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Kala Joint Pre-Trial 2025

The document outlines the 2025 pre-trial exams for K.A.L.A schools, detailing the subjects tested and instructions for candidates. It emphasizes that marking schemes are not free, while similar questions are available for free. The exam consists of multiple sections with specific instructions and a variety of questions across different subjects.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

197 views280 pages

Kala Joint Pre-Trial 2025

Uploaded by

Kelvin Kinyua

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 280

KENYA HIGH, ALLIANCE HIGH, LENANA &

ALLIANCE GIRLS (K.A.L.A) 2025

PRE-TRIAL EXAMS (ALL SUBJECTS TESTED)

N/B In Response to the Huge Costs Associated in Coming Up with Such/Similar

Resources Regularly, We inform us All, MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE OF
CHARGE. However Similar QUESTIONS, Inform of soft Copies, are Absolutely
FREE to Anybody/Everybody. Hence NOT FOR SALE
by Amobi Group of Examiners.
Page 1 of 3
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Page 2 of 3
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
ORDER OF THE 14 SUBJECTS
TESTED (ALPHABETICALLY ARRANGED)
1. AGRICULTURE
2. BIOLOGY
3. BUSINESS STUDIES
4. CHEMISTRY
5. COMPUTER
6. C.R.E
7. ENGLISH
8. GEOGRAPHY
9. HISTORY
10. HOMESCIENCE
11. I.R.E
12. KISWAHILI
13. MATHS
14. PHYSCIS

Page 3 of 3
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Name: …… ………………………………………..……………………….Adm No ……. Class…………

School ……………………………………..Signature …………Index No……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

443/1 - AGRICULTURE - Paper 1 2hrs

2025 PRE-TRIAL

Instructions to Candidates

a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided below each question.
d) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided below each question.
e) Answer all the questions in section A and B.
f) Answer any two questions in section C.
For Examiner’s Use Only
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1 – 18 30

B 19 – 21 20

22 20

C 23 20

24 20

TOTAL 90

This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

1|Page
Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (30marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided

1. List four non-chemical methods of pest control in a bean store (2 marks)

2. State four factors that can increase seed rate in crop production. (2 marks)
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3. Name the type of farm record from which each of the following information could be obtained (2 marks)

i) Common livestock diseases occurring on a given farm

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ii) Best fertilizer to use top dressing

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iii) The number of Jembes a farm owns

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iv) The sire used to obtain the calves on the farm

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4. State three advantages of earthing up in crop management. (1 ½ marks)
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5. Give two ways in which pastures are classified. (1 mark)
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6. Give four effects of soil micro-organisms which are beneficial to growth of crop plants. 2 marks
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7. State three advantages of shifting cultivation. (1 ½ marks)

3|Page
Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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10. Give a weed for each case, which has the following effect on cattle:
a. Poisoning (½ mark)
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b. Tainting milk when eaten before milking (½ mark)
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11. State three methods of controlling insect pests in a crop nursery. (1 ½ marks)
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12. State three ways by which soil pH may affect crop production. (1 ½ marks)
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13. Give two conditions under which blossom end rot diseases may occur in tomatoes.
(1 mark)
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4|Page
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14. Give two reasons for carrying out each of the following operations in land preparation.
a. Rolling (1 mark)
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b. Levelling (1 mark)
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15. State four features that should be considered when choosing water pipes for use in the farm.
(2 marks)
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16. Explain the relationship between scarcity and choice as used in agriculture economics.
(2 marks)
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17. State three factors that affect the quality of farm yard manure. (1½ marks)
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18. State three factors that can make a farmer choose a jembe for primary tillage. (1 ½ marks)
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5|Page
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SECTION B: (20 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided
19. Below is a diagram showing soil erosion control method

Soil Uncultivated land

Water movement

Cultivated land with crops

a) Identify the structure used to control soil erosion (1 mark)

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b) What is the function of the structure made? (1 mark)

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c) Why was soil not put on the upper side of the trench made (1 mark)

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d) State two effects if water was allowed into the cultivated land (2 marks)

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e. Outline two ways in which inorganic mulch helps in conservation of water and soil. (2 marks)

6|Page
Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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20. The diagrams below show various nursery propagation practise. Study them carefully and answer the
questions that follow

N
M
i) Name the practice labelled (2 marks)

M……………………………………………………………………………………………..
N…………………..………………………………………………………………………….

ii) State two importance of carrying out practice M (2 marks)

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iii) State two advantages of practice N, over other propagation practices. (2 marks)

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21. a) A farmer was advised to apply compound fertilizer 20-20-10 on an orchard measuring 20m X 10m at the
rate of 80kg/ha. Calculate the amount of fertilizer the farmer would require for the orchard. (3 marks)

7|Page
b) Study the illustration below and answer the questions that follow.

i. What is the fertilizer grade of the above fertilizer material? (1 mark)

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ii. Calculate the amount of filler materials in the above fertilizer material. (1 mark)

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iii. State two disadvantages of applying the above fertilizer in crop production. (2 marks)

8|Page 443/1 KALA pre-trial exams 2025

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions in the spaces provided.

22. a. Explain seven cultural measures of crop pest control. (7 marks)

b. Explain seven factors that contribute to the competitive ability of weeds. (7 marks)
c. (i) Describe the harvesting of sugarcane. (4 marks)
(ii) State two precautions in the harvesting of sugarcane. (2 marks)

23. a) Outline five ways in which high temperatures affect agriculture production in Kenya.
(5 marks)

b) Describe the procedure of silage making. (5 marks)

(c) State five effects of wind on crop production . (5 marks)

(d) Describe the safety precautions a farmer should take when using herbicides. (5 marks)

24. Describe production of tomatoes under the following subheadings;

a) Varieties (2 marks)

b) Nursery management practices. (5 marks)

c) Land preparation. (5 marks)

d) Transplanting (5 marks)

e) Harvesting and marketing (3 marks)

9|Page 443/1 KALA pre-trial exams 2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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This is the LAST printed page.

12 | P a g e 443/1 KALA pre-trial exams 2025

2025 PRE-TRIAL
443/2

AGRICULTURE

PAPER 2

2 HOUR

Name………………………………………………………………………………………………………...Adm. No……………………

Class ……………………………………Date…………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1.Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.

2.Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.

3. This paper consists of three sections A, B and C. Answer all questions in section A and B

4.Answer two questions from Section C

5.Answer to ALL questions MUST be written in this booklet.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 30
B 20
C 20
20
90

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1.State four advantages of treating building materials (2mks)

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2.. State four advantages of artificial calf rearing (2mks)

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3.Give a reason as to why each of the following is important in the diet of young animals

i) Phosphorus (1mk)

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ii) Vitamin C (1mk)

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4. State three signs of anthrax disease infection observed in the carcass of cattle. (1½mks)
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5.Give four differences between a diesel engine and a petrol engine (2mks)

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6.State four characteristics of jersey pig breed (2mks)

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7.State two disadvantages of biogas as a source of power in the farm (2mks)

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8.Name one breed of livestock under each of the following categories. (2mks)
a) Dairy cattle breeds.
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b) Dual purpose sheep breeds.
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c) Dual purpose cattle breeds.
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d)Hair goat.
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9.State the functional differences between the following. (2mks)

a) Cross cut saw and rip saw.
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10. State four ways in which disease-causing organism can gain access into an animal. (2mks)
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11. State four reasons for feeding a lamb on colostrum. (2mks)
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12. State four ways of controlling lice in poultry. (2mks)
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13.State four egg abnormalities observed during egg candling. (2mks)
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14.Give four reasons why an animal may be culled. (2mks)
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15.State four functions of the worker bees in a bee colony. (2mks)
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4
16.State three signs of anthrax disease infection observed in the carcass of cattle. (1½mks)

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SECTION B (20 MKS)

17.a) A farmer is required to prepare 200kg of dairy meal containing 16% DCP. Using the
pearson’s square method, Calculate the quantity of sunflower seed cake (28% DCP) and maize
germ (8 % DCP) the farmer requires for the dairy meal. (Show your working).
(4mks)

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b) Apart from the method used above, name the other method used in computation of feed
rations. (1mk)
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18.The following is an illustration of an internal parasite in livestock

5
a) Identify the parasite. (1mk)

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b) Name one final host of the parasite (1mk)

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c) Name the intermediate host of the parasite (1mk)

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d) State two measures used to control the parasite (2mks)

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20.The following farm structure is used in livestock management practice. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.

a) Identify the structure (1mk)

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6
b) Label the parts named E to H (2mks)

E …………………………………………………………………………….......................

F ……………………………………………………………………………......................

G ……………………………………………………………..............................................

H …………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) What is the use of the parts labeled E and H (1mk)

E
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H
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21.The diagrams below illustrate behavior of chicks in a brooder.

a) Describe the behavior of chicks in brooders labeled P,Q,R and S. (4mks)

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b)State two other observable behavior of chicks in brooder labeled P other than the behavior
shown above. (2mks)
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SECTION C
22. a) Describe how a four-stroke cycle petrol engine works. (8mks)
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b)State and explain any six factors that should be considered when sitting farm structures.
(12mks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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23. a) Describe African swine fever disease under the following headlines
i) Animals affected (1mk)

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ii) Causal organism (1mk)

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iii) Symptoms (4mks)

b) Discus the process of digestion in ruminant animals. (10mks)

24. a) Describe the body conformation features of a dairy cattle. (5mks)

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b) Describe the requirements of deep litter system of rearing poultry. (10mks)

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c) State five ways of stimulating a cow for milk let down. (5mks)
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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRETRIAL EXAMINATION-2025

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

231/1 - BIOLOGY - Paper 1
2025 PRE-TRIAL
2hrs

Name: ………………………………………Admission No: ……………………

Class: …………………………………………..…….....HOUSE………………

Date: ………………………………

School: …………………………………………..……Signature: …………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. a) Name two organelles that are found in palisade cells but are not found in meristematic
cells. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the type of cell division exhibited by meristematic cells. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Give the role of the following parts a light microscope.

i) mirror (1 mark)

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ii) eye piece. ( 1 mark)
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2. Name the relevant fields of Biology that would be useful in studying the life cycles of the
vector and causal agent of malaria, in order to eradicate them, and the disease. (2 marks)

Vector………………………………………………………………………………………

Causal agent……………………………………………………………………………….

3. The diagram below represents a section a mammalian skeleton.

2
a) Give two adaptations of the cellular component of blood labeled A. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two importance of the of the function of the cellular component labeled C
(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Identify the enzymes produced in blood cells labeled C (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. How are aquatic plants adapted to gaseous exchange? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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9. The diagram below shows an epithelial tissue found in the respiratory system of man.

a) Name the part of the respiratory system where it is found. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give the name and the function of structures labeled A. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name any other part of the human body where the above tissue is found. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. a) Name two products of the light stage that are used in the dark stage. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………..………………………………………………………………………………

b) The set-up below was used to investigate the gas produced during photosynthesis.

4
a) Why was the glass funnel elevated by the glass blocks? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) How was the identity of the gas was determined? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Suggest how the set-up can be modified to speed up the process. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. a) Below are two photographs showing two types of variations. Identify the types variation
illustrated (2 marks)

…………………………….. ……………………….............

b) Name two causes of genetic variation that arise during gamete formation (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the three components of a nucleotide ( 1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

5
12. a) Define the following terms. (2 marks)

i. Population
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii. Community
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Explain why a habitat could sustain 500 giraffes and 900 zebras for very many years, but
when the giraffes were removed and the zebras increased to 1200, there was not enough food left
to sustain the zebras within 3 years. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. a) Below are two types of gynoecia obtained from two flowers of different species.

i) What is meant by the term gynoecium (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) Name the type of gynoecium exhibited by (2 marks)

A …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

B …………………………………………………………………………………………………...

iii) Giving a reason identify the class represented by flower B. (1 mark)

Class ……………………………………………………………………………………………...

Reason …………………………………………………………………………………………….

iv) Name the type of compound fruit formed by flower B

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. A longitudinal section of a banana peel was placed in a salt solution and left to stand for 30
minutes. The diagram below represents the specimen after the experiment.

a) Account for the appearance of the specimen after the 30 minutes (5 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

7
16. a) Mammals survive better in diverse habitats, compared to reptiles. Give a reason for
this. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. The diagram below represent the digestive system of man.

a) State the role of part B in digestion. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Identify the organ labelled C (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Why is the organ above referred to as a dual organ? (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

8
d) Name the hormones produced by the organ above useful in homeostasis and give the
target organ. (3marks)
Hormones ………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
Target organ …………………………………………………………………………..

e) Give reasons why digestion of starch stops in the stomach, but continues in the
duodenum. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The diagram below shows an experiment set up by a group of students to investigate
respiration in yeast.

a) Identify the type of respiration above. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Account for the observation above, after 20hrs. (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9
c) State the economic importance of the by-products of the above process. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Name two tissues in plants whose walls are thickened with lignin. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. a) Sketch a graph of dry mass of a germinating seeds’ embryo, endosperm, and total mass,
against time. (3 marks)

b) State two reasons why metamorphosis is important in insects. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

10
20. State the cell wall components in the following cells. (3 marks)

i. Rhizopus cell

………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Rhizobium cell

………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Guard cell

………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State the kingdoms to which the above cells belong. (3 marks)

i) Rhizopus …………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Rhizobium ………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Guard cell ………………………………………………………………………………

21. The diagram below shows the structure of the male reproductive system.

a) Name the parts labelled B and C. (2 marks)

B ……………………………………………………………………………………………
C ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) State the functions of the part labeled E. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

22.a) Name three cells that form the phloem tissue. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name physiological process by which water is transported from the cortical cell to the
xylem of the root. ( 1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State the role of the pericycle in roots. ( 1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

12
2025 PRE-TRIAL

Name ……………………………….………….. Class …………………….………………….

Adm. No. …………………………..…………… Index No. ……………………..……………

231/2 BIOLOGY
Theory
Paper 2
2 hours
Instructions to candidates
This paper consists of two sections, A and B.
Answer all the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
In section B answer question 6(compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
after question 8.
This paper consists of 12 printed pages.

For Examiner’s use only

Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 8
2 8
A 3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 20
8 20
Total score 80

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2

Section A (40 marks)

1. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

F G

(a) Name two processes carried out by the structures labelled F to allow the opening of the
stoma. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three characteristics of the structures labelled G. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3

2. The diagram below show cell division in an organism. Study the diagrams and answer the
questions that follow.

(a) (i)Identify the type of cell division illustrated above. (1 mark)

………………………………..……………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Give two reasons for your answer in (a)(i) above. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name two parts in a plant where the type of cell division named in (a)(i) occurs. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Name the hormone that promotes cell division in plants. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4

3. Form 3 students went to the school farm nursery bed. They found out that some seeds sprout
and the hypocotyl bulged first out of the soil pulling the cotyledons above the ground.

(a)(i) Name the type of germination exhibited by the above seedlings. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………….…………………

(ii) (ii) State the functions of the cotyledons. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(i)Temperature (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Water (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Oxygen (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5

4. The diagram below represents part of a human nephron.

(a)(i) Describe the changes that occur on the blood flowing as shown by the arrow up to the
proximal convoluted tubule. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Explain two structural adaptation of proximal convoluted tubule to its function (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Give a reason why blood glucose appears in the urine of a patient. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name two diseases of the liver. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6

5. (a) In humans, the ability to taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) is controlled by a single

dominant gene represented by letter T. A heterozygous female taster married a non – taster male.
Work out the genotypic ratio of their offspring. (5 marks)

(b) Name Mendel’s second law of inheritance. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) What is meant by the following terms? (2 marks)

Allele,

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Hybrid vigour.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7

SECTION B (40 Marks)

Answer question 6 (Compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after
question 8.

6. A group of students carried out a study of the population growth of flour weevils. They put 16
grams of maize flour into two equal boxes K and L respectively. They then introduced equal
numbers of weevils into the boxes. The boxes were kept under similar environmental conditions.
The weevils were counted at intervals and the results recorded in the table below

No. of days after Approximate No. of weevils present.

introduction of weevils K L
0 10 10
20 10 10
40 10 10
60 100 150
80 190 400
100 280 650
120 320 820
140 280 820
160 300 850

(a) Using a suitable scale, draw two graphs of number of weevils against time, on the same axes.

(8 marks)
8
9

(b) What was the approximate number of weevils present in the two boxes on the 90th day?

(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)(i)On what day was the population of weevils in L 580? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Between which days was the population difference greatest in box L? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Account for the shape of graph L between day 40 and day 120. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) In a natural ecosystem, name two abiotic and biotic factors that affect distribution of
organisms. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10

7. (a) Describe the ways in which prey are adapted for survival against predators. (10 marks)

(b) Outline five measures that can be employed to prevent spread of schistosoma parasite.

(10 marks)

8. How is the mammalian skin suited to its function? (20 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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11

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

This is the last printed page

KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION-2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
231/3 - BIOLOGY - Paper 3
MARCH 2025 1hrs 45min

Name: …………………………………………..Admission No: ………………………………

Class: …………………………………………..……..... Date: ………………………………

School: …………………………………………..…… Signature: …………………………

Instructions to Candidates
• Write your name, class, admission number, school, date and signature in spaces
provided above.
• Answer all questions in the spaces provided below each question.
• You are required to take the first 15 minutes of the 13/4 hours allowed for this paper
reading through the whole paper before commencing your work.
• The paper consists of 5 printed pages.
• Additional pages must not be inserted.
• Candidates should check the question paper and ascertain that all the pages are printed
as indicated and that no questions are missing
• Candidates should answer all the questions in English.
• CANDIDATES ARE ADVISED TO START WITH QUESTION 3(b).
FOR EXAMINER'S USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 14

2 13

3 13

Total Score 40

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1. Label two test tubes A and B. Place 2 cm3 of liquid L1 into each of the test tubes labelled A
and B. Add iodine solution into each test tube.
(a) Record your observation. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What is the identity of liquid L1. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Cut out a cube whose sides are 1 cm from the Irish potato provided. Crush the cube to
obtain a paste. Place the paste in the test tube labelled A. leave the set up for at least 30
minutes.
(i) Record your observations. (2 marks)

A……………………………………………………………………………………………

B……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Account for the results in c) above. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Cut out another cube whose sides are 1 cm from the Irish potato. Crush the cube.
Place the crushed paste into a test tube. Add 3 cm3 of distilled water. Decant the
extract into another clean test tube. Carry out a food test using Benedict’s solution
provided. (4 marks)

Test Procedure Observation Conclusion

(iv) Account for the results in c (iii) above. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………….
2
2. You are provided with photographs of flowers obtained from two different plants specimen D
and E and real specimen labeled F.

(a) Identify the labelled parts below:

1………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
3………………………………………………………………………………... (1 mark)
4…………………………………………………………………………........... (1 mark)
(b) Using letter G, label on specimen D where meiosis is likely to take place. (1 mark)
(c) Giving reason (s), classify the flower F into the following taxa
i. Sub- division………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
ii. Class ………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
Reason………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………….(1 mark)
(d) State the agent of pollination to the flower in photograph D above and how flower
mentioned is suited to its agent of pollination.
Agent …………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
How suited:
…………………………………………………………………………………. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………….
(e) State one distinctive features in photograph of specimen E, that hinder self-pollination
and fertilization in the species. (1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(f) Using the observable features on the specimen F, state the adaptations of the stem of
specimen F to its habitat. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

(g) Name the type of inflorescence of flower of specimen F. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. You are provide with specimens labelled H and J, a solution labelled K and a petri dish.
a) Place specimen H in a petri dish containing enough water to cover it. Examine specimen
H using a hand lens.
i. Draw and label specimen H. (3 marks)

ii. How is specimen H adapted to its function? (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Account for the observation made when specimen H is placed in water. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

4
b) Place 5 cm3 of solution K in a boiling tube labelled P. Place another 5 cm3 of solution K in
another boiling tube beaker labelled Q. Using a pair of forceps, submerge specimen J into
beaker labelled P. Close each boiling tube with a cork and cover the two boiling tubes with
aluminium foil. Leave the set up for at least 45 minutes and observe.
i. Record your observation. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Explain your observation in b) (i) above. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. What role is played by specimen J in an ecosystem? (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

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KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

565/1 - BUSINESS STUDIES – Paper 1

2025 PRE-TRIAL

Name: ……………………………………………….. Admission No ………..….

Class…………………...……. Date: …………………School:……………….…

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of 25 questions
d) Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
e) All questions carry the same marks
f) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
g) This paper consists of 11 Printed pages
h) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
i) Candidates should answer questions in English
j) All workings MUST be clearly shown

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
CANDIDATE’S
SCORE
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 TOTAL

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KALA PRE-TRIAL 2025Inspiring Academic Success
1. Identify the business environmental factor described by each of the following
statements. (4 marks)
a) Formal arrangement of activities that are carried out at various levels of the
organization so that objectives of the business can be achieved ……………………
b) A combination of employees expectations, beliefs and values within the
business……………………………..
c) Factors which influence the ability of buyers to buy the goods and services offered by
the business………………………………………...
d) Factors such as relief, climate and infrastructure which affect the operation of the
business both positively and negatively …………………………………………..

2. Identify the types of goods described by the following statements. (4 marks)

STATEMENT TYPE OF GOOD
(a) Goods that go bad easily unless stored under
special facilities.
(b) They are scarce in supply but have monetary value

(c) Goods that are owned by the government or all her

citizens collectively.
(d) Goods that are not ready for use before they are
further processed.
3. List four ways in which commercial banks make profit. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………
4. The factors in the table below should be taken into consideration by a prospective
entrepreneur when business opportunity. Classify them as either personal or business
considerations. (4 marks)

Factor Classification

a) Entrepreneurial skills

b) Level of technology

c) Availability of market

d) Objectives of starting the business

5. The average prices of a basket of commodities bought by proletariat and the weight
attached is as shown in the table below:

Commodity Year 2024 Weight YEAR 2025 Weight

Price Price (Kshs.)
(Kshs.)
M 200 3 228 3
Q 180 1 192 2
N 87 3 101 2
G 140 5 170 3
a) Determine the consumer price index using the year 2024 as the base year. (3 marks)

b) Identify the level of inflation in a) above. (1 mark)

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6. List any four ways that can be used to reproduce documents. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

7. The following balance sheet relates to Sue Yu on 13th, March, 2025:

SUE YU
BALANCE SHEET
AS AT 13TH,MARCH, 2025

Use the above information to determine the following:

a. Capital owned (1 mark)

b. Capital Borrowed (1 mark)

c. Capital Employed (1 mark)

d. Working Capital (1 Mark)

8. George Omollo an account holder with Kenya Commercial Bank, Limuru Branch issued
MNC company ltd with a Cheque of 50 000 in full settlement of his debt.
From this illustration identify (3 marks)
(a) The Drawee ................................................................
(b) The Payee ................................................................
(c) The Drawer .................................................................
9. The following balances were extracted from the books of Sigilai Distributors on 31st,
January, 2025.
Capital shs 500,000
Sales shs 850,000
Purchases shs 400,000
Carriage Inwards shs 15,000
Electricity Bill shs 18,000
Bank Overdraft shs 60,000
Drawings shs 40,000
Return Inwards shs.68,000
Required: Prepare Sigilai Distributors trial balance as at 31st, January, 2025. (5 marks)

10. One of the sources of capital for limited liability companies is sale of debentures to the
public. List any four types of debentures that may be offered for sale by the companies.(4
marks)
11. Mention four factors that could lead to changes in capital of a business. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

12. For the following situations advise trader A on the most appropriate means of transport.
. (4 marks)
Situation Means of transport
(a) Transporting bulky goods over a long distance
over the sea.
(b) Carrying 7 tonnes of cabbages from Nyandarua to
Nairobi.
(c) Moving perishable goods from one continent to
another.
(d) Used to transport liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).

13. Outline four characteristics of underdeveloped countries. (4 marks)

...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

14. Apart from letters, name four means of written communication. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………
15. There has been concerns about high taxation in Kenya. Idenify four measures the
government can adopt to reduce taxation burden. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

16. Outline any four factors that ABC company ltd will consider when choosing a means of
product promotion. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

17. The market demand and supply schedules of cabbages in Kariokor market.
Price (Kshs.) 5 10 15 20 25 30
Quantity demanded 3000 2000 1500 1000 800 500
(In Kg)
Quantity supplied( in 600 1000 1500 2000 3000 4000
Kg)
From the information determine

a) The equilibrium price (1 mark)

................................................................................
b) The equilibrium quantity (1 mark)
................................................................................
c) Calculate excess demand if the price of cabbages is 5 Shs. (1 mark)
.....................................................................................
d) Calculate excess supply if the price of cabbages is 20Shs. (1 mark)
..................................................................................................

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18. Using an arrow ( ) match the types of pollution with ways of reducing it. (4 marks)
Type of pollution Ways of reducing it

a) Noise pollution Using dustbins

b) Light pollution Fixing silences to machines
c) Sold waste pollution Using non-polluting sources of energy
d) Air pollution Providing workers with goggles
19. State four differences between Oligopoly and perfect competition market. (4 marks)

Oligopoly Perfect competition

20. Highlight any four uses national income statistics. (4 marks)

...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………....................................................................................................................

................................................................................................................................................

.............................………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………
21. The following statistics relates to the country of Maji Mazuri.

Total population 30,000,000

No. of live births 3,500,000
No. of deaths 750,000
Emigration 2,500,000
Immigration 1,000,000
Calculate Maji Mazuri’s:
a) Birth rate (2 marks)

b) Mortality rates (2 marks)

22. Fill in the missing values. (4 marks)

Fixed Assets Current Assets Capital Liabilities

35,000 35,400 20,000 (a). 50,400

50,000 (b).. 58,000 83,600 24,400

200,000 170,000 120,000 (c) . 250,000

170,000 180,000 (d). 150,000 200,000

23. The diagram below is an extract of a general journal of Shirandula Enterprises.
Date Details Folio Dr. Cr.
Shs. Shs.
2011
Aug. 5 Walaguzi Traders 80,000
a/c
80,000
Tractor a/c
Aug. 10 Butere Restaurant 90,000
80,000
Office furniture a/c
10,000
Gain on disposal a/c
Aug. 20 Ali Traders a/c 50,000
Loss on disposal a/c 30,000
Machine a/c 80,000

Aug.28 Amani Enterprises 200,000

a/c 200,000
Motor vehicle a/c
Required : Give narrations of transactions that took place on: (4 marks)

Aug. 5:
................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................

Aug. 10
................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................

Aug. 20
................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................

Aug. 28
................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................
24. Identify the method of government involvement in business described by each of the
following statements. (4 marks)
a. A government initiated and supported policy to encourage local business people to
enter into business so as to increase the volume and variety of goods and services
traded in .......................................................................................
b. Availing services such as water, transport, electricity, sewerage and communication
which are essential to firms and households ............................................................
c. Offering subsidies, incentives and loan guarantee so as to create a conducive
environment for businesses to thrive..............................................................
d. Licensing and legislation activities by the government............................................
25. Outline four circumstances under which producers may wish to eliminate intermediaries
in the chain of distribution. (4 marks)
...……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………..…………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………...……………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………..…………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

KALA FORM 4 PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

2025 PRE-TRIAL

565/2 - BUSINESS STUDIES - Paper 2

2 ½ hours

Name: ……………………………………………………………………………… Admission No ………..….

Class…………………...……. Date: …………………School:……………….…………………………………

Instructions to Candidates

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

a. Write your details on the spaces provided above.

b. This paper consists of six questions.
c. Answer any five questions.
d. All questions carry equal marks.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Candidate’s Score Maximum Score

1 20

2 20

3 20

4 20

5 20

6 20

Grand
Total
KALA TRIAL 2025Inspiring Academic Success

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. a) Explain five reasons why filing office documents for an organization is important.
(10 marks)
b) Explain five barriers to effective communication. (10 marks)

2. a) Explain five benefits of insurance to the Kenyan economy. (10 marks)

b) Nadupoi Enterprises started business with sh. 500,000 in cash on 1st January 2025.
January 2: Deposited sh. 300,000 cash into the business bank account.
3: purchased goods worth 15,000 in cash.
5: Paid Rent sh. 20,000 by cheque
Prepare:
i) Nadupoi’s ledger accounts and balance them off
ii) Extract a trial balance as of 5th January 2025. (10 marks)

3. a) Explain five measures the government of Kenya may implement to increase employment
opportunities. (10 marks)
b) Explain five features Mrs. Kogo should portray as a successful business lady. (10 marks)

4. a) Explain five guidelines followed by a government before spending its funds. (10 marks)

b) The table below represents a farmer's supply of Oranges to a local market.

Year Quantity

2022 20,000

2023 25,000

2024 30,000

Assuming the price remained constant, explain five possible reasons for the trend in the supply
of oranges. (10 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
5. a) Explain five monetary policy measures that the Central Bank of Kenya may use to reduce money
supply in the economy. (10 marks)

b) Give five differences between shares and debentures. (10 marks)

6. a) Kenya exports tea to Egypt. Highlight five channels she would use for the exportation.
(10 marks)

b) The following information relate to books of Maendeleo Traders for the year ended 31/12/2024.

Current liabilities sh. 75,000

2
Mark-up /3
Sales sh. 1,200,000

Working capital sh. 232,500

Stock (31/12/2024) sh. 120,000

Rate of stock turnover 4.5 times

Expenses sh. 140,000

Required: Calculate;

i. Quick ratio (2 marks)

ii. Gross profit (2 marks)
iii. Cost of sales (1 mark)
iv. Opening stock (2 marks)
v. Purchases (2 marks)
vi. Net profit (1 mark)

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This is the last printed page

15
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

CHEMISTRY - Paper 1

Name: ……………………………………………….. Admission No ………..….

Class…………………...……. Date: …………………School:……………….…

CHEMISTRY
Paper 1
233/1
Time: 2 hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.

• Scientific calculators may be used.
• All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
• Candidates should answer in English

MARKS SCORED

OUT OF

80
1

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. (a) What is a drug? (1mk)

(b) Give two drugs that are commonly abused by the youth. (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. Putting off flames after use is one of the safety rules in the laboratory. State any other two
rules. (2mks)

i……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Draw a diagram for the setup that can be used to separate and collect the solvent from a salt
solution. (3mks)

4. The table below shows liquids that are miscible and those that are immiscible

Liquid L3 L4

L1 Miscible Miscible

L2 Miscible Immiscible

Use the information given in the table to answer that questions that follow;
i) Name the method that can be used to separate L1 and L3 from a mixture of the two. (1mk)

ii) Describe how a mixture of L2 and L4 can be separated. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added to a solid P which is a compound of zinc. Solid P reacted
with the acid to form a colourless solution Q and a colourless gas R which formed a white
precipitate when bubbled through lime water.
2
a) Name

i) Solid P………………………………………………………………………… (½mk)

ii) Solution Q…………………………………………………………………… (½mk)

iii) Colourless gas R………………………………………………………….… (½mk)

b) Write a chemical equation for the reaction that took place. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. Air was passed through several reagents as shown below:

Air Concentrated Excess heated

sodium hydroxide Excess copper
turnings magnesium
solution powder

Escaping gases

(a) Write an equation for the reaction which takes place in the chamber containing Magnesium
powder. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name one gas which escapes from the chamber containing magnesium powder. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………

c) What is the purpose of?

i. Concentrated sodium hydroxide solution (½mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Excess copper turnings (½mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Jane set-up an experiment as shown below to collect a gas. The wet sand was heated before
heating zinc.

3
Zinc

heat heat

Sand soaked in
water

a) Complete the diagram to show how the gas being produced is collected. (2mks)

b) Explain why it is necessary to heat the sand soaked in water before heating the zinc. (1mk)

8. In an experiment an unknown mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate was dissolved in water

and the solution made up to 250cm3. 25cm3 of this solution neutralized 20cm3 of 0.25M nitric
acid. (Na = 23.0 C = 12.0 O = 16.0)
Calculate:
(a) Moles of Nitric acid used (1mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Moles of sodium carbonate in 25cm3 of the solution. (2mks)
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(c) Mass of unknown sodium carbonate used. (2mks)
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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
9. The table below gives information about the ions T+ and Z2-

Ion T+ Z2-

Electron arrangement 2.8 2.8.8

Number of neutrons 12 16

(a) How many protons are there in the nucleus of?

(i) Element T? …………………………………………………….. (½mk)
(ii) Element Z? ……………………………………………………….. (½mk)

(b) Determine the relative formula mass of the compound formed between T and Z. (2mks)

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(c) State two conditions under which the compound would conduct electricity. (1mk)
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10. Ethanol is a liquid at room temperature but does not conduct electricity. Explain. (1mk)

11. The information in the table below relates to elements in the same group of the periodic
table. Study it and answer the question that follows.

Element Atomic size (nm)

P 0.19

Q 0.23

R 0.15

Which element has the highest ionization energy? Explain (2mks)

5
12. Starting with Lead (II) carbonate explain how you would prepare a pure sample of Lead (II)
sulphate. (3mks)
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13. a) Distinguish between a covalent bond and a co-ordinate bond. (2mks)
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b) Draw a diagram to show bonding in ammonium ion and label the bonds. (2mks)
(N = 7, H = 1)

14. Carbon and Silicon are in the same group of the periodic table. Silicon (IV) Oxide melts at
2440oC while solid Carbon (IV) Oxide sublimes at -70oC. In terms of structure and bonding,
explain this difference. (3mks)
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15. Give the name of each of the processes described below which takes place when salts are
exposed to air for some time.

i) Anhydrous copper sulphate becomes wet………………………………………………… 1mk

ii) Zinc chloride forms an aqueous solution………………………………………………. (1mk)

iii) Fresh crystals of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3.10H2O become covered with white powder
of formula Na2CO3.H2O .…………………………………………………….. (1mk)

6
16. Define the following terms.
a)Electrolyte………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
b)Electrolysis………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………(1mk)
c) Name the particles that are responsible for electrical conductivity in:
i) Metals…………………………………………………………………………………… (½mk)
ii) Aqueous solutions……………………………………………………………………. (½mk)
17. Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.

(a) State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Give one use of P . (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. A sample of unknown compound gas X is shown by analysis to contain Sulphur and Oxygen.
The gas requires 28.3 seconds to diffuse through a small aperture into a vacuum. An identical
number of oxygen molecules pass through the same aperture in 20seconds. Determine the
molecular mass of gas X (O= 16, S= 32). (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7
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19. A factory produces sodium carbonate from sodium hydrogen carbonate as shown in the
equation below:-
Heat
2NaHCO3 (s) Na2CO3(s) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
What volume of Carbon (IV) Oxide would be produced from 2100kg of sodium hydrogen
carbonate at s.t.p? (Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16, H=1 Molar gas volume at s.t.p = 22.4dm3) (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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20. A hydrated salt has the following composition by mass. Iron 20.2 %, sulphur 11.5%, oxygen
23.0% and water 45.3%. Determine the formula of the hydrated salt (Fe=56, S=32, O=16, H=1)
(3mks)

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21. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow

Number of carbon atoms per Relative molecular mass of the

molecule hydrocarbon
2 28
3 42
4 56

i) Write the general formula of the hydrocarbons in the table. (1mk)

...........................................................................................................................................................

ii) Write the molecular formula of the hydrocarbons with 5 carbon atoms. (1mk)

.........................................................................................................................................................

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
iii) Determine the relative atomic mass of the hydrocarbon in (ii) above and draw its structural
formula (H=1.0, C=12.0) (2mks)
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22. Ammonia gas is prepared in the laboratory by the action of an alkali on an ammonium salt.

(a) Give one alkali that can be used in the above experiment. (1mk)
......................................................................................................................................................

(b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the above experiment. (1mk)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
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23. In the manufacture of sulphuric acid, sulphur (IV) oxide is oxidized to sulphur (VI) oxide.
a) Name the catalyst used (1mk)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
..
b) Write the equation representing the conversion of sulphur (IV) oxide to sulphur(VI)oxide.
(1mk)
............................................................................................................................................................
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9
24. Study the flow diagram below and answer the questions that follow:

Salt M
HCl (aq) MnO2 Gas L Cold dilute
NaOH NaCl(aq)

Name:
i) Gas L …………………………………………………………...............….............. (1mk)
ii) Salt M ............................................................................................................................... (1mk)
25. A sample of water from a village in Trans Mara East District was divided into equal portions
and each mixed with equal volume of soap solution. The observations made are tabulated below:

Sample of water Treatment before adding soap Observations made on shaking

with soap

I Boiled Lather form immediately

II No treatment Slight lather form slowly

III Treatment with washing soda Lather formed immediately

(a) What type of hardness is present in water from the village? Explain (1½ mks)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................

(b) State one advantage of hard water. (1mk)

TEST OBSERVATION

I - Add few drops of aqueous ammonia to copper - Light blue precipitate is formed
(II) nitrate solution

II - Add excess of ammonia to copper (II) nitrate - Deep blue solution

solution

III - Add cold dilute hydrochloric acid to substance - Gas evolved, smells of rotten eggs and
E1 and warm gently blackens lead acetate paper

Identify:-

10
(a) Substance responsible for:
I. Light blue precipitate………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
II. Deep blue solution ……………………………………………………………. (1mk)
(b) Gas evolved in test III above ………………………………………………………… (1mk)
27. 6g of Potassium nitrate solid was added to 120cm3 of water in a plastic beaker.
The mixture was stirred gently and the following results were obtained.
Initial temperature = 21.5oC
Final temperature = 17.0 o
(a) Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction (Density =1g/cm3, C= 4.2jg-1K-1) (1mk)
................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
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............................................................................................................................................................
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(b) Calculate the molar enthalpy change for the dissolution of potassium nitrate. (K=39, N= 14,
O =16) (1mk)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
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28. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow
Bond type bond energy kJmol-1
C-C 346
C=C 610
C-H 413
C-Br 280
Br-Br 193
a) Calculate the enthalpy change for the following reaction. (2mks)
C2H4(g) + Br2(g) C2H4Br2(g)
............................................................................................................................................................
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b) Name the type of reaction that took place in (a) above (1mk)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Name ……………………………………..Admission no…………..Date……………….
Class………………………………………Candidate’s signature…………..............
School……………………………..
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAM
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2 MARCH 2025
233/2 Chemistry (THEORY) Time : 2HRS
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Write the name of your school and sign in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(d) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used.
(e) All working must be shown where necessary.
(f) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
(g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
(h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 12
2 13
3 09
4 12
5 13
6 13
7 09
Total Score 80

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1.The grid below shows part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The letters
are not the actual symbols of the elements.

A B C D E F

G H J K L

a)(i) Write the electronic configuration of element D and J. Which one of the two is more electronegative ?
Explain. (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State two chemical properties common to element E and K (2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Identify an element which has similar chemical properties as element G. Give a reason
( 1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) Compare the atomic radii of elements G and J. (2 mks)

v) Compare the atomic radius and ionic radius of B (1mk)

vi) Compare the melting points of the oxide of H and the oxide of D. (2mks)

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2
vii) Give two uses of L. (1mk)

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Using dots (.) and crosses (x), show the bonding in the molecule COCl2 . (Atomic number
C=6 ,O=8 ,Cl=17). (1 mk)

2. a) Study the structures below and answer the questions that follow
A CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
B CH3CH2CH2COOH
i. Name compounds A and B ( 2 marks)
A…………………………………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii. Describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish between substances A and B in the
laboratory. (2marks)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
b ) The following scheme shows various reactions of some organic compounds. Use it to answer the
questions that follow;

3
a ) Identify the following compounds; (2 marks)

i ) A………………………………………………………

ii ) B……………………………………………………..

iii ) C………………………………………………………

iv ) D……………………………………………………..

b ) Give the name of the type of reaction that takes place in; (2 marks)

i ) Step 1…………………………………………………………

ii ) Step V…………………………………………………………

c ) Write the equations for the reactions in; (2 marks)

Step IV

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Step VI

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Tetrafluoroethene is a monomer that is used in the manufacture of teflon .

i) Draw the structure of teflon (1mark)

ii)Given that the molecular mass of teflon is 120,000. Detrmine the number of monomers in the polymer.

(H = 1.0 , C = 12.0 , F = 19 ) (1mark)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

iii) State one use of Teflon. (1mark)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
3.(a) Chlorine may be prepared in the laboratory by the action of concentrated hydrochloric acid on
manganese (iv) oxide.

i) What is role of Manganese (IV) Oxide in this reaction? (1 mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction taking place. (1 mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The diagram below was set-up to investigate a certain property of chlorine gas.

Ca(OH)2(aq)

i) Write the chemical equation for the reaction taking place in part F. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) State and explain observations made in the following regions after sometime
I Part G (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
II Part H (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5
iii) State and explain the observation made when hydrogen chloride gas is bubbled into a solution
of silver nitrate. (2 mks)

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The scheme below shows chemical reactions of iron metal. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

a )Identify the type of reaction occuring in; (2 marks)

i) Step I…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Step II……………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Step III…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Step V………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6
b ) State and explain the observations made in ;
i) Step I (2 marks)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Step VI (1 mark)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c )State two conditions that would increase the rate of the reaction in step I. (1 mark)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d )Write chemical equations for the reactions which produce the following; (3 marks)
Solid P……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Compound W………………………………………………………………………………………………
Gas U……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e ) Write an ionic equation for the formation of the green solid S. (1 mark)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
f ) State two uses of gas X. (2 marks)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5.The table below gives the volume of the gas produced when different volumes of 2M hydrochloric acid
were added to 1.0g of a granules of an alloy of magnesium and copper at room temperature.
Volume of 2M HCl (cm3) Volume of gas (cm3)
0 0
10 240
20 480
30 600
40 600
50 600

a) Write an equation for the reaction that occurred. (1mark)

….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7
b) On the grid provided below, plot a graph of volume of gas produced(vertical axis) against the volume
of acid added. (3 marks)

c) From the graph determine;

i ) The volume of the gas produced when 15cm3 of the 2M HCl is used. (1 mark)

….………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) The volume of the 2M HCl required for the reaction to go to completion.(1 mark)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8
d) State and explain the effect on the rate of production of the gas if 1M HCl solution was used instead
of 2M HCl solution. (2 marks)
….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) On the same grid, sketch the graph that would be obtained if the experiment was carried out using 2M
HCl warmed to 40 oC. (2 marks)

f) Determine the percentage of copper in the alloy. (2 marks)

(Mg = 24, Molar gas volume at r.t.p = 24dm3 )
….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6.(I) a) Define the term standard enthalpy of formation . (1 mark).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Given the following thermochemical equations;
C3H8(g) +5O(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) ∆H1 = -1202 kJmol-1
C(s) graphite + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H2 = -394kJmol-1
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(l) ∆H3 = -286 kJmol-1
i) Name two types of enthalpy changes represented by ∆H3 (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Using an energy cycle diagram, calculate the molar enthalpy of formation of propane . (2 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
(II) In an experiment to determine the heat of combustion of methanol, CH3OH, a student used the following
set up and recorded the data as shown below. Use the information to answer the questions that follow.

Volume of water = 500cm3

Final temperature of water = 27.0oC
Initial temperature of water = 20.0oC
Initial mass of methanol + lamp = 22.98g
Final mass of methanol + lamp = 22.11g
(Density of water = 1.0gcm-3 , c = 4.2kJkg-1K-1 )
a) Calculate the number of moles of methanol burnt during the experiment.
(C = 12, O =16, H = 1) (1 mark)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Calculate the heat change during the experiment. (1 mark )
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Calculate the molar heat of combustion of methanol. (1 mark)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
d) The molar heat of combustion of methanol obtained in (d) above is lower than the theoretical value.
State two sources of error in the experiment. (2 marks)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10
a) Write the thermochemical equation for the reaction. (1 mark )
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Draw an energy level diagram for this reaction. (2 marks)
….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7.a) The diagram below shows a set-up that can be used to obtain nitrogen gas in an experiment.

i) Name liquid L………………………………………………………………… (1 mk)

ii) What observation is made in tube K after heating for sometime. (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in tube K (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

11
iv) If 320 cm3 of ammonia gas reacted completely with the copper,
Calculate: I. Volume of nitrogen gas produced (2 mks)
II. The mass of copper (ii) oxide that reacted (1 mk)
(Cu=63.5, O=16.0, one mole of gas occupies 24 litres at room temperature and pressure)
….………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………….
v) At the end of experiment the PH of the water in the beaker was found to be about 10. Explain.
(2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………

b) Why is it advisable to obtain nitrogen in large scale from air instead of from ammonia? (1 mk)

….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

12
KALA FORM 4 PRETRIAL 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL
233/3
CHEMISTRY
Time: 2¼ Hours
MARCH 2025
Name: …………………………………… Admission No: ……………

Class: …………… Date: ……….……………...

School: ……………………..……………………Signature: ………………...

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number, class and school name in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(d) You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 hours
and 15 minutes. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure you have
all chemicals and apparatus that you may need.
(e) KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations.
(f) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
(g) This paper consists of 7 printed pages.
(h) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(i) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidates score

1 11
2 12
3 17

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. You are provided with:
• 1M potassium iodide solution
• 0.5M lead (II) nitrate solution
• Ethanol
You are required to determine the formulae of lead (II) iodide and the equation for the reaction
between lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide.
Procedure
Take 8 test tubes and label them 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8. Using a burette add to separate test-tubes
volumes of aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead (II) nitrate as shown in the table below
followed by 3 – 4 drops of ethanol. Stir and allow to settle. Measure the height of the precipitate in
each test tube in mm and record the measurements in the table below.
(4marks)
Test tube number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
3
Volume of KI (cm ) 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
3
Volume of Pb(NO3)2 (cm ) 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3
Height of the precipitate
(mm)
(a) Plot a graph of height of the precipitate against the volume of lead (II) nitrate. (3marks)

(b) Use your graph to:

(i) Find the maximum height of the precipitate formed. (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the volume of the 0.5M Pb(NO3)2 used in b (i) above. (1 mark)

(iii) Determine the volume of 1M potassium iodide that completely reacts with 0.5M Pb(NO3)2 (aq).
(1 marks)

(iv) Use your answer in b (ii) above to determine the number of moles of iodide ions which react
with one mole of lead (II) ions. (1 marks)

2
3
2. You are provided with:
1.9g of solid A; a dibasic acid, H2A
0.5M of a dibasic acid H2A, solution B
Solution hydroxide, solution C
You are required to:
(a) Determine:
(i) the molar heat of solution of solid A.
(ii) the heat of reaction of one mole of the dibasic acid solution B with sodium hydroxide.
(b) Calculate the heat of reaction of solid H2A with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Procedure 1
Place 30cm3 of distilled water into a 100ml plastic beaker. Measure the initial temperature of the
water and record it the table below. Add the entire solid A at once. Stir the mixture carefully with
the thermometer until all the solid dissolves. Measure the final temperature reached and record in
Table 2 below.
Table 2
(1½ marks)
Final temperature
(°C)
Initial temperature
(°C
(a) Determine the change in temperature T1. (½ mark)

(b) Calculate the:

(i) Heat change when H2A dissolves in water. (Assume the heat capacity of the solution is
4.2J/g/°C and density is 1g/cm3).
(1 marks)

(ii) Number of moles of the acid that were used. (Relative formula mass of H2A is 126)
(1 mark)

(iii) Molar heat of solution, H1, of the acid H2A. (1 mark)

4
Procedure 2

Place 30 cm3 of solution B into a 100 ml plastic beaker. Measure the initial temperature and record
it in Table 3 below. Measure 30 cm3 of sodium hydroxide, solution C. Add all of the 30 cm3 of
solution C at once to solution B in the beaker. Stir the mixture with the thermometer. Measure the
final temperature reached and records it in Table 3.
Table 3
(1½ marks)
Final temperature (oC)

Initial temperature (oC

(c) Determine the:

(i) the heat for the reaction. (Assume the heat capacity of the solution is 4.2J/g/°C and density
is 1g/cm3) (1 marks)

(ii) Number of moles of the acid H2A used. (1 mark)

(iii) Heat of reaction, H2, of one mole of the acid H2A with sodium hydroxide. (1 mark)

(d) Given that:

H1 is the heat for the reaction H2 A(s) ⎯⎯⎯
water
→2H+ (aq) + A2− (aq)
H2 is the heat for the reaction 2H+ (aq) + 2OH− (aq) ⎯⎯ →2H2O(l)
Calculate H3 for the reaction H2 A(s) + 2OH (aq) ⎯⎯
−
→2H2O(l) + A2− (aq) . (2 marks)

5
3. You are provided with solid E, F and G. Carry out the tests below and write your
observations and inference in the spaces provided.
a. Place all of solid E in a boiling tube. Add about 10 cm3 of distilled water and shake until
all the solid dissolves. Label this as solution E.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 marks)

i. To about 2 cm3 of solution E in a test tube, add 4 drops of 2M sulphuric (VI) acid.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (2 marks)
ii. To about 2 cm3 of solution E in a test-tube, add 2 drops of aqueous potassium iodide.
Observations Inferences
1

. (1
(1 mark) mark)

iii. Place one half of solid F in a test-tube. Add 2 cm3 of distilled water and shake well. Add 4
drops of this solution to about 2 cm3 of solution E in a test-tube.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
b.
(i) Using a metallic spatula, ignite about one half of solid G in a non-luminous Bunsen burner
flame.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark)
(1 mark)
(ii) Place the other half of solid G into a boiling tube. Add about 10 cm3 of distilled water and
shake well. Label this solution G. Use this solution for the following tests.
(I) Place 2 cm3 of solution G in a test tube and determine its pH.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark)
(1 mark)
3
(II) To about 2 cm of the solution obtained in (ii) above, add 3 drops of acidified
potassium manganate (VII).
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(III) To the remaining solution G in the boiling tube, add the other half of solid F.
Observations Inferences

. (1 mark) (1 mark)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
2025 KALA PRE-TRIAL
451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
FORM FOUR 2025
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 21/2 HOURS

NAME………………………………….. ADMNO…………… CLASS………

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper consists of two sections.

2. Answer ALL questions in section A
3. Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions in section B.
4. This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure
that all pages are printed.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTIONS QUESTIONS SCORE

A 1-15

16
B

Total

Page 1 of 12

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. The data processing cycle involves a four-step process, list them. (2mks)

2. State two uses of a master page in DTP. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

3. State the functions of the following keys in a computer keyboard;

(i) Pause (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Esc (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The most popular type of electronic data storage is solid state devices. Give three advantages
of solid-state devices. (3mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 2 of 12
5. One stage of system development is system testing. State three activities carried out during
testing. (3mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. (a) Convert 111001.10112 to decimal notation. (2mks)

(b) State two advantages of using binary number system in computers. (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State the function of each of the following types of special memories. (2mks)
i) Buffer
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Cache memory

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 3 of 12
8. State two advantages of always having a hardcopy output other than a softcopy. (2mks)

9. (i) Define the term graphic. (2mks)

(ii) List two examples of graphics in word processor. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Differentiate between a trackball and a mouse. (2mks)

11. State the functions of the following logical functions as used in spreadsheet; (2mks)

(i) CountIf
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 4 of 12
(ii) SumIf
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Differentiate between side-kick and pop-up menu. (2mks)

13. State two differences between a primary key and a foreign key. (4mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

14. State three advantages of using bespoke software. (3mks)

15. E-mail services are one of the most utilized services by online users. Explain three features
available in an E-mail. (3mks)

Page 5 of 12

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer question 16 and any other three questions in this section in the spaces
16. (a) (i) Define the term Structured programming. (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State three advantages of structured programming. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Study the flowchart below and answer the questions that follow.

Start

Total = 0
Grade counter = 0

No
Grade counter < = 3

Yes

Input the next grade

Next grade=Next grade + Total

Grade counter = Grade counter + 1

Class Average = Total/3

Print class average

Stop

Page 6 of 12
(i) Interpret the flowchart. (5mks)

(ii) Dry run the flowchart to get the output if the following values are to be
entered. 70,23,67,45, 50. (5mks)

Page 7 of 12
17. (a) Describe any two types of human computer interfaces. (4mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..…………………………………………………………………………………….…
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) State four basic requirements of a standard computer laboratory. (4mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Describe any three ways an operating system manages the secondary storage of a
computer. (3mks)

(d) Describe the following file attributes in relation to the operating system. (4mks)

(i) Archive
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..……………………………………………………………………………………….

Page 8 of 12
(ii) Read Only

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iii) Encrypted
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..……………………………………………………………………………………….

iv) Hidden
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..……………………………………………………………………………………….

18. (a) Differentiate between the following terms:

(i) Sequential and serial file organization methods. (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………..……………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Random and indexed sequential file organization methods. (2mks)

Page 9 of 12
(b) Explain the following types of data processing modes
(i) Batch processing. (2mks)

(ii) Real-time processing. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

(i) Check digit

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Parity bit

(d) State three advantages of having a computer network. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………..…………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 10 of 12

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
19. (a) State three breakthrough of Information Communication Technology (ICT) in health care

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………….........................
.............................................................................................................................................(3mks)

(b) A school has two computer laboratories. The school decided to use a bridge to connect the
network in the two laboratories. State four functions of a bridge in the network. (4mks)

(c) Differentiate between a LAN and WAN. (2mks)

(d) 10102 is a signed binary number. Work out three possible equivalents of the number in
denary. (6mks)

Page 11 of 12
20. (a) Differentiate between the following terms
i) Boundary and environment in a system (2mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Closed and opened system. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………........

(b) Bidii secondary school bought a club membership management system from a software
engineer and implemented it. The system was scheduled for maintenance on an annual basis.
Describe three types of system maintenance that could be done to their system. (6mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………........
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Describe three components of an expert system. (6mks)

Page 12 of 12

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
451/2
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 2
(PRACTICAL)
MARCH 2025
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Name: Adm: Class:

Candidates Signature: School Name:

MARCH -2025 KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAM

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION
COMPUTER STUDIES PAPER 2
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Create a folder with your name and Admission number
• Passwords should not be used while saving your work
• Answer all questions
• All answers must be saved in your folder

This paper consists of 4 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed.

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Question 1 Database

A local printing papers shop requires a database program to manage their shop. A database design and some
data is given below. Use it to create a database using a DBMS.

i. Create a database called PaperShop in MS Access. (1 mark)

ii. Create three tables and name them accordingly: tblClient, tblProduct, and tblSales. Use the Field
Name, Data Type and Description given for each table. (10 marks)
iii. Set appropriate Primary Keys for each table (3 marks)

1. tblClient
Field Name Data Type Description
ClientID AutoNumber Unique identifier for each client
ClientName Text Name of the client
ContactNumber Text Client's contact number
Email Text Client's email address
Address Text Client's physical address
2. tblProduct
Field Name Data Type Description
ProductID AutoNumber Unique identifier for each product
ProductName Text Name of the product (type of paper)
PricePerUnit Currency Price per unit of the product
StockQuantity Number Quantity of the product in stock
3. tblSales
Field Name Data Type Description
TransactionID AutoNumber Unique identifier for each transaction
ClientID Number Identifier for the client (foreign key)
ProductID Number Identifier for the product (foreign key)
Quantity Number Quantity of the product sold
TransactionDate Date/Time Date and time of the transaction
TotalAmount Number Total amount for the transaction

iv. Create the following relationships between the tables as follows: (2 marks)

• Client Details to Transaction/Sales Details: One-to-Many

• Product Details to Transaction/Sales Details: One-to-Many

v. Enforce referential integrity in each relationship. (2 marks)

vi. For each of the tables above create a form with the following details:
Table name Form name Design details Marks
tblClient frmClient Insert Form title: Client Details 2
Insert next record and previous record buttons 2
Table name Form name Design details Marks
tblProduct frmProduct Insert Form title: Product Details 1.5
Insert close button labelled EXIT 2
Table name Form name Design details Marks
tblSales frmSales Insert Form title: Sales Details 1.5
Insert a subform for tblClient 3
2
vii. Enter the following data into the tblClient, tblProduct, and tblSales tables respectively (10 marks)

ClientID ClientName ContactNumber Email Address

1 John Doe 0712345678 john.doe@example.com Nairobi, Kenya
2 Jane Smith 0723456789 jane.smith@example.com Mombasa, Kenya
3 Michael Otieno 0734567890 michael.otieno@example.com Kisumu, Kenya
4 Grace Wanjiku 0745678901 grace.wanjiku@example.com Nakuru, Kenya
5 David Kamau 0756789012 david.kamau@example.com Eldoret, Kenya

ProductID ProductName PricePerUnit StockQuantity

1 Bond Paper 500.00 1000
2 Glossy Paper 700.00 500
3 Matte Paper 600.00 800
4 Cardstock 800.00 300
5 Recycled Paper 400.00 1200
6 Photo Paper 750.00 600
7 Newsprint 300.00 1500
8 Vellum 850.00 200
9 Textured Paper 900.00 400
10 Label Paper 650.00 700

TransactionID ClientID ProductID Quantity TransactionDate TotalAmount

1 1 2 50 01-02-2025 35000.00
2 2 3 100 02-02-2025 60000.00
3 3 1 200 03-02-2025 100000.00
4 4 4 75 04-02-2025 60000.00
5 5 5 150 05-02-2025 60000.00

viii. Create a query qryValue based on the table tblProduct. It should have the fields: ProductName,
PricePerUnit, StockQuantity. Add a calculated field in the query called Value to determine the value
of each item in stock by multiplying the PricePerUnit with StockQuantity. (4 marks)
ix. Create a query qryValue with the fields: ProductName and transaction date to show products before
03-02-2025 (3 marks)
x. Create a report rptValue based on the qryValue. Use a function to determine the total value of the
products. Add a label at the report footer with your name and ADM number. (3 marks)

Question 2 DTP
(a) Open a desktop publishing program and make the following default settings: [2 marks]
(i) Page orientation: Portrait,
(ii) Paper size: A4,
(iii) Margins Top, Left, Bottom and Right 0.394" inches, 1cm
(b) Save the publication as “KALA_AthleticsPoster” inside the MYEXAM. [1 mark]
(c) Create the publication to appear as shown in the INSERT on page 4, while ensuring that the design
covers the entire printable part of the page, as shown. [44 marks]
(d) Insert footer with the following formatting options. [2 marks]
Your name and adm number, Font size: 10 and aligned to the Right

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Figure 1: DTP INSERT

4
KALA PRE TRIAL EXAMINATION-2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
313/1 - CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION - Paper 1
KALA 2025
2hrs 30min

Name: ……………………………………………. Admission No ………..…. Class…………………...Date: ………………..….

School ……………………………. Signature ………………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name, Index number and class in the spaces provided above
(b) This paper consists of 6 Questions
(c) Answer any five questions in the foolscap provided
(d) Each question carries 20 marks
(e) Read questions carefully.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question Candidate’s %
score
Score

1|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. (a) Identify any eight literary forms employed during the writing of the Bible (8mks)
(b) State six reasons why the bible had to be compiled into its present form by the early Christians (6mks)

(c) Some people view work as a punishment in the society today. Give six teachings about work from the Genesis
stories of creation. (6mks)

2 (a) Describe the covenant ceremony between God and Abraham in Genesis 15:9-17 (8mks)

(b) Give six differences between the Jewish and traditional African practices of circumcision (6mks)
(c) Outline six forms of worship that were practiced by the Israelites in the wilderness which are found in
Christian worship today (6mks)

3. (a) Outline the failures of King Saul (6mks)

(b) State seven ways in which King David promoted the worship of Yahweh (7mks)

4 a. Outline seven similarities between the prophets in the old testament and traditional African communities (7mks)

b. Outline six teachings of prophet Amos on the day of the lord (6mks)

c. Give seven ways in which the church is promoting social justice in Kenya today (7mks)

5. a. Describe the personal life of prophet Jeremiah (7mks)

b.State seven promises that the Israelites made when they renewed their covenant with God during the time of
Nehemiah (Neh 10:28-29) (7mks)
c. Identify six ways in which the government of Kenya supports the church in its work.(6mks)

6. (a) State the Traditional African understanding of spirits (6mks)

(b) Explain the importance of kinship ties in traditional African communities (7mks)

2|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRE TRIAL EXAMINATION-2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
313/2 - CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION - Paper 2
2025
2hrs 30min

Name: ……………………………………………. Admission No ………..…. Class…………………...……..

Date: ………………..…. School ……………………………. Signature ………………

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question Candidate’s %
score
Score

1|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. (a) State Nathan’s prophecies about the Messiah in 2 Sam 7: 3- 17 (5mks)
(b) Describe what took place when Mary visited Elizabeth in (Luke 1:25-56) (8mks)
(c) What lessons do Christians learn about the nature of God from the Magnificat (7mks)

2 a) Describe the baptism of Jesus in the river Jordan by John the Baptist. Luke 3:21- 22 (6 Marks)

b) Identify seven teachings of John the Baptist. (7 Marks)

c) Give reasons why Christians undergo baptism. (7 Marks)

3. a) With reference to the parable of the mustard seed and the leaven, identify six teachings about the kingdom
of God(6mks)
b) State seven causes of conflict between Jesus and the Jewish religious leaders during the Jerusalem ministry.
(7mks)
c) Identify seven reactions of various people who witnessed Jesus’ crucifixion. (7mks)

4 a) Give seven reasons why Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to the disciples after his ascension.(7 Marks)
b) Explain the unity of believers as expressed in the image of the church. Ephesians 5: 21-32 (6 Marks)
c) State ways in which Christians in Kenya demonstrate the New Testament teaching on unity. (7 Marks)

5 (a) State six similarities between the Traditional African and Christian view on human sexuality(6mks)
(b) Outline eight causes of homosexuality in Kenya today. (8marks)
(c) Identify six problems experienced by a family living with a person suffering from HIV/AIDS (6mks)

6 a) State the factors that have led to the misuse of drugs in Kenya today. (7 Marks)
b) Lists seven activities that youth should engage in during their leisure time. (7 Marks)
c) State six consequences of denying employees rest. (6 Marks)

2|Page

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KALA FORM 4, PRE TRIAL EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

101/1- ENGLISH - 2hrs

Name: …………………………………………..Admission No ……….Class .….

Signature ………………… School ..............................................................

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
• Answer ALL the questions in this question paper.
• All your answers must be written on the spaces provided in this question paper.
• This paper consists of 8 printed pages.

For Examiners Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidates Score

1 20

2 10

3 30

Total Score

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRE TRIAL EXAMINATION Inspiring Academic Success

1. Imagine that you are the prefect in charge of health and sanitation in your school. Several
students in the school have complained of severe headaches, coughs, chest pain, sweating at
night, fever chills and fatigue. The principal has appointed you the chair to a committee of 6
members who include the school nurse, two students, two members of the medical committee
and the boarding master/mistress. The committee is meant to investigate the likely causes of the
symptoms exhibited by the students and come up with recommendations to curb the problem.
You are expected to submit the report in a week’s time. Write the report you will submit to the
principal. (20 marks)

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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
2. Read the passage below and fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate word.
(10mks).

Minutes are a .............................1 of the proceedings at a meeting. Usually, minutes are

.............................2 while the meeting is in .............................3 and the secretary must make an
.............................4 to listen and write at the same time without missing.............................5 on
any important points or jeopardizing the accuracy. Minutes are .............................6 records for
the sake of future reference, hence they are written in correct grammar. Usually, they are written
in the .............................7 voice so as to avoid mentioning people’s names because the decisions
made at the meeting are .............................8 group decisions. You can only mention names if
they have a .............................9 function e.g. members of a small .............................10 formed
within the group for a specific limited purpose.

3.
a) Read the song below and then answer the questions that follow.
Mother gave me peas, I am
going to sow,
I go, go, go to sow,
If it had not been for Kitiezo,
The wild vegetable, hunger
would have killed us,
When you have meat, you grind,
With a smile on your face
I go, go to sow.
(Popular Culture of East Africa: Oral Literature, Longman)

i. Identify two features of oral songs in the above song. (4mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Identify any two words that you would stress in line 5. Explain your answer. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4
iii. How would you perform line 8? (4 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) For each of the following sentences, say whether you would say it with a rising or falling
intonation. (4 mks)

i. Why are you sleeping in class? ................................................................

ii. Take off your sweater. .................................................................
iii. Can I take some water please? .................................................................
iv. Which teacher is accompanying the students? ..................................................................

c) A speaker has been invited to address your school on the importance of hard work. You look
around and see restlessness among the audience. List down five things which in your opinion
are causing such a reaction from the audience. (5mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
d) In the sentences below, the underlined part indicates the stressed word. Explain the meaning
in each sentence. (3 mks)

i. The couple invited only their relatives and friends to the wedding.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii. Only the couple invited their relatives and friends to the wedding.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii. The couple invited their relatives and friends to the wedding only.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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e) Read the telephone conversation below between a sales representative and secretary and then
answer the questions that follow:

Ms Anderson (sales representative Jewels and Things): ring ring ..........ring ring......ring ring......
Mr. Smith (Secretary): Hello, Diamonds Galore, this is Peter Smith speaking. How may I be of
help to you today?

Ms Anderson: Yes, this is Ms Janice Anderson calling, may I speak to Mr. Franks, please?
Mr. Smith: I’m afraid Mr. Franks is out of the office at the moment. Would you like me to take a
message?
Ms Anderson: Well, we still haven’t received the shipment of earrings that was supposed to
arrive last Tuesday.
Mr. Smith: Sorry about that, kindly leave me your details..............Is there anything else I can
help you with?

Ms. Anderson: No, I think that’s everything. Thank you for your help....................Goodbye.
Mr. Smith: Goodbye.

6
i. What makes this a good telephone conversation? (4 mks)
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ii. If you were the secretary, which details would you include in the telephone message for
Mr. Franks? (3 mks)
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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION-2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education
101/2 - ENGLISH - Paper 2
2025 2hrs 30mins

Name: ………………………………………….. Admission No :………..….

Class: ………………… School: ..............................................................
READING COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR.
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
Instructions to students
• This paper consists of 10 printed pages.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
• Write your name, index number and class in the spaces provided.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
• Candidates must answer all questions in English.
Question Maximum Student’s Examiner’s
score score initials
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
TOTAL 80

1|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow (20 marks)
A growing number of people are being afflicted with a condition christened “ Cyberchondria” –
the techies’ term for patients who use the internet for self-diagnosis, and then present
“misinformation” to their doctor.

Many of those who result to internet for solutions to their health problems say they want
information on a medically diagnosed disease or illness, or to find alternative treatments. Others
seek support from fellow sufferers. There are those who turn to online diagnosis because of the
state of government health services in the country. Our health service is itself not entirely healthy,
and it barely survives with shoe-string budgets, low staffing levels and long queues of patients
praying for help. Internet statistics show that sites offering information on issues related to skin
disorders, HIV and Aids, diabetes, cancer and sexually transmitted infections register more hits
than other health information searches on the internet.

Self-diagnosis using medical websites is tricky, especially because these websites cover specific
medical conditions. For example, if you type the symptom ‘stomach pain’ into the search engine
of a general health and medical website, it may offer gastritis, appendicitis or irritable bowel
syndrome. It would be a mistake to consider these suggestions as possible diagnoses, because
your stomach pain could be caused by a build-up of gas following the baked beans and eggs you
had for lunch! The same goes for physical pains, such as pain in the lower back, or neurological
symptoms. You can’t rely on a website for self-diagnosis because it is going to spit out the most
common reason for your symptoms, which may not be accurate.

It is better to present your aching stomach or back to your physician or health care professional for
a more informed diagnosis. Otherwise, you may be wasting time, prayers, money and emotional
energy taking care of a disease that you do not actually have. Whereas internet information can be
valuable, the online health consumer should be wary because medical misinformation or
‘cyberquackery’ is rife on the internet. It is important to know how to recognize a reputable site.
You also cannot use the Internet as the gospel truth to determine health problems because not all
diseases and disorders are going to be catalogued on websites. Even a seemingly thorough site like
WebMD.com is going to miss something, and you do not want to rely on incomplete information.
Furthermore, you have no way of guaranteeing that the health information found on the Internet is
accurate, as a public health technician, with bias in monitoring and evaluation, I can start a website
that says just about anything notwithstanding. I do not have to have a medical degree to give faulty
advice.

Online diagnosis may breed panic and apprehension. Many people look up their symptoms on the
internet and discover that they could have any number of terminal or serious illnesses when they
really have nothing to worry about at all. Why put those types of thought in your head? Generally
speaking, doctors advise that one should ask a few questions about the information collected from

2|Page
an internet site before deciding whether to trust it. You need to find out who is responsible for the
content, and whether the website is owned or sponsored by reputable organization. Every
affiliation should be clearly shown on the website. Look for credentials and qualifications of the
professionals presenting the information. Be especially cautions if they are anonymous. Can you
contact the owners of the website via email, telephone and regular mail? Be vigilant, if the owners
don’t offer any means of communication.
(Adapted from the Daily Nation March 2008)

Questions
(a) According to the passage, what is cyberchondria? (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(b) Why do patients resort to internet for solution to their health problems? (3 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(c) What does the writer say about government health services? (2marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(d) What caution does the writer give in paragraph four? (2 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
(e) You also cannot use the internet as the gospel truth to determine health problems. (Rewrite the
sentence and add an appropriate question tag) (1 mark)
______________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________

3|Page
(f) Describe the tone of the writer throughout the passage? (3 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(g) Online diagnosis may breed panic and apprehension. (Rewrite the sentence in the passive)
(1mark)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(h) Make notes on the precautions to be taken if one wishes to get credible diagnosis from the
internet. (3marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
(i) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage: (3 marks)
a) Christened ______________________________________________________________
b) Syndrome_______________________________________________________________
c) Rife ____________________________________________________________________

2. Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)

Bembe: (Sitting up with an expression of horror on his face)

The Madingo Golf Club? No! I have always been very discreet about my
private affairs! How did they get the information it is mine?

Mossi: You see, there is hardly anything on earth you can do without somebody knowing
about it. You should also remember that those we regard as our friends are
sometimes wolves in sheep's clothing. And they may have a lot of information
about us, which could be damaging!

4|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Bembe: This might be our worst nightmare!

Mossi: What worries me most is the recent formation of a lobby group, an

amorphous virtual group, comprising mostly of lawyers, calling itself The
Samaritans.
It is calling upon the people to volunteer as witnesses and help in the prosecution
of those involved in corruption and abuse of office in the Municipality. They are
also planning to petition the Local Government Minister, the Prime Minister, and
the Chief Justice to take action. The situation is not pretty at all.

Ted: (Looking at Justice Jaden)

Can such online allegations form a strong basis for prosecution and conviction?
Jaden: (Adjusting his eyeglasses)
Yes, they can; provided there are valid documents supporting the allegations.

Bembe: (Throwing his hands in the air.)

I think we have no choice other than ban that thing within Maracas Municipality!
The Municipal Council needs to pass a by-law to that effect urgently. I will
enforce it immediately!

Jaden: (Adjusting his glasses and then his tie)

I think we need to be careful and strategic. On what basis do you ban it?
And how can you police the use of mobile phones to ensure the ban is effective?

Seymour: We can think creatively about that. For example, we can claim that
municipal authorities are concerned that suspect Apps, particularly spy Apps, are
finding their way into ourMunicipality. This may lead to the theft of confidential
information such as bank account details. We can also cite issues of cyberbullying
and the sharing of pornographic materials in schools.

a.) What events lead up to this excerpt? (3 marks)

5|Page
b.) Briefly explain the thematic concern as brought out in this excerpt. (4 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

c.) Mayor Mossi mentions that there is hardly anything on earth one can do without
somebody knowing about it. Using your knowledge of the text how true is this statement in
light of the allegations made against the leaders? (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

d.) Describe a character trait of (4 marks)

i. Ted
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
ii. Seymour
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
e.) From your knowledge of the text, mention the implication of the online allegations made
against the leaders. (3 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

6|Page
f.) ‘This might be our worst nightmare!’ provide a tag for this statement. ( 1 mark)
________________________________________________________________

g.) Describe the mood prevailing in this excerpt. ( 3 marks)

i.) Explain the meaning of the following terms as used in the excerpt below. (2 marks)
i. Wolves in sheep’s clothing___________________________________
ii. Strategic __________________________________________________

3. Read the oral narrative below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
One season, the rains stubbornly held to the sky, refusing to fall on the land. The
land suffered and blew large clouds of dust. The large clouds of dust rose and choked
lowly Warthog and kingly Lion alike. King Lion called a meeting. The animals would
have to dig a well and use the water to grow some food, for without this, the animals
would die of hunger and thirst. Hare was at the meeting. He heard what was said but he
did not like it. He liked to eat, but he did not like to work. He liked to drink, but he did
not like to dig wells. While the animals worked, Hare went walking about, going beyond
the bounds of Animal-land to amuse himself by seeing how human beings lived.
The animals dug the well and grew a wonderful crop. They were very happy with
the fruits of their labour. King Lion called another meeting.
“I decree that any animal who did not dig the well shall not drink of its waters!”
he roared.
“Yeeess!” shouted the animals.
“I decree that any animal who did not work on the farm shall not eat of its fruit!”
“Yeeess!”

7|Page

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
And so it was that Hare found himself barred from the well and the food. What
was he to do?
One day, as he went on his walks, he heard a fearsome sound. He went to the very
edge of Human-land to see what the humans were doing. There was a dance, and one
human was dancing in a fearsome costume and blowing on a ram’s horn, producing a
sound fit to wake the dead. Later that night, Hare sneaked into the village and stole the
horn and the costume. The next night, he donned the fearsome costume and climbed the
one sacred tree that never dried even in the fiercest of droughts. He blew the horn so
hard, puuuuuuuh! Even King Lion quaked in fear. You see how small Hare is? Well, don’t
be deceived, he had the voice of a lion.
“These are the spirits speaking!” he said to the animals who stood at a safe
distance. “We shall not starve. Every night Elephant will stand under the sacred tree, we
will fall from the sky and land on his back. He will feed us and water us with his trunk.”
This went on for some time. Then Hare grew careless. He decided to feed even
during the day. One day, while sitting on Elephant’s back feeding, he blew the whistle to
scare the animals. Well, he startled Elephant so much that Elephant jumped. Hare fell to
the ground and out of his costume. The animals were shocked. They were so angry that
they almost killed Hare, but his swift legs saved him. He was never seen in that part of
the land again. My story ends there.
a) Classify the above narrative. Give a reason for your answer. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

b) Why did king Lion call a meeting? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________

c) Identify and illustrate three features of Oral narratives evident in the story above. (6
marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

8|Page
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

d) Why were the animals so angry with Hare? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

e) Mention two roles of King Lion in this narrative. (4 marks)

f) Identify and illustrate one economic activity that is brought out in the narrative.
(2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

g) What is the moral lesson of the narrative? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

4. a) Rewrite the sentences below according to the instructions given after each. (4 marks)
i. I did not know that there was trouble ahead. (Begin: Little…)
_______________________________________________________________________
ii. We are being followed. (Change to active voice)
_______________________________________________________________________
iii. “I wrote this poem,” the little girl told the teacher. (Rewrite in reported speech)
________________________________________________________________________
iv) You are asked not to make your work dirty. (Rewrite using the word ‘dirty’ as a
verb)
________________________________________________________________________

9|Page
b) Fill in the blank spaces below with the correct form of the word in brackets. (3 marks)
i. The team was __________________ for coming late (qualify)

ii. They were ____________ attacked by the gangsters (vicious)

iii. ___________________ of water is a major challenge in this region. (scarce)

c) Replace the underlined words with suitable phrasal verbs. (2 marks)

i)The girl had to raise her siblings after the mother passed on.
________________________________________________________________________

ii)The government has abolished certain taxes.

_______________________________________________________________________

d) Choose the correct pronoun from those given in brackets to fill the blank spaces. (3 marks)

i. Last week, the captains on duty were Victoria and _________________ .

(I/me)
ii. Everyone agreed to the proposition, except _____________ (he/him)
iii. We ate as much food as ________________(they/them)

e) Fill in the blank spaces with the correct modal auxiliary. (3 marks)

i. I ______________ love to visit Hawaii someday. (wish)

ii. __________________ we begin our meeting now? (suggestion)
iii. We ________________ run faster when we were younger. (past ability)

10 | P a g e

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATIONS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2025
101/3 –
ENGLISH-
2½ HRS

Name…………………………………. Adm No………..

Class………….School…………………………………
Signature…………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
◆ Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
◆ Question one and two are compulsory.
◆ In question three, choose one question from the book you have prepared on.
◆ Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
◆ Write legibly and neatly.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total Score 60

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Answer three questions only;

1. Imaginative Composition (Compulsory) (20mks)

Either

a) Write a composition beginning with; I had hoped against hope that that would be
the best day of my life…

b) Write a composition to illustrate the saying; A stitch in time saves nine.

2. COMPULSORY ESSAY. Novel; Fathers of Nations. (20mks)

Seeking revenge due to discontent often leads to pain and suffering. Referring closely
to Paul Vitta’s Fathers of Nations, write an essay in support of this statement.

3. OPTIONAL SET TEXTS

Either

a) The Short Story; A Silent Song and other Short stories by Godwin Siundu.
(20mks)
In the face of life’s challenges, one has to find ways to deal with them. Basing your
illustrations on Vrenika Pather’s Ninema, write an essay to validate this assertion.

b) The Novel: An Artist of the Floating World by Kazuo Ishiguro. ( 20mks)

When we listen and adhere to wise counsel, we end up becoming successful. Show
the truth of this assertion with illustrations from Kazuo Ishiguro’s An Artist of the
Floating World.

2
KALA TRIAL EXAMINATION-2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

312/1 - GEOGRAPHY - Paper 1

2025 2hrs 45min

Name:…………………………………........................Admission………..….Class……Date…

Signature……………………… School……………………….......

Instructions to Candidates
(a) This paper has two Sections A and B.
(b) Answer all the questions in Section A.
(c) In Section B, answer question 6 and any other two questions from Section B.
(d) All answers must be written in the foolscaps provided.
For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION Questions Maximum Score CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 1-5 25

B 6 25

Total Score 100%

©KALA EXAMS 2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section

1 (a) Apart from the sun, name two other heavenly bodies (2 mks)
(b) State three effects of revolution of the earth around the sun. (3 mks)
2 a) Name the temperate grasslands found in the following countries.
o Canada (1 mark)
o Russia (1 mark)
b) State three ways through which aspect influences the distribution of natural vegetation (3mk)
3 (a) What is an earthquake? (2 mks)
(b) Give three human causes of earthquake. (3 mks)
4 .Use the diagram below to answer questions 4(a) and (b)

(a)Name the parts marked P, Q and R. (3 mks)

(b)State two characteristics of the feature drawn above. (2mks)
5 (a) Name two type of mass wasting. (2 mks)
(b) State three factors that influence movement of materials in mass wasting. (3mks)

SECTION B (75mks)
Answer question 6 and ANY OTHER TWO questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Tambach (1:50,000 sheet 90/3) provided and use it to answer the following
questions.
(a) (i) What is the longitudinal extend of the area covered by the map. (2 mks)
(ii) Convert the ratio scale of the map into statement scale (1mk)
( iii) What is the magnetic declination of the map as at 1980? (2 mks)

(b) (i) Citing evidence from the map, give two social functions of Iten town (2mks)
(ii) Describe the characteristics of the long profile of River Kerio. (5mks)
(c) Citing evidence from the map, explain three factors favouring trading in the area
covered by the map. (6mks)

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(d) i) Using a vertical scale of 1 cm rep 100m, draw a cross section from grid reference 830730 to
910730. On it mark and label (5 mks)
• Dry weather road
• Escarpment
• River Kerio
ii) Give the intervisibility of the points drawn (2mks)

7a) i) What is a limb in a fold? (2mks)

ii) Explain how Fold Mountains are formed according to convectional theory (3mks)
(b) i) Differentiate between orogeny and orogenesis (2mks)
ii) State three factors influencing folding of sedimentary rocks. (3mks)
(c) Use the world map provided and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name mountain ranges marked U, V, W, X, Y and Z (6mks)

ii) Draw a well labeled diagram of anticlinorium and synclinorium complex (3mks)
(d) Explain three ways in which fold mountains influence climate in a region. (6mks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
8. The table below represents rainfall and temperature of station X. Use it to answer the questions
(a) and (b)

Station X
Months J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temperature 30 31 31 31 30 29 28 29 29 29 29 30
°C
Rainfall (mm) 250 250 325 300 213 25 25 25 100 275 380 200

(a) (i)Calculate the mean annual range of temperature of the station. (1 mk)
ii) Calculate the annual rainfall total for station X. (2 mks)
iii) Calculate the average temperature for station X. (2 mks)
(b) Describe the climatic characteristics of station X. (5mks)
(c) i) Define the term weather forecasting. (2 mks)
ii) Explain any four challenges facing weather forecasting in Kenya. (8 mks)
(d) Explain how humidity is measured using simple hygrometer (5mks)

9) The diagram below represents underground featured in a limestone area. Use it to answer questions

a) i). Name the featured marked X, V and W. (3mks)

ii). Describe how the feature marked Y is formed (6 mks)
b) i). What is an artesian basin? (2mks)
ii).State three factors which influence the formation of features in limestone areas (3mks)
iii) State three reasons why Karst landscapes have low population densities (3mks)
c) State three significance of the Karst Region (3mks)
d) Form four students from Kala School are planning to carry out a field study on karst
landscape.
i) State two objectives of their study. (2mks)
ii) Prepare a simple working schedule for the field study. (3mks

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10 (a) i) Define the term ocean (2mks)
ii) State three conditions necessary for the formation of a beach (3mks)
iii) Describe how wave erosion takes place through abrasion (2mks)
b) With the aid of well labeled diagrams, describe how a stump is formed (9mks)
c) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow

Identify the type of coast represented by the diagram (1mk)

d) Explain four significance of coastal features to human Activities (8mks)

5
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION - 2025

GEOGRAPHY PP2 (312/ 2)

2025- 2 ¾ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Admission………………………….

School………………………. Signature …………… Date……….……………Form…….…

Instructions To Students

a) This paper has two sections A and B

b) Answer ALL the questions in section A.

c) Answer questions 6 and any other TWO questions from section B

For examiners use only

Section Question Maximum’ Candidate’

s s

Score Score

A 1-5 25

B 6 25

7 25

8 25

9 25

10 25

100%

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A. (25 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section.

1. a) Define economic geography. (2mks)

b) State three reasons why it is important to study history in geography. (3mks)

2. a) What is forestry. (2mks)

b) Name three industries that are associated with forestry. (3mks)

3 a) Give two methods through which land has been reclaimed in Kenya. (2mks)

b) Apart from horticulture, name three other crops grown in the Polders of Netherlands.
(3mks)
4. a) State two measures that have been taken to conserve fisheries in Kenya. (2mks)

b) Give three reasons why Japan is a great fishing country. (3mks)

5. a) Name two major modes of transport in Kenya. (2mks)

b) State three measures the government of Kenya has put in place to improve road
transport. (3mks)

2
SECTION B: (75 Marks)
Answer Question 6 and any other two questions in this section.
6. The photograph below shows a process in mining. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

a) i) Identify the type of photograph shown above. (1mk)

ii) Describe the process of extracting the mineral using the deep- shaft method shown in
the photograph above. (6mks)

iii) Name four minerals that are to be mined using underground method. (4mks)

b) Explain the following problems of mining: -

(i) Land dereliction. (2mks)

(ii) Loss of biodiversity. (2mks)

(iii) Pollution. (4mks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
c) Explain three ways in which mining promotes industrialization. (6mks)

7. a) i) Name two species of coffee grown in Kenya. (2mks)

ii)Identify three main coffee growing areas in the Central province in Kenya. (3mks)

b) State four physical factors that favor coffee growing in the Central highlands of
Kenya. (4mks)

c)Describe the stages of coffee growing from land preparation to harvesting. (8mks)

d)Explain four differences of coffee farming in Kenya and Brazil. (8mks)

8. a i) Differentiate between wildlife and tourism. (2mks)

ii) Explain how government policy influences the distribution of wildlife in Kenya.
(6mks)

b) Give three tourist attractions in the Rift valley region of Kenya. (3mks)

c i) Explain four problems associated with tourism in Kenya. (8mks)

ii) State three ways in which ecotourism has led to sustainable tourism industry in

Kenya. (3mks)

d) State three ways in which tourist attractions in Kenya differ from those of Switzerland
(3mks)

9. a) Identify three sources of renewable energy. (3mks)

b) The sketch map below shows Hydro-Electric power (H.E.P.) stations along the River
Tana. Use it to answer questions (i) and (ii).

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i) Name the H.E.P. Stations marked S and T. (2mks)

ii) The proposed H.E.P. station Marked U. (1mk)

iii) State four physical factors that influenced the location of the H.E.P. stations along River
Tana. (4mks)

c. i) Explain two measures the Government of Kenya has taken to conserve energy. (4mks)

ii) Give three effects of liberalization of energy sector in Kenya. (3mks)

d) Some students carried out a field study on sources of energy by sampling the households
around their school.
i) Identify three sampling techniques the students may have used during the study. (3mks)

ii) Give three advantages of sampling the households for the study. (3mks)

iii) State two problems they are likely to encounter in the course of the study. (2mks)

10. a) i) Define the term industry. (2mks)

ii)Explain how the following factors influence the location and development of industries
in Kenya.

• Capital. (4mks)

• Water supply. (2mks)

b) Study the map of Kenya below and answer the question that follow.

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
i)Identify the manufacturing industries located at J, K and L towns. (3mks)

ii)List four heavy industries located in Kenya. (4mks)

c)Explain three problems facing cottage industry in Kenya. (6mks)

d)State four characteristics of cottage industry in India. (4mks)

6
KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION - 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

311/1
History and Government Paper 1
2025
2 ½ HOURS

Name: …………………………………………...…Admission No: ………...……

School: ……………………….… Class: ………. Signature: …………………….

Instructions to candidates

1. Write your name, admission number and school in the spaces provided above.
2. Append your signature in the space provided above.
3. The paper contains THREE Sections: A, B and C.
4. Answer ALL the questions in Section A, any THREE questions in Section B and any TWO
questions in Section C.
5. ALL answers must be written in the spaces provided in the booklet.
6. Answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION A B C TOTAL

1 – 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section

1. Identify one written source of information on Kenyan history. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

2. Give the main reason for the migration of Eastern Bantu from Shungwaya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

3. Identify two functions of the warriors among the Bantu communities in the pre-colonial period.

(2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

4. Name the Arab family that administered Mombasa on behalf of the Sultan of Oman in the 16th
century. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

5. Identify one reason that can lead to revocation of citizenship by birth in Kenya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

6. Identify two occasions when the Kenya national anthem is sung. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

7. State two natural factors that were responsible for the rise of Nairobi as an urban centre. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

8. State one way in which the national accord and reconciliation act of 2008 affected the composition

of government in Kenya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

2
9. Name one type of democracy that is practised in Kenya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

10. Give two methods which were used by the British to establish their rule in Kenya. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

11. Name two members of AEMO from Nyanza at its inception in 1957. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

12. State two roles that Tom Mboya played in the Kenya African Union (KAU). (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

13. Identify the political party formed in 1960 to champion the interest of the minority groups in Kenya.

(1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
14. Name two superior courts in Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......
15. Give the title of the publication in which the ideas of the philosophy of African Socialism were
published in Kenya in 1965. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

16. Give the legislative function of the County Governor in Kenya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

17. Name two key parliamentary finance watchdog committees in Kenya. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….......

3
SECTION B (45 MARKS)
Answer any THREE questions from this section
18. a) Give three social reasons for the migration of the Mijikenda into Kenya during the 19th century.
(3mks)
b) Describe six results of the migration and settlement of the Somali into Kenya during the 19th
century. (12mks)

19. a) State three reasons why Seyyid Said transferred his capital from Muscat to Zanzibar in 1840.
(3mks)
b) Explain six factors which contributed to the development of trade between the Kenyan Coast and
the outside world in the 16th century. (12mks)

20. a) State three powers given to Imperial British East African Company by the British. (3mks)
b) Explain six reasons for an end to the Imperial British East Africa Company in Kenya rule in 1895.
(12mks)

21. a) Give five early political organizations formed in Kenya up to 1939. (5mks)
b) Explain five problems experienced by European settlers in Kenya. (10mks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section

22. a) Identify three categories of people who may qualify to be registered as Kenyan citizens. (3mks)
b) Explain six factors that promote national unity in Kenya. (12mks)

23. a) State five principles of democracy. (5mks)

b) Describe five steps in the process of constitution review in Kenya. (10mks)

24. a) State three reasons why the government of Kenya prepares a national budget. (3mks)

b) Explain six ways in which the government controls the use of public finances in Kenya. (12mks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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5
KALA PRE-MOCK EXAMINATIONS 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
311/2 - HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT - Paper 2
2025 – 2 ½ Hours

Name: ……………………………………. index no………………….…stream…………

School: …………………………………………class……….… date: …………………….

Instructions to candidates.
(a) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
(b) Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and two
questions from section C.
(c) this paper consists of 3 printed pages.
(e) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
(f) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

Examiners’ use only

Section Questions Maximum score Students score

A 1 - 17 25

18 15
B 19 15

20 15

21 15
C 22 15

23 15

24 15

Total 100

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25MARKS)

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. Define economic history. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. State two distinct stages of evolution according to Charles Darwin. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Give the main reason why early man lived on trees. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. State one way in which the Sumerians reclaimed land. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. State two ways in which the Agrarian Revolution affected the Peasants in England.
(2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Name the main trade commodity during the Trans-Atlantic trade. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Give two uses of canals. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. Name two materials on which the early written messages were recorded. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Name two inventions that revolutionized food preservation during the Scientific
Revolution. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
................................................................................................................................................
10. Which early African Urban Centre was referred to as the Jewel of the Zenj coast?
(1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State two factors to consider when determining the form of a constitution a country may
adopt. (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State one category of human rights. (1marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Identify two treaties that were signed between Lewanika and the British. 2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Name the policy that was used by the British to administer Northern Nigeria. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Give one pillar of the two-pyramids policy as applied in Southern Rhodesia. (1mark)

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Who was the first president of Mozambique? (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Give two types of Nationalisms that were witnessed in South Africa. (2marks)

4
SECTION B (45 MARKS)

ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS

18.(a). Give three sources of Oral Tradition as a source of information in History and
Government. (3 marks)
(b). Explain six limitations of using Archaeology as a source of historical information.
(12marks)
19. (a) Identify three Trans-Continental railways. (3marks)
(b) Discuss six negative effects of using mobile phones as a modern means of
communication.
(12marks)
20.(a). State three factors that led to the spread of iron working in Africa. (3marks)
(b). Explain six economic effects of Industrial Revolution in Europe. (12marks)
21. (a) Name three countries that took part in the 1884-1885 Berlin Conference. (3marks)
(b) Explain six terms of the Berlin Act. (12marks)

SECTION C (30MARKS)
ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

22. (a) State three functions of the Lukiiko among the Baganda during the pre-colonial period.
(3marks)
(b) Explain six factors that led to the rise and development of the Buganda Kingdom during
pre- colonial period. (12marks)

23. (a)State three factors that facilitated the application of assimilation policy in the four
communes of Senegal. (3marks)
(b) Explain six reasons why the French policy of Assimilation failed in West Africa. (10marks)

24.(a) State five methods used by Nationalists in Ghana in their struggle for independence.
(5marks)

(b). Explain five reasons why it took long for Mozambique to achieve independence.
(10marks)

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11
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION, HOME SCIENCE (441/1)
THEORY PAPER 1, 2025, 2½ HOURS.

Name:.............................................................Class:..........................Admno:.................................

Index No:.................................Date:............................Candidate’s Signature:.............................

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

a.) Confirm that this question paper has your name and the correct index number.
b.) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c.) This paper consists of three sections; A,B and C
d.) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two from section C.
e.) Answers must be written in the spaces provided.
f.) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
g.) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed
as indicated and that no questions are missing.
h.) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
A 1-20 40

B 21 20

C 22-24 20

TOTAL 100
SCORE

1|Page

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. State the use of each of the following tools in the kitchen. (2mks)
i.) Paring knife.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
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ii.) Kitchen shears.
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2. Highlight two characteristics of foods that have been over cooked through prolonged boiling.
(2mks)
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3. Identify two disadvantages of re‘chauffe dishes. (2mks)
______________________________________________________________________________
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4. Give two characteristics of a hard boiled egg. (2mks)
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5. Outline two reasons for using dried fruits in cake making. (2mks)
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2|Page
6. Give two benefits of manipulative play. (2mks)
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7. Define the following terms: (2mks)
i.) Inflation.
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ii.) Consumer rights.
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8. Distinguish between oxidising bleaches and reducing bleaches. (2mks)
______________________________________________________________________________
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9. State two points on prevention and control of round worms in our bodies. (2mks)
______________________________________________________________________________
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10. Name two lighting fixtures used in the home. (2mks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
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11. State two disadvantages of using an oil-based paint. (2mks)
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3|Page
12. State two pre-cautions to take when laundering viscose rayon. (2mks)
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13. Differentiate between a continuous wrap opening and a bound opening. (2mks)
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14. State two factors that determine the width of a French seam. (2mks)
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15. Give two reasons why knitted fabrics are suitable for sports wear. (2mks)
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16. Identify two uses of embroidery scissors. (2mks)
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17. State two factors to consider when fixing a zip on a garment. (2mks)
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4|Page

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18. Give two limitations of nylon for making babies clothes. (2mks)
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19. State two reasons for using interfacing in garment construction. (2mks)
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20. State two types of immunity in human beings. (2mks)
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SECTION B (20MARKS)
(Compulsory)
Answer question 21 in the spaces provided.

21. You are planning for your sister’s birthday party at home. Outline the procedure you will use
to:
i.) Launder a silk blouse she will wear. (10mks)
ii.) Clean a refrigerator. (10mks)

5|Page

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6|Page
SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 24.

22. a) Explain three points to consider when choosing sleeves. (6mks)

b) Explain three points to take into account when buying baking tins to ensure they are of
good quality. (6mks)
c) Describe four principles of food preservation. (8mks)

23. a) Explain four points to consider when choosing furniture. (8mks)

b) State six possible causes of pre-mature birth. (6mks)
c) Explain three disadvantages associated with living in a temporary house. (6mks)

24. a) Describe four ways of making a faced slit opening decorative. (8mks)
b) State six ways of ensuring pastry remains cool. (6mks)
c) Explain three factors that determine the repair method to be used on clothes and house
hold articles. (6mks)

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7|Page

8|Page
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION, HOME SCIENCE P.2 (441/2).
CLOTING CONSTRUCTION PRACTICAL, 2025, 2½ HOURS.

GIRL’S BLOUSE
A pattern of a girl’s blouse is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and
the layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A. Blouse front.
B. Blouse back.
C. Sleeve.
D. Sleeve facing.
Cut a crossway strip 19cm long x 4cm wide.
2. Plain lightweight and light coloured cotton fabric 56 cm x 90cm.
3. Sewing thread to match.
4. One large envelope.
THE TEST
Using the materials provided, lay, cut and make one half of a girl’s blouse to show the following
processes:
(a) Cutting out; (10½ Marks)
(b) Making the dart at the blouse front; (12 Marks)
(c) Making the French seam at the shoulder; (8 Marks)
(d) Working of the side seam using open seam; (11 Marks)
(e) Preparing and attaching the sleeve; (20½ Marks)
(f) Attaching the bias binding to the neckline. Hold the binding in place using tacking stitches
and hem the front only; (15 Marks)
(g) Managing the lower hem of the blouse by machine stitching on one half only; (8 Marks)
(h) Overall presentation. (5 Marks)
At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work, on a single fabric, a label bearing your
name and your index number. Remove the needles and pins from your work. Fold your work
neatly and place it in the envelope provided.
Do NOT put scraps of fabric in the envelope.
DO NOT seal the envelope.

Page 1 of 2

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Page 2 of 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION, 2025
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
FOODS AND NUTRITION
Paper 3
PRACTICAL
1¾ hours

Instructions to candidates

PLANNING SESSION: 30 minutes

PRACTICAL TEST SESSION: 1¼hours
Read the test carefully.
Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.
Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.
You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.
You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session

Page 1 of 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
THE TEST
You have invited your friend over for lunch. Using the ingredients listed below, plan, prepare,
cook and present a two course meal for both you.
Include a dessert.
Ingredients:
- Apples / Ripe bananas
- Minced meat/Green grams
- Cooking fat/oil
- Tomatoes
- Onions
- Pawpaw/mangoes
- Coriander
- Salt
- Royco
- Lemons
- Carrots
- Rice/Irish potatoes
- Water melon
- Margarine
- Spinach/cabbage

Planning session – 30 minutes

Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and carbon paper to make duplicate
copies and proceed as follows:

1. Identify the food items and write down their recipes.

2. Write down the order of work.
3. Make a list of the food stuffs, materials and equipment you will require.

Page 2 of 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PRE- TRIAL EXAM 2025
PAPER 1
314/1
2 ½ HRS

Name:…………………………………………………….Index No: ………...........

Class: ……… Signature: ……………………...….Date…………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

a) Write your name, admission number as well as school in the space provided
above.
b) Write the date of the examination in the space provided above.
c) This paper consists of SIX questions.
d) Answer ANY FIVE QUESTIONS in the working space provided.
e) Each question has 20 marks.
f) This paper consists of 2 printed pages. The learner should check the question
paper to ascertain
that all the pages are as indicated and that no questions are missing.
g) The learner should answer all the questions in English

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Total Score

Student’s Score

Turn over

Page 1 of 2

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1. a) State six measures taken to ensure that the Quran retains its originality.
(6marks)

b) Explain circumstances that led to the standardization of the Quran. (8marks)

c) Discuss factors to consider for tarjamutul Quran. (6marks)

2. a) Outline six factors that made the compilation of the Quran easy during Khalif
Abubkar (RA)’s reign. . (6marks)

b) Discuss the reasons why the Quran should not be attributed to Prophet Muhammad
(s.a.w) as its writter. (8marks)

c) Explain the moral themes foud in Surah An- Nur Q 24. (6marks)

3. a) Among the contributions by the Muhadithin was the classification of Ahadith,

highlight the criteria they used to detect fabricated Ahadith. (6marks)

b) Discuss the role of Hadith in the growth of Islam after the death of the Prophet
(s.a.w). (6marks)

c) The Prophet (s.a.w.) said, “Seeking knowledge is an obligation on every Muslim.”

Highlight the contribution of Muslims towards rducation in Kenya. (8marks)

4. a) Outline the factors that led to the emergence of Madh’hab. (8marks)

b) Highlight the contribution of Imam Ahmad bin Hanbal to Islam. (5marks)

c) Explain the privileges accorded to a traveler by the Shariah (7marks)

5. a) State the qualities of an Imam according to the Shia (6marks)

b) In what ways does the belief in atid and raqib affect the life of a Muslim? (8marks)

c) Highlight the various ways of performing Kafarah. (6marks)

6. a) List down persons exempted from receiving zakat. (6marks)

b) Outline the impediments to the application os shariah law in Kenya. (8marks)

c) How does saum help Muslims to advance spiritually?. (6marks)

End

Page 2 of 2

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314/2
IRE
PAPER 2
2025
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Name: Adm: Class:

Candidates Signature: School Name:

2025 KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAM

KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER 2 - 314/2

FORM 4 KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAM TERM 1 2025

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Answer FIVE questions

This paper consists of 3 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed.

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. a) Discuss the rationale behind the prohibition of gambling in Islam. (8 marks)
b) State seven benefits that Muslims gain from practicing the virtue of Qanaa
(contentment). (7 marks)
c) Give five reasons why Muslims are prohibited from consuming dead meat.
(5 marks)
2. (a) State seven conditions that may necessitate a wife to seek for dissolution of marriage
through the Kadhi’s court. (7 marks)
(b) Suggest seven ways through which Muslims can assist in curbing domestic violence.
(7 marks)
(c) In which ways can hoarding affect the Muslim community? (6 marks)

3. (a) Identify six responsibilities of a Muslim wife. (6 marks)

(b) Discuss the effects of corruption on the Muslim society. (8 marks)
(c) State six conditions to be adhered to, before a Muslim takes a loan from a bank.
(6 marks)
4. (a) Highlight the importance of Madina constitution to the Muslims. (7 marks)
(b)Discuss the effects of the social boycott imposed on Muslims by the Quraish . (6 marks)
(c) Describe lessons that Muslims can learn from the Battle of Khandaq. (7marks)

5. (a)Explain six factors that facilitated the spread of Islam in both Mumias and Buganda
in the Nineteenth Century. (6 marks)
(b) Discuss four factors that led to the rise of the Umayyad dynasty. (8 marks)
(c) In what ways did Umar-al- Khattab support the Prophet (P.b.u.h) in his mission?
(6 marks)

6. (a)Describe six lessons that a Muslim youth can learn from Sheikh Al -Amin Mamii.
(6 marks)
(b) State six social issues highlighted by the Prophet (P.b.u.h) during Hijatul wida (farewell
Hajj). (6 marks)
(c) Discuss the Administrative reforms of Abdul Malik bin Marwan. (8 marks)

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3
KALA MWIGA MWIGO
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

KISWAHILI 102/1- INSHA

Muda: Saa 1 ¾ 2025

Jina: …………………………………………..………….......................................................

Nambari ya usajili………..…...............Shule.......................................................................

Darasa…………………...……..Tarehe: ……...............sahihi……........................………..
Maagizo
(a) Andika jina lako na nambari ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
(d) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
(e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
(f) Kila insha ina alama 20.
(g) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(h) Insha zote sharti ziandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
(i) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 12 zilizopigwa chapa.
(j) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kuwa kurasa zote za karatasi ya mtihani zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 20

JUMLA 40

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1. Lazima
Umegundua kuwa baadhi ya wanafunzi shuleni mwenu hawapendi kuzingatia aina mbalimbali za
usafi. Andika tahariri kwa Gazeti la Angaza ukionyesha umuhimu wa wanafunzi kuzingatia aina hizo
za usafi.

2. Wewe ni katibu wa jopokazi ambalo limeteuliwa kuchunguza sababu za wanafunzi wa shule za

kufanya vibaya katika baadhi ya masomo. Andika ripoti ya uchunguzi huo huku ukitoa mapendekezo.

3. Andika kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali, Mtumai cha nduguye hufa maskini.
3. Tunga kisa kitakachomalizika kwa maneno yafuatayo; Niliamua kuyajenga maisha yangu upya.

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3
KALA MWIGA MWIGO
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education -2025
KISWAHILI 102/2- KARATASI YA PILI
Muda: Saa 2 ½

Jina: …………………………………………..………….......................................................

Nambari ya usajili………..…...............Shule.......................................................................

Kidato …………………...……..Tarehe: ……...............sahihi……........................………..

Maagizo
a) Andika jina lako, namba yako ya usajili ya shule, na sahihi yako katika nafasi
ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Jibu maswali yote.
c) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
d) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
e) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.
f) Andika jina la shule yako pamoja na tarehe.
g) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 10 zilizopigwa chapa.
h) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa na kuwa maswali yote yamo

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1. Ufahamu 15

2. Ufupisho 15

3. Matumizi ya Lugha 40

4. Isimujamii 10

Jumla 80

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1. SEHEMU A: UFAHAMU (Alama 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
Mangwasha alifululiza hadi kitandani mwake. Huko, alijifunika shuka gubigubi akalia hadi usingizi
kumtwaa. Akiwa usingizini ndipo aliposikia mayowe huko nje. Wanaume kwa wanawake wote
walipiga mayowe mfululizo. Kuna nini?Alifungua dirisha la chumba chake na akatazama nje.
Mama yangu! Mtaa mzima wa Matango ulikuwa unateketea. Moto ulikuwa ukisambaa kila mahali
kwa haraka sana. Kelele za watu zilizidi kuhanikiza. Ndipo alipowaamsha wanawe waondoke
upesi. Alijua hakuna usalama pale.

Mangwasha aliwaza usiku kucha. Hakupata hata lepe la usingizi.Starehe ya usingizi itoke wapi
ikiwa vurumai na mahangaiko yale yalimwacha fukara? Mkata asiye na mbele wala nyuma?
Aliwatupia jicho wanawe waliolala karibu naye. Wanangwa hata hawana habari juu ya yale
yaliyokumba eneo zima la Matango. Aidha, hawana habari juu ya baba yao. Hicho kilikuwa
kitendawili ambacho yeye Mangwasha alihitaji kukitegua. Lakini...lakini hata akikitegua, salama
itoke wapi? Mume huyo ambaye ni mfano tu wa mume kamuachia madhila yasiyopimika.
Kumuachia uchochole usio mfano na mashaka yasiyomwisha. Lau kama angalijua aliko,
angaliomba dua atokomee kabisa katika uso wa dunia.

Wazo hili lilipomjia, alishtuka na kuwaza. Kwa nini? Hajawahi hata siku moja kumwazia binadamu
yeyote maovu, sembuse mumewe. Mtu aliyekuwa mwandani wake wa karibu, aliyemfariji na
kumkinga dhidi ya manyanyaso kazini. Akamhifadhi na kumtunza. Katika mawazo yake, alilikemea
wazo hilo. Lakini kila alipolikemea ndivyo lilivyorudi kwa nguvu zaidi kuighasi nafsi yake. Wazo
sasa likamtaka asimtie mumewe akilini tena. Amsahau kama vile mtoto anavyolisahau titi la
mamaye. Alipofikia hatua hii, alijukuta akitetemeka sana. Akitetemeka kama aliyemwagiwa maji
ya barafu. Kitete kikamvaa.

Mwishowe alifumba macho akaomba. Alimwomba Mungu amwepushie mabaya kokote alikokuwa
mumewe. Alimwomba asiruhusu mauti au hatari yoyote kumkaribia. Bado alimhitaji, hata ingawa
alimtupa kama tambara bovu. Wanawe pia walimhitaji. Bora awe baba mtu tu, wamwite baba.
Alipofumbua macho, alivitazama vitu vilivyokuwa mbele yake. Akali tu ya vitu. Hii ndiyo
iliyokuwa milki yake na wanawe. Majeruhi wa jamii. Fakiri wa kuomba wapita njia. Mangwasha
aliwatupia tena wanawe jicho. Machozi yalianza kumtiririka njia mbili. Aliwaza jinsi
atakavyowalisha siku hii ya Mungu. Akiba ya chakula aliyokuwa nayo iliteketea yote. Hakuwa na
muda wa kuokota chochote mle nyumbani ila wanawe hao wawili, Sayore na Kajewa.

Aliradhi kupoteza vyote bali si watoto wake hao. Hawa ndio waliokuwa milki yake muhimu
ulimwenguni. Hawa ndio watakaokuwa vielelezo kwa wengine na ishara kwamba yeye Mangwasha
aliishi ulimwenguni wakati mmoja. Kwake, watoto hao walikuwa uzi adhimu wa kuunganisha
dahari yao na ile ya kizazi kilichopita. Alitabasamu kwamba katika ghubari ile aliweza kuwaokoa.
Alishangaa iwapo watu ambao walimfurusha kutoka katika makazi yake watakumbukwa kwa yale
waliyotenda. Lililo muhimu kwake ni mchango mdogo atakaoweza kutoa ili kubadili fikra za watu
wake. Fikra zilienda mrama kwani baadhi yao hawakujua kilichowafurusha. Alitaka kupigia mbizi
tatizo lililowakabili. Tayari alikuwa amejihami kwa machache aliyoyapata katika afisi ya Chifu
Mshabaha. Alijua alikabiliwa na kibarua kigumu mbele yake. Hata kama yeye ni mwanamke tu,
alikata shauri kwamba katika unyonge wake atajaribu. Aliamini kwamba afadhali kujaribu kuliko
kukaaa na kufikiri kwamba huwezi kitu. Heri nusu shari kuliko shari kamili.

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Mangwasha aliinuka na kuvisasambua vifurushi vya nguo alivyovikusanya mbiombio.
Alipovikagua, chozi lilimdondoka. Havikuwa vitu vya maana; matandiko makuukuu, mararu ya
nguo, mkeka na sahani chache zisizotamanika! Taharuki ilimvaa alipokumbuka vyeti vyake vya
masomo. Alichakura kwa wahaka mkubwa ndani ya mkoba wake. Vidole vilitetemeka. Kijasho
chembamba kikamtoka. Angefanya nini iwapo navyo pia viliteketea?

Vyeti hivyo ndivyo tumaini lake la maisha. Angalau vingeweza kumhakikishia ajira kwenye siku
za usoni iwapo Chifu Mshabaha angeamua kumtimua kazini. Alipokuwa akifanya hivyo, alishtuka
kuona bahasha moja ndogo nyeupe. Ilihifadhi barua ndani. Barua hiyo fupi na iliyokosa kuzingatia
sarufi iliandikwa kwa jina na anwani ya mumewe. Ilikuwa inasema hivi: Mrima nafuraa mi
kitumbua Chako mi ni wako njugu Karanga Naona vizuri wanipa pesa kila Siku unipe mahaba mi
nakupEnda Kama muhogo wa naZi we mfaUme wangu wanipeLeka kunipa Mi nifurai naKupenda
kama Haluwa.

a) Eleza changamoto mbili zinazokumba ndoa kwa kurejelea ile barua fupi kwenye kifungu.(ala2)

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c) Fafanua namna elimu imesawiriwa kwenye kifungu. (alama 2)

d) Bainisha umuhimu wa mama kwa wanawe katika kisa hiki. (ala 2)

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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
f) Eleza maana za maneno haya kulingana na kifungu.
i. aliwatupia jicho

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ii. kuighasi nafsi yake

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iii. ghubari (alama 3)

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2. UFUPISHO: (Alama 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali
Runinga kama kifaa kingine chochote cha mawasiliano kina manufaa yake.Kwanza kabisa, ni
nyenzo mwafaka ya kufundishia.Vipindi vinavyopeperushwa katika runinga huwa na mafunzo
kemkemu kwa mtu wa kila rika.Halikadhalika, runinga huweza kuleta vipindi ambavyo
huwafahamisha watu mambo yanayoendelea katika mazingira yao na duniani.Aidha, runinga
ikitumika pamoja na michezo ya video huauni katika ukuzaji na ustawishaji wa stadi ya kujifundisha
au kujielimisha.Michezo ya video, hasa ya kielimu, huwafanya watu kujenga umakini pamoja na
kuchua misuli ya ubongo na kuwafanya watu kuwa macho wanapofanya kazi.

Fauka ya hayo, televisheni ni chemchemi bora ya kutumbuiza na kuchangamsha.Hakuna mtu

asiyependa kuchangamshwa.Televisheni ni mojawapo ya vyombo mwafaka vya kutekeleza hayo
kutokana na vipindi vyake.Uburudishaji huu huwa ni liwazo kutokana na shinikizo na migogoro
tunayokabiliana nayo kila siku.Uburudishaji huu hupatikana kwa urahisi majumbani mwetu.Vivyo
hivyo, runinga hutumika kama nyenzo ya kuendeleza utamaduni, kaida na amali za jamii.Vingi vya
vipindi vya runinga huwa ni kioo ambacho huakisi mikakati na amali za jamii.

Kwa upande mwingine, hakuna kizuri kisichokuwa na dosari.Licha ya manufaa yake, televisheni
imedhihirika kuwa na udhaifu wake.Kwanza, baadhi ya vipindi vya runinga na video hujumuisha
ujumbe usio na maadili, kama vile matumizi ya nguvu za mabavu, ngono za kiholela,lugha isiyo ya
adabu, ubaya wa kimavazi,maonevu ya rangi,dini,jinsia,kabila na utamaduni.Si ajabu kuwa baadhi
ya vijana wetu wanaiga baadhi ya mambo haya.Vijana wetu siku hizi wameingilia ulevi wa pombe
na afyuni, ngono za mapema kabla ya ndoa na mavazi yanaowaacha takribani uchi wa mnyama.
Wengi wamekopa na kuyaiga haya kutoka katika runinga.Ukiwauliza wafanyacho,watakujibu kuwa
ni ustaarabu kwani wameupata katika runinga.

Matumizi ya runinga na michezo ya video isiyodhibitiwa huweza kuwa kikwazo cha mawasiliano
bora miongoni mwa familia.Matumizi kama haya huwapa wanafamilia fursa ya kujitenga.
Imedhihirika kuwa runinga haichangii kujenga uhusiano bora wa kijamii.Ukilinganisha na vyombo
vingine vya burudani ambavyo hutoa nafasi ya watu kutangamana na kujenga uhusiano bora,
televisheni haichangii haya.Badala yake, tajiriba ya televisheni huwa ya kibinafsi.Hali hii
inapotokea katika kiwango cha familia, televisheni inaweza kutenganisha wazazi na wanao.

4
Halikadhalika, runinga na video aghalabu hueneza tabia isiyofaa.Mathalani, baadhi ya vipindi vya
televisheni huendeleza hulka ya kuhadaa, ngono za kiholela na kuvunjika kwa ndoa.Hulka hizi
zisizoendeleza maadili ya kijamii huchukuliwa kama zinazofaa na zinazofuatwa na waliostaarabika.
Huu ni upotovu.

Isitoshe, baadhi ya matangazo huhimiza matumizi ya dawa za kulevya kama tembo na sigara.Vitu
hivi vinapotangazwa, hupambwa kwa hila na udanganyifu mwingi ambao huwavutia vijana na
watoto wengi.Si ajabu mtu anapouliza wanaotumia vileo hivi walivyoanza,watajibu kutokana na
athari za matangazo katika runinga na vyombo vingine.

Utafiti umeonyesha kuwa vipindi vya runinga na video ni chanzo cha matumizi ya nguvu za mabavu
miongoni mwa wanafunzi.Wazazi wengi huchukulia vibonzo katika televisheni kuwa vinalenga
kuburudisha tu na havina ubaya wowote.Lakini ukweli ni kuwa vipindi vingi vya vibonzo
hushirikisha matumizi ya hila na nguvu za mabavu.Haya huibusha hamu ya vijana na watoto
kuyaiga.

Kwa hivyo,ni muhimu wazazi na jamii kutambua madhara ya televisheni.Utambuzi huu utawafanya
wawaelekeze vijana na watoto jinsi ya kutumia televisheni na video ili kuepukana na madhara yake.
a) Fupisha aya mbili za kwanza (maneno 80) (alama 9)
Matayarisho
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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Jibu
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b) Eleza udhaifu wa runinga na video. (maneno 80) (alama 6)

Matayarisho
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Jibu
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6
3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

(a) Andika kitenzi kitakachoanza kwa kitamkwa cha ufizi ambacho ni ghuna. (alama 2)

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(b) Bainisha silabi katika neno lifuatalo: daktari (alama 1)

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(c) Pigia mstari shadda katika sentensi ifuatayo: Nimesema toka! (alama 1)

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d) Ainisha mofimu katika maneno yafuatayo:
mwangwi, alavyo. (alama 2)

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e) Maskini mtoto ameanguka!
Ainisha sentensi hii kidhamira (alama 1)

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f) Tunga sentensi ukitumia kirai kihusishi cha mahali. (alama 2)

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g) Mwalimu afundisha darasani. Tambua hali katika sentensi hii. (alama 1)

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h) Kipyegon alikuwa wa kwanza katika mbio hizo.
Kivumishi kilichopigiwa mstari kina maana ipi? (alama 2)

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i) Jepesi ni kwa rahisi, ukuta ni kwa… (alama 1)

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j) Tunga sentensi yenye muundo ufuatao:
KN(N+RH)+ KT(T+N+E) (alama 2)

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k) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya umoja.
Nguo walizouza madukani mwao ziliwavutia watalii. (alama 2)

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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
l) Ibadilishe chagizo ya mahali iwe ya wakati katika sentesi ifuatayo: (alama 2)
Mchezaji aliucheza mpira mjini Nairobi.

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m) Ainisha shamirisho katika sentensi ifuatayo:
Mpishi amempikia mgeni wake wali mtamu vizuri. (alama 2)

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n) Andika kinyume cha:
Mama amehamia mjini. (alama 1)

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o) Kanusha (alama 1)
Naimba nikipika,

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p) Juma ni mraibu wa vileo. Watoto wake wawili pia ni watumizi wa vileo. Andika Methali
inayoweza kuelezea hali hii. (alama 1)

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q) Tunga sentensi ukitumia kiwakilishi kirejeshi katika ngeli yaYA – YA. (alama 2)

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r) Kalale! Onyesha matumizi ya ka katika kauli hii. (alama 1)

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s) Andika katika usemi halisi (alama 2)

Mkurugenzi alisema kwamba wangetoa nyongeza ya mshahara mwaka ambao ungefuata.

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t) Tunga sentensi ukitumia kiunganishi cha uteuzi. (alama 1)

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t)
u) Andika sentensi kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kibainishi ( alama 2)

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8
v) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha mstari.

Wakulima hawa wanapanda zao hili daima. (alama 2)

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w) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika hali ya wastani. (alama 1)

Mabarabara haya yalikarabatiwa mwaka jana.

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x) Eleza maana mbili za sentensi:(alama 2)
Tuliitwa na mama.

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y) Nomino zifuatazo ziko katika ngeli zipi (alama 2 )
i) bembea
ii) mapambazuko

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z) Andika kitenzi suka katika kauli ya kutendata. (alama 1)

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4. Isimujamii alama 10
a) Umechaguliwa kuwa kiranja mkuu wa Shule ya Tumaini. umepewa jukumu la kuwazungumzia
wanafunzi wenzako kuhusu umuhimu wa kuzingatia sheria za shule. Jadili sifa tano za lugha
utakayotumia. (alama 5)

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9
b) Kwa kutoa mifano maridhawa, eleza kaida zozote tano ambazo matumizi ya lugha hutegemea
katika jamii. (alama 5)

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Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA MTIHANI WA PAMOJA MWIGA-MWIGO
2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education
KISWAHILI 102/3
FASIHI
Muda: Saa 2 ½

MACHI

Jina ………………………………………………………Jina la shule ………………………..

Sahihi …………………………….Kidato…………Tarehe ………………………………

Maagizo
(a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
(d) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
(e) Maswali hayo mengine yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki: yaani; Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi,
Riwaya, na Fasihi simulizi
(f) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(g) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
(h) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 18 zilizopigwa chapa.
(i) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
(i) Usijibu maswali kutoka sehemu moja.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee
SWALI 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 JUMLA
ALAMA
UPEO 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 80

1
@kala 102/3-2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SEHEMU YA A – SHAIRI
1.Swali la lazima
Soma shairi lifuatalo kasha ujibu maswali
Kila niamkapo husikia tama
Nami kila wakati
Na kuwazia hali inayonizunguka
Kwa vile
Imekuwa kawaida

Huyawazia kwa kipindi

Ndiyo
Huyawazia madhila na zaidi
Huyawazia madhila
Huziwazia shida
Hujiwazia dhiki

Dhiki ya ulezi
Dhiki ya kudhalilishwa kazini kwangu
Madhila ya kufanyiwa dharau na kukebehiwa
Kwa sababu ya jinsia ya kike
Kwa vile mimi ni jinsiia tofauti
Hukaa na kujiuliza
Hujidadisi kujua ni kwa nini
Jamii haikisikii kilio changu
Kilio na simanzi za kila siku
Wezangu hawanishiki mikono
Bali wananidharau kwa kuikosea utamaduni

Na sasa
Hukaa na kujiuliza
Iwapi raha yangu ulimwengu huu?
Iwapi jamaa nzima ya wa’wake?
Iwapi !Iwapi !Iwapi !

Maswali
a) Bila kutaja mistari mishata taja na ueleze sifa tatu zingine za shairi huru zinazojitokeza
katika shairi hili (alama 3)
b) Eleza dhamira ya mshairi (alama 1)
c) Kwa kutoa mifano miwili, eleza maana ya mistari mishata (alama 3)
d) Eleza umuhimu wa mbinu zifuatazo katika shairi (alama 4)
i) Swali balagha
ii) Nahau
2
@kala 102/3-2025
e) Eleza nafsineni katika shairi hili (alama 1)
f) Tambua toni ya shairi hili (alama 1)
g) Taja maudhui matatu katika shairi hili (alama 3)
h) Fafanua idhini ya mshairi jinsi inavyojitokeza (alama 2)
i) Eleza dhima ya aina mbili za urudiaji katika shairi (alama 2)

SEHEMU YA B – TAMTHILIA YA BEMBEA YA MAISHA – Timonthy Arege

JIBU SWALI 2 AU 3

2. ‘Maradhi!......... Dawa zikiingilia huku, maradhi hutokezea pale hali pesa zinakwenda,
shughuli sinasimama. Mifuko hufukarika lakini zaidi huleta wasiwasi usioisha. Ningekuwa
na uwezo ningefanya chochote madhali ugonjwa uondoke. Dunia ina mitihani tosha lakini
panapo maradhi sugu, uzito wake hauamithiliki. Inabaki kumwomba Mola afanye wepesi
huku ukijipigapiga kutafuta jawabu.’
a) Changanua mtindo katika nukuu (alama 6)
b) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari katika nukuu. (alama 4)
c) Taasubi za kiume katika jamii ya Bembea ya Maisha zina changamoto si haba. Fafanua.
(alama 10)
AU
3. Hata akifanya sana haitasaidia.Watu watapata sababu ya kumcheka.
(a) (i) Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)
(ii) Eleza sifa sita za anayezungumziwa kwa kurejelea tamthilia ya Bembea ya maisha.
(alama 6)
(b) Suala la ndoa lina changamoto katika jamii ya Bembea.Thibitisha. (alama 10):

SEHEMU C: HADITHI FUPI – Mapambazuko ya Machweo na Hadithi nyingine

Nipe nafasi-MzamaneNhlapo
4. “Matusi yaliyoje! Mwanamke anamwambia mumewe kuwa ni mzembe!”
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)
(i) Fafanua dhima ya vipengele viwili vya kimtindo vilivyotumika katika dondoo hili.
(alama 4)
(ii) Fafanua toni iliyotumika katika dondoo. (alama 2)

(b) Kutamani ni huhitaji ambao umetawaliwa na tamaa katika hadithi ya ‘Nilitamani.’

kulingana na ‘Phibbian Muthama’ Pambanua haya kulingana na hadithi husika.
(alama 10)
AU

5. a) Mabadaliko ni hali ya maisha. Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kurejelea hadithi
ya Sabina. (alama 10)

b) Fafanua changamoto za watoto mayatima kulingana na hadhithi ya Toba ya Kalia.

(alama 10)
3
@kala 102/3-2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SEHEMU D: RIWAYA YA - Nguu za Jadi-Clara Momanyi
Jibu swali la 6 au 7
6. a) Baada ya Lonare kushinda uchaguzi na kuwa Mtemi wa Matuo alinuia kuzingatia hatua
kadhaa ili kujenga upya nchi ya Matuo. Eleza (alama 10)
b) “Ujinga wa kutotambua kwamba kile walichoiba ndicho kitakachowatia kitanzi.”
Onyesha ufaafu wa usemi huu kwa kurejelea Riwaya nzima. (alama 10)
AU
7. (a) “Lazima amejiunga na kundi la marafiki wenye pesa wanaojaribu kumpotosha.”
(i) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
(ii) Fafanua umuhimu wa msemaji wa maneno haya. (alama 6)
(b) Matatizo yanayowakumba wanamatuo ni mwiba wa kujidunga. Thibitisha
ukweli wa kauli hii kwa kurejelea Nguu za Jadi. (alama 10)

SEHEMU E: FASIHI SIMULIZI

8. Soma kifungu hiki kisha ujibu maswali
Ukiwa ni wewe mwanangu
Niliyekulea , ukilia usiku kuchaBaada y
Ukanikonjelea na kamasi kuimenga puani mwako
Kwa mdomo wangu angalau niokoe maisha yako nikuone
Chanjo nikakupeleka, ukambi , polio zote ukapewa
Maziwa nikakupea yote nikuokoe uzimezwe na gonjwa la kwashiako
Kisomo ni kauza ndengu na mbaazi zangu ni kalala njaa mkanda huku nimejifunga
Sasa wa unanitusi upendavyo na kunitivulia kivumbi na gari lako
Wewe muasi eti umeoa mzungu na mimi waniona mama kizee , mchafu
Mizimu waone uchungu na kilio changu, nalala njaa na mararu ndio vasi
Laana wakumimine mpaka kizazi chako cha kumi na mbili
Usiwahi furahia pato lako hata chembe
Hicho unanitendea mie kikuandame katika nyayo zako hadi mauko yako

a) a)Weka kifungu hiki katika Utanzu kisha kipera chake. (alama 2)

b) Toa sifa tano za kipera hiki. (alama 5)
c) Ni mbinu zipi za kiuchumi zinazoendelezwa na jamii husika. (alama 2)
d) Tambua na uthibitishwe nafsi neni na nenewa utunguni. (alama 2)
e) Umeamua kutafiti kipera hiki kwa mbinu ya video, eleza manufaa ya mbinu hii
(alama 5)
f) Kipera hiki kinaendelea kufifia katika jamii yako, eleza mbinu za kisasa ambazo jamii
yako inaweza kutumia kuhifadhi kipera hiki. (alama 4)

4
@kala 102/3-2025

MATHEMATICS ALT A (12112) Paper 2

MAY2024 2 Yi HOURS

Name: ............. ...... ..... . . .. ....... . ... . ...... . ...... . ........ Admission No .............. .

School ...............................Class.......... Signature ..............Date: ............... .

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and school in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) The paper contains TWO Sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in Section I and only five questions from Section II.
(e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.
(/) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
(g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(h) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used
except where stated otherwise.
(i) This paper consists of 15 printed pages.
(j) Candidates should check the question paper to asce1tain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
(k) Answer all the questions in English.
For Examiner's Use Only
SECTION I

1
234- 0 234
5 6 7 8 9 1 11 1
-
1 1 15 16 �TOTAL

1 ET�Nr 120 121 � 1 22 1 23 124 1 1

GRAND TOTAL
17 9 TOTAL

.Page 1of15

�- ::l::d:!--·
!:5: - :::::::=-

.. ..
Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION I (50 marks)

Ans1ver all questions in this section in the spaces provided

I. Without using mathematical tables or calculator, express .J24 � in surd form and
2+tan840
simplify (3 marks)

2. Hamadi bought a refrigerator on Hire-Purchase at Shs. 64,000. He had paid a deposit of

Shs. 14,000 followed by 8 equal monthly instalments. If he was charged a compound
interest rate of 2% per month, calculate the cash price of the refrigerator; (3 marks)

3. (a)Workout the exact value of

25846x0.01462 (1 mark)

(b) An approximate value is obtained by truncating each value correct to 2 significant

figures. Find the percentage error arising from this approximation correct to-2 decimal
places. (3 marks)

Page 2of15

� �
4. Solve for x in the following equation; (2 marks)

1 log 100
1 + logx x + 3 logx =
logx

5. A new brand of tea is obtained by mixing brand A costing Ksh 21 Oper kilogram with brand
B costing Ksh 170 per kilogram. In what proportion should the two brands be mixed so that
by selling the new brand at Ksh 234per kilogram a profit of 20% is realised. (3 marks)

6. Find the equation of the normal to the curve y = x3 + 4x2 - x - 6 at point· (-1,-2)
(3 marks)

Page 3of15

.-:dl:e" -..-� -· ·= �- !G!lll: - ·™ . . ----- - - --

.. ______...._._ _� ·---- ----- .. ...

7. P and Q are two points such that OP= i + 2j + 3k and OQ = 4i - 3k. M is a point that
divides PQ externally in the ratio 3: 2 . Find the co-ordinates of M. (3 marks)

8. In the formula below, k is a constant. If w is increased by 50% and B by 20%, find the
percentage change in l if d remains unaltered. (3 marks)
kwl2
d=
B
-

9. (a) Expand (1 - 2x)10 up to the 4th term. (2 marks)

:
b) Hence use the expansion in (a) above to evaluate (0.9 8) 10. (2 marks)

Page 4of15

.. ..
10. In the figure below OS is the radius of the circle centre 0. Chords SQ and TU are extended
to meet at P and OR is perpendicular to QS at R. OS = 61cm, PU = 50cm, UT = 40cm and
PQ 30cm.
=

Calculate correct to 1 decimal place the size of angle ROS (4 marks)

11. a) Find the inverse of the matrix (� !) (1 mark)

b) Hence solve the simultaneous equations; (3 marks)

2 y + 3x = 4
2.Sx + 2y = 4.5

Page 5of15

�...,... �--- ........ · - -- �'=""'-=

.,., .,.,
• �� ---· ·
12. The figure below shows a cuboid ABCDEFGH, where AB = 6 cm, BC = 4 cm and
CF = 8 cm. Given that N is the midpoint of EH.
E

I
Ht< I � 81cm
I
I
nl
�--·-- --
/
/
,/
,/

A Gem B

Calculate the angle between line BN and plane ADEH. (3 marks)

13. The equation 2x2 - 12x + 2 y2 + 28y + 44

0 represents a circle. Determine the
=

equation of its image under a reflection in the line x = 0. (3 marks)

14. Given that line PQ below, construct locus of a point Ron one side of the line such that
angle PRQ = 127.5°. (3 marks)

p Q

Page 6of15

.. ..
15. With 4 exact values of ordinates, use mid-ordinate rule to estimate the area enclosed by the
lines x = 0, x = 4 and the curve below; (3 marks)
3
y=
x+2

16. The figure below shows a region defmed by the inequalities Li_, L2, �and L4
y

0
.:5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 ;:55 60 65 70 75 80

(a) Given that the objective function of the problem above is 4x + 3y = k, draw a search
line. (1 mark)

(b) Henceuse the search line in (a) above to determine the maximum value of 4x+3y
where x and y are integers (1 mark)

Page 7of15

·-��---:-------,-..,....-· - .... ��--- ---�---

�
SECTION II (50 marks)

Answer only FIVE questions in this section in spaces provided

17. A tank has two inlet taps P, Q and an outlet tap R. When empty, the tank can be filled by P
alone in 4 1/2 hours.or by tap Q in 3 hours. When full, the tank can be emptied in 2 hours
by tap R.

a) The tank is initially empty. Find how long it would take to fill up the tank;

1. If tap R is closed and taps P and Q are opened at the same time (2 marks)

11. If the three taps are opened at the same time (2 marks)

b) The tank is initially empty and the three taps are opened as follows: -
P at 8.00 a.m
Q at 8.45 a.m
Rat 9.00 a.m
I. Find the fraction of the tank that would be filled by 9.00 a.m. (3 marks)

ii. Find the time the tank would be fully filled up · (3 marks)

Page 8of15

-=!J:e"- •...., �-- -- ..:::z=

Miii• ••iltitf ii--------.�·...-- ·

..
w11jii.A11
1 wt ·-��·-· 1
P'Ul'll.. .

..
... . .. ..
111' t•

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
18. There are two examiners A and B marking a mathematics examination. Out of every 10
scripts examiner A marks 6 scripts accurately but deviates in the rest. Examiner B marks 7
scripts accurately out of 10 but deviates in the rest. In a given set of scripts detennine the
probability that;
a) Both examiners will mark with deviations (2 marks)

b) Only one will mark accurately. (2 marks)

c) Both of the examiners will mark accurately (2 marks)

d) A least one will mark accurately (2 marks)

e) If 250 scripts were marked and only 100 boys had sat the exam. Determine how
many girls may complain of their scores. (2 marks)

Page 9of15

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19. Two towns are on the earth's surface such that A(75° N, 100° E) and B(75° N, 80°W) A .

pilot can fly from A to B along the parallel of latitude, or along the great circle through the
North Pole.
a) Giving your answer to the nearest Kilometre, determine the difference in distances of
the two routes. (Take R 6370 km and rr 22 / ) (5 marks)
=
=
7

b) At 2.40pm the pilot had to fly from B due east at 600 knots for two hours to town C.
Determine;

(i) The longitude of town C to the nearest whole number. (3 marks)

(ii) The local time at C when he landed (2 marks)

Page 10of15

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--
... ......-.� �---�- •iiirf: r
.. ..
- u:llf· v .II --�--�,.,.- -·�·
20. (a) Find the coordinates of the stationary point of the curve y = -x2 + 6x + 27.
(3 marks)

b) The diagram below shows the curve y = - x2 + 6x + 2 7 intersecting with a straight

line y 4x = 12 at the points Pand Q.
-

2
y= -x + 6x + 27

�--ijF-��+-�� x

1. Find the coordinates of Pand Q. (3 marks)

11. Calculate the area of the shaded part (4 marks)

Page 11of15

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.. •
21. (a) The term of a sequence is given by 3n
n1h + 12 and the sum of all the tem1s in the
sequence is 2977 .

(i) Write down the first four tem1s of the sequence (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the last term of the sequence. (4 marks)

(b) The 2nd term of a geometric progression is 64 and the 5th term is 8. Find:

(i) the common ratio and the first term. (3 marks)

(ii) the sum of the first 10 terms of the sequence (2 marks)

Page 12of15

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. �.c;�
-
- - ·�-- - · ..
22. The table below shows marks scored in a mathematics test by 60 students in an exam.

Marks f
x
d= --A
10

31-40 2

41-50 4

51-60 9

61-70 y

71-80 13

81-90 10

91-100 8

(a) Calculate the quartile deviation (4 marks)

(c) Using assumed mean of 6.55, calculate:

(i) the mean (3 marks)

(ii) the standard deviation (3 marks)

Page 13of15

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, : -=-====-

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.. .....,....'tP �......, - ---....--- .
· -
... l•M•M .t.tt�
23. On a fam1, there are four houses. House A is 80m on a bearing of 020° from house B.
House C is 50m on a bearing 160° from house B, and house Dis 120m on a bearing of
045° from C. Calculate to the nearest whole number;
a) The distance of Dfrom B (2 marks)

b) The true bearing of Dfrom B (4 marks)

c) The compass bearing of D from A (4 marks)

Page 14of15

· � =a::=:=

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.. •
24. (a) Fill in the table below for the graphs; y = sin(x + 30° ) and y = 2cosx for
oc < x $ z rrc (2 marks)

x oc nc
-
nc
-
nc
-
zrrc
-
snc
- nc
6 3 2 3 6
sin(x + 30° ) 0.87 1 0.5 0

2cosx 2 I -1 -2

x 7nc
-
4nc
-
3nc
- -
srrc llrrc
--
2rrc
6 3 2 3 6
sin(x + 30° ) -0.87 -1 -0.5 0. 5

2 cosx - 1 73 . 0 1 2

b) On the grid provided, draw the curves of the two waves on the same axis. (5 marks)
Use the scale l cm rep 0.5 units in they - axis and 1cm rep rrc / in the x - axis.
6

!: I
I

-;
_ ,_
-1--1--1...J___J- -� - I4--l..J--l-
TT

•..J-1-l--'--"--' -t-1 -� -l-l- -1--1-1-l-l-J.--l-1..J- W-1- J+W--l--1----1-4- i�

-· L --

T+-w-�--l- W---1-l---1-- ---4---1-�-i--l--l--+--1-4--W---l---l--

--, I

''
•:
' ;
--, '
I

'I I

; I

_ .. _ ... . . �]- _J_J - .J-J-l......-1- J -+-+.......J_J_ J-l- .J-l-+-l--....!-J ..•

c) State the amplitude and period of the curve y = sin(x + 30° ) (2 marks)

·---

d) Use the graph in (b) above to solve the equation sin(x + 30° ) - 2cos x = 0.
(1 mark)

P�ge 15of15

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-- -��-- -- .. �·••fl · ..... - --�-----�-- �

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA FORM 4 PRETRIAL EXAMINATION – 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
232/1 - PHYSICS - Paper 1
2025 2hrs

Name: …………………………………………….. Admission No ……….

Class: …………………...…….. Date: …………………………..
School: ……………………………………… Signature ………………
Instructions to Candidates:
(i) This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
(ii) Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
(iii) ALL workings MUST be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
(iv) Mathematical tables and electronic calculations may be used.
(v) Non programmable silent electronic calculator and KNEC mathematical table may be
used.
(vi) This paper consists of 14 printed pages.
(vii) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1 – 13 25
14 09
15 13
B
16 11
17 13
18 09
TOTAL SCORE 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the diameter of a copper wire. The
reading with the wire in position is shown in diagram 1. The wire is removed and the
jaws of the micrometer are closed. The new reading is shown in diagram 2.

Determine the diameter of the wire. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. A vehicle is moving at a speed of 5 m/s on flat level road. The speed is then increased to
20 m/s. State what happens to the friction force between the vehicle and the road
during the change. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State what happens to the friction force between the car and the air in question (2)
above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Sketch a displacement time graph for a body projected vertically upwards. (1 mark)

5. A rubber band is stretched by 2.0 cm when a force of 4.0 N is applied at one end.
(a) In terms of the molecules explain what happens to the rubber band. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Determine the weight of an object that would cause an extension of 5 cm when
attached to the end of the same spring. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Pure ice can be converted to water without change in temperature. State another factor
that remains constant. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Explain how possible it is to skate on ice. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. The figure below shows a uniform metre rule of weight 1.0 N balanced by a balloon
containing hydrogen gas hung at the zero cm mark. The pivot is placed at the 80 cm
mark.

Balloon with hydrogen gas

80 cm

If the balloon and its contents weigh 0.5 N, determine the upthrust on the balloon.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
9. A car negotiating a corner at a constant speed is said to have a change of momentum.
Explain this observation. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. The figure below shows samples of equal quantities of the same liquid A and B being
heated through a well lagged copper rod of non- uniform cross-section area. A
thermometer is placed in each sample after some time.

If the rod is being heated at the middle, state and explain which of the thermometers
records a higher temperature. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. A metal cube weighs 1.0 N in air and 0.8 N when totally immersed in water. Calculate:
(a) Volume of water it displaces. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The density of the cube. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. The figure below shows a manometer used to measure the pressure differences between
the air inside a plastic container and the atmosphere outside.

Calculate the force F exerted on the container. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. One end of a match stick is rubbed with soap and placed gently on the surface of water
in a basin. The match stick is observed to move in one direction.

Soaped end of
match stick

Explain why this happens. (2 marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

14. (a) Define the term specific latent heat of fusion. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) In an experiment to determine the power of an electric heater, melting ice was placed
in a container with an outlet and the heater placed in the ice as shown below. The
melted ice was collected.

(i) Other than current and voltage, state two measurements that would be taken in order
to determine the quantity of heat absorbed by the melted ice. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) If the latent heat of fusion of ice is 𝐿𝑓 , show how the measurement taken above can
be used to determine the power P of the heater. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)It is found that the power determined in this experiment is lower than the
manufacturers value indicated on the heater. Explain. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) An electric heater rated 12 𝑉, 24 𝑊 is immersed in a well lagged calorimeter
containing 100 𝑔 of a liquid at its boiling point. The cover of the calorimeter has a vent
to allow vapour to escape. As the liquid boils, the mass remaining is measured at
intervals of 20 𝑠. The figure below shows the graph of the mass evaporated against time.

1.0
Mass evaporated, m (g)

0.8

0.6

0.4

0.2

0 20 40 60 80 100 120
0 Time, t (s)

Use the graph to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of the liquid.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
15. (a) The figure shows a 200 g mass placed on a frictionless surface and attached to a
spring.

The spring is compressed and released.

(i) Given that the elastic potential energy of the compressed spring is 2.7 × 10−2 𝐽,
determine the maximum speed with which the block moves after it is released.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Sketch on the axes below the variation of potential energy, kinetic energy and total
energy with time given that the spring obeys Hooke’s law. (1 mark)
Energy (J)

Time (s)
(b) A man uses an inclined plane to lift a 100 kg load through a vertical distance of
5.0 𝑚. The incline plane makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal.

5.0 m

300

(i) Indicate one force acting on the 100 kg mass. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate;

I. The velocity ratio of the machine. (2 marks)

II. The mechanical advantage of this machine if the efficiency is 80%. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. The effort required to move up the inclined plane at a constant velocity. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

IV. The work done against friction. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. (a) A student in Kala High set up an experiment to study the motion of a trolley which
was accelerating using a ticker tape timer. The timer made 50 dots per second on the
tape. Dots A to E measured 2.5 cm apart and dots E to I measured 4.5 cm apart.

(i) Using scale drawing, show the dots A, B, C, D, E, F, G and I how they appeared
on the tape. (1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the velocity of the trolley from:
I. A to E. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
II. E to I. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii)Calculate the acceleration of the trolley. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) An object is released to fall vertically from height of 100 m above the ground. At the
same time another object on the ground is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of
40 m/s.
(i) Calculate the time taken before the objects meet. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Determine the height from the ground where the objects. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. (a) State Newton’s second law of motion. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The figure below shows a graph of impulsive force against time for a ball that falls on
a cemented surface. Sketch on the same axis a graph for the same ball if it falls on a
trampoline. (1 mark)
Force (N)

Time (s)

(c) A string of negligible mass has a bucket tied at the end. The string is 60 cm long and
the bucket has a mass of 45 g. If the bucket is swung horizontally making 6 revolutions
per minute, Calculate:
(i) The angular acceleration. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Tension on the string. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) To avoid skidding in a banked road, one must not exceed the critical speed.
(i) Define the term critical speed. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State one factor that determines the critical speed on a banked road. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) The figure below shows the planet Venus orbiting the Sun in a circular orbit at
constant speed.

Venus
Sun

Indicate the direction of the constant speed of Venus on the diagram. (1 mark)

(f) A bullet of mass 15 g travelling horizontally at a speed of 200 m/s embeds itself in a
block of wood of mass 1100 g suspended from a light inextensible string so that it can
swing freely.
Calculate:
(i) The velocity of the bullet and the block immediately after collision. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The height through which the block rises. (2 marks)

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18. (a) The figure below shows an experiment to verify a certain gas law. Study it and the
questions that follow.

(i) State the two measurements that should be taken in order to verify the law. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain how the measurements above can be used to verify the law. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The mass of the fabric of a large balloon is 100kg. The balloon is inflated with 200m3
of helium. The balloon is attached to a cable fixed to the ground as shown (Density of
air and helium are 1.3 kg/m3 and 0.18 kg/m3 respectively)

Balloon

Ground

Calculate the tension on the cable. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) When an inflated balloon is released to the atmosphere such that it achieves
maximum height, it is observed that the balloon stops moving upwards and is seen
drifted sideways. Explain this observation. (2 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION – 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
232/2 - PHYSICS - Paper 2
2025 2hrs

Name: …………………………………………...………… Admission No ………...….

Class: …………………...……... Date: …………………………...
School: …………………………………………... Signature ………………………

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name, index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
(c) This paper consists of TWO Sections: A and B.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown.
(f) KNEC mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
(g) This paper consists of 13 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
(h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score
A 1 – 10 25
11 12
12 10
B
13 12
14 11
15 10
TOTAL 80
SCORE

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 1 Inspiring Academic Success

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. A lady standing in front a mirror sees an upright image, that is of the same size as herself. State the type of
the mirror she was using. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The figure below shows a ferromagnetic material with ends PQ being magnetized using a magnet whose
polarity is indicated in the diagram.

i. State the method of magnetization being used. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. State the pole acquired at P. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. The figure below shows how a distant object is focused in a defective eye.

i) State the nature of the defect. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..........
KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 2 Inspiring Academic Success
ii) State one possible cause of the defect above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..........

iii) State the appropriate lens to correct the defect. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..........

3. An object placed 15 cm from a concave mirror forms an upright image which is magnified two
times. Determine the focal length of the mirror. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The figure shows two parallel current carrying conductors placed close to each other. Use it to answer
the questions that follow.

i. Sketch magnetic field patterns around the conductors. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. On the same diagram indicate the direction of the force acting on the conductors. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Give a reason why it is necessary to leave the caps of the cells open when charging an accumulator.
(1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 3 Inspiring Academic Success

6. An electric bulb rated, 40W is operating on 240 V mains. Determine the resistance of its filament.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. The figure below shows part of an electric circuit with three resistors.
10Ω
18Ω

10Ω

Determine the effective resistance in the circuit above. (3 marks)

8. A positively charged rod is brought near the cap of a leaf electroscope. The cap is the earthed
momentarily by touching with the finger. Finally, the rod is withdrawn. The electroscope is found to
be negatively charged. Explain how this charge is acquired. (2 marks)

9. A soldier standing some distance from a wall blows a whistle and hears its echo 1.2s later. How far
is the wall from the soldier? (speed of sound in air = 330 m/s). (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 4 Inspiring Academic Success

10. The table below carries information on the type of radiation, detector and use for some of the
electromagnetic radiations.

Type of radiation Detector Use

...................................... Thermopile, blackened bulb thermometer Warmth sensation

Fill in the blank space. (1 mark)

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 5 Inspiring Academic Success

SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
11. (a) State two conditions which must be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur.
(2 marks)

(b) The diagram below shows two rays of light incident normally on face PQ of a glass prism,
whose critical angle is 420.

450

Complete the diagram to show the paths of the two rays as they pass through the prism.

(3 marks)

(c) A pin is fixed horizontally at the centre of a rectangular container with thin transparent
walls as shown below.
A Rectangular
container

16 cm Pin

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 6 Inspiring Academic Success

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
A transparent liquid is then poured into the container. When viewed from side A, the
distance of the pin is 6 cm from the surface of the liquid. Determine the refractive index
of the liquid. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) The figure below shows a coin placed in a large empty beaker. An observer looking into
the beaker from the position shown is unable to see the coin.

Observer

Container

Coin

Sketch two rays from a point on the coin to show how the observer is able to see the image of
the coin after the container if filled with water. (2 marks)

12. a) The figure below shows the displacement - time graph of a wave traveling at 400cm/s.
Displacement

2
(cm)

0.8 Time
-2 (s)

Determine for the wave the:

(i) Period (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 7 Inspiring Academic Success

(ii) Frequency (2 marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Wavelength (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

b) The figure below shows the set up used to demonstrate interference of sound waves.

X
Speaker
C1

Audio-frequency
C O
generator

Speaker Y

(i) Why are the loudspeakers connected to the same audio-frequency generator?
(1 mark)
..............................................................................................................................
(ii) An observer walks along XY. State and explain the observation made.
( 2 marks)
..............................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................
(iii) What will a student hear if he moves along the line OC? (1 mark)
..............................................................................................................................
(iv) State the effect on the observation made along XY when the frequency of the
signal is reduced. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 8 Inspiring Academic Success

13. a) The diagram shows a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric material in between the
plate.

- Dielectric

+
State how each of the following quantities are affected when the dielectric material
above is replaced with another of higher permittivity.

i) The p.d across the plates. (1 mark)

..............................................................................................................................

ii) The capacitance of the system. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………

b) The figure below shows a circuit in which capacitors are connected to a 12 V source. Study
the circuit and use it to answer the questions that follow.

Calculate:

i. The effective capacitance in the circuit. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. The charge on the 2.00 µF capacitor (3 marks)

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 9 Inspiring Academic Success

iii. The potential difference across the 3.00 µF capacitor (2 marks)

iv. The energy stored in the 2µF capacitor (2 marks)

14. a) Define the term electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a cell (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The graph below was drawn from results obtained during an experiment to determine the
e.m.f. and internal resistance of a cell. Use the graph to answer the questions that follow.

2.0
Voltage (V)

1.5

1.0

0.5

0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5
Current (A)

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 10 Inspiring Academic Success

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
From the graph, determine:
i. The e.m.f, E, of the cell (1 mark)

ii. The internal resistance, r, of the cell. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Draw an appropriate circuit that was used to obtain values used to plot the graph.
(3marks)

c) An electric heater rated 3 kW is switched on 12 hours daily for two weeks. Given that the
cost of electricity is ksh. 20 per unit. Determine the electricity bill for the two weeks. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 11 Inspiring Academic Success

15. a) State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The transformer above used at a power sub - station has an input of 30 kW at a potential
difference of 5kV. The secondary coil of the transformer has 1000 turns and is used to step
down the voltage to 1kV for consumption.

Assuming the transformer above is 80% efficient, calculate:

i) The current in the primary coil (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) The number of turns in the primary coil (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) The current in the secondary coil (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 12 Inspiring Academic Success

c) A magnet is moved towards the end of a stationery coil and current flows as shown in the
figure below.

A
Motion

i) State the polarity of end A (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) State two ways in which the magnitude of the induced E.M.F above can be
increased. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

THE IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

KALA PRE - TRIAL EXAMINATION 13 Inspiring Academic Success

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KALA PRE-TRIAL EXAMINATION
Kenya Certificate of Secondary education

PHYSCIS – Paper 3
2hrs

Name: ……………………………………………….. Admission No ………..….

Class…………………...……. Date: …………………School:……………….…

232/3 PHYSICS
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2 ½ hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your Name, Index Number and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of Examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
(d) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2½ hours allowed for this paper
reading the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
(e) Marks will be given for clear records of observations actually made, their suitability,
accuracy and the use made of them.
(f) Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
(g) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(h) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 20
TOTAL 40

Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated
and no questions missing.

F4 PHYSICS PP3 1

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. PART A
You are provided with the following:
- A white screen with cross wires labeled O
- A lens and a lens holder
- A white screen labeled S
- A meter rule
- A candle

Proceed as follows:

(a) Set up the apparatus as shown in fig 1

(b) Position the lens so that the object distance u = 20 cm
(c) Adjust the screen S so that a sharp image of the cross wires is formed on the
screen S. Measure the image distance v. Record the value of u and the corresponding value of v
in table 1
(d) Repeat (b) and (c) above for value of u = 20cm, 25cm, 30cm, 35cm, 40cm and
45cm.

(e) Complete table 1

F4 PHYSICS PP3 2
u (cm) 20 25 30 35 40 45
v (cm)

u + v (cm)

uv (cm2)

Table 1 (6mks)
(f) On the grid provided, plot a graph of uv (y axis) against u + v (5mks)

(g) Determine the slope of the graph (3mks)

PART B
You are provided with the following:
- A boiling tube
- Some dry sand
- A liquid in a measuring cylinder labelled L
- Half – metre rule
- A vernier calipers (to be shared)
- A weighing machine (one per room)
- Tissue paper

Proceed as follows:
(h) (i) Measure the length of the boiling tube
h = ………………………………………………………………cm (½ mk)

F4 PHYSICS PP3 3

Prefer Calling Amobi Group Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
(ii) Put a little amount of sand in the boiling tube and place it in the measuring
cylinder which is almost filled with a liquid labelled L. Add sand, little by little until the
tube floats upright as shown in figure 2.

Measure the length, d, of the boiling tube which is above the liquid
d = ……………………………………………………………cm (½ mk)
(iii) Determine the length, t, of the boiling tube which is immersed in the liquid
t = ………………………………………………………………cm (½ mk)
(iv) Remove the boiling tube from the measuring cylinder, wipe it dry (on the
outside) and weigh its mass, m, including the sand inside.
m = ……………………………………………………………….g (½ mk)
(v) Measure the external diameter, D, of the boiling tube
d = …………………………………………………………….cm (½ mk)
(vi) Determine external radius, R,
R = ……………………………………………………………....cm (½ mk)
(vii) Using the formula
m =  x (R2), determine  for the liquid
 = ……………………………………………………………….. (3mks)

F4 PHYSICS PP3 4
2. You are provided with the following:
- 2 dry cells
- A cell holder
- A nichrome wire mounted on a metre rule
- An ammeter, A
- A voltmeter, V
- A jockey J
- A switch S
- 8 connecting wires
Proceed as follows:

(a) Set the apparatus as shown in fig 3

(b) With the switch open, record the reading E, of the voltmeter
E = …………………………………………………………………… (1mks)
(c) Place the jockey, J , on the nichrome wire at 100cm mark. Close the switch, read
and record the values of I (ammeter reading) and the corresponding values of V (voltmeter
reading) in table 2
(d) Repeat (c) above for length, L = 70cm, 60cm, 50cm, 40cm and 20cm. Complete
table 2

L (cm) 100 70 60 50 40 20
I (A)

V (V)

E – V (V)

Table 2 (7mks)

F4 PHYSICS PP3 5
(e) Plot a graph of (E – V) (y axis) against I (5mks)
(f) Determine the slope of the graph (3mks)

(g) Given that E = V + Ir, from the graph determine

(i) The internal resistance, r, of the battery (2mk)

(ii) V when I is 0.3A (2mk)

F4 PHYSICS PP3 6

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