea snake assumes a vertical posture less frequently than do the terrestrial and the arboreal
snake
(D) the sea snake often relies on waves of muscle contractions to help move blood from the torso to
the head
(E) the force of pressure gradients in the water surrounding the sea snake exceeds that of vertical
pressure gradients within its circulatory system

Question #27.

The author suggests that which of the following is a disadvantage that results from the location of a
snake's heart in close proximity to its head?

(A) A decrease in the efficiency with which the snake regulates the flow of blood to the brain
(B) A decrease in the number of orientations in space that a snake can assume without loss of blood
flow to the brain
(C) A decrease in blood pressure at the snake's midpoint when it is tilted at various angles with its
head up
(D) An increase in the tendency of blood to pool at the snake's head when the snake is tilted at
various angles with its head down
(E) An increase in the amount of effort required to distribute blood to and from the snake's tail

Question #28.

In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?

(A) Explaining adaptations that enable the terrestrial snake to cope with the effects of gravitational
pressure on its circulatory system
(B) Comparing the circulatory system of the sea snake with that of the terrestrial snake
(C) Explaining why the circulatory system of the terrestrial snake is different from that of the sea
snake
(D) Pointing out features of the terrestrial snake's cardiovascular system that make it superior to
that of the sea snake
(E) Explaining how the sea snake is able to neutralize the effects of gravitational pressure on its
circulatory system

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Essay #9.
In a new book about the antiparty feeling of the early political leaders of the United States, Ralph
Ketcham argues that the first six Presidents differed decisively from later Presidents because the first
six held values inherited from the classical humanist tradition of eighteenth-century England. In this
view, government was designed not to satisfy the private desires of the people but to make them
better citizens; this tradition stressed the disinterested devotion of political leaders to the public
good. Justice, wisdom, and courage were more important qualities in a leader than the ability to
organize voters and win elections. Indeed, leaders were supposed to be called to office rather than
to run for office. And if they took up the burdens of public office with a sense of duty, leaders also
believed that such offices were naturally their due because of their social preeminence or their
contributions to the country. Given this classical conception of leadership, it is not surprising that
the first six Presidents condemned political parties. Parties were partial by definition, self-
interested, and therefore serving something other than the transcendent public good.

Even during the first presidency (Washington's), however, the classical conception of virtuous
leadership was being undermined by commercial forces that had been gathering since at least the
beginning of the eighteenth century. Commerce--its profit-making, its self-interestedness, its
individualism--became the enemy of these classical ideals. Although Ketcham does not picture the
struggle in quite this way, he does rightly see Jackson's tenure (the seventh presidency) as the
culmination of the acceptance of party, commerce, and individualism. For the Jacksonians,
nonpartisanship lost its relevance, and under the direction of Van Buren, party gained a new
legitimacy. The classical ideals of the first six Presidents became identified with a privileged
aristocracy, an aristocracy that had to be overcome in order to allow competition between opposing
political interests. Ketcham is so strongly committed to justifying the classical ideals, however, that
he underestimates the advantages of their decline. For example, the classical conception of
leadership was incompatible with our modern notion of the freedoms of speech and press, freedoms
intimately associated with the legitimacy of opposing political parties.

Question #29.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) describing and comparing two theories about the early history of the United States
(B) describing and analyzing an argument about the early history of the United States
(C) discussing new evidence that qualifies a theory about the early history of the United States
(D) refuting a theory about political leadership in the United States
(E) resolving an ambiguity in an argument about political leadership in the United States

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Question #30.

According to the passage, the author and Ketcham agree on which of the following points?

(A) The first six Presidents held the same ideas about political parties as did later Presidents in the
United States.
(B) Classical ideals supported the growth of commercial forces in the United States.
(C) The first political parties in the United States were formed during Van Buren's term in office.
(D) The first six Presidents placed great emphasis on individualism and civil rights.
(E) Widespread acceptance of political parties occurred during Andrew Jackson's presidency.

Question #31.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree that modern views of
the freedoms of speech and press are

(A) values closely associated with the beliefs of the aristocracy of the early United States
(B) political rights less compatible with democracy and individualism than with classical ideals
(C) political rights uninfluenced by the formation of opposing political parties
(D) values not inherent in the classical humanist tradition of eighteenth-century England
(E) values whose interpretation would have been agreed on by all United States Presidents

Question #32.

Which of the following, if true, provides the LEAST support for the author's argument about
commerce and political parties during Jackson's presidency?

(A) Many supporters of Jackson resisted the commercialization that could result from participation in
a national economy.
(B) Protest against the corrupt and partisan nature of political parties in the United States subsided
during Jackson's presidency.
(C) During Jackson's presidency the use of money became more common than bartering of goods
and services.
(D) More northerners than southerners supported Jackson because southerners were opposed to
the development of a commercial economy.
(E) Andrew Jackson did not feel as strongly committed to the classical ideals of leadership as George
Washington had felt.

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Essay #10.
Conventional wisdom has it that large deficits in the United States budget cause interest rates to
rise. Two main arguments are given for this claim. According to the first, as the deficit increases, the
government will borrow more to make up for the ensuing shortage of funds. Consequently, it is
argued, if both the total supply of credit (money available for borrowing) and the amount of credit
sought by nongovernment borrowers remain relatively stable, as is often supposed, then the price of
credit (the interest rate) will increase. That this is so is suggested by the basic economic principle
that if supplies of a commodity (here, credit) remain fixed and demand for that commodity
increases, its price will also increase. The second argument supposes that the government will tend
to finance its deficits by increasing the money supply with insufficient regard for whether there is
enough room for economic growth to enable such an increase to occur without causing inflation. It is
then argued that financiers will expect the deficit to cause inflation and will raise interest rates,
anticipating that because of inflation the money they lend will be worth less when paid back.

Unfortunately for the first argument, it is unreasonable to assume that nongovernment borrowing
and the supply of credit will remain relatively stable. Nongovernment borrowing sometimes
decreases. When it does, increased government borrowing will not necessarily push up the total
demand for credit. Alternatively, when credit availability increases, for example through greater
foreign lending to the United States, then interest rates need not rise, even if both private and
government borrowing increase.

The second argument is also problematic. Financing the deficit by increasing the money supply
should cause inflation only when there is not enough room for economic growth. Currently, there is
no reason to expect deficits to cause inflation. However, since many financiers believe that deficits
ordinarily create inflation, then admittedly they will be inclined to raise interest rates to offset
mistakenly anticipated inflation. This effect, however, is due to ignorance, not to the deficit itself,
and could be lessened by educating financiers on this issue.

Question #33.

Which of the following best summarizes the central idea of the passage?

(A) A decrease in nongovernment borrowing or an increase in the availability of credit can eliminate
or lessen the ill effects of increased borrowing by the government.
(B) Educating financiers about the true relationship between large federal deficits and high interest
rates will make financiers less prone to raise interest rates in response to deficits.
(C) There is little support for the widely held belief that large federal deficits will create higher
interest rates, as the main arguments given to defend this claim are flawed.
(D) When the government borrows money, demand for credit increases, typically creating higher
interest rates unless special conditions such as decreased consumer spending arise.
(E) Given that most financiers believe in a cause-and-effect relationship between large deficits and
high interest rates, it should be expected that financiers will raise interest rates.

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Question #34.

It can be inferred from the passage that proponents of the second argument would most likely agree
with which of the following statements?

(A) The United States government does not usually care whether or not inflation increases.
(B) People in the United States government generally know very little about economics.
(C) The United States government is sometimes careless in formulating its economic policies.
(D) The United States government sometimes relies too much on the easy availability of foreign
credit.
(E) The United States government increases the money supply whenever there is enough room for
growth to support the increase.

Question #35.

Which of the following claims concerning the United States government's financing of the deficit
does the author make in discussing the second argument?

(A) The government will decrease the money supply in times when the government does not have a
deficit to finance.
(B) The government finances its deficits by increasing the money supply whenever the economy is
expanding.
(C) As long as the government finances the deficit by borrowing, nongovernment borrowers will pay
higher interest rates.
(D) The only way for the government to finance its deficits is to increase the money supply without
regard for whether such an increase would cause inflation.
(E) Inflation should be caused when the government finances the deficit by increasing the money
supply only if there is not enough room for economic growth to support the increase.

Question #36.

The author uses the term "admittedly" (see highlighted text) in order to indicate that

(A) the second argument has some truth to it, though not for the reasons usually supposed
(B) the author has not been successful in attempting to point out inadequacies in the two arguments
(C) the thesis that large deficits directly cause interest rates to rise has strong support after all
(D) financiers should admit that they were wrong in thinking that large deficits will cause higher
inflation rates
(E) financiers generally do not think that the author's criticisms of the second argument are worthy
of consideration

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Essay #11.
Current feminist theory, in validating women's own stories of their experience, has encouraged
scholars of women's history to view the use of women's oral narratives as the methodology, next to
the use of women's written autobiography, that brings historians closest to the "reality" of women's
lives. Such narratives, unlike most standard histories, represent experience from the perspective of
women, affirm the importance of women's contributions, and furnish present-day women with
historical continuity that is essential to their identity, individually and collectively.

Scholars of women's history should, however, be as cautious about accepting oral narratives at face
value as they already are about written memories. Oral narratives are no more likely than are
written narratives to provide a disinterested commentary on events or people. Moreover, the
stories people tell to explain themselves are shaped by narrative devices and storytelling
conventions, as well as by other cultural and historical factors, in ways that the storytellers may be
unaware of. The political rhetoric of a particular era, for example, may influence women's
interpretations of the significance of their experience. Thus a woman who views the Second World
War as pivotal in increasing the social acceptance of women's paid work outside the home may
reach that conclusion partly and unwittingly because of wartime rhetoric encouraging a positive
view of women's participation in such work.

Question #37.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) contrasting the benefits of one methodology with the benefits of another
(B) describing the historical origins and inherent drawbacks of a particular methodology
(C) discussing the appeal of a particular methodology and some concerns about its use
(D) showing that some historians' adoption of a particular methodology has led to criticism of recent
historical scholarship
(E) analyzing the influence of current feminist views on women's interpretations of their experience

Question #38.

According to the passage, scholars of women's history should refrain from doing which of the
following?

(A) Relying on traditional historical sources when women's oral narratives are unavailable
(B) Focusing on the influence of political rhetoric on women's perceptions to the exclusion of other
equally important factors
(C) Attempting to discover the cultural and historical factors that influence the stories women tell
(D) Assuming that the conventions of women's written autobiographies are similar to the
conventions of women's oral narratives
(E) Accepting women's oral narratives less critically than they accept women's written histories

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Question #39.

According to the passage, each of the following is a difference between women's oral narratives and
most standard histories EXCEPT:

(A) Women's oral histories validate the significance of women's achievements.

(B) Women's oral histories depict experience from the point of view of women.
(C) Women's oral histories acknowledge the influence of well-known women.
(D) Women's oral histories present today's women with a sense of their historical relationship to
women of the past.
(E) Women's oral histories are crucial to the collective identity of today's women.

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Essay #12.
The professionalization of the study of history in the second half of the nineteenth century, including
history's transformation from a literary genre to a scientific discipline, had important consequences
not only for historians' perceptions of women but also for women as historians. The disappearance
of women as objects of historical studies during this period has elements of irony to it. On the one
hand, in writing about women, earlier historians had relied not on firsthand sources but rather on
secondary sources; the shift to more rigorous research methods required that secondary sources be
disregarded. On the other hand, the development of archival research and the critical editing of
collections of documents began to reveal significant new historical evidence concerning women, yet
this evidence was perceived as substantially irrelevant: historians saw political history as the general
framework for historical writing. Because women were seen as belonging to the private rather than
to the public sphere, the discovery of documents about them, or by them, did not, by itself, produce
history acknowledging the contributions of women. In addition, genres such as biography and
memoir, those forms of "particular history" that women had traditionally authored, fell into
disrepute. The dividing line between "particular history" and general history was redefined in
stronger terms, widening the gulf between amateur and professional practices of historical research.

Question #40.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) describing some effects of the professionalization of the study of history on the writing of
women's history
(B) explaining some reasons for the professionalization of the writing of history
(C) discussing the kinds of historical writing traditionally practiced by women
(D) contrasting the approach to the writing of history taken by women with the approach taken by
men
(E) criticizing certain changes that occurred in the writing of history during the second half of the
nineteenth century

Question #41.

Which of the following best describes one of the "elements of irony" referred to in the highlighted
text?

(A) Although the more scientific-minded historians of the second half of the nineteenth century
considered women appropriate subjects for historical writing, earlier historians did not.
(B) Although archival research uncovered documentary evidence of women's role in history,
historians continued to rely on secondary sources for information about women.
(C) Although historians were primarily concerned with writing about the public sphere, they
generally relegated women to the private sphere.
(D) The scientific approach to history revealed more information about women, but that information
was ignored.
(E) The professionalization of history, while marginalizing much of women's writing about history,
enhanced the importance of women as historical subjects.

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Question #42.

According to the passage, the development of archival research and the critical editing of collections
of documents had which of the following effects?

(A) Historians increasingly acknowledged women's contributions to history.

(B) Historians began to debate whether secondary sources could provide reliable information.
(C) Historians began to apply less rigorous scientific research criteria to the study of women's
history.
(D) More evidence concerning women became available to historical researchers.
(E) Women began to study history as professional historians.

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Essay #13.
Comparable worth, as a standard applied to eliminate inequities in pay, insists that the values of
certain tasks performed in dissimilar jobs can be compared. In the last decade, this approach has
become a critical social policy issue, as large numbers of private-sector firms and industries as well
as federal, state, and local governmental entities have adopted comparable worth policies or begun
to consider doing so.

This widespread institutional awareness of comparable worth indicates increased public awareness
that pay inequities--that is, situations in which pay is not "fair" because it does not reflect the true
value of a job--exist in the labor market. However, the question still remains: have the gains already
made in pay equity under comparable worth principles been of a precedent-setting nature or are
they mostly transitory, a function of concessions made by employers to mislead female employees
into believing that they have made long-term pay equity gains?

Comparable worth pay adjustments are indeed precedent-setting. Because of the principles driving
them, other mandates that can be applied to reduce or eliminate unjustified pay gaps between male
and female workers have not remedied perceived pay inequities satisfactorily for the litigants in
cases in which men and women hold different jobs. But whenever comparable worth principles are
applied to pay schedules, perceived unjustified pay differences are eliminated. In this sense, then,
comparable worth is more comprehensive than other mandates, such as the Equal Pay Act of 1963
and Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Neither compares tasks in dissimilar jobs (that is, jobs
across occupational categories) in an effort to determine whether or not what is necessary to
perform these tasks--know-how, problem-solving, and accountability--can be quantified in terms of
its dollar value to the employer. Comparable worth, on the other hand, takes as its premise that
certain tasks in dissimilar jobs may require a similar amount of training, effort, and skill; may carry
similar responsibility; may be carried on in an environment having a similar impact upon the worker;
and may have a similar dollar value to the employer.

Question #43.

Which of the following most accurately states the central purpose of the passage?

(A) To criticize the implementation of a new procedure

(B) To assess the significance of a change in policy
(C) To illustrate how a new standard alters procedures
(D) To explain how a new policy is applied in specific cases
(E) To summarize the changes made to date as a result of social policy

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Question #44.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of comparable worth as a policy?

(A) Comparable worth policy decisions in pay-inequity cases have often failed to satisfy the
complainants.
(B) Comparable worth policies have been applied to both public-sector and private-sector employee
pay schedules.
(C) Comparable worth as a policy has come to be widely criticized in the past decade.
(D) Many employers have considered comparable worth as a policy but very few have actually
adopted it.
(E) Early implementations of comparable worth policies resulted in only transitory gains in pay
equity.

Question #45.

It can be inferred from the passage that application of "other mandates" (see highlighted text)
would be unlikely to result in an outcome satisfactory to the female employees in which of the
following situations?

I: males employed as long-distance truck drivers for a furniture company make $3.50 more per
hour than do females with comparable job experience employed in the same capacity.

II: women working in the office of a cement company contend that their jobs are as demanding and
valuable as those of the men working outside in the cement factory, but the women are paid
much less per hour.

III: a law firm employs both male and female paralegals with the same educational and career
backgrounds, but the same salary for male paralegals is $5,000 more than female paralegals.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I and III only

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Question #46.

Which of the following best describes an application of the principles of comparable worth as they
are described in the passage?

(A) The current pay, rates of increase, and rates of promotion for female mechanics are compared
with those of male mechanics.
(B) The training, skills, and job experience of computer programmers in one division of a corporation
are compared to those of programmers making more money in another division.
(C) The number of women holding top executive positions in a corporation is compared to the
number of women available for promotion to those positions, and both tallies are matched to
the tallies for men in the same corporation.
(D) The skills, training, and job responsibilities of the clerks in the township tax assessor's office are
compared to those of the much better-paid township engineers.
(E) The working conditions of female workers in a hazardous-materials environment are reviewed
and their pay schedules compared to those of all workers in similar environments across the
nation.

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Essay #14.
Many United States companies believe that the rising cost of employees' health care benefits has
hurt the country's competitive position in the global market by raising production costs and thus
increasing the prices of exported and domestically sold goods. As a result, these companies have
shifted health care costs to employees in the form of wage deductions or high deductibles. This
strategy, however, has actually hindered companies' competitiveness. For example, cost shifting
threatens employees' health because many do not seek preventive screening. Also, labor relations
have been damaged: the percentage of strikes in which health benefits were a major issue rose from
18 percent in 1986 to 78 percent in 1989.

Health care costs can be managed more effectively if companies intervene in the supply side of
health care delivery just as they do with other key suppliers: strategies used to procure components
necessary for production would work in procuring health care. For example, the make/buy decision--
the decision whether to produce or purchase parts used in making a product--can be applied to
health care. At one company, for example, employees receive health care at an on-site clinic
maintained by the company. The clinic fosters morale, resulting in a low rate of employees leaving
the company. Additionally, the company has constrained the growth of health care costs while
expanding medical services.

Question #47.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) providing support for a traditional theory

(B) comparing several explanations for a problem
(C) summarizing a well-known research study
(D) recommending an alternative approach
(E) criticizing the work of a researcher

Question #48.

The author of the passage asserts which of the following about managing health care costs in an
effective manner?

(A) Educating employees to use health care wisely is the best way to reduce health care costs.
(B) Allowing employees to select health care programs is the most effective means of controlling
health care costs.
(C) Companies should pass rising health care costs on to employees rather than to consumers of the
companies' products.
(D) Companies should use strategies in procuring health care similar to those used in procuring
components necessary for production.
(E) Companies should control health care costs by reducing the extent of medical coverage rather
than by shifting costs to employees.

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Question #49.

Which of the following, if true, would provide the most support for the author's view about
intervening on the supply side of health care?

(A) Most companies do not have enough employees to make on-site clinics cost-effective.
(B) Many companies with on-site clinics offer their employees the option of going outside the
company's system to obtain health care.
(C) The costs of establishing and running an on-site clinic are demonstrably higher than the costs of
paying for health care from an outside provider.
(D) Companies with health care clinics find that employees are unwilling to assist in controlling the
costs of health care.
(E) Employees at companies with on-site clinics seek preventive screening and are thus less likely to
delay medical treatment.

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Essay #15.
Dendrochronology, the study of tree-ring records to glean information about the past, is possible
because each year a tree adds a new layer of wood between the existing wood and the bark. In
temperate and subpolar climates, cells added at the growing season's start are large and thin-walled,
but later the new cells that develop are smaller and thick-walled; the growing season is followed by
a period of dormancy. When a tree trunk is viewed in cross section, a boundary line is normally
visible between the small-celled wood added at the end of the growing season in the previous year
and the large-celled spring wood of the following year's growing season. The annual growth pattern
appears as a series of larger and larger rings. In wet years rings are broad; during drought years they
are narrow, since the trees grow less. Often, ring patterns of dead trees of different, but
overlapping, ages can be correlated to provide an extended index of past climate conditions.

However, trees that grew in areas with a steady supply of groundwater show little variation in ring
width from year to year; these "complacent" rings tell nothing about changes in climate. And trees
in extremely dry regions may go a year or two without adding any rings, thereby introducing
uncertainties into the count. Certain species sometimes add more than one ring in a single year,
when growth halts temporarily and then starts again.

Question #50.

The passage suggests which of the following about the ring patterns of two trees that grew in the
same area and that were of different, but overlapping, ages?

(A) The rings corresponding to the overlapping years would often exhibit similar patterns.
(B) The rings corresponding to the years in which only one of the trees was alive would not reliably
indicate the climate conditions of those years.
(C) The rings corresponding to the overlapping years would exhibit similar patterns only if the trees
were of the same species.
(D) The rings corresponding to the overlapping years could not be complacent rings.
(E) The rings corresponding to the overlapping years would provide a more reliable index of dry
climate conditions than of wet conditions.

Question #51.

In the highlighted text, "uncertainties" refers to

(A) dendrochronologists' failure to consider the prevalence of erratic weather patterns

(B) inconsistencies introduced because of changes in methodology
(C) some tree species' tendency to deviate from the norm
(D) the lack of detectable variation in trees with complacent rings
(E) the lack of perfect correlation between the number of a tree's rings and its age

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Question #52.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) evaluating the effect of climate on the growth of trees of different species
(B) questioning the validity of a method used to study tree-ring records
(C) explaining how climatic conditions can be deduced from tree-ring patterns
(D) outlining the relation between tree size and cell structure within the tree
(E) tracing the development of a scientific method of analyzing tree-ring patterns

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Essay #16.
What kinds of property rights apply to Algonquian family hunting territories, and how did they come
to be? The dominant view in recent decades has been that family hunting territories, like other
forms of private landownership, were not found among Algonquians (a group of North American
Indian tribes) before contact with Europeans but are the result of changes in Algonquian society
brought about by the European-Algonquian fur trade, in combination with other factors such as
ecological changes and consequent shifts in wildlife harvesting patterns. Another view claims that
Algonquian family hunting territories predate contact with Europeans and are forms of private
landownership by individuals and families. More recent fieldwork, however, has shown that
individual and family rights to hunting territories form part of a larger land-use system of
multifamilial hunting groups, that rights to hunting territories at this larger community level take
precedence over those at the individual or family level, and that this system reflects a concept of
spiritual and social reciprocity that conflicts with European concepts of private property. In short,
there are now strong reasons to think that it was erroneous to claim that Algonquian family hunting
territories ever were, or were becoming, a kind of private property system.

Question #53.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) provide an explanation for an unexpected phenomenon

(B) suggest that a particular question has yet to be answered
(C) present a new perspective on an issue
(D) defend a traditional view from attack
(E) reconcile opposing sides of an argument

Question #54.

It can be inferred from the passage that proponents of the view mentioned in the first highlighted
text believe which of the following about the origin of Algonquian family hunting territories?

(A) They evolved from multifamilial hunting territories.

(B) They are an outgrowth of reciprocal land-use practices.
(C) They are based on certain spiritual beliefs.
(D) They developed as a result of contact with Europeans.
(E) They developed as a result of trade with non-Algonquian Indian tribes.

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Question #55.

According to the passage, proponents of the view mentioned in the first highlighted portion of text
and proponents of the view mentioned in the second highlighted portion of text both believe which
of the following about Algonquian family hunting territories?

(A) They are a form of private landownership.

(B) They are a form of community, rather than individual, landownership.
(C) They were a form of private landownership prior to contact with Europeans.
(D) They became a form of private landownership due to contact with Europeans.
(E) They have replaced reciprocal practices relating to land use in Algonquian society.

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Essay #17.
Many people believe that because wages are lower in developing countries than in developed
countries, competition from developing countries in goods traded internationally will soon eliminate
large numbers of jobs in developed countries. Currently, developed countries' advanced technology
results in higher productivity, which accounts for their higher wages. Advanced technology is being
transferred ever more speedily across borders, but even with the latest technology, productivity and
wages in developing countries will remain lower than in developed countries for many years because
developed countries have better infrastructure and better-educated workers. When productivity in a
developing country does catch up, experience suggests that wages there will rise. Some individual
firms in developing countries have raised their productivity but kept their wages (which are
influenced by average productivity in the country's economy) low. However, in a developing
country's economy as a whole, productivity improvements in goods traded internationally are likely
to cause an increase in wages. Furthermore, if wages are not allowed to rise, the value of the
country's currency will appreciate, which (from the developed countries' point of view) is the
equivalent of increased wages in the developing country. And although in the past a few countries
have deliberately kept their currencies undervalued, that is now much harder to do in a world where
capital moves more freely.

Question #56.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) identify the origin of a common misconception

(B) discuss the implications of a generally accepted principle
(C) present information relevant in evaluating a commonly held belief
(D) defend a controversial assertion against a variety of counterarguments
(E) explain under what circumstances a well-known phenomenon occurs

Question #57.

The passage suggests that if the movement of capital in the world were restricted, which of the
following would be likely?

(A) Advanced technology could move more quickly from developed countries to developing
countries.
(B) Developed countries could compete more effectively for jobs with developing countries.
(C) A country's average wages could increase without significantly increasing the sophistication of its
technology or the value of its currency.
(D) A country's productivity could increase without significantly increasing the value of its currency.
(E) Workers could obtain higher wages by increasing their productivity.

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Question #58.

The passage suggests that which of the following would best explain why, in a developing country,
some firms that have raised their productivity continue to pay low wages?

(A) Wages are influenced by the extent to which productivity increases are based on the latest
technology.
(B) Wages are influenced by the extent to which labor unions have organized the country's workers.
(C) Wages are not determined by productivity improvements in goods traded internationally.
(D) The average productivity of the workers in the country has not risen.
(E) The education level of the workers in the country determines wages.

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Essay #18.
A recent study has provided clues to predator-prey dynamics in the late Pleistocene era.
Researchers compared the number of tooth fractures in present-day carnivores with tooth fractures
in carnivores that lived 36,000 to 10,000 years ago and that were preserved in the Rancho La Brea
tar pits in Los Angeles. The breakage frequencies in the extinct species were strikingly higher than
those in the present-day species.

In considering possible explanations for this finding, the researchers dismissed demographic bias
because older individuals were not overrepresented in the fossil samples. They rejected
preservational bias because a total absence of breakage in two extinct species demonstrated that
the fractures were not the result of abrasion within the pits. They ruled out local bias because
breakage data obtained from other Pleistocene sites were similar to the La Brea data. The
explanation they consider most plausible is behavioral differences between extinct and present-day
carnivores--in particular, more contact between the teeth of predators and the bones of prey due to
more thorough consumption of carcasses by the extinct species. Such thorough carcass consumption
implies to the researchers either that prey availability was low, at least seasonally, or that there was
intense competition over kills and a high rate of carcass theft due to relatively high predator
densities.

Question #59.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) present several explanations for a well-known fact

(B) suggest alternative methods for resolving a debate
(C) argue in favor of a controversial theory
(D) question the methodology used in a study
(E) discuss the implications of a research finding

Question #60.
The passage suggests that, compared with Pleistocene carnivores in other areas, Pleistocene
carnivores in the La Brea area

(A) included the same species, in approximately the same proportions

(B) had a similar frequency of tooth fractures
(C) populated the La Brea area more densely
(D) consumed their prey more thoroughly
(E) found it harder to obtain sufficient prey

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Question #61.

The passage suggests that tooth fractures in Pleistocene carnivores probably tended to occur less
frequently

(A) during periods in which more prey were available

(B) at sites distant from the La Brea area
(C) in older individual carnivores
(D) in species that were not preserved as fossils
(E) in species that regularly stole carcasses from other species

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Problem Set #1 Reading Comprehension Keys

1. C 11. D 21. A 31. D 41. D 51. E 61. A

2. D 12. C 22. D 32. A 42. D 52. C
3. B 13. A 23. B 33. C 43. B 53. C
4. D 14. B 24. B 34. C 44. B 54. D
5. C 15. A 25. B 35. E 45. B 55. A
6. A 16. A 26. B 36. A 46. D 56. C
7. E 17. A 27. E 37. C 47. D 57. D
8. A 18. A 28. A 38. E 48. D 58. D
9. C 19. D 29. B 39. C 49. E 59. E
10. C 20. E 30. E 40. A 50. A 60. B

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Problem Set #2 Reading Comprehension

(17 Essays, 57 Questions)

Essay #1.
The modern multinational corporation is described as having originated when the owner-managers
of nineteenth-century British firms carrying on international trade were replaced by teams of
salaried managers organized into hierarchies. Increases in the volume of transactions in such firms
are commonly believed to have necessitated this structural change. Nineteenth-century inventions
like the steamship and the telegraph, by facilitating coordination of managerial activities, are
described as key factors. Sixteenth- and seventeenth-century chartered trading companies, despite
the international scope of their activities, are usually considered irrelevant to this discussion: the
volume of their transactions is assumed to have been too low and the communications and
transport of their day too primitive to make comparisons with modern multinationals interesting.

In reality, however, early trading companies successfully purchased and outfitted ships, built and
operated offices and warehouses, manufactured trade goods for use abroad, maintained trading
posts and production facilities overseas, procured goods for import, and sold those goods both at
home and in other countries. The large volume of transactions associated with these activities seems
to have necessitated hierarchical management structures well before the advent of modern
communications and transportation. For example, in the Hudson's Bay Company, each far-flung
trading outpost was managed by a salaried agent, who carried out the trade with the Native
Americans, managed day-to-day operations, and oversaw the post's workers and servants. One chief
agent, answerable to the Court of Directors in London through the correspondence committee, was
appointed with control over all of the agents on the bay.

The early trading companies did differ strikingly from modern multinationals in many respects. They
depended heavily on the national governments of their home countries and thus characteristically
acted abroad to promote national interests. Their top managers were typically owners with a
substantial minority share, whereas senior managers' holdings in modern multinationals are usually
insignificant. They operated in a preindustrial world, grafting a system of capitalist international
trade onto a premodern system of artisan and peasant production. Despite these differences,
however, early trading companies organized effectively in remarkably modern ways and merit
further study as analogues of more modern structures.

Question #1.

The author's main point is that

(A) modern multinationals originated in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries with the
establishment of chartered trading companies
(B) the success of early chartered trading companies, like that of modern multinationals, depended
primarily on their ability to carry out complex operations
(C) early chartered trading companies should be more seriously considered by scholars studying
the origins of modern multinationals
(D) scholars are quite mistaken concerning the origins of modern multinationals
(E) the management structures of early chartered trading companies are fundamentally the same
as those of modern multinationals

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Question #2.

With which of the following generalizations regarding management structures would the author of
the passage most probably agree?

(A) Hierarchical management structures are the most efficient management structures possible in a
modern context.
(B) Firms that routinely have a high volume of business transactions find it necessary to adopt
hierarchical management structures.
(C) Hierarchical management structures cannot be successfully implemented without modern
communications and transportation.
(D) Modern multinational firms with a relatively small volume of business transactions usually do not
have hierarchically organized management structures.
(E) Companies that adopt hierarchical management structures usually do so in order to facilitate
expansion into foreign trade.

Question #3.

The passage suggests that modern multinationals differ from early chartered trading companies in
that

(A) the top managers of modern multinationals own stock in their own companies rather than simply
receiving a salary
(B) modern multinationals depend on a system of capitalist international trade rather than on less
modern trading systems
(C) modern multinationals have operations in a number of different foreign countries rather than
merely in one or two
(D) the operations of modern multinationals are highly profitable despite the more stringent
environmental and safety regulations of modern governments
(E) the overseas operations of modern multinationals are not governed by the national interests of
their home countries

Question #4.

According to the passage, early chartered trading companies are usually described as

(A) irrelevant to a discussion of the origins of the modern multinational corporation

(B) interesting but ultimately too unusual to be good subjects for economic study
(C) analogues of nineteenth-century British trading firms
(D) rudimentary and very early forms of the modern multinational corporation
(E) important national institutions because they existed to further the political aims of the
governments of their home countries

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Essay #2.
More selective than most chemical pesticides in that they ordinarily destroy only unwanted species,
biocontrol agents (such as insects, fungi, and viruses) eat, infect, or parasitize targeted plant or
animal pests. However, biocontrol agents can negatively affect nontarget species by, for example,
competing with them for resources: a biocontrol agent might reduce the benefits conferred by a
desirable animal species by consuming a plant on which the animal prefers to lay its eggs. Another
example of indirect negative consequences occurred in England when a virus introduced to control
rabbits reduced the amount of open ground (because large rabbit populations reduce the ground
cover), in turn reducing underground ant nests and triggering the extinction of a blue butterfly that
had depended on the nests to shelter its offspring. The paucity of known extinctions or disruptions
resulting from indirect interactions may reflect not the infrequency of such mishaps but rather the
failure to look for or to detect them: most organisms likely to be adversely affected by indirect
interactions are of little or no known commercial value and the events linking a biocontrol agent
with an adverse effect are often unclear. Moreover, determining the potential risks of biocontrol
agents before they are used is difficult, especially when a nonnative agent is introduced, because,
unlike a chemical pesticide, a biocontrol agent may adapt in unpredictable ways so that it can feed
on or otherwise harm new hosts.

Question #5.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) explaining why until recently scientists failed to recognize the risks presented by biocontrol
agents
(B) emphasizing that biocontrol agents and chemical pesticides have more similarities than
differences
(C) suggesting that only certain biocontrol agents should be used to control plant or animal pests
(D) arguing that biocontrol agents involve risks, some of which may not be readily discerned
(E) suggesting that mishaps involving biocontrol agents are relatively commonplace

Question #6.

According to the passage, which of the following is a concern that arises with biocontrol agents but
not with chemical pesticides?

(A) Biocontrol agents are likely to destroy desirable species as well as undesirable ones.
(B) Biocontrol agents are likely to have indirect as well as direct adverse effects on nontarget
species.
(C) Biocontrol agents may change in unforeseen ways and thus be able to damage new hosts.
(D) Biocontrol agents may be ineffective in destroying targeted species.
(E) Biocontrol agents may be effective for only a short period of time.

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Question #7.

The passage suggests which of the following about the blue butterfly mentioned in the highlighted
text?

(A) The blue butterfly's survival was indirectly dependent on sustaining a rabbit population of a
particular size.
(B) The blue butterfly's survival was indirectly dependent on sustaining large amounts of vegetation
in its habitat.
(C) The blue butterfly's survival was threatened when the ants began preying on its offspring.
(D) The blue butterfly was infected by the virus that had been intended to control rabbit
populations.
(E) The blue butterfly was adversely affected by a biocontrol agent that competed with it for
resources.

Essay #3.
Ethnohistoric documents from sixteenth-century Mexico suggesting that weaving and cooking were
the most common productive activities for Aztec women may lead modern historians to
underestimate the value of women's contributions to Aztec society. Since weaving and cooking
occurred mostly (but not entirely) in a domestic setting, modern historians are likely to apply to the
Aztec culture the modern Western distinction between "private" and "public" production. Thus, the
ethnohistoric record conspires with Western culture to foster the view that women's production was
not central to the demographic, economic, and political structures in sixteenth-century Mexico.

A closer examination of Aztec culture indicates that treating Aztec women's production in Mexico in
such a manner would be a mistake. Even if the products of women's labor did not circulate beyond
the household, such products were essential to population growth. Researchers document a tenfold
increase in the population of the valley of Mexico during the previous four centuries, an increase
that was crucial to the developing Aztec political economy. Population growth--which could not have
occurred in the absence of successful household economy, in which women's work was essential--
made possible the large-scale development of labor-intensive chinampa (ridged-field) agriculture in
the southern valley of Mexico which, in turn, supported urbanization and political centralization in
the Aztec capital.

But the products of women's labor did in fact circulate beyond the household. Aztec women wove
cloth, and cloth circulated through the market system, the tribute system, and the redistributive
economy of the palaces. Cotton mantles served as a unit of currency in the regional market system.
Quantities of woven mantles, loincloths, blouses, and skirts were paid as tribute to local lords and to
imperial tax stewards and were distributed to ritual and administrative personnel, craft specialists,
warriors, and other faithful servants of the state. In addition, woven articles of clothing served as
markers of social status and clothing fulfilled a symbolic function in political negotiation. The cloth
that was the product of women's work thus was crucial as a primary means of organizing the flow of
goods and services that sustained the Aztec state.

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Question #8.

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about the documents mentioned in the first sentence of the passage?

(A) They contain misleading information about the kinds of productive activities Aztec women
engaged in.
(B) They overlook certain crucial activities performed by women in Aztec society.
(C) They provide useful information about the way that Aztec society viewed women.
(D) They are of limited value because they were heavily influenced by the bias of those who
recorded them.
(E) They contain information that is likely to be misinterpreted by modern-day readers.

Question #9.

According to the passage, Aztec women's cloth production enabled Aztec society to do which of the
following?

(A) Expand women's role in agriculture

(B) Organize the flow of goods and services
(C) Develop self-contained communities
(D) Hire agricultural laborers from outside the society
(E) Establish a higher standard of living than neighboring cultures

Question #10.

Which of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph of the passage?

(A) It attempts to reconcile conflicting views presented in the previous paragraphs.

(B) It presents evidence intended to undermine the argument presented in the second paragraph.
(C) It provides examples that support the position taken in the first sentence of the second
paragraph.
(D) It describes the contents of the documents mentioned in the first paragraph.
(E) It suggests that a distinction noted in the first paragraph is valid.

Question #11.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) using modern understanding of cultural bias to challenge ethnohistoric documents

(B) evaluating competing descriptions of women's roles in Aztec society
(C) comparing the influence of gender on women's roles in Aztec society and in modern society
(D) remedying a potential misconception about the significance of women's roles in Aztec society
(E) applying new evidence in a reevaluation of ethnohistoric documents

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Essay #4.
Solar ponds are bodies of water in which circulation is incomplete and there is a very high salt
concentration that increases with depth. This vertical change in salinity serves to trap heat because
concentrated brine in the lowest water level acts as a collector and storage area for solar heat, while
the less saline, lighter water at the upper levels provides insulation. Heat is thus retained in the
depths.

An artificial pond of this type has been constructed on the western shore of the Dead Sea in Israel in
order to test its suitability as a source of low-grade heat for conversion into electricity. An immediate
threat to the success of the venture was the growth of algae. Water in solar ponds must be kept
maximally transparent to allow penetration of light to the deep storage area. Therefore, any
particles of matter in the water, such as algae cells, that scatter or absorb light will interfere with the
collection of heat.

One proposed method of controlling the algae was the application of an algicide. However, the Dead
Sea is a closed body of water without any outlet and as such is very easily contaminated. Extensive
use of chemicals in numerous future full-scale solar ponds would lead to such contamination of the
Dead Sea, which now enjoys a lucrative tourist trade.

A recent experiment has supplied a more promising method for controlling the algae. To repress the
algae cells' capacity for accommodating themselves to environmental changes, the water in the solar
pond was first made more saline through evaporation and then diluted by a rapid inflow of fresh
water. This shock reduced the cells' ability to regulate the movement of water through their
membranes. They rapidly absorbed water, resulting in distortions of shape, increase in volume, and
impairment to motility. Their buoyancy adversely affected, the cells sank to the bottom of the pond,
where they encountered the hot waters of the storage layer and were destroyed. This method
allows for effective control of nuisance algae while leaving solar ponds as one of the cleanest
technologies providing energy for human use.

Question #12.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) discuss ways of solving a problem that threatens to limit the usefulness of an energy source
(B) explain the mechanisms by which solar heat may be converted into energy
(C) detail the processes by which algae cells colonize highly saline bodies of water
(D) report the results of an experiment designed to clean contaminated bodies of water
(E) describe the unique properties of a solar pond on the edge of the Dead Sea

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Question #13.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true about the salinity and
temperatures of the highest and lowest water layers in a typical solar pond?

(A) The bottom layer is both highly saline and quite hot, while the top layer is less saline and cooler.
(B) The two layers have similar salinity levels, but the bottom layer is hotter than the top.
(C) There is no way to predict the salinity and temperature of the different water layers in different
solar ponds.
(D) The bottom layer is less saline and quite hot, while the top layer is more saline and cooler.
(E) The top layer has both higher salinity and higher temperatures than the bottom layer.

Question #14.

According to the passage, the growth of algae was considered a threat to the success of the artificial
pond near the Dead Sea because the algae

(A) produce excess oxygen that lowers the water temperature in the pond
(B) restrict the circulation of water within the pond
(C) enable heat to escape through the upper level of the pond
(D) prevent light from penetrating to the lowest levels of the pond
(E) prevent accurate measurement of the heat collected in the pond

Question #15.

Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the validity of the conclusions drawn
from the experiment described in the last paragraph of the passage?

(A) The algae cells that sank to the bottom of the pond were destroyed only after a time lag of
twenty-four hours.
(B) The lateral motility of the algae cells that sank to the bottom of the pond was not impaired.
(C) The water with which the artificial solar pond was diluted contained microorganisms that kill
algae.
(D) The algae cells that sank to the bottom of the pond were actually killed by the rapid change in
pressure.
(E) The higher salinity brought about through evaporation increased the transparency of the upper
levels of water in the pond.

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Essay #5.
Traditional social science models of class groups in the United States are based on economic status
and assume that women's economic status derives from association with men, typically fathers or
husbands, and that women therefore have more compelling common interest with men of their own
economic class than with women outside it. Some feminist social scientists, by contrast, have argued
that the basic division in American society is instead based on gender, and that the total female
population, regardless of economic status, constitutes a distinct class. Social historian Mary Ryan,
for example, has argued that in early-nineteenth-century America the identical legal status of
working-class and middle-class free women outweighed the differences between women of these
two classes: married women, regardless of their family's wealth, did essentially the same unpaid
domestic work, and none could own property or vote. Recently, though, other feminist analysts have
questioned this model, examining ways in which the condition of working-class women differs from
that of middle-class women as well as from that of working-class men. Ann Oakley notes, for
example, that the gap between women of different economic classes widened in the late nineteenth
century: most working-class women, who performed wage labor outside the home, were excluded
from the emerging middle-class ideal of femininity centered around domesticity and volunteerism.

Question #16.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) offer sociohistorical explanations for the cultural differences between men and women in the
United States
(B) examine how the economic roles of women in the United States changed during the nineteenth
century
(C) consider differing views held by social scientists concerning women's class status in the United
States
(D) propose a feminist interpretation of class structure in the United States
(E) outline specific distinctions between working-class women and women of the upper and middle
classes

Question #17.

It can be inferred from the passage that the most recent feminist social science research on women
and class seeks to do which of the following?

(A) Introduce a divergent new theory about the relationship between legal status and gender
(B) Illustrate an implicit middle-class bias in earlier feminist models of class and gender
(C) Provide evidence for the position that gender matters more than wealth in determining class
status
(D) Remedy perceived inadequacies of both traditional social science models and earlier feminist
analyses of class and gender
(E) Challenge the economic definitions of class used by traditional social scientists

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Question #18.

Which of the following statements best characterizes the relationship between traditional social
science models of class and Ryan's model, as described in the passage?

(A) Ryan's model differs from the traditional model by making gender, rather than economic status,
the determinant of women's class status.
(B) The traditional social science model of class differs from Ryan's in its assumption that women are
financially dependent on men.
(C) Ryan's model of class and the traditional social science model both assume that women work,
either within the home or for pay.
(D) The traditional social science model of class differs from Ryan's in that each model focuses on a
different period of American history.
(E) Both Ryan's model of class and the traditional model consider multiple factors, including wealth,
marital status, and enfranchisement, in determining women's status.

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Essay #6.
According to P. F. Drucker, the management philosophy known as Total Quality Management (TQM),
which is designed to be adopted consistently throughout an organization and to improve customer
service by using sampling theory to reduce the variability of a product's quality, can work
successfully in conjunction with two older management systems. As Drucker notes, TQM's scientific
approach is consistent with the statistical sampling techniques of the "rationalist" school of scientific
management, and the organizational structure associated with TQM is consistent with the social and
psychological emphases of the "human relations" school of management.

However, TQM cannot simply be grafted onto these systems or onto certain other non-TQM
management systems. Although, as Drucker contends, TQM shares with such systems the ultimate
objective of increasing profitability, TQM requires fundamentally different strategies. While the
other management systems referred to use upper management decision-making and employee
specialization to maximize shareholder profits over the short term, TQM envisions the interests of
employees, shareholders, and customers as convergent. For example, lower prices not only benefit
consumers but also enhance an organization's competitive edge and ensure its continuance, thus
benefiting employees and owners. TQM's emphasis on shared interests is reflected in the
decentralized decision-making, integrated production activity, and lateral structure of organizations
that achieve the benefits of TQM.

Question #19.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) point out contradictions in a new management system

(B) compare and contrast the objectives of various management systems
(C) identify the organizational features shared by various management systems
(D)explain the relationship of a particular management system to certain other management
systems
(E) explain the advantages of a particular management system over certain other management
systems

Question #20.

Which of the following best describes the relationship of the second paragraph to the first
paragraph?

(A) It presents contrasting explanations for a phenomenon presented in the first paragraph.
(B) It discusses an exception to a general principle outlined in the first paragraph.
(C) It provides information that qualifies a claim presented in the first paragraph.
(D) It presents an example that strengthens a claim presented in the first paragraph.
(E) It presents an alternative approach to solving a problem discussed in the first paragraph.

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Question #21.

According to the passage, the rationalist and human relations schools of management are alike in
that they

(A) are primarily interested in increasing profits

(B) place little emphasis on issues of organizational structure
(C) use statistical sampling techniques to increase profitability
(D) are unlikely to lower prices in order to increase profitability
(E) focus chiefly on setting and attaining long-term objectives

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Essay #7.
The United States hospital industry is an unusual market in that nonprofit and for-profit producers
exist simultaneously. Theoretical literature offers conflicting views on whether nonprofit hospitals
are less financially efficient. Theory suggests that nonprofit hospitals are so much more interested in
offering high-quality service than in making money that they frequently input more resources to
provide the same output of service as for-profit hospitals. This priority might also often lead them to
be less vigilant in streamlining their services--eliminating duplication between departments, for
instance. Conversely, while profit motive is thought to encourage for-profit hospitals to attain
efficient production, most theorists admit that obstacles to that efficiency remain. For-profit hospital
managers, for example, generally work independently of hospital owners and thus may not always
make maximum financial efficiency their highest priority. The literature also suggests that
widespread adoption of third-party payment systems may eventually eliminate any such potential
differences between the two kinds of hospitals.

The same literature offers similarly conflicting views of the efficiency of nonprofit hospitals from a
social welfare perspective.Newhouse (1970) contends that nonprofit hospital managers
unnecessarily expand the quality and quantity of hospital care beyond the actual needs of the
community, while Weisbrod (1975) argues that nonprofit firms--hospitals included--contribute
efficiently to community welfare by providing public services that might be inadequately provided by
government alone.

Question #22.

Which of the following best describes the overall content of the second paragraph of the passage?

(A) It describes views concerning a particular aspect of one of the types of hospitals discussed
earlier.
(B) It describes an additional benefit of one of the types of hospitals discussed earlier.
(C) It offers a potential solution to a problem inherent in the structure of the United States hospital
industry.
(D) It provides an additional contrast between the two types of hospitals discussed earlier.
(E) It describes one of the consequences of the character of the United States hospital market.

Question #23.

According to the passage, Newhouse's view of the social welfare efficiency of nonprofit hospitals
differs from Weisbrod's view in that Newhouse

(A) contends that government already provides most of the services that communities need
(B) argues that for-profit hospitals are better at meeting actual community needs than are nonprofit
hospitals
(C) argues that nonprofit hospitals are likely to spend more to provide services that the community
requires than for-profit hospitals are likely to spend
(D) argues that nonprofit hospitals ought to expand the services they provide to meet the
community's demands
(E) believes that the level of care provided by nonprofit hospitals is inappropriate, given the
community's requirements

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Question #24.

The passage suggests which of the following about the managers mentioned in the highlighted text?

(A) They have generally been motivated to streamline hospital services as a result of direct
intervention by hospital owners.
(B) They are more likely than managers of nonprofit hospitals to use unnecessary amounts of
resources to provide services.
(C) Their most important self-acknowledged goal is to achieve maximum financial efficiency so that
hospitals show a profit.
(D) Their decisions regarding services provided by their hospitals may not reflect hospital owners'
priorities.
(E) They do not place a high priority on maximizing profits, despite their desire to achieve efficiency.

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Essay #8.
Although the industrial union organizations that emerged under the banner of the Congress of
Industrial Organizations (CIO) in the 1930s and 1940s embraced the principles of nondiscrimination
and inclusion, the role of women within unions reflected the prevailing gender ideology of the
period. Elizabeth Faue's study of the labor movement in Minneapolis argues that women were
marginalized by union bureaucratization and by the separation of unions from the community
politics from which industrial unionism had emerged. Faue stresses the importance of women's
contribution to the development of unions at the community level, contributions that made
women's ultimate fate within the city's labor movement all the more poignant: as unions reached
the peak of their strength in the 1940s, the community base that had made their success possible
and to which women's contributions were so vital became increasingly irrelevant to unions'
institutional life.

In her study of CIO industrial unions from the 1930s to the 1970s, Nancy F. Gabin also acknowledges
the pervasive male domination in the unions, but maintains that women workers were able to
create a political space within some unions to advance their interests as women. Gabin shows that,
despite the unions' tendency to marginalize women's issues, working women's demands were a
constant undercurrent within the union, and she stresses the links between the unions' women
activists and the wave of feminism that emerged in the 1960s.

Question #25.

According to the passage, Faue's study and Gabin's study agree in that both

(A) attribute the inclusion of women in unions to the policies of the CIO
(B) emphasize the importance of unions at the community level
(C) argue that women played important roles in the establishment of industrial union organizations
(D) suggest that women in industrial union organizations played a subordinate role
(E) suggest that the interests of women workers were incompatible with those of unions in general

Question #26.

Which of the following can be inferred regarding the "gender ideology" mentioned in the highlighted
text?

(A) It prevented women from making significant contributions to the establishment of industrial
unions.
(B) It resulted from the marginalization of women in industrial unions.
(C) It had a significant effect on the advancement of women's issues within industrial unions.
(D) Its primary tenets were nondiscrimination and inclusion.
(E) Its effects were mitigated by the growth of industrial unions.

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Question #27.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(A) presenting two views

(B) reconciling two antithetical claims
(C) assessing conflicting evidence
(D) weakening a generally accepted argument
(E) tracing the development of an ideology

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Essay #9.
The view has prevailed for the better part of the twentieth century that small firms do not perform
an important role in Western economies. Official policies in many countries have favored large units
of production because there were strong reasons to believe that large firms were superior to small
firms in virtually every aspect of economic performance--productivity, technological progress, and
job security and compensation. However, in the 1970s, evidence began to suggest that small firms
in some countries were outperforming their larger counterparts. Perhaps the best example of this
trend was in the steel industry, where new firms entered the market in the form of "mini-mills," and
small-firm employment expanded, while many large companies shut down plants and reduced
employment. Although no systematic evidence exists to determine unequivocally whether smaller
units of production are as efficient as large firms or are, in fact, more efficient, some researchers
have concluded that the accumulated evidence to date indicates that small firms are at least not
burdened with an inherent size disadvantage.

Thus, an alternative view has emerged in the economics literature, arguing that small firms make
several important contributions to industrial markets. First, small firms are often the source of the
kind of innovative activity that leads to technological change. Small firms generate market
turbulence that creates additional dimensions of competition, and they also promote international
competition through newly created niches. Finally, small firms in recent years have generated the
preponderant share of new jobs.

However, empirical knowledge about the relative roles of large and small firms is generally based
upon anecdotal evidence and case studies, and such evidence has proved inadequate to answer
major questions concerning the role of small firms across various industries and nations. An
additional difficulty is that it is not obvious what criteria one should use to distinguish small firms
from large ones. While a "small firm" is often defined as an enterprise with fewer than 500
employees, research studies of small firms use a wide variety of definitions.

Question #28.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) dismissing a challenge to a traditional viewpoint

(B) suggesting a new solution to a long-standing problem
(C) resolving a conflict between two competing viewpoints
(D) discussing the emergence of an alternative viewpoint
(E) defending an alternative viewpoint against possible counterevidence

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Question #29.

The passage suggests which of the following about the empirical study of small firms' role?

(A) Anecdotal evidence does not support the theory that small firms' role is significant.
(B) Degrees of market turbulence are the primary indicator of small firms' role.
(C) An examination of new niches created by small firms has provided important data for the
analysis of such firms' role.
(D) Case studies have provided reliable evidence to answer major questions concerning small firms'
role.
(E) A more precise definition of the term "small firm" is crucial to making a conclusive analysis about
small firms' role.

Question #30.

Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of the passage?

(A) A viewpoint is introduced, counterevidence is presented, and a new perspective is suggested.

(B) Opposing viewpoints are discussed, and evidence is provided that refutes both of those
viewpoints.
(C) A hypothesis is described, supported with specific evidence, and then reaffirmed.
(D) An alternative viewpoint is presented, criticized, and dismissed in light of new evidence.
(E) Opposing viewpoints are presented, discussed, and then found to be more similar than
previously supposed.

Question #31.

According to the passage, an important contribution of small firms to industrial markets is that small
firms

(A) operate more efficiently than large firms

(B) offer high job security and compensation
(C) cause international competition to decrease
(D) help prevent market turbulence from affecting competition
(E) frequently undertake activities that result in technological change

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Essay #10.
The Black Death, a severe epidemic that ravaged fourteenth-century Europe, has intrigued scholars
ever since Francis Gasquet's 1893 study contending that this epidemic greatly intensified the
political and religious upheaval that ended the Middle Ages. Thirty-six years later, historian George
Coulton agreed but, paradoxically, attributed a silver lining to the Black Death: prosperity
engendered by diminished competition for food, shelter, and work led survivors of the epidemic into
the Renaissance and subsequent rise of modern Europe.

In the 1930s, however, Evgeny Kosminsky and other Marxist historians claimed the epidemic was
merely an ancillary factor contributing to a general agrarian crisis stemming primarily from the
inevitable decay of European feudalism. In arguing that this decline of feudalism was economically
determined, the Marxist asserted that the Black Death was a relatively insignificant factor. This
became the prevailing view until after the Second World War, when studies of specific regions and
towns revealed astonishing mortality rates ascribed to the epidemic, thus restoring the central role
of the Black Death in history.

This central role of the Black Death (traditionally attributed to bubonic plague brought from Asia)
has been recently challenged from another direction. Building on bacteriologist John Shrewsbury's
speculations about mislabeled epidemics, zoologist Graham Twigg employs urban case studies
suggesting that the rat population in Europe was both too sparse and insufficiently migratory to
have spread plague. Moreover, Twigg disputes the traditional trade-ship explanation for plague
transmissions by extrapolating from data on the number of dead rats aboard Nile sailing vessels in
1912. The Black Death, which he conjectures was anthrax instead of bubonic plague, therefore
caused far less havoc and fewer deaths than historians typically claim.

Although correctly citing the exacting conditions needed to start or spread bubonic plague, Twigg
ignores virtually a century of scholarship contradictory to his findings and employs faulty logic in his
single-minded approach to the Black Death. His speculative generalizations about the numbers of
rats in medieval Europe are based on isolated studies unrepresentative of medieval conditions, while
his unconvincing trade-ship argument overlooks land-based caravans, the overland migration of
infected rodents, and the many other animals that carry plague.

Question #32.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) demonstrating the relationship between bubonic plague and the Black Death
(B) interpreting historical and scientific works on the origins of the Black Death
(C) employing the Black Death as a case study of disease transmission in medieval Europe
(D) presenting aspects of past and current debate on the historical importance of the Black Death
(E) analyzing the differences between capitalist and Marxist interpretations of the historical
significance of the Black Death

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Question #33.

The passage suggests that Twigg believes that rats could not have spread the Black Death unless
which of the following were true?

(A) The rats escaped from ships that had been in Asia.
(B) The rats were immune to the diseases that they carried.
(C) The rat population was larger in medieval Europe than Twigg believes it actually was.
(D) The rat population primarily infested densely populated areas.
(E) The rats interacted with other animals that Twigg believes could have carried plague.

Question #34.

Which of the following statements is most compatible with Kosminsky's approach to history, as it is
presented in the passage?

(A) The Middle Ages were ended primarily by the religious and political upheaval in fourteenth-
century Europe.
(B) The economic consequences of the Black Death included increased competition for food, shelter,
and work.
(C) European history cannot be studied in isolation from that of the rest of the world.
(D) The number of deaths in fourteenth-century Europe has been greatly exaggerated by other
historians.
(E) The significance of the Black Death is best explained within the context of evolving economic
systems.

Question #35.

The "silver lining to the Black Death" (the highlighted text) refers to which of the following?

(A) The decay of European feudalism precipitated by the Black Death

(B) Greater availability of employment, sustenance, and housing for survivors of the epidemic
(C) Strengthening of the human species through natural selection
(D) Better understanding of how to limit the spread of contagious diseases
(E) Immunities and resistance to the Black Death gained by later generations

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Essay #11.
Most farmers attempting to control slugs and snails turn to baited slug poison, or molluscicide,
which usually consists of a bran pellet containing either methiocarb or metaldehyde. Both chemicals
are neurotoxins that disrupt that part of the brain charged with making the mouth move in a
coordinated fashion--the "central pattern generator"--as the slug feeds. Thus, both neurotoxins,
while somewhat effective, interfere with the slugs' feeding behavior and limit their ingestion of the
poison, increasing the probability that some will stop feeding before receiving a lethal dose.
Moreover, slugs are not the only consumers of these poisons: methiocarb may be toxic to a variety
of species, including varieties of worms, carabid beetles, and fish.

Researchers are experimenting with an alternative compound based on aluminum, which may solve
these problems, but this may well have a limited future as we learn more about the hazards of
aluminum in the environment. For example, some researchers suggest that acid rain kills trees by
mobilizing aluminum in the soil, while others have noted that the human disease Alzheimer's is more
prevalent in areas where levels of aluminum in the soil are high. With farmers losing as much as 20
percent of their crops to slugs and snails even after treatment with currently available molluscicides,
there is considerable incentive for researchers to come up with better and environmentally safer
solutions.

Question #36.

In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

(A) describing the limitations of molluscicides that affect feeding behavior

(B) proposing alternatives to current methods of controlling slugs and snails
(C) emphasizing the need for an alternative to currently available molluscicides
(D) explaining how molluscicides are used to control slugs and snails
(E) criticizing the use of hazardous material for controlling slugs and snails

Question #37.

The author cites which of the following as a disadvantage of methiocarb?

(A) It contains high levels of aluminum.

(B) It may react with acid rain to kill trees.
(C) It has been associated with Alzheimer's disease.
(D) It may be toxic to some species of fish.
(E) It may not be as effective in killing slugs as metaldehyde is.

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Question #38.

The passage suggests that methiocarb and metaldehyde would be more effective as slug poisons if it
were true that they

(A) disrupt the slug's digestive processes rather than its reproductive functions
(B) reduce the slug's ability to taste food
(C) begin to affect the feeding behavior of a slug only after it has ingested a lethal dose
(D) reach the central pattern generator more quickly
(E) accumulate only in the central pattern generator rather than throughout the brain

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Essay #12.
The storms most studied by climatologists have been those that are most easily understood by
taking atmospheric measurements. Hurricanes and tornadoes, for example, are spatially confined,
the forces that drive them are highly concentrated, and they have distinctive forms and readily
quantifiable characteristics. Consequently, data about them are abundant, and their behavior is
relatively well understood, although still difficult to predict.

Hurricanes and tornadoes are also studied because they are highly destructive storms, and
knowledge about their behavior can help minimize injury to people and property. But other equally
destructive storms have not been so thoroughly researched, perhaps because they are more difficult
to study. A primary example is the northeaster, a type of coastal storm that causes significant
damage along the eastern coast of North America. Northeasters, whose diffuse nature makes them
difficult to categorize, are relatively weak low-pressure systems with winds that rarely acquire the
strength of even the smallest hurricane. Although northeasters are perceived to be less destructive
than other storms, the high waves associated with strong northeasters can cause damage
comparable to that of a hurricane, because they can affect stretches of coast more than 1,500
kilometers long, whereas hurricanes typically threaten a relatively small ribbon of coastline--roughly
100 to 150 kilometers.

Question #39.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) evaluate the relative amounts of damage caused by different storm types
(B) describe the difficulties of classifying destructive storms by type
(C) examine the relationship between wave height and the destructive potential of storms
(D) discuss a theory that explains the origins of violent storms
(E) discuss reasons why certain types of storms receive more study than others

Question #40.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of northeasters?

(A) They have only recently been identified as a distinct storm type.
(B) They are more destructive than tornadoes.
(C) They are low-pressure systems.
(D) They affect a relatively small segment of the eastern coast of North America.
(E) Their winds are typically as strong as those of small hurricanes.

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Question #41.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about storms that lend themselves to
atmospheric measurements?

(A) They are more likely than other storms to be studied by climatologists.
(B) They are likely to be less highly concentrated than are other storms.
(C) They are likely to be more difficult to predict than are other storms.
(D) They occur less frequently along the eastern coast of North America than in other areas.
(E) They tend to affect larger areas than do other storms.

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Essay #13.
The identification of femininity with morality and a belief in the innate moral superiority of women
were fundamental to the cult of female domesticity in the nineteenth-century United States.
Ironically, this ideology of female benevolence empowered women in the realm of social activism,
enabling them to escape the confines of their traditional domestic spheres and to enter prisons,
hospitals, battlefields, and slums. By following this path, some women came to wield considerable
authority in the distribution of resources and services in their communities.

The sentimentalized concept of female benevolence bore little resemblance to women's actual
work, which was decidedly unsentimental and businesslike, in that it involved chartering societies,
raising money, and paying salaries. Moreover, in the face of legal limitations on their right to control
money and property, women had to find ingenious legal ways to run and finance organized
philanthropy. In contrast to the day-to-day reality of this work, the idealized image of female
benevolence lent a sentimental and gracious aura of altruism to the very real authority and privilege
that some women commanded--which explains why some women activists clung tenaciously to this
ideology. But clinging to this ideology also prevented these women from even attempting to gain
true political power because it implied a moral purity that precluded participation in the messy
world of partisan politics.

Question #42.

According to the passage, the ideology of female benevolence was consistent with women taking
part in each of the following spheres of activity EXCEPT

(A) organized philanthropy

(B) domestic life
(C) electoral politics
(D) fund-raising for worthy causes
(E) social work

Question #43.

Information in the passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements concerning the cult of female domesticity?

(A) The cult of female domesticity developed independently of the concept of female benevolence.
(B) The cult of female domesticity was incompatible with women's participation in social activism.
(C) The cult of female domesticity incorporated ideological elements that actually helped some
women to escape from their traditional domestic roles.
(D) The original motivation behind the promotion of the cult of female domesticity was to exclude
women from partisan politics.
(E) The growth of organized philanthropy in the nineteenth-century United States is ultimately
attributable to the cult of female domesticity.

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Question #44.

Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?

(A) The identification of femininity with morality promoted the notion of women's moral purity
while excluding women from positions of authority in their communities.
(B) The belief in women's innate moral superiority allowed women to exercise political power
without participating in partisan politics.
(C) The cult of female domesticity helped some women to gain power and privilege but kept most
women confined to the domestic sphere.
(D) The ideology of female benevolence empowered women in the realm of social activism but
placed limits on their direct political power.
(E) The idealization of female altruism enabled women to engage in philanthropic activities but
prevented them from managing money and property.

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Essay #14.
Maps made by non-Native Americans to depict Native American land tenure, resources, and
population distributions appeared almost as early as Europeans' first encounters with Native
Americans and took many forms: missionaries' field sketches, explorers' drawings, and surveyors'
maps, as well as maps rendered in connection with treaties involving land transfers. Most existing
maps of Native American lands are reconstructions that are based largely on archaeology, oral
reports, and evidence gathered from observers' accounts in letters, diaries, and official reports;
accordingly, the accuracy of these maps is especially dependent on the mapmakers' own
interpretive abilities.

Many existing maps also reflect the 150-year role of the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) in
administering tribal lands. Though these maps incorporate some information gleaned directly from
Native Americans, rarely has Native American cartography contributed to this official record, which
has been compiled, surveyed, and authenticated by non-Native Americans. Thus our current
cartographic record relating to Native American tribes and their migrations and cultural features, as
well as territoriality and contemporary trust lands, reflects the origins of the data, the mixed
purposes for which the maps have been prepared, and changes both in United States government
policy and in non-Native Americans' attitudes toward an understanding of Native Americans.

Question #45.

The passage mentions each of the following as a factor affecting current maps of Native American
lands EXCEPT

(A) United States government policy

(B) non-Native Americans' perspectives on Native Americans
(C) origins of the information utilized to produce the maps
(D) changes in the ways that tribal lands are used
(E) the reasons for producing the maps

Question #46.

The passage suggests which of the following about most existing maps of Native American lands?

(A) They do not record the migrations of Native American tribes.

(B) They have been preserved primarily because of their connection with treaties involving land
transfers.
(C) They tend to reflect archaeological evidence that has become outdated.
(D) They tend to be less accurate when they are based on oral reports than when they are based on
written documents.
(E) They are not based primarily on the mapmakers' firsthand observations of Native American
lands.

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Question #47.

Which of the following best describes the content of the passage?

(A) A chronology of the development of different methods for mapping Native American lands
(B) A discussion of how the mapmaking techniques of Native Americans differed from those of
Europeans
(C) An argument concerning the present-day uses to which historical maps of Native American lands
are put
(D) An argument concerning the nature of information contained in maps of Native American lands
(E) A proposal for improving the accuracy of maps of Native American lands

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Essay #15.
After the Second World War, unionism in the Japanese auto industry was company-based, with
separate unions in each auto company. Most company unions played no independent role in
bargaining shop-floor issues or pressing autoworkers' grievances. In a 1981 survey, for example,
fewer than 1 percent of workers said they sought union assistance for work-related problems, while
43 percent said they turned to management instead. There was little to distinguish the two in any
case: most union officers were foremen or middle-level managers, and the union's role was primarily
one of passive support for company goals. Conflict occasionally disrupted this cooperative
relationship--one company union's opposition to the productivity campaigns of the early 1980s has
been cited as such a case. In 1986, however, a caucus led by the Foreman's Association forced the
union's leadership out of office and returned the union's policy to one of passive cooperation. In the
United States, the potential for such company unionism grew after 1979, but it had difficulty taking
hold in the auto industry, where a single union represented workers from all companies, particularly
since federal law prohibited foremen from joining or leading industrial unions.

The Japanese model was often invoked as one in which authority decentralized to the shop floor
empowered production workers to make key decisions. What these claims failed to recognize was
that the actual delegation of authority was to the foreman, not the workers. The foreman exercised
discretion over job assignments, training, transfers, and promotions; worker initiative was limited to
suggestions that fine-tuned a management-controlled production process. Rather than being
proactive, Japanese workers were forced to be reactive, the range of their responsibilities being far
wider than their span of control. For example, the founder of one production system, Taichi Ohno,
routinely gave department managers only 90 percent of the resources needed for production. As
soon as workers could meet production goals without working overtime, 10 percent of remaining
resources would be removed. Because the "OH! NO!" system continually pushed the production
process to the verge of breakdown in an effort to find the minimum resource requirement, critics
described it as "management by stress."

Question #48.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) contrasting the role of unions in the Japanese auto industry with the role of unions in the United
States auto industry after the Second World War
(B) describing unionism and the situation of workers in the Japanese auto industry after the Second
World War
(C) providing examples of grievances of Japanese auto workers against the auto industry after the
Second World War
(D) correcting a misconception about the role of the foreman in the Japanese auto industry's union
system after the Second World War
(E) reasserting the traditional view of the company's role in Japanese auto workers' unions after the
Second World War

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Question #49.
According to the passage, a foreman in a United States auto company differed from a foreman in a
Japanese auto company in that the foreman in the United States would

(A) not have been a member of an auto workers' union

(B) have been unlikely to support the goals of company management
(C) have been able to control production processes to a large extent
(D) have experienced greater stress
(E) have experienced less conflict with workers

Question #50.

The author of the passage mentions the "OH! NO!" system primarily in order to

(A) indicate a way in which the United States industry has become more like the Japanese auto
industry
(B) challenge a particular misconception about worker empowerment in the Japanese auto industry
(C) illustrate the kinds of problem-solving techniques encouraged by company unions in Japan
(D) suggest an effective way of minimizing production costs in auto manufacturing
(E) provide an example of the responsibilities assumed by a foreman in the Japanese auto industry

Question #51.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage sees which of the following as the primary
advantage to companies in implementing the "OH! NO!" system?

(A) It permitted the foreman to take initiative.

(B) It minimized the effort required to produce automobiles.
(C) It ensured that production costs would be as low as possible.
(D) It allowed the foreman to control the production process.
(E) It required considerable worker empowerment to achieve managers' goals.

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Essay #16.
Planter-legislators of the post-Civil War southern United States enacted crop lien laws stipulating
that those who advanced cash or supplies necessary to plant a crop would receive, as security, a
claim, or lien, on the crop produced. In doing so, planters, most of whom were former slaveholders,
sought access to credit from merchants and control over nominally free laborers--former slaves
freed by the victory of the northern Union over the southern Confederacy in the United States Civil
War. They hoped to reassure merchants that despite the emancipation of the slaves, planters would
produce crops and pay debts. Planters planned to use their supply credit to control their workers,
former slaves who were without money to rent land or buy supplies. Planters imagined continuation
of the pre-Civil War economic hierarchy: merchants supplying landlords, landlords supplying
laborers, and laborers producing crops from which their scant wages and planters' profits would
come, allowing planters to repay advances. Lien laws frequently had unintended consequences,
however, thwarting the planter fantasy of mastery without slavery. The newly freed workers,
seeking to become self-employed tenant farmers rather than wage laborers, made direct
arrangements with merchants for supplies. Lien laws, the centerpiece of a system designed to create
a dependent labor force, became the means for workers, with alternative means of supply advances,
to escape that dependence.

Question #52.

Which of the following best expresses the central idea of the passage?

(A) Planters in the post-Civil War southern United States sought to reinstate the institution of
slavery.
(B) Through their decisions regarding supply credit, merchants controlled post-Civil War agriculture.
(C) Lien laws helped to defeat the purpose for which they were originally created.
(D) Although slavery had ended, the economic hierarchy changed little in the post-Civil War southern
United States.
(E) Newly freed workers enacted lien laws to hasten the downfall of the plantation economy.

Question #53.

According to the passage, each of the following was a reason planters supported crop lien laws
EXCEPT:

(A) Planters believed that lien laws would allow them to expand their landholdings.
(B) Planters expected that lien laws would give them control over former slaves.
(C) Planters anticipated that lien laws would help them retain access to merchant credit.
(D) Planters intended to use lien laws to create a dependent labor force.
(E) Planters saw lien laws as a way to maintain their traditional economic status.

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Question #54.

The passage suggests which of the following about merchants in the post-Civil War southern United
States?

(A) They sought to preserve pre-Civil War social conditions.

(B) Their numbers in the legislatures had been diminished.
(C) Their businesses had suffered from a loss of collateral.
(D) They were willing to make business arrangements with former slaves.
(E) Their profits had declined because planters defaulted on debts for supply advances.

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Essay #17.
In the 1980's, astronomer Bohdan Paczynski proposed a way of determining whether the enormous
dark halo constituting the outermost part of the Milky Way galaxy is composed of MACHO's (massive
compact halo objects), which are astronomical objects too dim to be visible. Paczynski reasoned that
if MACHO's make up this halo, a MACHO would occasionally drift in front of a star in the Large
Magellanic Cloud, a bright galaxy near the Milky Way. The gravity of a MACHO that had so drifted,
astronomers agree, would cause the star's light rays, which would otherwise diverge, to bend
together so that, as observed from Earth, the star would temporarily appear to brighten, a process
known as microlensing. Because many individual stars are of intrinsically variable brightness, some
astronomers have contended that the brightening of intrinsically variable stars can be mistaken for
microlensing. However, whereas the different colors of light emitted by an intrinsically variable star
are affected differently when the star brightens, all of a star's colors are equally affected by
microlensing. Thus, if a MACHO magnifies a star's red light tenfold, it will do the same to the star's
blue light and yellow light. Moreover, it is highly unlikely that a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud
will undergo microlensing more than once, because the chance that a second MACHO would pass in
front of exactly the same star is minuscule.

Question #55.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would constitute the strongest
evidence of the microlensing of a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud?

(A) The brightness of such a star is observed to vary at irregular intervals.

(B) The brightening of such a star is observed to be of shorter duration than the brightening of
neighboring stars.
(C) The red light of such a star is observed to be brighter than its yellow light and its blue light.
(D) The red light, yellow light, and blue light of such a star are observed to be magnified temporarily
by the same factor.
(E) The red light of such a star is observed to have increased tenfold.

Question #56.

According to the passage, Paczynski's theory presumes that if MACHO's constituted the Milky Way's
dark halo, occasionally a MACHO would

(A) drift so as to lie in a direct line between two stars in the outer Milky Way
(B) affect the light rays of a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud with the result that the star would
seem for a time to brighten
(C) become obscured as a result of the microlensing of a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud
(D) temporarily increase the apparent brightness of a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud by
increasing the gravity of the star
(E) magnify each color in the spectrum of a star in the Large Magellanic Cloud by a different amount

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Question #57.

The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) outlining reasons why a particular theory is no longer credited by some astronomers
(B) presenting data collected by a researcher in response to some astronomers' criticism of a
particular line of reasoning
(C) explaining why a researcher proposed a particular theory and illustrating how influential that
theory has been
(D) showing how a researcher's theory has been used to settle a dispute between the researcher and
some astronomers
(E) describing a line of reasoning put forth by a researcher and addressing a contention concerning
that line of reasoning

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Practice Test #2 Reading Comprehension Keys

1. C 11. D 21. A 31. E 41. A 51. C

2. B 12. A 22. A 32. D 42. C 52. C
3. E 13. A 23. E 33. C 43. C 53. A
4. A 14. D 24. D 34. E 44. D 54. D
5. D 15. C 25. D 35. B 45. D 55. D
6. C 16. C 26. C 36. C 46. E 56. B
7. A 17. D 27. A 37. D 47. D 57. E
8. E 18. A 28. D 38. C 48. B
9. B 19. D 29. E 39. E 49. A
10. C 20. C 30. A 40. C 50. B

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Problem Set #3 Reading Comprehension

(84 Essays, 290 Questions)

Essay #1.
The fields of antebellum (pre-Civil
War) political history and women’s his-
tory use separate sources and focus
Line on separate issues. Political histori-
(5) ans, examining sources such as voting
records, newspapers, and politicians’
writings, focus on the emergence in the
1840’s of a new “American political
nation,” and since women were neither
(10) voters nor politicians, they receive little
discussion. Women’s historians, mean-
while, have shown little interest in the
subject of party politics, instead draw-
ing on personal papers, legal records
(15) such as wills, and records of female
associations to illuminate women’s
domestic lives, their moral reform
activities, and the emergence of the
woman’s rights movement.
(20) However, most historians have
underestimated the extent and signifi-
cance of women’s political allegiance
in the antebellum period. For example,
in the presidential election campaigns
(25) of the 1840’s, the Virginia Whig party
strove to win the allegiance of Virginia’s
women by inviting them to rallies and
speeches. According to Whig propa-
ganda, women who turned out at the
(30) party’s rallies gathered information
that enabled them to mold party-loyal
families, reminded men of moral values
that transcended party loyalty, and con-
ferred moral standing on the party.
(35) Virginia Democrats, in response,
began to make similar appeals to
women as well. By the mid-1850’s
the inclusion of women in the rituals of
party politics had become common-
(40) place, and the ideology that justified
such inclusion had been assimilated
by the Democrats.

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Question #1.

The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to

A. examine the tactics of antebellum political parties with regard to women

B. trace the effect of politics on the emergence of the woman’s rights movement
C. point out a deficiency in the study of a particular historical period
D. discuss the ideologies of opposing antebellum political parties
E. contrast the methodologies in two differing fields of historical inquiry

Question #2.

According to the second paragraph of the passage (lines 20-42), Whig propaganda included the
assertion that

A. women should enjoy more political rights than they did

B. women were the most important influences on political attitudes within a family
C. women’s reform activities reminded men of important moral values
D. women’s demonstrations at rallies would influence men’s voting behavior
E. women’s presence at rallies would enhance the moral standing of the party

Question #3.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of Virginia Democrats in the mid-1850’s?

A. They feared that their party was losing its strong moral foundation.
B. They believed that the Whigs’ inclusion of women in party politics had led to the Whigs’
success in many elections.
C. They created an ideology that justified the inclusion of women in party politics.
D. They wanted to demonstrate that they were in support of the woman’s rights movement.
E. They imitated the Whigs’ efforts to include women in the rituals of party politics.

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Essay #2.
Over the last 150 years, large
stretches of salmon habitat have
been eliminated by human activity:
Line mining, livestock grazing, timber
(5) harvesting, and agriculture as well
as recreational and urban devel-
opment. The numerical effect is
obvious: there are fewer salmon
in degraded regions than in pris-
(10) tine ones; however, habitat loss
also has the potential to reduce
genetic diversity. This is most
evident in cases where it results
in the extinction of entire salmon
(15) populations. Indeed, most
analysts believe that some kind
of environmental degradation
underlies the demise of many
extinct salmon populations.
(20) Although some rivers have
been recolonized, the unique
genes of the original populations
have been lost.
Large-scale disturbances in
(25) one locale also have the potential
to alter the genetic structure of
populations in neighboring areas,
even if those areas have pristine
habitats. Why? Although the
(30) homing instinct of salmon to their
natal stream is strong, a fraction
of the fish returning from the sea
(rarely more than 15 percent)
stray and spawn in nearby
(35) streams. Low levels of straying
are crucial, since the process
provides a source of novel
genes and a mechanism
by which a location can be
(40) repopulated should the fish
there disappear. Yet high rates
of straying can be problematic
because misdirected fish may
interbreed with the existing stock
(45) to such a degree that any local
adaptations that are present

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become diluted. Straying

rates remain relatively low when
environmental conditions are
(50) stable, but can increase dramati-
cally when streams suffer severe
disturbance. The 1980 volcanic
eruption of Mount Saint Helens,
for example, sent mud and debris
(55) into several tributaries of the
Columbia River. For the next
couple of years, steelhead trout
(a species included among the
salmonids) returning from the
(60) sea to spawn were forced to
find alternative streams. As
a consequence, their rates of
straying, initially 16 percent,
rose to more than 40 percent
(65) overall.
Although no one has quantified
changes in the rate of straying
as a result of the disturbances
caused by humans, there is no
(70) reason to suspect that the effect
would be qualitatively different
than what was seen in the
aftermath of the Mount Saint
Helens eruption. Such a dra-
(75) matic increase in straying from
damaged areas to more pristine
streams results in substantial
gene flow, which can in turn lower
the overall fitness of subsequent
generations.

Question #4.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. argue against a conventional explanation for the extinction of certain salmon populations and
suggest an alternative
B. correct a common misunderstanding about the behavior of salmon in response to
environmental degradation caused by human activity
C. compare the effects of human activity on salmon populations with the effects of natural
disturbances on salmon populations
D. differentiate the particular effects of various human activities on salmon habitats
E. describe how environmental degradation can cause changes in salmon populations that
extend beyond a numerical reduction

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Question #5.

It can be inferred from the passage that the occasional failure of some salmon to return to their
natal streams in order to spawn provides a mechanism by which

A. pristine streams that are near polluted streams become polluted themselves
B. the particular adaptations of a polluted stream’s salmon population can be preserved without
dilution
C. the number of salmon in pristine habitats decreases relative to the number in polluted
streams
D. an environmentally degraded stream could be recolonized by new salmon populations should
the stream recover
E. the extinction of the salmon populations that spawn in polluted streams is accelerated

Question #6.

According to the passage, human activity has had which of the following effects on salmon
populations?

A. An increase in the size of salmon populations in some previously polluted rivers

B. A decline in the number of salmon in some rivers
C. A decrease in the number straying salmon in some rivers
D. A decrease in the gene flow between salmon populations that spawn in polluted streams and
populations that spawn in pristine streams
E. A decline in the vulnerability of some salmon populations to the effects of naturally occurring
habitat destruction

Question #7.

The author mentions the “aftermath of the Mount Saint Helens eruption” (lines 73-74) most likely in
order to

A. provide an example of the process that allows the repopulation of rivers whose indigenous
salmon population has become extinct
B. indicate the extent to which the disturbance of salmon habitat by human activity in one
stream might affect the genetic structure of salmon populations elsewhere
C. provide a standard of comparison against which the impact of human activity on the gene
flow among salmon populations should be measured
D. show how salmons’ homing instinct can be impaired as a result of severe environmental
degradation of their natal streams
E. show why straying rates in salmon populations remain generally low except when spawning
streams suffer severe environmental disturbance

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Essay #3.
Recently biologists have been
interested in a tide-associated
periodic behavior displayed by
Line the diatom Hantzschia virgata, a
(5) microscopic golden-brown alga that
inhabits that portion of a shoreline
washed by tides (the intertidal zone).
Diatoms of this species, sometimes
called “commuter” diatoms, remain
(10) burrowed in the sand during high
tide, and emerge on the sand sur-
face during the daytime low tide.
Just before the sand is inundated by
the rising tide, the diatoms burrow
(15) again. Some scientists hypothesize
that commuter diatoms know that it
is low tide because they sense an
environmental change, such as an
alteration in temperature or a change
(20) in pressure caused by tidal move-
ment. However, when diatoms are
observed under constant conditions
in a laboratory, they still display
periodic behavior, continuing to bur-
(25) row on schedule for several weeks.
This indicates that commuter diatoms,
rather than relying on environmental
cues to keep time, possess an inter-
nal pacemaker or biological clock
(30) that enables them to anticipate peri-
odic changes in the environment.
A commuter diatom has an unusu-
ally accurate biological clock, a
consequence of the unrelenting
(35) environmental pressures to which
it is subjected; any diatoms that do
not burrow before the tide arrives
are washed away.
This is not to suggest that the
(40) period of this biological clock is
immutably fixed. Biologists have
concluded that even though a
diatom does not rely on the envi-
ronment to keep time, environmental
(45) factors—including changes in the
tide’s hydrostatic pressure, salin-
ity, mechanical agitation, and
temperature—can alter the period

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of its biological clock according to

(50) changes in the tidal cycle. In short,
the relation between an organism’s
biological clock and its environment
is similar to that between a wristwatch
and its owner: the owner cannot
(55) make the watch run faster or slower,
but can reset the hands. However,
this relation is complicated in intertidal
dwellers such as commuter diatoms
by the fact that these organisms are
(60) exposed to the solar-day cycle as
well as to the tidal cycle, and some-
times display both solar-day and
tidal periods in a single behavior.
Commuter diatoms, for example,
(65) emerge only during those low tides
that occur during the day.

Question #8.

The passage suggests which of the following about the accuracy of the commuter diatom’s biological
clock?

A. The accuracy of the commuter diatom’s biological clock varies according to changes in the
tidal cycle.
B. The unusual accuracy that characterizes the commuter diatom’s biological clock is rare
among intertidal species.
C. The commuter diatom’s biological clock is likely to be more accurate than the biological clock
of a species that is subject to less intense environmental pressures.
D. The commuter diatom’s biological clock tends to be more accurate than the biological clocks
of most other species because of the consistency of the tidal cycle.
E. The accuracy of the commuter diatom’s biological clock tends to fluctuate when the diatom
is observed under variable laboratory conditions.

Question #9.

The author of the passage compares the relationship between an organism’s biological clock and its
environment to the relation between a wristwatch and its owner most probably in order to

A. point out a fundamental difference between the function of biological clocks in organisms
and the use of mechanical clocks by humans
B. illustrate the way in which the period of an organism’s biological clock can be altered by
environmental factors
C. suggest that there are important similarities between the biological clock in organisms such
as the commuter diatom and the biological clock in humans
D. support an argument regarding the methods used by certain organisms to counteract the
influence of the environment on their biological clocks
E. question the accuracy of the biological clock in organisms such as the commuter diatom

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Question #10.

According to the passage, the periodic behavior displayed by commuter diatoms under constant
laboratory conditions is characterized by which of the following?

A. Greater unpredictability than the corresponding behavior under natural conditions

B. A consistent periodic schedule in the short term
C. No difference over the long term from the corresponding behavior under natural conditions
D. Initial variability caused by the constant conditions of the laboratory
E. Greater sensitivity to environmental factors than is the case under natural conditions

Question #11.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. dispute the influence of environmental factors on the tide-associated behavioral rhythms

displayed by the diatom Hantzschia virgata
B. describe how certain tide-associated behavioral rhythms displayed by the diatom Hantzschia
virgata have changed over time
C. compare tide-associated behavioral rhythms to solar-day behavioral rhythms in the diatom
Hantzschia virgata
D. examine how certain biological and environmental influences affect the tide-associated
behavioral rhythms displayed by the diatom Hantzschia virgata
E. identify certain environmental factors that limit the effectiveness of the biological clock in
the diatom Hantzschia virgata

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Essay #4.
In corporate purchasing,
competitive scrutiny is typically
limited to suppliers of items that are
Line directly related to end products.
(5) With “indirect” purchases (such as
computers, advertising, and legal
services), which are not directly
related to production, corporations
often favor “supplier partnerships”
(10) (arrangements in which the
purchaser forgoes the right to
pursue alternative suppliers), which
can inappropriately shelter suppliers
from rigorous competitive scrutiny
(15) that might afford the purchaser
economic leverage. There are two
independent variables—availability
of alternatives and ease of changing
suppliers—that companies should
(20) use to evaluate the feasibility of
subjecting suppliers of indirect
purchases to competitive scrutiny.
This can create four possible
situations.
(25) In Type 1 situations, there are
many alternatives and change is
relatively easy. Open pursuit of
alternatives—by frequent com-
petitive bidding, if possible—will
(30) likely yield the best results. In
Type 2 situations, where there
are many alternatives but change
is difficult—as for providers of
employee health-care benefits—it
(35) is important to continuously test
the market and use the results to
secure concessions from existing
suppliers. Alternatives provide a
credible threat to suppliers, even if
(40) the ability to switch is constrained.
In Type 3 situations, there ate few
alternatives, but the ability to switch
without difficulty creates a threat that
companies can use to negotiate
(45) concessions from existing suppliers.
In Type 4 situations, where there
are few alternatives and change
is difficult, partnerships may be
unavoidable.

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Question #12.

Which of the following best describes the relation of the second paragraph to the first?

A. The second paragraph offers proof of an assertion made in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph provides an explanation for the occurrence of a situation described in
the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph discusses the application of a strategy proposed in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph examines the scope of a problem presented in the first paragraph.
E. The second paragraph discusses the contradictions inherent in a relationship described in the
first paragraph.

Question #13.

Which of the following can be inferred about supplier partnerships, as they are described in the
passage?

A. They cannot be sustained unless the goods or services provided are available from a large
number of suppliers.
B. They can result in purchasers paying more for goods and services than they would in a
competitive-bidding situation.
C. They typically are instituted at the urging of the supplier rather than the purchaser.
D. They are not feasible when the goods or services provided are directly related to the
purchasers’ end products.
E. They are least appropriate when the purchasers’ ability to change suppliers is limited.

Question #14.

According to the passage, which of the following factors distinguishes an indirect purchase from
other purchases?

A. The ability of the purchasing company to subject potential suppliers of the purchased item to
competitive scrutiny
B. The number of suppliers of the purchased item available to the purchasing company
C. The methods of negotiation that are available to the purchasing company
D. The relationship of the purchased item to the purchasing company’s end product
E. The degree of importance of the purchased item in the purchasing company’s business
operations

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Essay #5.
While the most abundant and dominant species within a particular ecosystem 1
is often crucial in perpetuating the ecosystem, a “keystone” species, here defined 2
as one whose effects are much larger than would be predicted from its appearance, 3
also play a vital role. But because complex species interactions may be involved, 4
identifying a keystone species by removing the species and observing changes in 5
the ecosystem is problematic. 6
It might seem that certain traits would clearly define a species as a keystone 7
species; for example, Pisaster ochraceus is often a keystone predator because it 8
consumes and suppresses mussel populations, which in the absence of this starfish 9
can be a dominant species. But such predation on a dominant or potentially dominant 10
species occurs in systems that do as well as in systems that do not have species that 11
play keystone roles. Moreover, whereas P. ochraceus occupies an unambiguous 12
keystone role on wave-exposed rocky headlands, in more wave-sheltered habitats 13
the impact of P. ochraceus predation is weak or nonexistent, and at certain sites sand 14
burial is responsible for eliminating mussels. Keystone status appears to depend on 15
context, whether of particular geography or of such factors as community diversity 16
(for example, a reduction in species diversity may thrust more of the remaining species 17
into keystone roles) and length of species interaction (since newly arrived species 18
in particular may dramatically affect ecosystem). 19

Question #15.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. point out some of the differences between dominant and keystone species
B. emphasize the complexity of the interactions that occur between two particular species
C. detail the effect of a particular habitat on the role occupied by a certain keystone species
D. illustrate the importance of community diversity for the perpetuation of an ecosystem
E. explain some considerations involved in determining whether a species occupies a keystone
role

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Question #16.

Which of the following, if true, would most clearly support the argument about keystone
status advanced in the last sentence of the passage (lines 15 – 19)?

A. A species of bat is primarily responsible for keeping insect populations within an

ecosystem low, and the size of the insect population in turn affects bird species
within that ecosystem.
B. A species of iguana occupies a keystone role on certain tropical islands, but does
not play that role on adjacent tropical islands that are inhabited by a greater number
of animal species.
C. Close observation of a savannah ecosystem reveals that more
species occupy keystone roles within that ecosystem than biologists had previously believed.
D. As a keystone species of bee becomes more abundant, it has a larger effect on
the ecosystem it habits.
E. A species of mouse that occupies a keystone role in a prairie habitat develops
coloration patterns that camouflage it from potential predators.

Question #17.

The passage suggests which of the following about the identification of a species as
a keystone species?

A. Such an identification depends primarily on the species’ relationship to the dominant species.
B. Such an identification can best be made by removing the species from a particular
ecosystem and observing changes that occur in the ecosystem.
C. Such an identification is likely to be less reliable as an ecosystem becomes less diverse.
D. Such an identification seems to depend on various factors within the ecosystem.
E. Such an identification can best be made by observing predation behavior.

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Essay #6.
This passage is based on an article written in 2000.
The traditional model of employer-employee relations in the United States was a 1
“psychological contract” in which employees made long-term commitments to 2
organizations in exchange for long-term job security, training and development, and 3
internal opportunities for promotion. Beginning mainly with the recession in the early 4
1970’s, this paradigm began to unravel. Organizations began using extensive downsizing 5
and outsourcing to decrease the number of permanent employees in the workforce. Among 6
employees this situation has resulted in a decided shift in desire: in stead of working their 7
way up in an organization, many now prefer to work their way out. Entrepreneurship at 8
the small business administration are now the fastest-growing majors in business schools. 9
Several factors have generated movement from the old paradigm to the new one. 10
Organizations have had legitimate and pressing reasons to shift to a new paradigm of 11
employer-employee relations. Large numbers of permanent employees make it difficult 12
for organizations to respond quickly to downturns in demand by decreasing payroll costs. 13
The enormous rights in wrongful discharge suites has created incentives for organizations 14
to use temporary, contract, and leased employees in order to distance themselves from 15
potential litigation problems. Moreover, top management is under increased pressure 16
from shareholders to generate higher and higher levels of return on investment in the 17
short run, resulting in declines in hiring, increases in layoffs, and shortage of funds for 18
employee development. 19
At the same time, a lack of forthrightness on the part of organizations has led to 20
increased cynicism among employees about management’s motivation and competence. 21
Employees are now working 15 percent more hours per week than they were 20 years ago, 22
but organizations acknowledge this fact only by running stress-management workshops 23
to help employees to cope. Sales people are being asked to increase sales at the same time 24
organizations have cut travel, phone, and advertising budgets. Employees could probably 25
cope effectively with changes in the psychological contract if organizations were more 26
forthright about how they were changing it. But the euphemistic jargon used by executives 27
to justify the changes they were implementing frequently backfires; rather than 28
engendering sympathy for management’s position, it sparks employees’ desire to be 29
free of the organization all together. In a recent study of employees’ attitudes about 30
management, 49 percent of the sample strongly agreed that “management will take 31
advantage of you if given the chance.” 32

Question #18.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. discuss the financial implications of a recent shift in attitudes among workers

B. propose a new approach for businesses to increase loyalty among their employees
C. defend certain business practices in light of criticism of corporations, actions
in a recent past
D. speculate about possible long term benefits of a recent change in the general
business climate
E. consider some of the factors contributing to a major shift in employer-employee
relationships

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Question #19.

The passage suggests that which of the following is a legitimate reason for
organizations’ shift to the new model of employer-employee relations?

A. Organizations tend to operate more effectively when they have a high manager-
to-employee ratio.
B. Organizations can move their operations to less expensive locations more easily
when they have fewer permanent employees.
C. Organizations have found that they often receive higher quality work when they
engage in outsourcing.
D. Organizations with large pools of permanent workers risk significant financial losses
if the demand for their product or service decreases.
E. Organizations are under increasing pressure to adopt new technologies that often
obviate the need for certain workers.

Question #20.

Which of the following best characterizes the function of the final sentence of the
passage (lines 30-32)?

A. It is such as an alternative explanation for phenomenon discussed earlier in the passage.

B. It provides data intended to correct a common misconception.
C. It further weakens an argument that is being challenged by the author.
D. It introduces a specific piece of evidence in support of a claim made at beginning
of the final paragraph (lines 20-21).
E. It answers a question that is implicit in the preceding sentence (lines 27-30).

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Essay #7.
In 1994, a team of scientists led
by David Mckay began studying the
meteorite ALH84001, which had been
Line discovered in Antarctica in 1984.
(5) Two years later, the McKay team
announced that ALH84001, which
scientists generally agree originated
on Mars, contained compelling evi-
dence that life once existed on Mars.
(10) This evidence includes the discovery
of organic molecules in ALH84001,
the first ever found in Martian rock.
Organic molecules—complex, carbon-
based compounds—form the basis for
(15) terrestrial life. The organic molecules
found in ALH84001 are polycyclic aro-
matic hydrocarbons, or PAH’s. When
microbes die, their organic material
often decays into PAH’s.
(20) Skepticism about the McKay team’s
claim remains, however. For example,
ALH84001 has been on earth for
13,000 years, suggesting to some
scientists that its PAH’s might have
(25) resulted form terrestrial contamination.
However, McKay’s team has demon-
strated that the concentration of PAH’s
increases as one looks deeper into
ALH84001, contrary to what one would
(30) expect from terrestrial contamination.
The skeptic’s strongest argument,
however, is that processes unrelated
to organic life can easily produce all
the evidence found by McKay’ steam,
(35) including PAH’s. For example, star
formation produces PAH’s. Moreover,
PAH’s frequently appear in other
meteorites, and no one attributes
their presence to life processes.
(40) Yet McKay’s team notes that the
particular combination of PAH’s
in ALH84001 is more similar to the
combinations produced by decaying
organisms than to those originating
form nonbiological processes.

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Question #21.

The passage asserts which of the following about the claim that ALH84001 originated on Mars?

A. It was initially proposed by the McKay team of scientists.

B. It is not a matter of widespread scientific dispute.
C. It has been questioned by some skeptics of the McKay team’s work.
D. It has been undermined by recent work on PAH’s.
E. It is incompatible with the face that ALH84001 has been on Earth for 13,000 years.

Question #22.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe new ways of studying the possibility that life once existed on Mars
B. revise a theory regarding the existence of life on Mars in light of new evidence
C. reconcile conflicting viewpoints regarding the possibility that life once existed on Mars
D. evaluate a recently proposed argument concerning the origin of ALH84001
E. describe a controversy concerning the significance of evidence from ALH84001

Question #23.

The passage suggests that the fact that ALH84001 has been on earth for 13,000 years has been used
by some scientists to support which of the following claims about ALH84001?

A. ALH84001 may not have originated on Mars.

B. ALH84001 contains PAH’s that are the result of nonbiological processes.
C. ALH84001 may not have contained PAH’s when it landed on Earth.
D. The organic molecules found in ALH84001 are not PAH’s.
E. The organic molecules found in ALH84001 could not be the result of terrestrial contamination.

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Essay #8.
In its 1903 decision in the case
of Lone Wolf v. Hitchcock, the United
States Supreme Court rejected the
Line efforts of three Native American tribes
(5) to prevent the opening of tribal lands
to non-Indian settlement without tribal
consent. In his study of the Lone
Wolf case, Blue Clark properly
emphasizes the Court’s assertion
(10) of a virtually unlimited unilateral power
of Congress (the House of Represen-
tatives and the Senate) over Native
American affairs. But he fails to note
the decision’s more far-reaching
(15) impact: shortly after Lone Wolf, the
federal government totally abandoned
negotiation and execution of formal
written agreements with Indian tribes
as a prerequisite for the implemen-
(20) tation of federal Indian policy. Many
commentators believe that this change
had already occurred in 1871 when—
following a dispute between the
House and the Senate over which
(25) chamber should enjoy primacy in
Indian affairs—Congress abolished
the making of treaties with Native
American tribes. But in reality the
federal government continued to nego-
(30) tiate formal tribal agreements past
the turn of the century, treating these
documents not as treaties with sover-
eign nations requiring ratification by the
Senate but simply as legislation to be
(35) passed by both houses of Congress.
The Lone Wolf decision ended this
era of formal negotiation and finally
did away with what had increasingly
become the empty formality of obtain-
ing tribal consent.

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Question #24.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

A. identifying similarities in two different theories

B. evaluating a work of scholarship
C. analyzing the significance of a historical event
D. debunking a revisionist interpretation
E. exploring the relationship between law and social reality

Question #25.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of relations between the federal
government and Native American tribes?

A. Some Native American tribes approved of the congressional action of 1871 because it simplified
their dealings with the federal government.
B. Some Native American tribes were more eager to negotiate treaties with the United States after
the Lone Wolf decision.
C. Prior to the Lone Wolf decision, the Supreme Court was reluctant to hear cases involving
agreements negotiated between Congress and Native American tribes.
D. Prior to 1871, the federal government sometimes negotiated treaties with Native American
tribes.
E. Following 1871, the House exercised more power than did the Senate in the government’s
dealings with Native American tribes.

Question #26.

As an element in the argument presented by the author of the passage, the reference to Blue Clark’s
study of the Lone Wolf case serves primarily to

A. point out that this episode in Native American history has received inadequate attention from
scholars
B. support the contention of the author of the passage that the Lone Wolf decision had a greater
long-term impact than did the congressional action of 1871
C. challenge the validity of the Supreme Court’s decision confirming the unlimited unilateral power
of Congress in Native American affairs
D. refute the argument of commentators who regard the congressional action of 1871 as the end of
the era of formal negotiation between the federal government and Native American tribes
E. introduce a view about the Lone Wolf decision that the author will expand upon

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Question #27.

According to the passage, which of the following resulted from the Lone Wolf decision?

A. The Supreme Court took on a greater role in Native American affairs.

B. Native American tribes lost their legal standing as sovereign nations in their dealings with the
federal government, but their ownership of tribal lands was confirmed.
C. The federal government no longer needed to conclude a formal agreement with a Native
American tribe in order to carry out policy decisions that affected the tribe.
D. The federal government began to appropriate tribal lands for distribution to non-Indian settlers.
E. Native American tribes were no longer able to challenge congressional actions by appealing to the
Supreme Court.

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Essay #9.
Why firms adhere to or deviate
from their strategic plans is poorly
understood. However, theory and
Line limited research suggest that the
(5) process through which such plans
emerge may play a part. In particular,
top management decision-sharing—
consensus-oriented, team-based
decision-making—may increase the
(10) likelihood that firms will adhere to their
plans, because those involved in the
decision-making may be more com-
mitted to the chosen course of action,
thereby increasing the likelihood that
(15) organizations will subsequently adhere
to their plans.
However, the relationship between
top management decision-sharing and
adherence to plans may be affected
(20) by a firm’s strategic mission (its fun-
damental approach to increasing
sales revenue and market share, and
generating cash flow and short-term
profits). At one end of the strategic
(25) mission continuum, “build” strategies
are pursued when a firm desires to
increase its market share and is willing
to sacrifice short-term profits to do so.
At the other end, “harvest” strategies
(30) are used when a firm is willing to
sacrifice marked share for short-term
profitability and cash-flow maximiza-
tion. Research and theory suggest
that top management decision-sharing
(35) may have a more positive relationship
with adherence to plans among firms
with harvest strategies than among
firms with build strategies. In a study
of strategic practices in several large
(40) firms, managers in harvest strategy
scenarios were more able to adhere
to their business plans. As one of the
managers in the study explained it,
this is partly because “*t+ypically all a
(45) manager has to do [when implementing
a harvest strategy] is that which was

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done last year.” Additionally, man-

agers under harvest strategies may
have fewer strategic options than do
(50) those under build strategies; it may
therefore be easier to reach agree-
ment on a particular course of action
through decision-sharing, which will
in turn tend to promote adherence
(55) to plans. Conversely, in a “build”
strategy scenario, individual leader-
ship, rather than decision-sharing,
may promote adherence to plans.
Build strategies—which typically
(60) require leaders with strong perso-
nal visions for a firm’s future, rather
than the negotiated compromise
of the team-based decision—may
be most closely adhered to when
(65) implemented in the context of a clear
strategic vision of an individual leader,
rather than through the practice of
decision-sharing.

Question #28.

Which of the following best describes the function of the first sentence (lines 17-24) of the second
paragraph of the passage?

A. To answer a question posed in the first sentence of the passage about why firms adopt particular
strategic missions
B. To refute an argument made in the first paragraph about how top management decision-making
affects whether firms will adhere to their strategic plans
C. To provide evidence supporting a theory introduced in the first paragraph about what makes firms
adhere to or deviate from their strategic plants
D. To qualify an assertion made in the preceding sentence (lines 6-16) about how top management
decision-making affects the likelihood that firms will adhere to their strategic plans
E. To explain a distinction relied on in the second paragraph (lines 17-68) regarding two different
kinds of strategic missions

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Question #29.

The passage cites all of the following as differences between firms using build strategies and firms
using harvest strategies EXCEPT

A. their willingness to sacrifice short-term profits in order to build market share

B. their willingness to sacrifice building market share in order to increase short-term profitability
C. the number of strategic options available to their managers
D. the relative importance they assign to maximizing cash-flow
E. how likely they are to employ decision-sharing in developing strategic plans

Question #30.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. identify some of the obstacles that make it difficult for firms to adhere to their strategic business
plans
B. compare two different theories concerning why firms adhere to or deviate from their strategic
plans
C. evaluate the utility of top management decision-sharing as a method of implementing the
strategic mission of a business
D. discuss the respective advantages and disadvantages of build and harvest strategies among
several large firms
E. examine some of the factors that may affect whether or not firms adhere to their strategic plans

Question #31.

The author includes the quotation in lines 44-47 of the passage most probably in order to

A. lend support to the claim that firms utilizing harvest strategies may be more likely to adhere to
their strategic plans
B. suggest a reason that many managers of large firm prefer harvest strategies to build strategies
C. provide an example of a firm that adhered to its strategic plan because of the degree of its
managers’ commitment
D. demonstrate that managers implementing harvest strategies generally have better strategic
options than do managers implementing build strategies
E. give an example of a large firm that successfully implemented a harvest strategy

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Essay #10.
Historians who study European
women of the Renaissance try to mea-
sure “independence,” “options,” and
Line other indicators of the degree to which
(5) the expression of women’s individuality
was either permitted or suppressed.
Influenced by Western individualism,
these historians define a peculiar form
of personhood: an innately bounded
(10) unit, autonomous and standing apart
from both nature and society. An
anthropologist, however, would contend
that a person can be conceived in ways
other than as an “individual.” In many
(15) societies a person’s identity is not
intrinsically unique and self-contained
but instead is defined within a complex
web of social relationships.
In her study of the fifteenth-century
(20) Florentine widow Alessandra Strozzi, a
historian who specializes in European
women of the Renaissance attributes
individual intention and authorship of
actions to her subject. This historian
(25) assumes that Alessandra had goals
and interests different from those of her
sons, yet much of the historian’s own
research reveals that Alessandra
acted primarily as a champion of her
(30) sons’ interests, taking their goals as
her own. Thus Alessandra conforms
more closely to the anthropologist’s
notion that personal motivation is
embedded in a social context. Indeed,
(35) one could argue that Alessandra did
not distinguish her personhood from
that of her sons. In Renaissance
Europe the boundaries of the con-
ceptual self were not always firm
(40) and closed and did not necessarily
coincide with the boundaries of
the bodily self.

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Question #32.

The passage suggests that the historian mentioned in the second paragraph (lines 19-42) would be
most likely to agree with which of the following assertions regarding Alessandra Strozzi?

A. Alessandra was able to act more independently than most women of her time because she was a
widow.
B. Alessandra was aware that her personal motivation was embedded in a social context.
C. Alessandra had goals and interests similar to those of many other widows in her society.
D. Alessandra is an example of a Renaissance woman who expressed her individuality through
independent action.
E. Alessandra was exceptional because she was able to effect changes in the social constraints
placed upon women in her society.

Question #33.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes which of the following about the study of
Alessandra Strozzi done by the historian mentioned in the second paragraph (lines 19-42)?

A. Alessandra was atypical of her time and was therefore an inappropriate choice for the subject of
the historian’s research.
B. In order to bolster her thesis, the historian adopted the anthropological perspective on
personhood.
C. The historian argues that the boundaries of the conceptual self were not always firm and closed in
Renaissance Europe.
D. In her study, the historian reverts to a traditional approach that is out of step with the work of
other historians of Renaissance Europe.
E. The interpretation of Alessandra’s actions that the historian puts forward is not supported by
much of the historian’s research.

Question #34.

In the first paragraph, the author of the passage mentions a contention that would be made by an
anthropologist most likely in order to

A. present a theory that will be undermined in the discussion of a historian’s study later in the
passage
B. offer a perspective on the concept of personhood that can usefully be applied to the study of
women in Renaissance Europe
C. undermine the view that the individuality of European women of the Renaissance was largely
suppressed
D. argue that anthropologists have applied the Western concept of individualism in their research
E. lay the groundwork for the conclusion that Alessandra’s is a unique case among European women
of the Renaissance whose lives have been studied by historians

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Essay #11.
Many scholars have theorized that
economic development, particularly
industrialization and urbanization, con-
Line tributes to the growth of participatory
(5) democracy; according to this theory, it
would seem logical that women would
both demand and gain suffrage in ever
greater numbers whenever economic
development expanded their economic
(10) opportunities. However, the economic
development theory is inadequate to
explain certain historical facts about the
implementation of women’s suffrage.
For example, why was women’s suf-
(15) frage, instituted nationally in the United
States in 1920, not instituted nationally
in Switzerland until the 1970’s? Indus-
trialization was well advanced in both
countries by 1920: over 33 percent
(20) of American workers were employed
in various industries, as compared
to 44 percent of Swiss workers.
Granted, Switzerland and the United
States diverged in the degree to
(25) which the expansion of industry coin-
cided with the degree of urbanization:
only 29 percent of the Swiss population
lived in cities of 10,000 or more inhabi-
tants by 1920. However, urbanization
(30) cannot fully explain women’s suffrage.
Within the United States prior to 1920,
for example, only less urbanized
states had granted women suffrage.
Similarly, less urbanized countries
(35) such as Cambodia and Ghana had
voting rights for women long before
Switzerland did. It is true that Switzer-
land’s urbanized cantons (political
subdivisions) generally enacted
(40) women’s suffrage legislation earlier
than did rural cantons. However,
these cantons often shared other
characteristics—similar linguistic back-
grounds and strong leftist parties—that
may help to explain this phenomenon.

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Question #35.

The passage states which of the following about Switzerland’s urbanized cantons?

A. These cantons shared characteristics other than urbanization that may have contributed to their
implementation of women’s suffrage.
B. These cantons tended to be more politically divided than were rural cantons.
C. These cantons shared with certain rural cantons characteristics such as similar linguistic
backgrounds and strong leftist partie s.
D. The populations of these cantons shared similar views because urbanization furthered the
diffusion of ideas among them.
E. These cantons were comparable to the most highly urbanized states in the United States in their
stance toward the implementation of women’s suffrage.

Question #36.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. contrast two explanations for the implementation of women’s suffrage

B. demonstrate that one factor contributes more than another factor to the implementation of
women’s suffrage
C. discuss the applicability of a theory for explaining the implementation of women’s suffrage
D. clarify certain assumptions underlying a particular theory about the implementation of women’s
suffrage
E. explain how a particular historical occurrence was causally connected to the implementation of
women’s suffrage

Question #37.

The passage suggests which of the following about urbanization in Switzerland and the United States
by 1920?

A. A greater percentage of Swiss industrial workers than American industrial workers lived in urban
areas.
B. There were more cities of 10,000 or more inhabitants in Switzerland than there were in the
United States.
C. Swiss workers living in urban areas were more likely to be employed in industry than were
American workers living in urban areas.
D. Urbanized areas of Switzerland were more likely than similar areas in the United States to have
strong leftist parties.
E. A greater percentage of the United States population than the Swiss population lived in urban
areas.

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Essay #12.
Many managers are influenced by
dangerous myths about pay that lead
to counterproductive decisions about
Line how their companies compensate
(5) employees. One such myth is that
labor rates, the rate per hour paid to
workers, are identical with labor costs,
the money spent on labor in relation to
the productivity of the labor force.
(10) This myth leads to the assumption that
a company can simply lower its labor
costs by cutting wages. But labor
costs and labor rates are not in fact
the same: one company could pay
(15) its workers considerably more than
another and yet have lower labor
costs if that company’s productivity
were higher due to the talent of its
workforce, the efficiency of its work
(20) processes, or other factors. The
confusion of costs with rates per-
sists partly because labor rates are
a convenient target for managers who
want to make an impact on their com-
(25) pany’s budgets. Because labor rates
are highly visible, managers can easily
compare their company’s rates with
those of competitors. Furthermore,
labor rates often appear to be a
(30) company’s most malleable financial
variable: cutting wages appears an
easier way to control costs than such
options as reconfiguring work pro-
cesses or altering product design.
(35) The myth that labor rates and labor
costs are equivalent is supported by
business journalists, who frequently
confound the two. For example, prom-
inent business journals often remark on
(40) the “high” cost of German labor, citing
as evidence the average amount paid
to German workers. The myth is also
perpetuated by the compensation-
consulting industry, which has its own
(45) incentives to keep such myths alive.

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First, although some of these con-

sulting firms have recently broadened
their practices beyond the area of
compensation, their mainstay con-
(50) tinues to be advising companies on
changing their compensation prac-
tices. Suggesting that a company’s
performance can be improved in
some other way than by altering its
(55) pay system may be empirically cor-
rect but contrary to the consultants’
interests. Furthermore, changes
to the compensation system may
appear to be simpler to implement
(60) than changes to other aspects of an
organization, so managers are more
likely to find such advice from con-
sultants palatable. Finally, to the
extant that changes in compensation
(65) create new problems, the consultants
will continue to have work solving the
problems that result from their advice.

Question #38.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about the advice that the consulting firms
discussed in the passage customarily give to companies attempting to control costs?

A. It often fails to bring about the intended changes in companies’ compensation systems.
B. It has highly influenced views that predominate in prominent business journals.
C. It tends to result in decreased labor rates but increased labor costs.
D. It leads to changes in companies’ compensation practices that are less visible than changes to
work processes would be.
E. It might be different if the consulting firms were less narrowly specialized.

Question #39.

The author of the passage mentions business journals (line 39) primarily in order to

A. demonstrate how a particular kind of evidence can be used to support two different conclusions
B. cast doubt on a particular view about the average amount paid to German workers
C. suggest that business journalists may have a vested interest in perpetuating a particular view
D. identify one source of support for a view common among business managers
E. indicate a way in which a particular myth could be dispelled

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Question #40.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements about compensation?

A. A company’s labor costs are not affected by the efficiency of its work processes.
B. High labor rates are not necessarily inconsistent with the goals of companies that want to reduce
costs
C. It is more difficult for managers to compare their companies’ labor rates with those of
competitors than to compare labor costs.
D. A company whose labor rates are high is unlikely to have lower labor costs than other companies.
E. Managers often use information about competitors’ labor costs to calculate those companies’
labor rates.

Question #41.

According to the passage, which of the following is true about changes to a company’s
compensation system?

A. They are often implemented in conjunction with a company’s efforts to reconfigure its work
processes.
B. They have been advocated by prominent business journals as the most direct way for a company
to bring about changes in its labor costs.
C. They are more likely to result in an increase in labor costs than they are to bring about
competitive advantages for the company.
D. They sometimes result in significant cost savings but are likely to create labor-relations problems
for the company.
E. They may seem to managers to be relatively easy to implement compared with other kinds of
changes managers might consider.

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Essay #13.
In addition to conventional
galaxies, the universe contains
very dim galaxies that until
Line recently went unnoticed by
(5) astronomers. Possibly as
numerous as conventional gal-
axies, these galaxies have the
same general shape and even
the same approximate number
(10) of stars as a common type of
conventional galaxy, the spiral,
but tend to be much larger.
Because these galaxies’
mass is spread out over
(15) larger areas, they have far
fewer stars per unit volume
than do conventional galaxies.
Apparently these low-surface-
brightness galaxies, as they
(20) are called, take much longer
than conventional galaxies to
condense their primordial gas
and convert it to stars—that is,
they evolve much more slowly.
(25) These galaxies may
constitute an answer to the long-
standing puzzle of the missing
baryonic mass in the universe.
Baryons—subatomic particles
(30) that are generally protons or
neutrons—are the source of
stellar, and therefore galactic,
luminosity, and so their numbers
can be estimated based on how
(35) luminous galaxies are. How-
ever, the amount of helium
in the universe, as measured
by spectroscopy, suggests
that there are far more baryons
(40) in the universe than estimates
based on galactic luminosity
indicate. Astronomers have
long speculated that the missing
baryonic mass might eventually
(45) be discovered in intergalactic
space or as some large popu-
lation of galaxies that are difficult
to detect.

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Question #42.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe a phenomenon and consider its scientific significance

B. contrast two phenomena and discuss a puzzling difference between them
C. identify a newly discovered phenomenon and explain its origins
D. compare two classes of objects and discuss the physical properties of each
E. discuss a discovery and point out its inconsistency with existing theory

Question #43.

The author mentions the fact that baryons are the source of stars’ luminosity primarily in order to
explain

A. how astronomers determine that some galaxies contain fewer stars per unit volume than do
others
B. how astronomers are able to calculate the total luminosity of a galaxy
C. why astronomers can use galactic luminosity to estimate baryonic mass
D. why astronomers’ estimates of baryonic mass based on galactic luminosity are more reliable
than those based on spectroscopic studies of helium
E. how astronomers know bright galaxies contain more baryons than do dim galaxies

Question #44.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is an accurate physical description of
typical low-surface-brightness galaxies?

A. They are large spiral galaxies containing fewer stars than do conventional galaxies.
B. They are compact but very dim spiral galaxies.
C. They are diffuse spiral galaxies that occupy a large volume of space.
D. They are small, young spiral galaxies that contain a high proportion of primordial gas.
E. They are large, dense spirals with low luminosity.

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Essay #14.
Behavior science courses should
be gaining prominence in business
school curricula. Recent theoretical
Line work convincingly shows why behav-
(5) ioral factors such as organizational
culture and employee relations are
among the few remaining sources of
sustainable competitive advantage in
modern organizations. Furthermore,
(10) empirical evidence demonstrates
clear linkages between human
resource (HR) practices based in
the behavioral sciences and various
aspects of a firm’s financial success.
(15) Additionally, some of the world’s most
successful organizations have made
unique HR practices a core element
of their overall business strategies.
Yet the behavior sciences
(20) are struggling for credibility in many
business schools. Surveys show
that business students often regard
behavioral studies as peripheral to
the mainstream business curriculum.
(25) This perception can be explained by
the fact that business students, hoping
to increase their attractiveness to
prospective employers, are highly
sensitive to business norms and
(30) practices, and current business
practices have generally been
moving away from an emphasis on
understanding human behavior and
toward more mechanistic organiza-
(35) tional models. Furthermore, the
status of HR professionals within
organizations tends to be lower
than that of other executives.
Students’ perceptions would
(40) matter less if business schools
were not increasingly dependent on
external funding—form legislatures,
businesses, and private foundations—
for survival. Concerned with their
(45) institutions’ ability to attract funding,
administrators are increasingly tar-
geting low-enrollment courses and
degree programs for elimination.

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Question #45.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. propose a particular change to business school curricula

B. characterize students’ perceptions of business school curricula
C. predict the consequences of a particular change in business school curricula
D. challenge one explanation for the failure to adopt a particular change in business school
curricula
E. identify factors that have affected the prestige of a particular field in business school curricula

Question #46.

The author of the passage mentions “empirical evidence” (line 10) primarily in order to

A. question the value of certain commonly used HR practices

B. illustrate a point about the methodology behind recent theoretical work in the behavioral
sciences
C. support a claim about the importance that business schools should place on courses in the
behavioral sciences
D. draw a distinction between two different factors that affect the financial success of a business
E. explain how the behavioral sciences have shaped HR practices in some business organizations

Question #47.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about HR professionals in business
organizations?

A. They are generally skeptical about the value of mechanistic organizational models.
B. Their work increasingly relies on an understanding of human behavior.
C. Their work generally has little effect on the financial performance of those organizations.
D. Their status relative to other business executives affects the attitude of business school students
toward the behavioral sciences.
E. Their practices are unaffected by the relative prominence of the behavioral sciences within
business schools.

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Question #48.

The author of the passage considers each of the following to be a factor that has contributed to the
prevailing attitude in business schools toward the behavioral sciences EXCEPT

A. business students’ sensitivity to current business norms and practices

B. the relative status of HR professionals among business executives
C. business schools’ reliance on legislatures, businesses, and private foundations for funding
D. businesses’ tendency to value mechanistic organizational models over an understanding of
human behavior
E. theoretical work on the relationship between behavioral factors and a firm’s financial
performance

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Essay #15.
Most pre-1990 literature on busi-
nesses’ use of information technology
(IT)—defined as any form of computer-
Line based information system—focused on
(5) spectacular IT successes and reflected
a general optimism concerning IT’s poten-
tial as a resource for creating competitive
advantage. But toward the end of the
1980’s, some economists spoke of a
(10) “productivity paradox”: despite huge IT
investments, most notably in the service
sectors, productivity stagnated. In the
retail industry, for example, in which IT
had been widely adopted during the
(15) 1980’s, productivity (average output per
hour) rose at an average annual rate of
1.1 percent between 1973 and 1989, com-
pared with 2.4 percent in the preceding
25-year period. Proponents of IT argued
(20) that it takes both time and a critical mass
of investment for IT to yield benefits, and
some suggested that growth figures for
the 1990’s proved these benefits were
finally being realized. They also argued
(25) that measures of productivity ignore what
would have happened without investments
in IT—productivity gains might have been
even lower. There were even claims that
IT had improved the performance of the
(30) service sector significantly, although mac-
roeconomic measures of productivity did
not reflect the improvement.
But some observers questioned why,
if IT had conferred economic value, it did
(35) not produce direct competitive advantages
for individual firms. Resource-based
theory offers an answer, asserting that,
in general, firms gain competitive advantages
by accumulating resources that are
(40) economically valuable, relatively scarce,
and not easily replicated. According to
a recent study of retail firms, which con-
firmed that IT has become pervasive
and relatively easy to acquire, IT by
(45) itself appeared to have conferred little
advantage. In fact, though little evidence

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of any direct effect was found, the fre-

quent negative correlations between IT
and performance suggested that IT had
(50) probably weakened some firms’ compet-
itive positions. However, firms’ human
resources, in and of themselves, did
explain improved performance, and
some firms gained IT-related advan-
(55) tages by merging IT with complementary
resources, particularly human resources.
The findings support the notion, founded
in resource-based theory, that competi-
tive advantages do not arise from easily
(60) replicated resources, no matter how
impressive or economically valuable
they may be, but from complex, intan-
gible resources.

Question #49.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. describing a resource and indicating various methods used to study it

B. presenting a theory and offering an opposing point of view
C. providing an explanation for unexpected findings
D. demonstrating why a particular theory is unfounded
E. resolving a disagreement regarding the uses of a technology

Question #50.

The passage suggests that proponents of resource-based theory would be likely to explain IT’s
inability to produce direct competitive advantages for individual firms by pointing out that

A. IT is not a resource that is difficult to obtain

B. IT is not an economically valuable resource
C. IT is a complex, intangible resource
D. economic progress has resulted from IT only in the service sector
E. changes brought about by IT cannot be detected by macroeconomic measures

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Question #51.

The author of the passage discusses productivity in the retail industry in the first paragraph primarily
in order to

A. suggest a way in which IT can be used to create a competitive advantage

B. provide an illustration of the “productivity paradox”
C. emphasize the practical value of the introduction of IT
D. cite an industry in which productivity did not stagnate during the 1980’s
E. counter the argument that IT could potentially create competitive advantage

Question #52.
According to the passage, most pre-1990 literature on businesses’ use of IT included which of the
following?

A. Recommendations regarding effective ways to use IT to gain competitive advantage

B. Explanations of the advantages and disadvantages of adopting IT
C. Information about ways in which IT combined with human resources could be used to increase
competitive advantage
D. A warning regarding the negative effect on competitive advantage that would occur if IT were not
adopted
E. A belief in the likelihood of increased competitive advantage for firms using IT

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Essay #16.
Even more than mountainside slides
of mud or snow, naturally occurring forest
fires promote the survival of aspen trees.
Line Aspens’ need for fire may seem illogical
(5) since aspens are particularly vulnerable
to fires; whereas the bark of most trees
consists of dead cells, the aspen’s bark
is a living, functioning tissue that—along
with the rest of the tree—succumbs quickly
(10) to fire.
The explanation is that each aspen,
while appearing to exist separately as
a single tree, is in fact only the stem or
shoot of a far larger organism. A group
(15) of thousands of aspens can actually
constitute a single organism, called a
clone, that shares an interconnected root
system and a unique set of genes. Thus,
when one aspen—a single stem—dies,
(20) the entire clone is affected. While alive,
a stem sends hormones into the root
system to suppress formation of further
stems. But when the stem dies, its
hormone signal also ceases. If a clone
(25) loses many stems simultaneously, the
resulting hormonal imbalance triggers a
huge increase in new, rapidly growing
shoots that can outnumber the ones
destroyed. An aspen grove needs to
(30) experience fire or some other disturbance
regularly, or it will fail to regenerate and
spread. Instead, coniferous trees will
invade the aspen grove’s borders and
increasingly block out sunlight needed by
the aspens.

Question #53.

The primary purpose of the passage is to explain the

A. qualities that make a particular organism unique

B. evolutionary change undergone by a particular organism
C. reasons that a phenomenon benefits a particular organism
D. way in which two particular organisms compete for a resource
E. means by which a particular organism has been able to survive in a barren region

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Question #54.

It can be inferred from the passage that when aspen groves experience a “disturbance” (line 30),
such a disturbance

A. leads to a hormonal imbalance within an aspen clone

B. provides soil conditions that are favorable for new shoots
C. thins out aspen groves that have become overly dense
D. suppresses the formation of too many new aspen stems
E. protects aspen groves by primarily destroying coniferous trees rather than aspens

Question #55.

The author of the passage refers to “the bark of most trees” (line 6) most likely in order to
emphasize the

A. vulnerability of aspens to damage from fire when compared to other trees

B. rapidity with which trees other than aspens succumb to destruction by fire
C. relatively great degree of difficulty with which aspens catch on fire when compared to other trees
D. difference in appearance between the bark of aspens and that of other trees
E. benefits of fire to the survival of various types of trees

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Essay #17.
According to a theory advanced
by researcher Paul Martin, the wave
of species extinctions that occurred
Line in North America about 11,000 years
(5) ago, at the end of the Pleistocene era,
can be directly attributed to the arrival
of humans, i.e., the Paleoindians, who
were ancestors of modern Native
Americans. However, anthropologist
(10) Shepard Krech points out that large
animal species vanished even in areas
where there is no evidence to demon-
strate that Paleoindians hunted them.
Nor were extinctions confined to large
(15) animals: small animals, plants, and
insects disappeared, presumably not
all through human consumption. Krech
also contradicts Martin’s exclusion of
climatic change as an explanation by
(20) asserting that widespread climatic
change did indeed occur at the end of
the Pleistocene. Still, Krech attributes
secondary if not primary responsibility
for the extinctions to the Paleoindians,
(25) arguing that humans have produced
local extinctions elsewhere. But,
according to historian Richard White,
even the attribution of secondary
responsibility may not be supported
(30) by the evidence. White observes that
Martin’s thesis depends on coinciding
dates for the arrival of humans and the
decline of large animal species, and
Krech, though aware that the dates
(35) are controversial, does not challenge
them; yet recent archaeological
discoveries are providing evidence
that the date of human arrival was
much earlier than 11,000 years ago.

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Question #56.

Which of the following is true about Martin’s theory, as that theory is described in the passage?

A. It assumes that the Paleoindians were primarily dependent on hunting for survival.
B. It denies that the Pleistocene species extinctions were caused by climate change.
C. It uses as evidence the fact that humans have produced local extinctions in other situations.
D. It attempts to address the controversy over the date of human arrival in North America.
E. It admits the possibility that factors other than the arrival of humans played a role in the
Pleistocene extinctions.

Question #57.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Krech’s objections to Martin’s theory?

A. Further studies showing that the climatic change that occurred at the end of the Pleistocene era
was even more severe and widespread than was previously believed
B. New discoveries indicating that Paleoindians made use of the small animals, plants, and insects
that became extinct
C. Additional evidence indicating that widespread climatic change occurred not only at the end of
the Pleistocene era but also in previous and subsequent eras
D. Researchers’ discoveries that many more species became extinct in North America at the end of
the Pleistocene era than was previously believed
E. New discoveries establishing that both the arrival of humans in North America and the wave of
Pleistocene extinctions took place much earlier than 11,000 years ago

Question #58.

In the last sentence of the passage, the author refers to “recent archaeological discoveries” (lines 36-
37) most probably in order to

A. refute White’s suggestion that neither Maritn nor Krech adequately account for Paleoindians’
contributions to the Pleistocene extinctions
B. cast doubt on the possibility that a more definitive theory regarding the causes of the Pleistocene
extinctions may be forthcoming
C. suggest that Martin’s, Krech’s, and White’s theories regarding the Pleistocene extinctions are all
open to question
D. call attention to the most controversial aspect of all the current theories regarding the
Pleistocene extinctions
E. provide support for White’s questioning of both Martin’s and Krech’s positions regarding the role
of Paleoindians in the Pleistocene extinctions

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Essay #18.
The sloth bear, an insect-eating
animal native to Nepal, exhibits only one
behavior that is truly distinct from that of
Line other bear species: the females carry
(5) their cubs (at least part-time) until the
cubs are about nine months old, even
though the cubs can walk on their own
at six months. Cub-carrying also occurs
among some other myrmecophagous
(10) (ant-eating) mammals; therefore, one
explanation is that cub-carrying is
necessitated by myrmecophagy, since
myrmecophagy entails a low metabolic
rate and high energy expenditure in
(15) walking between food patches. How-
ever, although polar bears’ locomotion
is similarly inefficient, polar bear cubs
walk along with their mother. Further-
more, the daily movements of sloth
(20) bears and American black bears—
which are similar in size to sloth bears
and have similar-sized home ranges—
reveal similar travel rates and distances,
suggesting that if black bear cubs are
(25) able to keep up with their mother, so
too should sloth bear cubs.
An alternative explanation is defense
from predation. Black bear cubs use
trees for defense, whereas brown bears
(30) and polar bears, which regularly inhabit
treeless environments, rely on aggres-
sion to protect their cubs. Like brown
bears and polar bears (and unlike other
myrmecophagous mammals, which are
(35) noted for their passivity), sloth bears
are easily provoked to aggression.
Sloth bears also have relatively large
canine teeth, which appear to be more
functional for fighting than for foraging.
(40) Like brown bears and polar bears,
sloth bears may have evolved in an
environment with few trees. They are
especially attracted to food-rich
grasslands; although few grasslands
(45) persist today on the Indian subcontinent,
this type of habitat was once wide-

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spread there. Grasslands support

high densities of tigers, which fight and
sometimes kill sloth bears; sloth bears
(50) also coexist with and have been killed
by tree-climbing leopards, and are often
confronted and chased by rhinoceroses
and elephants, which can topple trees.
Collectively these factors probably
(55) selected against tree-climbing as a
defensive strategy for sloth bear cubs.
Because sloth bears are smaller than
brown and polar bears and are under
greater threat from dangerous animals,
(60) they may have adopted the extra pre-
caution of carrying their cubs. Although
cub-carrying may also be adoptive for
myrmecophagous foraging, the behavior
of sloth bear cubs, which climb on their
(65) mother’s back at the first sign of danger,
suggests that predation was a key
stimulus.

Question #59.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. trace the development of a particular behavioral characteristic of the sloth bear

B. explore possible explanations for a particular behavioral characteristic of the sloth bear
C. compare the defensive strategies of sloth bear cubs to the defensive strategies of cubs of other
bear species
D. describe how certain behavioral characteristics of the sloth bear differ from those of other
myrmecophagous mammals
E. provide an alternative to a generally accepted explanation of a particular behavioral characteristic
of myrmecophagous mammals

Question #60.

The author mentions rhinoceroses and elephants (lines 52-53) primarily in order to

A. explain why sloth bears are not successful foragers in grassland habitats
B. identify the predators that have had the most influence on the behavior of sloth bears
C. suggest a possible reason that sloth bear cubs do not use tree-climbing as a defense
D. provide examples of predators that were once widespread across the Indian subcontinent
E. defend the assertion that sloth bears are under greater threat from dangerous animals than are
other bear species

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Question #61.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument in lines 18-26
(“Furthermore … sloth bear cubs”)?

A. Cub-carrying behavior has been observed in many non-myrmecophagous mammals.

B. Many of the largest myrmecophagous mammals do not typically exhibit cub-carrying behavior.
C. Some sloth bears have home ranges that are smaller in size than the average home ranges of
black bears.
D. The locomotion of black bears is significantly more efficient than the locomotion of sloth bears.
E. The habitat of black bears consists of terrain that is significantly more varied than that of the
habitat of sloth bears.

Question #62.

Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a way in which brown bears and sloth bears
are similar?

A. They tend to become aggressive when provoked.

B. They live almost exclusively in treeless environments.
C. They are preyed upon by animals that can climb or topple trees.
D. They are inefficient in their locomotion.
E. They have relatively large canine teeth.

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Essay #19.
Diamonds are almost impossible to detect directly because they
are so rare: very rich kimberlite
Line pipes, the routes through which
(5) diamonds rise, may contain only
three carats of diamonds per ton
of kimberlite. Kimberlite begins as
magma in Earth’s mantle (the layer
between the crust and the core). As
(10) the magma smashes through layers
of rock, it rips out debris, creating
a mix of liquid and solid material.
Some of the solid material it brings
up may come from a so-called
(15) diamond-stability field, where condi-
tions of pressure and temperature
are conducive to the formation of
diamonds. If diamonds are to sur-
vive, though, they must shoot toward
(20) Earth’s surface quickly. Otherwise,
they revert to graphite or burn.
Explorers seeking diamonds look
for specks of “indicator minerals”
peculiar to the mantle but carried up
(25) in greater quantities than diamonds
and eroded out of kimberlite pipes
into the surrounding land. The stan-
dard ones are garnets, chromites,
and ilmenites. One can spend years
(30) searching for indicators and tracing
them back to the pipes that are their
source; however, 90 percent of
kimberlite pipes found this way are
barren of diamonds, and the rest
(35) are usually too sparse to mine.
In the 1970’s the process of
locating profitable pipes was refined
by focusing on the subtle differ-
ences between the chemical
(40) signatures of indicator minerals
found in diamond-rich pipes as
opposed to those found in barren
pipes. For example, G10 garnets,
a type of garnet typically found in
(45) diamond-rich pipes, are lower in
calcium and higher in chrome than
garnets from barren pipes. Geochemists John Gurney showed that

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garnets with this composition were

(50) formed only in the diamond-stability
field; more commonly found ver-
sions came from elsewhere in the
mantle. Gurney also found that
though ilmenites did not form in the
(55) diamond-stability field, there was a
link useful for prospectors: when
the iron in ilmenite was highly
oxidized, its source pipe rarely
contained any diamonds. He rea-
(60) soned that iron took on more or less
oxygen in response to conditions in
the kimberlitic magma itself—mainly
in response to heat and the avail-
able oxygen. When iron became
(65) highly oxidized, so did diamonds;
that is, they vaporized into carbon
dioxide.

Question #63.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. discuss an objection to Gurney’s theories about the uses of indicator minerals

B. explore the formation of diamonds and the reasons for their scarcity
C. analyze the importance of kimberlite pipes in the formation of diamonds
D. define the characteristics of indicator minerals under differing conditions
E. explain a method of determining whether kimberlite pipes are likely to contain diamonds

Question #64.

Each of the following is mentioned in the passage as a difference between G10 garnet and other
versions of garnet EXCEPT

A. level of oxidation
B. commonness of occurrence
C. chemical signature
D. place of formation
E. appearance in conjunction with diamonds

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Question #65.

The passage suggests that the presence of G10 garnet in a kimberlite pipe indicates that

A. the pipe in which the garnet is found has a 90% chance of containing diamonds
B. the levels of calcium and chrome in the pipe are conducive to diamond formation
C. the pipe passed through a diamond-stability field and thus may contain diamonds
D. any diamonds the pipe contains would not have come from the diamond-stability field
E. the pipe’s temperature was so high that it oxidized any diamonds the pipe might have contained

Question #66.

According to the passage, Gurney refined the use of ilmenites in prospecting for diamonds in which
of the following ways?

A. He found that ilmenites are brought up from the mantle by kimberlite pipes and erode out into
the surrounding land in greater quantities than diamonds.
B. He found that since ilmenites do not form in the diamond-stability field, their presence indicates
the absence of diamonds.
C. He showed that highly oxidized iron content in ilmenites indicates a low survival rate for
diamonds.
D. He found that when the iron in ilmenites is highly oxidized, conditions in the magma were
probably conducive to the formation of diamonds.
E. He showed that ilmenites take on more or less oxygen in the kimberlite pipe depending on the
concentration of diamonds.

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Essay #20.
(The following is excerpted from material written
in 1992.) Many researchers regard Thailand’s
recent economic growth, as reflected by its
gross domestic product (GDP) growth rates,
Line as an example of the success of a modern
(5) technological development strategy based
on the market economics of industrialized
countries. Yet by focusing solely on aggre-
gate economic growth data as the measure
of Thailand’s development, these research-
(10) ers have overlooked the economic impact of
rural development projects that improve
people’s daily lives at the village level—
such as the cooperative raising of water
buffalo, improved sanitation, and the devel-
(15) opment of food crops both for consumption
and for sale at local markets; such projects
are not adequately reflected in the country’s
GDP. These researchers, influenced by
Robert Heilbroner’s now outdated develop-
(20) ment theory, tend to view nontechnological
development as an obstacle to progress.
Heilbroner’s theory has become doctrine in
some economics textbooks: for example,
Monte Palmer disparages nontechnological
(25) rural development projects as inhibiting
constructive change. Yet as Ann Kelleher’s
two recent case studies of the Thai villages
Non Muang and Dong Keng illustrate, the
nontechnological-versus-technological
(30) dichotomy can lead researchers not only to
overlook real advances achieved by rural
development projects but also mistakenly to
conclude that because such advances are
initiated by rural leaders and are based on
(35) traditional values and practices, they retard
“real” economic development.

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Question #67.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain the true reasons for the increase in Thailand’s GDP

B. argue for the adoption of certain rural development projects
C. question the value of technological development in Thailand
D. criticize certain assumptions about economic development in Thailand
E. compare traditional and modern development strategies in Thailand

Question #68.

It can be inferred from the passage that the term “real” in line 36 most likely refers to economic
development that is

A. based on a technological development strategy

B. not necessarily favored by most researchers
C. initiated by rural leader
D. a reflection of traditional values and practices
E. difficult to measure statistically

Question #69.

The author of the passage cites the work of Palmer in order to give an example of

A. a recent case study of rural development projects in Thai villages

B. current research that has attempted to reassess Thailand’s economic development
C. an economics textbook that views nontechnological development as an obstacle to progress
D. the prevalence of the view that regards nontechnological development as beneficial but
inefficient
E. a portrayal of nontechnological development projects as promoting constructive change

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Essay #21.
For many years, theoretical
economists characterized humans
as rational beings relentlessly bent
Line on maximizing purely selfish reward.
(5) Results of an experimental economics
study appear to contradict this view,
however. In the “Ultimatum Game,”
two subjects, who cannot exchange
information, are placed in separate
(10) rooms. One is randomly chosen to
propose how a sum of money, known
to both, should be shared between
them; only one offer, which must
be accepted or rejected without
(15) negotiation, is allowed.
If, in fact, people are selfish and
rational, then the proposer should offer
the smallest possible share, while the
responder should accept any offer,
(20) no matter how small: after all, even
one dollar is better than nothing. In
numerous trials, however, two-thirds
of the offers made were between
40 and 50 percent; only 4 percent
(25) were less than 20 percent. Among
responders, more than half who were
offered less than 20 percent rejected
the offer. Behavior in the game did not
appreciably depend on the players’
(30) sex, age, or education. Nor did the
amount of money involved play a
significant role: for instance, in trials
of the game that were conducted in
Indonesia, the sum to be shared was
(35) as much as three times the subjects’
average monthly income, and still
responders refused offers that they
deemed too small.

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Question #70.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. provide evidence in support of the view that human beings are essentially rational and selfish
B. use a particular study to challenge the argument that the economic behavior of human beings
may be motivated by factors other than selfishness
C. compare certain views about human nature held by theoretical economists with those held by
experimental economists
D. describe a study that apparently challenges theoretical economists’ understanding of human
economic behavior
E. suggest that researchers may have failed to take into account the impact of certain noneconomic
factors in designing a study of human economic behavior

Question #71.

The passage implies that the results of the Ultimatum Game undermine theoretical economists’
characterization of human beings by

A. demonstrating that most people are inclined to try to maximize their own advantage whenever
possible
B. indicating that people who do not have the option of negotiating might behave more generously
than do those who have the option of negotiating
C. illustrating how people’s economic behavior depends to some extent on how large a sum of
money is involved
D. showing that most people instinctively place their own economic self-interest ahead of the
interest of strangers
E. suggesting that people’s economic behavior might in part be motivated by factors other than
selfishness

Question #72.

The author refers to the sum of one dollar (line 21) in order to

A. question the notion that the amount of money involved significantly affected players’ behavior
B. provide an example of one of the rare offers made by proposers that was less than 20 percent
C. illustrate the rationality of accepting even a very small offer
D. suggest a reason that responders rejected offers that were less than 20 percent
E. challenge the conclusion that a selfish and rational proposer should offer a responder the
smallest possible share

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Question #73.

All of the following are expressly mentioned in the passage as factors that did not significantly affect
players’ behavior EXCEPT the

A. players’ level of schooling

B. amount of money to be shared
C. ages of the players
D. players’ professions
E. genders of the players

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Essay #22.
Linda Kerber argued in the mid-
1980’s that after the American Revolution
(1775-1783), an ideology of “republican
Line motherhood” resulted in a surge of edu-
(5) cational opportunities for women in the
United States. Kerber maintained that
the leaders of the new nation wanted
women to be educated in order to raise
politically virtuous sons. A virtuous citi-
(10) zenry was considered essential to the
success of the country’s republican form
of government; virtue was to be instilled
not only by churches and schools, but
by families, where the mother’s role
(15) was crucial. Thus, according to Kerber,
motherhood became pivotal to the fate
of the republic, providing justification for
an unprecedented attention to female
education.
(20) Introduction of the republican moth-
erhood thesis dramatically changed
historiography. Prior to Kerber’s work,
educational historians barely mentioned
women and girls; Thomas Woody’s 1929
(25) work is the notable exception. Examining
newspaper advertisements for acade-
mies, Woody found that educational
opportunities increased for both girls
and boys around 1750. Pointing to “An
(30) Essay on Woman” (1753) as reflecting
a shift in view, Woody also claimed that
practical education for females had
many advocates before the Revolution.
Woody’s evidence challenges the notion
(35) that the Revolution changed attitudes
regarding female education, although it
may have accelerated earlier trends.
Historians’ reliance on Kerber’s “repub-
lican motherhood” thesis may have
(40) obscured the presence of these trends,
making it difficult to determine to what
extent the Revolution really changed
women’s lives.

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Question #74.

According to the passage, within the field of educational history, Thomas Woody’s 1929 work was

A. innovative because it relied on newspaper advertisements as evidence

B. exceptional in that it concentrated on the period before the American Revolution
C. unusual in that it focused on educational attitudes rather than on educational practices
D. controversial in its claims regarding educational opportunities for boys
E. atypical in that it examined the education of girls

Question #75.

According to the passage, Kerber argued that political leaders thought that the form of government
adopted by the United States after the American Revolution depended on which of the following for
its success?

A. Women assuming the sole responsibility for instilling political virtue in children
B. Girls becoming the primary focus of a reformed educational system that emphasized political
virtue
C. The family serving as one of the primary means by which children were imbued with political
virtue
D. The family assuming many of the functions previously performed by schools and churches
E. Men an women assuming equal responsibility for the management of schools, churches, and the
family

Question #76.

The passage suggests that, with regard to the history of women’s education in the United States,
Kerber’s work differs from Woody’s primarily concerning which of the following?

A. The extent to which women were interested in pursuing educational opportunities in the
eighteenth century
B. The extent of the support for educational opportunities for girls prior to the American Revolution
C. The extent of public resistance to educational opportunities for women after the American
Revolution
D. Whether attitudes toward women’s educational opportunities changed during the eighteenth
century
E. Whether women needed to be educated in order to contribute to the success of a republican
form of government

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Essay #23.
Earth’s surface consists of rigid
plates that are constantly shifting and
jostling one another. Plate movements
Line are the surface expressions of motions
(5) in the mantle—the thick shell of rock
that lies between Earth’s crust and its
metallic core. Although the hot rock of
the mantle is a solid, under the tre-
mendous pressure of the crust and
(10) overlying rock of the mantle, it flows like
a viscous liquid. The mantle’s motions,
analogous to those in a pot of boiling
water, cool the mantle by carrying hot
material to the surface and returning
(15) cooler material to the depths. When
the edge of one plate bends under
another and its cooler material is con-
sumed in the mantle, volcanic activity
occurs as molten lava rises from the
(20) downgoing plate and erupts through the
overlying one.
Most volcanoes occur at plate
boundaries. However, certain “mis-
placed” volcanoes far from plate
(25) edges result from a second, indepen-
dent mechanism that cools the deep
interior of Earth. Because of its prox-
imity to Earth’s core, the rock at the
base of the mantle is much hotter than
(30) rock in the upper mantle. The hotter the
mantle rock is, the less it resists flow-
ing. Reservoirs of this hot rock collect
in the base of the mantle. When a
reservoir is sufficiently large, a sphere
(35) of this hot rock forces its way up
through the upper mantle to Earth’s
surface, creating a broad bulge in the
topography. The “mantle plume” thus
formed, once established, continues to
(40) channel hot material from the mantle
base until the reservoir is emptied.
The surface mark of an established
plume is a hot spot—an isolated
region of volcanoes and uplifted terrain
(45) located far from the edge of a surface
plate. Because the source of a hot

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spot remains fixed while a surface

plate moves over it, over a long period
of time an active plume creates a chain
(50) of volcanoes or volcanic islands, a
track marking the position of the plume
relative to the moving plate. The natural
history of the Hawaiian island chain
clearly shows the movement of the
Pacific plate over a fixed plume.

Question #77.

The passage is primarily concerned with discussing

A. the composition of Earth’s mantle

B. how the Hawaiian Islands were created
C. what causes Earth’s surface plates to move
D. two different mechanisms by which volcanoes are formed
E. why most volcanoes occur at plate boundaries

Question #78.

It can be inferred from the passage that a chain of volcanoes created by a mantle plume would most
likely be characterized by

A. a curved outline
B. constituent volcanoes that differ from each other in age
C. occurrence near a plate boundary where one plate bends under another
D. appearance near many other volcanic chains
E. rocks with a wide range of chemical composition

Question #79.

The author’s reference to the Hawaiian Islands serves primarily to

A. provide an example of a type of volcanic activity that does not occur elsewhere
B. identify the evidence initially used to establish that the Pacific plate moves
C. call into question a theory about the source of the volcanoes that created the Hawaiian Islands
D. illustrate the distance from plate edges at which volcanoes typically appear
E. provide an example of how mantle plumes manifest themselves on Earth’s surface

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Question #80.

According to the passage, a hot spot on Earth’s surface is an indication of which of the following?

A. An untapped reservoir of hot rock in the base of the mantle

B. Volcanic activity at the edge of a plate
C. Solid mantle rock under tremendous pressure
D. The occurrence of a phenomenon unique to the Pacific plate
E. A plume of hot mantle rock originating near Earth’s core

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Essay #24.
Firms traditionally claim that they
downsize (i.e., make permanent
personnel cuts) for economic reasons,
Line laying off supposedly unnecessary staff
(5) in an attempt to become more efficient
and competitive. Organization theory
would explain this reasoning as an
example of the “economic rationality”
that it assumes underlies all organi-
(10) zational activities. There is evidence
that firms believe they are behaving
rationally whenever they downsize; yet
recent research has shown that the
actual economic effects of downsizing
(15) are often negative for firms. Thus,
organization theory cannot adequately
explain downsizing; non-economic
factors must also be considered.
One such factor is the evolution of
(20) downsizing into a powerful business
myth: managers simply believe that
downsizing is efficacious. Moreover,
downsizing nowadays is greeted
favorably by the business press; the
(25) press often refers to soaring stock
prices of downsizing firms (even though
research shows that stocks usually
rise only briefly after downsizing and
then suffer a prolonged decline).
(30) Once viewed as a sign of desperation,
downsizing is now viewed as a signal
that firms are serious about competing
in the global marketplace; such signals
are received positively by key actors—
(35) financial analysts, consultants,
shareholders—who supply firms with
vital organizing resources. Thus, even
if downsizers do not become economi-
cally more efficient, downsizing’s mythic
(40) properties give them added prestige
in the business community, enhancing
their survival prospects.

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Question #81.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. criticize firms for engaging in the practice of downsizing

B. analyze the negative economic impact of downsizing on firms
C. offer an alternative to a traditional explanation for the occurrence of downsizing
D. chronicle how perceptions of downsizing have changed over time
E. provide evidence disputing the prevalence of downsizing

Question #82.

The passage suggests that downsizing’s mythic properties can be beneficial to a downsizing firm
because these properties

A. allow the firm to achieve significant operating efficiencies

B. provide the firm with access to important organizing resources
C. encourage a long-term increase in the firm’s stock price
D. make the firm less reliant on external figures such as financial analysts and consultants
E. discourage the firm’s competitors from entering the global marketplace

Question #83.

The passage suggests which of the following about the claim that a firm will become more efficient
and competitive by downsizing?

A. Few firms actually believe this claim to be true.

B. Fewer firms have been making this claim in recent years.
C. This claim contradicts the basic assumption of organization theory.
D. This claim is called into question by certain recent research.
E. This claim is often treated with skepticism by the business press.

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Essay #25.
Prior to 1965 geologists assumed
that the two giant rock plates meeting at
the San Andreas Fault generate heat
Line through friction as they grind past each
(5) other, but in 1965 Henyey found that
temperatures in drill holes near the
fault were not as elevated as had
been expected. Some geologists
wondered whether the absence of
(10) friction-generated heat could be
explained by the kinds of rock composing
the fault. Geologists’ pre-1965
assumptions concerning heat generated
in the fault were based on
(15) calculations about common varieties of
rocks, such as limestone and granite;
but “weaker” materials, such as clays,
had already been identified in samples
retrieved from the fault zone. Under
(20) normal conditions, rocks composed of
clay produce far less friction than do
other rock types.
In 1992 Byerlee tested whether
these materials would produce friction
(25) 10 to 15 kilometers below the Earth’s
surface. Byerlee found that when clay
samples were subjected to the thousands
of atmospheres of pressure
they would encounter deep inside the
(30) Earth, they produced as much friction
as was produced by other rock types.
The harder rocks push against each
other, the hotter they become; in other
words, pressure itself, not only the
(35) rocks’ properties, affects frictional
heating. Geologists therefore wondered
whether the friction between the
plates was being reduced by pockets
of pressurized water within the fault that
push the plates away from each other.

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Question #84.

The passage suggests which of the following regarding Henyey’s findings about
temperature in the San Andreas Fault?

A. Scientists have yet to formulate a definitive explanation for Henyey’s findings.

B. Recent research suggests that Henyey’s explanation for the findings should be
modified.
C. Henyey’s findings had to be recalculated in light of Byerlee’s 1992 experiment.
D. Henyey’s findings provided support for an assumption long held by geologists.
E. Scientists have been unable to duplicate Henyey’s findings using more recent
experimental methods.

Question #85.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. evaluating a method used to test a particular scientific hypothesis

B. discussing explanations for an unexpected scientific finding
C. examining the assumptions underlying a particular experiment
D. questioning the validity of a scientific finding
E. presenting evidence to support a recent scientific hypothesis

Question #86.

The passage mostly agree that Heney’s findings about temperature in the San Andreas
Fault made the greatest contribution in that they

A. revealed an error in previous measurements of temperature in the San Andreas

Fault zone
B. indicated the types of clay present in the rocks that form the San Andreas Fault
C. established the superiority of a particular technique for evaluating data concerning
friction in the San Andreas Fault
D. suggested that geologists had inaccurately assumed that giant rock plates that
meet at the San Andreas Fault generate heat through friction
E. confirmed geologists’ assumptions about the amount of friction generated by
common varieties of rocks, such as limestone and granite

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Essay #26.
One proposal for preserving
rain forests is to
promote the adoption of
Line new agricultural technolo-
(5) gies, such as improved
plant varieties and use of
chemical herbicides, which
would increase productivity
and slow deforestation by
(10) reducing demand for new
cropland. Studies have
shown that farmers in
developing countries who have achieved certain levels
(15) of education, wealth, and
security of land tenure are
more likely to adopt such
technologies. But these
studies have focused on
(20) villages with limited land
that are tied to a market
economy rather than on
the relatively isolated, selfsufficient
communities with
(25) ample land characteristic of
rain-forest regions. A recent
study of the Tawahka people
of the Honduran rain forest
found that farmers with some
(30) formal education were more
likely to adopt improved plant
varieties but less likely to
use chemical herbicides
and that those who spoke
(35) Spanish (the language of
the market economy) were
more likely to adopt both
technologies. Nonland
wealth was also associated
(40) with more adoption of both
technologies, but availability
of uncultivated land reduced
the incentive to employ the
productivity-enhancing tech-
(45) nologies. Researchers
also measured land-tenure
security: in Tawahka

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society, kinship ties are a

more important indicator of
(50) this than are legal property
rights, so researchers
measured it by a household’s
duration of residence
in its village. They found
(55) that longer residence correlated
with more adoption
of improved plant varieties
but less adoption of
chemical herbicides.

Question #87.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. evaluate the likelihood that a particular proposal, if implemented, would

ultimately succeed in achieving its intended result
B. question the assumption that certain technological innovations are the most
effective means of realizing a particular environmental objective
C. discuss the progress of efforts to encourage a particular traditional society to
adopt certain modern agricultural methods
D. present the results of new research suggesting that previous findings concerning
one set of conditions may not be generalizable to another set of conditions
E. weigh the relative importance of three factors in determining whether a particular
strategy will be successful

Question #88.

According to the passage, the proposal mentioned in line 1 is aimed at preserving rain
forests by encouraging farmers in rain-forest regions to do each of the following
EXCEPT

A. adopt new agricultural technologies

B. grow improved plant varieties
C. decrease their use of chemical herbicides
D. increase their productivity
E. reduce their need to clear new land for cultivation

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Question #89.

NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question.
The passage suggests that in the study mentioned in line 27 the method for gathering information
about security of land tenure reflects which of the following pairs of assumptions about Tawahka
society?

A. The security of a household’s land tenure depends on the strength of that household’s kinship
ties, and the duration of a household’s residence in its village is an indication of the strength of
that household’s kinship ties.
B. The ample availability of land makes security of land tenure unimportant, and the lack of a need
for secure land tenure has made the concept of legal property rights unnecessary.
C. The strength of a household’s kinship ties is a more reliable indicator of that household’s
receptivity to new agricultural technologies than is its quantity of nonland wealth, and the
duration of a household’s residence in its village is a more reliable indicator of that household’s
security of land tenure than is the strength of its kinship ties.
D. Security of land tenure based on kinship ties tends to make farmers more receptive to the use of
improved plant varieties, and security of land tenure based on long duration of residence in a
village tends to make farmers more receptive to the use of chemical herbicides.
E. A household is more likely to be receptive to the concept of land tenure based on legal property
rights if it has easy access to uncultivated land, and a household is more likely to uphold the
tradition of land tenure based on kinship ties if it possesses a significant degree of nonland
wealth.

Question #90.

The findings of the study mentioned in line 27, if valid for rain-forest regions in general, suggest that
which of the following is an obstacle most likely to be faced by those wishing to promote rain-forest
preservation by implementing the proposal mentioned in line 1?

A. Lack of legal property rights tends to discourage local farmers from investing the time and
resources required to successfully implement new agricultural technologies.
B. The ability to evaluate the wider economic ramifications of adopting new aricultural technologies
depends on a relatively high level of formal education.
C. Isolation from the market economy tends to restrict local farmers’ access to newagricultural
technologies that could help them to increase their productivity.
D. Ready availability of uncultivated land tends to decrease local farmers’ incentive to adopt new
agricultural technologies that would reduce their need to clear new land for cultivation.
E. Traditions of self-sufficiency and reliance on kinship ties tend to diminish local farmers’ receptivity
to new agricultural technologies introduced by people from outside the local community.

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Essay #27.
In Winters v. United States
(1908), the Supreme Court held
that the right to use waters flow-
Line ing through or adjacent to the
(5) Fort Berthold Indian Reservation
was reserved to American Indians
by the treaty establishing the reservation.
Although this treaty did
not mention water rights, the Court
(10) ruled that the federal government,
when it created the reservation,
intended to deal fairly with
American Indians by preserving
for them the waters without which
(15) their lands would have been use24
less. Later decisions, citing
Winters, established that courts
can find federal rights to reserve
water for particular purposes if
(20) (1) the land in question lies within
an enclave under exclusive federal
jurisdiction, (2) the land has been
formally withdrawn from federal
public lands — i.e., withdrawn from
(25) the stock of federal lands available
for private use under federal
land use laws — and set aside or
reserved, and (3) the circumstances
reveal the government
(30) intended to reserve water as well
as land when establishing the
reservation.
Some American Indian tribes
have also established water rights
(35) through the courts based on their
traditional diversion and use of
certain waters prior to the United
States’ acquisition of sovereignty.
For example, the Rio Grande
(40) pueblos already existed when the
United States acquired sovereignty
over New Mexico in 1848. Although
they at that time became part of the
United States, the pueblo lands
(45) never formally constituted a part
of federal public lands; in any

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event, no treaty, statute, or executive

order has ever designated
or withdrawn the pueblos from
(50) public lands as American Indian
reservations. This fact, however,
has not barred application
of the Winters doctrine. What
constitutes an American Indian
(55) reservation is a question of
practice, not of legal definition,
and the pueblos have always
been treated as reservations by
the United States. This pragmatic
(60) approach is buttressed by Arizona
v. California (1963), wherein the
Supreme Court indicated that the
manner in which any type of federal
reservation is created does not
(65) affect the application to it of the
Winters doctrine. Therefore, the
reserved water rights of Pueblo
Indians have priority over other
citizens’ water rights as of 1848,
(70) the year in which pueblos must
be considered to have become
reservations.

Question #91.

The author cites the fact that the Rio Grande pueblos were never formally withdrawn from public
lands primarily in order to do which of the following?

A. Suggest why it might have been argued that the Winters doctrine ought not to apply to pueblo
lands
B. Imply that the United States never really acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands
C. Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be considered part of federal public lands
D. Support the argument that the water rights of citizens other than American Indians are limited by
the Winters doctrine
E. Suggest that federal courts cannot claim jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional diversion
and use of water by Pueblo Indians

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Question #92.

The passage suggests that, if the criteria discussed in lines 16 – 32 were the only criteria for
establishing a reservation’s water rights, which of the following would be true?

A. The water rights of the inhabitants of the Fort Berthold Indian Reservation would not take
precedence over those of other citizens.
B. Reservations established before 1848 would be judged to have no water rights.
C. There would be no legal basis for the water rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
D. Reservations other than American Indian reservations could not be created with reserved water
rights.
E. Treaties establishing reservations would have to mention water rights explicitly in order to reserve
water for a particular purpose.

Question #93.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of the treaty establishing the Fort
Berthold Indian Reservation?

A. It was challenged in the Supreme Court a number of times.

B. It was rescinded by the federal government, an action that gave rise to the Winters case.
C. It cited American Indians’ traditional use of the land’s resources.
D. It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
E. It was modified by the Supreme Court in Arizona v. California.

Question #94.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. trace the development of laws establishing American Indian reservations

B. explain the legal bases for the water rights of American Indian tribes
C. question the legal criteria often used to determine the water rights of American Indian tribes
D. discuss evidence establishing the earliest date at which the federal government recognized the
water rights of American Indians
E. point out a legal distinction between different types of American Indian reservations

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Essay #28.
(This passage was excerpted from material
published in 1993.)
Like many other industries, the
travel industry is under increasing
pressure to expand globally in order
Line to keep pace with its corporate cus-
(5) tomers, who have globalized their
operations in response to market
pressure, competitor actions, and
changing supplier relations. But it is
difficult for service organizations to
(10) globalize. Global expansion through
acquisition is usually expensive, and
expansion through internal growth is
time-consuming and sometimes
impossible in markets that are not
(15) actively growing. Some service industry
companies, in fact, regard these
traditional routes to global expansion
as inappropriate for service industries
because of their special need to pre-
(20) serve local responsiveness through
local presence and expertise. One
travel agency has eschewed the traditional
route altogether. A survivor
of the changes that swept the travel
(25) industry as a result of the deregulation
of the airlines in 1978—changes that
included dramatic growth in the corporate
demand for travel services,
as well as extensive restructuring and
(30) consolidation within the travel industry—
this agency adopted a unique structure
for globalization. Rather than expand
by attempting to develop its own offices
abroad, which would require the devel-
(35) opment of local travel management
expertise sufficient to capture foreign
markets, the company solved its
globalization dilemma effectively by
forging alliances with the best foreign
(40) partners it could find. The resulting
cooperative alliance of independent
agencies now comprises 32 partners
spanning 37 countries.

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Question #95.

The passage suggests that one of the effects of the deregulation of the airlines was

A. a decline in the services available to noncommercial travelers

B. a decrease in the size of the corporate travel market
C. a sharp increase in the number of cooperative alliances among travel agencies
D. increased competition in a number of different service industries
E. the merging of some companies within the travel industry

Question #96.

The author discusses a particular travel agency in the passage most likely in order to

A. provide evidence of the pressures on the travel industry to globalize

B. demonstrate the limitations of the traditional routes to global expansion
C. illustrate an unusual approach to globalizing a service organization
D. highlight the difficulties confronting travel agencies that attempt to globalize
E. underscore the differences between the service industry and other industries

Question #97.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the traditional routes to global
expansion?

A. They have been supplanted in most service industries by alternative routes.

B. They are less attractive to travel agencies since deregulation of the airlines.
C. They may represent the most cost-effective means for a travel agency to globalize.
D. They may be unsuitable for service agencies that are attempting to globalize.
E. They are most likely to succeed in markets that are not actively growing.

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Essay #29.
According to a theory advanced
by researcher Paul Martin, the wave
of species extinctions that occurred
Line in North America about 11,000 years
(5) ago, at the end of the Pleistocene era,
can be directly attributed to the arrival
of humans, i.e., the Paleoindians, who
were ancestors of modern Native
Americans. However, anthropologist
(10) Shepard Krech points out that large
animal species vanished even in areas
where there is no evidence to demon-
strate that Paleoindians hunted them.
Nor were extinctions confined to large
(15) animals: small animals, plants, and
insects disappeared, presumably not
all through human consumption. Krech
also contradicts Martin’s exclusion of
climatic change as an explanation by
(20) asserting that widespread climatic
change did indeed occur at the end of
the Pleistocene. Still, Krech attributes
secondary if not primary responsibility
for the extinctions to the Paleoindians,
(25) arguing that humans have produced
local extinctions elsewhere. But,
according to historian Richard White,
even the attribution of secondary
responsibility may not be supported
(30) by the evidence. White observes that
Martin’s thesis depends on coinciding
dates for the arrival of humans and the
decline of large animal species, and
Krech, though aware that the dates
(35) are controversial, does not challenge
them; yet recent archaeological
discoveries are providing evidence
that the date of human arrival was
much earlier than 11,000 years ago.

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Question #98.

Which of the following is true about Martin’s theory, as that theory is described in the passage?

A. It assumes that the Paleoindians were primarily dependent on hunting for survival.
B. It denies that the Pleistocene species extinctions were caused by climate change.
C. It uses as evidence the fact that humans have produced local extinctions in other situations.
D. It attempts to address the controversy over the date of human arrival in North America.
E. It admits the possibility that factors other than the arrival of humans played a role in the
Pleistocene extinctions.

Question #99.

In the last sentence of the passage, the author refers to “recent archaeological discoveries” (lines 36-
37) most probably in order to

A. refute White’s suggestion that neither Maritn nor Krech adequately account for Paleoindians’
contributions to the Pleistocene extinctions
B. cast doubt on the possibility that a more definitive theory regarding the causes of the Pleistocene
extinctions may be forthcoming
C. suggest that Martin’s, Krech’s, and White’s theories regarding the Pleistocene extinctions are all
open to question
D. call attention to the most controversial aspect of all the current theories regarding the
Pleistocene extinctions
E. provide support for White’s questioning of both Martin’s and Krech’s positions regarding the role
of Paleoindians in the Pleistocene extinctions

Question #100.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Krech’s objections to Martin’s theory?

A. Further studies showing that the climatic change that occurred at the end of the Pleistocene era
was even more severe and widespread than was previously believed
B. New discoveries indicating that Paleoindians made use of the small animals, plants, and insects
that became extinct
C. Additional evidence indicating that widespread climatic change occurred not only at the end of
the Pleistocene era but also in previous and subsequent eras
D. Researchers’ discoveries that many more species became extinct in North America at the end of
the Pleistocene era than was previously believed
E. New discoveries establishing that both the arrival of humans in North America and the wave of
Pleistocene extinctions took place much earlier than 11,000 years ago

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Essay #30.
Behavior science courses should
be gaining prominence in business
school curricula. Recent theoretical
Line work convincingly shows why behav-
(5) ioral factors such as organizational
culture and employee relations are
among the few remaining sources of
sustainable competitive advantage in
modern organizations. Furthermore,
(10) empirical evidence demonstrates
clear linkages between human
resource (HR) practices based in
the behavioral sciences and various
aspects of a firm’s financial success.
(15) Additionally, some of the world’s most
successful organizations have made
unique HR practices a core element
of their overall business strategies.
Yet the behavior sciences
(20) are struggling for credibility in many
business schools. Surveys show
that business students often regard
behavioral studies as peripheral to
the mainstream business curriculum.
(25) This perception can be explained by
the fact that business students, hoping
to increase their attractiveness to
prospective employers, are highly
sensitive to business norms and
(30) practices, and current business
practices have generally been
moving away from an emphasis on
understanding human behavior and
toward more mechanistic organiza-
(35) tional models. Furthermore, the
status of HR professionals within
organizations tends to be lower
than that of other executives.
Students’ perceptions would
(40) matter less if business schools
were not increasingly dependent on
external funding—form legislatures,
businesses, and private foundations—
for survival. Concerned with their
(45) institutions’ ability to attract funding,
administrators are increasingly tar-
geting low-enrollment courses and
degree programs for elimination.

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Question #101.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. propose a particular change to business school curricula

B. characterize students’ perceptions of business school curricula
C. predict the consequences of a particular change in business school curricula
D. challenge one explanation for the failure to adopt a particular change in business school curricula
E. identify factors that have affected the prestige of a particular field in business school curricula

Question #102.

The author of the passage mentions “empirical evidence” (line 10) primarily in order to

A. question the value of certain commonly used HR practices

B. illustrate a point about the methodology behind recent theoretical work in the behavioral
sciences
C. support a claim about the importance that business schools should place on courses in the
behavioral sciences
D. draw a distinction between two different factors that affect the financial success of a business
E. explain how the behavioral sciences have shaped HR practices in some business organizations

Question #103.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about HR professionals in business
organizations?

A. They are generally skeptical about the value of mechanistic organizational models.
B. Their work increasingly relies on an understanding of human behavior.
C. Their work generally has little effect on the financial performance of those organizations.
D. Their status relative to other business executives affects the attitude of business school students
toward the behavioral sciences.
E. Their practices are unaffected by the relative prominence of the behavioral sciences within
business schools.

Question #104.

The author of the passage considers each of the following to be a factor that has contributed to the
prevailing attitude in business schools toward the behavioral sciences EXCEPT

A. business students’ sensitivity to current business norms and practices

B. the relative status of HR professionals among business executives
C. business schools’ reliance on legislatures, businesses, and private foundations for funding
D. businesses’ tendency to value mechanistic organizational models over an understanding of
human behavior
E. theoretical work on the relationship between behavioral factors and a firm’s financial
performance

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Essay #31.

Most pre-1990 literature on busi-

nesses’ use of information technology
(IT)—defined as any form of computer-
Line based information system—focused on
(5) spectacular IT successes and reflected
a general optimism concerning IT’s poten-
tial as a resource for creating competitive
advantage. But toward the end of the
1980’s, some economists spoke of a
(10) “productivity paradox”: despite huge IT
investments, most notably in the service
sectors, productivity stagnated. In the
retail industry, for example, in which IT
had been widely adopted during the
(15) 1980’s, productivity (average output per
hour) rose at an average annual rate of
1.1 percent between 1973 and 1989, com-
pared with 2.4 percent in the preceding
25-year period. Proponents of IT argued
(20) that it takes both time and a critical mass
of investment for IT to yield benefits, and
some suggested that growth figures for
the 1990’s proved these benefits were
finally being realized. They also argued
(25) that measures of productivity ignore what
would have happened without investments
in IT—productivity gains might have been
even lower. There were even claims that
IT had improved the performance of the
(30) service sector significantly, although mac-
roeconomic measures of productivity did
not reflect the improvement.
But some observers questioned why,
if IT had conferred economic value, it did
(35) not produce direct competitive advantages
for individual firms. Resource-based
theory offers an answer, asserting that,
in general, firms gain competitive advan-
tages by accumulating resources that are
(40) economically valuable, relatively scarce,
and not easily replicated. According to
a recent study of retail firms, which con-
firmed that IT has become pervasive and relatively easy to acquire, IT by
(45) itself appeared to have conferred little
advantage. In fact, though little evidence
of any direct effect was found, the fre-

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quent negative correlations between IT

and performance suggested that IT had
(50) probably weakened some firms’ compet-
itive positions. However, firms’ human
resources, in and of themselves, did
explain improved performance, and
some firms gained IT-related advan-
(55) tages by merging IT with complementary
resources, particularly human resources.
The findings support the notion, founded
in resource-based theory, that competi-
tive advantages do not arise from easily
(60) replicated resources, no matter how
impressive or economically valuable
they may be, but from complex, intan-
gible resources.

Question #105.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. describing a resource and indicating various methods used to study it

B. presenting a theory and offering an opposing point of view
C. providing an explanation for unexpected findings
D. demonstrating why a particular theory is unfounded
E. resolving a disagreement regarding the uses of a technology

Question #106.

The passage suggests that proponents of resource-based theory would be likely to explain IT’s
inability to produce direct competitive advantages for individual firms by pointing out that

A. IT is not a resource that is difficult to obtain

B. IT is not an economically valuable resource
C. IT is a complex, intangible resource
D. economic progress has resulted from IT only in the service sector
E. changes brought about by IT cannot be detected by macroeconomic measures

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Question #107.

The author of the passage discusses productivity in the retail industry in the first paragraph primarily
in order to

A. suggest a way in which IT can be used to create a competitive advantage

B. provide an illustration of the “productivity paradox”
C. emphasize the practical value of the introduction of IT
D. cite an industry in which productivity did not stagnate during the 1980’s
E. counter the argument that IT could potentially create competitive advantage

Question #108.

According to the passage, most pre-1990 literature on businesses’ use of IT included which of the
following?

A. Recommendations regarding effective ways to use IT to gain competitive advantage

B. Explanations of the advantages and disadvantages of adopting IT
C. Information about ways in which IT combined with human resources could be used to increase
competitive advantage
D. A warning regarding the negative effect on competitive advantage that would occur if IT were not
adopted
E. A belief in the likelihood of increased competitive advantage for firms using IT

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Essay #32.
Recent feminist scholarship con
- cerning the United States in the 1920’s challenges earlier interpretations that
Line assessed the twenties in terms of the
(5) unkept “promises” of the women’s
suffrage movement. This new scholar-
ship disputes the long-held view that
because a women’s voting bloc did not
materialize after women gained the right
(10) to vote in 1920, suffrage failed to
produce long-term political gains for
women. These feminist scholars also
challenge the old view that pronounced
suffrage a failure for not delivering on
(15) the promise that the women’s vote
would bring about moral, corruption-
free governance. Asked whether
women’s suffrage was a failure, these
scholars cite the words of turn-of-the-
(20) century social reformer Jane Addams,
“Why don’t you ask if suffrage in
general is failing?”
In some ways, however, these
scholars still present the 1920’s as a
(25) period of decline. After suffrage, they
argue, the feminist movement lost its
cohesiveness, and gender conscious-
ness waned. After the mid-1920’s, few
successes could be claimed by fem-
(30) inist reformers: little could be seen in
the way of legislative victories.
During this decade, however, there
was intense activism aimed at achiev-
ing increased autonomy for women,
(35) broadening the spheres within which
they lived their daily lives. Women’s organizations worked to establish
opportunities for women: they strove to
secure for women the full entitlements
(40) of citizenship, including the right to hold
office and the right to serve on juries.

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Question #109.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. providing evidence indicating that feminist reformers of the 1920’s failed to reach some of their
goals
B. presenting scholarship that contrasts suffragist “promises” with the historical realities of the
1920’s
C. discussing recent scholarship concerning the achievements of women’s suffrage during the 1920’s
and presenting an alternative view of those achievements
D. outlining recent findings concerning events leading to suffrage for women in the 1920’s and
presenting a challenge to those findings
E. providing support for a traditional view of the success of feminist attempts to increase gender
consciousness among women during the 1920’s

Question #110.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage disagrees with the “new scholarship” mentioned in
lines 6-7 regarding the

A. degree to which the “promises” of the suffrage movement remained unkept

B. degree to which suffrage for women improved the morality of governance
C. degree to which the 1920’s represented a period of decline for the feminist movement
D. degree of legislative success achieved by feminist reformers during the 1920’s
E. accuracy of the view that a women’s voting bloc did not materialize once suffrage was achieved

Question #111.

The purpose of the second paragraph (lines 23-31) of the passage is to

A. suggest a reason why suffragist “promises” were not kept

B. contrast suffragist “promises” with the reality of the 1920’s
C. deplore the lack of successful feminist reform in 1920’s
D. explain a view held by feminist scholars
E. answer the question asked by Jane Addams

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Essay #33.
The term “episodic memory” was 13
introduced by Tulving to refer to what he
considered a uniquely human capacity—
Line the ability to recollect specific past events,
(5) to travel back into the past in one’s own
mind—as distinct from the capacity simply
to use information acquired through past
experiences. Subsequently, Clayton et al.
developed criteria to test for episodic
(10) memory in animals. According to these
criteria, episodic memories are not of
individual bits of information; they involve
multiple components of a single event
“bound” together. Clayton sought to
(15) examine evidence of scrub jays’ accurate
memory of “what,” “where,” and “when”
information and their binding of this infor-
mation. In the wild, these birds store food
for retrieval later during periods of food
(20) scarcity. Clayton’s experiment required
jays to remember the type, location, and
freshness of stored food based on a unique
learning event. Crickets were stored in one
location and peanuts in another. Jays
(25) prefer crickets, but crickets degrade
more quickly. Clayton’s birds switched
their preference from crickets to peanuts
once the food had been stored for a certain
length of time, showing that they retain
(30) information about the what, the where,
and the when. Such experiments cannot,
however, reveal whether the birds were
reexperiencing the past when retrieving the
information. Clayton acknowledged this by
using the term “episodic-like” memory.

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Question #112.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain how the findings of a particular experiment have been interpreted and offer an alternative
interpretation
B. describe a particular experiment and point out one of its limitations
C. present similarities between human memory and animal memory
D. point out a flaw in the argument that a certain capacity is uniquely human
E. account for the unexpected behavior of animal subjects in a particular experiment

Question #113.

According to the passage, Clayton’s experiment depended on the fact that scrub jays

A. recall “when” and “where” information more distinctly than “what” information
B. are not able to retain information about a single past event for an indefinitely long period of time
C. choose peanuts over crickets when the crickets have been stored for a long period of time
D. choose crickets over peanuts whenever both are available
E. prefer peanuts that have been stored for a short period to crickets that have been stored for a
short period

Question #114.

The passage suggests that Clayton’s experiment demonstrated scrub jays’ ability to

A. choose different storage places for different kinds of food to minimize the rate at which a food
will degrade
B. unlearn a behavior they use in the wild in order to adapt to laboratory conditions
C. bind together information about different aspects of a single past event
D. reexperience a past event in memory and act accordingly
E. distinguish one learning event from a subsequent learning event

Question #115.

It can be inferred from the passage that both Tulving and Clayton would agree with which of the
following statements?

A. Animals’ abilities to use information about a specific past event are not conclusive evidence of
episodic memory.
B. Animals do not share humans’ abilities to reexperience the past through memory.
C. The accuracy of animals’ memories is difficult to determine through direct experimentation.
D. Humans tend to recollect single bits of information more accurately than do animals.
E. The binding of different kinds of information is not a distinctive feature of episodic memory.

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Essay #34.
Acting on the recommen-
dation of a British government
committee investigating the
Line high incidence in white lead
(5) factories of illness among
employees, most of whom
were women, the Home Sec-
retary proposed in 1895 that
Parliament enact legislation
(10) that would prohibit women from
holding most jobs in white lead
factories. Although the
Women’s Industrial Defence
Committee (WIDC), formed
(15) in 1892 in response to earlier
legislative attempts to restrict
women’s labor, did not dis-
count the white lead trade’s
potential health dangers, it
(20) opposed the proposal, view-
ing it as yet another instance
of limiting women’s work
opportunities. Also opposing
the proposal was the Society
(25) for Promoting the Employment
of Women (SPEW), which
attempted to challenge it by
investigating the causes of ill-
ness in white lead factories.
(30) SPEW contended, and WIDC
concurred, that controllable
conditions in such factories
were responsible for the devel-
opment of lead poisoning.
(35) SPEW provided convincing
evidence that lead poisoning
could be avoided if workers
were careful and clean and
if already extant workplace
(40) safety regulations were
stringently enforced. How-
ever, the Women’s Trade
Union League (WTUL), which
had ceased in the late 1880’s
(45) to oppose restrictions on
women’s labor, supported the

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eventually enacted proposal,

in part because safety regu-
lations were generally not
(50) being enforced in white lead
factories, where there were no
unions (and little prospect of
any) to pressure employers to
comply with safety regulations.

Question #116.

Which of the following, if true, would most clearly support the contention attributed to SPEW in
lines 30-34 (“SPEW contended … lead poisoning”) ?

A. Those white lead factories that most strongly enforced regulations concerning worker safety and
hygiene had the lowest incidences of lead poisoning among employees.
B. The incidence of lead poisoning was much higher among women who worked in white lead
factories than among women who worked in other types of factories.
C. There were many household sources of lead that could have contributed to the incidence of lead
poisoning among women who also worked outside the home in the late nineteenth century.
D. White lead factories were more stringent than were certain other types of factories in their
enforcement of workplace safety regulations.
E. Even brief exposure to the conditions typically found in white lead factories could cause lead
poisoning among factory workers.

Question #117.

According to the passage, the WIDC believed that the proposed legislation resembled earlier
legislation concerning women’s labor in that it

A. caused divisiveness among women’s organizations

B. sought to protect women’s health
C. limited women’s occupational opportunities
D. failed to bolster workplace safety regulations
E. failed to make distinctions among types of factory work

Question #118.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. presenting various groups’ views of the motives of those proposing certain legislation
B. contrasting the reasoning of various groups concerning their positions on certain proposed
legislation
C. tracing the process whereby certain proposed legislation was eventually enacted
D. assessing the success of tactics adopted by various groups with respect to certain proposed
legislation
E. evaluating the arguments of various groups concerning certain proposed legislation

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Essay #35.
Years before the advent of plate
tectonics―the widely accepted theory,
developed in the mid-1960’s, the holds
Line that the major features of Earth’s surface
(5) are created by the horizontal motions
of Earth’s outer shell, or lithosphere―
a similar theory was rejected by the
geological community. In 1912, Alfred
Wegener proposed, in a widely debated
(10) theory that came to be called continental
drift, that Earth’s continents were mobile.
To most geologists today, Wegener’s
The origin of Continents and Oceans
appears an impressive and prescient
(15) document, containing several of the
essential presumptions underlying plate
tectonics theory: the horizontal mobility
of pieces of Earth’s crust; the essential
difference between oceanic and conti-
(20) nental crust; and a causal connection
between horizontal displacements and
the formation of mountain chains. Yet
despite the considerable overlap
between Wegener’s concepts and the
(25) later widely embraced plate tectonics
theory, and despite the fact that conti-
nental drift theory presented a possible
solution to the problem of the origin of
mountains at a time when existing expla-
(30) nations were seriously in doubt, in its
day Wegener’s theory was rejected
by the vast majority of geologists.
Most geologists and many historians
today believe that Wegener’s theory
(35) was rejected because of its lack of an
adequate mechanical basis. Stephen
Jay Gould, for example, argues that
continental drift theory was rejected
because it did not explain how continents
(40) could move through an apparently solid
oceanic floor. However, as Anthony
Hallam has pointed out, many scientific
phenomena, such as the ice ages, have
been accepted before they could be fully
(45) explained. The most likely cause for the
rejection of continental drift―a cause
that has been largely ignored because

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we consider Wegener’s theory to have

been validated by the theory of plate
(50) tectonics―is the nature of the evidence
that was put forward to support it. Most
of Wegener’s evidence consisted of
homologies—similarities of patterns and
forms based on direct observations of
(55) rocks in the field, supported by the use
of hammers, hand lenses, and field note-
books. In contrast, the data supporting
plate tectonics were impressively
geophysical—instrumental determinations
(60) of the physical properties of Earth gar-
nered through the use of seismographs,
magnetometers, and computers.

Question #119.

The author cites Hallam (line 42) on the ice ages primarily in order to
A. provide an example of a geologic phenomenon whose precise causes are not fully understood by
geologists today
B. criticize the geological community for an apparent lack of consistency in its responses to new
theories
C. offer evidence held to undermine a common view of why Wegener’s theory was not accepted in
its day
D. give an example of a modern scientist who believes that Wegener’s theory was rejected because
it failed to adequately explain the mechanical basis of continental drift
E. support Gould’s rationale for why Wegener’s theory was rejected by most geologists in the early
twentieth century

Question #120.

The author of the passage refers to the “considerable overlap” (line 23) between continental drift
theory and plate tectonics theory most probably in order to

A. suggest that plate tectonics theory is derived from Wegener’s work

B. introduce a discussion comparing the elements of the two theories
C. examine the question of whether continental drift theory was innovative in its time
D. provide a reason why it might seem surprising that continental drift theory was not more widely
embraced by geologists
E. cite an explanation that has been frequently offered for Wegener’s high standing among
geologists today

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Question #121.

The author of the passage suggests that the most likely explanation for the geological community’s
response to continental drift theory in its day was that the theory

A. was in conflict with certain aspects of plate tectonics theory

B. failed to account for how mountains were formed
C. did not adequately explain how continents moved through the ocean floor
D. was contradicted by the geophysical data of the time
E. was based on a kind of evidence that was considered insufficiently convincing

Question #122.

It can be inferred from the passage that geologists today would be most likely to agree with which of
the following statements about Wegener’s The Origin of Continents and Oceans?

A. It was a worthy scientific effort that was ahead of its time.

B. It was based on evidence that was later disproved.
C. It was directly responsible for the acceptance of the theory of plate tectonics.
D. It has been disproved by continental drift theory.
E. It misrepresented how horizontal displacements cause the formation of mountain chains.

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Essay #36.
Many economists believe that a 28
high rate of business savings in the
United States is a necessary precursor
Line to investment, because business sav-
(5) ings, as opposed to personal savings,
comprise almost three-quarters of the
national savings rate, and the national
savings rate heavily influences the
overall rate of business investment.
(10) These economists further postulate
that real interest rates—the difference
between the rates charged by lenders
and the inflation rates—will be low when
national savings exceed business
(15) investment (creating a savings surplus),
and high when national savings fall
below the level of business investment
(creating a savings deficit ). However,
during the 1960’s real interest rates
(20) were often higher when the national
savings surplus was large. Counter-
intuitive behavior also occurred when
real interest rates skyrocketed from
2 percent in 1980 to 7 percent in 1982,
(25) even though national savings and
investments were roughly equal
throughout the period. Clearly, real
interest rates respond to influences
other than the savings/investment
(30) nexus. Indeed, real interest rates may
themselves influence swings in the
savings and investment rates. As real
interest rates shot up after 1979, for-
eign investors poured capital into the
(35) United States, the price of domestic
goods increased prohibitively abroad,
and the price of foreign-made goods
became lower in the United States. As
a result, domestic economic activity
(40) and the ability of businesses to save
and invest were restrained.

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Question #123.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. contrasting trends in two historical periods

B. presenting evidence that calls into question certain beliefs
C. explaining the reasons for a common phenomenon
D. criticizing evidence offered in support of a well-respected belief
E. comparing conflicting interpretations of a theory

Question #124.

According to the passage, which of the following resulted from foreign investment in the United
States after 1979?

A. An increase in real interest rates

B. A decrease in the savings rate of certain other nations
C. An increase in American investment abroad
D. An increase in the price of American goods abroad
E. A decrease in the price of domestic goods sold at home

Question #125.

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
regarding the economists mentioned in line 1?

A. Their beliefs are contradicted by certain economic phenomena that occurred in the United States
during the 1960’s and the 1980’s.
B. Their theory fails to predict under what circumstances the prices of foreign and domestic goods
are likely to increase.
C. They incorrectly identify the factors other than savings and investment rates that affect real
interest rates.
D. Their belief is valid only for the United States economy and not necessarily for other national
economies.
E. They overestimate the impact of the real interest rate on the national savings and investment
rates.

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Essay #37.
Firms traditionally claim that they
downsize (i.e., make permanent
personnel cuts) for economic reasons,
Line laying off supposedly unnecessary staff
(5) in an attempt to become more efficient
and competitive. Organization theory
would explain this reasoning as an
example of the “economic rationality”
that it assumes underlies all organi-
(10) zational activities. There is evidence
that firms believe they are behaving
rationally whenever they downsize; yet
recent research has shown that the
actual economic effects of downsizing
(15) are often negative for firms. Thus,
organization theory cannot adequately
explain downsizing; non-economic
factors must also be considered.
One such factor is the evolution of
(20) downsizing into a powerful business
myth: managers simply believe that
downsizing is efficacious. Moreover,
downsizing nowadays is greeted
favorably by the business press; the
(25) press often refers to soaring stock
prices of downsizing firms (even though
research shows that stocks usually
rise only briefly after downsizing and
then suffer a prolonged decline).
(30) Once viewed as a sign of desperation,
downsizing is now viewed as a signal
that firms are serious about competing
in the global marketplace; such signals
are received positively by key actors—
(35) financial analysts, consultants,
shareholders—who supply firms with
vital organizing resources. Thus, even
if downsizers do not become economi-
cally more efficient, downsizing’s mythic
(40) properties give them added prestige
in the business community, enhancing
their survival prospects.

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Question #126.

According to the passage, the “key actors” (line 34) view a firm’s downsizing activities as an
indication of the firm’s

A. troubled financial condition

B. inability to develop effective long-term strategies
C. inability to retain vital organizational resources
D. desire to boost its stock price
E. desire to become more competitive

Question #127.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. criticize firms for engaging in the practice of downsizing

B. analyze the negative economic impact of downsizing on firms
C. offer an alternative to a traditional explanation for the occurrence of downsizing
D. chronicle how perceptions of downsizing have changed over time
E. provide evidence disputing the prevalence of downsizing

Question #128.

The passage suggests which of the following about the claim that a firm will become more efficient
and competitive by downsizing?

A. Few firms actually believe this claim to be true.

B. Fewer firms have been making this claim in recent years.
C. This claim contradicts the basic assumption of organization theory.
D. This claim is called into question by certain recent research.
E. This claim is often treated with skepticism by the business press.

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Essay #38.
In 1675, Louis XIV
established the Parisian
seamstresses’ guild, the first
Line independent all-female guild
(5) created in over 200 years.
Guild members could make
and sell women’s and chil-
dren’s clothing, but were
prohibited from producing
(10) men’s clothing or dresses
for court women. Tailors
resented the ascension of
seamstresses to guild status;
seamstresses, meanwhile,
(15) were impatient with the
remaining restrictions on
their right to clothe women.
The conflict between
the guilds was not purely
(20) economic, however. A 1675
police report indicated that
since so many seamstresses
were already working illegally, the tailors were unlikely to
(25) suffer additional economic
damage because of the
seamstresses’ incorporation.
Moreover, guild membership
held very different meanings
(30) for tailors and seamstresses.
To the tailors, their status as
guild members overlapped
with their role as heads of
household, and entitled them
(35) to employ as seamstresses
female family members who
did not marry outside the trade.
The seamstresses, however,
viewed guild membership as
(40) a mark of independence from
the patriarchal family. Their
guild was composed not of
family units but of individual
women who enjoyed unusual
(45) legal and economic privileges.
At the conflict’s center was
the issue of whether tailors’ female relatives

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should be identified as family members

(50) protected by the tailors’ guild
or as individuals under the
jurisdiction of the seam-
stresses’ guild.

Question #129.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. outline a scholarly debate over the impact of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild
B. summarize sources of conflict between the newly created Parisian seamstresses’ guild and the
tailors’ guild
C. describe opposing views concerning the origins of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild
D. explore the underlying reasons for establishing an exclusively female guild in seventeenth-century
Paris
E. correct a misconception about changes in seamstresses’ economic status that took place in Paris
in the late seventeenth century

Question #130.

According to the passage, one source of dissatisfaction for Parisian seamstresses after the
establishment of the seamstresses’ guild was that

A. seamstresses were not allowed to make and sell clothing for all women
B. tailors continued to have the exclusive legal right to clothe men
C. seamstresses who were relatives of tailors were prevented from becoming members of the
seamstresses’ guild
D. rivalry between individual seamstresses increased, thus hindering their ability to compete with
the tailors for business
E. seamstresses were not allowed to accept male tailors as members of the guild

Question #131.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following was true of seamstresses employed
by relatives who were members of the tailors’ guild?

A. They were instrumental in convincing Louis XIV to establish the seamstresses’ guild.
B. They were rarely allowed to assist master tailors in the production of men’s clothing.
C. They were considered by some tailors to be a threat to the tailors’ monopoly.
D. They did not enjoy the same economic and legal privileges that members of the seamstresses’
guild enjoyed.
E. They felt their status as working women gave them a certain degree of independence from the
patriarchal family.

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Question #132.

The author mentions the seamstresses’ view of guild membership as a “mark of independence from
the patriarchal family” (lines 40-41) primarily in order to

A. emphasize that the establishment of the seamstresses’ guild had implications that were not solely
economic
B. illustrate the conflict that existed between tailors and their female family members over
membership in the tailors’ guild
C. imply that the establishment of the seamstresses’ guild ushered in a period of increased economic
and social freedom for women in France
D. provide an explanation for the dramatic increase in the number of women working as
seamstresses after 1675
E. indicate that members of the seamstresses’ guild were financially more successful than were
tailors’ female relatives protected by the tailors’ guild

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Essay #39.
Anthropologists studying the
Hopi people of the southwestern
United States often characterize
Line Hopi society between 1680 and
(5) 1880 as surprisingly stable, con-
sidering that it was a period of diminution in population and
pressure from contact with out-
side groups, factors that might
(10) be expected to cause signifi-
cant changes in Hopi social
arrangements.
The Hopis’ retention of their
distinctive sociocultural system
(15) has been attributed to the Hopi
religious elite’s determined
efforts to preserve their religion
and way of life, and also to a
geographical isolation greater
(20) than that of many other Native
American groups, an isolation
that limited both cultural contact
and exposure to European
diseases. But equally important
(25) to Hopi cultural persistence may
have been an inherent flexibility
in their social system that may
have allowed preservation of
traditions even as the Hopis
(30) accommodated themselves
to change. For example, the
system of matrilineal clans was
maintained throughout this per-
iod, even though some clans
(35) merged to form larger groups
while others divided into smaller
descent groups. Furthermore,
although traditionally members
of particular Hopi clans appear
(40) to have exclusively controlled
particular ceremonies, a clan’s
control of a ceremony might
shift to another clan if the first
became too small to manage
(45) the responsibility. Village
leadership positions tradition-
ally restricted to members of

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one clan might be similarly

extended to members of other
(50) clans, and women might assume
such positions under certain
unusual conditions.

Question #133.

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about the explanation outlined in lines 13-24?

A. It fails to take into account the effect of geographical circumstances on Hopi culture.
B. It correctly emphasizes the role of the religious elite in maintaining the system of matrilineal clans.
C. It represents a misreading of Hopi culture because it fails to take into account the actual
differences that existed among the various Hopi clans.
D. It underestimates the effect on Hopi cultural development of contact with other cultural groups.
E. It is correct but may be insufficient in itself to explain Hopi sociocultural persistence.

Question #134.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Hopis’ geographic situation
between 1680 and 1880?

A. It prevented the Hopis from experiencing a diminution in population.

B. It helped to promote flexibility within their social system.
C. It limited but did not eliminate contact with other cultural groups.
D. It reinforced the religious elite’s determination to resist cultural change.
E. It tended to limit contact between certain Hopi clans.

Question #135.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. reassessing a phenomenon in light of new findings

B. assessing the relative importance of two factors underlying a phenomenon
C. examining the assumptions underlying an interpretation of a phenomenon
D. expanding on an explanation of a phenomenon
E. contrasting two methods for evaluating a phenomenon

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Essay #40.
A small number of the forest
species of lepidoptera (moths and
butterflies, which exist as caterpillars
Line during most of their life cycle) exhibit
(5) regularly recurring patterns of popu-
lation growth and decline—such
fluctuations in population are known
as population cycles. Although many
different variables influence popula-
(10) tion levels, a regular pattern such as
a population cycle seems to imply a
dominant, driving force. Identification
of that driving force, however, has
proved surprisingly elusive despite
(15) considerable research. The com-
mon approach of studying causes of
population cycles by measuring the
mortality caused by different agents,
such as predatory birds or parasites,
(20) has been unproductive in the case of
lepidoptera. Moreover, population
ecologists’ attempts to alter cycles
by changing the caterpillars’ habitat
and by reducing caterpillar popula-
(25) tions have not succeeded. In short,
the evidence implies that these insect
populations, if not self-regulating, may
at least be regulated by an agent more
intimately connected with the insect than
(30) are predatory birds or parasites.
Recent work suggests that this
agent may be a virus. For many
years, viral disease had been
reported in declining populations
(35) of caterpillars, but population ecolo-
gists had usually considered viral
disease to have contributed to the
decline once it was underway rather
than to have initiated it. The recent
(40) work has been made possible by
new techniques of molecular biology
that allow viral DNA to be detected
at low concentrations in the environ-
ment. Nuclear polyhedrosis viruses
(45) are hypothesized to be the driving
force behind population cycles in

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lepidoptera in part because the

viruses themselves follow an infec-
tious cycle in which, if protected from
(50) direct sun light, they may remain
virulent for many years in the envi-
ronment, embedded in durable
crystals of polyhedrin protein.
Once ingested by a caterpillar,
(55) the crystals dissolve, releasing
the virus to infect the insect’s cells.
Late in the course of the infection,
millions of new virus particles are
formed and enclosed in polyhedrin
(60) crystals. These crystals reenter the
environment after the insect dies and
decomposes, thus becoming avail-
able to infect other caterpillars.
One of the attractions of this
(65) hypothesis is its broad applicability.
Remarkably, despite significant differ-
ences in habitat and behavior, many
species of lepidoptera have population
cycles of similar length, between eight
(70) and eleven years. Nuclear polyhe-
drosis viral infection is one factor these
disparate species share.

Question #136.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s conclusion in lines 25-30?

A. New research reveals that the number of species of birds and parasites that prey on lepidoptera
has dropped significantly in recent years.
B. New experiments in which the habitats of lepidoptera are altered in previously untried ways
result in the shortening of lepidoptera population cycles.
C. Recent experiments have revealed that the nuclear polyhedrosis virus is present in a number of
predators and parasites of lepidoptera.
D. Differences among the habitats of lepidoptera species make it difficult to assess the effects of
weather on lepidoptera population cycles.
E. Viral disease is typically observed in a large proportion of the lepidoptera population.

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Question #137.

It can be inferred from the passage that the mortality caused by agents such as predatory birds or
parasites was measured in an attempt to

A. develop an explanation for the existence of lepidoptera population cycles

B. identify behavioral factors in lepidoptera that affect survival rates
C. identify possible methods for controlling lepidoptera population growth
D. provide evidence that lepidoptera populations are self-regulating
E. determine the life stages of lepidoptera at which mortality rates are highest

Question #138.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe the development of new techniques that may help to determine the driving force behind
population cycles in lepidoptera
B. present evidence that refutes a particular theory about the driving force behind population cycles
in lepidoptera
C. present a hypothesis about the driving force behind population cycles in lepidoptera
D. describe the fluctuating patterns of population cycles in lepidoptera
E. question the idea that a single driving force is behind population cycles in lepidoptera

Question #139.

According to the passage, before the discovery of new techniques for detecting viral DNA,
population ecologists believed that viral diseases

A. were not widely prevalent among insect populations generally

B. affected only the caterpillar life stage of lepidoptera
C. were the driving force behind lepidoptera population cycles
D. attacked already declining caterpillar populations
E. infected birds and parasites that prey on various species of lepidoptera

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Essay #41.
In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries,
many Western Pueblo settlements in what is now the southwestern United
Line States may have possessed distinctly
(5) hierarchical organizational structures.
These communities’ agricultural
systems—which were “intensive” in
the use of labor rather than “extensive”
in area—may have given rise to polit-
(10) ical leadership that managed both
labor and food resources. That formal
management of food resources
was needed is suggested by the
large size of storage spaces located
(15) around some communal Great Kivas
(underground ceremonial chambers).
Though no direct evidence exists that
such spaces were used to store food,
Western Pueblo communities lacking
(20) sufficient arable land to support their
populations could have preserved
the necessary extra food, including
imported foodstuffs, in such apparently
communal spaces.
(25) Moreover, evidence of specialization
in producing raw materials and
in manufacturing ceramics and textiles
indicates differentiation of labor within
and between communities. The orga-
(30) nizational and managerial demands
of such specialization strengthen
the possibility that a decision-making
elite existed, an elite whose control
over labor, the use of community sur-
(35) pluses, and the acquisition of imported
goods would have led to a concentration
of economic resources in their
own hands. Evidence for differential
distribution of wealth is found in buri-
(40) als of the period: some include large
quantities of pottery, jewelry, and other
artifacts, whereas others from the
same sites lack any such materials.

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Question #140.

Which of the following, if true, would most clearly undermine the author’s statement in the last
sentence of the passage (lines 38-43) regarding the distribution of wealth in Western Pueblo
settlements?

A. Only community members of exceptional wealth are likely to have been buried with their
personal possessions.
B. Members of communities with extensive agricultural systems are usually buried without
personal possessions.
C. Most artifacts found in burial sites were manufactured locally rather than imported from other
communities.
D. Burial artifacts are often ritual objects associated with religious practices rather than being the
deceased’s personal possessions.
E. The quality of burial artifacts varies depending on the site with which they are associated.

Question #141.

According to the passage, which of the following is probably true of the storage spaces mentioned in
line 14?

A. They were used by the community elite for storage of their own food supplies.
B. They served a ceremonial as well as a practical function.
C. Their size is an indication of the wealth of the particular community to which they belonged.
D. Their existence proves that the community to which they belonged imported large amounts of
food.
E. They belonged to and were used by the community as a whole.

Question #142.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. outline the methods by which resources were managed within a particular group of communities
B. account for the distribution of wealth within a particular group of communities
C. provide support for a hypothesis concerning the social structure of a particular society
D. explain how political leadership changed in a particular historical situation
E. present new evidence that contradicts previous theories about a particular historical situation

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Essay #42.
In recent years, Western
business managers have been
heeding the exhortations of busi-
Line ness journalists and academics
(5) to move their companies toward
long-term, collaborative “strategic
partnerships” with their external
business partners (e.g., suppliers).
The experts’ advice comes as
(10) a natural reaction to numerous
studies conducted during the past
decade that compared Japanese
production and supply practices
with those of the rest of the world.
(15) The link between the success of
a certain well-known Japanese
automaker and its effective
management of its suppliers, for
example, has led to an unques-
(20) tioning belief within Western
management circles in the value
of strategic partnerships. Indeed,
in the automobile sector all three
United States manufacturers and
(25) most of their European competitors
have launched programs to reduce
their total number of suppliers and
move toward having strategic
partnerships with a few.
(30) However, new research concerning
supplier relationships in
various industries demonstrates
that the widespread assumption of
Western managers and business
(35) consultants that Japanese firms
manage their suppliers primarily
through strategic partnerships is
unjustified. Not only do Japanese
firms appear to conduct a far
(40) smaller proportion of their business
through strategic partnerships
than is commonly believed, but
they also make extensive use of
“market-exchange” relationships,
(45) in which either party can turn to
the marketplace and shift to different
business partners at will,
a practice usually associated
with Western manufacturers.

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Question #143.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. examining economic factors that may have contributed to the success of certain Japanese
companies
B. discussing the relative merits of strategic partnerships as compared with those of market-
exchange relationship
C. challenging the validity of a widely held assumption about how Japanese firms operate
D. explaining why Western companies have been slow to adopt a particular practice favored by
Japanese companies
E. pointing out certain differences between Japanese and Western supplier relationships

Question #144.

According to the passage, the advice referred to in line 9 was a response to which of the following?

A. A recent decrease in the number of available suppliers within the United States automobile
industry
B. A debate within Western management circles during the past decade regarding the value of
strategic partnerships
C. The success of certain European automobile manufacturers that have adopted strategic
partnerships
D. An increase in demand over the past decade for automobiles made by Western manufacturers
E. Research comparing Japanese business practices with those of other nations

Question #145.

The author mentions “the success of a certain well-known Japanese automaker” (lines 15-17) most
probably in order to

A. demonstrate some of the possible reasons for the success of a certain business practice
B. cite a specific case that has convinced Western business experts of the value of a certain business
practice
C. describe specific steps taken by Western automakers that have enabled them to compete more
successfully in a global market
D. introduce a paradox about the effect of a certain business practice in Japan
E. indicate the need for Western managers to change their relationships with their external business
partners

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Question #146.

Which of the following is most clearly an example of the practice referred to in lines 38-49 of the
passage?

A. A department store chain that employs a single buyer to procure all the small appliances to be
sold in its stores
B. An automobile manufacturer that has used the same supplier of a particular axle component for
several years in a row
C. A hospital that contracts only with union personnel to staff its nonmedical positions
D. A municipal government that decides to cancel its contract with a waste disposal company and
instead hire its own staff to perform that function
E. A corporation that changes the food-service supplier for its corporate headquarters several times
over a five-year period as part of a cost-cutting campaign.

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Essay #43.
Researchers studying how genes
control animal behavior have had
to deal with many uncertainties. In
Line the first place, most behaviors are
(5) governed by more than one gene,
and until recently geneticists had no
method for identifying the multiple
genes involved. In addition, even
when a single gene is found to control
(10) a behavior, researchers in different
fields do not necessarily agree that it is
a “behavioral gene.” Neuroscientists,
whose interest in genetic research is to
understand the nervous system (which
(15) generates behavior), define the term
broadly. But ethologists—specialists
in animal behavior—are interested
in evolution, so they define the term
narrowly. They insist that mutations in
(20) a behavioral gene must alter a specific
normal behavior and not merely make
the organism ill, so that the genetically
induced behavioral change will provide
variation that natural selection can act
(25) upon, possibly leading to the evolution
of a new species. For example, in the
fruit fly, researchers have identified
the gene Shaker, mutations in which
cause flies to shake violently under
(30) anesthesia. Since shaking is not
healthy, ethologists do not consider
Shaker a behavioral gene. In contrast,
ethologists do consider the gene
period (per), which controls the fruit
(35) fly’s circadian (24-hour) rhythm, a
behavioral gene because files with
mutated per genes are healthy; they simply have different rhythms.

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Question #147.

The passage suggests that neuroscientists would most likely consider Shaker to be which of the
following?

A. An example of a behavioral gene

B. One of multiple genes that control a single behavior
C. A gene that, when mutated, causes an alteration in a specific normal behaviour without making
the organism ill
D. A gene of interest to ethologists but of no interest to neuroscientists
E. A poor source of information about the nervous system

Question #148.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following, if true, would be most likely to
influence ethologists’ opinions about whether a particular gene in a species is a behavioral gene?

A. The gene is found only in that species.

B. The gene is extremely difficult to identify.
C. The only effect of mutations in the gene is to make the organism ill.
D. Neuroscientists consider the gene to be a behavioral gene.
E. Geneticists consider the gene to be a behavioral gene.

Question #149.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. summarize findings in an area of research

B. discuss different perspectives on a scientific question
C. outline the major questions in a scientific discipline
D. illustrate the usefulness of investigating a research topic
E. reconcile differences between two definitions of a term

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Essay #44.
(This passage is excerpted from material
published in 1997.)
Whereas United States economic
productivity grew at an annual
rate of 3 percent from 1945 to 1965,
Line it has grown at an annual rate of
(5) only about 1 percent since the early
1970’s. What might be preventing
higher productivity growth? Clearly,
the manufacturing sector of the
economy cannot be blamed. Since
(10) 1980, productivity improvements
in manufacturing have moved the
United States from a position of
acute decline in manufacturing
to one of world prominence.
(15) Manufacturing, however, constitutes
a relatively small proportion
of the economy. In 1992, goodsproducing
businesses employed
only 19.1 percent of American
(20) workers, whereas service-producing
businesses employed 70 percent.
Although the service sector has
grown since the late 1970’s, its
productivity growth has declined.
(25) Several explanations have been
offered for this decline and for the
discrepancy in productivity growth
between the manufacturing and
service sectors. One is that tra-
(30) ditional measures fail to reflect
service-sector productivity growth
because it has been concentrated
in improved quality of services.
Yet traditional measures of manu-
(35) facturing productivity have shown
significant increases despite the
undermeasurement of quality,
whereas service productivity has
continued to stagnate. Others argue
(40) that since the 1970’s, manufacturing
workers, faced with strong foreign
competition, have learned to work
more efficiently in order to keep their
jobs in the United States, but service

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(45) workers, who are typically under

less global competitive pressure,
have not. However, the pressure on
manufacturing workers in the United
States to work more efficiently has
(50) generally been overstated, often
for political reasons. In fact, while
some manufacturing jobs have been
lost due to foreign competition, many
more have been lost simply because
(55) of slow growth in demand for manufactured
goods.
Yet another explanation blames
the federal budget deficit: if it were
lower, interest rates would be lower
(60) too, thereby increasing investment
in the development of new technologies,
which would spur productivity
growth in the service sector. There
is, however, no dearth of techno-
(65) logical resources; rather, managers
in the service sector fail to take
advantage of widely available skills
and machines. High productivity
growth levels attained by leading-
(70) edge service companies indicate
that service-sector managers
who wisely implement available
technology and choose skillful
workers can significantly improve
(75) their companies’ productivity.
The culprits for service-sector
productivity stagnation are the
forces—such as corporate
takeovers and unnecessary
(80) governmental regulation—that
distract managers from the task
of making optimal use of available
resources.

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Question #150.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the budget-deficit explanation for the
discrepancy mentioned in line 27?

A. Research shows that the federal budget deficit has traditionally caused service companies to
invest less money in research and development of new technologies.
B. New technologies have been shown to play a significant role in companies that have been able to
increase their service productivity.
C. In both the service sector and manufacturing, productivity improvements are concentrated in
gains in quality.
D. The service sector typically requires larger investments in new technology in order to maintain
productivity growth than dose manufacturing.
E. High interest rates tend to slow the growth of manufacturing productivity as much as they slow
the growth of service-sector productivity in the United States.

Question #151.

The passage states which of the following about the effect of foreign competition on the American
manufacturing sector since the 1970’s?

A. It has often been exaggerated.

B. It has not been a direct cause of job loss.
C. It has in large part been responsible for the subsequent slowing of productivity growth.
D. It has slowed growth in the demand for manufactured goods in the United States.
E. It has been responsible for the majority of American jobs lost in manufacturing.

Question #152.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following was true of the United States
manufacturing sector in the years immediately prior to 1980?

A. It was performing relatively poorly.

B. It was in a position of world prominence.
C. It was increasing its productivity at an annual rate of 3 percent.
D. It was increasing its productivity at an annual rate of 1 percent.
E. Its level of productivity was higher than afterward.

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Question #153.

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about productivity improvements in United States service companies?

A. Such improvements would be largely attributable to efficiencies resulting from corporate

takeovers.
B. Such improvements would depend more on wise implementation of technology than on mangers’
choice of skilled workers.
C. Such improvements would be more easily accomplished if there were fewer governmental
regulations of the service sector.
D. Such improvements would require companies to invest heavily in the development of new
technologies.
E. Such improvements would be attributable primarily to companies’ facing global competitive
pressure.

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Essay #45.
In American Genesis, which covers
the century of technological innovation
in the United States beginning in 1876,
Line Thomas Hughes assigns special promi-
(5) nence to Thomas Edison as archetype
of the independent nineteenth-century inventor. However, Hughes virtually
ignores Edison’s famous contemporary
and notorious adversary in
(10) the field of electric light and power,
George Westinghouse. This comparative
neglect of Westinghouse is
consistent with other recent historians’
works, although it marks an intriguing
(15) departure from the prevailing view
during the inventors’ lifetimes (and for
decades afterward) of Edison and
Westinghouse as the two “pioneer
innovators” of the electrical industry.
(20) My recent reevaluation of Westinghouse,
facilitated by materials found
in railroad archives, suggests that
while Westinghouse and Edison shared
important traits as inventors, they
(25) differed markedly in their approach to
the business aspects of innovation.
For Edison as an inventor, novelty
was always paramount: the overriding
goal of the business of innovation was
(30) simply to generate funding for new
inventions. Edison therefore undertook
just enough sales, product development,
and manufacturing to accomplish this.
Westinghouse, however, shared the
(35) attitudes of the railroads and other
industries for whom he developed
innovations: product development,
standardization, system, and order
were top priorities. Westinghouse
(40) thus better exemplifies the systematic
approach to technological development
that would become a hallmark of modern
corporate research and development.

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Question #154.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. reevaluate a controversial theory

B. identify the flaws in a study
C. propose a new method of historical research
D. compare two contrasting analyses
E. provide a fresh perspective

Question #155.

According to the passage, Edison’s chief concern as an inventor was the

A. availability of a commercial market

B. costs of developing a prototype
C. originality of his inventions
D. maintenance of high standards throughout production
E. generation of enough profits to pay for continued marketing

Question #156.

The author of the passage implies that the shift away from the views of Westinghouse’s
contemporaries should be regarded as

A. a natural outgrowth of the recent revival of interest in Edison

B. a result of scholarship based on previously unknown documents
C. reflective of modern neglect of the views of previous generations
D. inevitable, given the changing trends in historical interpretations
E. surprising, given the stature that Westinghouse once had

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Essay #46.
Ecoefficiency (measures
to minimize environmental
impact through the reduction
Line or elimination of waste from
(5) production processes) has
become a goal for companies
worldwide, with many realizing
significant cost savings from
such innovations. Peter Senge
(10) and Goran Carstedt see this
development as laudable but
suggest that simply adopting
ecoefficiency innovations could
actually worsen environmental
(15) stresses in the future. Such
innovations reduce production
waste but do not alter the number
of products manufactured
nor the waste generated from
(20) their use and discard; indeed,
most companies invest in ecoefficiency
improvements in
order to increase profits and
growth. Moreover, there is
(25) no guarantee that increased
economic growth from ecoefficiency
will come in similarly
ecoefficient ways, since in
today’s global markets,
(30) greater profits may be turned
into investment capital that
could easily be reinvested
in old-style eco-inefficient
industries. Even a vastly
(35) more ecoefficient industrial
system could, were it to grow
much larger, generate more
total waste and destroy more
habitat and species than would
(40) a smaller, less ecoefficient
economy. Senge and Carstedt
argue that to preserve the
global environment and sustain
economic growth, businesses
(45) must develop a new systemic
approach that reduces total

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material use and total accumulated

waste. Focusing
exclusively on ecoefficiency,
(50) which offers a compelling
business case according
to established thinking, may
distract companies from
pursuing radically different
(55) products and business
models.

Question #157.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain why a particular business strategy has been less successful than was once anticipated
B. propose an alternative to a particular business strategy that has inadvertently caused ecological
damage
C. present a concern about the possible consequences of pursuing a particular business strategy
D. make a case for applying a particular business strategy on a larger scale than is currently practiced
E. suggest several possible outcomes of companies’ failure to understand the economic impact of a
particular business strategy

Question #158.

According to the passage, an exclusive pursuit of ecoefficiency may cause companies to

A. neglect the development of alternative business models and products

B. keep the number of products that they manufacture unchanged
C. invest capital from increased profits primarily in inefficient and outmoded industries that may
prove unprofitable
D. overemphasize the production process as the key to increasing profits and growth
E. focus more on reducing costs than on reducing the environmental impact of production processes

Question #159.

The passage mentions which of the following as a possible consequence of companies’ realization of
greater profits through ecoefficiency?

A. The companies may be able to sell a greater number of products by lowering prices.
B. The companies may be better able to attract investment capital in the global market.
C. The profits may be reinvested to increase economic growth through ecoefficiency.
D. The profits may be used as investment capital for industries that are not ecoefficient.
E. The profits may encourage companies to make further innovations in reducing production waste.

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Question #160.

NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question.
The passage implies that which of the following is a possible consequence of a company’s adoption
of innovations that increase its ecoefficiency?

A. Company profits resulting from such innovations may be reinvested in that company with no
guarantee that the company will continue to make further improvements in ecoefficiency.
B. Company growth fostered by cost savings from such innovations may allow that company to
manufacture a greater number of products that will be used and discarded, thus worsening
environmental stress.
C. A company that fails to realize significant cost savings from such innovations may have little
incentive to continue to minimize the environmental impact of its production processes.
D. A company that comes to depend on such innovations to increase its profits and growth may be
vulnerable in the global market to competition from old-style ecoinefficient industries.
E. A company that meets its ecoefficiency goals is unlikely to invest its increased profits in the
development of new and innovative ecoefficiency measures.

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Essay #47.
In Winters v. United States
(1908), the Supreme Court held
that the right to use waters flow-
Line ing through or adjacent to the
(5) Fort Berthold Indian Reservation
was reserved to American Indians
by the treaty establishing the reservation.
Although this treaty did
not mention water rights, the Court
(10) ruled that the federal government,
when it created the reservation,
intended to deal fairly with
American Indians by preserving
for them the waters without which
(15) their lands would have been useless.
Later decisions, citing
Winters, established that courts
can find federal rights to reserve
water for particular purposes if
(20) (1) the land in question lies within
an enclave under exclusive federal
jurisdiction, (2) the land has been
formally withdrawn from federal
public lands — i.e., withdrawn from
(25) the stock of federal lands available
for private use under federal
land use laws — and set aside or
reserved, and (3) the circumstances
reveal the government
(30) intended to reserve water as well
as land when establishing the
reservation.
Some American Indian tribes
have also established water rights
(35) through the courts based on their
traditional diversion and use of
certain waters prior to the United
States’ acquisition of sovereignty.
For example, the Rio Grande
(40) pueblos already existed when the
United States acquired sovereignty
over New Mexico in 1848. Although
they at that time became part of the
United States, the pueblo lands
(45) never formally constituted a part
of federal public lands; in any

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event, no treaty, statute, or executive

order has ever designated
or withdrawn the pueblos from
(50) public lands as American Indian
reservations. This fact, however,
has not barred application
of the Winters doctrine. What
constitutes an American Indian
(55) reservation is a question of
practice, not of legal definition,
and the pueblos have always
been treated as reservations by
the United States. This pragmatic
(60) approach is buttressed by Arizona
v. California (1963), wherein the
Supreme Court indicated that the
manner in which any type of federal
reservation is created does not
(65) affect the application to it of the
Winters doctrine. Therefore, the
reserved water rights of Pueblo
Indians have priority over other
citizens’ water rights as of 1848,
(70) the year in which pueblos must
be considered to have become
reservations.

Question #161.

The author cites the fact that the Rio Grande pueblos were never formally withdrawn from public
lands primarily in order to do which of the following?

A. Suggest why it might have been argued that the Winters doctrine ought not to apply to pueblo
lands
B. Imply that the United States never really acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands
C. Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be considered part of federal public lands
D. Support the argument that the water rights of citizens other than American Indians are limited by
the Winters doctrine
E. Suggest that federal courts cannot claim jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional diversion
and use of water by Pueblo Indians

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Question #162.

The passage suggests that, if the criteria discussed in lines 16 – 32 were the only criteria for
establishing a reservation’s water rights, which of the following would be true?

A. The water rights of the inhabitants of the Fort Berthold Indian Reservation would not take
precedence over those of other citizens.
B. Reservations established before 1848 would be judged to have no water rights.
C. There would be no legal basis for the water rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
D. Reservations other than American Indian reservations could not be created with reserved water
rights.
E. Treaties establishing reservations would have to mention water rights explicitly in order to reserve
water for a particular purpose.

Question #163.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of the treaty establishing the Fort
Berthold Indian Reservation?

A. It was challenged in the Supreme Court a number of times.

B. It was rescinded by the federal government, an action that gave rise to the Winters case.
C. It cited American Indians’ traditional use of the land’s resources.
D. It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation’s inhabitants.
E. It was modified by the Supreme Court in Arizona v. California.

Question #164.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. trace the development of laws establishing American Indian reservations

B. explain the legal bases for the water rights of American Indian tribes
C. question the legal criteria often used to determine the water rights of American Indian tribes
D. discuss evidence establishing the earliest date at which the federal government recognized the
water rights of American Indians
E. point out a legal distinction between different types of American Indian Reservations

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Essay #48.
For many years, historians thought
that the development of capitalism had not
faced serious challenges in the United
Line States. Writing in the early twentieth cen-
(5) tury, Progressive historians sympathized
with the battles waged by farmers and
small producers against large capitalists
in the late nineteenth century, but they did
not question the widespread acceptance
(10) of laissez-faire (unregulated) capitalism
throughout American history. Similarly,
Louis Hartz, who sometimes disagreed
with the Progressives, argued that Americans
accepted laissez-faire capitalism
(15) without challenge because they lacked
a feudal, precapitalist past. Recently,
however, some scholars have argued
that even though laissez-faire became
the prevailing ethos in nineteen-century
(20) America, it was not accepted without
struggle. Laissez-faire capitalism, they
suggest, clashed with existing religious
and communitarian norms that imposed
moral constraints on acquisitiveness to
(25) protect the weak from the predatory, the
strong from corruption, and the entire culture
from materialist excess. Buttressed
by mercantilist notions that government
should be both regulator and promoter
(30) of economic activity, these norms persisted
long after the American Revolution
helped unleash the economic forces that
produced capitalism. These scholars
argue that even in the late nineteenth
(35) century, with the government’s role in
the economy considerably diminished,
laissez-faire had not triumphed completely.
Hard times continued to revive
popular demands for regulating busi-
(40) ness and softening the harsh edges of
laissez-faire capitalism.

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Question #165.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. reveal the underlying similarities of certain arguments regarding the development of capitalism in
the United States
B. synthesize two competing arguments regarding the development of capitalism in the United
States
C. defend an established argument regarding the development of capitalism in the United States
D. summarize a scholarly refutation of an argument regarding the development of capitalism in the
United States
E. discuss a new methodology for the study of the development of capitalism in the United States

Question #166.

According to the passage, the Progressive historians mentioned in line 5 and the scholars mentioned
in line 17 disagree with regard to which of the following?

A. Whether laissez-faire became the predominant ethos in the nineteenth-century United States
B. Whether moral restraints on acquisitiveness were necessary in the nineteen century United States
C. The economic utility of mercantilist notions of government
D. The nature of the historical conditions necessary for the development of laissez-faire capitalism in
the nineteen-century United States
E. The existence of significant opposition to the development of laissez-faire capitalism in the
nineteen-century United States

Question #167.

The passage suggests that the scholars mentioned in line 17 would agree with which of the following
statements regarding the “norms” mentioned in line 23?

A. They provided a primary source of opposition to the development of laissez-faire capitalism in the
United States in the nineteenth century.
B. Their appeal was undermined by difficult economic times in the United States at the end of the
nineteenth century.
C. They disappeared in the United States in the late nineteenth century because of the triumph of
laissez-faire capitalism.
D. They facilitated the successful implementation of mercantilist notions of government in the
United States in the nineteenth-century.
E. They are now recognized by historians as having been an important part of the ideology of the
American Revolution.

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Essay #49.
Although many lines of evidence indicate
that birds evolved from ground-dwelling
theropod dinosaurs, some scientists remain
Line unconvinced. They argue that theropods
(5) appeared too late to have given rise to birds, noting that Archaeopteryx lithographica—the
oldest known bird—appears in the fossil
record about 150 million years ago, whereas
the fossil remains of various nonavian
(10) maniraptor theropods—the closest known
relatives of birds—date only to about 115
million years ago. But investigators have
now uncovered bones that evidently belong
to nonavian maniraptors dating to the time of
(15) Archaeopteryx. In any case, failure to find
fossils of a predicted kind does not rule out
their existence in an undiscovered deposit.
Skeptics also argue that the fused clavicles
(the “wishbone”) of birds differ from the
(20) unfused clavicles of theropods. This
objection was reasonable when only early
theropod clavicles had been discovered,
but fossilized theropod clavicles that look
just like the wishbone of Archaeopteryx
(25) have now been unearthed. Finally, some
scientists argue that the complex lungs of
birds could not have evolved from theropod
lungs, an assertion that cannot be supported
or falsified at the moment, because no fossil
(30) lungs are preserved in the paleontological
record.

Question #168.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. compare the development of two hypotheses concerning the evolutionary origin of birds
B. suggest revisions to the standard theory of the evolutionary history of birds
C. evaluate the usefulness of fossil evidence in determining the evolutionary history of birds
D. challenge the theory that birds evolved from ground-dwelling theropod dinosaurs
E. respond to criticisms of the theory that birds evolved from ground-dwelling theropod dinosaurs

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Question #169.

In the context of the passage, the phrase “fossils of a predicted kind” (line 16) most likely refers to
which of the following?

A. Theropod fossils with fused clavicles

B. Theropod fossils that are similar in structure to Archaeopteryx fossils
C. Theropod fossils dating back more than 150 million years
D. Fossils indicating the structure of theropod lungs
E. Fossils indicating the structure of Archaeopteryx lungs

Question #170.

Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as an argument made by scientists who are
unconvinced that birds evolved from theropod dinosaurs?

A. There are no known theropod dinosaur fossils dating from a period after the time of
Archaeopteryx.
B. There are no known theropod dinosaur fossils that indicate the structure of those dinosaurs’
lungs.
C. Theropod dinosaurs appear in the fossil record about 150 million years ago.
D. Theropod dinosaurs did not have fused clavicles.
E. Theropod dinosaurs had certain bones that look just like those of Archaeopteryx.

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Essay #50.
The term “episodic memory” was
introduced by Tulving to refer to what he
considered a uniquely human capacity—
Line the ability to recollect specific past events,
(5) to travel back into the past in one’s own
mind—as distinct from the capacity simply
to use information acquired through past
experiences. Subsequently, Clayton et al.
developed criteria to test for episodic
(10) memory in animals. According to these
criteria, episodic memories are not of
individual bits of information; they involve
multiple components of a single event
“bound” together. Clayton sought to
(15) examine evidence of scrub jays’ accurate
memory of “what,”“where,” and “when”
information and their binding of this information.
In the wild, these birds store food
for retrieval later during periods of food
(20) scarcity. Clayton’s experiment required
jays to remember the type, location, and
freshness of stored food based on a unique
learning event. Crickets were stored in one
location and peanuts in another. Jays
(25) prefer crickets, but crickets degrade
more quickly. Clayton’s birds switched
their preference from crickets to peanuts
once the food had been stored for a certain
length of time, showing that they retain
(30) information about the what, the where,
and the when. Such experiments cannot,
however, reveal whether the birds were
reexperiencing the past when retrieving the
information. Clayton acknowledged this by
using the term “episodic-like” memory.

Question #171.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain how the findings of a particular experiment have been interpreted and
offer an alternative interpretation
B. describe a particular experiment and point out one of its limitations
C. present similarities between human memory and animal memory
D. point out a flaw in the argument that a certain capacity is uniquely human
E. account for the unexpected behavior of animal subjects in a particular experiment

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Question #172.

According to the passage, Clayton’s experiment depended on the fact that scrub jays

A. recall “when” and “where” information more distinctly than “what” information
B. are not able to retain information about a single past event for an indefinitely long period of time
C. choose peanuts over crickets when the crickets have been stored for a long period of time
D. choose crickets over peanuts whenever both are available
E. prefer peanuts that have been stored for a short period to crickets that have been stored for a
short period

Question #173.

The passage suggests that Clayton’s experiment demonstrated scrub jays’ ability to

A. choose different storage places for different kinds of food to minimize the rate at which a food
will degrade
B. unlearn a behavior they use in the wild in order to adapt to laboratory conditions
C. bind together information about different aspects of a single past event
D. re-experience a past event in memory and act accordingly
E. distinguish one learning event from a subsequent learning event

Question #174.

It can be inferred from the passage that both Tulving and Clayton would agree with which of the
following statements?

A. Animals’ abilities to use information about a specific past event are not conclusive evidence of
episodic memory.
B. Animals do not share humans’ abilities to reexperience the past through memory.
C. The accuracy of animals’ memories is difficult to determine through direct experimentation.
D. Humans tend to recollect single bits of information more accurately than do animals.
E. The binding of different kinds of information is not a distinctive feature of episodic memory.

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Essay #51.
Many managers are influenced by
dangerous myths about pay that lead
to counterproductive decisions about
Line how their companies compensate
(5) employees. One such myth is that
labor rates, the rate per hour paid to
workers, are identical with labor costs,
the money spent on labor in relation to
the productivity of the labor force.
(10) This myth leads to the assumption that
a company can simply lower its labor
costs by cutting wages. But labor
costs and labor rates are not in fact
the same: one company could pay
(15) its workers considerably more than
another and yet have lower labor
costs if that company’s productivity
were higher due to the talent of its
workforce, the efficiency of its work
(20) processes, or other factors. The
confusion of costs with rates persists
partly because labor rates are
a convenient target for managers who
want to make an impact on their com-
(25) pany’s budgets. Because labor rates
are highly visible, managers can easily
compare their company’s rates with
those of competitors. Furthermore,
labor rates often appear to be a
(30) company’s most malleable financial
variable: cutting wages appears an
easier way to control costs than such
options as reconfiguring work processes
or altering product design.
(35) The myth that labor rates and labor
costs are equivalent is supported by
business journalists, who frequently
confound the two. For example, prominent
business journals often remark on
(40) the “high” cost of German labor, citing
as evidence the average amount paid
to German workers. The myth is also
perpetuated by the compensationconsulting
industry, which has its own
(45) incentives to keep such myths alive.

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First, although some of these consulting

firms have recently broadened
their practices beyond the area of
compensation, their mainstay con-
(50) tinues to be advising companies on
changing their compensation practices.
Suggesting that a company’s
performance can be improved in
some other way than by altering its
(55) pay system may be empirically correct
but contrary to the consultants’
interests. Furthermore, changes
to the compensation system may
appear to be simpler to implement
(60) than changes to other aspects of an
organization, so managers are more
likely to find such advice from consultants
palatable. Finally, to the
extant that changes in compensation
(65) create new problems, the consultants
will continue to have work solving the
problems that result from their advice.

Question #175.

The passage suggests that the “myth” mentioned in line 5 persists partly because

A. managers find it easier to compare their companies’ labor rates with those of competitors than to
compare labor costs
B. managers tend to assume that labor rates affect their companies’ budgets less than they actually
do
C. managers tend to believe that labor rates can have an impact on the efficiency of their companies’
work processes
D. the average amount paid to workers differs significantly from one country to another
E. many companies fail to rely on compensation consultants when making decisions about labor
rates

Question #176.

The author of the passage mentions business journals (line 39) primarily in order to

A. demonstrate how a particular kind of evidence can be used to support two different conclusions
B. cast doubt on a particular view about the average amount paid to German workers
C. suggest that business journalists may have a vested interest in perpetuating a particular view
D. identify one source of support for a view common among business managers
E. indicate a way in which a particular myth could be dispelled

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Question #177.

It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements about compensation?

A. A company’s labor costs are not affected by the efficiency of its work processes.
B. High labor rates are not necessarily inconsistent with the goals of companies that want to reduce
costs
C. It is more difficult for managers to compare their companies’ labor rates with those of
competitors than to compare labor costs.
D. A company whose labor rates are high is unlikely to have lower labor costs than other companies.
E. Managers often use information about competitors’ labor costs to calculate those companies’
labor rates.

Question #178.

The author of the passage suggests which of the following about the advice that the consulting firms
discussed in the passage customarily give to companies attempting to control costs?

A. It often fails to bring about the intended changes in companies’ compensation systems.
B. It has highly influenced views that predominate in prominent business journals.
C. It tends to result in decreased labor rates but increased labor costs.
D. It leads to changes in companies’ compensation practices that are less visible than changes to
work processes would be.
E. It might be different if the consulting firms were less narrowly specialized.

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Essay #52.
Acting on the recommendation
of a British government
committee investigating the
Line high incidence in white lead
(5) factories of illness among
employees, most of whom
were women, the Home Secretary
proposed in 1895 that
Parliament enact legislation
(10) that would prohibit women from
holding most jobs in white lead
factories. Although the
Women’s Industrial Defence
Committee (WIDC), formed
(15) in 1892 in response to earlier
legislative attempts to restrict
women’s labor, did not discount
the white lead trade’s
potential health dangers, it
(20) opposed the proposal, viewing
it as yet another instance
of limiting women’s work
opportunities. Also opposing
the proposal was the Society
(25) for Promoting the Employment
of Women (SPEW), which
attempted to challenge it by
investigating the causes of illness
in white lead factories.
(30) SPEW contended, and WIDC
concurred, that controllable
conditions in such factories
were responsible for the development
of lead poisoning.
(35) SPEW provided convincing
evidence that lead poisoning
could be avoided if workers
were careful and clean and
if already extant workplace
(40) safety regulations were
stringently enforced. However,
the Women’s Trade
Union League (WTUL), which
had ceased in the late 1880’s
(45) to oppose restrictions on
women’s labor, supported the

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eventually enacted proposal,

in part because safety regulations
were generally not
(50) being enforced in white lead
factories, where there were no
unions (and little prospect of
any) to pressure employers to
comply with safety regulations.

Question #179.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. presenting various groups’ views of the motives of those proposing certain legislation
B. contrasting the reasoning of various groups concerning their positions on certain proposed
legislation
C. tracing the process whereby certain proposed legislation was eventually enacted
D. assessing the success of tactics adopted by various groups with respect to certain proposed
legislation
E. evaluating the arguments of various groups concerning certain proposed legislation

Question #180.

The passage suggests that WIDC differed from WTUL in which of the following ways?

A. WIDC believed that the existing safety regulations were adequate to protect women’s health,
whereas WTUL believed that such regulations needed to be strengthened.
B. WIDC believed that unions could not succeed in pressuring employers to comply with such
regulations, whereas WTUL believed that unions could succeed in doing so.
C. WIDC believed that lead poisoning in white lead factories could be avoided by controlling
conditions there, whereas WTUL believed that lead poisoning in such factories could not be
avoided no matter how stringently safety regulations were menforced.
D. At the time that the legislation concerning white lead factories was proposed, WIDC was primarily
concerned with addressing health conditions in white lead factories, whereas WTUL was
concerned with improving working conditions in all types of factories.
E. At the time that WIDC was opposing legislative attempts to restrict women’s labor, WTUL had
already ceased to do so.

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Question #181.

According to the passage, the WIDC believed that the proposed legislation resembled earlier
legislation concerning women’s labor in that it

A. caused divisiveness among women’s organizations

B. sought to protect women’s health
C. limited women’s occupational opportunities
D. failed to bolster workplace safety regulations
E. failed to make distinctions among types of factory work

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Essay #53.
Firms traditionally claim that they
downsize (i.e., make permanent
personnel cuts) for economic reasons,
Line laying off supposedly unnecessary staff
(5) in an attempt to become more efficient
and competitive. Organization theory
would explain this reasoning as an
example of the “economic rationality”
that it assumes underlies all organi-
(10) zational activities. There is evidence
that firms believe they are behaving
rationally whenever they downsize; yet
recent research has shown that the
actual economic effects of downsizing
(15) are often negative for firms. Thus,
organization theory cannot adequately
explain downsizing; non-economic
factors must also be considered.
One such factor is the evolution of
(20) downsizing into a powerful business
myth: managers simply believe that
downsizing is efficacious. Moreover,
downsizing nowadays is greeted
favorably by the business press; the
(25) press often refers to soaring stock
prices of downsizing firms (even though
research shows that stocks usually
rise only briefly after downsizing and
then suffer a prolonged decline).
(30) Once viewed as a sign of desperation,
downsizing is now viewed as a signal
that firms are serious about competing
in the global marketplace; such signals
are received positively by key actors—
(35) financial analysts, consultants,
shareholders—who supply firms with
vital organizing resources. Thus, even
if downsizers do not become economically
more efficient, downsizing’s mythic
(40) properties give them added prestige
in the business community, enhancing
their survival prospects.

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Question #182.

According to the passage, the “key actors” (line 34) view a firm’s downsizing activities as an
indication of the firm’s

A. troubled financial condition

B. inability to develop effective long-term strategies
C. inability to retain vital organizational resources
D. desire to boost its stock price
E. desire to become more competitive

Question #183.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. criticize firms for engaging in the practice of downsizing

B. analyze the negative economic impact of downsizing on firms
C. offer an alternative to a traditional explanation for the occurrence of downsizing
D. chronicle how perceptions of downsizing have changed over time
E. provide evidence disputing the prevalence of downsizing

Question #184.

The passage suggests which of the following about the claim that a firm will become
more efficient and competitive by downsizing?

A. Few firms actually believe this claim to be true.

B. Fewer firms have been making this claim in recent years.
C. This claim contradicts the basic assumption of organization theory.
D. This claim is called into question by certain recent research.
E. This claim is often treated with skepticism by the business press.

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Essay #54.
In 1675, Louis XIV
established the Parisian
seamstresses’ guild, the first
Line independent all-female guild
(5) created in over 200 years.
Guild members could make
and sell women’s and children’s
clothing, but were
prohibited from producing
(10) men’s clothing or dresses
for court women. Tailors
resented the ascension of
seamstresses to guild status;
seamstresses, meanwhile,
(15) were impatient with the
remaining restrictions on
their right to clothe women.
The conflict between
the guilds was not purely (20) economic, however. A 1675
police report indicated that
since so many seamstresses
were already working illegally,
the tailors were unlikely to
(25) suffer additional economic
damage because of the
seamstresses’ incorporation.
Moreover, guild membership
held very different meanings
(30) for tailors and seamstresses.
To the tailors, their status as
guild members overlapped
with their role as heads of
household, and entitled them
(35) to employ as seamstresses
female family members who
did not marry outside the trade.
The seamstresses, however,
viewed guild membership as
(40) a mark of independence from
the patriarchal family. Their
guild was composed not of
family units but of individual
women who enjoyed unusual
(45) legal and economic privileges.
At the conflict’s center was
the issue of whether tailors’

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female relatives should be

identified as family members
(50) protected by the tailors’ guild
or as individuals under the jurisdiction of the seamstresses’ guild.

Question #185.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. outline a scholarly debate over the impact of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild
B. summarize sources of conflict between the newly created Parisian seamstresses’ guild and the
tailors’ guild
C. describe opposing views concerning the origins of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild
D. explore the underlying reasons for establishing an exclusively female guild in seventeenth-century
Paris
E. correct a misconception about changes in seamstresses’ economic status that took place in Paris
in the late seventeenth century

Question #186.

According to the passage, one source of dissatisfaction for Parisian seamstresses after the
establishment of the seamstresses’ guild was that

A. seamstresses were not allowed to make and sell clothing for all women
B. tailors continued to have the exclusive legal right to clothe men
C. seamstresses who were relatives of tailors were prevented from becoming members of the
seamstresses’ guild
D. rivalry between individual seamstresses increased, thus hindering their ability to compete with
the tailors for business
E. seamstresses were not allowed to accept male tailors as members of the guild

Question #187.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following was true of seamstresses
employed by relatives who were members of the tailors’ guild?

A. They were instrumental in convincing Louis XIV to establish the seamstresses’ guild.
B. They were rarely allowed to assist master tailors in the production of men’s clothing.
C. They were considered by some tailors to be a threat to the tailors’ monopoly.
D. They did not enjoy the same economic and legal privileges that members of the seamstresses’
guild enjoyed.
E. They felt their status as working women gave them a certain degree of independence from the
patriarchal family.

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Question #188.

The author mentions the seamstresses’ view of guild membership as a “mark of independence from
the patriarchal family” (lines 40-41) primarily in order to

A. emphasize that the establishment of the seamstresses’ guild had implications that were not solely
economic
B. illustrate the conflict that existed between tailors and their female family members over
membership in the tailors’ guild
C. imply that the establishment of the seamstresses’ guild ushered in a period of increased economic
and social freedom for women in France
D. provide an explanation for the dramatic increase in the number of women working as
seamstresses after 1675
E. indicate that members of the seamstresses’ guild were financially more successful than were
tailors’ female relatives protected by the tailors’ guild

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Essay #55.
Anthropologists studying the
Hopi people of the southwestern
United States often characterize
Line Hopi society between 1680 and
(5) 1880 as surprisingly stable, considering that it was a period of
diminution in population and
pressure from contact with outside
groups, factors that might
(10) be expected to cause significant
changes in Hopi social
arrangements.
The Hopis’ retention of their
distinctive sociocultural system
(15) has been attributed to the Hopi
religious elite’s determined
efforts to preserve their religion
and way of life, and also to a
geographical isolation greater
(20) than that of many other Native
American groups, an isolation
that limited both cultural contact
and exposure to European
diseases. But equally important
(25) to Hopi cultural persistence may
have been an inherent flexibility
in their social system that may
have allowed preservation of
traditions even as the Hopis
(30) accommodated themselves
to change. For example, the
system of matrilineal clans was
maintained throughout this period,
even though some clans
(35) merged to form larger groups
while others divided into smaller
descent groups. Furthermore,
although traditionally members
of particular Hopi clans appear
(40) to have exclusively controlled
particular ceremonies, a clan’s
control of a ceremony might
shift to another clan if the first
became too small to manage
(45) the responsibility. Village
leadership positions traditionally
restricted to members of

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one clan might be similarly

extended to members of other
(50) clans, and women might assume
such positions under certain
unusual conditions.

Question #189.

The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about the explanation outlined in lines 13-24?

A. It fails to take into account the effect of geographical circumstances on Hopi culture.
B. It correctly emphasizes the role of the religious elite in maintaining the system of matrilineal
clans.
C. It represents a misreading of Hopi culture because it fails to take into account the actual
differences that existed among the various Hopi clans.
D. It underestimates the effect on Hopi cultural development of contact with other cultural groups.
E. It is correct but may be insufficient in itself to explain Hopi sociocultural persistence.

Question #190.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Hopis’ geographic situation
between 1680 and 1880?

A. It prevented the Hopis from experiencing a diminution in population.

B. It helped to promote flexibility within their social system.
C. It limited but did not eliminate contact with other cultural groups.
D. It reinforced the religious elite’s determination to resist cultural change.
E. It tended to limit contact between certain Hopi clans.

Question #191.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. reassessing a phenomenon in light of new findings

B. assessing the relative importance of two factors underlying a phenomenon
C. examining the assumptions underlying an interpretation of a phenomenon
D. expanding on an explanation of a phenomenon
E. contrasting two methods for evaluating a phenomenon

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Essay #56.
A small number of the forest
species of lepidoptera (moths and
butterflies, which exist as caterpillars
Line during most of their life cycle) exhibit
(5) regularly recurring patterns of population
growth and decline—such
fluctuations in population are known
as population cycles. Although many
different variables influence popula-
(10) tion levels, a regular pattern such as
a population cycle seems to imply a
dominant, driving force. Identification
of that driving force, however, has
proved surprisingly elusive despite
(15) considerable research. The common
approach of studying causes of
population cycles by measuring the
mortality caused by different agents,
such as predatory birds or parasites,
(20) has been unproductive in the case of
lepidoptera. Moreover, population
ecologists’ attempts to alter cycles
by changing the caterpillars’ habitat
and by reducing caterpillar popula-
(25) tions have not succeeded. In short,
the evidence implies that these insect
populations, if not self-regulating, may
at least be regulated by an agent more
intimately connected with the insect than
(30) are predatory birds or parasites.
Recent work suggests that this
agent may be a virus. For many
years, viral disease had been
reported in declining populations
(35) of caterpillars, but population ecologists
had usually considered viral
disease to have contributed to the
decline once it was underway rather
than to have initiated it. The recent
(40) work has been made possible by
new techniques of molecular biology
that allow viral DNA to be detected
at low concentrations in the environment.
Nuclear polyhedrosis viruses
(45) are hypothesized to be the driving
force behind population cycles in

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lepidoptera in part because the

viruses themselves follow an infectious
cycle in which, if protected from
(50) direct sun light, they may remain
virulent for many years in the environment,
embedded in durable
crystals of polyhedrin protein.
Once ingested by a caterpillar,
(55) the crystals dissolve, releasing
the virus to infect the insect’s cells.
Late in the course of the infection,
millions of new virus particles are
formed and enclosed in polyhedrin
(60) crystals. These crystals reenter the
environment after the insect dies and
decomposes, thus becoming available
to infect other caterpillars.
One of the attractions of this
(65) hypothesis is its broad applicability.
Remarkably, despite significant differences
in habitat and behavior, many
species of lepidoptera have population
cycles of similar length, between eight
(70) and eleven years. Nuclear polyhedrosis
viral infection is one factor these
disparate species share.

Question #192.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s conclusion in lines 25-30?

A. New research reveals that the number of species of birds and parasites that prey on lepidoptera
has dropped significantly in recent years.
B. New experiments in which the habitats of lepidoptera are altered in previously untried ways
result in the shortening of lepidoptera population cycles.
C. Recent experiments have revealed that the nuclear polyhedrosis virus is present in a number of
predators and parasites of lepidoptera.
D. Differences among the habitats of lepidoptera species make it difficult to assess the effects of
weather on lepidoptera population cycles.
E. Viral disease is typically observed in a large proportion of the Lepidoptera population.

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Question #193.

It can be inferred from the passage that the mortality caused by agents such as predatory birds or
parasites was measured in an attempt to

A. develop an explanation for the existence of lepidoptera population cycles

B. identify behavioral factors in lepidoptera that affect survival rates
C. identify possible methods for controlling lepidoptera population growth
D. provide evidence that lepidoptera populations are self-regulating
E. determine the life stages of lepidoptera at which mortality rates are highest

Question #194.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe the development of new techniques that may help to determine the driving force behind
population cycles in lepidoptera
B. present evidence that refutes a particular theory about the driving force behind population cycles
in lepidoptera
C. present a hypothesis about the driving force behind population cycles in lepidoptera
D. describe the fluctuating patterns of population cycles in lepidoptera
E. question the idea that a single driving force is behind population cycles in lepidoptera

Question #195.

According to the passage, before the discovery of new techniques for detecting viral DNA,
population ecologists believed that viral diseases

A. were not widely prevalent among insect populations generally

B. affected only the caterpillar life stage of lepidoptera
C. were the driving force behind lepidoptera population cycles
D. attacked already declining caterpillar populations
E. infected birds and parasites that prey on various species of Lepidoptera

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Essay #57.
The idea that equipping homes
with electrical appliances and other
“modern” household technologies
Line would eliminate drudgery, save labor
(5) time, and increase leisure for women
who were full-time home workers
remained largely unchallenged until
the women’s movement of the 1970’s
spawned the groundbreaking and
(10) influential works of sociologist Joann
Vanek and historian Ruth Cowan.
Vanek analyzed 40 years of timeuse
surveys conducted by home
economists to argue that electrical
(15) appliances and other modern household
technologies reduced the effort
required to perform specific tasks,
but ownership of these appliances did
not correlate with less time spent on
(20) housework by full-time home workers.
In fact, time spent by these workers
remained remarkably constant? at
about 52 to 54 hours per week? from
the 1920’s to the 1960’s, a period
(25) of significant change in household
technology. In surveying two
centuries of household technology
in the United States, Cowan argued
that the “industrialization” of the home
(30) often resulted in more work for full-time
home workers because the use of
such devices as coal stoves, water
pumps, and vacuum cleaners tended
to reduce the workload of married-
(35) women’s helpers (husbands, sons,
daughters, and servants) while
promoting a more rigorous standard
of housework. The full-time home
worker’s duties also shifted to include
(40) more household management, child
care, and the post-Second World War
phenomenon of being “Mom’s taxi.”

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Question #196.

According to the passage, which of the following is true about the idea mentioned in line
1?

A. It has been undermined by data found in time-use surveys conducted by home economists.
B. It was based on a definition of housework that was explicitly rejected by Vanek and Cowan.
C. It is more valid for the time period studied by Cowan than for the time period studied by Vanek.
D. It is based on an underestimation of the time that married women spent on housework prior to
the industrialization of the household.
E. It inaccurately suggested that new household technologies would reduce the effort required to
perform housework.

Question #197.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. analyzing a debate between two scholars

B. challenging the evidence on which a new theory is based
C. describing how certain scholars’ work countered a prevailing view
D. presenting the research used to support a traditional theory
E. evaluating the methodology used to study a particular issue

Question #198.

The passage suggests that Vanek and Cowan would agree that modernizing household technology
did not

A. reduce the workload of servants and other household helpers

B. raise the standard of housework that women who were full-time home workers set for
themselves
C. decrease the effort required to perform household tasks
D. reduce the time spent on housework by women who were full-time home workers
E. result in a savings of money used for household maintenance

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Essay #58.
Companies that must determine well
in advance of the selling season how
many unites of a new product to manu-
Line facture often underproduce products
(5) that sell well and have overstocks of
others. The increased incidence in
recent years of mismatches between
production and demand seems ironic,
since point-of-sale scanners have
(10) improved data on consumers’ buying
patterns and since flexible manufacturing
has enabled companies to produce, cost-effectively, small
quantities of goods. This type of
(15) manufacturing has greatly increased
the number of new products introduced
annually in the United States. However,
frequent introductions of new products
have two problematic side effects. For
(20) one, they reduce the average lifetime of
products; more of them are neither at the
beginning of their life (when prediction
is difficult) or at the end of their life
(when keeping inventory is expen-
(25) sive because the products will soon
become obsolete). For another, as
new products proliferate, demand is
divided among a growing number of
stock-keeping units (SKU’s). Even
(30) though manufacturers and retailers can
forecast aggregate demand with some
certainty, forecasting accurately how
that demand will be distributed among
the many SKU’s they sell is difficult.
(35) For example, a company may be able
to estimate accurately the aggregate
number of shoes it will sell, but it may
be uncertain about which specific
types of shoes will sell more than
other types.

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Question #199.

Which of the following most accurately describes the function of the last sentence in the passage
(lines 35-40)?

A. To cite a situation in which the aggregate demand is more important than the distribution of
demand among SKU’s
B. To refute an assertion about the side effects of flexible manufacturing
C. To illustrate an assertion about companies’ ability to forecast demand
D. To provide an example of ways in which companies address the difficulties of forecasting demand
E. To note an exception to the author’s assertion about distributing demand among SKU’s

Question #200.

The passage suggests which of the following about divided demand among a growing number of
SKU’s?

A. It has increased the average lifetime of products.

B. It has resulted from retailer’s attempts to predict demand more accurately and avoid both
understocks and overstocks.
C. It has decreased the use of flexible manufacturing by companies.
D. It has not increased the expense of keeping inventory of certain products.
E. It has not prevented companies from predicting aggregate demand with some certainty.

Question #201.

According to the passage, which of the following has led to growth in the number of new products
introduced in the United States each year?

A. Reduced average lifetime of products

B. Increased ability to forecast aggregate demand
C. More cost-effective ways of keeping inventory for products
D. Cost-effective production of small quantities of goods
E. Increased ability to divide demand among a number of SKU’s and to forecast how that demand
will be distributed among those SKU’s

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Essay #59.
Until recently, zoologists believed that
all species of phocids (true seals), a pinniped
family, use a different maternal
Line strategy than do otariids (fur seals and
(5) sea lions), another pinniped family. Mother
otariids use a foraging strategy. They
acquire moderate energy stores in the
form of blubber before arriving at breeding
sites and then fast for 5 to 11 days after
(10) birth. Throughout the rest of the lactation
(milk production) period, which lasts from
4 months to 3 years depending on the
species, mother otariids alternately forage
at sea, where they replenish their fat
(15) stores, and nurse their young at breeding
sites. Zoologists had assumed that
females of all phocid species, by contrast,
use a fasting strategy in which mother
phocids, having accumulated large energy
(20) stores before they arrive at breeding sites,
fast throughout the entire lactation period,
which lasts from 4 to 50 days depending on
the species. However, recent studies on
harbor seals, a phocid species, found that
(25) lactating females commenced foraging
approximately 6 days after giving birth and
on average made 7 foraging trips during
the remainder of their 24-day lactation
period.
(30) The maternal strategy evolved by
harbor seals may have to do with their
small size and the large proportion of their
fat stores depleted in lactation. Harbor
seals are small compared with other phocid
(35) species such as grey seals, northern elephant
seals, and hooded seals, all of which
are known to fast for the entire lactation
period. Studies show that mother seals of
these species use respectively 84 percent,
(40) 58 percent, and 33 percent of their fat
stores during lactation. By comparison,
harbor seals use 80 percent of their fat
stores in just the first 19 days of lactation,
even though they occasionally feed during
(45) this period. Since such a large proportion
of their fat stores is exhausted despite

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feeding, mother harbor seals clearly cannot

support all of lactation using only energy
stored before giving birth. Though smaller
(50) than many other phocids, harbor seals are
similar in size to most otariids. In addition,
there is already some evidence suggesting
that the ringed seal, a phocid species that
is similar in size to the harbor seal, may
also use a maternal foraging strategy.

Question #202.

It can be inferred from the passage that the females of all phocid species differ from the females of
all otariid species in that the female phocids

A. have shorter lactation periods

B. consume more food during lactation
C. consume a higher proportion of fat stores
D. forage for food occasionally during their lactation periods
E. deplete a smaller percentage of their fat stores during their lactation periods

Question #203.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. present evidence that several phocid species use the maternal fasting strategy
B. explain why the maternal strategy typically used by phocids is different from the maternal
strategy used by otariids
C. argue that zoologists’ current understanding of harbor seals’ maternal strategy is incorrect
D. describe an unexpected behavior observed in harbor seals and propose an explanation that may
account for that behavior
E. describe evidence concerning the maternal strategy of the harbor seal and suggest that the harbor
seal belongs to the otariid rather than to the phocid family

Question #204.

According to the passage, until recently zoologists believed which of the following about all phocid
mothers?

A. Their fasting periods after giving birth were typically shorter than those of otariids.
B. Their lactation periods were generally as long as those of comparably sized otariids.
C. They acquired only moderate energy stores in the form of blubber before arriving at breeding
sites.
D. They depleted less than a third of their stored body fat during lactation.
E. The replenished their fat stores only after their lactation period ended.

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Question #205.

The author of the passage mentions ringed seals most probably in order to

A. provide an example of a phocid species that fasts throughout its entire lactation period
B. provide an example of a phocid species whose maternal strategy is typical of phocid species
C. provide an example of a phocid species that may deplete an even higher proportion of its fat
stores during lactation than harbor seals do
D. support the assertion that harbor seals are smaller than many other phocids
E. support the assertion that harbor seals’ maternal strategy may be related to their small size

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Essay #60.
Seventeenth-century
philosopher John Locke
stated that as much as
Line 99 percent of the value of
(5) any useful product can be
attributed to “the effects of
labor.” For Locke’s intellec-
tual heirs it was only a short
step to the “labor theory of
(10) value,” whose formulators
held that 100 percent of the
value of any product is gen-
erated by labor (the human
work needed to produce
(15) goods) and that therefore the
employer who appropriates
any part of the product’s
value as profit is practicing
theft.
(20) Although human effort is
required to produce goods
for the consumer market,
effort is also invested in
making capital goods (tools,
(25) machines, etc.), which are
used to facilitate the produc-
tion of consumer goods. In
modern economies about
one-third of the total output
(30) consumer goods is attribut-
able to the use of capital
goods. Approximately two-
thirds of the income derived
from this total output is paid
(35) out to workers as wages and
salaries, the remaining third
serving as compensation
to the owners of the capital
goods. Moreover, part
(40) of this remaining third is
received by workers who
are shareholders, pension
beneficiaries, and the like.
The labor theory of value
(45) systematically disregards
the productive contribution of
capital goods-- a failing for
which Locke must bear part
of the blame.

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Question #206.

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the
income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

A. Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as
a contribution to total output.
B. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the
contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
C. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of
total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
D. Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out
most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.
E. Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the
labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

Question #207.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

A. criticizing Locke’s economic theories

B. discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy
C. questioning the validity of the labor theory of value
D. arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits
E. contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods

Question #208.

Which of the following arguments would a proponent of the labor theory of value, as it is presented
in the first paragraph, be most likely to use in response to the statement that “The labor theory of
value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods” (lines 44-47)?

A. The productive contributions of workers and capital goods cannot be compared because the
productive life span of capital goods is longer than that of workers.
B. The author’s analysis of the distribution of income is misleading because only a small percentage
of workers are also shareholders.
C. Capital goods are valuable only insofar as they contribute directly to the production of consumer
goods.
D. The productive contribution of capital goods must be discounted because capital goods require
maintenance.
E. The productive contribution of capital goods must be attributed to labor because capital goods
are themselves products of labor.

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Essay #61.
In her account of unmarried
women’s experiences in colonial
Philadelphia, Wulf argues that edu-
Line cated young women, particularly
(5) Quakers, engaged in resistance to
patriarchal marriage by exchanging
poetry critical of marriage, copying
verse into their commonplace
books. Wulf suggests that this
(10) critique circulated beyond the
daughters of the Quaker elite
and middle class, whose com-
monplace books she mines,
proposing that Quaker shools
(15) brought it to many poor female
students of diverse backgrounds.
Here Wulf probably overstates
Quaker schools’ impact. At least
three years’ study would be
(20) necessary to achieve the literacy
competence necessary to grapple
with the material she analyzes.
In 1765, the year Wulf uses to
demonstrate the diversity of
(25) Philadelphia’s Quaker schools,
128 students enrolled in these
schools. Refining Wulf’s numbers
by the information she provides
on religious affiliation, gender, and
(30) length of study, it appears that only
about 17 poor non-quaker girls
were educated in Philadelphia’s
Quaker schools for three years or
longer. While Wulf is correct that
(35) a critique of patriarchal marriage
circulated broadly, Quaker schools
probably cannot be credited with
instilling these ideas in the lower
classes. Popular literary satires
(40) on marriage had already landed
on fertile ground in a multiethnic
population that embodied a wide
range of marital beliefs and
practices. These ethnic- and
(45) class-based traditions them-
selves challenged the legitimacy
of patriarchal marriage.

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Question #209.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. argue against one aspect of Wulf’s account of how ideas critical of marriage were disseminated
among young women in colonial Philadelphia
B. discuss Wulf’s interpretation of the significance for educated young women in colonial
Philadelphia of the poetry they copied into their commonplace books
C. counter Wulf’s assertions about the impact of the multiethnic character of colonial Philadelphia’s
population on the prevalent views about marriage
D. present data to undermine Wulf’s assessment of the diversity of the student body in Quaker
schools in colonial Philadelphia
E. challenge Wulf’s conclusion that a critique of marriage was prevalent among young women of all
social classes in colonial Philadelphia

Question #210.

According to the passage, which of the following was true of attitudes toward marriage in colonial
Philadelphia?

A. Exemplars of a critique of marriage could be found in various literary forms, but they did not
impact public attitudes except among educated young women.
B. The diversity of the student body in the Quaker schools meant that attitudes toward marriage
were more disparate there than elsewhere in Philadelphia society.
C. Although critical attitudes toward marriage were widespread, Quaker schools’ influence in
disseminating these attitudes was limited.
D. Criticisms of marriage in colonial Philadelphia were directed at only certain limited aspects of
patriarchal marriage.
E. The influence of the wide range of marital beliefs and practices present in Philadelphia’s
multiethnic population can be detected in the poetry that educated young women copied in their
commonplace books.

Question #211.

The author of the passage implies which of the following about the poetry mentioned in the first
paragraph?

A. Wulf exaggerates the degree to which young women from an elite background regarded the
poetry as providing a critique of marriage.
B. The circulation of the poetry was confined to young Quaker women.
C. Young women copied the poetry into their commonplace books because they interpreted it as
providing a desirable model of unmarried life.
D. The poetry’s capacity to influence popular attitudes was restricted by the degree of literacy
necessary to comprehend it.
E. The poetry celebrated marital beliefs and practices that were in opposition to patriarchal
marriage.

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Question #212.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the author’s basis for saying that
Wulf overstates Quaker schools’ impact (line 17-18)?

A. The information that Wulf herself provided on religious affiliation and gender of students is in fact
accurate.
B. Most poor, non-Quaker students enrolled in Quaker schools had completed one or two years’
formal or informal schooling before enrolling.
C. Not all of the young women whose commonplace books contained copies of poetry critical of
marriage were Quakers.
D. The poetry featured in young women’s commonplace books frequently included allusions that
were unlikely to be accessible to someone with only three years’ study in school.
E. In 1765 an unusually large proportion of the Quaker schools’ student body consisted of poor girls
from non-Quaker backgrounds.

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Essay #62.
Extensive research has shown
that the effects of short-term price
promotions on sales are themselves
Line short-term. Companies’ hopes that
(5) promotions might have a positive
aftereffect have not been borne
out for reasons that researchers
have been able to identify. A price
promotion entices only a brand’s
(10) long-term or “loyal” customers;
people seldom buy an unfamiliar
brand merely because the price is reduced. They simply avoid paying
more than they have to when one of
(15) their customary brands is temporarily
available at a reduced price. A
price promotion does not increase
the number of long-term customers
of a brand, as it attracts virtually
(20) no new customers in the first place.
Nor do price promotions have lingering
aftereffects for a brand, even
negative ones such as damage to
a brand’s reputation or erosion of
(25) customer loyalty, as is often feared.
So why do companies spend so
much on price promotions? Clearly
price promotions are generally run
at a loss, otherwise there would
(30) be more of them. And the bigger
the increase in sales at promotion
prices, the bigger the loss. While
short-term price promotions can
have legitimate uses, such as
(35) reducing excess inventory, it is the
recognizable increase in sales that
is their main attraction to management,
which is therefore reluctant
to abandon this strategy despite
its effect on the bottom line.

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Question #213.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. compare the arguments in favor of a certain strategy with those against it

B. attack a certain strategy by enumerating its negative consequences
C. justify the use of a certain strategy in light of certain criticisms that have been made against it
D. advocate a particular strategy by arguing against an alternative
E. explain the effects of a certain strategy and the primary motivations for adopting it

Question #214.

According to the passage, which of the following is the reason why short-term price promotions do
not attract new long-term customers to a brand?

A. Short-term price promotions do not produce an increase in sales.

B. Customers come to regard the promotional price as the fair price and the regular price as
excessive.
C. Most customers select among competing products largely on the basis of price and very few are
loyal to any particular brand.
D. Customers who have not previously bought the promoted brand are almost never persuaded to
do so by the short-term price promotions.
E. Any customers that a brand gains by means of a short-term price promotion are liable to be lost
when a competing brand has a similar promotion.

Question #215.

The passage suggests that evidence for price promotions’ “effect on the bottom line” (line 40) is
provided by

A. the lack of lingering after effects from price promotions

B. the frequency with which price promotions occur
C. price promotions’ inability to attract new customers
D. price promotions’ recognizable effect on sales
E. the legitimate uses to which management can put price promotions

Question #216.

It can be inferred from the passage that if a company ceased to run short-term price promotions for
a particular product, an effect of this change would be to

A. reduce excess inventory of the product

B. lose some of the product’s long-term customers
C. reduce the product’s overall sales
D. inhibit growth in the number of the product’s customers
E. threaten the product’s profitability

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Essay #63.
The experience of British business
in Iran between the 1860’s and the
1970’s is one example of the changing
Line importance of British enterprise in Asia
(5) as a whole. Before 1914 British business
established and dominated Iran’s
modern industrial and financial sector;
in the 1920’s this domination began to
wane; by the 1960’s British enterprise
(10) was of little importance in the Iranian
economy. While in Japan and India the
decline of British business was primarily
a function of the rise of strong indigenous
business groups, in Iran, by
(15) contrast, the government played a
large role in both challenging British
commercial interests and stimulating
locally owned enterprise. Periodic
surges of intense Iranian economic
(20) nationalism must be understood partly
as a reaction to the close relations
between British business in Iran and
the British government. In retrospect,
it is possible to see the uneasy and
(25) ambiguous nature of this relationship.
It is true that the British Imperial Bank
in Iran was never entirely a tool of the
British government, and that the Anglo-
Iranian Oil Company did not take its
(30) orders from the British government,
despite the 51 percent government
shareholding. However, the relationship
between British business and the British
government was sufficiently close that
(35) many Iranians understandably viewed
the oil company and the bank as symbols
of a British imperialist policy.

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Question #217.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. evaluate a country’s solution to a problem

B. describe differing perceptions of a historical event
C. contrast historical events in two countries
D. provide an explanation for a historical phenomenon
E. challenge an accepted explanation for a historical change

Question #218.

The passage suggests which of the following about British business in Japan and India as compared
to British business in Iran?

A. British business in Japan and India received less support from the British government than did
British business in Iran.
B. During the early twentieth century, British business played less of a role in the Japanese and
Indian economy than it did in the Iranian economy.
C. The governments of Japan and India played less of a role in the changing status of British business
than did the government of Iran.
D. The types of enterprises conducted by the British in Japan and India were significantly different
from the enterprises conducted by the British in Iran.
E. British business in Japan and India declined more gradually than did British business in Iran.

Question #219.

The author of the passage mentions the British government’s shares in the Anglo-Iranian Oil
Company most probably in order to

A. demonstrate the British enterprise in Iran was controlled by the British government
B. contrast British-run businesses in Iran with Iranian-run businesses in Iran
C. show how joint British and Iranian enterprises were encouraged by the British government
D. illustrate a point about the financial difficulties faced by British businesses in Asia
E. suggest a reason for Iranians’ perception of the role British government played in British business

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Essay #64.
More selective than most chemical
pesticides in that they ordinarily destroy
only unwanted species, biocontrol.
Line agents (such as insects, fungi, and
(5) viruses) eat, infect, or parasitize targeted
plant or animal pests. However,
biocontrol agents can negatively affect
nontarget species by, for example,
competing with them for resources: a
(10) biocontrol agent might reduce the benefits
conferred by a desirable animal
species by consuming a plant on which
the animal prefers to lay its eggs.
Another example of indirect negative.
(15) consequcnces occurred in England
when a virus introduced to control
rabbits reduced the amount of open
ground (because large rabbit populations
reduce the ground cover), in
(20) turn reducing underground ant nests
and triggering the extinction of a blue
butterfly that had depended on the
nests to shelter its offspring. The
paucity of known extinctions or disrup-
(25) tions resulting from indirect interactions
may reflect not the infrequency of such
mishaps but rather the failure to look
for or to detect them: most organisms
likely to be adversely affected by
(30) indirect interactions are of little or
no known commercial value and the
events linking a biocontrol agent with
an adverse effect are often unclear.
Moreover, determining the potential
(35) risks of biocontrol agents before they
are used is difficult, especially when a
nonnative agent is introduced, because,
unlike a chemical pesticide, a biocontrol
agent may adapt in unpredictable ways.
(40) so that it can feed on or otherwise harm
new hosts.

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Question #220.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. explaining why until recently scientists failed to recognize the risks presented by biocontrol
agents.
B. emphasizing that biocontrol agents and chemical pesticides have more similarties than
differences.
C. suggesting that only certain biocontrol agents should be used to control plant or animal pasts.
D. arguing that biocontrol agents involve risks, some of which may not be readily discerned.
E. suggesting that mishaps involving biocontroll agents are relatively commonplace.

Question #221.

The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about the use of biocontrol agents?

A. Biocontrol agent should be used only in cases where chemical pesticides have proven ineffective
or overly dangerous.
B. Extinctions and disruptions resulting from the use of biocontrol agents are likely to have
increasingly severe commercial consequences.
C. The use of biocontrol agents does not require regulation as stringent as that required by the use
of chemical pesticides.
D. The use of biocontrol agents may evenfinally supersede the use of chemical pesticides in
controlling unwanted species.
E. The risks of using native biocontrol agents may be easier to predict than the risks of using
nonnative biocontrol agents.

Question #222.

Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as an indirect effect of using a biocontrol agent?

A. Reduction of the commercial value of a desirable animal species

B. An unintended proliferation of a nontarget animal species
C. An unforeseen mutation in a target species
D. Diminution of the positive effects conferred by a nontarget animal species.
E. Competition for resources with a largest species.

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Question #223.

The example presented by the author in lines 14-23 most clearly serves to illustrate

A. a situation in which a species is less vulnerable to biocontrol agents than it would have been to
chemical pesticides.
B. a way in which the introduction of a biocontrol agent can affect a nontarget species.
C. a nonnative agent’s adapting in an unpredictable way that results in damage to a new host.
D. The contention that biocontrol agents can harm nontarget species by competing with them for
resources
E. the way in which indirect consequences from the use of biocontrol agents are most likely to
occurs.

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Essay #65.
Is it possible to decrease
inflation without causing a recession
and its concomitant increase
line in unemployment? The orthodox
(5) answer is “no.” whether they
support the “inertia” theory of
inflation (that today’s inflation rate
is caused by yesterday’s inflation,
the state of the economic
(10) cycle, and external influences
such as import prices) or the
“rational expectations” theory
(that inflation is caused by
workers’ and employers’ expec-
(15) tations, coupled with a lack of
credible monetary and fiscal
policies), most economists
agree that tight monetary and
fiscal policies, which cause
(20) recessions, are necessary to decelerate inflation.
They point out that in the 1980’s, many
European countries and the
United States conquered high
(25) (by these countries’ standards)
inflation, but only by applying tight
monetary and fiscal policies that
sharply increased unemployment.
Nevertheless, some govern-
(30) ments’ policymakers insist that
direct controls on wages and
prices, without tight monetary and
fiscal policies, can succeed in
decreasing inflation. Unfortu-
(35) nately, because this approach
fails to deal with the underlying
causes of inflation, wage and
price controls eventually collapse,
the hitherto-repressed
(40) inflation resurfaces, and in the
meantime, though the policymakers
succeed in avoiding a
recession, a frozen structure of
relative prices imposes distor-
(45) tions that do damage to the
economy’s prospects for longterm
growth.

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Question #224.

The passage suggests that the high inflation in the United States and many European countries in the
1980’s differed from inflation elsewhere in which of the following ways?

A. It fit the rational expectations theory of inflation but not the inertia theory of inflation.
B. It was possible to control without causing a recession.
C. It was easier to control in those countries by applying tight monetary and fiscal policies than it
would have been elsewhere.
D. It was not caused by workers’ and employers’ expectations.
E. It would not necessarily be considered high elsewhere.

Question #225.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen The author’s conclusion about the use of
wage and price controls?

A. Countries that repeatedly use wage and price controls tend to have lower long-term economic
growth rates than do other countries.
B. Countries that have extremely high inflation frequently place very stringent controls on wages
and prices in an attempt to decrease the inflation.
C. Some countries have found that the use of wage and price controls succeeds in decreasing
inflation but also causes a recession.
D. Policymakers who advocate the use of wage and price controls believe that these controls will
deal with the underlying causes of inflation.
E. Policymakers who advocate the use o wage and price controls are usually more concerned about
long-term economic goals than about short-term economic goals

Question #226.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. apply two conventional theories.

B examine a generally accepted position
C. support a controversial policy
D. explain the underlying causes of a phenomenon
E. propose an innovative solution

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Essay #66.
In a 1918 editorial, W.E.B. Du Bois
advised African Americans to stop
agitating for equality and to proclaim
Line their solidarity with White Americans
(5) for the duration of the First World War.
The editorial surprised many African
Americans who viewed Du Bois as
an uncompromising African American
leader and a chief opponent of the
(10) accommodationist tactics urged by
Booker, T.Washington. In fact,
however, Du Bois often shifted positions
along the continuum between
Washington and confrontationists
(15) such as William Trotter. In 1895,
when Washington called on African
Americans to concentrate on improving
their communities instead of opposing
discrimination and agitating for
(20) political rights, Du Bois praised
Washington’s speech. In 1903,
however, Du Bois aligned himself
with Trotter, Washington’s militant
opponent, less for ideological reasons
(25) than because Trotter had described
to him Washington’s efforts to silence
those in the African American press
who opposed Washington’s positions.
(30) reflected not a change in his long-term
goals but rather a pragmatic response
in the face of social pressure:
government officials had threatened
African American journalists with
(35) censorship if they continued to voice
grievances. Furthermore, Du Bois
believed that African Americans’
contributions to past war efforts had
brought them some legal and political
(40) advances. Du Bois’ accommodationism
did not last, however. Upon
learning of systematic discrimination
experienced by African Americans
in the military, he called on them to
“return fighting” from the war.

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Question #227.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the strategy that Du Bois’ 1918 editorial
urged African Americans to adopt during the First World War?

A. It was a strategy that Du Bois had consistently rejected in the past.

B. It represented a compromise between Du Bois’ own views and those of Trotter.
C. It represented a significant redefinition of the long-term goals Du Bois held prior to the war.
D. It was advocated by Du Bois in response to his recognition of the discrimination faced by African
Americans during the war.
E. It was advocated by Du Bois in part because of his historical knowledge of gains African Americans
had made during past wars.

Question #228.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. identifying historical circumstances that led Du Bois to alter his long-term goals.
B. defining “accommodationism” and showing how Du Bois used this strategy to achieve certain
goals
C. accounting for a particular position adopted by Du Bois during the First World War.
D. contesting the view that Du Bois was significantly influenced by either Washington or Trotter.
E. assessing the effectiveness of a strategy that Du Bois urged African Americans to adopt.

Question #229.

The passage indicates which of the following about Du Bois’ attitude toward Washington?

A. It underwent a shift during the First World War as Du Bois became more sympathetic with
Trotter’s views.
B. It underwent a shift in 1903 for reasons Other than Du Bois’ disagreement with Washington’s
accommodationist views.
C. It underwent a shift as Du Bois made a long-term commitment to the strategy of accommodation.
D. It remained consistently positive even Though Du Bois disagreed with Washington’s efforts to
control the African American press.
E. It was shaped primarily by Du Bois’ appreciation of Washington’s pragmatic approach to the
advancement of the interests of African Americans.

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Essay #67.
In most earthquakes the Earth’s
crust cracks like porcelain, Stress
builds up until a fracture forms at a
line depth of a few kilometers and the crust
(5) slips to relieve the stress. Some
earthquakes, however, take place hundreds
of kilometers down in the Earth’s
mantle, where high pressure makes
rock so ductile that it flows instead of
(10) cracking, even under stress severe
enough to deform it like putty. How can there be earthquakes at such depths?
That such deep events do occur
has been accepted only since 1927.
(15) when the seismologist Kiyoo Wadati
convincingly demonstrated their existence.
Instead of comparing the arrival
times of seismic waves at different
locations, as earlier researchers had
(20) done, Wadati relied on a time difference
between the arrival of primary(P)
waves and the slower secondary(S)
waves. Because P and S waves
travel at different but fairly constant
(25) speeds, the interval between their
arrivals increases in proportion to the
distance from the earthquake focus,
or initial rupture point.
For most earthquakes, wadati dis-
(30) covered, the interval was quite short
near the epicenter; the point on the surface
where shaking is strongest. For
a few events, however, the delay was
long even at the epicenter. Wadati saw
(35) a similar pattern when he analyzed data
on the intensity of shaking. Most earthquakes
had a small area of intense
shaking, which weakened rapidly with
increasing distance from the epicenter.
(40) but others were characterized by a
lower peak intensity, felt over a
broader area. Both the P-S intervals
and the intensity patterns suggested
two kinds of earthquakes: the more
(45) common shallow events, in which the
focus lay just under the epicenter, and
deep events, with a focus several

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hundred kilometers down.

The question remained: how can
(50) such quakes occur, given that mantle
rock at a depth of more than 50 kilometers
is too ductile to store enough
stress to fracture? Wadati’s work suggested
that deep events occur in areas
(55) (now called Wadati-Benioff zones)
where one crustal plate is forced under
another and descends into the mantle.
The descending rock is substantially
cooler than the surrounding mantle and
(60) hence is less ductile and much more
liable to fracture.

Question #230.

The author’s explanation of how deep events occur would be most weakened if which of the
following were discovered to be true?

A. Deep events are far less common than shallow events.

B. Deep events occur in places other than where crustal plates meet.
C. Mantle rock is more ductile at a depth of several hundred kilometers than it is at 50 kilometers.
D. The speeds of both P and S waves are slightly greater than previously thought.
E. Below 650 kilometers earthquakes cease to occur.

Question #231.

Information presented in the passage suggests that, compared with seismic activity at the epicenter
of a shallow event, seismic activity at the epicenter of a deep event is characterized by

A. shorter P-S intervals and higher peak intensity

B. shorter P-S intervals and lower peak intensity
C. longer P-S intervals and similar peak intensity
D. longer P-S intervals and higher peak intensity
E. longer P-S intervals and lower peak intensity.

Question #232.

The passage supports which of the following Statements about the relationship between the
epicenter and the focus of an earthquake?

A. P waves originate at the focus and S waves originate at the epicenter.

B. In deep events the epicenter and the focus are reversed.
C. In shallow events the epicenter and the focus coincide
D. In both deep and shallow events the Focus lies beneath the epicenter
E. The epicenter is in the crust, whereas the focus is in the mantle.

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Question #233.

The passage suggests that which of the following must take place in order for any earthquake to
occur?

1.Stress must build up.

2.Cool rock must descend into the mantle.
3.A fracture must occur

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
E. 1, 2, and 3

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Essay #68.
Grassland songbirds often nest in
the same grassland-wetland complexes
as waterfowl, particularly in a certain
Line part of those complexes, namely,
(5) upland habitats surrounding wetlands.
Although some wildlife management
procedures directed at waterfowl, such
as habitat enhancement or restoration,
may also benefit songbirds , the impact
(10) of others, especially the control of
waterfowl predators, remains difficult to
predict. For example, most predators
of waterfowl nests prey opportunistically
on songbird nests, and removing
(15) these predators could directly increase
songbird nesting success. Alternatively,
small mammals such as mice
and ground squirrels are important
in the diet of many waterfowl-nest
(20) predators and can themselves be
important predators of songbird
nets. Thus. Removing waterfowl-nest
predators could affect songbird nesting
success through subsequent increases
(25) in small-mammal populations.
In 1995 and 1996, researchers
trapped and removed certain waterfowlnest
predators. primary raccoons and
striped skunks, then observed subse-
(30) quent survival rates for songbird nests.
Surprisingly. They observed no significant
effect on songbird nesting
success. This may be due to several
factors. Neither raccoons nor striped
(35) skunks consume ground squirrels,
which are important predators of songbird
nests. Thus, their removal may
not have led to significant increases
in populations of smaller predators.
(40) Additionally, both raccoons and striped
skunks prefer wetlands and spend little
time in upland habitats; removing these
species may not have increased the
nesting success of songbirds in the
uplands enough to allow detection.

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Question #234.

NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question.
According to the passage, which of the following is true about the role played by ground squirrels in
the ecology of grassland-wetland complexes?

A. While not important in the diet of raccoons or striped skunks, ground squirrels are a significant
source of food for other waterfowl-nest predators.
B. Whereas ground squirrels are typically important as predators of songbird nests, their
opportunistic predation on waterfowl nests also has an observable effect on waterfowl nesting
success.
C. Although most waterfowl-nest predators prey on small mammals such as mice and ground
squirrels, populations of ground squirrels tend to increase quickly enough to compensate for this
level of predation.
D. Although ground squirrels have been known to prey on songbird nests, a larger portion of their
diets is usually provided by predation on waterfowl nests.
E. Since larger predators tend to prefer small mammals to songbird eggs as a food source, a large
population of ground squirrels plays an important role in controlling opportunistic predation on
songbird nests.

Question #235.

Which of the following best describes the function of the sentence “Neither raccoons…songbird
nests” (lines 34-37) in the context of the passage as a whole?

A. It raises questions about the validity of a theory described in the first paragraph.
B. It points out an oversimplification that is inherent in the argument presented in the first
paragraph.
C. It introduces information that may help explain the results of the experiment that are presented
earlier in the paragraph.
D. It provides a specific example of the type of data collected in the experiment described earlier in
the paragraph.
E. It anticipates a potential objection to the conclusions drawn by the researchers involved in the
experiment described earlier in the paragraph.

Question #236.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe some procedures used for wildlife management and consider some problems associated
with the execution of those procedures
B. outline a problem related to a wildlife management procedure and offer potential explanations
for the results of an experiment bearing on that problem
C. present experimental results that illustrate the need for certain wildlife management procedures
and point out some inconsistencies in those results
D. argue that a certain procedure used for wildlife management should be modified because of its
unintended consequences
E. propose that further experiments be performed to assess the long-term effects of certain wildlife
management procedures

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Essay #69.
In mid-February 1917 a
women’s movement independent
of political affiliation erupted in
Line New York City, the stronghold of
(5) the Socialist party in the United
states. Protesting against the high
cost of living, thousands of women
refused to buy chickens, fish, and
vegetables. The boycott shut.
(10) down much of the City’s foodstuffs
marketing for two weeks, riveting
public attention on the issue of
food prices, which had increased
partly as a result of increased
(15) exports of food to Europe that had
been occurring since the outbreak
of the First World War.
By early 1917 the Socialist
party had established itself as a
(20) major political presence in New
York City. New York Socialists,
whose customary spheres of
struggle were electoral work and
trade union organizing, seized the
(25) opportunity and quickly organized
an extensive series of cost-ofliving
protests designed to direct
the women’s movement toward
Socialist goals. Underneath the
(30) Socialists’ brief commitment to
cost-of-living organizing lay a
basic indifference to the issue
itself. While some Socialists did
view price protests as a direct
(35) step toward socialism, most
Socialists ultimately sought to
divert the cost-of-living movement
into alternative channels of protest.
Union organizing, they argued,
(40) was the best method through which
to combat the high cost of living.
For others, cost-of-living or oganizing
was valuable insofar as it led
women into the struggle for suf-
(45) frage, and similarly, the suffrage
struggle was valuable insofar as
it moved United States society

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one step closer to socialism.

Although New York’s Social-
(50) ists saw the cost-of-living issue
as, at best ,secondary or tertiary
to the real task at hand, the boycotters,
by sharp contrast, joined
the price protest movement out of
(55) an urgent and deeply felt commitment
to the cost-of-living issue.
A shared experience of swiftly
declining living standards caused
by rising food prices drove these
(60) women to protest. Consumer
organizing spoke directly to their
daily lives and concerns; they
saw cheaper food as a valuable
end in itself. Food price protests
(65) were these women’s way of organizing
at their own workplace, as
workers whose occupation was
shopping and preparing food for
their families.

Question #237.

The author suggests which of the following about the New York Socialists’ commitment to the cost
of-living movement?

A. It lasted for a relatively short period of time.

B. It was stronger than their commitment to the Suffrage struggle.
C. It predated the cost-of-living protests that Erupted in 1917.
D. It coincided with their attempts to bring more Women into union organizing.
E. It explained the popularity of the Socialist party in New York City.

Question #238.

It can be inferred from the passage that the goal of the boycotting women was the

A. achievement of an immediate economic outcome

B. development of a more socialistic society
C. concentration of widespread consumer protests on the more narrow issue of food prices
D. development of one among a number of different approaches that the women wished to employ
in combating the high cost of living.
E. attraction of more public interest to issues that the women and the New York Socialists
considered important.

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Question #239.

Which of the following best states the function of the passage as a whole?

A. To contrast the views held by the Socialist party and by the boycotting women of New York City
on the cost-of-living issue
B. To analyze the assumptions underlying opposing viewpoints within the New York Socialist party of
1917
C. To provide a historical perspective on different approaches to the resolution of the cost-of living
issue.
D. To chronicle the sequence of events that led to the New York Socialist party’s emergence as a
political power
E. To analyze the motivations behind the Socialist party’s involvement in the women’s suffrage
movement.

Question #240.

According to the passage, most New York Socialists believed which of the following about
the cost-of-living movement?

A. It was primarily a way to interest women in joining the Socialist party.

B. It was an expedient that was useful only insofar as it furthered other goals.
C. It would indirectly result in an increase in the number of women who belonged to labor unions.
D. It required a long-term commitment but Inevitably represented a direct step Toward socialism.
E. It served as an effective complement to union organizing.

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Essay #70.
There is no consensus among
researchers regarding what qualifies a
substance as a pheromone. While most
Line agree on a basic definition of pheromones
(5) as chemicals released by one individual
of a species which, when detected by
another individual of the same species,
elicit a specific behavioral or physiological
response, some researchers also specify
(10) that the response to pheromones must be
unconscious. In addition, the distinction
between pheromones and odorants—
chemicals that are consciously detected
as odors---can be blurry, and some
(15) researchers classify pheromones as a
type of odorant. Evidence that pheromone
responses may not involve conscious odor
perception comes from the finding that in
many species, pheromones are processed
(20) by the vomeronasal (or accessory olfactory)
system, which uses a special structure in
the nose, the vomeronasal organ (VNO),
to receive chemical signals. The neural
connections between the VNO and the
(25) brain are separate from those of the main
olfactory system, whose processing of
odorants triggers sensations of smell. But
while the VNO does process many animal
pheromone signals, not all animal phero-
(30) mones work through the VNO. Conversely,
not all chemical signals transmitted via the
VNO quality as pheromones. For example,
garter snakes detect a chemical signal from
earthworms—one of their favorite foods—via
(35) the VNO, and they use this signal to track
their prey.

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Question #241.

It can be inferred from the passage that in classifying pheromones as a type of odorant, the
researchers referred to in line 15 posit that

A. pheromones are perceived consciously

B. most pheromones are processed by the VNO
C. most chemical signals processed by the VNO are pheromones
D. Pheromone perception does not occur exclusively between members of the same species.
E. pheromones do not always elicit a specific behavioral or physiological response

Question #242.

According to the passage, the fact that pheromones are processed by the VNO in many animal
species has been taken as evidence of which of the following?

A. The accessory and main olfacTory systems are not separate

B. Odorants and pheromones are not distinct types of chemicals.
C. Odorants and pheromones both elicit a specific behavioral response.
D. Pheromones do not trigger conscious sensations of smell.
E. Pheromones aid animals in tracking prey.

Question #243.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. compare and contrast the ways in which the vomeronasal organ and the main olfactory systern
process chemicals.
B. summarize the debate over the role the vomeronasal organ plays in odor perception
C. present some of the issues involved in the debate over what constitutes a pheromone
D. propose a new definition of pheromones based on recent research
E. argue that pheromones should be classified as a type of odorant

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Essay #71.
Although recent censure of corporate
boards of directors as “passive” and
“supine” may be excessive, those who
Line criticize board performance have plenty
(5) of substantive ammunition. Too many
corporate boards fail in their two crucial
responsibilities of overseeing long-term
company strategy and of selecting.
evaluating, and determining appropriate.
(10) compensation of top management. At
times, despite disappointing corporate
performance, compensation of chief
executive officers reaches indefensibly
high levels, Nevertheless, suggestions
(15) that the government should legislate board
reform are premature. There are ample
opportunities for boards themselves to
improve corporate performance.
Most corporate boards’ compensation
(20) committees focus primarily on peer-group
comparisons. They are content if the pay
of top executives approximates that of
the executives of competing firms with
comparable short-term earnings or even
(25) that of executives of competing firms of
comparable size. However, mimicking the
compensation policy of competitors for the
sake of parity means neglecting the value
of compensation as a means of stressing
(30) long-term performance. By tacitly detaching
executive compensation policy from
long-term performance, committees harm
their companies and the economy as a
whole. The committees must develop
(35) incentive compensation policies to emphasize
long-term performance. For example
a board’s compensation committee can, by
carefully proportioning straight salary and
such short-term and long-term incentives
(40) as stock options, encourage top management
to pursue a responsible strategy.

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Question #244.

According to the passage, the majority of compensation committees put the greatest emphasis on
which of the following when determining compensation for their executives?

A. Long-term corporate performance

B. The threat of government regulation
C. Salaries paid to executives of comparable corporations
D. The probable effect the determination will have on competitors
E. The probable effect the economic climate will have on the company

Question #245.

The passage suggests which of the following about government legislation requiring that corporate
boards undergo reform?

A. Such legislation is likely to discourage candidates from joining corporate boards.

B. Such legislation is likely to lead to reduced competition among companies.
C. The performance of individual companies would be affected by such legislation to a greater extent
than would the economy as a whole.
D Such legislation would duplicate initiatives already being made by corporate boards to improve
their own performance.
E Corporate boards themselves could act to make such legislation unnecessary.

Question #246.

Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. A problem is acknowledged, the causes are explored, and a solution is offered.

B. A question is raised, opposing points of view are evaluated, and several alternative answers are
discussed.
C. A means of dealing with a problem is proposed, and the manner in which a solution was reached
is explained.
D. A plan of action is advanced, and the probable outcomes of that plan are discussed.
E. Two competing theories are described and then reconciled.

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Essay #72.
In colonial Connecticut between
1670 and 1719, women participated
in one of every six civil cases, the
Line vast majority of which were debt-
(5) related. Women’s participation
dropped to one in ten cases after
1719, and to one in twenty by the
1770’s. however, as Cornelia
Hughes Dayton notes in Women
(10) Before the Bar: Gender, Law,
and Society in Connecticut,
1639-1789, these statistics are
somewhat deceptive: in fact,
both the absolute numbers and
(15) the percentage of adult women
participating in civil cases grew
steadily throughout the eighteenth
century, but the legal activity of
men also increased dramatically,
(20) and at a much faster rate. Single,
married, and widowed women
continued to pursue their own and
their husbands’ debtors through
legal action much as they had
(25) done in the previous century, but
despite this continuity, their place
in the legal system shifted
dramatically. Men’s commercial
interests and credit networks
(30) became increasingly far-flung,
owing in part to the ability of
creditors to buy and sell promissory
notes (legal promises to
pay debts). At the same time,
(35) women’s networks of credit and
debt remained primarily local and
personal. Dayton contends that,
although still performing crucial
economic services in their
(40) communities—services that
contributed to the commercialization
of the colonial economy—women
remained for the most part outside
the new economic and legal culture
of the eighteenth century.

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Question #247.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. reporting an author’s view of a phenomenon

B. disputing the reasons usually given for an unexpected change
C. evaluating the conclusions reached by an author
D. assessing the impact of certain legal decisions.
E. defending a controversial point of view

Question #248.

According to the passage, compared with women in eighteenth-century Connecticut, men were

A. more likely to rely on credit and go into debt

B. more likely to pursue their families’ debtors
C. more likely to participate in economic transactions outside their own communities
D. less likely to perform economic services in their own communities.
E. less likely to participate in civil cases that were not debt-related.

Question #249.

The passage suggests that which of the following best compares the economic concerns of women
with those of men toward the close of the eighteenth Century in colonial Connecticut?

A. Both men and women had more economic responsibilities at the end of the century than they
had had at the beginning of the century.
B. Women’s economic activities had become less varied by the end of the century; men’s economic
activities had become more varied.
C. Women’s economic activities at the end of the century were similar to their activities at the
beginning; men’s economic activities changed considerably.
D. Women’s economic concerns at the end of the century were primarily familial; men’s economic
concerns were primarily political.
E. Women’s economic concerns at the end of the century were primarily personal; men’s economic
needs were primarily familial.

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Essay #73.
In 1975 Chinese survey teams
remeasured Mount Everest, the highest
of the Himalayan mountains. Like the
Line British in 1852, they used the age-old
(5) technique of “carrying in” sea level:
surveyors marched inland from the
coast for thousands of miles, stopping
at increments of as little as a few feet
to measure their elevation, and mark-
(10) ing each increment with two poles.
To measure the difference in elevation
between poles, surveyors used an
optical level—a telescope on a level
base—placed halfway between the
(15) poles. They sighted each pole, reading
off measurements that were then
used to calculate the change in elevation
over each increment. In sight of
the peaks the used theodolites—
(20) telescopes for measuring vertical and
horizontal angles—to determine the
elevation of the summit.
The Chinese, however, made
efforts to correct for the errors that
(25) had plagued the British. One source
of error is refraction, the bending of
light beams as they pass through air
layers of different temperature and
pressure. Because light traveling.
(30) down from a summit passes through
many such layers, a surveyor could
sight a mirage rather than the peak
itself. To reduce refraction errors, the
Chinese team carried in sea level to
(35) within five to twelve miles of Everest’s
summit, decreasing the amount of air
that light passed through on its way to
their theodolites. The Chinese also
launched weather balloons near their
(40) theodolites to measure atmospheric
temperature and pressure changes
to better estimate refraction errors.
Another hurdle is the peak’s shape.
When surveyors sight the summit.
(45) there is a risk they might not all
measure the same point. In 1975

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the Chinese installed the first survey

beacon on Everest, a red reflector
visible through a theodolite for ten
(50) miles, as a reference point. One
more source of error is the unevenness
of sea level. The British
assumed that carrying in sea level
would extend an imaginary line from
(55) the shore along Earth’s curve to a
point beneath the Himalaya. In
reality, sea level varies according
to the irregular interior of the planet.
The Chinese used a gravity meter to
correct for local deviations in sea level.

Question #250.

It can be inferred from the passage that refraction would be most likely to cause errors in
measurements of a mountain’s elevation under which of the following conditions?

A. When there are local variations in sea level

B. When light passes through humid air
C. When theodolites are used relatively far from the mountain peak.
D. When weather balloons indicate low air temperature and pressure.
E. When sea level has been carried in to Within five to twelve miles of the summit.

Question #251.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the sentence in lines 23-25 (“The Chinese…the
British”)?

A. Introduce a definition
B. Signal a transition in focus
C. Summarize the preceding paragraph
D. Draw a contrast between two different theories.
E. Present information that contradicts the Preceding paragraph.

Question #252.

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a possible source of error in surveying mountain
elevation?

A. Mirages
B. Refraction
C. Inaccurate instruments
D. Variations in sea level
E. Uncertainty about the exact point to be Measured

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Question #253.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. provide details about improvements to a process

B. challenge the assumptions underlying a new method
C. criticize the way in which a failed project was carried out
D. call for new methods to solve an existing problem
E. explain the theory behind a new technique

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Essay #74.
Astronomers theorize that a black
hole forms when a massive object
shrinks catastrophically under its own
Line gravity, leaving only a gravitational
(5)field so strong that nothing escapes it.
Astronomers must infer the existence
of black holes, which are invisible,
from their gravitational influence on
the visible bodies surrounding them.
(10)For example, observations indicate
that gas clouds in galaxy M87 are
whirling unusually fast about the galaxy’s
center. Most astronomers
believe that the large concentration
(15)of mass at the galaxy’s center is a
black hole whose gravity is causing
the gas to whirl. A few skeptics have
argued that the concentration of mass
necessary to explain the speed of the
(20)whirling gas is not necessarily a black
hole: the concentration in M87 might
be a cluster of a billion or so dim stars.
The same hypothesis might have
been applied to the galaxy NGC 4258,
(25)but the notion of such a cluster’s
existing in NGC 4258 was severely
undermined when astronomers measured
the speed of a ring of dust and
gas rotating close to the galaxy’s
(30)center. From its speed, they calculated
that the core’s density is more
than 40 times the density estimated
for any other galaxy. If the center of
NGC 4258 were a star cluster, the
(35)stars would be so closely spaced
that collisions between individual
stars would have long ago torn the
cluster apart.

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Question #254.

The skeptics mentioned in the first paragraph would be most likely to agree with the astronomers
mentioned in line 13 about which of the following statements concerning the galaxy M87?

A. The speed of the gas whirling around the center of M87 is caused by a dense object that is not a
black hole.
B. The concentration of mass at the center of M87 is probably a large cluster of dim stars.
C. The presence of a black hole at the center of M87 is the most likely explanation for the speed of
the gas whirling about the galaxy’s core.
D. The speed of the gas whirling around the center of M87 is caused by a large concentration of
mass at the core of M87.
E. The gravitational influence of a star cluster would not be strong enough to account for the speed
of the gas whirling around the core of M87.

Question #255.

The passage asserts which of the following about the existence of black holes?

A. Astronomers first speculated about the existence of black holes when they observed gas whirling
around the center of a particular galaxy.
B. Evidence used to argue for the existence of black holes is indirect, coming from their presumed
effects on other astronomical bodies.
C. Recent observations of certain astronomical bodies have offered proof.
D. A considerable body of evidence suggests the existence of black holes, even though their behavior
is not completely consistent with the laws of physics.
E. Many astronomers are skeptical about certain recent evidence that has been used to argue for the
existence of black holes.

Question #256.

Which of the following, if true, would most clearly undermine the possible explanation for the
whirling gas in M87 that is mentioned in the last sentence of the first paragraph?

A. The stars in a star cluster at the center of M87 could exert a strong gravitational force without
tearing the cluster apart.
B. A cluster of stars at the center would preclude the existence of certain other astronomical
phenomena that have been observed at the center of M87.
C. The stars within many existing galaxies, such as NGC 4258, are more closely spaced than are the
stars within the core of M87.
D. Only one other galaxy has been observed to contain gas clouds whirling about its center as they
do about the core of M87.
E. The gravitational force of a cluster of a billion or so dim stars would be sufficient to cause a
whirling ring of gas and dust to collect around the center of a galaxy.

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Essay #75.
When the history of women
began to receive focused attention
in the 1970’, Eleanor Roosevelt
Line was one of a handful of female
(5) Americans who were well known
to both historians and the general
public. Despite the evidence that
she had been important in socialreform
circles before her husband
(10) was elected President and that
she continued to advocate different
causes than he did, she held
a place in the public imagination
largely because she was the wife
(15) of a particularly influential President.
Her own activities were
seen as preparing the way for her
husband’s election or as a complement
to his programs. Even
(20) Joseph Lash’s two volumes of
Sympathetic biography, Eleanor and
Franklin (1971) and Eleanor: The
Years Alone (1972), reflected this
assumption.
(25) Lash’s biography revealed a
Complicated woman who sought
Through political activity both to
flee inner misery and to promote
causes in which she passionately
(30) believed. However, she still
appeared to be an idiosyncratic
figure, somehow self-generated
not amenable to any generalized
explanation. She emerged from
(35) the biography as a mother to the
entire nation, or as a busybody.
but hardly as a social type, a
figure comprehensible in terms
of broader social developments.
(40) But more recent work on the
feminism of the post-suffrage
years (following 1920) allows us
to see Roosevelt in a different
light and to bring her life into a
(45) more richly detailed context. Lois
Scharf’s Eleanor Roosevelt, written

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In 1987, depicts a generation of

Privileged women, born in the late
Nineteenth century and maturing
(50) in the twentieth, who made the
transition from old patterns of
female association to new ones.
Their views and their lives were full
Of contradictions. They maintained
(55) female social networks but began
to integrate women into mainstream
politics; they demanded equal
treatment but also argued that
women’s maternal responsibilities
(60) made them both wards and representatives
of the public interest.
Thanks to Scharf and others,
Roosevelt’s activities—for example,
her support both for labor laws
(65) protecting women and for appointments
of women to high public
office—have become intelligible in
terms of this social context rather
than as the idiosyncratic career of
a famous man’s wife.

Question #257.

The passage as a whole is primarily concerned with which of the following?

A. Changes in the way in which Eleanor Roosevelt’s life is understood

B. Social changes that made possible the role Played by Eleanor Roosevelt in social reform
C. Changes in the ways in which historians have viewed the lives of American women
D. Social changes that resulted from the activities of Eleanor Roosevelt
E. Changes in the social roles that American women have played

Question #258.

The author indicates that, according to Scharf’s biography, which of the following was NOT
characteristic of feminists of Eleanor Roosevelt’s generation?

A. Their lives were full of contradictions

B. Their policies identified them as idiosyncratic.
C. They were from privileged backgrounds.
D. They held that women had unique responsibilities.
E. They made a transition from old patterns of a association to new ones.

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Question #259.

Which of the following studies would proceed in a way most similar to the way in which, according
to the passage. Scharf’s book interprets Eleanor Roosevelt’s career?

A. An exploration of the activities of a wealthy social reformer in terms of the ideals held by the
reformer
B. A history of the leaders of a political party which explained how the conflicting aims of its
individual leaders thwarted and diverted the activities of each leader
C. An account of the legislative career of a conservative senator which showed his goals to have
been derived from a national conservative movement of which the senator was a part
D. A biography of a famous athlete which explained her high level of motivation in terms of the kind
of family in which she grew up
E. A history of the individuals who led the movement to end slavery in the United States which
attributed the movement’s success to the efforts of those exceptional individuals

Question #260.

The author cites which of the following as evidence against the public view of Eleanor Roosevelt held
in the 1970’s?

A. She had been born into a wealthy family.

B. Her political career predated the adoption of women’s suffrage.
C. She continued her career in politics even After her husband’s death.
D. She was one of a few female historical Figures who were well known to historians By the 1970’s.
E. Her activism predated her husband’s presidency and her projects differed from his.

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Essay #76.
Social learning in animals
is said to occur when direct
or indirect social interaction
Line facilitates the acquisition
(5) of a novel behavior. It
usually takes the form of
an experienced animal (the
demonstrator) performing a
behavior such that the naive
(10) animal (the observer) subsequently
expresses the
same behavior sooner, or
more completely, than it
would have otherwise. One
(15) example of social learning is the acquisition of preferences
for novel foods.
Some experiments
have suggested that among
(20) mammals, social learning
facilitates the identification
of beneficial food items,
but that among birds, social
learning helps animals
(25) avoid toxic substances.
For example, one study
showed that when red-wing
blackbirds observed others
consuming a colored food
(30) or a food in a distinctly
marked container and then
becoming ill, they subsequently
avoided food
associated with that color
(35) or container. Another
experiment showed that
house sparrows consumed
less red food after they
observed others eating
(40) red food that was treated
so as to be noxious. Studies
on nonavian species have
not produced similar results,
leading researchers to
(45) speculate that avian social
learning may be fundamentally
different from that of mammals.

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But Sherwin’s recent

(50) experiments with domestic
hens do not support the
notion that avian social
learning necessarily facilitates
aversion to novel
(55) foods that are noxious or
toxic. Even when demonstrator
hens reacted with
obvious disgust to a specific
food, via vigorous head
(60) shaking and bill wiping,
there was no evidence that
observers subsequently
avoided eating that food.
Sherwin’s research team
(65) speculated that ecological
or social constraints during
the evolution of this species
might have resulted in there
being little benefit from the
(70) social learning of unpalatability, for instance,
selective pressures for this
mode of learning would be
reduced if the birds rarely
(75) encountered noxious or
toxic food or rarely interacted
after eating such food,
or if the consequences of
ingestion were minimal.
(80) In a related experiment,
the same researchers
showed that if observer
hens watched demonstrator
hens react favorably to food
(85) of a particular color, then
observer hens ate more
food of that color than they
ate of food of other colors.
These results confirmed that
(90) avian species can develop
preferences for palatable
food through social learning.

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Question #261.

The primary purpose of the passage is to discuss the

A. techniques used in certain experiments on social learning in birds

B. reasons for the differences between social learning in birds and in mammals
C. question of how social learning manifests itself in birds
D. basis for a widespread belief about a difference in behavior between birds and mammals
E. possible reasons why birds may or may not learn from each other in a particular way

Question #262.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the experiments on domestic hens
conducted by Sherwin’s research team?

A. Only a small number of observer hens appeared to learn to avoid food that was demonstrated by
other hens to be noxious.
B. Observer hens ingested food preferentially only after numerous instances of witnessing
demonstrator hens preferentially ingest that type of food.
C. Observer hens appeared unable to recognize when demonstrator hens found a particular food
especially palatable.
D. Demonstrator hens reacted adversely to ingesting certain novel foods.
E. Demonstrator hens altered their behavior less obviously in response to noxious foods than in
response to highly palatable foods.

Question #263.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements regarding the results of the recent experiments conducted by Sherwin’s
research team?

A. The experiments demonstrate that social learning in avian species facilitates the identification of
noxious or toxic foods.
B. The experiments suggest that social learning has made avian species less adept than nonavian
species at learning to prefer beneficial foods and avoid noxious and toxic foods.
C. The experiments undermine the notion that most avian species have evolved in environments
where there is little benefit to the social learning of unpalatability.
D. The experiments suggest that the acquisition of food preferences in avian species is largely
unaffected by social learning.
E. The experiments show that social learning in avian species can promote the preferential
consumption of beneficial foods but do not support the claim that social learning in avian species
promotes the avoidance of noxious or toxic foods.

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Essay #77.
Carotenoids, a family of natural pigments,
form an important art of the colorful signals
used by many animals. Animals acquire
Line carotenoids either directly (from the plants
(5) and algae that produce them) or indirectly (by
eating insects) and store them in a variety of
tissues. Studies of several animal species
have shown that when choosing mates, females
prefer males with brighter carotenoid-based
(10) coloration. Owens and Olson hypothesize that
the presence of carotenoids, as signaled by
coloration, would be meaningful in the context
of mate selection if carotenoids were either
rare or required for health. The conventional
(15) view is that carotenoids are meaningful
because they are rare: healthier males can
forage for more of the pigments than can their
inferior counterparts. Although this may be
true, there is growing evidence that carotenoids
(20) are meaningful also because they are required:
they are used by the immune system and for
detoxification processes that are important
for maintaining health. It may be that males
can use scarce carotenoids either for immune
(25) defense and detoxification or for attracting
females. Males that are more susceptible to
disease and parasites will have to use their
carotenoids to boost their immune systems,
whereas males that are genetically resistant
(30) will use fewer carotenoids for fighting disease
and will advertise this by using the pigments
for flashy display instead.

Question #264.

Information in the passage suggests that which of the following is true of carotenoids that a male
animal uses for detoxification processes?

A. They were not acquired directly from plants and algae.

B. They cannot be replenished through foraging.
C. They cannot be used simultaneously to brighten coloration.
D. They do not affect the animal’s susceptibility to parasites.
E. They increase the chances that the animal will be selected as a mate.

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Question #265.

The passage suggests that relatively bright carotenoid-based coloration is a signal of which of the
following characteristics in males of certain animal species?

A. Readiness for mating behavior

B. Ability to fight
C. Particular feeding preferences
D. Recovery from parasite infestation
E. Fitness as a mate

Question #266.

According to the “conventional view” referred to in lines 14-15 of the passage, brighter carotenoid-
based coloration in certain species suggests that an individual

A. lives in a habitat rich in carotenoid-bearing plants and insects

B. has efficient detoxification processes
C. has a superior immune system
D. possesses superior foraging capacity
E. is currently capable of reproducing

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Essay #78.
Many politicians, business leaders,
and scholars discount the role of
public policy and emphasize the role
Line of the labor market when explaining
(5) employers’ maternity-leave policies,
arguing that prior to the passage of
the Family and Medical Leave Act
(FMLA) of 1993, employers were
already providing maternity leave in
(10) response to the increase in the number
of women workers. Employers did
create maternity-leave programs
in the 1970’s and 1980’s, but not as
a purely voluntary response in the
(15) absence of any government mandate. In 1972, the Equal Employment
Opportunity Commission (EEOC) ruled
that employers who allowed leaves
for disabling medical conditions must
(20) also allow them for maternity and that
failure to do so would constitute sex
discrimination under the Civil Rights
Act of 1964. As early as 1973, a
survey found that 58 percent of large
(25) employers had responded with new
maternity-leave policies. Because the
1972 EEOC ruling was contested in
court, the ruling won press attention
that popularized maternity-leave
(30) policies. Yet perhaps because the
Supreme Court later struck down
the ruling, politicians and scholars
have failed to recognize its effects,
assuming that employers adopted
(35) maternity-leave policies in response
to the growing feminization of the
workforce.

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Question #267.

It can be inferred that the author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which
of the following statements about government policy?

A. Government policy is generally unaffected by pressures in the labor market.

B. The impact of a given government policy is generally weakened by sustained press attention.
C. It is possible for a particular government policy to continue to have an impact after that policy has
been eliminated.
D. A given government policy can be counterproductive when that policy has already unofficially
been implemented.
E. The impact of a given government policy is generally weakened when the ruling is contested in
court.

Question #268.

NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question.
The passage suggests that the relationship between the view of the author with respect to maternity
leave policy prior to passage of the FMLA and the view of the politicians, business leaders, and
scholars mentioned in lines 1-2 can best be characterized by which of the following statements?

A. They agree that both the 1972 EEOC ruling on maternity-leave policy and the increasing
feminization of the workplace had an impact on employers’ creation of maternity-leave programs
but disagree about the relative importance of each factor.
B. They agree that the EEOC ruling on maternity-leave policy had an initial impact on employers’
creation of maternity-leave programs but disagree over whether the Supreme Court’s striking
down of the EEOC ruling weakened that impact.
C. They agree that creating maternity-leave programs was a necessary response to the needs of the
increasing number of women workers but disagree about whether maternity should be classified
as a disabling medical condition.
D. They agree that employers created maternity-leave programs prior to passage of the FMLA but
disagree about employers’ motivations for doing so.
E. They agree that employers created maternity-leave programs prior to passage of the FMLA but
disagree about how widespread those programs were.

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Essay #79.
In a 1984 book, Claire C.
Robertson argued that,
before colonialism, age was
Line a more important indicator
(5) of status and authority than
gender in Ghana and in
Africa generally. British
colonialism imposed
European-style male-
(10) dominant notions upon
more egalitarian local
situations to the detriment
of women generally, and
gender became a defining
(15) characteristic that weakened
women’s power and authority.
Subsequent research in
Kenya convinced Robertson
(20) that she had overgeneralized
about Africa. Before colonialism,
gender was more
salient in central Kenya than
it was in Ghana, although age
(25) was still crucial in determining
authority. In contrast with
Ghana, where women had
traded for hundreds of years
and achieved legal majority
(30) (not unrelated phenomena),
the evidence regarding
central Kenya indicated that
women were legal minors
and were sometimes treated
(35) as male property, as were
European women at that
time. Factors like strong
patrilinearity and patrilocality,
as well as women’s inferior
(40) land rights and lesser
involvement in trade, made
women more dependent on
men than was generally the
case in Ghana. However,
(45) since age apparently
remained the overriding
principle of social organization

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in central Kenya, some

senior women had much
(50) authority. Thus, Robertson
revised her hypothesis
somewhat, arguing that
in determining authority in
precolonial Africa age was a
(55) primary principle that superseded
gender to varying
degrees depending on the
situation.

Question #269.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. present evidence undermining a certain hypothesis

B. describe a particular position and its subsequent modification
C. discuss two contrasting viewpoints regarding a particular issue
D. describe how a social phenomenon varied by region
E. evaluate an assumption widely held by scholars

Question #270.

The passage indicates that Robertson’s research in Kenya caused her to change her mind
regarding which of the following?

A. Whether age was the prevailing principle of social organization in Kenya before colonialism
B. Whether gender was the primary determinant of social authority in Africa generally before
colonialism
C. Whether it was only after colonialism that gender became a significant determinant of authority
in Kenyan society
D. Whether age was a crucial factor determining authority in Africa after colonialism
E. Whether British colonialism imposed European-style male-dominant notions upon local situations
in Ghana

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Question #271.

The passage suggests that after conducting the research mentioned in line 18, but not before,
Robertson would have agreed with which of the following about women’s status and authority in
Ghana?

A. Greater land rights and greater involvement in trade made women in precolonial Ghana less
dependent on men than were European women at that time.
B. Colonialism had a greater impact on the status and authority of Ghanaian women than on Kenyan
women.
C. Colonialism had less of an impact on the status and authority of Ghanaian women that it had on
the status and authority of other African women.
D. The relative independence of Ghanaian women prior to colonialism was unique in Africa.
E. Before colonialism, the status and authority of Ghanaian women was similar to that of Kenyan
women.

Question #272.

The author of the passage mentions the status of age as a principle of social organization in
precolonial central Kenya in lines 24-26 most likely in order to

A. indicate that women’s dependence on men in precolonial Kenya was not absolute
B. contrast the situation of senior women to that of less senior women in precolonial Kenyan society
C. differentiate between the status and authority of precolonial Kenyan women and that of
precolonial Ghanaian women
D. explain why age superseded gender to a greater extent in precolonial Kenya than it did elsewhere
in Africa
E. identify a factor that led Robertson to revise her hypothesis about precolonial Africa

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Essay #80.
Findings from several studies on
corporate mergers and acquisitions
during the 1970’s and 1980’s raise
Line questions about why firms initiate and
(5) consummate such transactions. One
study showed, for example, that acquiring
firms were on average unable to
maintain acquired firms’ pre-merger
levels of profitability. A second study
(10) concluded that post-acquisition gains
to most acquiring firms were not adequate
to cover the premiums paid
to obtain acquired firms. A third
demonstrated that, following the
(15) announcement of a prospective
merger, the stock of the prospective
acquiring firm tends to increase in
value much less than does that of
the firm for which it bids. Yet merg-
(20) ers and acquisitions remain common,
and bidders continue to assert that
their objectives are economic ones.
Acquisitions may well have the desirable
effect of channeling a nation’s
(25) resources efficiently from less to
more efficient sectors of its economy,
but the individual acquisitions executives
arranging these deals must see
them as advancing either their own or
(30) their companies’ private economic
interests. It seems that factors having
little to do with corporate economic
interests explain acquisitions. These
factors may include the incentive
(35) compensation of executives, lack
of monitoring by boards of directors,
and managerial error in estimating the
value of firms targeted for acquisition.
Alternatively, the acquisition acts of
(40) bidders may derive from modeling:
a manager does what other managers do.

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Question #273.

According to the passage, during the 1970’s and 1980’s bidding firms differed from the firms for
which they bid in that bidding firms

A. tended to be more profitable before a merger than after a merger

B. were more often concerned about the impact of acquisitions on national economies
C. were run by managers whose actions were modeled on those of other managers
D. anticipated greater economic advantages from prospective mergers
E. experienced less of an increase in stock value when a prospective merger was announced

Question #274.

It can inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements about corporate acquisitions?

A. Their known benefits to national economies explain their appeal to individual firms during the
1970’s and 1980’s.
B. Despite their adverse impact on some firms, they are the best way to channel resources from less
to more productive sectors of a nation’s economy.
C. They are as likely to occur because of poor monitoring by boards of directors as to be caused by
incentive compensation for managers.
D. They will be less prevalent in the future, since their actual effects will gain wider recognition.
E. Factors other than economic benefit to the acquiring firm help to explain the frequency with
which they occur.

Question #275.

The author of the passage implies that which of the following is a possible partial explanation for
acquisition behavior during the 1970’s and 1980’s?

A. Managers wished to imitate other managers primarily because they saw how financially beneficial
other firms’ acquisitions were.
B. Managers miscalculated the value of firms that were to be acquired.
C. Lack of consensus within boards of directors resulted in their imposing conflicting goals on
managers.
D. Total compensation packages for managers increased during that period.
E. The value of bidding firms’ stock increased significantly when prospective mergers were
announced.

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

Essay #81.
Some historians contend that conditions
in the United States during the
Second World War gave rise to a
Line dynamic wartime alliance between
(5) trade unions and the African American
community, an alliance that advanced
the cause of civil rights. They conclude
that the postwar demise of this
vital alliance constituted a lost oppor-
(10) tunity for the civil rights movement that
followed the war. Other scholars,
however, have portrayed organized
labor as defending all along the relatively
privileged position of White
(15) workers relative to African American
workers. Clearly, these two perspectives
are not easily reconcilable, but
the historical reality is not reducible
to one or the other.
(20) Unions faced a choice between
either maintaining the prewar status
quo or promoting a more inclusive
approach that sought for all members
the right to participate in the internal
(25) affairs of unions, access to skilled
and high-paying positions within the
occupational hierarchy, and protection
against management’s arbitrary
authority in the workplace. While
(30) union representatives often voiced
this inclusive ideal, in practice unions
far more often favored entrenched
interests. The accelerating development
of the civil rights movement
(35) following the Second World War
exacerbated the unions’ dilemma,
forcing trade unionists to confront
contradictions in their own practices.

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Question #276.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. providing a context within which to evaluate opposing viewpoints about a historical phenomenon
B. identifying a flawed assumption underlying one interpretation of a historical phenomenon
C. assessing the merits and weaknesses of a controversial theory about a historical phenomenon
D. discussing the historical importance of the development of a wartime alliance
E. evaluating evidence used to support a particular interpretation of a historical phenomenon

Question #277.

According to the passage, the historians mentioned in line 1 and the scholars mentioned in line 11
disagree about the

A. contribution made by organized labor to the war effort during the Second World War
B. issues that union members considered most important during the Second World War
C. relationship between unions and African Americans during the Second World War
D. effect of the Second World War on the influence of unions in the workplace
E. extent to which African Americans benefited from social and political changes following the
Second World War

Question #278.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the first sentence (lines 20-29) in the second
paragraph in the passage?

A. To summarize a situation confronted by unions during the Second World War

B. To summarize the role of unions in the workplace during the Second World War
C. To explain the philosophy supported by most unions during the Second World War
D. To assess the effect of the growth of the civil rights movement on unions during the Second
World War
E. To present a criticism of the unions’ approach to representing workers during the Second World
War

Question #279.

Which of the following best summarizes the opinion of the author of the passage regarding the two
points of view presented in the first paragraph (lines 1-19)?

A. Neither point of view reflects the views of certain African American historians on trade unions
during the Second World War.
B. Neither point of view reflects the full complexity of the historical reality.
C. One point of view is based on more reliable research than is the other.
D. Both points of view have misinterpreted recent research on trade unions during the Second
World War.
E. The two points of view can be readily harmonized into a coherent interpretation.

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Essay #82.
First identified in 1969, komatiites
are Earth’s oldest known volcanic
rocks and contain three times as much
Line magnesium as do most volcanic rocks.
(5) This chemical composition suggests
that komatiites formed from the hottest
lava known ever to have erupted: a
high concentration of magnesium
changes the physical properties of
(10) lava so that unusually high temperatures
would be required for the lava
to exist as a liquid.
Komatiites’ discovery was surprising
in light of then-current geological
(15) theories about magmas, molten rock
that forms in the Earth’s mantle (the
layer beneath the crust) and composes
volcanic lava eruptions. Prior to 1960,
geologists Bowen and Hess disagreed
(20) over whether or not the very high temperatures
needed to produce magmas
rich in magnesium could have existed
on Earth. Hess suggested that the
presence of water, probably released
(25) from minerals decomposing in the
Earth’s mantle, might have meant that
a high-magnesium magma could have
existed at a lower temperature. But
Bowen showed experimentally that the
(30) high temperatures were indeed necessary.
By 1960, it was generally
accepted that volcanic rocks with such
high levels of magnesium could not
exist, and thus the discovery of koma-
(35) tiites changed geologists’ assumptions
about the characteristics of the Earth’s
mantle around the time of the formation
of komatiites, between 2.5 and 4 billion years ago.

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Question #280.

Which of the following most accurately describes the organization of the passage?

A. Two divergent views of a scientific phenomenon are reconciled.

B. A phenomenon is described and its scientific significance is discussed.
C. The discovery of a scientific phenomenon is traced and its implications for further research are
suggested.
D. A long-standing scientific theory is examined and recently discovered evidence is shown to
support it.
E. The ways in which a particular geological phenomenon is exceptional are detailed and classified.

Question #281.

Information in the passage suggests which of the following concerning the Earth’s mantle 2.5 to 4
billion years ago?

A. It contained magmas that were more significantly affected by the decomposition of minerals than
are current-day magmas.
B. It contained a lower proportion of water that it contains today.
C. Its characteristics were accurately described by both Bowen and Hess.
D. Its temperature was sufficiently high to produce magmas with high magnesium content.
E. Its total magnesium content then was roughly equivalent to its magnesium content today.

Question #282.

Which of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage?

A. Komatiites provide information about rates of volcanic eruption between 2.5 and 4 billion years
ago.
B. Komatiites provide information about how the physical properties of lava in the Earth’s past
compare with those of current-day lava.
C. Komatiites provide evidence that undermines Bowen’s experimental conclusions regarding the
temperatures at which lava exists as a liquid.
D. Komatiites provide evidence that has changed geologists’ ideas about the characteristics of the
Earth’s mantle between 2.5 and 4 billion years ago.
E. Komatiites provide evidence that water in the Earth’s mantle may have reduced the temperature
required for lava to exist as a liquid.

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Essay #83.
While acknowledging that
there are greater employment
opportunities for Latin Ameri-
Line can women in cities than in the
(5) countryside, social science
theorists have continued to
argue that urban migration
has unequivocally hurt
women’s status. However,
(10) the effects of migration are
more complex than these
theorists presume. For
example, effects can vary
depending on women’s
(15) financial condition and social
class. Brazilian women in the
lowest socioeconomic class
have relatively greater job
opportunities and job security
(20) in cities than do men of the
same class, although there is
no compelling evidence that
for these women the move to
the city is a move out of pov-
(25) erty. Thus, these women
may improve their status in
relation to men but at the
same time may experience
no improvement in their
(30) economic standing.
In addition, working outside
the home, which is more
common in urban than in rural
areas, helps women in the
(35) lowest socioeconomic class
make contacts to extend
exchange networks—the flow
of gifts, loans, or child care
from those who currently
(40) have access to resources
to those who do not. Moreover,
poor women working in
urban areas actively seek to
cultivate long-term employer-
(45) employee relations. When
an emergency arises that

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requires greater resources

than an exchange network
can provide, these women
(50) often appeal for and receive
aid from their wealthy employers.
However, the structure
of many poor women’s
work—often a labor force
(55) of one in an employer’s
home—makes it difficult for
them to organize to improve
their economic conditions in
general.
(60) Not surprisingly, then,
Latin American women in the
lowest socioeconomic class
differ in their opinions about
the effects of urban migration
(65) on their lives. Some find
urban living, with access to
electricity and running water,
an improvement and would
never return to the country-
(70) side. Others, disliking the
overcrowding and crime,
would return to the countryside
if there were work
opportunities for them there.
(75) Thus, urban life has had both
negative and positive impacts
on women’s lives. In general,
urban migration has not
provided economic pros-
(80) perity or upward mobility for
women in the lowest socioeconomic
class, despite their
intelligent and energetic utilization
of the resources available to them.

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Question #283.

In the first paragraph, the author refers to the experiences of Brazilian women most probably in
order to

A. support an earlier assertion made by social science theorists about the effects of urban migration
B. provide an example of one area in which urban migration has failed to improve Latin American
women’s lives
C. substantiate the claim that the effects of urban migration cannot be easily characterized
D. illustrate the effect that urban migration has had on the economic status of Latin American
women
E. compare the effect that urban migration has had on the economic status of Latin American
women with its effect on the economic status of Latin American men

Question #284.

NOTE: You must scroll to read the answer choices for this question. Which of the following best
summarizes the main point of the passage?

A. Although Latin American women disagree about the effects urban migration has had on their
lives, they agree that migration has provided them with greater opportunities for stable
employment outside the home.
B. Although urban migration has improved the quality of life for Latin American women, it has
weakened the social support systems that these women enjoyed in rural communities.
C. The effects that urban migration has had on Latin American women’s lives are complex and are
best evaluated in light of a range of issues concerning Latin American women’s overall quality of
life.
D. The effects of urban migration in Latin America are different for men than they are for women
because of the relatively greater job opportunities and job security enjoyed by women in urban
areas.
E. Urban migration has led to an increasing disparity between the economic prosperity of Latin
American women in the lowest socioeconomic classes and that of women in the higher
socioeconomic classes.

Question #285.

The author mentions which of the following as a disadvantage of urban employment for Latin
American women in the lowest socioeconomic group?

A. It is difficult for these women to obtain reliable, long-term employment.

B. It is difficult for these women to organize effectively in order to obtain better wages.
C. It is difficult for these women to find employers who are supportive when emergencies arise.
D. The structure of their jobs makes it difficult for these women to participate in exchange networks.
E. Working in urban areas makes these women more vulnerable to health problems than they would
be in rural areas.

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Question #286.

The author of the passage would most likely agree that the opinions of the Latin American women
discussed in the third paragraph (lines 60-85) are influenced by the

A. fact that urban life has provided them with greater opportunities for upward mobility than did
rural life
B. relative importance they place on the benefits of urban exchange networks in comparison to
those of rural networks.
C. relative importance they place on the conveniences and drawbacks of urban life in comparison to
those of rural life
D. difference in the effects of urban migration on women of higher and lower socioeconomic classes
E. difference in the effects of urban migration on men and women of the same social and economic
class

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Essay #84.
(The following was excerpted from material written in 1988.)
For over a decade the
most common policy advice
given to developing countries
Line by international development
(5) institutions has been to copy
the export-oriented path of the
newly industrializing countries,
the celebrated NIC’s. These
economies—Brazil, Hong
(10) Kong, Mexico, Singapore,
South Korea, and Taiwan—
burst into the world manufacturing
market in the late 1960’s
and the 1970’s; by 1978 these
(15) six economies, along with India,
enjoyed unequaled growth
rates for gross national product
and for exports, with exports
accounting for 70 percent of
(20) the developing world’s manufactured
exports. It was,
therefore, not surprising that
dozens of other countries
attempted to follow their model,
(25) yet no countries—with the possible
exceptions of Malaysia
and Thailand—have even
approached their success. In
“No More NIC’s,” Robin Broad
(30) and John Cavanagh search for
the reasons behind these failures,
identifying far-reaching
changes in the global economy—
from synthetic substitutes
(35) for commodity exports to
unsustainable levels of foreign
debt—as responsible for a glut
economy offering little room for
new entrants. Despite these
(40) changes, the authors maintain,
the World Bank and the International
Monetary Fund—the
foremost international development
institutions—have
(45) continued to promote the NIC

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path as the way for heavily

indebted developing countries
to proceed. And yet the futility
of this approach should,
(50) according to the authors, be
all too apparent so many years
into a period of reduced growth
in world markets.

Question #287.

Given the information in the passage, which of the following is a true statement about the NIC’s?

A. Their economic success among developing countries has been exceeded only by the successes of
Malaysia and Thailand.
B. By 1978 they produced 70 percent of the world’s manufactured exports.
C. In the late 1970’s, their growth rates for gross national product were among the highest in the
world.
D. In recent years their development has been heavily subsidized by major international
development institutions.
E. They received conflicting policy advice from international development institutions in the late
1960’s and the 1970’s.

Question #288.

The author of the passage most clearly implies that Broad and Cavanagh disagree with the World
Bank and the International Monetary Fund about which of the following?

A. The ways in which the global economy has changed in recent years
B. The causes of the unsustainable levels of foreign debt that the developing countries have incurred
in recent years
C. The level of foreign debt that should be maintained by developing countries
D. The degree to which international development institutions should monitor the growth of
developing countries
E. The degree to which heavily indebted developing countries should emphasize exports in their
overall economic strategy

Question #289.

The author mentions Malaysia and Thailand in order to

A. acknowledge the appearance of implausibility in a broad claim

B. concede the possible existence of counter-examples to a generalization
C. offer additional evidence in support of a disputed conclusion
D. illustrate the broad applicability of a hypothesis
E. admit the limited scope of a standard analysis

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Problem Set #3 Reading Comprehension Keys

1. A 21. B 41. E 61. D 81. C 101. A

2. E 22. E 42. A 62. A 82. B 102. C
3. E 23. C 43. C 63. E 83. D 103. D
4. E 24. C 44. C 64. A 84. A 104. E
5. D 25. D 45. E 65. C 85. B 105. C
6. B 26. E 46. C 66. C 86. D 106. A
7. C 27. C 47. D 67. D 87. A 107. B
8. C 28. D 48. E 68. A 88. C 108. E
9. B 29. E 49. C 69. C 89. A 109. C
10. B 30. E 50. A 70. D 90. D 110. C
11. D 31. A 51. B 71. E 91. A 111. D
12. C 32. D 52. E 72. C 92. C 112. B
13. B 33. E 53. C 73. D 93. D 113. C
14. D 34. B 54. A 74. E 94. B 114. C
15. E 35. A 55. A 75. C 95. E 115. A
16. B 36. C 56. B 76. B 96. C 116. A
17. D 37. E 57. B 77. D 97. D 117. C
18. E 38. A 58. E 78. B 98. B 118. B
19. D 39. D 59. B 79. E 99. E 119. C
20. D 40. B 60. C 80. E 100. B 120. D

121. E 141. E 161. A 181. C 201. D 221. E

122. A 142. C 162. C 182. E 202. A 222. D
123. B 143. C 163. D 183. C 203. D 223. B
124. D 144. E 164. B 184. D 204. E 224. E
125. A 145. B 165. D 185. B 205. E 225. A
126. E 146. E 166. E 186. A 206. C 226. B
127. C 147. A 167. A 187. D 207. C 227. E
128. D 148. C 168. E 188. A 208. E 228. C
129. B 149. B 169. C 189. E 209. A 229. B
130. A 150. E 170. D 190. C 210. C 230. B
131. D 151. A 171. B 191. D 211. D 231. E
132. A 152. A 172. C 192. B 212. B 232. D
133. E 153. C 173. C 193. A 213. E 233. D
134. C 154. E 174. A 194. C 214. D 234. A
135. D 155. C 175. A 195. D 215. B 235. C
136. B 156. E 176. D 196. A 216. C 236. B
137. A 157. C 177. B 197. C 217. D 237. D
138. C 158. A 178. A 198. D 218. C 238. C
139. D 159. D 179. B 199. D 219. E 239. C
140. D 160. B 180. E 200. E 220. D 240. B

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 CrackVerbal GMATPrep® Reading Comprehension Question Bank

241. A 261. C 281. D

242. D 262. E 282. D
243. E 263. E 283. C
244. C 264. C 284. C
245. E 265. E 285. B
246. A 266. D 286. C
247. C 267. C 287. C
248. C 268. D 288. E
249. C 269. B 289. B
250. C 270. C
251. B 271. B
252. C 272. E
253. A 273. E
254. D 274. E
255. B 275. B
256. B 276. A
257. A 277. C
258. B 278. A
259. D 279. B
260. E 280. B

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Problem Set #4 Reading Comprehension

(8 Essays, 29 Questions)

Essay #1.
Prior to 1965 geologists assumed that the two giant
rock plates meeting at the San Andreas Fault generate
heat through friction as they grind past each other,
but in 1965 Henyey found that temperatures in drill
holes near the fault were not as elevated as had been
expected. Some geologists wondered whether the
absence of friction-generated heat could be explained
by the kinds of rock composing the fault. Geologists’
pre-1965 assumptions concerning heat generated in
the fault were based on calculations about common
varieties of rocks, such as limestone and granite; but
“weaker” materials, such as clays, had already been
identified in samples retrieved from the fault zone.
Under normal conditions, rocks composed of clay
produce far less friction than do other rock types.
In 1992 Byerlee tested whether these materials would
produce friction 10 to 15 kilometers below the Earth’s
surface. Byerlee found that when clay samples were
subjected to the thousands of atmospheres of
pressure they would encounter deep inside the Earth,
they produced as much friction as was produced by
other rock types. The harder rocks push against each
other, the hotter they become; in other words,
pressure itself, not only the rocks’ properties, affects
frictional heating. Geologists therefore wondered
whether the friction between the plates was being
reduced by pockets of pressurized water within the
fault that push the plates away from each other.

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Question #1.

The passage suggests which of the following regarding Henyey’s findings about temperature in the
San Andreas Fault?

A. Scientists have yet to formulate a definitive explanation for Henyey’s findings.

B. Recent research suggests that Henyey’s explanation for the findings should be modified.
C. Henyey’s findings had to be recalculated in light of Byerlee’s 1992 experiment.
D. Henyey’s findings provided support for an assumption long held by geologists.
E. Scientists have been unable to duplicate Henyey’s findings using more recent experimental
methods.

Question #2.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. evaluating a method used to test a particular scientific hypothesis

B. discussing explanations for an unexpected scientific finding
C. examining the assumptions underlying a particular experiment
D. questioning the validity of a scientific finding
E. presenting evidence to support a recent scientific hypothesis

Question #3.

The passage mostly agree that Heney’s findings about temperature in the San Andreas Fault made
the greatest contribution in that they

A. revealed an error in previous measurements of temperature in the San Andreas Fault zone
B. indicated the types of clay present in the rocks that form the San Andreas Fault
C. established the superiority of a particular technique for evaluating data concerning friction in the
San Andreas Fault
D. suggested that geologists had inaccurately assumed that giant rock plates that meet at the San
Andreas Fault generate heat through friction
E. confirmed geologists’ assumptions about the amount of friction generated by common varieties
of rocks, such as limestone and granite

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Essay #2.
A small number of the forest species of lepidoptera
(moths and butterflies, which exist as caterpillars
during most of their life cycle) exhibit regularly
recurring patterns of population growth and decline—
such fluctuations in population are known as
population cycles. Although many different variables
influence population levels, a regular pattern such as a
population cycle seems to imply a dominant, driving
force. Identification of that driving force, however, has
proved surprisingly elusive despite considerable
research. The common approach of studying causes of
population cycles by measuring the mortality caused
by different agents, such as predatory birds or
parasites, has been unproductive in the case of
lepidoptera. Moreover, population ecologists’ attempts
to alter cycles by changing the caterpillars’ habitat and
by reducing caterpillar populations have not
succeeded. In short, the evidence implies that these
insect populations, if not self-regulating, may at least
be regulated by an agent more intimately connected
with the insect than are predatory birds or parasites.
Recent work suggests that this agent may be a virus.
For many years, viral disease had been reported in
declining populations of caterpillars, but population
ecologists had usually considered viral disease to have
contributed to the decline once it was underway rather
than to have initiated it. The recent work has been
made possible by new techniques of molecular biology
that allow viral DNA to be detected at low
concentrations in the environment. Nuclear
polyhedrosis viruses are hypothesized to be the driving
force behind population cycles in lepidoptera in part
because the viruses themselves follow an infectious
cycle in which, if protected from direct sun light, they
may remain virulent for many years in the
environment, embedded in durable crystals of
polyhedrin protein. Once ingested by a caterpillar, the
crystals dissolve, releasing the virus to infect the
insect’s cells. Late in the course of the infection,
millions of new virus particles are formed and enclosed
in polyhedrin crystals. These crystals reenter the
environment after the insect dies and decomposes,
thus becoming available to infect other caterpillars.
One of the attractions of this hypothesis is its broad
applicability. Remarkably, despite significant

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differences in habitat and behavior, many species of

lepidoptera have population cycles of similar length,
between eight and eleven years. Nuclear polyhedrosis
viral infection is one factor these disparate species
share.

Question #4.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s conclusion in the highlighted text?

A. New research reveals that the number of species of birds and parasites that prey on lepidoptera
has dropped significantly in recent years.
B. New experiments in which the habitats of lepidoptera are altered in previously untried ways
result in the shortening of lepidoptera population cycles.
C. Recent experiments have revealed that the nuclear polyhedrosis virus is present in a number of
predators and parasites of lepidoptera.
D. Differences among the habitats of Lepidoptera species make it difficult to assess the effects of
weather on lepidoptera population cycles.
E. Viral disease is typically observed in a large proportion of the Lepidoptera population.

Question #5.

It can be inferred from the passage that the mortality caused by agents such as predatory birds or
parasites was measured in an attempt to

A. develop an explanation for the existence of lepidoptera population cycles

B. identify behavioral factors in lepidoptera that affect survival rates
C. identify possible methods for controlling Lepidoptera population growth
D. provide evidence that lepidoptera populations are self-regulating
E. determine the life stages of lepidoptera at which mortality rates are highest

Question #6.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. describe the development of new techniques that may help to determine the driving force behind
population cycles in lepidoptera
B. present evidence that refutes a particular theory about the driving force behind population cycles
in lepidoptera
C. present a hypothesis about the driving force behind population cycles in lepidoptera
D. describe the fluctuating patterns of population cycles in Lepidoptera
E. question the idea that a single driving force is behind population cycles in Lepidoptera

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Question #7.

According to the passage, before the discovery of new techniques for detecting viral DNA,
population ecologists believed that viral diseases

A. were not widely prevalent among insect populations generally

B. affected only the caterpillar life stage of lepidoptera
C. were the driving force behind Lepidoptera population cycles
D. attacked already declining caterpillar populations
E. infected birds and parasites that prey on various species of lepidoptera

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Essay #3.
The term “episodic memory” was introduced by
Tulving to refer to what he considered a uniquely
human capacity—the ability to recollect specific past
events, to travel back into the past in one’s own
mind—as distinct from the capacity simply to use
information acquired through past experiences.
Subsequently, Clayton et al. developed criteria to test
for episodic memory in animals. According to these
criteria, episodic memories are not of individual bits of
information; they involve multiple components of a
single event “bound” together. Clayton sought to
examine evidence of scrub jays’ accurate memory of
“what,”“where,” and “when” information and their
binding of this information. In the wild, these birds
store food for retrieval later during periods of food
scarcity. Clayton’s experiment required jays to
remember the type, location, and freshness of stored
food based on a unique learning event. Crickets were
stored in one location and peanuts in another. Jays
prefer crickets, but crickets degrade more quickly.
Clayton’s birds switched their preference from crickets
to peanuts once the food had been stored for a certain
length of time, showing that they retain information
about the what, the where, and the when. Such
experiments cannot, however, reveal whether the
birds were re-experiencing the past when retrieving
the information. Clayton acknowledged this by using
the term “episodic-like” memory.

Question #8.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. explain how the findings of a particular experiment have been interpreted and
offer an alternative interpretation
B. describe a particular experiment and point out one of its limitations
C. present similarities between human memory and animal memory
D. point out a flaw in the argument that a certain capacity is uniquely human
E. account for the unexpected behavior of animal subjects in a particular experiment

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Question #9.

According to the passage, Clayton’s experiment depended on the fact that scrub jays

A. recall “when” and “where” information more distinctly than “what” information
B. are not able to retain information about a single past event for an indefinitely long period of time
C. choose peanuts over crickets when the crickets have been stored for a long period of time
D. choose crickets over peanuts whenever both are available
E. prefer peanuts that have been stored for a short period to crickets that have been stored for a
short period

Question #10.

The passage suggests that Clayton’s experiment demonstrated scrub jays’ ability to

A. choose different storage places for different kinds of food to minimize the rate at which a food
will degrade
B. unlearn a behavior they use in the wild in order to adapt to laboratory conditions
C. bind together information about different aspects of a single past event
D. re-experience a past event in memory and act accordingly
E. distinguish one learning event from a subsequent learning event

Question #11.

It can be inferred from the passage that both Tulving and Clayton would agree with which of the
following statements?

A. Animals’ abilities to use information about a specific past event are not conclusive evidence of
episodic memory.
B. Animals do not share humans’ abilities to reexperience the past through memory.
C. The accuracy of animals’ memories is difficult to determine through direct experimentation.
D. Humans tend to recollect single bits of information more accurately than do animals.
E. The binding of different kinds of information is not a distinctive feature of episodic memory.

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Essay #4.
The system of patent-granting, which confers
temporary monopolies for the exploitation of new
technologies, was originally established as an incentive
to the pursuit of risky new ideas. Yet studies of the
most patent-conscious business of all—the
semiconductor industry—suggest that firms do not
necessarily become more innovative as they increase
their patenting activity. Ziedonis and Hall, for example,
found that investment in research and development (a
reasonable proxy for innovation) did not substantially
increase between 1982 and 1992, the industry’s most
feverish period of patenting. Instead, semiconductor
firms simply squeezed more patents out of existing
research and development expenditures. Moreover,
Ziedonis and Hall found that as patenting activity at
semiconductor firms increased in the 1980’s, the
consensus among industry employees was that the
average quality of their firms’ patents declined.
Though patent quality is a difficult notion to measure,
the number of times a patent is cited in the technical
literature is a reasonable yardstick, and citations per
semiconductor patent did decline during the 1980’s.
This decline in quality may be related to changes in
the way semiconductor firms managed their patenting
process: rather than patenting to win exclusive rights
to a valuable new technology, patents were filed more
for strategic purposes, to be used as bargaining chips
to ward off infringement suits or as a means to block
competitors’ products.

Question #12.

The passage is primarily concerned with discussing

A. a study suggesting that the semiconductor industry’s approach to patenting during the period
from 1982 to 1992 yielded unanticipated results
B. a study of the semiconductor industry during the period from 1982 to 1992 that advocates
certain changes in the industry’s management of the patenting process
C. the connection between patenting and innovation in the semiconductor industry during the
period from 1982 to 1992
D. reasons that investment in research and development in the semiconductor industry did not
increase significantly during the period from 1982 to 1992
E. certain factors that made the period from 1982 to 1992 a time of intense patenting activity in the
semiconductor industry

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Question #13.

The passage suggests which of the following about patenting in the semiconductor industry during
the period from 1982 to 1992?

A. The declining number of citations per semiconductor patent in the technical literature
undermines the notion that patenting activity increased during this period.
B. A decline in patent quality forced firms to change the way they managed the patenting process.
C. Increased efficiencies allowed firms to derive more patents from existing research and
development expenditures.
D. Firms’ emphasis on filing patents for strategic purposes may have contributed to a decline in
patent quality.
E. Firms’ attempts to derive more patents from existing research and development expenditures
may have contributed to a decline in infringement suites.

Question #14.

The passage makes which of the following claims about patent quality in the semiconductor
industry?

A. It was higher in the early 1980’s than it was a decade later.

B. It is largely independent of the number of patents granted.
C. It changed between 1982 and 1992 in ways that were linked to changes in research and
development expenditures.
D. It is not adequately discussed in the industry’s technical literature.
E. It was measured by inappropriate means during the period from 1982 to 1992.

Question #15.

Which of the following, if true, would most clearly serve to weaken the author’s claim about what
constitutes a reasonable yardstick for measuring patent quality?

A. It is more difficult to have an article accepted for publication in the technical literature of the
semiconductor industry than it is in the technical literature of most other industries.
B. Many of the highest-quality semiconductor patents are cited numerous times in the technical
literature.
C. It is difficult for someone not familiar with the technical literature to recognize what constitutes
an innovative semiconductor patent.
D. There were more citations made per semiconductor patent in the technical literature in the
1970’s than in the 1980’s.
E. Low-quality patents tend to be discussed in the technical literature as frequently as high-quality
patents.

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Essay #5.
Linda Kerber argued in the mid-1980’s that after the
American Revolution (1775-1783), an ideology of
“republican motherhood” resulted in a surge of
educational opportunities for women in the United
States. Kerber maintained that the leaders of the new
nation wanted women to be educated in order to raise
politically virtuous sons. A virtuous citizenry was
considered essential to the success of the country’s
republican form of government; virtue was to be
instilled not only by churches and schools, but by
families, where the mother’s role was crucial. Thus,
according to Kerber, motherhood became pivotal to
the fate of the republic, providing justification for an
unprecedented attention to female education.
Introduction of the republican motherhood thesis
dramatically changed historiography. Prior to Kerber’s
work, educational historians barely mentioned women
and girls; Thomas Woody’s 1929 work is the notable
exception. Examining newspaper advertisements for
academies, Woody found that educational
opportunities increased for both girls and boys around
1750. Pointing to “An Essay on Woman” (1753) as
reflecting a shift in view, Woody also claimed that
practical education for females had many advocates
before the Revolution. Woody’s evidence challenges
the notion that the Revolution changed attitudes
regarding female education, although it may have
accelerated earlier trends. Historians’ reliance on
Kerber’s “republican motherhood” thesis may have
obscured the presence of these trends, making it
difficult to determine to what extent the Revolution
really changed women’s lives.

Question #16.

According to the passage, within the field of educational history, Thomas Woody’s 1929 work was

A. innovative because it relied on newspaper advertisements as evidence

B. exceptional in that it concentrated on the period before the American Revolution
C. unusual in that it focused on educational attitudes rather than on educational practices
D. controversial in its claims regarding educational opportunities for boys
E. atypical in that it examined the education of girls

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Question #17.

According to the passage, Kerber argued that political leaders thought that the form of government
adopted by the United States after the American Revolution depended on which of the following for
its success?

A. Women assuming the sole responsibility for instilling political virtue in children
B. Girls becoming the primary focus of a reformed educational system that emphasized political
virtue
C. The family serving as one of the primary means by which children were imbued with political
virtue
D. The family assuming many of the functions previously performed by schools and churches
E. Men and women assuming equal responsibility for the management of schools, churches, and
the family

Question #18.

The passage suggests that, with regard to the history of women’s education in the United States,
Kerber’s work differs from Woody’s primarily concerning which of the following?

A. The extent to which women were interested in pursuing educational opportunities in the
eighteenth century
B. The extent of the support for educational opportunities for girls prior to the American Revolution
C. The extent of public resistance to educational opportunities for women after the American
Revolution
D. Whether attitudes toward women’s educational opportunities changed during the eighteenth
century
E. Whether women needed to be educated in order to contribute to the success of a republican
form of government

Question #19.

According to the passage, Kerber maintained that which of the following led to an increase in
educational opportunities for women in the United States after the American Revolution?

A. An unprecedented demand by women For greater educational opportunities in the decades

following the Revolution
B. A new political ideology calling for equality of opportunity between women and men in all
aspects of life
C. A belief that the American educational system could be reformed only if women participated
more fully in that system
D. A belief that women needed to be educated if they were to contribute to the success of the
nation’s new form of government.
E. A recognition that women needed to be educated if they were to take an active role in the
nation’s schools and churches.

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Essay #6.

Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated

that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful
product can be attributed to “the effects of labor.” For
Locke’s intellectual heirs it was only a short step to the
“labor theory of value,” whose formulators held that
100 percent of the value of any product is generated
by labor (the human work needed to produce goods)
and that therefore the employer who appropriates any
part of the product’s value as profit is practicing theft.
Although human effort is required to produce goods
for the consumer market, effort is also invested in
making capital goods (tools, machines, etc.), which
are used to facilitate the production of consumer
goods. In modern economies about one-third of the
total output of consumer goods is attributable to the
use of capital goods. Approximately two-thirds of the
income derived from this total output is paid out to
workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third
serving as compensation to the owners of the capital
goods. Moreover, part of this remaining third is
received by workers who are shareholders, pension
beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value
systematically disregards the productive contribution
of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear
part of the blame.

Question #20.

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the
income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

A. Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as
a contribution to total output.
B. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the
contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
C. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of
total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
D. Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out
most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.
E. Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the
labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

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Question #21.

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

A. criticizing Locke’s economic theories

B. discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy
C. questioning the validity of the labor theory of value
D. arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits
E. contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods

Question #22.

Which of the following arguments would a proponent of the labor theory of value, as it is presented
in the first paragraph, be most likely to use in response to the statement that “The labor theory of
value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods”?

A. The productive contributions of workers and capital goods cannot be compared because the
productive life span of capital goods is longer than that of workers.
B. The author’s analysis of the distribution of income is misleading because only a small percentage
of workers are also shareholders.
C. Capital goods are valuable only insofar as they contribute directly to the production of consumer
goods.
D. The productive contribution of capital goods must be discounted because capital goods require
maintenance.
E. The productive contribution of capital goods must be attributed to labor because capital goods
are themselves products of labor.

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Essay #7.

Extensive research has shown that the effects of

short-term price promotions on sales are themselves
short-term. Companies’ hopes that promotions might
have a positive aftereffect have not been borne out for
reasons that researchers have been able to identify. A
price promotion entices only a brand’s long-term or
“loyal” customers; people seldom buy an unfamiliar
brand merely because the price is reduced. They
simply avoid paying more than they have to when one
of their customary brands is temporarily available at a
reduced price. A price promotion does not increase the
number of long-term customers of a brand, as it
attracts virtually no new customers in the first place.
Nor do price promotions have lingering aftereffects for
a brand, even negative ones such as damage to a
brand’s reputation or erosion of customer loyalty, as is
often feared.
So why do companies spend so much on price
promotions? Clearly price promotions are generally run
at a loss, otherwise there would be more of them. And
the bigger the increase in sales at promotion prices,
the bigger the loss. While short-term price promotions
can have legitimate uses, such as reducing excess
inventory, it is the recognizable increase in sales that
is their main attraction to management, which is
therefore reluctant to abandon this strategy despite its
effect on the bottom line.

Question #23.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. compare the arguments in favor of a certain strategy with those against it

B. attack a certain strategy by enumerating its negative consequences
C. justify the use of a certain strategy in light of certain criticisms that have been made against it
D. advocate a particular strategy by arguing against an alternative
E. explain the effects of a certain strategy and the primary motivations for adopting it

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Question #24.

According to the passage, which of the following is the reason why short-term price promotions do
not attract new long-term customers to a brand?

A. Short-term price promotions do not produce an increase in sales.

B. Customers come to regard the promotional price as the fair price and the regular price as
excessive.
C. Most customers select among competing products largely on the basis of price and very few are
loyal to any particular brand.
D. Customers who have not previously bought the promoted brand are almost never persuaded to
do so by the short-term price promotions.
E. Any customers that a brand gains by means of a short-term price promotion are liable to be lost
when a competing brand has a similar promotion.

Question #25.

The passage suggests that evidence for price promotions’ “effect on the bottom line” is provided by

A. the lack of lingering aftereffects from price promotions

B. the frequency with which price promotions occur
C. price promotions’ inability to attract new customers
D. price promotions’ recognizable effect on sales
E. the legitimate uses to which management can put price promotions

Question #26.

It can be inferred from the passage that if a company ceased to run short-term price promotions for
a particular product, an effect of this change would be to

A. reduce excess inventory of the product

B. lose some of the product’s long-term customers
C. reduce the product’s overall sales
D. inhibit growth in the number of the product’s customers
E. threaten the product’s profitability

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Essay #8.

Citing the fact that the real gross domestic product

(GDP) per capita was higher in 1997 than ever before,
some journalists have argued that the United States
economy performed ideally in 1997. However, the real
GDP is almost always higher than ever before; it falls
only during recessions. One point these journalists
overlooked is that in 1997, as in the twenty-four years
immediately preceding it, the real GDP per capita grew
nearly one-half percent a year more slowly than it had
on average between 1873 and 1973. Were the 1997
economy as robust as claimed, the growth rate of real
GDP per capita in 1997 would have surpassed the
average growth rate of real GDP per capita between
1873 and 1973 because over fifty percent of the
population worked for wages in 1997 whereas only
forty percent worked for wages between 1873 and
1973. If the growth rate of labor productivity (output
per hour of goods and services) in 1997 had equaled
its average growth rate between 1873 and 1973 of
more than two percent, then, given the
proportionately larger workforce that existed in 1997,
real GDP per capita in 1997 would have been higher
than it actually was, since output is a major factor in
GDP. However, because labor productivity grew by
only one percent in 1997, real GDP per capita grew
more slowly in 1997 than it had on average between
1873 and 1973.

Question #27.

The passage is primarily concerned with

A. comparing various measures used to assess the performance of the United States economy in
1997
B. providing evidence that the performance of the United States economy in 1997 was similar to its
performance between 1873 and 1973
C. evaluating an argument concerning the performance of the United States economy in 1997
D. examining the consequences of a popular misconception about the performance of the United
States economy in 1997
E. supporting an assertion made by journalists about the performance of the United States economy
in 1997

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Question #28.

According to the passage, which of the following is true of the average rate at which real GDP per
capita grew in the twenty-four years immediately before 1997?

A. It was less than it had been between 1873 and 1973 because only forty percent of the population
worked for wages between 1873 and 1973.
B. It was less than it had been between 1873 and 1973 because labor productivity grew less
between 1973 and 1997 than it had between 1873 and 1973.
C. It was less than it had been between 1873 and 1973 as a result of an increase in the percentage
of the population earning wages during these years.
D. It was less than the average rate at which real GDP per capita grew between 1873 and 1973.
E. It was less than the rate at which real GDP per capita grew in 1997.

Question #29.

It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is the reason that the author faults
the journalists referred to in the first sentence of the passage?

A. They believe that the real GDP per capita in 1997 was higher than the real GDP per capita had
ever been before.
B. They argue that the rate at which real GDP per capita grew in 1997 was faster than the average
rate at which it had grown between 1873 and 1973.
C. They overestimate the effect of labor productivity on the real GDP per capita in 1997.
D. They overestimate the amount by which real GDP per capita in 1997 surpassed real GDP per
capita in earlier years.
E. They fail to consider the real GDP per capita in 1997 within an appropriate historical context.

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Problem Set #4 Reading Comprehension Keys

1. A 11. A 21. C
2. B 12. A 22. E
3. D 13. D 23. E
4. B 14. A 24. D
5. A 15. E 25. B
6. C 16. E 26. C
7. D 17. C 27. C
8. B 18. A 28. D
9. C 19. D 29. E
10. C 20. C

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