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239 views249 pages

Kcse 2022 S1 Prediction 0706 851 439

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KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS K.C.S.

E 2022
EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

Subjects Tested: 1. AGRIC 2.BIO 3.BST 4.CHEM 5.CRE 6.ENG 7.GEOG 8.HIST
9.KISW 10.MATHS & 11.PHY Respectively.

N/B In Response to the Huge Costs Associated in Coming Up with Such/Similar

Resources Regulary, We inform us All, MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE
OF CHARGE. However Similar QUESTIONS, Inform of soft Copies, are
Absolutely FREE to Anybody/Everybody. Hence NOT FOR SALE

by Amobi Group of Examiners.

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
443/1
AGRICULTURE PAPER ONE
2 HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

Instructions:

• Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of three sections : A, B and C
• Answer all questions in A and B
• Answer any two questions in section C.
• All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
• This paper consists of 6 printed pages
• Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and
that no question is missing.
• Candidates should answer the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Section Questions Max score Candidates score
A 1-17 30
B 18-21 20
C 22 20

23 20
24 20
Total 90

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SECTION A (30MARKS)
Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. Name two methods of farming that are considered outdated (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. State three symptoms of potassium deficiency in plants (1 ½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State two ways of controlling late blight in tomatoes (1marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Name three financial documents in farm accounts (1½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. State four farming practices which can enhance proper light penetration in a crop. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Give four factors which determine the method of weed control in crop production(2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. State four causes of seed dormancy (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. List four effects of weeds on pastures (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. State four qualities to be considered when selecting seeds for planting (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. State three farming practices which may lead to multiplication of pests (1 ½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. Give three pieces of information to be found in a master roll (1 ½ mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. State three objectives of land reform (1 ½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Why is it important to weed early in crop production (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. State three effects of late defoliation in pasture management (1½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Differentiate between undersowing and oversowing as used in forage Production. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. State three functions of a farm manager (1½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. State two ways of overcoming the effects of excess water in crop production. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Give three symptoms of viral infections in crops (1 ½ marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (20MARKS)
Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided

19. (a) A farmer planted seeds at the rate of one seed per hole at the spacing of 90cmx30cm in his
piece of land measuring 120m x100m.Calculate the plant population in the whole field if all the
seeds germinated (show your working) (2marks)

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(b) State how the following factors influence spacing in crops (2marks)
(i) Fertile soil
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) High moisture content in the soil
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The diagram below illustrates a feature observed after digging the soil several metres deep.
Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow

B
C

a) Identify the feature that the diagram above represents (½ mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the parts of the diagram labeled B,C and D (1½ mark)
B ……………………………………………………………
C ……………………………………………………………
D ……………………………………………………………
c) Outline three characteristics of the part labeled A (3marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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21. Use the diagram below of a pest to answer the questions that follow

i) Identify the pest (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Name the crop and part attacked by the pest (2marks)
Crop Part attacked

iii) Mention the most suitable method of controlling the pest (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(a) Describe the harvesting of sugar cane (3marks)

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SECTION C(40MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided
22. a) Describe the production of dry beans under the following subheadings
i) Land preparation (4marks)
ii) Planting (6marks)
iii) Control of Anthracnose disease (5marks)

(b) Outline five advantages of planning and budgeting in agriculture (5marks)

23. (a) Explain the cultural methods of soil and water conservation (10marks)
(b) State and explain how various practices carried out in crop production help to control pests
(10marks)

24. Study the table below showing quantities of fertilizers used and yield of maize obtained
over a period of years and answer the questions that follow.

Land (in ha) DAP Yield Marginal Average

fertilizers (90kg bags) production(mp) production(AP)
(in 20kg units) (in 90 kg bags) (in 90 kg bags)

1 0 2

1 1 10

1 2 24

1 3 42

1 4 56

1 5 62

1 6 60

1 7 56

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(a) i) Fill in the marginal and average product columns in the table (4marks)
ii) Using the graph paper provided draw the production function curve (6marks)
iii) Show the three zones of production on the graph (3marks)
b) Outline any seven activities carried out in organic farming (7marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………
School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...
Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
AGRICULTURE PAPER TWO
FORM 4 2 HOURS
Instructions:

Questions Maximum score Candidate’s score

A 01 – 16 30 marks

B 17 – 20 20 marks

C 21 – 23 40 marks

Total score

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SECTION A (30MARKS)
Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. a) List two dual purpose breeds of sheep. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two advantages of keeping a Jersey cow instead of a Friesian. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Give two importance of keeping health records in a farm. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. a) What is pica as used in livestock production. (½mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State three importance of keeping livestock healthy. (1½marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Name an intermediate host for each of the following parasites.

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i) Tapeworm (Taeniasolium) (½mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Liver Fluke (Fasciola hepatica) (½mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. a) Name the type of breeding system represented below. (½mark)

Ayrshire Sire xBoran Dam F1 Heifer x Hereford

b) Outline two characteristics of livestock that are used in mass selection. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State four management practices that would ensure maximum harvest of fish from a fish
pond. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Distinguish between crutching and ringing as used in livestock production. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. Give four reasons why young Lambs should be docked (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. a) State three disadvantages of natural incubation in poultry production (1½marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Why is it necessary to supplement domestic poultry diet with grit?(½mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Name four properties of a good vaccine (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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11. State four factors considered when formulating a livestock ration. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Name two Larval developmental stages of liver fluke that occur outside the
intermediatehost. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. List four methods of preserving fish after harvesting. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. Mention three ways that indigenous livestock farmers use to improve their cattle.(1½marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Differentiate between
i) Gilt and Sow
(1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Marking gauge and mortise gauge. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. Outline three possible causes of damage to the hide of cattle when the
animal.(1½marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. Highlight three functions of ventilation in an animal house. (1½marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. State four functions of worker bee in a colony. (2marks)

SECTION B (20MARKS)
Answer All the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
19. The diagram below represents farm tools.

A
C

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a) Identify the tools labelled A and B (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give one use of each of the tools mentioned in (i) above (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Give the two maintenance practices which should be carried out on tool C (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. The diagram below shows the digestive system of a chicken. Study it and answer question
that follow.

(a) . Identify the parts labeled K.L,M and N above. (2mks)

K ……………………………………………………………………………
L …………………………………………………………………………
M …………………………………………………………………………
N ……………………………………………………………………………

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(b) . Give the function of the part labeled M that makes it efficient in digesting food. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(C) . Give two characteristics of the part labeled M that make it efficient in digesting food.(1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

WATER
WATER
WATER

WATER

a) Name the structure illustrated above. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Why should structure be round and not rectangular or square shaped. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Describe the heat situation in the structure. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Give one reason to support your answer in (iii) above. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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e) Why is saw dust not suitable for use as litter in the structure? (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. Below is a breeding cycle of a ewe in relation to the feeding regime accompanying it.
Use it to answer the following questions.

TUPPING
(iii) (i)

WEANING LAMBING

(ii)

a) Name the management practice represented by (i),(ii) and (iii) (3marks)

i) ………..……………………………………………………………………

ii) ……….……………………………………………………………………

iii) ……………………………………………………………………………

b) Give the importance of practice (i) (3marks)

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SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided
23a)Five diseases of internal parasites attack in livestock. (10marks)
(b) Explain differences between Bos indicus and Bos Taurus breeds ((10marks)

24a) Outline ten management practices a farmer should carry out to maintain good healthy in a
herd of cattle. (10marks)
b) Discuss the management of layers in a deep litter system. (10marks)

25. a) Describe five design requirement of a calf pen. (10marks)

b) Describe Milk Fever disease under the following sub headings.
i) Animals affected (2marks)
ii) Symptoms (5marks)
iii) Control and treatment (3marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

231/1 (THEORY)
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOUR

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

• Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided after each question
• In Section B, answer question 6 (compulsory) in the spaces provided and either question
7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8.
• Answers must be written in English only.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1- 31 80

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing

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1. State the branch of Biology that would be used in solving the problem of disputed parentage. (1mark)
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A young scientist observed a bird laying her eggs in a nest and later the eggs hatched into chicks. Name two
characteristics shown by the chicks that show a chick is a living thing but an egg is not. (2marks)
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2. Study the diagram below and answer questions that follow

(i) What is the name given to the apparatus shown above (1 mark)

(ii) What is its use in Biological studies? (2 marks)

3. a) A form two student observed the leaf shown below.

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a) Name the process shown by the leaf. (1mark)
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b) Differentiate between the process shown above and transpiration (2marks)

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4. A certain species of flowering plant relies entirely on sexual reproduction for propagation. The
Chromosome number of the cell in the ovarian wall is 16.
a) The pollen tube nucleus. (1mark)
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b) A cell of the endosperm. (1mark)

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5. a) What are fossils? (1mark)
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b) State two limitations of the use of fossils as an evidence of evolution. (2marks)
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6. Name the disease of the blood characterized by,

a) Abnormally large number of white blood cells (1mark)
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b) Crescent –shaped hemoglobin (1mark)
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7. a) State two roles of hydrochloric acid secreted by the stomach wall. (2marks)
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(b) Name the cells that secrete the above component. (1mark)
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8. Name the organisms that cause each of the following diseases.
i) Amoebic dysentery. (1mark)
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ii) Bilharzia (1mark)

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9. Explain how marine fish regulate their osmotic pressure. (3marks)
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10. A rhinoceros in a national park was found to be infected with ticks. State the trophic level occupied by
the :

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(i) Rhinoceros. (1mark)
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(ii) Ticks (1mark)
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Study the flow chart below of a process that takes place in both plants and animals.

a) Name the above process. (1mark)

b) In the above process name the chemical reaction represented by X. (1mark)

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11. The diagram below shows a gaseous exchange structure in the stems of angiosperms.

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Name;

a) Part labelled A. (1 mark)

b) Apparatus X. (1 mark)
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c) Substances represented by arrows B and C. (2 marks)

B……………………………..……………………………………
C…………………………………….……………………………

12. When blood is flowing through a vena cava, which main blood vessel will it flow through next? (1mark)
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13. Below is an image of a biological vector. Use it to answer questions that follow.

(a) Identify the parasite transmitted into human blood by the organism. (1 mark)

(b) Name the blood cells that are destroyed by the parasite in (a) above. (1 mark)

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(c) State one biological method used to eradicate the larvae of these organisms. (1 mark)

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16. Give the structural adaptations of the following in an insect pollinated plant.

(a) Pollen grain. (1 mark)

(b) Stigma. (2 mark)

(a) Identify the type of pollution that has such an effect. (1 mark)

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(b) State two effects of the type of pollution identified in (a) above to the organism. (2 marks)

(a) Pollen tube growing towards the ovary (1 mark)

(b) Maggots moving away from light. (1 mark)

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19. State two activities of the cell that are controlled by the nucleus. (2 marks)
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20. The field of view of a light microscope appeared as shown below in diagram A and the diameter in A
was occupied by cells as shown in B.

Calculate the length of one cell. (3 marks)

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21. State two importance of water in germination of seeds. (2 marks)
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22. Why is sexual reproduction advantageous in flowering in plants? (2 marks)
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23. Below is an illustration of an organism captured by students during a practical lesson.

(a) Identify three features that enable the organism to be placed in the phylum Arthropoda.(3marks)
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(b) Explain why the organism will die when Vaseline is applied on its thorax. (1 mark)

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24. State the significance of natural selection. (2 marks)
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25. Explain why a plant shoot develops lateral branches when its tip is removed. (2 marks)
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26. The diagram below shows the structure of a neurone.

(a) Identify the neurone and state its function (2 marks)

(b) Name the part of the brain that is involved in learning and memory. (1 mark)

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27. Explain what happens to the structures of the human eye when a student reading a white printed paper
on a bright sunny day enters a dark room for examinations. (3 marks)
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28. The experiment below was carried out by form four students. The result was recorded below:
Sheet of mica placed
halfway horizontally

5 days later
Source of
light

Explain why the shoot doesn’t bend towards the light. (3marks)

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30. State the functions of each of the following parts of male reproductive system. (3marks)
a. Sertoli cells
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b. Epidydimis n
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c. Seminiferous tubules
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31. The diagram below shows various types of gene mutations..

a. Identify the type of gene mutation shown above. (2marks)

Mutation 1 ……………………………………………………………………
Mutation 2 ……………………………………………………………………
b. Distinguish between gene and chromosomal mutations (2mark)
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
231/2
BIOLOGY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consist of TWO sections; A and B.
• Answer all the questions in the section A in the spaces provided.
• In section B answer Question 6(compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the space provided
after question 8.
• Check to ascertain that all pages are printed and that no questions are missing.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
TOTAL 80

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
1. The set below was used to investigate a certain physiological activity in plants. The two set
ups were left under a hot sun for several hours. Study it carefully to answer the questions that
follow.

(a) What physiological process was being investigated? (1 mark)

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(b) What was observed in set-up A and B at the end of the experiment (2 marks)

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(a) Explain your answer in the (d) above for set-up B. (2 marks)
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(b) What do you understand by the terminology guttation? (1 mark)
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(c) Explain how wilting of leaves during a hot day is advantageous to a plant. (2marks)

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2. The diagram below illustrates the structure in the human eye.

(i) State one way in which the part labelled c is suited to its functions. (1mark)

(ii) State the functions of the cells in the part labelled D (2marks)

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(iii) State the changes that occur in part A to facilitate vision of a distance object. (2marks)

b) A student set up an experiment as shown below.

Light
Maize coleoptile

Box

Pot

The set up was left for three days.

Account for the expected results after three days (3marks)
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3. Tongue rolling is dominant over the inability to roll tongue. The father of a family can roll his
tongue while the mother cannot. Half of their children can roll the tongue while the other half
cannot. Use letter R to denote the tongue rolling trait.
a) Explain with the help of a diagram why only half of the children in the case above inherit
the tongue rolling trait from their father. (4 marks)

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b) If all children could roll the tongue, then what would be the genotype of the mother and
father? Explain your answer using a punnet square. (4 marks)

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c) The micrographs below are of a tissue showing mitosis. Examine it and answer the
questions.

R T

a.) i. Identify the tissue from which the micrographs were obtained (1mark)

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ii. Give a reason for your answer in a) i above (1mark)

Name the stages represented by R and T. (2marks)

R……………………………………………………………………
T……………………………………………………………………

b.) State two significance of mitosis to an organism. (2 marks)

c.) Name two regions in higher plants where cells actively undergo mitosis. (2marks)
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d) During a laboratory investigation, a scientist extracted gastric juice from the mammalian
stomach. He used it to carry out tests on a food sample B which was suspected to contain proteins.
He divided the food sample B into three portions and treated them as below.
I. On the 1st portion of B, he added Gastric juice and mixed them thoroughly before adding sodium
hydroxide followed with copper (II) sulphate drop by drop.
II. On the 2nd portion of B, he added boiled gastric juice and mixed them thoroughly before adding
sodium hydroxide followed with copper (II) sulphate drop by drop.
III. On the 3rd portion of B, he added Gastric juice, sodium bi-carbonate and mixed them
thoroughly before adding sodium hydroxide followed with copper (II) sulphate drop by drop.

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a) State the observations he made in each set up. (3marks)

1stportion …………………………………………………………………………………
2ndportion…………………………………………………………………………………
3rdportion………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Why was the experiment on the 1st portion included in the tests? (1mark)
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c) Name the property of the chemical being investigated in these tests. (1mark)
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d) Account for the observations made in 2 (a) above. (3marks)
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SECTION B (40MARKS)
Answer question 6 (compulsory) then choose any between question 7 and 8
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effects of dilute sulphuric acid on the
growth of plant seedlings. Batches of seedlings were grown in glass dishes on filter paper
to which dilute sulphuric acid was added. The dishes were then incubated. The root and
shoot lengths were measured after 65 hours. The results obtained are shown in the table
below.

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Sulphuric acid concentration (mol/dm-3) Mean root length (mm) Mean shoot length (mm)
0 55.5 25.2
1 x 10-3 63.4 18.4
3 x 10-3 6.5 9.5
4 x 10-3 2.0 4.6
6 x 10-3 1.8 0.8
7 x 10-3 1.5 0.5
8 x 10-3 1.3 0.3
9 x 10-3 1.3 0.0
10 x 10-3 1.0 0.0

(a) Plot a graph of the mean root length and the mean shoot length against the sulphuric
acid concentration on the same grid. (7 marks)

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(b) Describe the relationship between the concentration of sulphuric acid and the:-

(i) Growth of shoots (2 marks)

(ii) Growth of the roots (2 marks)

(d) State two other effects of acid rain. (2 marks)

(e) State three ways of preventing acid rain. (3 marks)

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(f) Name two other gases with the same effect Sulphur (IV) oxide gas in the atmosphere. (2 marks)
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7. a) Describe the mechanism of inhalation and exhalation in mammals (14marks)

b). Explain three factors that affect rate of breathing (6marks)

8. a) Describe the process of double fertilization in flowering plants. (15marks)

b) Describe what happens to the various parts of a flower after fertilization. (5 marks)
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
231/3
BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
TIME: 2 HOURS
Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name, index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL questions in in the spaces provided.
c) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 3/4 hours reading the whole paper
carefully before commencing your work.
d) This paper consists of 6 printed pages
e) Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 16

2 11

3 13
TOTAL 40

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing

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1. You are provided with a specimen labelled Q, use it to answer the questions that follow.

(a) (i) Sketch a drawing and label the specimen on the space provided. (2 marks)

(iii) Make a transverse section of the specimen and label. (3 marks)

(b) What type of fruit is specimen Q? (1 mark)

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c) Slice off about 2cm2cube from the specimen. Peel it. Tie one end of the 8cm LONG
transparent visking tubing provided. Place the banana cube and tie the other end to
ENSURE THERE IS NO LEAKAGE AND BOTH ENDS OF THE TUBING.
Rinse the outside of the tubing with water. Immerse the tubing with its content in
100ml beaker containing iodine solution. Allow standing for 20 minutes.

(i) Record your observations in the table below. (4 marks)

Contents inside tubing Iodine solution

Outside tubing
Before the experiment

After the experiment

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(ii) What was the physiological activity under test? (1 mark)

(ii) Account for the results obtained in c (i) above. (3 marks)

2. You are provided with specimen Q, R S T and U. Study them to answer the questions below.

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(a) Work the actual length of specimen T, given that the shatter resistant ruler measures Q from
tip of mouth to tip of abdomen. (3 marks)

(b) Aboy immobilised specimen Q and attempted to drawn and suffocate it in water by placing
its head in water. Using observable features, explain why he couldn’t succeed. (2 marks)
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(c)Use the features in order given below and construct a dichotomous key that can be used to
identify the specimen above.
Wings, long or short hind limbs, number of legs, antenna. (8 marks)
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(d) State three ways in which specimen Q is adapted to evade its predators in its ecological
niche.
(3 marks)
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3. You are provided with two photographs below of maize plant (Zea mays) taken from the
school farm.Use them to answer the questions that follow.

(a) Classify the specimen into Division, Sub-division and Class where it belongs.

Division (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Sub-division (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Class (1 mark)
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b) Give one reason why you classified it into sub- division above. (1 mark)

(i) What type of leaf arrangement is shown in photograph A above. (1 mark)

(ii)
Giving reasons, give the term used to describe the above flower based on the agent of
pollination. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Reasons (2 marks)
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iii) On the photographs, label where the pollen grain produced and where stigma is likely to be
found respectively. (2 marks)

iv) With respect to floral arrangement, what term is used to describe maize plant? (1 mark)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name and Index Number in the spaces provided.

• Answer all the questions
• All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

MARKS

QUESTION 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

MARKS

TOTAL MARKS

This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all papers are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing

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1. In a partnership business, partners are classified in to four categories, name these four
categories (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Land transport is a common mode of transport in Kenya. List down any four means of transport
under land transport (4marks)
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3. Highlight any four diseconomies of scales that a firm experiences as a result of growth of the
entire industry. (4marks)
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4. The diagram below illustrates the concept of optimum population

O P Population

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From the above diagram, highlight what optimum population depicts (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Study the following balance sheet of Kiboko traders which has been wrongly drawn and
prepare a correct on (5marks)
Kiboko Traders
Balance sheets
As at 31st December 2004
Assets Shs Liabilities Shs

Stock 80,000 Bank overdraft 80,000

Creditors 50,000 Debtors 35,000

Long term loan 65,000 Land 120,000

Capital 130,000 Furniture 75,000

325,000 Cash 15,000

325,000

6. List down four causes of demand pull inflation (4marks)

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8. Highlight four features of economic union as a form of economic integration (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Give four indictors of economic development (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Highlight four characteristics of assets (4marks)
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11. State five circumstances when downwards communication can be used (5marks)
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12. Indicate whether the following items are falling in real, nominal or private accounts (3marks)
Account
a) Sales ………………………………………………..
b) Carriage inwards ………………………………………………..
c) Fixtures and fittings …………………………………………………
d) Stock …………………………………………………
e) Cash …………………………………………………
f) Capital ………………………………………………..
13. State the type of document described below (4 marks)
Type of document
a) Show from which country goods are coming from …………………………………………..
b) Written by an exporter authorizing his bank to sell goods on his belief …………………………
c) Allow importer to get goods on credit and cannot be changed the importer without exporters
permission ……………………………………….
d) Document shows that prices charged on the goods are fair as certified by the importing
country’s officials …………………………………………………………………………….
14. State whether the following transactions will have an increase, decrease or no effect on the
balance sheet total
( 4marks)
15.
Transaction Effect

Withdrew stock for personal use

Paid a creditor by cheque

A debtor paid by cheque

Bought furniture on credit

16. Highlight four methods that can be used by the government to control imported inflation
(4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. State any four unethical practices in product promotion (4marks)
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18. Highlight factors that have contributed to the growth of self-employment in Kenya (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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19. Highlight any four advantages of shopping malls to consumers (4marks)
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20. In relation to transport in Kenya, write the full names of the following terms (4marks)

a) NTSA ……………………………………………………………………………………
b) LAPSSET ………………………………………………………………………………….
c) ICD ………………………………………………………………………………………..
d) SGR ………………………………………………………………………………………..

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21. State five essential elements of effective communication (5marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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22. List down four main types of warehouses (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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23. Highlight four factors that may necessitate re-insurance (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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24. Other than price mechanism, name four methods of determining the price of a product.(4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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25. List down any four means of payment available in home trade (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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26. Name any four transactions that are passed through the general journal (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

565 /2

BUSINESS STUDIES

PAPER 2

TIME: 2½ Hours

Instructions to candidate

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examinations in spaces provided above.
3. Answer all questions.

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1. a) Using a well labeled diagram, explain movement along a demand curve. (10 Marks)
b) Discuss five functions of money. (10 Marks).

2. a) Give four differences between a whole life policy and endowment policy. (8 Marks)
b) Discuss five limitations of a trial balance. (10 Marks).

3. Chemutai started business on 1st January 2005 with capital of sh 100,000 in cash. The
following transactions took place during January 2005.
a) Bought land for sh 50,000 cash.
b) Bought building for sh 20,000, Paid 3,000 cash and the balance to be paid after two months
c) Opened a bank account by depositing sh 10,000 from cash.
d) Bought stock of goods worth sh 5,000 on credit from Mwenge Traders.

Required:
a) Prepare a balance sheet as at 31st January 2005 after all the transactions took place (10 Marks)
b) Explain five functions of insurance companies (10 Marks)

4. a) Discuss any five sources of public finance (10 Marks)

b) Explain five mailing services that facilitate communication (10 Marks)

5. a) Discuss five disadvantages of trade restrictions (10 Marks)

b) Explain five features of successful entrepreneur (10 Marks)

6. a) Explain four benefits of direct production (8 Marks)

st
b) Rono started a hardware business on 1 January 2002. The following is a summary of his
transactions during the month.
Invoices received
2002

January 2. Jirani Ltd shs 80,000

18. Chuma Ltd shs 140,000
26. Mwanaisha traders sh 160, 000

Invoices Issued
2002
January 10 Mungi traders shs 60,000
28 Jua Kali traders shs 4,000
Credit notes received
2002
January 12. Jirani ltd shs 3,000
24. Chuma ltd shs 8,000
30. Mwanaisha traders shs 12,000
Required
Prepare appropriate subsidiary books (12 Marks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

233/1
CHEMISTRY
PAPER I (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
d) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used
e) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 - 29 80

This paper consists of 11 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

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1. State and explain the change in mass that occur when the following substances are separately heated in
open crucibles.
𝟏
a) Copper metal (1 marks)
𝟐

𝟏
b) Copper (II) nitrate (1 𝟐 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A volume of 120 cm3 of nitrogen gas diffused through a membrane in 40 seconds, how long will
240cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide defuse through the same membrane? (2 marks)

3. A reaction of Propane with chlorine gas gave a compound of formula C 3H7Cl.

a) What condition is necessary for the above reaction to take place. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Draw the structural formula of the compound C3H7Cl (2 marks)

4. Name a gas which is used together with Oxygen in welding. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow.

(The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements)

Element B C D E F
Atomic number 18 5 3 5 20
Mass number 40 10 7 11 40

(i) Which two letters represent the same elements? Give reason. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give the number of neutrons in an atom of element D. (Show your working) (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. A hydrated salt of copper has the formula CuSO4.nH2O. About 25g of the salt was heated until all the
water evaporated. If the mass of the anhydrous salt is 16.0g, find the value of n. (Cu = 64.0, S =
32.0, O = 16.0, H = 1) (3 marks)

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7. The table below shows the pH values of the solutions I, II, III and IV
Solution I II III IV

pH 2 7 11 14

a) Which solution is likely to be that of calcium hydroxide? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Select the solution in which a sample of aluminum oxide is likely to dissolve. Give a reason for your
answer. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Select a pair of solutions that would likely give a pH of 7 when equal volumes are reacted with
each other. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Sodium chloride has a higher melting point than hydrogen chloride, explain. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow
substance M.pt oC B.pt oC Electrical conductivity Electrical conductivity
in solid state in molten state

J 365 463 Nil Nil

K 1323 2773 Good Good

L 1046 1680 Nil Good

M 2156 2776 Nil Nil

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Place J, K, L and M in the appropriate categories from the following:

i. Metallic solid _____________________________ (1 mark)

ii. Covalent network solid ________________________ (1 mark)

iii. Ionic solid __________________________________ (1 mark)

iv. Covalent molecular solid_______________________ (1 mark)

10. The diagram below shows how two gases, P and Q were collected.

a) Name the two methods used. (2 marks)

(i)..………………………………………………..

(ii) …………………………………………….....
b) State properties of P and Q that enable them to be collected through the methods shown.
(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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11. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions in the table below and answer the
questions below the table

Bond Bond Energy (KJmol-1)

C-H 414

Cl-Cl 244

C-Cl 326

H-Cl 431

Calculate the enthalpy change of the following reaction

CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) U.V. light CH3Cl(g)+HCl (g) (3 marks )

12. Study the diagram below used to investigate the property of steam on aluminium

Aluminium
powder

Steam

(a) Explain why no gas was collected in the set up above. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Explain why the reaction between aluminium and steam stops after a short time. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. A pupil analyzed a commercial vinegar solution by titration and found that 24.5cm 3 of 0.09 M sodium
hydroxide solution was required for titration of 10 cm3 of vinegar. Calculate the molarity of ethanoic
acid CH3COOH in vinegar. (3 marks)

14. The diagram below shows a ‘jiko’ when in use. Study it and answer the questions that follow

Region B

Burning charcoal
Region A
Air
Ash

(a) Identify the gas formed at region B (1 mark)

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(b)

Using an equation, explain what happens at region A (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Sodium chloride is contaminated with copper (II) oxide. Explain how pure sodium chloride can be
obtained from the mixture. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. The table below gives three experiments on the reaction of excess sulphuric (VI) acid and 0.5g of zinc
done under different conditions. In each the volume of gas was recorded at different time intervals.
Experiment Form of zinc Sulphuric (VI) acid solution

I Powder 0.8M

II Powder 1.0M

III Granules 0.8M

On the axis below, draw and label the three curves that could be obtained from such results. (3 marks)

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17. The set-up of apparatus below used to prepare sulphur (VI) oxide:
Dry gas N

Catalyst X
Drying agent Y
Dry gas M

Solid SO3
Ice

(i) Name Gas N………………………… and Gas M………………………….. (1 mark)

(ii) Catalyst X ……………………………………………………………... (1 mark)

(iii) Why is it necessary to use drying agent Y? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. State and explain the observation made when chlorine gas is bubbled into potassium iodide solution.
(2 marks)

Dry gas N

Catalyst X
Drying agent Y
Dry gas M

Ice Solid SO3

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19. The diagram below shows an arrangement of electrons in Aluminium chloride dimer.

(i) Write down the formula of the above molecule. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) On the diagram, indicate using an arrow the dative bond. (1 mark)

20. When Magnesium metal is burnt in air, it reacts with both oxygen and nitrogen gases giving a white solid
with black specs. Write two equations for the reactions that take place. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. Below is a representation of an electrochemical cell.
Pb(s)|Pb2+(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s)

a) What does || represent? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Given the following:
Eᶿ (volts)
Pb2+(aq) + 2e -
Pb(s) -0.13

Ag+(aq) + e- Ag(s) +0.80

Calculate the E.M.F of the electrochemical cell (2 marks)

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22. When hot concentrated nitric (V) acid is added to sulphur, a red – brown gas and a colourless liquid are
formed.

(i) Write an equation for the reaction. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Identify the oxidizing agent in the reaction above. (1 mark)

(iii) State one environmental hazard of the nitrogen compounds. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. Draw the dot (.) and cross (x) structure of:

a) Carbon (II) oxide - CO (2 marks)

b) Ammonium ion - NH4+ (2 marks)

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24. Using sodium hydroxide solution, describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish between
copper (II) ions and iron (II) ions. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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25. State and explain what would be observed if concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid is added to:

(a) Sugar crystals (1 ½ marks)

(b) Copper (II) sulphate crystals (1 ½ marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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26. When 100 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution, H2SO4, react with 100 cm3 of 1 M sodium hydroxide
solution, NaOH, the temperature rises by 6.85 Kelvins.
(Density = 1.0g/cm3, specific heat capacity = 4.2kJkg-1K-1)
Calculate the molar heat of neutralization described by the equation: (3 marks)
H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

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27. Filtration is carried out in the apparatus shown

𝟏
a) Name X ……………………………………………………………………… (𝟐 mark)

𝟏
b) State one property that makes it possible to separate mixtures using filtration. (𝟐 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
28. Calculate the oxidation numbers of sulphur in the following species: (3 marks)
a) SO32-

b) SO3

c) S2O32-

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

233/2
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Answer all questions in the spaces provided
Electronic calculators may be used
FOR EXAMINER’S USE
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 11

2 13

3 10

4 10

5 11

6 10

7 15

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1. The grid below shows part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The
letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

A B C D

E F

(a) Give the name of the family to which element F belongs. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify an element which forms a stable divalent anion (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Give the formula of:
(i) The compound formed between A and B (½mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The sulphate of H (½mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Using dot (.) and cross(x) diagram, show the bonding in the compound formed between E and C.
(2marks)

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(e) Compare the atomic radii of elements C and D. Explain. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(f) Select the element that has the lowest ionization energy. Explain. (1mark)
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(g) 0.081g of element A reacts with 20cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. Calculate the molarity of the
hydrochloric acid. (R.A.M = 27) (3marks)

(h) The graph below shows the trend of the melting points and the boiling points of the family to
which element G belongs. Explain the trend in the melting points. (2marks)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. (a) (i) What is a fuel? (1 mark)
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(ii) Calculate the heating value of propane, C3H8, given that its molar enthalpy of
combustion is 2200 kJ mol-1. . (2 marks) (C=12, H=1)

(b) (i) Define molar enthalpy of combustion. (1 mark)

(ii) Use the information provided by the thermochemical equations below to calculate the
molar enthalpy of combustion of ethyne. (3 marks)
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H= -394 kJ mol-1
H2(g) + ½O2(g) H2O(g) ∆H= -286 kJ mol-1
2C(s) + H2(g) C2H2(g) ∆H= +226 kJ mol-1

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(c) Study the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Substance/ion Enthalpy change

CaCl2(s) Lattice energy = -2237 kJ mol-1

Ca2+(g) Hydration energy = -1650 kJ mol-1

Cl-(g) Hydration energy = -364 kJ mol-1

(i) Determine the molar enthalpy of solution of calcium chloride in water. (2 marks)

(ii) Draw an energy level diagram for the dissolution of calcium chloride in water. (3 marks)

3. (a) The diagram below shows the preparation of an oxide of nitrogen. Study the diagram and
answer the questions that follow.

Flask M

Mixture of
ammonium
sulphate Heat
and solid D Gas jar

Oxide of nitrogen
(Gas L)

(i) Name the solid D. (1mark)

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(ii) Write the equation for the reaction in the flask M (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Burning magnesium ribbon was lowered into the gas jar containing gas L. State and explain
the observations made. (2marks)
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(iv) Write the two equations for the reactions taking place in (iii) above. (2marks)

I. …………………………………………………………………………………

II. ………………………………………………………………………………….
(v) A drop of water was added to the product formed in (iii) above. A colourless gas K with a choking
smell was produced. Write the chemical equation for the production of gas K (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(i) Give two uses for nitric (V) acid. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) A factory uses nitric (V) acid and ammonia gas as the only reactants for the preparation of ammonium
nitrate. If the daily production of the ammonium nitrate is 4800kg, calculate the mass of ammonia gas
used daily in kg. (N=14.0, O = 16.0 H= 1.0) (3 marks)

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4. A group of form four students of Cockelbet Secondary School carried out an experiment to determine the
solubility of potassium chlorate. The table below shows the results obtained.

Total volume of water added(cm3) 10.0 20.0 30.0 40.0 50.0

Mass of KClO3(g) 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Temperature at which crystals appear(0C) 80.0 65.0 55.0 45.0 30.0
Solubility of KClO3(g/100gH2O)

(a) Complete the table to show the solubility of KClO3 at different temperatures. (3marks)

(b) Plot a graph of mass of KClO3 per 100g water against temperature at which crystals form.
(3marks)

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(c) From the graph, determine ;
(i) The solubility of KClO3 at 40oC. (1mark)

(ii) The temperature at which the solubility of KClO3 is 35g/100g water. (1mark)

(d) Explain the shape of the graph. (1mark)

(e) State one application of solubility and solubility curves. (1mark)

5. The set up below is used to prepare Nitric (V) acid in the laboratory. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.

(a) Complete the set-up. (3 marks)

(b) Name substances

B ………………………………………..

L ………………………………………. (2 marks)

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(c) Name apparatus A……………………………………………………… (1 mark)

(d) Write an equation between substances B and L (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) During preparation of hydrogen gas Nitric (V) acid is not used. Explain (2 marks)

(f) Give two commercial use of Nitrogen (2 marks)

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a) Name three main raw materials of the above process. (3 marks)

b) Name substance M. (1 mark)

c) Name the process taking place in step II. (1 mark)

d) Write a balanced chemical equation to show how product Y is formed. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) 98.123 Kg of Sodium hydrogen carbonate was manufactured in this process.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
i) Write a chemical equation for the formation of solid Z. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Determine in Kilograms, how much of solid Z was produced in this process.
(Na = 23, H = 1, O = 16, C = 12) (3 marks)

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7. (a) Draw and name all the isomers of C4H6 (2marks)

(b) The following monomers react to form a polymer:

Draw and name the structure of the polymer (2marks)

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons have a wide range of uses. However they have been linked to depletion of
ozone.
(i) Explain the problem caused by depletion of ozone layer. (1mark)

(d) Study the flow chart below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Conc. H3PO4
Propanol Gas A
Heat
Process W

NaOH(aq) NaOH(s)
Propanoic acid B C
Heat

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(i) Name:
I: Process W (½mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II: Substances A, B and C (1½marks)

A: …………………………………………………………
B: ………………………………………………………….
C: …………………………………………………………
(ii) Write an equation for the combustion of substance C (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Give one use of gas A (1mark)

(e) Explain how a sample of propan-1-ol could be distinguished from a sample of propanoic acid
by means of a chemical reaction (2marks)
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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
233/3
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
TIME: 2¼ HOURS.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
o Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
o Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
o You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2¼ hours
allowed time for the paper.
o Use the 15 minutes to read through the question paper and note the chemicals you require
o Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
o All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 17

2 8

3 15

Total score 40

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1. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 6.3g of the organic acid H2C2O4.nH2O in water to make
a litre of the solution.
Solution B: 0.1M NaOH solution
Phenolphthalein indicator
Clamp and stand
Burette and pipette.

You are required to determine the value of n in the organic acid H2C2O4. nH2O
Procedure.
Fill the burette with solution A and adjust the volume to zero mark.

Add 2 to 3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate solution A against solution B until
thecolour just permanently changes. Record your results in the table below. Repeat the
procedure two more times to obtain concordant results.
a)
Titration 1 2 3

Final burette reading (cm3)

Initial burette reading (cm3)

Volume of solution A used

(cm3)

4marks
b) Calculate the average volume of solution A used. 1mark

c) Calculate the moles of sodium hydroxide in the volume of solution B used. 2marks

d) Given that solution B - Sodium hydroxide and solution A organic acid react in the ration
of 2:1, calculate the number of moles of the organic acid –solution A used? 2marks

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e) Calculate the moles of organic acid solution A used per litre of solution 2marks

f) Calculate the relative formula masses of the organic acid solution A 3marks

g) Calculate the value of n in H2C2O4.nH2O(H=1, C=12, O=16) 3marks

2. You are provided with CBI. Carry out the test below. Write your observation and inferences
in the spaces provided.
a) Using a clean spatula, heat about one third of the solid CBI in a non- luminous Bunsen
burner flame.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

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b) Put a half spatula endful of CBI in a test tube. Heat gently and then strongly. Test for any
gas produced using litmus papers.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

c) Put 2cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid into a test tube. Add ¼ endful of CBI into the test
tube.
Test for any gas procedure.

Observation Inferences

2marks 2marks

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3. You are provided with solid Q, carry out the test below. Record your observations and
inferences in the table. Identify any gas (es) evolved.

Place all the solid Q provided into boiling tube and add distilled water until the tube is ¼ full.
Divide it into five portions.

a) To the 1st portion add ammonia solution drop wise until excess.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

b) (i) To the 2nd portion add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in excess. Keep the
resulting
mixture for the next test.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

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ii) Warm the preserved mixture from b (i) above

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

c) i) To the 3rd portion add silver nitrate solution. Preserve the mixture for the next test.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

ii) To the preserved mixture in c (i) above add diluted nitric acid.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

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d) To the 4th portion add dilute Barium nitrate solution followed by dilute nitric acid.
Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

e) To the 5th portion add 2-3 drops of conc. Nitric acid.

Warm the mixture and allow to cool. Add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in
excess.

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………
School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...
Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
Time: 2 ½ Hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2) This paper consists of six questions.
4) Answer any five questions on the foolscaps provided.
5) Each question carries 20 marks.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

Score

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Answer Any Five questions
1. (a) Identify eight activities performed by God in the second account of creation Gen 2:4 - 25.
(8marks)
(b) Outline the Similarities between traditional African view of evil and the biblical concept

of sin. (7marks)

(c) Five consequences of evil in the society today. (5marks)

2. (a) Describe the background to the call of Abraham. (6 marks)

(b) Explain the importance of the Ten plagues to the Israelites. (7 marks)

(c ) State seven ways in which Christians identify themselves in the society today. (7 marks)

3. (a) How did David promote the worship of Yahweh in Israel? (7 marks)

(b) Give six reasons why it was difficult for Elijah to fight against idolatry in Israel.(6 marks)

4. (a) State seven similarities between the Old Testament and traditional African prophets. (7marks)

(b) State six teachings of prophet Amos about the Day of the Lord. (6 marks)

5. (a) Identify SEVEN promises the Israelites made during the renewal of the covenant under

Nehemiah. (7marks)

(b) Identify the reforms that Nehemiah implemented as a Governor of Judah. (7marks)

(c) State the relevance of Nehemiah’s experiences to Christians today. (6marks)

6. (a) Explain seven factors that contributed to harmony and mutual responsibility in

Traditional African Communities. (7marks)

(b) What efforts is the Kenyan government making to conserve African cultural heritage.
(7marks)
(c) Identify the changes that have taken place in the property ownership in African
Traditional Communities. (6marks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………
School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...
Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
Time: 2 ½ Hours

For Examiner’s Use Only

Questions 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

Score

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Answer any five questions

1.(a)State Jeremiah’s prophecy about the messiah. (6 marks)

(b)Explain Simeon’s prophetic message about Jesus during His dedication. (7 marks)
(c)From Mary’s song, the Magnificat, give seven ways in which the church can help to uplift
the lives of less fortunate. (7 marks)

2.(a) Describe the raising of Jairus’ daughter. (7 marks)

(b) Narrate the parable of the Good Samaritan in Luke’s Gospel. (7 marks)
(c)State six factors which hinder Christians from practicing Jesus’ command to love one’s
Neighbour. (6 marks)

3.a) Describe the efforts made by the Jewish Religious Leaders to have Jesus arrested and put
to death.(6marks)
(b) Give reasons why Judas betrayed Jesus. (6marks)
(c) Explain why the resurrection of Jesus is important to Christians today (8marks)

4.(a) Describe the events that took place on the Day of Pentecost. (8marks)
(b)What instructions did Paul give to the church of Corinth on how to use spiritual gifts?
(7marks)
(c)Give five ways in which love is shown in the church today. (5marks)

5.(a) Explain the traditional understanding of marriage. (8marks)

(b) Identify six forms of irresponsible sexual behavior in the society today. (6marks)
(c)State six ways in which the church can help single parents. (6marks)

6.(a) Reason why Christians should participate in constitutional making process. (7marks)
(b) Reason why Christians are opposed to legalization of abortion. (7marks)
(c) What are the causes of pre-marital sex in the society today? (6marks)

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NAME: ……………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

INDEX N.O: ………………… DATE: ………………… SIGNATURE:…………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

101/1
ENGLISH
Paper 1
(Functional Skills)
Time: 2

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE

1 20

2 10

3 30

TOTALSCORE 60

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YOU ARE A STUDENT OF ELIMU ACADEMY.

1. YOU HAVE JUST ATTENDED A WORKSHOP ON CORRUPTION AND ITS EFFECT

ON NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT. YOU WOULD LIKE TO MAKE OTHER
STUDENTS AWARE OF THE NEGATIVE IMPACT OF CORRUPTION ON SOCIETY
AND HOW TO CURB THIS MENACE. WRITE A LETTER TO THE EDITOR OF
DAILY NEWS GIVING YOUR VIEWS. (20 MARKS)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 103 of 249

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2. CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)

FILL IN THE BLANK SPACES WITH THE MOST SUITABLE WORD.

1)………………………… IS LACK OF COMMITMENT TO DEVOLUTION. KENYANS CHOSE TO

INVEST IN LOCAL SOLUTIONS FOR LOCAL 2)…………………...…. AND TO FACILITATE
LOCAL OWNERSHIP OF INFRASTRUCTURAL IMPROVEMENT TO ROADS, IRRIGATION,
HEALTH FACILITIES AND THE MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES. IT HAS
3)………………..…… CLEAR, HOWEVER, THAT OUR NATIONAL AND COUNTY
GOVERNMENTS DO NOT 4)…………….…. FROM THE SAME SCRIPT. THE DISAGREEMENT
ON THE SHARING OF RESOURCES 5)…………………. NATIONAL AND COUNTY LEVELS OF
GOVERNMENT SYMBOLIZES THE TENSION BETWEEN THE OLD ORDER AND THE NEW. IT
IS THE 6) …………..….……. BETWEEN KEEPING CONTROL AT THE CENTRE AND
EMPOWERING LOCAL COMMUNITIES. THERE IS ALSO A WORRYING TREND OF
7)……………….…. ETHNICITY. FOR TOO LONG OUR PEOPLE HAVE REGARDED EACH
OTHER SUSPICIOUSLY 8)……………….…. THE DISTORTING LENSES OF ETHNIC
STEREOTYPE. TRIBALISM, THE CURSE THAT HAS KEPT US DOWN, APPEARS TO BE
GETTING A TIGHTER GRIP ON OUR COUNTRY. KENYANS APPEAR TO BE GETTING DIVIDED
WITH EVERY 9)………….………... YEAR AND EVERY ELECTION. WE MUST ALL
TRANSCEND TRIBAL STEREOTYPES. UNFORTUNATELY, THE GOVERNMENT SCORES
QUITE 10)……………………… IN THIS REGARD.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

WHISKEY ON YOUR BREATH

COULD MAKE A SMALL BOY DIZZY
BUT I HUNG ON LIKE DEATH:
SUCH WALTZING WAS NOT EASY

WE ROMPED UNTIL THE PANS

SLID FROM THE KITCHEN SHELF:
MY MOTHER’S COUNTENANCE

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COULD NOT UNFROWN ITSELF.
I) COMMENT ON THE RHYME SCHEME OF THE POEM. (3 MARKS)

II) WHICH WORDS WOULD YOU STRESS IN LINE 2 OF THE POEM? (2 MARKS)

III) IF YOU WERE TO RECITE THE ABOVE POEM, WHAT TWO PARALINGUISTIC
FEATURES WOULD YOU EMPLOY TO MAKE
YOUR PRESENTATION INTERESTING? (4 MARKS)

3 B. PROVIDE HOMOPHONES FOR EACH OF THE FOLLOWING WORDS: (5 MARKS)

(I) CEREAL ………………………………………………………………

(II) FLOUR ………………………………………………………………………

(III) DOUGH - ……………………………………………………………………

(IV) BEER - ………………………………………………………………………

(V) BRAKE - ……………………………………………………………………

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3 C. INDICATE WHETHER YOU WOULD USE A RISING OR FALLING INTONATION.
(4 MARKS)
(I) ASKING QUESTIONS WHOSE ANSWER IS EITHER YES OR NO -

…………………………………………………………..

(II) MAKING A REQUEST - ……………………………………………….

(III) EMPHASIZING A WORD IN A SENTENCE -

…………………………………………………….........

(IV) ASKING A ‘WH’ QUESTION -

………………………………………………………..

3 D. YOU ARE PART OF AN AUDIENCE LISTENING TO A PRESENTATION OF “HOW TO

PASS KCSE”. WHAT FIVE THINGS WOULD YOU DO TO BENEFIT FROM THE SPEECH?
(5 MARKS)

3 E. CONSIDER THE FOLLOWING CONVERSATION AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT

FOLLOW.

TEACHER: JUMA, PLEASE LEAD THE DISCUSSION.

JUMA: AHA, OK. WHAT PLAY SHOULD WE PICK FOR OUR CLASS?
DOES ANYONE HAVE A SUGGESTION? FATUMA?
FATUMA: I SUGGEST WE DO CAUCASIAN CHALK CIRCLE.
JOHN: NO, I DISLIKE THE CAUCASIAN CHALK CIRCLE. I SUGGEST WE …
ANN: I LOVE THE RIVER AND THE SOURCE!

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
JOHN: NO WAY! THAT WOULD MAKE A STUPID PLAY.
JUMA: JOHN, RESPECT OTHER PEOPLE’S OPINION. MARY?
MARY: I JUST WANTED TO SAY THAT ‘CAUCASIAN CHALK CIRCLE’ IS A REALLY
GOOD PLAY.
JUMA: I SUGGEST WE GO BY MAJORITY; MOST OF US SEEM TO LIKE THE
‘CAUCASIAN CHALK CIRCLE’.

I. IN THE LIGHT OF EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION, EXPLAIN FOUR THINGS SOME

MEMBERS OF THIS DISCUSSION GROUP DID WRONG. (4 MARKS)

II. WHAT THREE THINGS DID THE CHAIRPERSON DO RIGHT? (3 MARKS)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

ENGLISH
Paper 2
2 ½ hours
Instructions to Students
(a) Write your name and admission no. in the space provided.
(b) Sign and write the date of exam in the space provided.
(c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
(d) All your answers must be written in the space provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE

Question Max Candidate’s Score

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

Total 80

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1. READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
(20 Marks)

Now books are for reading, but men must bring to their reading a desire to learn and a
power of assimilation. Reading a book without assimilating it is like eating a meal without
digesting it. Reading should be active, not passive. I think it was G.K. Chesterton who said there
was a great difference between the eager man who wants to read a book, and the bored man who
wants a book to read. I also heard a dreadful story of a man who went to a bookshop in England
and said, “Can you recommend me a book I can read while listening to the wireless?”
When students first go to a library, they may be puzzled as to what to read of all the
different subjects. Well, Bacon tells you to look at weak places in your armor, and shows you how
to fill the gaps in your knowledge. On the other hand, it is no good just trying to fill your mind
with knowledge. Knowledge in itself is often useless. A mind overloaded with knowledge is like
a room too full of furniture; a man cannot walk about freely in it, and look out of the windows. It
is much better to concentrate on a few subjects which interest you – geography, history, art, science
– and to deal lightly with others, than to march sternly and heavily through the whole range of
learning, like a silly tourist going through a museum and not missing a single object. If you try to
master every subject, you may become very wise, but you will be very inhuman and you will
probably lose all your friends. So you must learn to pick and choose, and you must also learn to
browse in a library like a camel browsing in the pasture.
If you watch a camel grazing, you will see that although he is supposed to be one of the
most stupid animals in creation, he has at least one of the characteristics of a cultured man: the
power to pick and choose. A student looking for mental food in a library should take the camel as
his model. The camel wanders about and grazes first here and there; sometimes from a tree that is
the top shelves of his library, or a bush, the middle shelves, or the grass, the bottom shelves. He
bites off a twig, chews it a bit, and if he likes it he takes another bite. If he finds it tasteless or
bitter, he leaves it and wanders to another tree. Sometimes after trying several trees and plants, he
comes back to his first one. In the end he will probably sit down and chew it over. Mental chewing
over is a very good process for a man, as physical chewing over is for a camel. It helps digestion.
(Adapted from Sir Douglas Newbolt’s Inaugural Lecture to the Cultural Centre, Khartoum)
Questions.

a) According to the first paragraph, what is the purpose of books? (1 mark)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain the implication of assimilation in reading a book? (2 marks)

d) In your own words, how does the narrator regard those who read as they listen to the
radio? 2Mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Explain the narrator’s analogy of a crowded room in relation to knowledge. (2 marks)

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f) What main danger is one likely to face if one masters every subject read. (2 marks)

g) Why do you think the narrator identifies a cultured man with the power to pick and

choose? 2mks

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
h) In note form, enumerate the importance of a camel to a student seeking knowledge.(3marks)

i) Puzzled

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ii) Browse

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Digestion

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. A DOLL’S HOUSE By John Steinbeck (25
marks)

Helmer: Very well. I will think it over; we shall manage to hit upon something.
Nora: That is nice of you. (Goes to the Christmas tree; a short pause). How pretty the
flowers look. But, tell me, was it really something very bad that this Krogstad was guilty
of?
Helmer: Yes; or, as in so many cases, by imprudence. I am not so heartless as to condemn
a man altogether because of a single false step of that kind.
Nora: No, you wouldn’t, would you, Tovarld?
Helmer: Many a man has been able to retrieve his character if he has openly confessed his
fault and taken his punishment.
Nora: Punishment?
Helmer: But Krogstad did nothing of the sort; he got himself out of it by a cunning trick,
and that is why he has gone under altogether.
Nora: But do you think it would?
Helmer: Just think how a guilty man like that has to lie and play the hypocrite with
everyone; how he has to wear a mask in the presence of those near and dear to him, even
before his wife and children. And about the children – that is the most terrible part of it all,
Nora.
Nora: How?

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Helmer: Because such an atmosphere of lies infects and poisons the whole life of a home.
Each breath the children take in such a house is full of germs of evil.

Questions
a) Place this excerpt in its immediate context. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Identify and illustrate two character traits of Helmer evident in the extract. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) From your knowledge of the play, explain the irony in Helmer’s observation. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) From elsewhere in the play, explain 2 steps Nora takes to ensure that her children do
not take any breath full of germs of evil. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Explain the meaning of the following phrases as used in the extract: 2marks

i.…and that’s why he has gone under altogether

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii.Krogstad did nothing of the sort
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) I am not so heartless as to condemn a man altogether because of a single false step of
that kind. (Add a question tag) - 1mark
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Explain Tovarld and Nora’s position on the issue of forgery as evidenced in the excerpt
and elsewhere in the play. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) Identify and illustrate any 2 stylistic devices used in the excerpt. (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3: ORAL LITERATURE (20 marks)

Read the narrative below and then answer the questions that follow.
Long long time ago animals and Birds spoke just like men do. When God had to stop
them speaking, He made birds sing, like this chrrip! Chrrip ………. lions to roar like this graagh!
Graagh! And hyenas to howl like this huuu! Huuu!
And do you blame God? Listen to what naughty hyena who had gone two days without any meat
did. He had been wondering up and down the hills when he suddenly stopped, nose in the air,
one foot raised.
Do I smell, eh…. smell food? He slowly raised his head to the skies as if to say, “Please God, let
me find some food, even one rotting bone will do.”
Slowly, he followed the smell, sniffing hard, stopping now and again, over grinning wider as the
smell became stronger. “Here at last”, He said as he came in sight of a calf that seemed dead,
flies buzzing over its excrement.
“God, no time to waste. Who knows the owner may be around. Oh, no, I see it is secured to a
tree with a ‘Mukwa” I’ll take my time.
Ha, I am tired too, come to think of it. God gave us pretty strong senses of smell, generous
old……. Man. Still I do think some people tend to exaggerate, now who was it saying the other
day ‘ati’ God is the giver of everything and that we should be grateful. O.K. Tell me, did God
give this calf? Did you God? I found it myself, smelled my way there, all the way. Nice calf too,
rather thin but it will do. I’ll take the head home and make soup with herbs. I especially like
‘muthathii’, and I see one over there.
OK. Here we go, where shall I start, this lovely neck? No, I know, I will start with the ‘mukwa’
then I’ll get on to the soft stuff, the tail, the rump, ‘Mahu’……….”
After chewing up half of the ‘mukwa’ the hyena brushed his teeth with the twig of a ‘muthiga’ a
tree to stimulate his appetite. He stepped on the calf’s tail, stuffed it in his mouth and ‘snap’ it
went. The calf which was only very sick and tired shot up and bolted away in the twinkling of an
eye.

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The hyena rubbed his eyes, ambled after the disappearing calf and soon fell down in exhaustion.
He looked up again to the heaven, tried to speak but no words came. Hyenas have never been
able to speak ever since…………

a) Classify this narrative and give a reason for your answer. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What two features of oral narrative are evident in this story? (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Identify one economic aspect of the community described in this narrative and give
evidence of your answer. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Describe two-character traits of the hyena as portrayed in the narrative.
(4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) What is the moral of this narrative? (2marks)

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4. Grammar (15 marks)

Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. Do not change the meaning. (4 marks)

i) The teachers will be marking books by the time we get to school. (Rewrite beginning:
Books
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) The driver, and not the passengers, …………………………to blame for the accident.
(Fill the blank with the correct form of the verb “be”)

iii) The principal noticed serious laxity among the students. He warned them against such
behavior. (Combine the sentence using the present participle).
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) But for the neighbor’s quick action, the house would have burnt down. (Rewrite
Beginning:

Were
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the gap in each sentence (3marks)
i. That bus is …………………………………… (rely) for this journey; let’s use the
SGR train.
ii. The ………………………………………… (appropriate) of his speech made
everyone leave the hall while booing.
iii. Don’t make a false ……………………………..… (assume) of his looks: he is a thief!
c) Explain the ambiguity in the sentences below. (2 marks)
The mother beat up the daughter because she was drunk.

i. Stop lying; you cannot be able to swallow four sausages!

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. She likes football as it is more superior than hockey.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Most doctors will report to work with a view of treating all the cholera patients.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative from the choices given (3marks)
i) Who…………………………………………a fire outside my house? (light/ lighted/ lit)
ii) Since the introduction of community policing in our estates ……..…………….……….
of
theft have reduced. (incidence /incident/incidents)
iii) An elephant looks after………………..……………………………………….. calf (it’s/
its)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

ENGLISH
Paper 2
2 ½ hours
Instructions to Students
(e) Write your name and admission no. in the space provided.
(f) Sign and write the date of exam in the space provided.
(g) Answer all the questions in this paper.
(h) All your answers must be written in the space provided.

FOR OFFICIAL USE

Question Max Candidate’s Score

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

Total 80

Page 121 of 249

Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
3. READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
(20 Marks)

j) According to the first paragraph, what is the purpose of books? (1 mark)

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k) Explain the implication of assimilation in reading a book? (2 marks)

m) In your own words, how does the narrator regard those who read as they listen to the
radio? 2Mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

n) Explain the narrator’s analogy of a crowded room in relation to knowledge. (2 marks)

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o) What main danger is one likely to face if one masters every subject read. (2 marks)

p) Why do you think the narrator identifies a cultured man with the power to pick and

choose? 2mks

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
q) In note form, enumerate the importance of a camel to a student seeking knowledge.(3marks)

i) Puzzled

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ii) Browse

4. BLOSSOMS

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
"These children may not know," he said suddenly, turning his attention to his daughters, 'I They
may not know and I want to tell them now, that you are their brother. You are no less a brother to
them than their own mother's son would have been. You are my son as much as their mother's
son would have been my son. Perhaps their mother has already told them, and if she has not, she
will tell them tonight that Parmuat's family and Kaelo's family are one. We are all of Illmolelian
clan, of Iloorasha-kineji sub-clan."
He told Joseph Parmuat that he had brought up his daughters well, they were well behaved and
that he was proud of them. However, having been away from Nasila all their lives, they had
missed out on the basic cultural values that harmonized the lives of Nasila people.
In addition to what they learnt at school or in addition to what they were yet to learn through
books, he stressed, it was imperative that they learned habits, traditions and their culture that they
would make their parents and the Nasila people proud of them. He added that, although he
considered the girls intelligent, there was need for them to develop into responsible mature
women of the future. That was necessary, he said
emphatically, because there was nothing that parents looked forward to, than to see their children
settle down in their own homes.
He had hastened to add that although at their age they might consider what he was saying as
ridiculously irrelevant, he knew by experience that there was nothing better than beginning to
plan for one's future early.
He warned the girls that they might find a few cultural demands obnoxious but they would have
to be stoic and them with the Understanding that it was those none-too-pleasant traditions that
nurtured and bound their People together. "And those families that had refused to rejoin their
people," he added thoughtfully, "had "It should never happen to us, "he concluded dramatically.

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When their mother spoke to them later, emphasizing what their father had told them, they wore
blank faces and deliberately concealed their reaction. She therefore did not realize that they held
extremely divergent views.
That was the most exciting news that Taiyo had received ever since they came to Nasila. She was
exultant. Although their father never for once mentioned that Joseph Parmuat was to coach her in
traditional music and dance, the fact that he had allowed them to interact with him filled her
heart with joy. She could hardly hide her elation. Even the repeated assertion that Joseph
Parmuat was their brother by virtue of their cultural links, failed to daunt her spirit. Was she
simply infatuated with him? If she was, she hoped the feeling would soon simmer down. What
pleased her most, however, was that she now had a confidant whom she could ask some of those
embarrassing questions that she could not dare ask her mother or anybody else.
It was, however, different for Resian, Deep right into her heart she was seething with ire. It irked
her terribly to have had to listen to their father as he prepared them for a journey that she thought
would lead them back
to the Stone Age era. She scornfully dismissed the cultural coaching that Joseph Parmuat was to
undertake as worthless. She likened the whole saga to a grown up person whose mind
degenerated into an idiot and had to content with playing with mud. It was utter foolishness!
"It may not be as bad as you imagine, little sister," Taiyo said, trying to mollify her angry sister.
"Maybe by the time brother Parmuat is through with us, we shall be the wiser.
"Wiser indeed!" jeered Resian. "Yes. By the time he is through with us, we shall have been
taught a great lesson in stoicism. We won't blink or wince even as enkamuratani mutilates our
sexuality to smithereens!"
Questions
a) Briefly describe what had happened just before the events in this excerpt. 3mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) From information given earlier in the novel, suggest a possible reason why Ole Kaelo finds it
necessary to emphasize that Parmuat is a brother to Taiyo and Resian. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) According to Ole Kaelo, why had the girls been unable to learn the Maa culture? 2mks

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d) Why is it important for the girls to put up with cultural traditions that they may find
unacceptable? 2mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) In not more than 70 words, summarize Ole Kaelo's message in this passage. 8mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Why was the mother unable to realize that Resian and Taiyo disagreed with what she had
told them that evening? 2mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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g) Give two reasons why Taiyo was particularly happy that Parmuat would be coaching her in
music and dance. 4mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

h) In note form, summarize the reasons why Resian is opposed to the cultural coaching that
their father prepares them for. 4mks
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3: ORAL LITERATURE (20 marks)

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Slowly, he followed the smell, sniffing hard, stopping now and again, over grinning wider as the
smell became stronger. “Here at last”, He said as he came in sight of a calf that seemed dead,
flies buzzing over its excrement.
“God, no time to waste. Who knows the owner may be around. Oh, no, I see it is secured to a
tree with a ‘Mukwa” I’ll take my time.
Ha, I am tired too, come to think of it. God gave us pretty strong senses of smell, generous
old……. Man. Still I do think some people tend to exaggerate, now who was it saying the other
day ‘ati’ God is the giver of everything and that we should be grateful. O.K. Tell me, did God
give this calf? Did you God? I found it myself, smelled my way there, all the way. Nice calf too,
rather thin but it will do. I’ll take the head home and make soup with herbs. I especially like
‘muthathii’, and I see one over there.
OK. Here we go, where shall I start, this lovely neck? No, I know, I will start with the ‘mukwa’
then I’ll get on to the soft stuff, the tail, the rump, ‘Mahu’……….”
After chewing up half of the ‘mukwa’ the hyena brushed his teeth with the twig of a ‘muthiga’ a
tree to stimulate his appetite. He stepped on the calf’s tail, stuffed it in his mouth and ‘snap’ it
went. The calf which was only very sick and tired shot up and bolted away in the twinkling of an
eye.
The hyena rubbed his eyes, ambled after the disappearing calf and soon fell down in exhaustion.
He looked up again to the heaven, tried to speak but no words came. Hyenas have never been
able to speak ever since…………

h) Classify this narrative and give a reason for your answer. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
i) What two features of oral narrative are evident in this story? (4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
j) Identify one economic aspect of the community described in this narrative and give
evidence of your answer. (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
k) Describe two-character traits of the hyena as portrayed in the narrative.
(4marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
l) What is the moral of this narrative? (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
m) Write a proverb with the same moral lesson as this narrative. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
n) If you are asked to go and collect this story in the field, state:
3. State three things you would do before the actual field trip. (3marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. Grammar (15 marks)

Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. Do not change the meaning. (4 marks)

v) The teachers will be marking books by the time we get to school. (Rewrite beginning:
Books
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
vi) The driver, and not the passengers, …………………………to blame for the accident.
(Fill the blank with the correct form of the verb “be”)

vii) The principal noticed serious laxity among the students. He warned them against such
behavior. (Combine the sentence using the present participle).
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
viii) But for the neighbor’s quick action, the house would have burnt down. (Rewrite
Beginning:

Were

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b) Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the gap in each sentence (3marks)
iv. That bus is …………………………………… (rely) for this journey; let’s use the
SGR train.
v. The ………………………………………… (appropriate) of his speech made
everyone leave the hall while booing.
vi. Don’t make a false ……………………………..… (assume) of his looks: he is a thief!
e) Explain the ambiguity in the sentences below. (2 marks)
The mother beat up the daughter because she was drunk.

iv. Stop lying; you cannot be able to swallow four sausages!

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
v. She likes football as it is more superior than hockey.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
vi. Most doctors will report to work with a view of treating all the cholera patients.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
e) Fill in the blanks with the correct alternative from the choices given (3marks)
i) Who…………………………………………a fire outside my house? (light/ lighted/ lit)
ii) Since the introduction of community policing in our estates ……..…………….……….
of
theft have reduced. (incidence /incident/incidents)
iii) An elephant looks after………………..……………………………………….. calf (it’s/
its)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

101/3
ENGLISH
Paper 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS ONLY
2. QUESTION ONE AND TWO ARE COMPULSORY
3. CHOOSE ONLY ONE OF THE OPTIONAL SET TEXTS YOU HAVE PREPARED ON
IN QUESTION 3
4. EACH OF YOUR ESSAYS MUST NOT EXCEED 450 WORDS.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
1 20

2 20

3 20

TOTAL 60
SCORE

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THIS PAPER CONSISTS OF 2 PRINTED PAGES.
1. Imaginative Composition (Compulsory) (20 marks)

Either
(a) Write a story to illustrate the saying:

Do not judge a book by its cover

Or
(b) Write a story ending:

I realized that the shortest way home is not always the quickest.
2. Compulsory Set Text (20 marks)

H.R. Ole Kulet, Blossoms of the Savannah

‘Women are their own worst enemies.’ Write an essay that depicts the relevance of this statement
with reference to the events in the story, Blossoms of the Savannah.
3. The Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.

Either
(a) The Short Story - Chris Wanjala (Ed.), Memories We Lost

Drawing examples from Rolf Schmid’s short story “No Need to Lie' write a composition on the
topic: “Living with cancer does not have to be a death sentence.” (20 marks)
Or
(b) Drama - David Mulwa, Inheritance

Illustrating your answer with examples from ‘Inheritance’ write an essay entitled:
‘The effects of greed.’ (20 marks)
Or
(c) The Novel - John Steinbeck, The Pearl

Write an essay supporting the proposition that: ‘Juana is the embodiment of reason in
Steinbeck’s novel, ‘The Pearl.’ (20 marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

101/3
ENGLISH
Paper 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
5. ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS ONLY
6. QUESTION ONE AND TWO ARE COMPULSORY
7. CHOOSE ONLY ONE OF THE OPTIONAL SET TEXTS YOU HAVE PREPARED ON
IN QUESTION 3
8. EACH OF YOUR ESSAYS MUST NOT EXCEED 450 WORDS.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
1 20

2 20

3 20

TOTAL 60
SCORE

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
4. Imaginative Composition (Compulsory) (20 marks)

Either
(c) Write a story to illustrate the saying:

Do not judge a book by its cover

Or
(d) Write a story ending:

I realized that the shortest way home is not always the quickest.
5. Compulsory Set Text (20 marks)
Preserving the respect of the community preoccupies the characters in Henrik Ibsen's A
Doll's House. Drawing illustrations from the text, write an essay to show the truth of this
statement.

6. The Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.

Either
(d) The Short Story - Chris Wanjala (Ed.), Memories We Lost

Drawing examples from Rolf Schmid’s short story “No Need to Lie' write a composition on the
topic: “Living with cancer does not have to be a death sentence.”
(20 marks)
Or
(e) Drama - David Mulwa, Inheritance

Illustrating your answer with examples from ‘Inheritance’ write an essay entitled:
‘The effects of greed.’ (20 marks)
Or
(f) The Novel - John Steinbeck, The Pearl

Write an essay supporting the proposition that: ‘Juana is the embodiment of reason in
Steinbeck’s novel, ‘The Pearl.’ (20 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

(a) This paper consists of two sections A and B.

(b) Answer ALL questions in Section A.

(d) All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
SECTION A: COMPULSORY
Answer ALL Questions.

1. (a) What is dew point? (1mark)

(b) Describe how convectional rainfall is formed (4marks)
2. (a)The diagram below shows a barchan.

K
L
L

K
i) Name the air current marked L (1mark)
ii) Name the part labeled K (1mark)
(b) How is an Oasis formed? (3marks
3. The diagram below shows a glaciated upland area. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
R
T

(a) Name the features marked R, S and T (3marks)

4. Describe two distinct features of a fiord (2marks)
5. Use the diagram below to answer question 5 (a) and (b)
A
PYRO
CLAS

B C
T

(a) Label the parts marked A, B and C (3marks)

(b) Identify two characteristics of the feature drawn above (2marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
SECTION B:
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Busia 1: 50,000 (sheet 101/1) provided and answer the following questions.
a) i) Name two types of vegetation found in the area covered by the map (2marks)
ii) What is the six – figure grid reference Nambobote School? (1mark)
b) i) Identify two types of scales used to draw the map. (2marks)
ii) Calculate the area of the land to the west of the international boundary in the N.Western
corner of the map (Give your answer in square kilometers) (2marks
iii) Measure the distance of the weathered surface road C 523 from grid reference 200299 and
grid reference 276317 ( give your answer in kilometers) (2marks)
c) Explain three factors which influenced the distribution of settlements in the area covered
by themap. (6marks)
d) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (4marks)
e) Citing evidence from the map explain three factors that favour business in Busia area.
(6marks)
7. a) i) Name two types of desert landscape (2marks)
ii) State three physical factors contributing to the development of deserts (3marks)
b) With the aid of a well labelled diagram describe the formation of the following features
i) Rock pedestal (3marks)
ii)Barchan (3marks)
c) Suppose you are to conduct a field study on the features formed by water action in the desert.
i) List any three land forms you are likely to study (3marks)
ii) Outline two methods you would use to collect information (2marks)
iii) State three reasons why it is important for them to divide themselves into groups (3marks)
d) Explain three significance of desert land forms to man (6marks)

8. a) i)Define the term soil (2marks)

ii) Name three components of soil apart from water. (3marks)
b) i) Explain how the following factors influence soil formation.
• Plant and animals
• Topography
• Climate (6marks)
ii) State four characteristic of desert soils (4marks)
c) Use the diagram of a soil catena below to answer question (c) (i).

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i) Give a reason why the area marked x is rich for agriculture. (1mark)
ii) Explain three significance of soils to human activities (6marks)
d) Form four students intended to carry out afield study of soil in the school vicinity. State the
follow –up activities they would conduct after the study (3marks)

9. (a)(i) Distinguish between a river divide and interfluves. (2marks)

(ii) The diagram below shows the processes of hydrological cycle. Name the processes marked
P,Q,R and S (4marks)

(iii)Explain two significance of the hydrological cycle. (4marks)

(b) Describe two processes by which a river transports its load. (4marks)
(c) Describe the following drainage patterns:
(i) Superimposed (3marks)
(ii) Dendritic (2marks)
(d)Your class is planning to carry out a field study on a river in its old stage.
(i) Apart from flood plain, name two other features you are likely to identify (2marks)
(ii) State three activities students would engage in during the field study. (3marks)
(iii)Describe three characteristics of the flood plain they would identify. (3marks)

10. a) i) Give two examples of human-made lakes in Kenya. (2 Marks)

ii) A part from human activities, name other three external land forming processes that can lead to the
formation of lakes. (3 Marks)
b) Describe how the following lakes are formed.
i) Crate lake. (4 Marks)
ii) Moraine dammed lake. (3 Marks)
iii) An oasis. (3 Marks)
c) i) State two ways in which a lake modifies the climate of the surrounding area. (2 Marks)
ii) Apart from modifying the climate, explain four other benefits of lakes. (8 Marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

(e) This paper consists of two sections A and B.

(f) Answer ALL questions in Section A.

(g) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions.

(h) All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all questions in this section in the answer booklet provided
1. a) List two types of minerals (2marks)
(b) State three conditions that are necessary for the formation of a petroleum reservoir (3marks)
2. a) Give three physical conditions that favour coffee growing in Kenyan highlands (3marks)
(b) Give two economic problems experienced in coffee growing in Kenya. (2marks)
3. (a) State three characteristics of Jua –Kali industries in Kenya. (3marks)
(b) State three factors that led to the growth of Iron and Steel industry in the Ruhr Region of Germany
(3marks)
4. a) What is Bilateral trade? (2marks
(b) State two factors that hinder trade among members of East African Community (2marks)
5. a) Name two main reclamation projects in the Netherlands. (2marks)

(b)State three reasons for reclaiming swamps in Kenya. (3marks)

SECTION B (75MARKS)
Answer question 6 and any other two questions in the answer booklet provided
6. The photograph below shows livestock rearing in Kenya. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
a) i) Identify the type of photograph. (1mark)
ii) Describe the features shown in the photograph (4marks)
b) i) Draw a rectangle measuring 14cm by 10cm to represent the area covered by the photograph
(1mark)
ii) On the rectangle, sketch and label four features shown on the photograph (5marks)
iii) Using evidence from the photograph, show two indicators which show that the area is dry
(2marks)
c) i) Name two areas in Kenya where the photograph could have been taken (2marks)
ii) Explain how the following factors would improve livestock rearing in Kenya:
• Ranching schemes (2marks)
• Cross breeding (2marks)
• Destocking the animals (2marks)
d) State four physical problems facing livestock farmers in Kenya (4marks)
7. (a). (i) Name two provinces in Canada where wheat is grown on a large scale. (2marks)
(ii) State three physical conditions that favour wheat farming in Canada. (3marks)

(b) (i) Compare wheat farming in Kenya and Canada under the following sub-headings

i.Research (2marks)

ii.government policy (2marks)

iii.transport (2marks)

c) Explain four problems that affect wheat farming in Canada. (8marks)

(d) Your geography class intends to carry out a field study on wheat harvesting in a farm

(i) State two reasons for preparing a working schedule (2marks)

(ii) Outline two problems that face wheat harvesting you are likely to find out. (2marks)
(iii) Suppose during the field study you used the interview method to collect data. State two limitations of the
method. (2marks)

8. a) i) Identify four types of fishing (4marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
ii) Apart from drifting, name three other modern methods of fishing. (3marks)
b) Describe how drifting method of fishing is carried out. (6marks)
c) Explain four factors favoring fishing in the North East Atlantic fishing ground. (8marks)
d) Give four reasons why fish farming is encouraged in Kenya (4marks)
9. (a)(i) List three Jua Kali Industries which are located in rural areas of Kenya. (3marks)

(ii) Suggest three ways in which the Kenya government can promote the development of the Jua Kali
Industries. (3 marks)
(b)Explain three problems arising from industrialization. (6 marks)

(c) Explain four factors which influenced the location of iron and steel industry in the Ruhr region of Germany in
the 19th century. (8 marks)

(d) Students of a school in Mombasa County went for a field study at the oil refinery in Mombasa.

(i) List two methods that they used to record data. (2 marks)

(ii) Give three problems that they might have faced during the study. (3 marks)
10. (a) (i) Distinguish between management and Conservation of Environment. (2marks)

(ii) Apart from flooding, give two other forms of environmental hazards experienced in Kenya.
(2marks)

(b) (i) Identify three districts that are prone to frequent flooding. (3marks)

(ii) Explain four measures that are taken to control flooding in Kenya. (8marks)

(iii) State four problems resulting from flooding. (4marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

311/1
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
Paper 1

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
• This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A, three questions from Section B and two
questions from section C.
• Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
SECTION-25 MARKS

1. Give two unwritten sources of information on History and Government. (2 marks)

2. What was the main reason for the migration of the Eastern Bantu from Shugwaya during

Pre-colonial period. (1 mark)

State one political functions of the council of elders among the Agikuyu in the 19thC.(1mark)

3. State two reasons why Seyyid Said transferred his capital from Muscat to Zanzibar.(2marks)

4. Identify the two main items of trade from the interior during the long distance trade.(2marks)

5. State two function of the African welfare organizations in urban during the colonial period

(2marks)

6. Give two reasons that can make a registerd person to lose citizenship in Kenya. (2marks)

7. Two practices that may interfere with national unity in Kenya. (2marks)

8. Give one factor that led to the growth of Nairobi as a modern urban centre. (1mark)

9. Give any characteristic of a good constitution. (1mark)

11. Identify two types of democracy (2marks

12. State one contributions of parastals to the economic development of Kenya .(1mark)

13. Who is the head of the national police services. (1mark)

14. Give the main reason why poll tax was introduced in Kenya during the colonial period.
(1mark)
15. Give one way through which white settlers acquired land during the colonial period.

(1marks)

16. Identify two types of land holdings in Kenya (2marks)

17. State one way in which the rule of law is upheld in Kenya. (1mark)

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SECTION B: (45 MARKS)
Answer any three questions
18. (a) Give five reasons for the migration of the Mijikenda from Shungwaya during the pre-colonial

period. (5 marks)

(b) Explain five social effects of the migration and settlement of the Mijikenda in their present

homeland. (10 marks)

19. (a) State five characteristics of early Coastal city states. (5marks)
(b) Explain five factors that led to the decline of the Portuguese rule along the Kenyan Coast.
(10marks)
20. a) Give 3 reasons why African were put in reserves during the colonial period (3marks)
b) Explain six problems faced by African workers for the European settlement during the colonial

period. (12marks)

21. (a) State five griencies that the Asians presented to the Duke of Devonshire in 1923. (5mark)

(b) Explain five effects of the Devonshire white paper of 1923. (10marks)

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer any Two questions in this section

22.(a) What five situations can make registered voter to be denied the right to vote in Kenya?(5marks)

(b) Explain the rights to an accused person during trial in a court of Law in Kenya. (10marks)

23. (a) Identify five categories of persons whose personal liberty is limited. (5marks)

(b) Explain five civil responsibilities of the Kenyan citizen. (10marks)

24. (a)Outline three occasions when the president attends parliament. (3marks)

(b)Explain how parliamentary supremacy is practiced in Kenya. (12marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

311/2
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
Paper 2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
• This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
• Answer ALL the questions in section A, three questions from Section B and two questions
from
section C.
• Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and
that no questions are missing.

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
SECTION A(25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Give the relationship between “History” and “Government”. (1mark)
2. Name two types of dwellings used by the early man during the Early Stone Age period. (2 marks)
3. Give two inventions that led to the Agrarian Revolution in Britain. (2 marks)
4. State any two improvement which were made on macadamized roads in the 19th century (2marks)
5. Give two advantages of the use of electricity in industries during the industrial revolution (2marks)
6. Give two reasons why early urban centers in Egypt developed in the Nile valley (2marks)
7. Identify one form of picture writing during the early civilizations (1mark)
8. State one way in which centralization of the authority contributed to the success of the Buganda Kingdom
(1mark)
9. State one political factor which lead to the scramble for colonies in Africa. (1mark)
10. Name one community in West Africa which resisted European invasion in the 19 th century
(1mark)
11. Give two resolutions of the Berlin conference of 1884 to 1885. (2marks)
12. Give two reasons. Why the League of Nations was formed in1919. (2marks)
13. State one major event that led to the outbreak of the First World War. (1mark)
14. Identify two major ways used by the super powers to fight during the cold war. (2marks)
15. Give one main function of the international labour organization (ILO). (1mark)
16. Name the philosophy that Tanzania adopted at independence to spearhead her development (1mark)
17. Give one disadvantage of a federal system of government. (1mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer any THREE Questions from this section
18. (a) Give five reasons why hunting of wild animals was mainly a group activity during the
Stone Age period. (5 marks)

(b) Describe five ways in which the development of the upright posture improved the early

Man’s way of life. (10 marks)

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
19. (a) Give three uses of wind as a source of energy in ancient times. (3 marks)

(b) Explain six effects of iron working technology on African communities before the

19th Century. (12 marks)

20. (a) Identify the three methods used by the French to acquire colonies in West Africa.(3marks)

(b) Explain six factors that led to the defeat of Samori Toure by the French. (12marks)

21. a) State three ways used by nationalists in Ghana to fight for independence.
(3marks)

b) Explain six factors that led to the development of African Nationalism in Ghana.
(12marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
22. a) Give three reasons why the British used direct rule in Zimbabwe. (3 marks)
(b)Explain six reasons why indirect rule was not successful in Southern Nigeria. (12 marks)

23. (a) Name three permanent members of the United Nations Security Council. (3marks)

(b) Explain six ways in which the United Nations provides humanitarian assistance. (12marks)

24. (a)State five objectives for the formation of Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA)
(5marks)

(b)Explain five challenges facing the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa. (COMESA)
(10 marks)

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Jina: …………………………………………………………………………………………

Shule: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Nambari ya Usajili: ………………… Tarehe: …………… Sahihi: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
102/1
KISWAHILI
Muda: Saa 1 ¾
Maagizo
Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
(a) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
(b) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
(c) Kila insha ina alama 20.
(d) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(e) Insha zote sharti ziandikwe katika kijitabu cha majibu ulichopewa.
(f) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 2 zilizopigwa chapa.
(g) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa na maswali yote yamo
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 20
2 20
3 20

4 20
Jumla 40

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1 Lazima.

Wewe ni mhariri wa gazeti la ‘Pevuka’. Andika tahariri kuhusu kiini cha mauaji katika ndoa

na hatua za kukabiliana na janga hili.

2. Janga la Korona limeathiri jamii kwa chanya na hasi. Jadili.

3. Mlenga jiwe kundini hajui limpataye.

4. Endeleza kisa hiki.

“Nisamehe baba.Nilipotoshwa.Sitarudia kitendo kama hiki cha kufedhehesha tena. Sitakaidi

tena makanyo yako. Nilijikuta nimepiga magoti mbele ya

babangu………………………………”

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Jina: …………………………………………………………………………………………

Shule: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Nambari ya Usajili: ………………… Tarehe: …………… Sahihi: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

KISWAHILI-JARIBIO LA PILI
102/2
KISWAHILI
KIDATO CHA NNE
SAA: 21/2

MAAGIZO
Jibumaswaliyote
Matumiziyamtahinipekee
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE: -

Swali Upeo Alama

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

JUMLA 80

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Prefer Calling Sir Obiero Amos @ 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
1. UFAHAMU
(Alama 15)
Soma kifungukifuatachokishaujibumaswali
.Ithibati ya maendeleoy a kiteknoloJia nchini Kenya tayari ipo.
Binafsi, nimeshuhudia teknolojia ya juu katika miundo ya simu na kompyuta, mifumo ya malipo
ya kidijitali, mawasiliano na matumizi ya roboti yakizidi kurahisisha kazi katika sekta nyingi humu
nchini.
Kila mwanauchumi atakubaliana nami kwa kuwa teknolojia ni nguzo muhimu katika kuongeza
kiwango cha uzalishaji.
Lakini mbona uzalishaji umepungua katika miongo michache iliyopita ,katika kipindi ambapo
teknolojia nyingi zilivumbuliwa? Sababu ni nini?
Nikichunguza data katika mataifa mengi ,hasa ya kiafrika,uzalishaji umepungua tangu mwanzo
wa karne ishirini ya moja(21). Kumekuwa na sababu nyingi zilizochochea kushuka kwa
utengenezaji wa bidhaa viwandani.
Sababu si teknolojia zenyewe bali ukosefu wakueneza teknolojia hizo kufikia kila mwananchi kwa
mfano, program ya “my dawa” ni nzuri lakini ni wakenya wangapi wana uwezo wa kumiliki simu
ya kisiasa ilikufaidika na huduma zake?
Ili kila mkenya aweze kumudu bei ya simu ya kisasa, basi uchumi wafaa kuimarika kiasi cha kuwa
na hela za ziada za kununua vifaa vya kiteknolojia.
Kila mkenya na tambua kuwa ufisadi umelemaza kila sekta ya uchumi wetu,lakini hiki si kikwazo
pekee cha teknolojia kukosa kuwafikia wananchi wamatabaka ya chini.
Hali hii pia inasababisha kampuni saba zilizokuwa zimeorodheshwa katika soko la hisa la Nairobi
(NSE) kuondolewa kutokana na mapato ya chini kama licha ya kutumia teknolojia kuimarisha
uzalishaji.
Kudorora kwa uzalishaji kunahusiana moja kwa moja na kupanuka kwa pengo na mapato baina
ya matabaka mbalimbali ya kiuchumi. Kwa mfano ,kampuni ya Safaricom inapata faida kubwa
zaidi kwa sababu teknolojia yake ya M-pesa imeenea kote,huku kampuni pinzani zikiumia.

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Hivyo ,serikali kupitia mamlaka ya ushindani yafaa kuondoa vikwazo vinavyozua
ushindani,nakuweka kanuni zinazozima ukiritimba.
Tukiachia kampuni chache umiliki wa soko husika, tutakuwa tunazuia kufurahia matunda
yateknolojia, hakuna haja ya wagonjwa kukwama mashinani eti kwa sababu hawana simu za
kupata huduma za kiafya kidijitali.
Teknolojia haitakuwa na maana iwapo mamilioni ya wakulima hawana uwezo wamiliki simu
yenye apui na ya waunganishana soko la mazao yao pamoja na kuwaelekeza kwa maduka yenye
dawa na mbegu za bei nafuu. Utazidi kuumia iwapo tutaachia Safaricom idhibiti soko la kutuma
hela kidijitali.
Sera kuhusu teknolojia nchini zafaa kuboreshwa ilikuvumisha ubunifu na kueneza hadi
mashinani.Kuna raha gani kuwa teknolojia nyingi zisizo saidia kukuwa kwa uchumi wetu?
Teknolojia isiyoenea itazidi kulemaza uzalishaji tusipochukua hatua.
Maswali
a).Yape makala uliyoyasoma anwani mwafaka. (alama.1)

b). Toa sababu za teknolojia kulemaza uzalishaji wa mali. (alama. 4)

c) . Kwa mujibu wa makala haya ni nini umuhimu wa teknolojia.? (alama.2)

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d) .Ni hatua ipi serikali inastahili kuchukua ilikuzuia ukiritimba (alama.2)

e).Ni nini msimamo wa mwandishi kuhusu teknolojia (alama.2)

f) .Fafanua msamiati huu kimuktadha (alama.2)

(i) Idhibati

(ii) Ukiritimba

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2. UFUPISHO (alama 15)

Soma taarifaifuatayokishaujibumaswali.

Ajira ya watoto ni tatizo sugu linalo kumba ulimwengu wa sasa, hasa katika nchi
zinazoendelea. Jambo la kusikitisha ni kwamba hivi ndivyo ilivyo katika nchi nyingi za ulimwengu
huu. Kuna idadi kubwa ya watoto wanaoajiriwa katika nyanja mbalimbali za jamii. Zipo sababu
nyingi zinazo wasukuma watoto kutafuta ajira barani Afrika kwa mfano, familia nyingi huishi
maisha ya ufukara hivi kwamba hushindwa kuyatimiza mahitaji muhimu hususan kwa watoto.

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Kupanda kwa gharama ya maisha kuna zidisha viwango vya umasikini. Ukosefu wa lishe pia
huwafanya watoto kutoroka nyumbani kutafuta ajira. Janga la UKIMWI limesababisha kuwepo
kwa idadi kubwa ya mayatima wanaoishia kutafuta ajira ili kuyakimu maisha. UKIMWI
umezifanya familia nyingi kuwaondoa watoto shule iliwaweze kuajiriwa kwa lengo la kuanzisha
pato la familia hizo. Watoto wengine hutoroka makwao kwa sababu ya maonevu. Maonevu haya
ni kama vile kupigwa, kutukanwa kila wakati, kunyanyaswa kijinsia na kadhalika. Huko nje
hutaabishwa kimwili na kiakili. Hufanyizwa kazi za sulubu zenye malipo duni au wasilipwe
kabisa. Hili huwasononesha na kuathiri afya yao.
Uundaji wa umoja wa Afrika hivi majuzi ni hatua muhimu ya kushughulikia matatizo ya
Afrika kama vile ajira ya watoto, kuzorota kwa miundo misingi, magonjwa, njaa, umaskini, ufisadi
na ukabila. Katika kushughulikia haki za watoto, nchi za Afrika hazina budi kuzingatia masharti
yalivyowekwa na umoja wa mataifa kuhusu haki za watoto. Nchi nyingi za Afrika ziliidhinisha
mkataba wa masharti hayo ikiwemo nchi ya Kenya.
Nchi hizi basi lazima zishughulikie haki za watoto kupitia sheria za nchi. Watoto ni
rasilmali muhimu na ndio tumaini la kuwepo kwa kizazi cha binadamu.

Maswali.

(a) Eleza mambo yote muhimu anayozungumzia mwandishi katika aya ya kwanza.

(maneno 6, 1 mtiririko)

Nakala chafu

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Nakala safi

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(b) Bila kubadilisha maana aliyokusudia mwandishi, fupisha aya mbili za mwisho. (maneno50 - 55)

(alama 7, 1 mtiririko)

Nakala chafu
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Nakala safi

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MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

1. Andika maneno yenye miundo ifuatayo(alama 2)

(i) Kikwamizo hafifu cha ufizi,irabu ya mbele kati,nazali ya midomoni,irabu ya chin ikati
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Nazali ya ufizi,Irabu ya juu mbele, kipasuo hafifu cha midomo,irabu ya nyuma kati
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2. Ainisha mofimu katika maneno yafuaatayo: (alama 2)

Asemavyo
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Mwangwi
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3. Tunga sentensi mbili kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi `ni` (alama 2)
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4. Ainisha vitenzi katika sentensi: (alama 3)

Ndege yu taabani, hata hivyo anajaribu kujinasua.

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5. Tunga sentensi ukitumia kirai kihusishi kama kielezi. (alama 1)
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6. Unapo adhirika na jambo unasema hewala! Unaposhangilia timu yako kwa kupata
ushindi unasema……………………………………..na unapotaka kitu kinusurike
unasema……………………………..
(alama 2)
7. Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya kinyume: (alama 2)

Wakimbizi walihama na wakavunja kambi.

8.Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao (alama 2)

Nomino ya jamii, kirai kihusishi ,kitenzi kishirikishi, kielezo cha mahali.

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9.Bainisha kiima na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 2)

Mtoto huyo mzuri alifika shuleni asubuhi na mapema.
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10.Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi ifuatayo (alama 2)

Wachezaji walishinda mechi wakatuzwa.

11 Tunga sentensi na ubainishe shamrisho kitondo, kipozi na ala . (alama 3)

12.Onyesha miundo miwili ya nomino katika ngeli ya A-WA (alama 2)

13.Yakinisha sentensi ifuatayo katika nafsi ya pili umoja. (alama 2)

Hataenda shuleni kesho.

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14.Eleza dhima ya tatu za viambishi tamati mbali na kauli ya kutenda/kiishio. (alama 3)

15. Tunga sentensi moja katika wakati uliopita hali ya mazoea. (alama 2)

16. Changanua sentensi zifuatazo kwa kielezo cha mistari.

i) Huyu wake alikuwa amefika lakini hatukumjua. (alama 2)

ii) Mtoto wa Shangazi hucheka sana. (alama 1)

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17.Eleza maana tatu zinazojitokeza katika sentensi. (alama 3)
Niliona mamba.
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18. Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya udogo. (alama 2)

Madebe hayo yatasafirishwa pamoja na nyundo hizi.

ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

Wewe ni mfanyibiashara katika Soko la Kongomawe. Fafanua sifa kumi za lugha utakayotumia
ilikuwavutia wateja wako.
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Jina: …………………………………………………………………………………………
Shule: ………………………………………………………………………………………...
Nambari ya Usajili: ………………… Tarehe: …………… Sahihi: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3 FASIHI MUDA: SAA 2 ½
Maagizo
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
d) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
e) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki: yaani; Riwaya,
Ushairi na Fasihi simulizi
f) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
g) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
h) Karatasi hii Ina kurasa 5 zilizopigwa chapa.
i) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hi izimepigwa
chapa sawa sawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 20

2 20

3 20

4 20

5 20

6 20

7 20

8 20
9 20
JUMLA 80

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LAZIMA : SEHEMU A: FASIHI SIMULIZI
1. (a) Ngomezi ni nini? (alama 1)

(b) Taja mifano minne ya ngomezi za kisasa (alama 4)

(d) Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.

Lulu, mwanangu tulia,

Wewe mtoto lala, mvua imekuja

Si uongo hata na miti huichangamkia mvua,

Hakuna haja ya kuelezwa,

Lulu mwana tulia,

wewe mtoto lala, mvua imekuja.

a) Tambua kipera hiki (alama 2)
b) Taja sifa nne za kipera hiki (alama 4)
c) Eleza majukumu manne ya kipera hiki (alama 4)

SEHEMU B: CHOZI LA HERI (ASSUMPTA MATEI)

2. “Sasa huu ni mji mpya kwake.Ametengana nao kwa muda sasa …”

(a) Eleza muktadhawadondoohili (alama4)
(b) Ni masaibu yapi yaliyomkumba mrejelewa alipofika tu mjini? (alama5)
(c) Fafanua sifa za mhusika anayerejelewa (alama5)

(d) Eleza umuhimu wa mrejelewa (al 6)

3. Tathmini jinsi mwandishi wa riwaya ya Chozi La Heri alivyo faulu katika matumizi ya Taswira
na majazi (alama20)

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SEHEMU C: TAMTHILIA
P. Kea: Kigogo

Jibuswali la 4 au la 5
4. “Ulitaka wahamie wapi siku kama hizi? Wamekuja kuuguza majeraha yao yakufungiwa
soko.”

(a) Weka maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)

(b) Tambua tamathali moja ya usemi katika dondoo hili. (alama 1)

(c) Majeraha yanayouguzwa na wanasagamoyo ni chungu nzima. Kwa kudondoa hoja kumi
Na tano dhibithisha ukweli wa kauli hii. (alama 15)

Au
5. “... kwa mamapima ni raha na maraha. Twasherehekea uhuru.”

Onyesha kinaya cha maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari ukirejelea hoja ishirini kutoka katika
tamthilia ya
Kigogo. (alama 20)

SEHEMU YA D: TUMBO LISILOSHIBA na hadithi nyingine)

6. Jadili swala la mikosi maishani ukirejelea hadithi zifuatazo

(a)Nizikeni Papa Hapa (alama 6)
(b. NdotoyaMashaka (alama 14)

Shibeinatumaliza : Salma Omar Hamad

7. “Hiyo ni dharau ndugu yangu. Kwa nini kila siku tunakula sisi kwa niaba ya wengine ?”
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

b) Eleza sifa za msemaji. (alama 6)

c) Eleza jinsi viongozi wanavyokuwa wabadhirifu. (alama 10)

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SEHEMU YA E – USHAIRI

8 Soma shairihilikishaujibumaswali.
Nilikuomba chakula, na wekwelikaninyima
Sikuwahatanahela, kakimbilakwenyedhima

Megunduwa ewe Shilla, hunijalingidaima.

Sisahaukisogoni, mnobeulipokuwa
Makabadhilinombeni, nanikwawemalitowa

Na libasizamwilini, samanizamtakawa.

Shillayashulesifutu, lokufanyiahisani
Dafutari na madutu, sarepialikupeni

Linisumbuakuntu, na mie kavumileni

Kozi na nilikupeni, kulipakarochuoni

Ulinisapakamani, mnobenikabakini
Asantepundayani, ni matekewajamani

Bada yakazimwanangu, siku ‘tupa abadani.

Nilisakamsenangu, lodirafikimoyoni
Ka ‘pakaziwanguwangu, helanyingikushikeni

Babayoalifariki, ukiwabadokiini

Kiacha bila rafiki, hapohapopanyumbani

Namiamiyokacheki, na nikakuchukueni

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Waringakamatausi, wewe Shilla ni kinyonga
Darajausilitusi, lokuvushaengaenga

Unapofikaofisini, kumbukakutojitenga

Maswali
(a) Lipe shairi hili anwani inayofaa. (alama 1)
(b) Bainisha hisani tatu alizofanyiwa nafsi nenewa. (alama 3)
(c) Tambua nafsineni katika shairi hili. (alama 1)
(d) Andika ubeti wa pili katika lugha nathari. (alama 3)
(e) Taja na ueleze mbinu tatu alizotumia malenga ilikutosheleza mahitaji yake ya
kiarudhi.(alama3)
(f) Eleza toni ya shairi hili. (alama 1)
(g) Fafanua sura ya shairi hili. (alama 3)
(h) Ainisha shairi hili ukizingatia vigezo vifuatavyo: (alama 3)
i. Mishororo
ii. Migao/ vipande
iii. Vina
(i) Elezamaanayamanenohayakamayalivyotumiwakatikashairi. (alama 2)
(i) Dhima
(ii) Sifutu

AU
9. Soma shairihilikishaujibumaswali.
1. Mkatanimkatika, harithihatorithiwa
Sinaninalolishika, walaninalochukuwa
Mlimwengukanipoka, hata tone la muruwa!
Mrithininiwanangu?

2. Sinango’ombesinambuzi,sinakondesinabuwa
Sinahatamakaazi, mupasayokuyajuwa

Sinamazurimakuzi, jinsinilivyoachiwa
Mrithininiwanangu?

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3. Sinakazisinabazi, ilawingiwashakawa
Sinachembeyamajazi, mno ni kukamuliwa
Nakwa’cheniupagazi, mgumukwenuku’tuwa
Mrithininiwanangu?

4. Sinasikuachajina, mkatahatasifiwa
Hatanifanyela mana, mno ni kulaumiwa
Poleniwanangu sana, sinakwenuchakutowa
Mrithininiwanangu?

5. Sinaleosinajana, sinakeshokutwaliwa
Sinazizisinashina, walatawikuchipuwa

Sinawanangu mi sana, la kwachanakuraduwa

Mrithininiwanangu?

6. Sinautusinahaki, milayangumeuliwa
Nyumayanguilidhiki, na mbeleimekaliwa

N’na wana na mikiki, hadi n’tapofukiwa

Mrithininiwanangu?

7. Sinai la keshokwenu,wenyewekuiongowa
Muwanekwanyingi,mbinuMwendepasikupuwa

Leo siyo, keshoyenu,kamamutajikamuwa

Mrithininiwanangu?

(Kina cha maishaA.S.Mohammed)

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MASWALI
a) Eleza hali ya mzungumzaji katika shairi hili ( alama 4)
b) Eleza dhamira kuu ya mshairi kulitunga shairi hili (alama 2)
c) Ni nani anayezungumziwa na nafsi neni katika shairi hili? (alama 2)
d) Eleza toni ya shairi hili (alama 2)
e) Fafanua mbinu tatu za lugha zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili (alama 3)
f) Tambua bahari ya shairi hili ukizingatia. (alama4)
a. Mizani
b. Vina
g) Andika ubeti wa mwisho kwa lugha ya tutumbi. (alama 3)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
MATHEMATICS ALT A Paper 1
TIME: 2 ½ HRS
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, index and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) The paper contains TWO Sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from Section II.
(e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each question.
(f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below each question.
(g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(h) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used except where stated
otherwise.
(i) This paper consists of 16 printed pages.
(j) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions
are missing.
(k) Answer all the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

SECTION II

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand

Total

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SECTION I (50 marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided

1. a) Evaluate 825  4 + 144  4of ( −36 + 30 ) (2 marks)

b) Write the total value of the digit in the thousands place of the results obtained in (a) above
(1 mark)

2. Given the inequalities 2x − 3  4x + 7  x +13 solve the inequalities and represent the solution
on a number line. (3 marks)

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3. Simplify completely

8x2 − 2
(3 marks)
2 x3 − 7 x 2 + 3x

4. The figure below shows a sector of a circle centre O.

Determine

(i) The radius OA of the circle (2 marks)

(ii) The perimeter of the sector (2 marks)

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5. Solve for x in the equation (3 marks)
x
 1 
   81 = 729
3

 27 

6. Christmas bulbs made of different colours are set to light after 8 seconds, 10 seconds and 14
seconds. How many times will they light simultaneously in one hour if they start together?
(3 marks)

7. A bus left Nairobi at 7.00 a.m and travelled towards Mombasa at an average speed of 80
km/hr. At 8.00 a.m, a car left Mombasa towards Nairobi at an average speed of 120 km /hr.
If the distance between Mombasa and Nairobi is 500 km , calculate the time of the day the
two vehicles met (4 marks)

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8. The position vectors of point P and Q are 2i + 3 j − k and 3i − 2 j + 2k respectively. Find

the magnitude of PQ to 4 significant figure. (3 marks)

9. Solve the equation 2Cos 3x = 3 for 00  x  1800 (2 marks)

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10. The diagram below represents a right rectangular based pyramid of 5 cm by 4 cm. The slant
edge of the pyramid is 6 cm. Draw and label the net of the pyramid. (3 marks)

11. Two cylindrical containers are similar. The larger one has an internal cross-sectional area of
45 cm2 and can hold 0.945 litres of liquid when full. The smaller container has internal cross-
sectional area of 20 cm2.
Calculate the capacity of the smaller container. (3 marks)

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12. Use logarithms correct to 4 decimal places to evaluate (3 marks)

5
462  log 8
7245

13. One interior angle of a polygon is a right angle and each of the other interior angles is 126 .
Calculate the number of sides of the polygon. (3 marks)

14. Use the exchange rates below to answer this question.

Buying Selling
1 US dollar 103.00 103.20
1 UK £ 125.30 125.95

A tourist arrived in Kenya from Britain with 8400 UK Sterling pounds (£). He converted the
3
whole amount to Kenya shillings. While in Kenya, he spent of this money and changed the
4
balance to US dollars. Calculate the amount of money, to the nearest US dollars, that he
received. (3 marks)

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15. Joan and Gloria working together can do a piece of work in 12 hours. Joan, working alone
takes 10 hours longer than Gloria. How many hours does it take Gloria to do the work alone?
(3 marks)

 22 
16. The diagram below represents a solid of a conical frustrum.  use  = 
 7 

Calculate the volume of the solid (4 marks)

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SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions in this section in spaces provided

17. Given that a line L1 passes through the points A ( −1,5) and B ( 3, −1) , find;

(a) The equation of line L1 in the form y = mx + c (2 marks)

(b) The equation of a line L2 , which is perpendicular bisector of line L1 . Leave your
answer in the form ax + by = c , where a, b and c are integers. (3 marks)

(c) Given that another line L3 is parallel to L2 and passes through point ( −3, −5) and
intersects line L1 at point P . (2 marks)

(d) The coordinates of the point of intersection of lines L1 and L3 (3 marks)

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18. (a) Draw the graph of the function y = − x 2 + 4 x − 1 for −1  x  5 . (5 marks)
x −1 0 1 2 3 4 5
y

(b) Use the graph above to solve the equations:

(i) x 2 + 4 x − 1 = 0 (2 marks)

(ii) x 2 − 2 x − 1 = 0 (3 marks)

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8 5 −1
19. (a) Given that P =   , find P (2 marks)
6 9

(b) Matawi bought 8 T-shirts and 5 pairs of shorts at a total cost of ksh. 4400. Had he bought
6
T-shirts and 9 pairs of shorts, he would have spent ksh. 1000 more.
(i) Form two equations to represent the above information (2 marks)

(ii) Use the matrix method to determine the cost of a T-shirt and a pair of shorts (3 marks)

(c) Three months later the price of a pair of shorts went up. Matawi bought 5 T-shirts and 5
pairs of shorts at a total cost of ksh. 3650. Find the percentage increase in the price of a pair of
shorts. (3 marks)

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20. The marks of 50 students in a Mathematics test were taken from a form 3 class and recorded
in the table below.

Marks (%) 21 − 30 31 − 40 41 − 50 51 − 60 61 − 70 71 − 80 81 − 90 91 − 100

Frequency ( f ) 2 5 7 9 11 8 5 3

(a) On the grid provided, draw a cumulative frequency curve of the data above. Use a scale of
1 cm
to represent 5 students on the vertical scale and 1 cm to represent 10 marks on the
horizontal scale. (3 marks)

(b) From your curve in (a) above;

(i) Estimate the median mark. (1 mark)

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(ii) Determine the interquartile deviation. (2 marks)

(iii) Determine the 10th and 90th percentile range. (2 marks)

(c) It is given that the students who scored over 45 marks pass the test. Use your graph in (a)
above
to estimate the percentage of students that pass the test. (2 marks)

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21. (a) On the Cartesian plane below , draw triangle ABC with vertices A ( 0, −1) , B ( 4,3) and
C ( 2, 2 )

(1 mark)

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(b) Draw triangle A ' B ' C ' , the image of ABC under a transformation defined by the
 1
translation vector T =   . Write down the coordinates of A ' B ' C ' . (3 marks)
 −2 

(c) A '' B '' C '' is the image of A ' B ' C ' under an enlargement, scale factor -2, centre ( 3,1) . On
the same plane draw A '' B '' C '' and write down its coordinates. (4 marks)

(d) Draw A ''' B ''' C ''' , the image of A '' B '' C '' , under reflection in the line x = 0 . (2 marks)

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22. The figure below is of a right pyramid on a rectangle base of 8 cm by 6 cm and Its slant
edge TA = TB = TC = TD = 13 cm .

Calculate:
(a) The length of AC (1 mark)

(b) The height of the pyramid (1 mark)

(c) The angle between TAB and plane TCD. (2 marks)

(d) The angle between TAB and plane TBC. (4 marks)

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(e) The volume of the pyramid. (2 marks)

23. The figure below shows two circles, centres O1 and O2 intersecting at points A and B. The
radius of the circle centre O1 is 3cm. Further,  AO1B = 90 and  AO2 B = 63 .

Calculate correct to four significant figures

(a) The length of the common chord AB. (2 marks)

(b) The radius of the circle center O 2 , (2 marks)

 22 
(c) Hence, calculate the area of the shaded region.  use  =  (6 marks)
 7 

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24. During a surveying exercise to establish a housing estate a surveyor marked out four points
W,X,Y and Z to represent an area to be left out for a shopping complex and social amenities.
Point X is 240m on a bearing of 0730 from point W. Point Y lies on a bearing of 1450 at a
distance of 300m from X. Z is directly south of W a distance of 320m.
(a) Draw a scale diagram to represent the relative positions of the area under survey

Scale 1cm represents 40m. (4 marks)

(b) Using the scale diagram in (a) above, determine

(i) The distance and bearing of point Z from Y. (2 marks)

(ii) The bearing of point X from point Z. (1 mark)

(iii) A road is to be constructed directly South of X to meet another road from Y westwards
at point P. Find the area enclosed by triangle PXY in hectares.(3 marks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
121/2
MATHEMATICS PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Instructions to candidates.

Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(a) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
(b) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(c) Answer all questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
(d) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving the answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question.
(e) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(f) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.
(g) This paper consists of 20 printed pages.
(h) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(i) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand Total

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SECTION I 50 marks ( )
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. The roots of a quadratic equation are . Form the quadratic equation in the form

where a,b and c are integers. (2 marks)

2. Find the percentage error in estimating the volume of a cuboid whose dimensions are 8 cm by 4.20
cm by 5.6 cm. (3 marks)

3. The cash price of a television set is sh. 25 000. A customer paid a deposit of sh. 3 750 . He paid the
amount owing in 24 equal monthly installments. If he was charged simple interest at the rate of 40%
p.a How much was ;
(a) The carrying charge? (2 marks)

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(b) Each installment? (1 mark)

4. Without using mathematical tables or a calculator, evaluate

(3 marks)

5. Given that , make n the subject of the formula. (3 marks)

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6. In the figure below, A, B, C, D and E are points on a circle. Point C is due north of point D and point
E is due west of point D. Angle CAB = 27º. The angle of elevation of point B from point E is 87º.

Find the size of angle of elevation of point B from the point D. (3 marks)

7. Given that (3 marks)

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8. Expand . Hence use the expression to find the value of , giving your answer correct

to 4 significant figures. (3 marks)

9. The diagram below shows a wedge ABCDEF.

Calculate the angle between the lines BD and BF, correct to 1 decimal place. (4 marks)

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10. State the amplitude and the phase shift of the curve (2 marks)

11. The tax authority collected the following amount of tax from different firms in a particular market.

Determine the quartile deviation of the data. (3 marks)

12. The position of towns P(0º,51ºW) and Q(0º,37ºE).Find the distance between the two towns in
kilometres, correct to one decimal place. (3 marks)

13. A trader bought three kinds of nuts at Ksh. 10 per kg, Ksh. 8.40 per kg and Sh. 6 per kg. He mixed
them in the ratio 3 : 5 : 4 respectively and sold the mixed nuts making a profit of 25% in the process.
At what price per kg did he sell them? (3 marks)

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14. In the figure below, AB and CB are tangents to the circle, centre O and radius 6.5 cm. The arc AC
subtends an angle of 140º at the centre of the circle.

Calculate the area of the shaded region, correct to 2 decimal places (4 marks)

15. A square QRST with vertices Q(1,1),R(3,1),S(3,3) and T(1,3) is transformed by the matrix

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. Find:

(a) the are of square QRST; (2 marks)

(b) the area of image (2 marks)

16. Find the radius and the centre of a circle whose equation of a circle is ,
hence draw the circle on the grid provided below. (4 marks)

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SECTION II 50 marks ( )
Answer any five questions from this section in the spaces provided.

17. (a) Complete the table below for values of (2

marks)
x –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

–36 18 6

(b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of the function

Use a scale of 2 cm to represent 1 unit on the x – axis and 1 cm represent 5 units on the y –
axis.(3 marks)

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(c) Using the graph, determine:
(i) the average rate of change between (2 marks)

(ii) The instantaneous rate of change of the curve at , correct to one decimal place.(3 marks)

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18. (a) An increasing arithmetic progression (AP) has first term as a and a common difference d.
The
ratio of the fifth term to the twelfth term of the A.P is 6:13.Given that product of first term
a and the third term is 32. Find the;
(i) Value of a and the value of d. (4 marks)

(ii) Sum of the first five terms of the A.P. (2 marks)

(b) Determine the least number of terms that must be added together so that the sum of the
progression is more than 700. (4 marks)

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19. The table below shows some values of the curves

(a) Complete the table for values of , correct to 1 decimal

place.
(2 marks)

–360 –270 –180 –90 0 90 180 270 360

0 0 0

– 2.0 0 0 – 2.0

(b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of

on the same axes. (5 marks)

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(c) Use your graph in (b) above to find the values of;

(i) x in (2 marks)

(ii) (1 mark)

20. The runway in Wilson airport is 3.22 km long and it is wide enough to accommodate the landing of
two aircrafts simultaneously, An aircraft x landed at the runway with a speed of 144 km/hr and
maintained this speed till the end of the runway when it took off again, Another aircraft y landed at
runway half a minute later with a speed of 252 km/hr and followed x on the parallel runway
throughout to the end of the runway when it also took off again.
(a) How far from starting point was x at the instant y overtook x. (4 marks)

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(b) Find the distance between the two planes at the instant when y is beginning to take off.(3 marks)

(c) Selina took a train from her home to the Nairobi. At a railway station she met another train
travelling in the opposite direction at 25 km/hr. If the train she boarded was travelling at a
speed of 15 km/hr and it took 10.8 seconds to completely pass the other train. Calculate the length
of each train, if the train Selina boarded was twice as long as the train moving in the opposite
direction. (3 marks)

21. The charge C in shillings per person for a certain seminar is partly fixed and partly inversely
proportional to the total number of N of people.
(a) Write down an expression for C in terms of N. (2 marks)

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(b) When 100 people attended the charge was Ksh 8,700 per person. While for 35 people charge is
Ksh 10,000 per person. Calculate the fixed charges and hence state the equation connecting charge C.
(4 marks)

(c) If a person had paid the full amount and doesn’t attend, the fixed charge is refunded. A group of
people paid but 10% of them did not attend. After the refund the organizers remained with
Ksh574,000.Find the number of people initially in the group. (4 marks)

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22. In certain game, of the players are boys while the rest are girls. 80% of the boys and 90% of the

girls are right handed. The probability that a right handed player will break the rules of the game is
0.1 . Otherwise it is 0.3, these probabilities being independent of the sex of the player.
(a) Draw a tree diagram to represent this information. (2 marks)

(b) Use your tree diagram in (a) above determine;

(i) The probability that a player chosen at random from the game is left handed. (2 marks)

(ii) The probability that a game rule is broken is a session. (2 marks)

(iii) The probability of a girl breaking a rule of the game. (2 marks)

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(iv) The probability that a boy who is right handed doesn’t break the rules and a girl who is left
handed break rules of the game. (2 marks)

23. In the diagram drawn below, point D and E are such that and

(a) Given that vectors and , express in terms of a and b:

(i) OD (1 mark)

(ii) BE (1 mark)

(iii) BD (2 marks)

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(b) Line OD and BE intersect at X such that and where k and h ,
express OX in two different ways (2 marks)

(c) Using the expressions in (b) above, determine.

(i) the values of k and h. (3 marks)

(ii) Hence state the ratio in which k divides OD. (1 mark)

24. A plan for a national stadium is in the form a pentagon ABCDE inscribed in a circle, a hockey pitch
is to be constructed outside the stadium. The centre of the pitch is fixed at a point X. Given that the
angle
DAC = 36º, angle AE = ED,BC = AB and that the tangent at C meets ED produced at
X.
(a) Calculate the angles of the pentagon. (4 marks)

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(b) Giving reasons, calculate . (3 marks)

(c) Given that , calculate the area of triangle (3 marks)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………

School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...

Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
PHYSICS
Theory
Paper 1
Time: 2 hours
Instructions to Candidates
(iii) Write your name and class register number in the spaces provided above.
(iv) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(v) This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B.
(vi) Answer ALL the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(vii) ALL working MUST be clearly shown.
(viii) Mathematical tables and non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be
used.
(ix) This paper consists of 11 printed pages.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1 – 10 25
11 7
12 6
13 11
B 14 10
15 11
16 11

Total Score 80

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. The level of water in a burette is at 30 cm3. 400 drops of water each of volume 0.015 cm3 was
removed from the burette. Determine the new level of water in the burette (3 marks)

2. Calculate the temperature change of water as it falls through a height of 20 m. (Take g = 10 N/kg
and s.h.c of water = 4200 J/kg/K) (3 marks)

3. State the SI unit of density (1 mark)

4. Give a reason why heat transfer by radiation is faster than heat transfer by conduction (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. A railway truck of mass 4000 kg moving at 3 m/s collides with a stationary truck of mass 2000 kg.
The couplings join and the trucks move off together. Calculate their common velocity after
collision. (3 marks)
6.

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7. State the principle of moments (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. An air bubble with a volume of 1 cm3 escapes from the helmet of a diver at a depth of 200 m below
the water surface. What will be the volume of the bubble immediately it breaks the surface of
water? (Take atmospheric pressure = 10 m of water) (4 marks)

9. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on a planet where an object released from rest falls
through a height of 54.2 m in 1.08 s. (3 marks)

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10. State the three factors on which the rate of heat flow depends on. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Under a driving force of 3000 N, a car of mass 1200 kg has an acceleration of 1.3 m/s 2. Find the
frictional resistance acting in the car. (3 marks)

SECTION B (55 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section in spaces provided
12. (a) The diagram below shows a set up used by a student to show variation of pressure in a liquid.
The thistle funnel is wrapped with an elastic membrane. Use it to answer the question that
follow.

Thistle Funnel

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State and explain the effect on the height, h, when the thistle funnel is moved upwards towards
the surface of the liquids. (2 marks)

(b) Figure below shows a simple barometer.

A 2cm 2cm

74cm

1cm
1cm

(i) What name is given to region A? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) What keeps the mercury in the tube? (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) What is the value of the atmospheric pressure being shown by the barometer?(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) What would happen to the reading if the barometer was taken up a high mountain.(1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(v) Give a reason for (d) above. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. a) In opening a door, the moment exerted about the hinges was 15Nm. If the pushing force was
25N and perpendicular to the door, what is the distance of the force from the hinges?(2 marks)

b) A uniform plank of wood is balanced 30cm from one end when a lead of 0.08kg is hung at one
end as shown below.

0 30cm 110cm

0.08Kg
Calculate the weight of the plank. (2marks)

c) State two factors that affect centre of gravity. (2 marks)

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14. a) Sketch a velocity-time graph of a ball dropped to the ground and caught when it bounces up
again.
(2 marks)

b) In areas of the world where a plane is unable to land free fall airdrops can be used to deliver
supplies. A plane travelling at a speed of 90m/s and a height of 100m releases a load of
supplies. (g=10N/kg)

(i) Sketch the path followed by the falling load. (1 mark)

(ii) Find the horizontal distance of the load from the drop zone to where it landed.(3 marks)

c) Define the Newton. (1 mark)

d) The reading on a speedometer of a car of mass 1000kg is 60km/hr when the brakes are applied.
The car is brought to rest in 10m. Find;

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(i) The retardation. (2 marks)

(ii) Find the average breaking force. (2 marks)

15. a) The figure below shows the motion of a ticker tape through a ticker-timer whose frequency is
100Hz.
A 12cm B P 32cm Q

Determine:

(i) Velocity at AB and PQ (2 marks)

(ii) Acceleration of the tape. (2 marks)

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b) Sate two factors that affect centripetal force of a body moving a circular path. (2 marks)

c) A stone of mass 1.2 kg is tied to a rope and whirled in a vertical circle of radius 3.2m with a
speed of 6.32m/s. Calculate

(i) The centripetal acceleration of the stone. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The tension in the rope when the stone is at the highest point. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. a) State the law of floatation. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) You are provided with the following
− A block of wood.
− A spring balance.
− A thin thread.
− Overflow can
− A small measuring cylinder.
− Some liquid.
With the aid of a labelled diagrams describe an experiment to verify the law of
floatation. (4 marks)

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c) A block of length 80cm, cross sectional area 3.0cm² and density 1300kg/m³ is completely
immersed in a liquid of density 1030kg/m³. Determine

(i) The mass of the block. (1 mark)

(ii) The weight of the block in the liquid. (3 marks)

d) The diagram below shows a car acid hydrometer.

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(i) Indicate on the diagram the maximum and minimum measurements to be taken. (1 mark)
(ii) State the reason why the bulb is wide. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. a) (i) State Charles law. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) A gas of volume 2m³ at 27°C is cooled to -123°C, at constant pressure. What is its new
volume? (2 marks)

b)
Pressure Gauge
Syringe

Air

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The figure shown illustrates an apparatus in which a fixed mass of air was compressed in a
calibrated syringe, which was approximately half full of air at atmospheric pressure and a
temperature of 17°C corresponding values of volume and pressure of the trapped air as shown
in the table.

Pressure (Kpa) 50 60 75 90 105 120

Volume (cm³) 0.00048 0.00040 0.00032 0.00027 0.00023 0.00020
1⁄ 2500 3704
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒

1
(i) Complete the table by calculating values for some of the values have been entered
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒

for you. (1 mark)

1
(ii) On grid paper plot a graph of pressure on the y-axis against on the axis.(5 marks)
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒

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(iii) What relationship between pressure and volume of the trapped air can be deducted from
your graph? Explain your answer. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) If the temperature of air was increased to 27°C, what would happen to the volume
occupied by the air at a pressure of 100Kpa? (1 mark)

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Name: …………………………………………………………………………………………
School: ………………………………………………………………………………………...
Index N.o: ……………………… Date: ………………… Signature: …………………….

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1

232/2
FORM FOUR
PHYSICS
2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

❖ This paper consists of 20 questions.

❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
❖ ALL working MUST be clearly shown.
❖ ALL numerical answers MUST be expressed in decimal forms.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1 – 13 25
14 12
15 13
B 16 10
17 12
18 08

Total Score 80

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. The following diagram shows the path of light after striking two mirrors at an angle.

0 0
20 20

Determine the angle between the two mirrors. (2mark)

2. The figure shows the eye defect

(a) Name the defect (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State how the defect can be corrected. (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3. Explain why a plain sheet of paper and a plane mirror both reflect light yet only the plane
mirror formsimages while paper cannot form images. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. What property of light is suggested by the formation of shadows? (1 mark)

5. An object placed 15 cm from a convex lens forms an upright image which is magnified two
times. Determine the focal length of the lens. (3 marks)

6. State one advantage of a lead-acid accumulator over a nickel-iron accumulator. (1 mark)

7. An electric bulb rated, 40W is operating on 240 V mains. Determine the resistance of its
filament.(3 marks)

8. Explain why earthing is necessary in the domestic wiring circuit. (1 mark)

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9.
A positively charged rod is brought near the cap of a leaf electroscope. The cap is the earthed
momentarily by touching with the finger. Finally, the rod is withdrawn. The electroscope is
found to be negatively charged. Explain how this charge is acquired. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The force on a conductor carrying a current in a magnetic field can be varied by changing,
among others, the magnitude of the current and the magnetic field strength. Name any other
factor that can be changed to vary the force. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. The table below carries information on the type of radiation, detector and use for some of the
electromagnetic radiations.

Type of radiation Detector Use

Microwave Crystal detector, solid state diodes

......................................................

Thermopile, blackened bulb thermometer Warmth sensation

......................................

Fill in the blank spaces. (2 mark)

12. The figures below show a convex mirror and a plane mirror of equal aperture

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By sketching a pair of incident and reflected rays for each(a) and (b) show how the convex
mirror provides to the eye, a wider field of view than a plane mirror. (2marks)

13. Water is flowing in a very narrow stream from a water tap (faucet). A negatively-
chargedplastic strip is held close to the stream of water, as shown in the figure below.

The stream of water moves towards the plastic strip.Explain whythis observation. (2mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
14. (a) State Faradays law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) The primary coil of a transformer has 1200 turns and the secondary coil has 60 turns. The
transformer is connected to a 240V a.c source. Determine
(i) The output voltage. (3 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) The output current when the primary coil has a current of 0.5A (Assume there is no energy losses)

(3 marks)

iii) One of the primary ways in which power is lost in transformers is through eddy currents.
State how eddy currents can be minimized. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Determine the cost of using an electric iron rated 1500W, for a total of 30 hours given that
the cost of electricity per kwh is Ksh 8. (3 marks)

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(d) The figure below shows a coil and a magnet being removed from the coil.
coil
A B
S N
Motion

Indicate the direction of flow of current on the coil. (1 mark)

15. Study the circuit diagram below and answer the questions that follow

(a) Calculate
(i). The current flowing through the ammeter. (3 marks)

(ii). The PD across AB

(2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii). The current through the 4Ω (2 marks)

(b) The graph below shows relationship between voltage and the current obtained from an
experiment performed by form 4 students.

(i) Draw a circuit that could be used to obtain the results shown on the graph. (1 mark)

(ii) From the graph determine the emf of the battery used give the relation 𝐸 = 𝐼𝑅 + 𝐼𝑟(3 marks)

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(iii) Determine the internal resistance of the battery. (2 marks)

16. (a) State the conditions necessary for total internal reflection to take place (2 marks)

(b) A ray of light travelling in the direction EO in air enters a rectangular block at an angle of
incidence of 30o. The resulting angle of refraction is 18o.

Find,
(i) The refractive index of the block. (2 marks)

(ii) The critical angle of the block. (2 marks)

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(c) If the ray is incident on surface BD, as shown in the figure

(i) Complete the diagram to show the path of light throughout the diagram.(2 marks)

(ii) At what angle will the ray leave the block (2 marks)

17. The figure below shows a circuit where a battery of 4.5V, switches A and B, two capacitors C1
= 0.3 µF and C2 = 0.5µF and a voltmeter are connected.

(a)
(i) Determine the charge on C1 when switch A is closed and switch B opened. (2 marks)

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(ii) What is the effective capacitance of the circuit (2 marks)

(b) What is observed in the voltmeter when;

(i) Switch A is closed and switch B opened. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Switch is closed and opened and then switch B is closed. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Explain the observation made in (b) (ii) above. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) The following figure show a circuit consisting of a resistor that may be used to charge a
capacitor.

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(i) State the observation made on the milliammeter when the switch is closed. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain the observation made in (c) (i) above. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) The circuit in the figure is left on for some times. State the value of the Pd across
(i) Resistor R (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The capacitor C (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. (a) distinguish between a transverse and a longitudinal wave (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)The diagram shows how displacement varies with time as a wave passes a fixed
point.Displacement in metres.

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What is the frequency of this wave? (2marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Figure belowshows a tuning fork producing waves. The wave fronts are as in the diagram.

If the speed of sound in air is 330ms-1. Determine the value of d. (3 marks)

(d) The figure below shows wave front in a ripple tank approaching a shallow region in the
tank.

Complete the diagram to show the wave front as they pass over shallow region and after leaving
the region.
(1 marks)

Page 242 of 249

KENYA’S TOP SCHOOLS

K.C.S.E 2022 EXAMINERS’ PREDICTION SERIES 1
232/3

PHYSICS

PAPER 3

TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
• You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
• Marks are given for a clear record of the observation actually made, their suitability, accuracy and the
use made of them.
• Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made
• Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and that no
questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only.

Maximum Candidate’s
Question
score score

1 20

2 20

Total 40

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Question1

You are provided with the following apparatus

▪ One stand with the clamp and the boss
▪ One 100g mass
▪ 100cm long thread
▪ Two pieces of wood
▪ Stop watch
a) Set up the apparatus as shown below.

Piece of wood

Mass m

displacemen
t

b) Adjust the length L of the thread so that 𝐿 = 70𝑐𝑚. Give the mass m a slight displacement and release
so that it oscillates freely. Measure the time t for twenty oscillations and record in the table below.
c) Repeat the procedure above for other values of L as shown and complete the table.

Length L (cm) 70 60 50 40 30 20

Length L(m)

Time for 20 oscillation

Period T(s)

𝑇 2 (𝑠 2 )

(9 marks)

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d) On the grid provided plot a graph of 𝑻𝟐 (𝒔𝟐 )(𝑦 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠) against L(cm) (5 marks)

i. Determine the slope of the graph (3 marks)

2 42 𝑙
ii. Given that 𝑇 = determine the value of the constant g (3 marks)
𝑔
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 245 of 249

QUESTION 2

You are provided with the following apparatus

• A wire mounted on a mm scale

• A voltmeter (0-3 or 0- 5.v)
• An ammeter
• A switch
• Two dry cells and a cell holder.
• Six connecting wire with at least two crocodile clips.
• A micrometer screw gauge

Procedure.

(a) Using the micrometer screw gauge, determine the diameter d of the wire at three different points.
d1=……………………………………mm, d2=……………………………….mm, d3…………………………………… mm,

Average d = ………………………………..m (2 marks)

(b) Calculate the cross- sectional area A of the wire in m2 (2 marks)

(c) Set up the circuit as shown below.

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(d) Vary the length by using the crocodile clip along the wire from (when L =0). Record the voltmeter
and ammeter readings in the table below.
(5 marks)
Length L (cm) 80cm 60cm 40cm 20cm 0cm

Current I (A)

Voltage (V)

(e) Plot the graph of voltage V against current I (A) (5 marks)

(f) Determine the slope of the graph. (2 marks)

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(g) Given that 𝑽 = −𝑰𝒓 + 𝑬,
(i) calculate the internal resistance of the cell. (2 marks)

(ii) Determine the emf (E) of the battery. (2marks)

Page 248 of 249

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Page 249 of 249
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