Physics

G 12 Final Bank

COLLECTED BY
Omar BUGZA
 Question bank grade 12

1- A light ray travels through two parallel slabs having

different indices of refraction as in Figure. The rays shown are
only the refracted rays. Which of the following choices is true
regarding the relative size of the indices of refraction?
(a) n1<n2 (b) n1>n2 (c) n1= n2 (d) n1≤n2 (e) n1≥n2

2- Figure shows four long horizontal layers A–D of different

materials, with air above and below them. The index of refraction
of each material is given. Rays of light are sent into the left end of
each layer as shown. In which layer is there the possibility of totally
trapping the light in that layer so that, after many reflections, all
the light reaches the right end of the layer?
a) A b) B c) C d)D

3- White light is incident n the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green
light is tangent with the interface, then the emerging ray in air
contains
( a ) yellow, orange, red
( b ) violet indigo, blue
( c ) all colours
( d ) all colours except green

4- When the rectangular metal tank in Fig. is filled to the top with
an unknown liquid, observer O, with eyes level with the top of the
tank, can just see corner E. A ray that refracts toward O at the top
surface of the liquid is shown. If D = 85.0 cm and L = 1.10 m, what
is the index of refraction of the liquid?
a) 1 b) 1.52 c ) 0.82 d) 1.26

5- If critical angle of the prism material = 42o so the angle of

emergency will be.

A) Zero B) 400 C ) 550 D) 900

6) A ray of light is incident at the glass- water interface at angle i. if it emerges

finally parallel to the surface of water, then the value of ng would be
7- A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90° prism and is totally
internally reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we
conclude that the refractive index, n:
( a ) n < 1 / √2 ( b ) n > √2
( c ) n > 1 / √2 ( d ) n < √2

8) The index of refraction for water is about 4/3. What happens to light when it travels
from air into water?
(a) Its speed increases to 4c/3, and its frequency decreases.
(b) Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its wavelength decreases by a factor of 3/4.
(c) Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its wavelength increases by a factor of 4/3.
(d) Its speed and frequency remain the same.
(e) Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its frequency increases.

9- Two plane mirrors are at an angle of θ1 = 50.0° with each other as

in the side view shown in Figure .If a horizontal ray is incident on
mirror 1parallel to mirror2, so the angle θ2 equals
a) 500 b) 100 c) 800 d)400

10) A rectangular glass slab ABCD of refractive index n1

is immersed in water of refractive index n2 ( n1> n2) a
ray of light is incident at the surface AB as shown . the
maximum value of the angle incidence αmax such that the
ray comes out only from other surface CD, is given by

11- Virtual images can be formed by :

A) only mirrors, only lenses. B) only plane mirrors.
C) only curved mirrors or lenses. D) plane and curved mirrors, and lenses. )
12- The objective lens of a refracting telescope has a focal length of 19 m, and the
eyepiece has a focal length of 10 cm. Calculate the total magnifying power of this
telescope.
A) 0.0005. B) 140 C) 190
D) -190 E) -1.9

In Fig. Questions 3–4. a real inverted image I of an object O is formed by a certain

lens ; the object–image separation is d =40.0 cm, measured
along the central axis of the lens. The image is just half the
size of the object.
13- How far from the object must the lens be placed?
A) 26.7 cm B) 40 cm
C) 20 cm D) 30.2 cm
14- What is the focal length of the lens?
A) 10.3 cm B) 20 cm C) 7.4 cm D) 8.9 cm

In Fig. Questions 15–17

15. Which kind of mirror is shown in the ray diagram?
A) flat B) convex
C) concave D) all of them)

16. What is true of the image formed by the mirror?

A) virtual, and diminished B) real, and diminished
C) virtual, and enlarged D) real, and enlarged )

17. What is the focal length of the mirror?

A) 10.0 cm B) 4.30 cm C) 4.30 cm D) 10.0 cm

Questions 8–10.
A candle is placed 30.0 cm from the reflecting surface of a concave mirror. The radius
of curvature of the mirror is 20.0 cm.
18. What is the distance between the surface of the mirror and the image?
A) 20 cm B) 15 cm C) 30 cm D) -25 cm )

19. What is the magnification of the image?

A) o.5 B) 1 C) -1 D) -0.5

20. If the candle is 12 cm tall, what is the image height?

A) 6 cm B) 12 cm C) 24 cm D) 3 cm
21- A fruit fly of height H sits in front of a lens on the central axis through the lens. The
lens forms an image of the fly at a distance d =20 cm from the fly; the image has the
fly’s orientation and height H1=[Link] are:

(a) The focal length of the lens .

(b) The object distance of the fly?

# Use the ray diagram below to answer questions 22–25.

A candle is placed 60.0 cm from the reflecting surface of a
concave mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 40.0
cm.

22. What is the distance between the surface of the

mirror and the image?
23. What is the focal length of the mirror?
24. What is the magnification of the image?
25. If the candle is 24 cm tall, what is the image height?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

# Read the following passage and answer questions 26 and 27

Consider a thingy hanging from a spring. The system is set vibrating by pulling
the thingy down below its equilibrium position and then letting it go from rest.
26 - The frequency of the oscillation is determined by
A: the amount of the initial displacement
B: the mass of the thingy and the properties of the spring
C: the local gravitational field, g
D: all of the above.

27 - If the initial displacement is doubled what happens to the maximum kinetic

energy of the thingy?
A: It is unchanged. B: It is doubled.
C: It is increased by a factor of 4. D: We can't tell from the information provided.

28. In simple harmonic motion, the magnitude of the acceleration is:

A. constant B. proportional to the displacement
C. inversely proportional to the displacement D. greatest when the velocity is greatest

29 - An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 vibrations in 10 s. Its

angular frequencyis:
A. 1.57 rad/s B. 2.0 rad/s
C. 6.3 rad/s D. 12.6 rad/s
30- A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A. at what distance from mean position
its kinetic energy is equal to its potential energy?
(a) 0.51 A (b) 0.61 A
(c) 0.71 A (d) 0.81 A

31 - In simple harmonic motion, the magnitude of the acceleration is greatest

when:
A. the displacement is zero
B. the displacement is maximum
C. the speed is maximum
D. the force is zero
E. the speed is between zero and its maximum

32 - A certain spring elongates 9.0mm by the gravity when it is suspended

vertically and a block of mass M is hung on it. The angular frequency of this
block-spring system:….. (g=10m/s2)
A. is 0.088 rad/s B. is 33 rad/s
C. is 200 rad/s D. is 1140 rad/s
E. cannot be computed unless the value of M is given

33 - A weight suspended from an ideal spring oscillates up and down with a

period T. If the amplitude of the oscillation is doubled, the period will be:
A. T D. 1.5T B. 2T C. T/2
E. 4T

34- A 3-kg block, attached to a spring, executes simple harmonic motion

according to x = 2 cos(50t)where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The spring
constant of the spring is:
A. 1N/m B. 100N/m C. 150N/m
D. 7500N/m E. none of these.

35- The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum is ‘w’ and ‘a’
respectively. At a displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is T
and potential energy is V, then the ratio of T to V is

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
36- Let U be the potential energy (with the zero at zero displacement) and K be
the kinetic energy of a simple harmonic oscillator. Uavg and Kavg are the average
values over a cycle. Then:
A. Kavg>Uavg B. Kavg<Uavg C. Kavg= Uavg
D. K = 0 when U = 0 E. K + U = 0

37. A transverse wave is given by: y= A sin (ωt − kx) where ω and k are constants. The
ratio of wave velocity to maximum particle velocity is
A) kA B) 1/kA
C) 1 D) none of the above.

38- The equation of a transverse wave on a string is

y = (2.0 mm) sin[(20 m-1) x - (600 s-1) t]. The tension in the string is 15 N.
The linear density ( μ )of this string equals ………kg/m
A) 0.5 B) 1.2
B) 60 C) 0.017

39- A sinusoidal transverse wave is traveling on a string. Any point on the string:
A) moves in the same direction as the wave
B) moves in simple harmonic motion with a different frequency than that of the wave
C )moves in simple harmonic motion with the same angular frequency as the wave
D) moves in uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than the wave
E) moves in uniform circular motion with the same angular speed as the wave

40- Here are the equations for three waves traveling on separate strings. Rank them
according to the maximum transverse speed, least to greatest.
wave 1: y(x, t) = (2.0mm) sin[(4.0m−1)x − (3.0 s−1)t]
wave 2: y(x, t) = (1.0mm) sin[(8.0m−1)x − (4.0 s−1)t]
wave 3: y(x, t) = (1.0mm) sin[(4.0m−1)x − (8.0 s−1)t]
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 2
C) 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1
E) 3, 1, 2

41- The transverse wave shown is traveling from left to right in a medium. The direction of
the instantaneous velocity of the medium at point P is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
E) no direction since v = 0
42- The speed of a sinusoidal wave on a string depends on:
A. the frequency of the wave
B. the wavelength of the wave
C. the length of the string
D. the tension in the string
E. the amplitude of the wave

43- The diagrams show three identical strings that have been put under tension by
suspending blocks of 5 kg each. For which is the wave speed the greatest?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1 and 3 tie
E. 2 and 3 tie

44- Extra distance travelled by one of waves compared with other is called
A) path
B) displacement
C) phase difference
D) path difference.

45- A standing wave pattern is established in a string as shown. The wavelength of one of
the component traveling waves is:
A. 0.25m
B. 0.5m
C. 1m
D. 2m
E. 4m

46- A piano wire has a length of 81 cm and a mass of 2.0 g. If its fundamental frequency is
to be 394 Hz, its tension must be:
A. 0.32N
B. 63N
C. 130N
D. 250N
E. none of these

47. A wave is represented by the equation y = A sin ( 15π t -2 πx) where x is in

meters and t is in seconds. The expression represents
A) A wave travelling in positive x-direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s.
B) A wave travelling in negative x-direction with a velocity 7.5 m/s.
C) A wave travelling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength 2 m.
D) A wave travelling in positive x-direction having a wavelength 1 m.
48- If the length of a piano wire (of given density) is increased by 5%, what approximate
change in tension is necessary to keep its fundamental frequency unchanged?
A. Decrease of 10% B. Decrease of 5%
C. Increase of 5% D. Increase of 10%
E. Increase of 20%

49 - The linear density of a string is 1.6 x10-4 kg/m. A transverse wave on the string is
described by the equation
y = (0.021 m) sin [(2.0 m-1)x -(30 s-1) t ]. What are:
(a) The wave speed and ……………… (b) The tension in the string?...........................

50- The equation of a transverse wave traveling along a very long string is
y= 6.0 sin (0.020π x - 4.0 π t), where x and y are expressed in centimeters and t is in
seconds. Determine
(a) Its amplitude, ……………
(b) Its wavelength, …………….
(c) Its frequency,……………….
(d) Its speed, ………………..
(e) Its direction of propagation of the wave………………………
(f) The maximum transverse speed of a particle in the string…………………………..
(g) What is the transverse displacement at x =3.5 cm when t = 0.26 s? ………………

51 - The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is given by

E = i 40 cos (kz − 6 × 108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, metre, and seconds respectively.
The value of the wave vector k is:
A) 3 m-1 B) 2 m-1
C) 0.5 m-1 D) 6 m-1

52- Which of the following statements is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
A) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
B) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and
time
C) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
D) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
direction of propagation of wave

53- The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ε0 and permeability

μ0 is given by:

o o 1
A) B) C) 0 0 D)
o o  o o
54- The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are:
A) in phase and perpendicular to each other
B) in phase and parallel to each other
C) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other.
D) in opposite phase and parallel to each other.

55- A phase difference π between two interfering beams is equivalent to path difference.
𝜆
(a)2λ (b)λ (c) (d)none of them
2

56- Condition of constructive interference is :

𝜆
A)Path difference is odd multiple of
2
𝜆
B )Path difference is even multiple of
2
𝜆
C)Path difference is integral multiple of
2
D )None of the above.

57- For destructive interference, path difference is:

A) odd number of half wavelengths
B) even number of half wavelengths
C) whole number of wavelengths
D) even whole number of wavelengths.

58- In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between electric and magnetic field
vectors E and B
(A) zero (B) 2 (C) (D) 4

59- Which of the following statements is false for the properties of electromagnetic
waves?
A) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
B) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same
place and time
C) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic
vectors
D) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to
the direction of propagation of wave

60- In the equation ( d sin θ = m λ ) for the lines of a diffraction grating m is:
A) the number of slits B) the slit width
C) the index of refraction D)the order of the line
61- 600-nm light is incident on a diffraction grating with a ruling separation of 1.7 × 10−6
m. The second order line occurs at a diffraction angle of:
A) 10◦ B) 21◦
C) 42◦ D) 45◦

62- If the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:

E= Em sin [(3×106 m−1)x − ωt], the value of ω is:
A) 0.01 rad/s B) 10 rad/s
C) 100 rad/s D) 9 × 1014 rad/s

h= [Link] ; e= 1-6x10-19C ; me= 9.1x10-31Kg , C= 3x108m/sec

63 - Based on the Stefan-Boltzmann Law below,

how many times more total energy is emitted by
the hottest star than by the coolest star?
A) 5x more. B) 12x more.
C) 25x more. D) 625x more)

64- A photon scatters off an electron at an angle

of 1.80 x102 ° with respect to its initial motion.
What is the change in the photon’s wavelength?
A) 0.002 43 nm. B) 0.243 nm C) 0.001 72 nm.
D) 0.004 85 nm. E) 0.121 nm )

65 - An electron jumping from E2 to E1, which are energy levels inside an atom. The
greater the energy difference E2 − E1. . .
A) the more photons emitted B) the brighter the light emitted.
C) the longer the wavelength of the light emitted.
D) the shorter the wavelength of the light emitted.

66- A beam of red light and a beam of blue light have equal energy. Which statement is
true?
A) There are more photons in the blue beam.
B) There are more photons in the red beam.
C) Both beams contain the same number of photons.
D) The number of photons is not related to intensity.
67- The frequency of a light beam is doubled. Which one of the following is correct
for the momentum of the photons in that beam of light?
A) It stays the same.
B) It is halved.
C) It is doubled.
D) It is quadrupled.

68- The graph shows the energy

distribution in the spectra of two stars
βCar and βAnd. (Constant of Wien's
law=2.8x10-3m.K)

69- What can be deduced about the colors of

the two stars from the graph?
B. Estimate the surface temperature of β And.

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

70- In a photoelectric effect experiment the stopping potential is:

A. the energy required to remove an electron from the sample
B. the kinetic energy of the most energetic electron ejected
C. the potential energy of the most energetic electron ejected
D. the photon energy
E. the electric potential that causes the electron current to vanish

71- An x-ray photon is scattered by an originally stationary electron. Relative to the

frequency of the incident photon, is the frequency of the scattered photon
A) lower, B) higher C) unchanged?

72 - What is the surface temperature of a distant star having a peak wavelength of

475 nm? ( Wien’s constant = 0.002898 m.K)

A) 6 100 K B) 5 630 K C) 5 510 K

D) 6 350 K E) 6 560 K

73- Population inversion in laser means

(A) number of atoms in ground state are more than number of atoms in excited state
(B) number of atoms in ground state are less than number of atoms in excited state
(C) number of atoms in ground state is equal to number of atoms in excited state
(D) none.
74- An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 3.00 V before
colliding with a metal target. What minimum-wavelength light can such an electron
emit?
A) 204 nm B) 352 nm C) 414 nm
D) 536 nm E) 612 nm

75- Parameter that refers to recording and broadcasting of picture is:

A. Text
B. Audio
C. Image
D. Video

76- If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is … V.

A) 2 B) 1 C) -2 D) between -2 and 2

77- ……….is the rate of change with respect to time.

A) Time B) Frequency C) Amplitude D) Voltage

78- ……… is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due
to the resistance of the transmission medium.

A) Distortion B) Attenuation

C) Noise D) Decibel

79- A sine wave in the ……..domain can be represented by one single spike in the ….
domain.

A) time; phase B) frequency; time

C) time; frequency D) phase; time

80- If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the
highest frequency?

A) 5 KHz B) 47 KHz

C) 57 KHz D) 10 KHz
81- …….. data are continuous and take continuous values.

A) digital B) analog

C) (a) or (b) D) none of the above

82. Select the correct statement:

A. ultraviolet light has a longer wavelength than infrared
B. blue light has a higher frequency than x rays
C. radio waves have higher frequency than gamma rays
D. gamma rays have higher frequency than infrared waves
E. electrons are a type of electromagnetic wave

83. Consider: radio waves (r), visible light (v), infrared light (i), x-rays (x), and
ultraviolet light (u). In order of increasing frequency, they are:
A. r, v, i, x, u
B. r, i, v, u, x
C. i, r, v, u, x
D. i, v, r, u, x
E. r, i, v, x, u

84. The order of increasing wavelength for blue (b), green (g), red (r), and
yellow (y) light is:
A. r, y, g, b
B. r, g, y, b
C. g, y, b, r
D. b, g, y, r
E. b, y, g, r

85. Of the following human eyes are most sensitive to:

A. red light
B. violet light
C. blue light
D. green light
E. none of these (they are equally sensitive to all colors)

86. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?

A. they consist of changing electric and magnetic fields
B. they travel at different speeds in vacuum, depending on their frequency
C. they transport energy
D. they transport momentum
E. they can be reflected
87. The product μo εo has the same units as:
A. (velocity)2
B. (velocity)1/2
C. 1/velocity
D. 1/velocity2
E. 1/velocity1/2

88. Maxwell’s equations predict that the speed of electromagnetic waves in

free space is given by:

89. Maxwell’s equations predict that the speed of light in free space is
A. an increasing function of frequency
B. a decreasing function of frequency
C. independent of frequency
D. a function of the distance from the source
E. a function of the size of the source

90. The speed of light in vacuum is about:

A. 1100 ft/s
B. 93 × 106m/s
C. 6 × 1023m/s
D. 3 × 1010 cm/s
E. 186, 000 mph

91. The Sun is about 1.5 × 1011m away. The time for light to travel this
distance is about:
A. 4.5 × 1018s B. 8 s
C. 8 min D. 8 hr
E. 8 yr

93. Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation travels at the

greatest speed in vacuum?
A. Radio waves B. Visible light
C. X rays D. Gamma rays
E. All of these travel at the same speed
94. Radio waves differ from visible light waves in those radio waves:
A. travel slower
B. have a higher frequency
C. travel faster
D. have a lower frequency
E. require a material medium

95. Visible light has a frequency of about:

A. 5 × 1018 Hz
B. 5 × 1016 Hz
C. 5 × 1014 Hz
D. 5 × 1012 Hz
E. 5 × 1010 Hz

96. The theoretical upper limit for the frequency of electromagnetic waves is:
A. just slightly greater than that of red light
B. just slightly less than that of blue light
C. the greatest x-ray frequency
D. none of the above (there is no upper limit)
E. none of the above (but there is an upper limit)

97. Radio waves of wavelength 3 cm have a frequency of:

A. 1MHz B. 9MHz C. 100MHz
D. 10, 000MHz E. 900MHz

98. Radio waves of wavelength 300m have a frequency of:

A. 10−3 kHz B. 500 kHz C. 1MHz
3
D. 9MHz E. 10 kHz

99. If the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

E= Emsin[(3×106 m−1)x −ωt], the value of ω is:
A. 0.01 rad/s
B. 10 rad/s
C. 100 rad/s
D. 9 × 1014 rad/s
E. 9 × 1016 rad/s

100. An electromagnetic wave is generated by:

A. any moving charge
B. any accelerating charge
C. only a charge with changing acceleration
D. only a charge moving in a circle
E. only a charge moving in a straight line
101. In a plane electromagnetic wave in vacuum, the ratio E/B of the
amplitudes in SI units of the two fields is:
A. the speed of light
B. an increasing function of frequency
C. a decreasing function of frequency
D. √2
E. 1/√2

102. If the amplitude of the electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is

100V/m then the amplitude of the magnetic field is:
A. 3.3 × 10−7 T
B. 6.7 × 10−7 T
C. 0.27T
D. 8.0 × 107 T
E. 3.0 × 109 T

105. The time-averaged energy in a sinusoidal electromagnetic wave is:

A. overwhelmingly electrical
B. slightly more electrical than magnetic
C. equally divided between the electric and magnetic fields
D. slightly more magnetic than electrical
E. overwhelmingly magnetic

106. At a certain point and a certain time the electric field of an

electromagnetic wave is in the Negative direction and the magnetic field is in
the positive y direction. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Energy is being transported in the positive x direction but half a cycle later,
when the electric field is in the opposite direction, it will be transported in the
negative x direction
B. Energy is being transported in the positive x direction and half a cycle later,
when the electric field is in the opposite direction, it will still be transported in the
positive x direction
C. Energy is being transported in the negative x direction but half a cycle later,
when the electric field is in the opposite direction, it will be transported in the
positive x direction
D. Energy is being transported in the negative x direction and half a cycle later,
when the electric field is in the opposite direction, it will still be transported in the
negative x direction
E. None of the above are true
107. A point source emits electromagnetic energy at a rate of 100W. The
intensity 10m from the source is:
A. 10W/m2
B. 1.6W/m2
C. 1W/m2
D. 0.024W/m2
E. 0.080W/m2

108. The light intensity 10m from a point source is 1000W/m2. The intensity
100m from the same source is:
A. 1000W/m2
B. 100W/m2
C. 10W/m2
D. 1W/m2
E. 0.1W/m2

109. When the distance between a point source of light and a light meter is
reduced from 6.0m to 2.0m, the intensity of illumination at the meter will be the
original value multiplied by:
A. 3 B. 9 C. 1/3
D. 1/9 E. 1

110. The magnetic field in a sinusoidal light wave has an amplitude of 3.3 ×
10−7 T. The intensity of the wave is:
A. 1.7 × 10−4W/m2 B. 13W/m2 C. 27W/m2
D. 1.0 × 105W/m2 E. 4.0 × 1010W/m2

111. A sinusoidal electromagnetic wave with an electric field amplitude of

100V/m is incident normally on a surface with an area of 1 cm2 and is
completely absorbed. The energy absorbed in10 s is:
A. 1.3mJ B. 13mJ C. 27mJ
D. 130mJ E. 270mJ

112. Light of uniform intensity shines perpendicularly on a totally absorbing

surface, fully illuminating the surface. If the area of the surface is decreased:
A. the radiation pressure increases and the radiation force increases
B. the radiation pressure increases and the radiation force decreases
C. the radiation pressure stays the same and the radiation force increases
D. the radiation pressure stays the same and the radiation force decreases
E. the radiation pressure decreases and the radiation force decreases
117. A company claims to have developed material that absorbs light energy
without a transfer of momentum. Such material is:
A. impossible
B. possible, but very expensive
C. inexpensive and already in common use
D. in use by NASA but is not commercially available
E. a breakthrough in high technology

118. Polarization experiments provide evidence that light is:

A. a longitudinal wave
B. a stream of particles
C. a transverse wave
D. some type of wave
E. nearly monochromatic

119. A vertical automobile radio antenna is sensitive to electric fields that are
polarized:
A. horizontally
B. in circles around the antenna
C. vertically
D. normal to the antenna in the forward direction
E. none of the above

120. For linearly polarized light the plane of polarization is:

A. perpendicular to both the direction of polarization and the direction of
propagation
B. perpendicular to the direction of polarization and parallel to the direction of
propagation
C. parallel to the direction of polarization and perpendicular to the direction of
propagation
D. parallel to both the direction of polarization and the direction of propagation
E. none of the above

121. Light from any ordinary source (such as a flame) is usually:

A. un-polarized
B. plane polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. elliptically polarized
E. monochromatic

122. The electric field in un-polarized light:

A. has no direction at any time
B. rotates rapidly
 C. is always parallel to the direction of propagation
D. changes direction randomly and often
E. remains along the same line but reverses direction randomly and often

123. The diagrams show four pairs of polarizing sheets, with the polarizing
directions indicated by dashed lines. The two sheets of each pair are placed
one behind the other and the front sheet is illuminated by un-polarized light.
The incident intensity is the same for all pairs of sheets.
Rank the pairs according to the intensity of the transmitted light, least to
greatest.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 1
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
E. 3, 1, 4, 2

124. A clear sheet of polaroid is placed on top of a similar sheet so that their
polarizing axes make an angle of 30◦with each other. The ratio of the intensity
of emerging light to incident un-polarized light is:
A. 1 : 4
B. 1 : 3
C. 1 : 2
D. 3 : 4
E. 3 : 8
125. The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-
packed structure is :
A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3

126. A metal crystallizes with a face-centered cubic lattice. The edge of the
unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal atom is ………… pm
A) 144 B) 204 C) 288 D) 408

127. AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length 'a' equal
to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositively charged ions in the lattice
is …. Pm
A) 300 B) 335 C) 250 D) 200

128. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple cubic, body
centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of the radii of the spheres
in these systems will be respectively:

129. Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic unit cell is :

32%
A
34%
B
28%
C
20%
D

130. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple
cube is :

A
B

131. A filament lamp is

A. Ohmic
B. non-Ohmic
C. low resistive
D. non glowing

Answer B

132. In case of filament lamp at higher voltages, resistance of lamp

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. varies depending on filament

Answer B

133. In semiconductors upon increasing temperature, conductivity

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. haphazard

Answer B

135. What is a bucky-ball?

A) A carbon molecule B) Nickname for Mercedes-Benz's futuristic concept car

C) Plastic explosives nanoparticle

D) Concrete nanoparticle with a compressive strength of 20 nanonewtons.

136. Nanotechnology, in other words, is

A) Carbon engineering

B) Atomic engineering

C) Small technology

D) Microphysics

137. - …….. are from one-dimensional nanomaterials

A- Carbno nanotubes B- Thin films C- Buckyballs D- Nanoshells

doesn't change
138- One nanometer equals…. Meter

A- 10-7 B- 10-9 C- 10-6 D 10-4

139- nanotechnology is important because:-

A- It needs special devices to deal with it

B- Its value ranges from 1 to 100 nm

C- It has special properties

D- Nanomaterials industry require special properties.

140- When dividing a cube into smaller cubes

A- The surface area decreases while the volume increases

B- The surface area increases while the volume decreases

C- The surface area doesn't change while the volume increases

D- Both surface area and volume don't change

141- The behaviour of nanoparticles are linked with their tiny sizes
because:-

A- The ratio between surface area and volume is very great if compared to bigger
sizes

B- The ratio between surface area and volume is smaller if compared to smaller
sizes

C- The no. of atoms on the particles surface is much greater

D- A and C are correct.

142- One of the 1D Nano substances ............................

A. Nano fibers B. Nano tubes

C. Nano shell D. Bookie balls

143. The Nanometer is important in our life because ............................

A. It needs special tools to see it and deal with it.

B. It shows new properties that have not appeared before.

C. Its value ranges from 1-100 nm.

D. It needs special methods to produce it.

144- In Fig. , initially unpolarized light is sent into a

system of three polarizing sheets whose polarizing

directions make angles of θ1 = θ2= θ3 = 50° with the

direction of the y axis .What percentage of the initial

intensity is transmitted by the system?
145- The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are:
A) in phase and perpendicular to each other
B) in phase and parallel to each other
C) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
D) in opposite phase and parallel to each other

146- What is the maximum value of the electric field E at 1.0 m from a 100-W light
bulb radiating in alldirections? (μ0 = 4107 Tm/A, c = 3.00 108 m/s)
A) 77 V/mb. B) 2 000 V/mc. C) 4 000 V/md. D) 6 000 V/m

147- Which condition of motion must be met with regard to a charged particle if it is in
the process of emitting electromagnetic radiation?
a. moves at constant velocity b. accelerates
c. moves at the speed of light d. moves parallel to a uniform magnetic field

148- An electromagnetic wave with a peak electric field component of 1.2 102 N/C has
what associated peak magnetic field value? ( 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/Nm2, 0 = 4107
Tm/A and c = 3.00 108 m/s)
a. 4.0 107 T b. 3.6 1010 T c. 2.5 106 T d. 2.8 1011 T

149- In order of increasing frequency, which of the following is correct?

a. visible, radio, ultraviolet and x-ray b. infrared, visible, ultraviolet and gamma
c. visible, gamma, ultraviolet and x-ray d. infrared, x-ray, visible and gamma

150- A clear sheet of polaroid is placed on top of a similar sheet so that their
polarizing axes make an angle of 30◦with each other. The ratio of the intensity
of emerging light to incident unpolarized light is:
A. 1 : 4 B. 1 : 3 C. 1 : 2 D. 3 : 4 E. 3 : 8

151 - In a stack of three polarizing sheets the first and third are crossed while
the middle one has its axis at 45◦to the axes of the other two. The fraction of
the intensity of an incident unpolarized beam of light that is transmitted by the
stack is:
A. ½ B. 1/3 C. ¼ D. 1/8 E. 0
152- For an electromagnetic wave the direction of the vector gives:
A. the direction of the electric field B. the direction of the magnetic field
C. the direction of wave propagation D. the direction of the emf induced by the
wave

E. the direction of the electromagnetic force on a proton

Answer C
 Answers of New question bank – STEM
1- b 39- c 77- b 118- c
2- b 40- c 78- b 119- c
3- a 41-a 79- c 120- c
4-d 42- d 80- c 121- a
5-b 43- d 81- b 122- d
6-b 44- d 82- d 123- d
7-b 45- e 83- b 124- e
8-b 46- e 84- d 125- a
9-c 47- a 85- d 126- c
10- a 48- d 86- b 127- b
11- d 49- a=15 , b= 0.036 87- d 128- a
12-d 50- Your self 88- d 129- a
13-a 51-2 89- c 130- d
14-d 52- d 90- d 131- b
15-b 53- d 91- c 132- b
16-a 54- a 93- e 133- b
17- a ( -10) 55- c 94- d 134- ---
18-b 56- b 95- c 135- a
19-d 57- a 96- d 136- c
20-a 58- a 97- d 137- b
21- a= 8.89, b= 6.67 59- d 98- c 138- b
22- 15 cm 60- d 99- d 139- c
23- 10 cm 61- d 100- b 140- b
24- ( -0.5) 62- d 101- a 141- a
25- 12 cm 63- d 102- a 142- a
26- b 64- d 105- c 143- b
27- c 65-d 106- b 144- 0.17 I
28-b 66- b 107- e 145- a
29- d 67- c 108- c 147- b
30-c 68- ----------- 109 – a 148- a
31- b 69- car: UV , And IR 110 – b 149- b
B : 3684.2 Kelvin
32- b 70- e 111- b 150- d
33- a 71- a 112- d 151- c
34- d 72-a 152- c
35- d 73-b
36- c 74- c
37- b 75- d
38- c ( 0.017) 76- c 117- a
 Answers
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. E
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. E
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. E
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. D
45. C
46. C
47. E
48. E
 G12
2020
School Deputy
Mr. Mostafa Farag Mohamed
Mr. Emad Fawzy Shehata
School Principal
[Link]@[Link]
Mr. Abdelrahman Eliwa Abdelrahman
Answer : B
Answer : D
Answer: C
Answer : B
Answer : C
Answer : D
Answer : D
Answer : C
Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: A
An ideal polarizing filter will transmit 50% of nonpolarized light incident
on it. How much light is transmitted by two ideal polarizing filters that
are oriented with their axes parallel to each other?
A. 0%
B . Between 0% and 50%
C . 50%
D . Between 50% and 100%
E . 100%
 GENERAL EXAM

1. A sinusoidal wave travels along a string. The time for a particular point to move from
maximum displacement to zero is 0.170 s. its period is:
A. 0.68 s B. 0.86 s

M.A.S.
C. 0.34 s D. 13.6 s
2. A block attached to an ideal spring undergoes SHM about its equilibrium position (x=0)
with amplitude A. What fraction of the total energy is in the form of kinetic energy when
the block is at position x=½A?E
A. ⅓ B. ⅜ C. ½

M.A.S.
D. ⅔ E. ¾
3. A block attached to a spring undergoes simple harmonic motion on a horizontal
frictionless surface. Its total energy is 50J. When the displacement is half the amplitude,
the kinetic energy is:d
A. zero B. 12.5J

M.A.S.
C. 25J D. 37.5J
𝒙
4. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by: 𝒚 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟐𝝅(𝒕 − ). On reflection
𝟐
from a denser medium its amplitude becomes 2/3 of the amplitude of the incident wave.
The equation of the reflected wave is:b

M.A.S.
𝒙 𝒙
A. 𝒚 = 𝟎. 𝟔 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟐𝝅(𝒕 + ) B. 𝒚 = −𝟎. 𝟒 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟐𝝅(𝒕 + )
𝟐 𝟐
𝒙 𝒙
C. 𝒚 = 𝟎. 𝟒 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟐𝝅(𝒕 + ) D. 𝒚 = −𝟎. 𝟒 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝟐𝝅(𝒕 − )
𝟐 𝟐
5. Two identical springs with spring constant k are connected to identical masses of mass M,
as shown in the figures above. The ratio of

M.A.S.
the period for the springs connected in
parallel (figure 1) to the period for springs
connected in series (figure 2) is:
A. ½ B. 𝟏⁄√𝟐 C. 1

M.A.S.
D. √𝟐 E. 2
6. A plane mirror makes an angle of 30o with horizontal. If a vertical ray strikes the mirror,
find the angle between the mirror and the reflected ray.c
A. 30o B. 45o
C. 60o D. 90o M.A.S.
7. A line object of length 4 cm is placed in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20
cm. at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror. The length of object is normal to the principal
axis and its one end lies on the principal axis. Calculate the height of the image.b
A. 0.8 mm B. -80 mm
M.A.S.

C. 0.16 mm D. -4 mm
8. Imagine you are sitting in the back row of the classroom. Your instructor is standing in
the front of the room with a large convex spherical mirror. What do you see in the mirror
M.A.S.

Page | 1
 GENERAL EXAM

as your instructor walks from the front of the room to your location; all the while the
mirror is facing you?A
A. I see my image right side up. It gets larger as the mirror approaches.

M.A.S.
B. I see my image right side up. It gets smaller as the mirror approaches.
C. I see my image initially inverted and then right side up. It gets larger as the mirror
approaches.
D. I see my image initially inverted and then right side up. It gets smaller as the mirror
approaches.

M.A.S.
E. I see my image initially right side up and then inverted. It gets larger as the mirror
approaches.
9. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for:d
A. Red B. Green.
C. Yellow D. violet

M.A.S.
[Link] index of refraction of water is about 4/3. What happens to light when it travels from
air into water?B
A. Its speed increases to 4c/3, and its frequency decreases.
B. Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its wavelength decreases by a factor of 3/4.

M.A.S.
C. Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its wavelength increases by a factor of 4/3.
D. Its speed and frequency remain the same.
E. Its speed decreases to 3c/4, and its frequency increases.
[Link] critical angle for light going from medium X into medium Y is θ. The speed of light in

M.A.S.
medium X is v, then speed of light in medium Y is:b
A. V(1-cosθ) B. v/sinθ
C. v/cosθ D. vcosθ
[Link] is done in………. A
A. Transmitter B. Radio reciever

M.A.S.
C. Between transmitter and radio D. None of the above
[Link] amplitude
recievermodulation, the ……of carrier is varied according to the strength of the
signal.A
A. Amplitude B. Frequency
C. Phase D. None of the above M.A.S.
[Link] functions of radio reciever are:D
A. Receiving the incoming radio carrier by antenna.
B. Select the wanted signal and reject the unwanted signals and noise.
C. Detection and amplification of the information signal from the carrier.
M.A.S.

D. All of the above

[Link] of the following characterizes an analog quantity?D
A. Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity.
M.A.S.

B. Its values follow a logarithmic response curve.

Page | 2
 GENERAL EXAM

C. It can be discribed with afinite number of steps.

D. It has a continuous set of values over a given range.
[Link] a Young’s double slit experiment, by what factor is the distance between adjacent

M.A.S.
bright and dark fringes changed when the separation between slits is doubled?
A. ½ B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
[Link] a double-slit interference experiment you are asked to use laser light of different
wavelengths and determine the separation between adjacent maxima. You observe that

M.A.S.
this separation is greatest when you illuminate the double slit with:
A. blue light B. green light
C. red light D. The separation is the same for all wavelengths
[Link] and dark fringes are seen on a screen when light from a single source reaches two
narrow slits a short distance apart. The number of fringes per unit length on the screen

M.A.S.
can be halved:d
A. If the distance between the slits is changed to d’= ½ d
B. If the wavelength is changed to λ`=2λ
C. If the distance between the slits is d`= ½ d and the wavelength is changed to λ`=4λ.
D. If any of the above occurs.

M.A.S.
E. Only if the width of the slits is changed to w`=2w
[Link] laser light from He-Ne laser (λ=632.8 nm) is used to calibrate a diffraction grating.
The light creates a second-order fringe at 53.2o after passing through the grating. The
light of unknown wavelength λ creates a first-order fringe at 20.6o. the wavelength is:

M.A.S.
A. 556 nm B. 320 nm
C. 650 nm D. 665 nm
[Link] unpolarized light is incident from the left, in which case
will some light get through?b

M.A.S.
A. only case 1 B. only case 2 C. only case 3
D. cases 1 & 3 E. cases 1 & 3 F. all three cases

[Link] light is incident on a plane glass surface. What should be the angle of
incidence such that the reflect and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other (given M.A.S.
that, ng=1.5)?
A. 90o B. 45.5o
C. 56.3o D. 60.1o
M.A.S.

[Link] intensity of unpolarized light passing through a single sheet of polarizing material
changes by a factor of:B
A. 1.00 B. 0.5
C. cos θ D. cos2 θ
M.A.S.

Page | 3
 GENERAL EXAM

[Link] figure shows a wave on a string approaching its fixed end at a wall. When the wave
reaches the wall and is reflected, a standing wave is set up in the string. One will observe
a node at positionc:

M.A.S.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

M.A.S.
E. 5
[Link] diagram shows two transverse pulses moving along a string. One pulse is moving to
the right and the second is moving to the left. Both
pulses reach point x at the same instant. What
would be the resulting motion of point x as the two

M.A.S.
pulses pass each other.c
A. Down, up, down B. Up then down
C. Up, down, up D. There would be no motion, the pulses cancel one another
25.A string is stretched and fixed at both ends, 200 cm apart. If the density of the string is
0.015 g/cm, and its tension is 600 N, what is the wavelength (in cm) of the first

M.A.S.
harmonic?b
A. 600 B. 400 C. 800
D. 1000 E. 200
[Link] of the following wavelengths would produce standing waves on a string

M.A.S.
approximately 3.5 m long?A
A. 2.33 m B. 4.55 m
C. 3.75 m D. 2.85 m
[Link] graph shows the black body spectra of totally different stars. What can you conclude

M.A.S.
from the graph? a
A. Star A is hotter but small than star B.
B. Star A is hotter but larger than star B.
C. Star A is cooler and larger than star B.
D. Star A is cooler and smaller than star B M.A.S.
28.X-rays are formed byc
A. Outer-shell electron transitions of atoms with high proton number.
B. Outer-shell electron transitions of atoms with low proton number.
C. Inner-shell electron transitions of atoms with high proton number.
M.A.S.

D. Inner-shell electron transitions of atoms with low proton number.

M.A.S.

Page | 4
 GENERAL EXAM

[Link] an x-ray production with an x-ray machine, we get the

graph on the right. The peaks are formed byc
A. Slowing electrons B. Speeding electrons

M.A.S.
C. Electron transitions of a specific atom D. None of the above
[Link] the graph, the peak on the right is formed byb
A. Electrons, which are losing a high amount of energy during the
shell transitions.
B. Electrons, which are losing a low amount of energy during the shell transitions.

M.A.S.
[Link] particles listed below have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Which one must have
the lowest velocity?
A. A proton B. α- Particle C. 𝟐𝟏𝑯 D. electron
Base your answers to questions 32 and 33 on the
information and diagram below: The diagram shows

M.A.S.
the collision of an incident photon having a frequency
of 2x1019 Hz with an electron initially at rest.
[Link] initial energy of the photon is:
A. 1.33x10-14 J B. 1.33x1019 J

M.A.S.
C. 2.33x10-14 J D. 1.33x10-16 J
[Link] total energy of the two-particle system after the collision is:
A. 1.33x10-14 J B. 13.3x10-14 J
C. 3.3x10-14 J D. 2.3x10-14 J

M.A.S.
[Link] of energy 6 eV cause electrons to be emitted from a certain metal with a
maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If photons of twice the wavelength are incident on this
metal which one of the following statements is true?c
A. No electrons will be emitted.
B. Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 1 eV.

M.A.S.
C. Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 8 eV.
D. Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 10 eV.
E. Electrons will be emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 20 eV.
35. The opposite table records number of radiations
with their frequencies and intensities used Light Frequency Light
M.A.S.
separately to study the characteristics of photo color (Hz) intensity
14
electric effect of work function 4.637x10-19J Yellow 5.5x10 Medium
knowing that h=6.625x10-34 J.s. Which of these rays Green 6x1014 High
14
can liberate electron from the surface of the metal? Violet 7.5x10 Low
M.A.S.

[Link] radiations of two photons, whose energies are two times and five times the work
function of a metal, are made incident on the metal surface in succession. The ratio of the
velocities of emitted photo-electrons in two cases will be:d
M.A.S.

A. 2: 5 B. 1: 4
C. 1: 3 D. 1: 2
Page | 5
 GENERAL EXAM

[Link] the number of atoms per unit in a crystal is 2, the structure of crystal is
A. Octahedral B. Body centered cubic
C. Face centered cubic D. Simple cubic

M.A.S.
[Link] variation property of ability to conduct electricity of metals, non-metals and
semiconductors is explained byB
A. Energy gain enthalpy B. Band theory
C. Bond theory D. Hydride gap
[Link] superconductivity, the electrical resistance of material becomes:A

M.A.S.
Zero Infinite
Finite All of the above
40. Miller indices for the plane in the figure is:

(112). (121).

M.A.S.
(212). (110).

41. Energy gap is overlapped between valence band and conduction band in:b
A. Insulators B. Conductors

M.A.S.
C. Semiconductors D. Super semiconductors
42. Optical tweezers …… b
A. Used to remove facial hair with B. Use light to maniplulate particles as
miniaturized laser beams small as a single atom

M.A.S.
C. Are a nanotechnology -based tool for D. Don’t exist
stamp collectors
43. If you were to measure the surface roughness of a sample on the nanoscale, what would
give the best visual representation of this characteristic?
A. An SEM (Scanning electron microscope) B. Roman spectroscopy

M.A.S.
C. An AFM (Atomic force microscope) D. XRD (X-ray diffraction)
Best wishes
37-B 38-B 39-A 40-A 41-B 42-B 43-C

M.A.S.
M.A.S.
M.A.S.

Page | 6
 Communication
1. Modulation is done in……….A
A. Transmitter.
B. Radio reciever.
C. Between transmitter and radio reciever.
D. None of the above.
2. In amplitude modulation, the ……of carrier is avried according to the strength of the signal.A
A. Amplitude.
B. Frequency.
C. Phase.
D. None of the above.
3. Demodulation is done in…….C
A. Receiving antenna.
B. Transmitter.
C. Radio receiver.
D. Transmitting antenna.
4. In radio transmission, the medium of transmission is …………….A
A. Space.
B. An antenna.
C. Cable .
D. None of the above.
5. In TV tarnsmission, picture signal is ………modulated.C
A. Frequency.
B. Phase.
C. Amplitude.
D. None of the above.
6. The major advantage of FM over AM is ………….A
A. Reception is less noisy.
B. Heigher carrier frequency.
C. Smaller bandwith.
D. Smaller frequency deviation.
7. When the modulating signal controls the frequency of the carrier, we get………….C
A. PM
B. AM
C. FM
D. May be any one of the above.
8. Modulation refers to a low – frequency signal controlling the …………D
A. Amplitude of the carrier.
B. Frequency of the carrier.
C. Phase of the carrier.
D. May be any of the above.
9. In TV transmission, sound signal is ……….. modulated:B
A. Amplitude.
B. Frequency.
C. Phase.
D. None of the above.

Page 1 of 6
 Communication
10. FM signal is better thanAM signal because:D
A. Less immune to noise.
B. Less adjacent channel interference.
C. Amplitude limiters are used to avoid amplitude variations.
D. All of the above.
11. FM is disadvantageous over AM signal because:D
A. Much wider channel bandwidth is required.
B. FM systems are more complex and costlier.
C. Adjacent channel interference is more.
D. Both A and B.
12. In frequency modulation:D
A. Armstrong method is used for generation.
B. Multiple side bands are generated.
C. The FM signal has infinite bandwidth.
D. All of the previous.
13. In ……..transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing
amplitudes of the modulating signal.A
A. AM
B. PM
C. FM
D. None of the above.
14. AM and FM are examples of ………..conversion.C
A. Digital to digital.
B. Digital to analoge.
C. Analog to analog.
D. Analog to digital
15. In ………..transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage
level (amplitude) of the modulating signal.B
A. AM
B. PM
C. FM
D. None of the above.
16. When the frequency of carrier wave is changed in accordance with the intensity of the signal, it is
called………..B
A. AM.
B. FM.
C. Both.
D. None of the above.
17. Each cell has exactly ……….equidistant neighbors.D
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
18. Channel assignment (frequency reuse)D
A. Effiecient utilization of radio spectrum.
B. Increase capacity.
C. Minimized intefrence.
D. All of the above.

Page 2 of 6
 Communication
19. Which cell can be used for most or dense populated area:B
A. Macro cell
B. Micro cell
C. Picocell
D. None of the above.
20. In a communications system, noise is most likely to affect the signal:B
A. At the transmitter.
B. In the channel.
C. In the information source.
D. At the distination.
21. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to:A
A. Reduce the bandwidth used.
B. Separate differenig transmissions.
C. Ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance.
D. Allow the use of practicable antenna.
22. Indicate the false statement. The need for modulation can best be exemplified by the following:A
A. Antenna length will be approximately λ/4 long.
B. An antenna is the standard broadcast AM band is 16000ft.
C. All sound is concentrated from 20 Hz to 20KHz.
D. A message is composed of unpredictable variations in both amplitude and frequency.
23. Which of the steps is not include in the process of reception?B
A. Decoding.
B. Encoding.
C. Storage.
D. Interpretation.
24. Amplitude modulation is the process of: A
A. Superimposing a low frequency on a high frequency.
B. Superimposing a high frequency on a low frequency.
C. Carrier interruption.
D. Frequency shift and phase shift.
25. Which system is free from noise?A
A. FM.
B. AM.
C. Both FM and AM.
D. None of the above.
26. Which of the following statement is incorrect?C
Modulation is used to:
A. Allow the use of practical antennas.
B. Separate differing transmission.
C. Reduce the bandwidth.
D. Ensure intelligence to be transmitted over long distance.
27. Amplitude modulation is sued for broadcasting because as compared to other system:C
A. It can be provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity.
B. It requires less transmitting power.
C. It use avoids reciever compexity.
D. It is more immune to noise.

Page 3 of 6
 Communication
28. The channel capacity is exactly equal to which of the following?C
A. Noise rate in the channel.
B. Bandwidth of demand.
C. Amount of information per second.
D. None.
29. A geostationary stattelite:B
A. Is motion less in space (except for spin)
B. Is not really stationary at all, but orbit the earth with 24 hours period.
C. Appears stationary over Earth’s magnetic pole.
D. Is located at a height of 35800KM to ensure global coverage.
30. Advantages of analog communication over digital communication are:D
A. Data rate is low.
B. Less transmission bandwidth is required.
C. Synchronization is not needed.
D. All of the above.
31. The functions of radio reciever are:D
A. Receiving the incoming radio carrier by antenna.
B. Select the wanted signal and reject the unwanted signals and noise.
C. Detection and amplification of the information signal from the carrier.
D. All of the above.
32. In TV transmission, picture signal is ………. Modulated.C
A. Frequency.
B. Phase.
C. Amplitude.
D. None of the above.
[Link] naloge signal is continious n both ……….. and ……….. B
A. Frequency and power.
B. Time and amplitude.
C. Modulation and waveform.
D. Segments and packets.
34. …………… is both discrete and quantized.A
A. Digital signal.
B. Analog signal.
C. Modulated signal.
D. Synchronized signal.
35. Analog circuit do not involves quantization of information into digital format.A
A. True.
B. False.
36. Laptops, touch screen, Ipod, Compact Discs and DVD’s are good examples of digital technology.A
A. True.
B. False.
37. In analog technology, a wave is recorded or used in its original form.A
A. True.
B. False.
38. Audio tapes and Videos Tape recorder (VCR) are good examples of analog technology.A
A. True.
B. False.

Page 4 of 6
 Communication
39. Data from a computer are …….., the local loop handles …………….. signals.D
A. Analog, analog.
B. Analog, digital.
C. Digital, digital.
D. Digital, analog.
40. Which of the following characterizes an analog quantity?D
A. Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity.
B. Its values follow a logarithmic response curve.
C. It can be discribed with afinite number of steps.
D. It has a continuous set of values over a given range.
41. Digital technology, breaks the signal into binary format, where audio or video data is represented
by a series of “1”s and “0”s. A
A. True.
B. False.

1 A 9 B 17 D 25 A 33 B
2 A 10 D 18 D 26 C 34 A
3 C 11 D 19 B 27 C 35 A
4 A 12 D 20 B 28 C 36 A
5 C 13 A 21 A 29 B 37 A
6 A 14 C 22 A 30 D 38 A
7 C 15 B 23 B 31 D 39 D
8 D 16 B 24 A 32 C 40 D
1- What is the modulation? And where it is utilized?
A. Modulation is the process of varying some characteristics of a periodic wave with external signals.
B. Radio communication superimposes this information bearing signal onto a carrier signal.
C. This high frequency carrier signal can be transmitted over the air easily and are capable of travelling
long distances.
D. The characteristics (Amplitude, Frequency, or phase) of the carrier signal are varied in accordance
with the information bearing signal.
E. Modulation is utilized to send an information bearing signal over long distances.
2- What is the demodulation?
Demodulation is the act of removing the modulation from an analog signal to get the original
baseband signal back. Demodulation is necessary because the reciever system recieves a
modulated signal with with specific characteristics and it needs to turn it to base-band.
3- Explain AM and FM.
A. AM : Amplitude modulation is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carrier signal is varried in
accordance with the information bearing signal.
B. FM : frequency modulation is a type of modulation where the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in
accordance with the information bearing signal.
4- How does a mobile work?
 When you talk into a mobile telephone it converts the sound of your voice to radiofrequency
energy (radio waves).
 The radio waves are transmitted through the air to a nearby base station.
Page 5 of 6
 Communication
 The base station then sends the call through the telephone network until it reaches the person
you are calling.
 When you receive a call on your mobile phone the message travels through the telephone
network until it reaches a base station near to you.
 The base station sends out radio waves, which are detected by your telephone and converted
back to speech.
 The mobile phone network operates on the basis of a series of cells. Each cell requires a radio
base station to enable it to function.
 There are three types of base station:
1) The macrocell is the largest type and provides the main coverage for mobile phone network.
2) The Microcell is used to improve capacity in areas where demand to make cells is high, such
as shoping centers.
3) The Picocell only has a range of a few hundred meters and may be used to boost weak
signals within large buildings.
5- What is the base station?
Base station is a radio reciever/transmitter that serves as the hub of the local wireless network, and
may also be the gateway between a wired network and the wireless network.
6- How many sattelites are required to cover the earth?
3 sateelites are required to cover the entire earth, which is placed at 120 degree to each other.
7- What is the attenuation?
Attenuation is the reductionin amplitude and intensity of a signal. Atteniutation is an important property in
telecommunication and ultrasound applications because of its importance in determing signal strength as a
function of distance.
8- Draw a typical communication system model and explain each block.

The source originates a message, the Input transdeucer converts nonelectric into an electric waveform
called a message or baseband signal using physical devices, Transmitter modifies the baseband signal for
efficient transmission and may consist of A/D converter, an encoder, and a modulator. Channel is the
medium that convey the electric signals at the transmitter output over a distance, Reciever reprocesses
signal received from the channel by reversing signal modifications made at the transmitter. Removal of the
noise due to channel, Output transducer converts electric signal to its original form, Distination is Unit to
which message is communicated.
9- What is the difference between a digital and analog message?
A digital message is an ordered combination of finite symbols or codewords and an analog meesage
is a data whose values vary over a continuous range of time.
10- Today almost all new communication system being installed is digital. Why?
Advent of optical fiber communication, dramatic cost reductionis fabrication of high speed digital
circuitary and digital storage.
11- Explain what the bandwidth of a channel is?
Range of frequencies that it can transmit with reasonable fidelity.

Page 6 of 6
 Relativity
Halliday’s Bank
 ‫تخيل ال ‪ 2 events‬على إنهم عبارة عن صاروخ بيخبط فى حيطتين المسافة بينهم ‪ 100‬متر و الوقت بين الخبطتين اللى انت ك‬
‫‪ Observer‬هتقيسه = ‪ 0.46‬مايكرو ثانية ‪ ...‬الطبيعى إن الوقت اللى هيقيسه الراجل اللى على الصاروخ بين الخبطتين هيبقى أقل فده‬
‫هو ال ‪ proper time‬سرعة الصاروخ = المسافة على الزمن و من هنا تقدر تجيب جاما و ال ‪ proper time‬هيساوى ‪ 0.46‬مايكرو‬
‫ثانية على جاما‬
‫فى دى هتقسم المسألة لجزئين ‪ ...‬مرة و الضوء رايح للمراية و مرة و هو طالع منها و راجع للسورس فالشيفت لل‪ red‬هيحصل مرتين‬
 ‫فى المسألة دى هنستخدم القانون ده مع مراعاة الزيادة فى الماس بسبب السرعة‪:‬‬

‫‪Gancoli’s Bank‬‬
 Motion under force action
AP Bank C

E is the right answer

D is the right answer
 Physics Bank Haliday

A reference frame that is not accelerating and

still non-inertial is any reference frame in a curved
spacetime.
Optics
MCAT
Haliday’s Bank
We assumed that it is between the focal length and a
convex lens because the image is magnified (magnifying
lens) and the image is erect.
 Oscillations
Haliday’s Bank

I think, “for a specific oscillator” means that for

a specific string with a specific K and a specific
attached mass, so w is known. Knowing the initial
position will tell you about ᵹ. We have that initial
Velocity = w A Cos(ᵹ), so the initial position will
tell us directly the Amplitude.
TO IMPORTANT
TOO IMPORTANT 52 AND 53
Quiz on S.H.M.
‫فكر فيها هتالقى إن ده بيحصل لما النقطة بتبقى بتبعد من ال ‪equilibrium‬‬
‫‪ position‬و ده بيحصل فى ‪.D‬‬

‫‪Waves‬‬
‫‪Haliday’s Bank‬‬
Too important
Note that: A = √(𝐴1 )2 + (𝐴2 )2 and the two waves travel in
the same direction as the resultant wave.

Too important:
TOO Important:

TOO IMPORTANT
Interference
Just To know the low
Waves

Communication
Quantum
‫حلها باآللة متهبدهاش‬
This is a very tricky one:
Question 8 1985
An apparatus to investigate the photoelectric effect is set up as shown below. The
ammeter measures the current I in the circuit, and the voltmeter measures the
potential Vee of the collector relative to the emitter.

Vee may be made positive or negative as shown.

For an emitter made of a particular material and illuminated with light of a fixed
intensity an frequency, the following graph of I as a function of Vee is obtained. I0
is the current obtained for a very large value of Vee.
a) Which graph (A - F) below best represents the results expected if the
intensity of the light were doubled, using the same emitter and the same frequency
of light?

The experiment is repeated using the same emitter of light, but light of a higher
frequency. The intensity is such that the same number of photons per second falls
on the emitter as originally, when obtaining the original results.

b) Which of the graphs (A - F) best represents the results obtained?

c) Which one or more of the statements (A - D) below concerning the

quantities measured in the original experiment is correct?
A V0 is the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons as they leave
the emitter.
B eV0 is the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons as they leave
the emitter (e being the charge on the electron).
C V0 / I0 is the internal resistance of the emitter (its work function).
D I0 is proportional to the number of electrons per second released from
the emitter.
Answers:
a) B Greater intensity means more photons producing more electron giving
a larger starting current. Same frequency means the same stopping voltage, so B.
b) D Same in initial current, but higher frequency means a greater stopping
voltage as the electrons now have more energy, so D.
c) B, D
 L.O.11

THE doping material in LED is usually one of these

materials or a combination of them:
Gallium Arsenide
Gallium phosphide
Gallium Arsenide
Silicon carbide
Gallium Indium Nitride.

You can find the answer here:

Too Important
 Physics inventory

Answer is C
Answer is D
Answer is B
Answer is D

Answer Is C

Answer is A

Chapter 3
The answer is in page 62, and it deserves to take a look on it.

You Will integrate in both sides here. Page 61.

In 2 The answer is d, in 3 the answer is b.

The answer is B.
The Answer here is C.
The past 5 questions will relieve some of the misconceptions you
have, so I wish if you read them properly.

Answers page 64
Answers page 64

Chapter 4
Very Important:

We will apply conservation of current here.

Important: Answers page 86.

Answers page 90
Simple harmonic motion and waves
Diffraction and interference
 ‫‪Communication‬‬
‫راجعه ليلة االمتحان عشان بيتنسي كتير ومش‬
‫مهم‬
‫‪Quantum‬‬
 Nano
‫من فايل النانو‬
Relativity
The next questions are from 175-passage-based-Physics-
Questions.
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

1- An object of mass M oscillates on the end of a spring. To double the period,

replace the object with one of mass
a. 2M. b. M/2. c. 4M. d. M/4

2- At a playground, two young children are on identical swings. One child appears to
be about twice as heavy as the other. If you pull them back together the same
distance and release them to start them swinging, what will you notice about the
oscillations of the two children?
a. The heavier child swings with a period twice that of the lighter one.
b. The lighter child swings with a period twice that of the heavier one.
c. Both children swing with the same period.
d. None of the above.

3- When light reflects and produces a clear image, this reflection is referred to as:
a. specular (regular) reflection. b. diffuse (irregular) reflection.
c. retro-reflection. d. double reflection.

4- As a monochromatic light ray is transmitted through an air-to-glass boundary,

what happens to the wavelength?
a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged d. approaches
zero value

5- The real image of an object is located 45.0 cm away from a concave mirror, which
has a focal length of 10.0 cm. How far is the object from the mirror?
a. 40.0 cm b. 35.0 cm c. 22.5 cm d. 12.9 cm

6- When a plane mirror is rotated through an angle of 5o , the reflected ray is rotated
through an angle of:
a.10o b. 5o c.8.5o d. 2.5o

7- A convex mirror with a focal length of -20 cm forms an image 15 cm behind the
surface. If the object height is 1.2 cm what is the image height?
a. 0.30 cm b. 0.75 cm c. 0.94 cm d. 3.0 cm

8- A traveling wave in a stretched string is described by the equation, y = A sin (kx–

ωt). The maximum particle velocity is
(a) Aω (b) ω/k (c) k/ ω (d)
x/t

9- In the compound microscope the image which is formed by the objective lens is:
a. Virtual ,erect and magnified.
b. Real , erect and magnified.
c. Real , inverted and magnified.
d. Virtual ,erect and diminished.
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

10- Light is incident on an equilateral glass prism at a 45.0° angle to one face, the
angle at which light emerges from the opposite face. Assume that n = 1.54.
a.90o b.0o c.45o d.56.3o

11- A ray of light from denser medium strikes a rarer medium at angle of incidence
i. The reflected and refracted rays make an angle of 900 with each other The angle of
reflection and refraction are r and r ' respectively. The critical angle is __________.
(A) sin–1 (tan i) (B) tan–1 (tan r) (C) tan–1 (sin i) (D) sin–1 (tan r)

12- The phenomenon of polarization of electromagnetic waves proves that the

electromagnetic waves are_______.
(A) mechanical (B) longitudinal (C) transverse (D) nono of these

(Questions 13-19)
Consider two strings of the same material with the same radius, but having different
length. Each string is fixed to an immovable object at one end and the end of an
oscillator at the other end. Standing waves are established on both of the strings
using the oscillator set a frequency of 60 cycle/sec. The strings oscillate as shown in
Figure 1.

13- Which wave has the larger amplitude?

A. The wave on String I
B. The wave on String II
C. Both waves have the same amplitude.
D. Neither wave has any amplitude.
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

14- How does the speed of the wave on String I compare to the speed of the wave
on String II?
A. Wave I is twice as fast as Wave II.
B. Wave II is twice as fast as Wave I.
C. The wave speeds of the two waves are equal.
D. There is no way to determine the relative wave speeds.

15. For String II, the string moves the most at the:
A. 1 and 5 cm positions.
B. 2 and 4 cm positions.
C. 1,3, and 5 cm positions.
D. 0,2,4, and 6 cm positions.

16. Changing the velocity of the waves on the strings can be accomplished by:
A. increasing the string tension only.
B. increasing the string density only.
C. increasing the string tension or density.
D. It is not possible to change the velocity of a wave on a given string.

17- The waves pictured in Figure 1 are best described as:

A. transverse traveling waves.
B. longitudinal traveling waves.
C. transverse standing waves.
D. longitudinal standing waves.

18- Consider a third string whose length is the same as the length of String I and
whose ends are also fixed. This third string is now vibrated by some mechanism and
it oscillates as shown below.

When comparing the vibration of this third string to String I, which of the following
may be concluded?
A. The frequency is 3 times that of String I.
B. The frequency is 1/3 times that of String I.
C. The wavelength is 2 times that of String I.
D. The wavelength is 1/2 times that of String I.
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

19- At a particular time, the amplitude of String I is zero.

What can be said about the energy of the standing wave at this point?
A. The energy of the wave is zero.
B. The wave has only kinetic energy.
C. The wave has only potential energy.
D. The wave has both potential energy and kinetic energy.

20- Which of the following characterized an analog quantity?

A. Discrete levels represent changes in a quantity.
B. Its values follow a logarithmic response curve.
C. It can be described with a finite number of steps.
D. It has a continuous set of values over a given range.

21. An antenna behaves as resonant circuit only when its length is

 
(a) (b)
2 4
(c)  (D) 2 

22. Total internal reflection could occur when a light wave traveling through:
I. a vacuum encounters an air interface.
II. air encounters a glass interface.
III. glass encounters a wood interface.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and III
D. None of the conditions listed above will lead to total internal reflection.

23. What happens to parallel light rays coming from the left, and then traveling
through a diverging lens?
A. They are directed through the focal point to the left of the lens.
B. They bend away from the center of the lens, appearing to have come from the
focal point to the left of the lens.
C. They bend towards the center of the lens, traveling through the focal point to
the right of the lens.
D. They bend away from the center of the lens, appearing to have come from the
focal point to the right of the lens.

24. Which of the following equations can be used to determine the critical angle?
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

A. Sin θcritical = nair/nmaterial

B. Sin θcritical = nmaterial/nair
C. 1 /sin θcritical = nair/nmaterial
D. Sin θcritical = (nair)(nmaterial)

25. Wave diffraction would be MOST pronounced when sending:

A. 500-nm light waves through a one-meter hole.
B. 500-nm light waves through a one-centimeter hole.
C. 5-mm ultrasonic waves through a one-meter hole.
D. 5-mm ultrasonic waves through a one-centimeter hole.

Questions 26 – 32
26. What is the focal length of the lens in Figure ?
A. d/2
B. 2d/3
C. d
D. 2d

27. Which graph BEST represents 1/o versus 1/i for converging lens?

28. What is the magnitude of the magnification for the object and image in Figure 1?
A. 1/2 B. 1
1
C. D. 2
2

29. Suppose that the object in Figure 1 were moved to the left, and that d > f
throughout the moving process. To keep the image on the screen, the screen would
have to be:
A. moved towards the lens. B. moved away from the lens.
C. left in the same position.
D. moved away from the lens only if the object is moved infinitely far from the
lens.
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

30. If the lens has a focal length of d/2, how far away from the lens should we place
the screen?
A. d/2 B. 2d/3 C. d D. 2d

31. Suppose that the converging lens were replaced with a diverging lens of focal
length -2d. The image would then be:
2d
A. real, and located to the left of the lens.
3
2d
B. real, and located to the right of the lens.
3
2d
C. virtual, and located to the right of the lens.
3
2d
D. virtual, and located to the left of the lens.
3

32. Suppose that the lens in Figure 1 had a focal length d. How far to the left of the
lens should the object be placed to get an unmagnified, real image?
A. 4d B. 2d C. d D. d/2

33. In the absence of an atmosphere, the color of the sky would be:
A. blue. B. black. C. white. D. red.

35. What is the ratio of the frequency of a pendulum on the Earth to that of an
identical pendulum on the Moon?
(The force of gravity is six times weaker on the Moon than on the Earth.)
A. 36:1 B. 6:1 C. 6 :l D. 1:1
 Physics – Trial Test of Concepts 2019 – TOC

36. What is true of the velocity of a pendulum bob at its lowest point?
A. It increases as the mass of the bob increases.
B. It decreases as initial displacement angle increases.
C. It increases as the cord length increases, given the same initial displacement
angle of the pendulum.
D. It decreases as the cord length increases, given the same initial displacement
angle of the pendulum.

37. Increasing the wave amplitude of a standing wave will:

A. increase the number of nodes.
B. increase the number of antinodes.
C. increase the displacement of the cord at a node.
D. increase the displacement of the cord at an antinode.

38. All of the following affect the spring constant EXCEPT:

A. the material composing the spring.
B. the number of coils in the spring.
C. the direction of the coiling of the coils in the spring.
D. the diameter of each coil in the spring.

39. A spring of force constant k is stretched a certain distance. It takes twice as

much work to stretch a second spring by half this distance. The force constant of the
second spring is:
A. k B. 2k C. 4k D. 8k

40. ……… is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength
due to the resistance of the transmission medium.
A) Distortion B) Attenuation C) Noise D) Decibel

Good Luck
 Answers of Physics Trial Exam 2019
1 -c 9-c 17-c 25-d 33-b
2-c 10-d 18-b 26-b 34-a
3-a 11-a & d 19-b 27-a 35-c
4-b 12-c 20-d 28-d 36-c
5-d 13-b 21-b 29-a 37-d
6-a 14-b 22-d 30-c 38-c
7-a 15-d 23-b 31-d 39-c
8-a 16-c 24-a 32-b 40-b
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematic Schools

Test of concepts
First Session 2016 – 2017

Subject: Physics Grade: Three

Time: 120 minutes

Instructions
 Use Blue ink, ballpoint pen or pencil.
 Answer all questions.
 Answer the questions in the spaces provided – there may be more
space than you need.

Information
 You can use the BLANK PAGE at the end of the questions as
draft papers.
 Candidates may use a scientific calculator.

Advice:
 Read each question carefully before you start to answer it.
 Keep an eye on the time. Try to answer every question.
 If you do not know the answer to a question, go on to the next
question. You may come back to the skipped question later if you
have time.
 Check your answers if you have time at the end.

___________________________________________________________________________
0 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

Directions:
Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four
suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case
and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

1- Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension M/L and C has the
dimension L/T. Then B has the unit:
A. kg .sec / m2
B. m2/[Link]
C. [Link]/m2
D. m2/[Link]

2- If the Sun were suddenly replaced by a black hole of the same

mass, it would have a radius of 3,000 m. What effect, if any, would
this change have on the orbits of the planets?
A. The planets would move directly toward the Sun.
B. The planets would move in spiral orbits.
C. The planets would oscillate about their former elliptical orbits.
D. The orbits would remain unchanged.

3- When an ideal gas in a cylinder is compressed at constant

temperature by a piston, the pressure of the gas increases.
Consider the following three statements.

I. The rate at which the molecules collide with the piston

increases.
II. The average speed of the molecules increases.

III. The internal energy of the gas increases.

Which statement (s) correctly explain the increase in pressure?

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

___________________________________________________________________________
1 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

4- A 290 N force is used to compress a spring. The spring constant of

the spring is 5880 N/m. How far is the spring compressed?
A. 0.0050 m
B. 0.0493 m
C. 0.310 m
D. 20.275 m

5- Which is a safer situation, to sit or stand up in a small boat?

A. The high center of gravity of the standing people makes it all too
easy to tip the boat over.
B. The low center of gravity of the standing people makes it all too
easy to tip the boat over.
C. The high center of gravity of the people if sitting makes it all too
easy to tip the boat over.
D. The low center of gravity of the people if sitting makes it all too
easy to tip the boat over.

6- A spring of force constant k is stretched a certain distance. It takes

twice as much work to stretch a second spring by half this
distance. The force constant of the second spring is:
A. k
B. 2k
C. 4k
D. 8k

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2 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

7- A layer of oil with density 800 kg/m3 floats on top

of a volume of water with density 1000 kg/m3. A
block floats at the oil-water interface with 1/4 of its
volume in oil and 3/4 of its volume in water, as
shown in the figure. What is the density of the
block?
A. 200 kg/m3
B. 850 kg/m3
C. 950 kg/m3
D. 1050 kg/m3

8- The diagram below represents energy transfers in an engine.

input energy useful output energy

engine
EIN EOUT

wasted energy
EW

The efficiency of the engine is given by the expression:

EW
A. .
E IN
E OUT
B. .
E IN
EW
C. .
E OUT
E OUT
D. .
EW

___________________________________________________________________________
3 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

9- You have French fries that you would like to keep hot and a block
of ice you want to keep cold. You have foam dinner boxes and
some aluminum foil. What combination of materials would work
best?
A. Aluminum foil is wrapped around the ice and French fries are kept
in a foam dinner box.
B. Ice is kept in a foam dinner box and aluminum foil is wrapped
around the French fries.
C. Each is kept in a foam dinner box.
D. Aluminum foil is wrapped around each.

10- Radio receivers are usually tuned by adjusting the capacitor of an

LC circuit. If C = C1 for a frequency of 600 kHz, then for a
frequency of 1200 kHz one must adjust C to:
A. 1/4C1
B. 1/2 C1
C. 2C1
D. 4C1

11- Two stationary positive charges and two

negative charge are situated at points H, R, G -1 +1
H R
and E as indicated in the figure. Each of the
charges is of the same magnitude (+1 or -1 C). -1 +1
Which of the arrows is in the direction of the net G E
electrostatic force on charge H?

A. B. C. D.

12- A resistor in a circuit dissipates energy at a rate of 1 W. If the

voltage across the resistor is doubled, what will be the new rate of
energy dissipation?
A. 0.25 W
B. 0.5 W
C. 2 W
D. 4 W
___________________________________________________________________________
4 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

13- A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one
turn and the magnetic field at the center of the coil is B. it is then
bent into a circular loop of (N) turns. What will be the magnitude
of magnetic field at the center of the coil?
A. N B
B. N2B
C. 2NB
D. 2N2B

14-In the circuits below, the cells each have the same emf and
zero internal resistance. All the resistors have the same
resistance.

Circuit X Circuit Y Circuit Z

Which of the following gives the current through the cells in

order of increasing magnitude from least current to highest
current?
A. Circuit Y → Circuit Z → Circuit X
B. Circuit X → Circuit Y → Circuit Z
C. Circuit Z → Circuit Y → Circuit X
D. Circuit X → Circuit Z → Circuit Y

15-An infinitely long, straight wire carrying current I1

passes through the center of a circular loop of wire I2
carrying current I2, as shown. The long wire is I1
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Which of the
following describes the magnetic force on the wire?
A. Outwards.
B. Upwards
C. Downwards.
D. There is no magnetic force on the wire.
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5 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

16-Two conducting wires, R1 and R2 , are made of two different

materials, the first with a resistivity of ρ1, the second with
resistivity ρ2 = ½ ρ1
Which of the following pairs of cylindrical wires, with indicated
cross sectional area and length, will have equal resistances?
First Wire R1 Second Wire R2
L L
A. 2A A

2L L
B. A 2A

L 2L
C. 2A A

L 2L
D. A 2A

17-The bar magnet shown in the figure above is moved completely

through the loop. Which of the following is a true statement
about the direction of the current flow
between the two points Y and Z in the
circuit?
A. Current flows from Y to Z as the magnet
passes through the loop.
B. Current flows from Z to Y as the magnet
passes through the loop.
C. Current flows from Y to Z as the magnet
enters the loop and from Z to Y as the
magnet leaves the loop. Z
D. Current flows from Z to Y as the magnet 1

enters the loop and from Y to Z as the Y

magnet leaves the loop.

___________________________________________________________________________
6 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

18-The graph below represents the AC voltage generated by an

electric generator.

When the angular velocity of its coil increases to the double, and the
AC voltage generates is plotted in (potential different -Time graph),
which graph of the following can describe the voltage?

___________________________________________________________________________
7 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

19-A light ray in air enters and passes through a block of glass.
What can be stated with regard to its speed after it emerges
from the block?
A. speed is less than when in glass
B. speed is same as that in glass
C. speed is same as that before it entered glass
D. speed is less than before it entered glass

20-A convex mirror has focal length (f). An object of length (L)
is placed at a distance (2f) from the vertex of the mirror. The
image created by the mirror is of length :
A. (L) and inverted
B. (L) and upright
C. Less than (L) and upright.
D. Greater than (L) and inverted.

21-A camera with a lens of focal length 6.0 cm takes a picture of

a 1.4 m tall man standing 11 m away. The height of the image
is about:
A. 0.39 cm
B. 0.77 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 3.0 cm

22-The de Broglie wavelength of a particle that has kinetic

energy Ek is λ. The wavelength λ is proportional to
1
A. .
√𝐸𝑘
1
B.
𝐸𝑘
C. Ek
D. Ek2

___________________________________________________________________________
8 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

23-The diagram below shows the arrangement used to produce a

standing wave in the string that emits a fundamental tone as
the wave driver vibrates.

In a trial to control to the parameters of the standing wave in the

string, the velocity of wave in the string happened to increase to
double and wave frequency to four times greater.
What changes might be made to the vibrating length (L) and the
mass (M) for those changes to happen?
Knowing that the frequency of the wave driver is adjusted to give
the fundamental tone?

Change might be made to M Change might be made to L

A. Increased to 4 M Kept unchanged as L
B. Increased to 2 M Increased to 2 L
C. Increased to 2 M Decreased to ½ L
D. Increased to 4 M Decreased to ½ L

24-A mass, attached to a spring, executes Simple

Harmonic Motion about its equilibrium position.
At the exact moment the mass moves through its
equilibrium position Q, which quantity of the mass
gets its maximum?
A. Restoring force Q
B. Potential energy
C. Displacement
D. Momentum
___________________________________________________________________________
9 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

25-True statements about the absorption and emission of energy

by an atom include which of the following?
I. An atom can only absorb photons of light that have certain
specific energies.
II. An atom can emit photons of light of any energy.
III. At low temperature, the lines in the absorption spectrum of
an atom coincide with the lines in its emission spectrum that
represent transitions to the ground state.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III

n=5
26-Some energy levels in the hydrogen atom are n=4
given (not to scale) in the diagram. Which n=3
transition of the electron between two of these
n=2
given levels would release spectrum of the
longest wavelength?
A. from n = 2 to n = 1
B. from n = 3 to n = 1 n=1
C. from n = 5 to n = 3
D. from n = 3 to n = 2

27-Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are characterized by all the

following properties, except:
A. high strength and high stiffness
B. have a high surface-to-volume ratio
C. high electric conductivity
D. chemically active

28-A meter stick with a speed of 0.8c moves past an observer. In

the observer’s reference frame, how long does it take the
stick to pass the observer?
A. 1.6 ns
B. 2.5 ns
C. 4.2 ns
D. 6.9 ns
___________________________________________________________________________
10 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

29-A photon of energy E Joules is directed at a metal surface of

work function Y Joules. Electrons of maximum kinetic
energy = Y Joules eject. If a photon of energy 2E Joules is
directed at the same metal surface, the maximum kinetic
energy of electrons in this case equals:
A. Y Joules
B. 2Y Joules
C. 3Y Joules
D. 4 Y Joules

30-Although high frequency signals may be received from a

distant station by a sky wave at a certain time, it may not be
possible to hear them an hour later. This may be due to:

A. Shading of the earth by clouds.

B. Changes in the ionosphere layer.
C. Changes in atmospheric temperature.
D. Absorption of the ground wave signal.

31-When the temperature of a blackbody is 3927ºC, it emits

radiations of maximum intensity for the wave length of
7000Ǻ. If the temperature of the body is raised by 1000ºC,
the maximum intensity would be observed at nearly:
A. 3650Ǻ
B. 4650Ǻ
C. 5650Ǻ
D. 6000Ǻ

32-In amplitude modulation:

A. The amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the
amplitude of the modulating signal.
B. The amplitude of the carrier wave remains constant
C. The amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the
frequency of the modulating signal
D. Modulating frequency lies in the audio range

___________________________________________________________________________
11 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

33-A scientist is trying to eject electrons from a metal by shining

green light on it, but none are coming out. To possibly eject
electrons, she should:
A. shine red laser on the metal.
B. elongate the interval of shining green light on the metal.
C. increase the intensity of green light shone on the metal.
D. shine invisible ultraviolet radiation on the metal

34-The given curve shows the change in electric

ρ
resistivity of a superconducting element with
the change in its temperature. This element at
temperatures higher than Tc:
A. Displays perfect diamagnetism. T
Tc
B. Magnetic fields cannot penetrate it.
1
C. Allows magnetic fields to flow through it.
D. Electrons inside it set up eddy currents that produce a counter-
magnetic field.

35-In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is

doubled. To maintain the same fringe spacing on the screen,
the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to:
A. ¼ D
B. ½ D
C. 2 D
D. 4 D
Mirror Y
36-The figure shows an idealized submarine periscope
that consists of two parallel plane mirrors (Y and Z) X
set at 45 degrees to the vertical periscope axis and L
separated by a distance L. A dolphin is at a distance
X from the middle point of the top mirror. The
distance between the image and the mirror Z: Mirror Z
A. X.
B. X + L.
C. X – L.
D. 2 X – L.

___________________________________________________________________________
12 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

List of data, formulae and relationships

You can use them when needed!
 F=–kx

 Fb = Vi ρL g

1 1 1
 = +
𝑓 𝑈 𝑉

𝑁𝐼
 B=μ
2𝑟

1
 f=
2𝜋√𝐿𝐶

𝑣2
 L = L0√1 −
𝑐2

𝜆𝑅
 ∆x =
𝑑

𝐿
 R=ρ
𝐴

___________________________________________________________________________
13 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

BLANK PAGE

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14 out of 15 pages
 Physics – Test of Concepts – First Session – 2107

BLANK PAGE

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15 out of 15 pages
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

Directions:
Each of the questions or incomplete phrases below is followed by four suggested answers
or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding
circle on your answer sheet.
1. The correct reading of the Vernier Caliper shown in
the figure is …
A. 8.62 cm
B. 8.78 cm
C. 9.38 cm
D. 9.42 cm
2. When a net force of 10 N acts on an object, the object accelerates at a rate of 20
m/s2. The mass of the object is ...
A. 200 kg
B. 2 kg
C. 0.5 kg
D. 0.2 kg
3. For a car to keep moving uphill at a uniform
velocity, the force exerted by the engine should be …
A. Equal to the friction force only.
B. Equal to the sum of friction force and air resistance.
C. Less than the sum of friction force and air resistance.
D. Greater than the sum of friction force and air
resistance.
4. Hooke’s law is applicable on a material …
A. within the elastic limit
B. within the plastic limit
C. at the ultimate strength
D. at the fracture point
5. What does a larger spring constant mean?
A. It is so easy to stretch the spring by a certain amount.
B. It is more difficult to stretch the spring by a certain amount.
C. The material is more brittle when a force is applied.
D. The material is more deformed when a force is applied.
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

6- A spring of force constant k is stretched a certain distance. It takes twice as much work
to stretch a second spring by half this distance. The force constant of the second spring is:
A. k
B. 2k
C. 4k
D. 8k
7- A layer of oil with density 800 kg/m3 floats on top of a volume of water with density
1000 kg/m3. A block floats at the oil-water interface with 1/4 of its volume in oil and 3/4 of its
volume in water, as shown in the figure. What is the density of the
block?
A. 200 kg/m3
B. 850 kg/m3
C. 950 kg/m3
D. 1050 kg/m3
8- The diagram below represents energy transfers in an engine.
engine input energy useful output energy wasted energy E E E IN W OUT
The efficiency of the engine is given by the expression:

The efficiency of the engine is given by the expression:

 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

9- You have French fries that you would like to keep hot and a block of ice you want to
keep cold. You have foam dinner boxes and some aluminum foil. What combination of
materials would work best?
A. Aluminum foil is wrapped around the ice and French fries are kept
in a foam dinner box.
B. Ice is kept in a foam dinner box and aluminum foil is wrapped
around the French fries.
C. Each is kept in a foam dinner box.
D. Aluminum foil is wrapped around each.

10- Radio receivers are usually tuned by adjusting the capacitor of an LC circuit. If C =
C1 for a frequency of 600 kHz, then for a frequency of 1200 kHz one must adjust C to:
A. 1/4C1
B. 1/2 C1
C. 2C1
D. 4C1
11- Two stationary positive charges and two
negative charge are situated at points H, R, G
and E as indicated in the figure. Each of the
charges is of the same magnitude (+1 or -1 C).
Which of the arrows is in the direction of the net electrostatic force on charge H?

12- A resistor in a circuit dissipates energy at a rate of 1 W. If the voltage across the
resistor is doubled, what will be the new rate of energy dissipation?
A. 0.25 W
B. 0.5 W
C. 2 W
D. 4 W

13- A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the
magnetic field at the center of the coil is B. it is then bent into a circular loop of (N) turns.
What will be the magnitude of magnetic field at the center of the coil?
A. N B
B. N2B
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

C. 2NB
D. 2N2B

14- In the circuits below, the cells each have the same emf and zero internal resistance. All
the resistors have the same resistance.

Which of the following gives the current through the cells in order of increasing
magnitude from least current to highest current?
A. Circuit Y → Circuit Z → Circuit X
B. Circuit X → Circuit Y → Circuit Z
C. Circuit Z → Circuit Y → Circuit X
D. Circuit X → Circuit Z → Circuit Y
15- An infinitely long, straight wire carrying current I1 passes through the center of a
circular loop of wire carrying current I2, as shown. The long wire is perpendicular to the
plane of the loop. Which of the following describes the magnetic force on the wire?

A. Outwards.
B. Upwards
C. Downwards.
D. There is no magnetic force on the wire.

16- Two conducting wires, R1 and R2 , are made of two different materials, the first with a
resistivity of ρ1, the second with resistivity ρ2 = ½ ρ1
Which of the following pairs of cylindrical wires, with indicated cross sectional area and
length, will have equal resistances?
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

17- The bar magnet shown in the figure above is moved completely
through the loop. Which of the following is a true statement
about the direction of the current flow
between the two points Y and Z in the circuit?
A. Current flows from Y to Z as the magnet passes through the loop.
B. Current flows from Z to Y as the magnet passes through the loop.
C. Current flows from Y to Z as the magnet enters the loop and from
Z to Y as the magnet leaves the loop.
D. Current flows from Z to Y as the magnet enters the loop and from
Y to Z as the magnet leaves the loop.

18- The graph below represents the AC voltage generated by an electric generator.

When the angular velocity of its coil increases to the double, and the AC voltage generates is
plotted in (potential different -Time graph), which graph of the following can describe the
voltage?
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

19- A light ray in air enters and passes through a block of glass. What can be stated with
regard to its speed after it emerges from the block?
A. speed is less than when in glass
B. speed is same as that in glass
C. speed is same as that before it entered glass
D. speed is less than before it entered glass

20- A convex mirror has focal length (f). An object of length (L) is placed at a distance (2f)
from the vertex of the mirror. The image created by the mirror is of length :
A. (L) and inverted
B. (L) and upright
C. Less than (L) and upright.
D. Greater than (L) and inverted.

21- A camera with a lens of focal length 6.0 cm takes a picture of a 1.4 m tall man standing
11 m away. The height of the image is about:
A. 0.39 cm
B. 0.77 cm
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

C. 1.5 cm
D. 3.0 cm

22- The de Broglie wavelength of a particle that has kinetic energy Ek is λ. The wavelength
λ is proportional to
A. 1/√𝐸𝑘.
B. 1/𝐸𝑘
C. Ek
D. Ek2

23- The diagram below shows the arrangement used to produce a standing wave in the
string that emits a fundamental tone as the wave driver vibrates.

In a trial to control to the parameters of the standing wave in the string, the velocity of wave in
the string happened to increase to double and wave frequency to four times greater.
What changes might be made to the vibrating length (L) and the mass (M) for those changes to
happen?
Knowing that the frequency of the wave driver is adjusted to give the fundamental tone?

Change might be made to M Change might be made to L

A. Increased to 4 M Kept unchanged as L

B. Increased to 2 M Increased to 2 L
C. Increased to 2 M Decreased to ½ L
D. Increased to 4 M Decreased to ½ L
24- A mass, attached to a spring, executes Simple Harmonic
Motion about its equilibrium position. At the exact moment the
mass moves through its equilibrium position Q
which quantity of the mass gets its maximum?
A. Restoring force
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

B. Potential energy
C. Displacement
D. Momentum
25- True statements about the absorption and emission of energy by an atom include
which of the following?
I. An atom can only absorb photons of light that have certain specific energies.
II. An atom can emit photons of light of any energy.
III. At low temperature, the lines in the absorption spectrum of an atom coincide with the lines
in its emission spectrum that represent transitions to the ground state.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III
26- Some energy levels in the hydrogen atom are given (not to scale) in the diagram.
Which transition of the electron between two of these given levels would release spectrum
of the longest wavelength?
A. from n = 2 to n = 1
B. from n = 3 to n = 1
C. from n = 5 to n = 3
D. from n = 3 to n = 2

27- Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are characterized by all the following properties, except:
A. high strength and high stiffness
B. have a high surface-to-volume ratio
C. high electric conductivity
D. chemically active

28- A meter stick with a speed of 0.8c moves past an observer. In the observer’s reference
frame, how long does it take the stick to pass the observer?
A. 1.6 ns
B. 2.5 ns
C. 4.2 ns
D. 6.9 ns

29- A photon of energy E Joules is directed at a metal surface of work function Y Joules.
Electrons of maximum kinetic energy = Y Joules eject. If a photon of energy 2E Joules is
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

directed at the same metal surface, the maximum kinetic energy of electrons in this case
equals:
A. Y Joules
B. 2Y Joules
C. 3Y Joules
D. 4 Y Joules

30- Although high frequency signals may be received from a distant station by a sky wave
at a certain time, it may not be possible to hear them an hour later. This may be due to:

A. Shading of the earth by clouds.

B. Changes in the ionosphere layer.
C. Changes in atmospheric temperature.
D. Absorption of the ground wave signal.

31- When the temperature of a blackbody is 3927ºC, it emits radiations of maximum

intensity for the wave length of 7000Ǻ. If the temperature of the body is raised by 1000ºC,
the maximum intensity would be observed at nearly:
A. 3650Ǻ
B. 4650Ǻ
C. 5650Ǻ
D. 6000Ǻ

32- In amplitude modulation:

A. The amplitude of the carrier wave varies in accordance with the amplitude of the modulating
signal.
B. The amplitude of the carrier wave remains constant
C. The amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the frequency of the modulating
signal
D. Modulating frequency lies in the audio range
33- A scientist is trying to eject electrons from a metal by shining green light on it, but
none are coming out. To possibly eject electrons, she should:
A. shine red laser on the metal.
B. elongate the interval of shining green light on the metal.
C. increase the intensity of green light shone on the metal.
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

D. shine invisible ultraviolet radiation on the metal

34- The given curve shows the change in electric
resistivity of a superconducting element with
the change in its temperature.
This element at temperatures higher than Tc:
A. Displays perfect diamagnetism.
B. Magnetic fields cannot penetrate it.
C. Allows magnetic fields to flow through it.
D. Electrons inside it set up eddy currents that produce a counter- magnetic field.
35- In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the
same fringe spacing on the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to:
A. ¼ D
B. ½ D
C. 2 D
D. 4 D
36- The figure shows an idealized submarine periscope that consists of two parallel plane
mirrors (Y and Z) set at 45 degrees to the vertical periscope axis and separated by a distance L.
A dolphin is at a distance X from the middle point of the top mirror. The distance between the
image and the mirror Z:
A. X.
B. X + L.
C. X – L.
D. 2 X – L.
 Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12

List of data, formulae and relationships

You can use them when needed!
Physics TOC Released items 2019-2020 G12
 Released Passages in Physics

Passage I: Motion through liquids

In a certain experiment, we are investigating the retarding force that a fluid exerts on
an object moving through it. We guess that the size of the object is a factor, so we
include A, the cross-sectional area, in an equation. The relative velocity between the
object and the fluid is a factor
v, as well as the density of the fluid ρ. So we guess: F = kρmAnvp
where kis a proportionality constant with some appropriate units. Before we run the
experiment, we do not know the values of the exponents m, n [Link] chart gives the
data for a certain fluid.

Experiment Object A (cm2) v (m/s) F (N)

1 Cock ball 1.5 7.0 0.020
2 Cock ball 1.5 3.5 0.005
3 Steel ball 1.5 3.5 0.005
4 Steel ball 3.0 3.5 0.010
5 Steel ball 4.5 3.5 0.015
6 Steel ball 3.0 14.0 0.160
7 Steel ball 6.0 7.0 X

Questions (1 – 5) belong to passage I:

1- Which pair of experiment could be used to determinen?
A. 2 and 3.
B. 3 and 4
C. 4 and 6
D. 5 and 6

2- Which pair of experiments indicates that retarding force does not depend on the
density of the object?
A. 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 6.
D. 4 and 6.

3- Let us saym andn are known. What combination of experiments would be

considered a minimum set for determining pandk?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3.
C. 3, 4, and 5.
D. 3 only.
4- Comparing the experiments 6 and 7, what would be the expected magnitude (X) of
the retarding force?
A. 0.02
B. 0.04
C. 0.08
D. 0.16

5- Which graph best represents the relation between the retarding force (F) and the
relative velocity (v) between the object and the fluid?

F F F F

v v v v
A B C D
 Passage II: Heating Curve
Most substances can exist in three different states – a solid, a liquid and a gas state.
Changes from one state to another commonly occur by heating or cooling a sample of
the substance. Melting refers to the change of a sample from the solid to the liquid
state at its melting point temperature. Boiling refers to the change of a sample from the
liquid to the gaseous state at its boiling point temperature.
Consider a substance that is found in a sealed container in its solid state at a
temperature well below its melting point. Over the course of about 15 minutes, the
container is heated at a constant rate. At first, the application of heat causes the
temperature of the substance to increase until it reaches its melting point temperature.
At its melting point temperature, heat is continually added known as Latent heat of
fusion, causing the solid to transition to a liquid at a constant temperature. Once all the
solid has melted, the substance is heated to its boiling point temperature. At its boiling
point temperature, the addition of heat causes the liquid to transition to a gas at a
constant temperature known as Latent heat of vaporization. Once all the liquid has
boiled, the sample continues to be heated (cautiously), causing the temperature of the
gas to increase. This process is depicted in Figure 1.
Figure 1

Te
mp
era 400
tur 300
e D E
o
(C 200
C
) 100
B
0 A

- 100 Time (sec)

0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900

Questions (6 – 12) belong to passage II:

6- According to Figure 1, at what temperature does the substance transition between
the solid state and the liquid state?
A. Approximately -65°C
B. Approximately -7°C
C. Approximately 135°C
D. Approximately 190°C
7- Which one of the following statements are true of the sample of matter described
by Figure 1?
A. As heat is added to the sample, its temperature always increases.
B. The sample is melting between a temperature of about -100°C and -10°C.
C. The liquid state would be observed in the sample at both 200 seconds and 400
seconds.
D. The solid state would be observed in the sample at both 600 seconds and 800
seconds.

8- There are five labeled points on the line of the graph in Figure 1. What changes, in
order, are observed in the sample of matter between point A and point C?
A. First the sample melts; then its temperature stabilizes; then it boils.
B. First the sample increases its temperature; then it melts; then its temperature
increases.
C. First the sample increases its temperature; then it melts; then its temperature
stabilizes.
D. First the sample melts; then its temperature increases; then it stabilizes its
temperature.
9- There are five labeled points on the line of the graph in Figure 1. At which of the
labeled points is the sample a mixture of liquid and gas?
A. at point A.
B. at point B.
C. at point D.
D. at point E.

10- Depending on data given in Figure 1, which statement is true?

A. Latent heat of fusion of substance A is greater than its latent heat of
vaporization.
B. Latent heat of fusion of substance A is less than its latent heat of vaporization.
C. Latent heat of fusion of substance A is equal to its latent heat of vaporization.
D. There is no latent heat since temperature stabilizes during boiling.
Suppose that Figure 1 represents the so-called heating curve for Substance A. Figure
2 below represents the heating curve for Substance B.

Temperature (oC)
Figure 2

400

300

200

100

- 100 Time (sec)

0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900

11- What conclusion can be drawn regarding the melting points and boiling points of
Substance A and Substance B?
A. Substance A has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than
Substance B.
B. Substance B has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than
Substance A.
C. Substance A has the higher melting point but Substance B has the higher boiling
point.
D. Substance B has the higher melting point but Substance A has the higher boiling
point.

12- Depending on Figure 1 and Figure 2, suppose you have equal molten masses
of substances A and B. each molten is heated from its freezing point at a constant
rate. Which statement is true?
A. Molten of substance A needs more heat to reach its boiling point.
B. Molten of substance B needs more heat to reach its boiling point.
C. Both masses need the same amount of heat.
D. It is impossible to tell since molten substances have different freezing and
boiling points.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B B A C D B C B C B D A
URT – First Session 2018
Directions: Each passage is followed by several questions. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in the corresponding
oval on your answer sheet. You may refer to the passages as often as
necessary.

Passage I: Sound Waves

A vibrating source will produce sound by

alternately forcing the air molecules in front
of it closer together as it moves towards them,
and then further apart as it draws away from
them. In this way, alternating regions of high
and low pressure, called compressions and
refractions, are produced. The figure shows a
typical sound wave.

The loudness of the sound corresponds to the magnitude of the compression,

represented by the amplitude of the wave. The sound pitch corresponds to the wave
frequency, the number of waves sent out by the sound source in one second. Sound
waves propagate in all directions from their source. The speed at which sound waves
travel depends upon the medium they are traveling through. In dry air, sound travels
at 330 m/sec at 0°C. It travels 4 times faster through water, and 15 times faster
through a steel rod. Here are some graphs illustrating how the speed of sound in real
air depends on temperature, pressure, and humidity.

1
1- The sound produced by a drum is much louder and lower pitched than that
produced by a bell. Which of the following statements is true about the sound
wave produced by a drum compared to that produced by a bell?
a) The amplitude is greater and the wavelength is shorter.
b) The amplitude is greater and the wavelength is longer.
c) The amplitude is smaller and the wavelength is longer.
d) The amplitude is smaller and the wavelength is shorter.

2- Two sound waves of exactly the same frequency and amplitude are produced by
sources that are in precisely the same position. If the sound waves are out of
phase by one-half a wavelength, what will be heard by an observer standing a
short distance away?
a) A sound at twice the frequency of either individual signal
b) A sound twice as loud as either individual signal
c) A sound at twice the wavelength as either individual signal
d) No sound at all

3- A loud alarm attached to a metal fence

begins to ring. Student X has her ear
against a pole of the fence while
student Y stands away from the fence,
as shown.
Assume that both students are the
same distance from the alarm, which
of the following statements explains
what happens in this situation?
a) Student X hears the alarm first.
b) Student Y hears the alarm first
c) Student X hears the alarm at a
higher pitch
d) Student Y hears the alarm at a higher pitch

4- Comparing the speed of sound at 20oC in humid air and in dry air, based on the
given graphs, as the air pressure inceases:
a) Speed of sound in both humid air and dry air increase.
b) Speed of sound in humid air increases while that in dry air decreases.
c) Speed of sound in humid air decreases while that in dry air increases.
d) Speed of sound in humid air decreases to be equal to that in dry air.

2
5- A sound of frequency 1000 Hz travels in air of normal pressure. As temperature
of air rises between 35oC - 45oC , the speed of sound in air:
a) Decreases whether air is humid or dry.
b) Increases by a smaller amount in dry air than that in humid air
c) Increases by a greater amount in dry air than that in humid air
d) Increases equally whether air is humid or dry.

6- At the top of a mountain, where presure and temperature of air are low, it is
expected that the speed of sound in dry air would:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Increase then decrease
d) Decrease then increase

Passage II: Static Friction

A group of students studied the frictional forces involved on stationary objects.

In a series of experiments, the students used
rectangular shaped objects of various
materials that all had identical masses. One
end of a plastic board coated with a
polymer film was fastened to a table surface
by a hinge so the angle θ between the board
and table could be changed, as shown in
Figure 1.

Objects were placed on the opposite end of the board, and the angle θ at which the
object started to slide was recorded. The tangent of this angle represents the
coefficient of static friction between the object and the polymer
surface. This coefficient is proportional to the force required to
move a stationary object. Higher coefficients mean that greater
forces of friction must be overcome to initiate movement.
The dimensions of the objects gave them 3 distinct faces of
unequal area as shown in Figure 2. Unless otherwise stated, the
objects were placed on the ramp with face (A) down.

3
Experiment 1
Four objects made of different materials were placed on the ramp at a temperature
of 25°C. The ramp was gradually raised and as soon as the object started to move,
the angle θ of the ramp was recorded in Table 1.

Table 1
Object material θ (degrees)
Granite 12.1
Copper 16.8
Wood 22.0
Brick 31.1

Experiment 2
The procedure for Experiment 1 was repeated with the wooden object, varying
which face was placed down on the ramp. Results were recorded in Table 2.
Table 2
Face θ (degrees)
A 22.0
B 22.0
C 22.0

Experiment 3
The procedure for Experiment 1 was repeated with the wooden object, varying the
temperature of the polymer ramp. Results for 5 temperatures were recorded in table 3.
Table 3
Temperature (°C) θ (degrees)
0 18.5
25 22.0
50 25.4
75 29.0
100 32.5

7- If the procedure used in Experiment 3 had been repeated at a temperature of

62.5°C, the angle required for the object to start moving down the ramp most
likely would have been closest to which of the following?
a) 27.2 degrees
b) 29.2 degrees
c) 30.3 degrees
d) 31.4 degrees

4
8- In Experiment 1, the reason the students used objects made of different
materials was most likely to vary the amount of frictional force between the:
a) Plastic board and the polymer surface.
b) Various objects and the polymer surface.
c) Objects made of different materials when brought into contact with each
other.
d) Stacked objects, so that the objects would not fall over when the angle of the
ramp was raised high enough to cause motion.

9- Which of the following ranks the different types of objects used, in order, from
the material that presented the greatest resistance to movement to the material
that presented the least resistance to movement?
a) Granite, copper, wood, brick
b) Copper, wood, granite, brick
c) Granite, wood, brick, copper
d) Brick, wood, copper, granite

10-Suppose the students had placed the 4 objects used in Experiment 1 on the ramp
when it was flat and pushed each of the objects, such that the amount of force
applied to each object gradually increased until it moved. Based on the results
of Experiment 1, the object made of which material would most likely have
taken the greatest amount of force to start moving?
a) Brick
b) Wood
c) Copper
d) Granite

11-Based on the results of Experiments 3, what was the effect, if any, of the
contact area of the object with the ramp on the coefficient of static friction?
a) The coefficient of static friction always increased as the object's contact area
increased.
b) The coefficient of static friction always decreased as the object's contact area
increased.
c) The coefficient of static friction increased and then decreased as the object's
contact area increased.
d) The coefficient of static friction was not affected by the contact area of the
object.

5
12-The main purpose of Experiment 3 was to determine the effects of temperature
on which of the following variables?
a) Coefficient of static friction between wood and wood
b) Coefficient of static friction between wood and polymer
c) Mass of the wooden object
d) Total frictional force of the polymer on all objects placed on the ramp

Passage III: Electric Resistance

Metals differ in their electric conductivity. Resistance is a measurement in ohms

(Ω) of how much a conductor opposes the flow of the electric current under the
effect of a given voltage.

A scientist performed 3 experiments using the circuit shown in Figure 1.

Metal resistor
The metal resistor consisted of a coil of
metallic wire whose turns are tightly coiled
+
as one layer with a known length and
Battery Switch cross-sectional area (see Figure 2).
‫ـــ‬ Coiled metal wire
Ammeter

A
Figure 2
Figure 1
A battery of negligible internal resistance was used. As the switch was open, no
current flowed through the circuit. When the switch was closed, free electrons
(negatively charged) flowed away from the negative battery terminal, through the
circuit, and back to the positive battery terminal. The magnitude of current (amount
of charge per unit time) from this flow was measured by an ammeter of zero
resistance. The resistance (R) of the metal resistor was calculated in ohms (Ω) from
the values of the battery voltage (V) and magnitude of current (I). Due to the flow of
current through the coiled resistor, a magnetic field is developed inside it with a
strength (B) is dependent onto the magnitude of current, the number of turns
established and the length of the coiled resistor.

6
Experiment 1
Three iron resistor coils, the wire cross-sectional area was 3.14×10-6 m2. They
were attached separately to the circuit. Results were recorded in Table 1
Table 1
Length of resistor wire (m) Ammeter reading (A) Resistance (Ω)
25 7.500 0.8
50 3.750 1.6
100 1.875 3.2

Experiment 2
Three stainless steel resistor wires of different cross-sectional areas were tested.
Each resistor wire had a measured length of 100 m. The results were recorded in
Table 2.
Table 2
Radius of wire (mm) Ammeter reading (A) Resistance (Ω)
1.0 0.375 16.0
2.0 1.500 4.00
3.0 3.375 1.78

Experiment 3
Three coils made of different metals were tested. Each wire resistor had radius of
1 mm and a length of 100 m. The value σ is related to each metal conductivity at
room temperature in terms of current flow. Results were recorded in Table 3.
Table 3
Metal Metal conductivity Ammeter reading (A) Resistance (Ω)
(Ω .m )
-1 -1

Copper 6.0 x 10 7 11.25 0.53

7
Iron 1.0 x 10 1.875 3.20
7
Stainless steel 0.2 x 10 0.375 16.0

13-In Experiment 1, the current across the circuit decreased and the resistance of
the resistor increased as the:
a) Value σ of the metal resistor increased.
b) Cross-sectional area of the metal resistor decreased.
c) Length of the metal resistor decreased.
d) Length of the metal resistor increased.

7
14-In Experiment 2, which of the following aspects of the metal resistor was varied
and affected the magnitude of the current?
a) Length of the metal wire
b) Cross-sectional area of the coil
c) Cross-sectional area of the metal wire
d) Value of the conductivity of metal composing the coil

15-Depending on data given in Experiment 2, which of the graphs below represents

the relation between the ammeter reading and the wire radius:

Ammeter reading
Ammeter reading

Wire radius Wire radius

a) b)
Ammeter reading
Ammeter reading

Wire radius Wire radius

c) d)

16-In Experiment 2, assume that the geometry of the three coils used in the
experiment were identical. Which coil developed the strongest magnetic field as
the circuit is closed?
a) The coil having radius of 1mm.
b) The coil having radius of 2mm.
c) The coil having radius of 3mm.
d) The three coils developed identical magnetic fields.

8
17-Based on the results of Experiment 3, as σ increases, the metal ability to
conduct current increases. Which of the following correctly lists the metals
given in order of increasing the electric resistance when shaped as a wire coil?
a) Copper , iron , stainless steel
b) Copper , stainless steel , iron
c) Stainless steel , iron , copper
d) Iron , copper, stainless steel

18-Based on the results of the 3 experiments, the resistor with which of the
following values of length, cross-sectional area, and metal type will have the
highest current at a given voltage?
Metal Length Radius of wire
(m) (mm)
a) Iron 100 1
b) Iron 50 1
c) Stainless steel 100 1
d) Stainless steel 50 2

Passage IV: What is “Gravity”?

We have here two points of view of two scientists concerning gravity.

Scientist 1

Every mass attracts every other mass in the universe. The gravitational force
between two bodies is dependent on the objects masses, and inversely proportional
to the square of the distance between them. Spherical objects like planets and stars
act as if all of their mass is concentrated at their center, and so the distance between
objects should include their radius. The force of gravity works instantaneously at a
distance, and has an infinite range. Most importantly, it affects everything with mass
- and has nothing to do with an object’s charge or chemical composition. Gravity is
a predictable force that acts on all celestial bodies in the universe. Each particle
attracts every other particle (for instance, the “Earth” and “the moon”) with a
gravitational force. So, the nearer the particles are, and/or the more massive the
particles, the greater the gravitational force. When you deal with massive bodies like
the Earth, however, which has a mass of 6 x10 24 kilograms, it adds up to a rather

9
powerful gravitational force. That’s why objects on earth are not floating around in
space right now. The force of gravity acting on an object is also that object’s weight.

Scientist 2

Masses attract each other is a naïve idea. Gravity is a natural consequence of the
impact of mass on space. Gravity is not a force but it is a distortion of space (or more
precisely, spacetime) caused by the presence of matter or energy. Gravity actually
moved matter along the curving pathways embodied in spacetime — paths imprinted
by mass and energy themselves. A massive object generates a gravitational field by
warping the geometry of the surrounding spacetime. The curvature of spacetime
affects light rays. So, light is also affected by gravity. Gravity affects the paths of
photons, even though they have no mass. Massive objects in space will cause
warping or distortion of spacetime which we all “feel” as gravity. The effects of
gravity can be described by the curvature of space and time, usually just called
‘spacetime’ curvature. So, matter follows the curvature of space, but we know matter
is the source of gravity, so the curvature responds to matter as well. Space is nothing
more than the relative position of two systems.

19-Which of the following statements can explain the fact that our moon is not
moving to any other bigger planet in the solar system than the earth from the
perspective of scientist 1?
a) Earth is massive than the moon, therefore, it warps the moon with the
gravitational force.
b) The mass of our planet is greater than the mass of any other existing planet
in the solar system.
c) The distance between the moon and earth is less, therefore, the lesser the
distance the greater is the gravitational force
d) The distance between the moon and earth is greater as compared to other
bigger planets, therefore, the greater the distance, the greater is the
gravitational force

20-Gravity is directly proportional to the product of masses of the two objects.

Which of the following statement weakens this argument?
a) We are not floating on the surface of earth.
b) Bending of light rays passing near a massive particle.
c) If we throw an object in the air it comes back to the earth.
d) It is easier to lift the lighter object than the heavier one.

10
21-Which of the following statement explains the gravity from the perspective of
scientist 2?
a) Gravity does not exist between the two objects
b) Gravity is independent of the mass of the object
c) Gravity is directly proportional to the masses between the two objects
d) Gravity is caused because of the matter which distorts the space between the
two objects

22-We weigh slightly more on the mountains. How can we explain this fact from
the perspective of either scientist?
a) Scientist 1: The greater distance on mountains from earth center results in
lesser gravitational force
b) Scientist 1: The force of gravity increases on mountains due to increasing
distance from earth center.
c) Scientist 2: Space time curvature due to the presence of the massive
mountain.
d) Scientist 2: The greater gravitational field on mountains also distorts our
weight slightly

23-According to scientist 2, gravitation fields are generated is dependent on:

a) Spacetime
b) Weight of an object
c) Difference in masses
d) Presence of Matter

24-In 1919, astronomers photographed stars near the sun during a solar eclipse.
Comparing the positions of the stars in those photos with nighttime photos
taken earlier showed that the stars’ positions had a shift. This can be explained
by the view of:
a) Scientist 1 only
b) Scientist 2 only
c) Both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2
d) Neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2

11
25-Which of the following option best describes the gravity explained by two
scientists?
a) Scientist 1: Gravity can occur even if an object has no mass.
Scientist 2: Gravity cannot occur if an object has no mass.
b) Scientist 1: Gravity is inversely proportional to the masses of the object.
Scientist 2: Gravity is a force that comes from the difference in masses of
two objects.
c) Scientist 1: Gravity is directly proportional to the distance between objects.
Scientist 2: Gravity distorts space time between two objects.
d) Scientist 1: Gravity is a force that is directly proportional to the product of
masses of two objects.
Scientist 2: Gravity is not a force and it occurs naturally in the presence of
matter.

12
 SCIENCE 1 TEST

FORM A

Directions
This booklet contains Science 1 (Chemistry and Physics) test. There are 25 questions in
Chemistry and 25 questions in Physics. This test measures skills and abilities highly related
to course works completed in Grades 1, 2, and 3 STEM schools.

The questions in the test are numbered, and the suggested answers for each question are
lettered (A, B, C, and D). On the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered to match
the questions, and the ovals in each row are lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.

For each question, first decide which answer is best. Next, locate on the answer document the
row of ovals numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the oval in that row lettered the
same as your answer. Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil and make
your marks heavy and black (see below an example). DO NOT USE A PEN.

   

Mark only one answer to each question. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your
first mark thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each question, make certain that
you mark in the row of ovals with the same number as the question.

Only responses marked on your answer document will be scored. Your score on each test will
be based only on the number of questions you answer correctly during the time allowed for
that test. You will NOT be penalized for guessing. IT IS TO YOUR ADVANTAGE TO
ANSWER EVERY QUESTION EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.

If you finish a test before time is called for that test, you should use the time remaining to
reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test.

Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called at the end of the test. You may NOT
for any reason fill in or alter ovals for the test after time is called for that test. To do so will
disqualify you from the examination. Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

Page 1 (Form A)
 Chemistry Test
25 Questions – 45 Minutes
__________________________________________________

Passage I
Paper chromatography can be used to identify metal ions in wastewater. A drop of sample
solution is placed on filter paper. The bottom of the paper is set in a solvent that travels up
the paper (see Figure 1).

Figure 1

The solvent carries the ions up the paper. Some ions move faster and therefore farther than
others, resulting in a separation as they move up the paper. The paper is dried, and then
stained, causing the ions to appear as colored spots. Rf values are calculated for each spot:

Table 1 shows Rf values for 5 ions. Table 2 shows Rf values from 3 samples of wastewater.
The same solvent was used for all ions and samples.

Table 1
Molar mass Distance
Ion Rf Spot color
(g/mole) traveled (cm)
Nickel (Ni2+) 58.7 0.8 0.08 pink
Cobalt (Co2+) 58.9 3.5 0.35 brown-black
Copper (Cu2+) 63.5 6.0 0.60 blue
Cadmium (Cd2+) 112.4 7.8 0.78 yellow
Mercury (Hg2+) 200.6 9.5 0.95 brown-black

Table 1 adapted from Thomas McCullough, CSC, and Marissa Curlee, "Qualitative Analysis
of Cations Using Paper Chromatography." ©1993 by the American Chemical Society.

Page 2 (Form A)
 Table 2
Sample Rf Spot color
Note: Samples contain only the metal ions listed in Table 1.
0.60 blue
1
0.78 yellow
0.35 brown-black
2
0.95 brown-black
0.08 pink
3 0.78 yellow
0.95 brown-black

Question numbers 1 to 5 are related to this Passage I.

1. The information in Tables 1 and 2 supports the conclusion that Sample 2 contains:
A. Cu2+ and Cd2+ only.
B. Co2+ and Hg2+ only.
C. Ni2+, Co2+, and Cd2+ only.
D. Ni2+, Cd2+, and Hg2+ only.

2. Based on the information in Tables 1 and 2, one can conclude that Sample 3 contains:
A. 1 metal ion only.
B. 2 metal ions only.
C. either 1 or 2 metal ions.
D. more than 2 metal ions.

3. Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following lists, the metal ions in order
from the slowest to fastest speed with which they moved up the paper?
A. Hg2+, Cd2+, Cu2+, Co2+, Ni2+.
B. Cd2+, Cu2+, Co2+, Hg2+, Ni2+.
C. Ni2+, Hg2+, Co2+, Cu2+, Cd2+.
D. Ni2+, Co2+, Cu2+, Cd2+, Hg2+.

4. Based on the information in Table 2, to best identify a metal ion using paper
chromatography, one should know the:
A. spot color for the ion, distance the solvent traveled.
B. distance the solvent traveled and Rf.
C. distance the solvent traveled and spot color of the icon, molar and Rf.
D. Rf value and spot color for the ion.

Page 3 (Form A)
5. Based on the information in Table 2, which of the following figures best illustrates the
appearance of the filter paper after Sample 1 was analyzed?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Passage II
Acid-base titration is a technique in which precise volumes of a titrant (an acid or base
solution) are added incrementally to a known volume of a sample solution (a base or acid
solution, respectively). This process can be monitored by adding an acid-base indicator (a
substance that changes color over a certain pH range) to the sample solution or by measuring
the sample solution’s conductivity. Conductivity (measured in kilosiemens per centimeter,
kS/cm) is a measure of a substance’s ability to conduct electricity.

Two titration experiments were done at 25°C using a 0.10 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
solution and either a 0.0010 M hydrochloric acid (HCl) solution or a 0.0010 M acetic acid
solution (where M is moles of acid or base per liter of solution). All solutions were aqueous.
An acid-base indicator solution of nitrazine yellow was also used. Nitrazine yellow is yellow
if the pH is less than 6.0 or blue if the pH is greater than 7.0.

Experiment 1
A drop of nitrazine yellow solution was added to a flask containing 100.0 mL of the HCl
solution. A probe that measures conductivity was placed in the solution. The NaOH solution
was slowly added to the HCl solution in small increments. After each addition, the HCl
solution was stirred and then the solution’s color and conductivity were recorded (see Figure
1).

Figure 1

Page 4 (Form A)
Experiment 2
Experiment 1 was repeated, except that the acetic acid solution was used instead of the HCl
solution (see Figure 2).

Figure 2

Question numbers 6 to 11 are related to this Passage II.

6. In Experiment 1, the sample solution was blue at which of the following values for the
volume of titrant added?
A. 0.80 mL.
B. 1.20 mL.
C. 1.60 mL.
D. 2.00 mL.

Page 5 (Form A)
7. In Experiment 2, the sample solution was acidic at which of the following values for the
volume of titrant added?
A. 0.50 mL.
B. 1.00 mL.
C. 1.50 mL.
D. 2.00 mL.

8. In Experiment 1, if 1.30 mL of titrant had been added to the sample solution, the
conductivity would most likely have been:
A. less than 0.80 kS/cm.
B. between 1.80 kS/cm and 2.10 kS/cm.
C. between 2.30 kS/cm and 3.80 kS/cm.
D. greater than 3.80 kS/cm.

9. In Experiment 2, which solution was the titrant and which solution was the sample
solution?
Titrant Sample Solution
A. NaOH Acetic acid
B. HCl NaOH
C. Acetic acid NaOH
D. NaOH HCl

10. In Experiments 1 and 2, the probe that was placed in the sample solution most likely did
which of the following?
A. Cooled the solution to its freezing point.
B. Passed an electrical current through a portion of the solution.
C. Detected the concentration of nitrazine yellow in the solution.
D. Heated the solution to its boiling point.

PLEASE CONTINUE

Page 6 (Form A)
11. A chemist claimed that in Experiment 2, the pH of the sample solution was smaller at a
value of 0.5 mL of titrant added than at a value of 1.5 mL of titrant added. Do the results of
Experiment 2 support this claim?
A. No; at a value of 0.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow, and at a
value of 1.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was blue.
B. No; at a value of 0.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was blue, and at a value
of 1.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.
C. Yes; at a value of 0.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow, and at a
value of 1.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was blue.
D. Yes; at a value of 0.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was blue, and at a value
of 1.5 mL of titrant added, the sample solution was yellow.

Passage III
The rate of a chemical reaction is obtained by dividing the amount of a chemical consumed in
a reaction by the time in which the chemical is consumed. The rate at which a chemical
reaction occurs is dependent on many variables, two of which are the concentration of a
chemical in solution and the temperature at which the reaction occurs. In order to determine
the effects of concentration and temperature on reaction rates, a chemist studied the following
reaction sequence.

slow
Reaction 1: HCHO + Na2SO3 + H2O NaO3SOCH3 + NaOH
fast
Reaction 2: NaOH + NaHSO3 Na2SO3 + H2O

While Reaction 1 occurs slowly, Reaction 2 happens instantaneously. Both of the reactions
occur in the same solution, so no base (NaOH) is built up in solution until all the NaHSO3 is
used. Phenolphthalein, which is also in the solution, will cause the solution to turn pink when
a measurable amount of base is present.

Experiment 1
A standard solution of formaldehyde (HCHO) in water was prepared. This solution contained
0.3 mole of HCHO per liter of solution (0.3 M HCHO) and a small amount of
phenolphthalein. This solution was diluted further with varying amounts of water and mixed
with 10.0 mL of a 0.01 M solution of both Na2SO3 and NaHSO3 in water. The time required
for the pink color to appear is shown in Table 1.

PLEASE CONTINUE
Table 1

Page 7 (Form A)
 Volume of Volume of Volume of Time required for
Trial 0.3 M HCHO water added to 0.01 M Na2SO3 color change (s)
solution (mL) HCHO solution and NaHSO3 (mL)
(mL)
1 10.0 0.0 10.0 18
2 9.0 1.0 10.0 20
3 8.0 2.0 10.0 23
4 7.0 3.0 10.0 26
5 6.0 4.0 10.0 30
6 5.0 5.0 10.0 36
7 4.0 6.0 10.0 45
8 3.0 7.0 10.0 60
9 2.0 8.0 10.0 90
10 1.0 9.0 10.0 180

Experiment 2
The chemist mixed 10.0 mL of the HCHO solution at 1/2 the original concentration with 10.0
mL of the 0.01 M solution containing Na2SO3 and NaHSO3. The temperature of the reaction
was varied, and the time required for the pink color to appear is recorded in Table 2.

Table 2
Temperature Time required for
(°C) color change (s)
5° 110
10° 80
15° 58
20° 43
25° 36
30° 30
35° 28
40° 27

Question numbers 12 to 17 are related to this Passage III.

12. In order to display the relationship between temperature and the rate of the reaction more
effectively in Experiment 2, the chemist could:
A. Construct a bar graph of the concentration of formaldehyde in each trial.
B. Plot the HCHO concentration against the time required for the color change.
C. Plot the change in Na2SO3 and NaHSO3 concentrations in each trial against the
HCHO concentrations.
D. Produce a table cataloging the differences between temperature and the times for the
color changes in successive trials.

13. Which of the following trials in Experiment 1 had the least concentration of HCHO?
A. Trial 2.

Page 8 (Form A)
 B. Trial 4.
C. Trial 6.
D. Trial 10.

14. If Reaction 1 was found to be exothermic (heat producing), how could Experiment 1 be
modified to examine only the effect of temperature on reaction rate?
A. The concentration of formaldehyde could be increased.
B. A different method could be used to determine the color change.
C. The concentration of the solution could be set to be constant.
D. The temperature of the solution could be increased.

15. The slowest rate of reaction in Experiment 1 occurred when the:

A. time for the color change to occur was greatest.
B. concentration of NaOH was greatest in the reaction mixture.
C. concentration of HCHO was smallest in the reaction mixture.
D. concentration of HCHO was greatest in the reaction mixture.

16. The role of phenolphthalein in both experiments was to:

A. signal when the NaOH was formed.
B. signal when the HCHO was consumed.
C. cause the HCHO solution to react.
D. slow down the rate of reaction.

17. Which of the following experiments would most likely produce additional data about
other variables that affect the rate of these reactions?
A. Conducting Experiment 1 with smaller amounts of phenolphthalein.
B. Conducting Experiment 1 with larger concentrations of HCHO.
C. Varying the concentrations of Na2SO3 and NaHSO3 while keeping the HCHO
concentration constant.
D. Rising temperature in experiment 2.

Page 9 (Form A)
 Passage IV
A student studying how gases diffuse derived the following formula. The following
experiments were conducted to test her formula and to study factors affecting the rate at
which gases diffuse.
Experiment 1
When hydrogen chloride (HCl) and ammonia (NH3) vapors react, they form solid ammonium
chloride (NH4Cl):
HCl(g) + NH3(g) → NH4Cl(s)
A swab soaked with HCl solution was inserted into one end of a glass tube (1 cm diameter),
and, simultaneously, a swab soaked with NH3 solution was inserted into the other end, so that
the swabs were 10 cm apart. The distance that each vapor traveled could be determined
because, at the point they made contact, a white ring of NH4Cl formed (see Figure 1). The
reaction was done at different temperatures. The time it took for the ring to start to form and
its distance from the HCl swab were measured for each trial (see Table 1).

Table 1
Trial Temperature (°C) Time (sec) Distance of ring from HCl swab (cm)
1 20 33 4.0
2 30 30 4.1
3 40 26 4.1
4 50 23 4.0

Using the formula, the student predicted that the distance of the ring from the HCl swab
would be 4.06 cm, so the student concluded that her formula was correct.

Figure 1

Experiment 2
Experiment 1 was repeated, but the temperature was held constant at 20°C and the diameter
of the tube was varied for each trial (see Table 2).

Table 2
Trial Tube diameter (cm) Time (sec) Distance of ring from HCl swab (cm)
5 1.0 33 4.0
6 1.2 33 4.0
7 1.4 33 4.1
8 1.6 33 4.0

Experiment 3
Experiment 2 was repeated, but the diameter of the tube was kept constant at 1 cm and longer
tubes were used so that the distance between the swabs could be varied for each trial (see
Table 3).

Page 10 (Form A)
 Table 3
Trial Distance between swabs (cm) Time (sec) Distance of ring from HCl swab (cm)
9 10 33 4.0
10 20 67 8.1
11 30 101 12.2
12 40 133 16.2

Question numbers 18 to 23 are related to this Passage IV.

18. Which of the following sets of trials in Experiments 1, 2, and 3 were conducted with
different sets of conditions?
A. Trials 2, 3, and 4.
B. Trials 1, 5, and 9.
C. Trials 4, 7, and 9.
D. Trials 10, 11, and 12.

19. Based on the results of Experiment 1, which of the following graphs best shows the
relationship between the temperature and the distance of the ring from the HCl swab?
A.

B.

C.

D.

20. If a trial in Experiment 3 had been performed with the swabs 35 cm apart, the distance
from the HCl swab to the ring would most likely have been closest to:
A. 8 cm.

Page 11 (Form A)
 B. 10 cm.
C. 12 cm.
D. 14 cm.

21. If a student wanted to test a factor that was studied in Experiments 1–3, which of the
following should he do next? He should test how the diffusion rates of gases are affected by:
A. atmospheric pressure.
B. tube length.
C. temperature.
D. tube diameter.

22. The student concluded that the rate of NH3 diffusion decreases by increasing tube length.
Do the results of Experiments 1–3 support her conclusion?
A. No; in Trials 1–9 the NH3 vapors traveled farther.
B. Yes; in Trials 10–12 the NH3 vapors traveled farther than the HCl vapors.
C. Yes; in Trials 1–9 the NH3 vapors traveled farther.
D. No; in Trials 10–12 the NH3 vapors traveled farther.

23. Which of the following best describes the difference between the procedures used in
Experiments 1 and 2? In Experiment 1, the:
A. temperature was varied; in Experiment 2, the distance between the swabs was varied.
B. diameter of the tube was varied; in Experiment 2, the temperature was varied.
C. distance between the swabs was varied; in Experiment 2, the temperature was varied.
D. temperature was varied; in Experiment 2, the diameter of the tube was varied.

Passage V
Substances in the atmosphere, such as Cu2+, Zn2+, Cl-, and SO42--ions, are carried down to
Earth’s surface by precipitation. This process is known as wet deposition. Cu2+-and Zn2+-ions
are put into the atmosphere by high temperature combustion processes. The presence of Cl-
and SO42--ions in the atmosphere can be attributed to road-salt dust and electrical power
generation, respectively.

Study 1
A rain gauge, placed on the roof of a 1-story building, at a specific urban site was used to
collect precipitation over a 12-month period. At the same time each evening, the amount of
precipitation in the rain gauge was recorded, after which the collected precipitation was
emptied from the gauge and stored. (Assume no measurable evaporation occurred during any
day.) Figure 1 shows the measured monthly precipitation in centimeters.

Figure 1

Page 12 (Form A)
At the end of each month, all the samples collected during that month were mixed, and some
of this combined sample was analyzed for the concentrations of Cu2+ and Zn2+-ions. Using
these data, the monthly wet deposition of each substance, in micrograms (μg) per meter2, was
calculated (see Figure 2).

Figure 2

Study 2
Another portion of the combined sample for each month was analyzed for the concentrations
of Cl--and SO42--ions. Using these data, the monthly wet deposition of each substance, in
milliequivalents (meq) per m2, was calculated (see Figure 3).

Figure 3

Study 3
The annual wet deposition of Cu2+ and of Zn2+-for the 12-month period, in μg/m2, was
calculated for the urban site (the source of the Cu2+ and Zn2+) and also for Rural Sites 1 and

Page 13 (Form A)
2, located 50 km and 100 km east, respectively, of the urban site (see Figure 4).

Figure 4

Figures adapted from Kathryn Conko et al., “Atmospheric Wet Deposition of Trace Elements
to a Suburban Environment, Reston, Virginia, USA.“ ©2004 by Elsevier, Ltd.

Question numbers 24 and 25 are related to this Passage V.

24. According to Study 3, as distance from the urban site decreased, the annual wet
deposition:
A. increased for both Cu2+-and Zn2+.
B. increased for Cu2+-but decreased for Zn2+.
C. decreased for both Cu2+-and Zn2+.
D. remained the same for both Cu2+-and Zn2+.

25. Which of the following used in annual measuring of wet deposition in study 1 and 2?
A. Site of collection.
B. Monthly rainfall.
C. Wet deposition of Zn2+.
D. Wet deposition of Cl-.

END OF CHEMISTRY TEST

STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.

Page 14 (Form A)
 Physics Test
25 Questions – 45 Minutes
__________________________________________________
Passage I
Spent fuel (SF), a radioactive waste, is often buried underground in canisters for disposal. As
it decays, SF generates high heat and raises the temperature of the surrounding rock, which
may expand and crack, allowing radioactivity to escape into the environment. Scientists
wanted to determine which of 4 rock types—rock salt, granite, basalt, or shale—would be
least affected by the heat from SF. The thermal conductivity (how well heat is conducted
through a material) and heating trends of the 4 rock types were studied.
Study 1
Fifty holes, each 0.5 m across and 20 m deep, were dug into each of the following: a rock salt
deposit, granite bedrock, basalt bedrock, and shale bedrock. A stainless steel canister
containing 0.4 metric tons of SF was buried in each hole. The rock temperature was measured
next to each canister after 1 year had passed. The results are shown in Table 1, along with the
typical thermal conductivity of each rock type, in Watts per meter per °C (W/m°C), at 25°C.
The higher the thermal conductivity, the more quickly heat is conducted through the rock and
away from the canisters.
Table 1
Rock Thermal conductivity (W/m°C) Rock temperature (°C)*
*All rock types had an initial temperature of 10°C.
Rock salt 5.70 110
Granite 2.80 121
Basalt 1.26 165
Shale 1.57 146

Study 2
The scientists determined the thermal conductivity of the 4 rock types at a number of
different temperatures between 0°C and 400°C. The results are shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1

Page 15 (Form A)
Study 3
The scientists calculated the temperature increase that would be expected over a period of
100,000 years in each rock type at a point within a site holding buried SF. The results are
shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Question numbers 1 to 6 are related to this Passage I.

1. Based on study 3, since burying the canisters the interval of time in which the rate of
dissipated heat through the four types of rocks due to their thermal conductivity becomes
equal to the rate of generating heat by SF (point of dynamic equilibrium) is expected to
range:
A. Between 1 – 10 years.
B. Between 10 – 50 years.
C. Between 50 – 100 years.
D. Between 100 – 150 years.

2. Based only on the information provided, which of the following rock types would be the
least in safety in which to bury SF?
A. Rock salt.
B. Granite.
C. Basalt.
D. Shale.

Page 16 (Form A)
3. According to the results of Study 1, which of the following best describes the relationship
between thermal conductivity and rock temperature? The graphs represent patterns to the
rock temp with thermal conductivity is:
A. Thermal conductivity

Thermal conductivity Temperature

B.

Temperature
C. Thermal conductivity

Thermal conductivity
D. Temperature

Temperature

4. Gabbro (another rock type) has a thermal conductivity of 5.1 W/m°C at 25°C. If
measurements of the temperature of this rock type adjacent to SF canisters were taken as in
Study 1, the recorded temperature would be closest to:
A. 105°C.
B. 110°C.
C. 115°C.
D. 125°C.

5. According to Study 3, if another set of temperatures had been calculated for a time 120,000
years in the future, the calculated temperature increase in any of the 4 rock types would most
likely between:
A. 0°C - 10°C.
B. 10°C - 20°C.
C. 20°C - 25°C.
D. 25°C - 30°C.

6. According to Study 2, the thermal conductivity of rock salt measured at a temperature of

500°C would be closest to which of the following values?
A. 1.5 W/m°C.

Page 17 (Form A)
 B. 2.0 W/m°C.
C. 2.5 W/m°C.
D. 3.0 W/m°C.

Passage II
The mammalian eye is designed to collect light and focus it onto the retina. The retina
consists of an array of cells, each having the ability to detect light falling on its surface. Most
of the refraction (and thus focusing) of incoming light rays takes place at the interface
between air and the cornea.
The lens does the fine tuning, changing the focal length so the image lands exactly on the
retina. The tuning is necessary since the eye must be able to bring into focus light from
objects as close as 0.1 m as well as light from an infinitely distant source.
Spatial resolution is the ability of the eye to distinguish waves coming from different
directions. For example, if a distant car is facing you at night with its headlights on, you can
see two distinct headlights, since the light from the two headlights approaches your eye from
two directions (see figure). If the car is far enough away, however, your eye lacks the
resolution to distinguish the headlights, and you see only one light source.

Resolution is measured in degrees or radians. For instance, if your eye can just resolve two
headlights which are 1.5 m apart on a car which is 1 km away, then the angular separation of
the lights is approximately 1.5 m/1000 m = 1.5 x 10-3 radians. The resolution of your eye is
1.5 x 10-3 rad or 0.09 degrees (since 1 rad ≈ 57o) or 5 seconds of an arc. To a good
approximation, the angular separation of two light sources (or features on any sort) is the
ratio of spatial separation Δx to distance from the point of reference L. (See figure.) Thus, the
better the resolution the smaller the resolution angle.

Ultimately the spatial resolution of any detector, including the eye, is limited by diffraction,
which is the spreading of waves. When waves pass through an aperture, they spread on the
other side subtending an angle given by:

= (1)

Where is measured in radians, λ is the wavelength of the wave involved, and d is the
diameter of the hole through which the waves must pass. Of course, diffraction is the physical
limit of the resolution. The actual resolution of a detector may be much poorer than equation
(1) would indicate if it is poorly designed. The human eye, when functioning properly, is

Page 18 (Form A)
essentially diffraction limited.
For the following problems use c = 3.0 x 108 m/s. Green light has a wavelength of 520 nm in
a vacuum. (1 nm = 10-9 m).
Question numbers 7 to 14 are related to this Passage II.

7. What is the frequency of green light?

A. 64 x 10-3 Hz.
B. 160 Hz.
C. 5.8 x 1014 Hz.
D. 1.2 x 1015 Hz.

8. In question 2, what angle is subtended by the moth in the view of the eye?
A. 2.3o.
B. 4.6o.
C. 15o.
D. 30o.

9. A human eye is focused on a moth of size 0.01 m located 0.25 m away. The front to back
length of the eye 0.025 m. What is the size of the image on the retina?
A. 10-4 m.
B. 2.3 x 10-4 m.
C. 10-3 m.
D. 0.023 m.

10. The cornea is made of a material which has a larger index of refraction for blue light than
for red light. If the eye is focusing a beam of red light onto the retina, where would the focus
for a beam of blue light fall?
A. In front of the retina.
B. On the retina.
C. Behind the retina.
D. Both in front of and behind the retina.

11. An engineer is working on a camera to photograph the distant landscape in foreign

countries. He has designed a camera with a lens which focuses incoming light on a detector.
The camera is essentially diffraction limited, but the resolution is not good enough. Which of
the following could improve the resolution?
A. Increase the distance from the lens to the detector.

Page 19 (Form A)
 B. Improve the lens shape.
C. Change the material of the lens to be more transparent.
D. Increase the size of the whole camera.

12. A Seurat painting consists of many dots of paint about 0.002 m in diameter. If you view it
from a great enough distance, the dots of color appear to blend together, and you see a
coherent picture. The resolution of your diffraction-limited eye is 2 x 10-4 radians. If you
wanted to know how far away need you be for the dots to blur together, at what distance
away you must stand?
A. you must stand 2 m away.
B. you must stand 4 m away.
C. you must stand 5 m away.
D. you must stand 10 m away.

13. The figure shows a cross section of the Hubble Space Telescope (HST) (length 13.1 m
and diameter 4.3 m).

Light comes in from the right and is focused by the primary mirror (focal length 13 m). The
focus is directed by a secondary mirror into detection apparatus (not shown). The perimeter
of the mirror is a circle whose diameter is 2.4 m. if the HST is used for viewing galaxies in
visible light, which of the following gives an estimate for the best resolution we could hope
for?
A. 2 x 10-7 radians.
B. 0.045 radians.
C. 0.09 radians.
D. 0.18 radians.

14. A cat’s eye, adapted for seeing at night, has a larger pupil than a human eye and a much
larger lens. The resolution for a cat’s eye, however, is not better than that of a human eye,
which is almost diffraction limited. Which of the following is a possible explanation for
the lack of resolution in a cat’s eye?
A. The larger pupil allows more light to enter the eye.
B. The larger pupil restricts the amount of directional information entering the eye.

Page 20 (Form A)
 C. The large lens introduces chromatic aberration.
D. The large lens introduces spherical aberration.

Passage III
The relationship between an applied force and the resulting acceleration of a cart carrying
different masses is studied. (See figure 1.) The cart moves from A to B, and distance and time
measurements are made. Laboratory weights are used for the applied force. The surface over
which the cart travels is level and nearly frictionless. A timer that makes a mark every 1
second is attached to the underside of the cart. The marks are recorded on a strip of paper that
lies flat on the surface over which the cart travels. The timer starts simultaneously with the
release of the cart. The marks on the paper are measured, and the distance from Point A is
recorded. The distances represent the location of the cart after each 1 second interval.
Velocity was calculated at each data point. Average acceleration was calculated by dividing
the change in velocity for each interval by the length of time of each interval. The measured
and calculated data are given in Table 1.

Figure 1

Table 1
Trial Data point Force Mass Distance Velocity Average
(Newton) (kg) from A (m) (m/s) acceleration (m/s2)
1 1 0.5 0.2 0.010 0.20 2.0
2 0.5 0.2 0.040 0.40 2.0
3 0.5 0.2 0.090 0.60 2.0
4 0.5 0.2 0.160 0.80 2.0
2 1 2.0 0.1 0.033 0.65 6.5
2 2.0 0.1 0.130 1.30 6.5
3 2.0 0.1 0.293 1.95 6.5
4 2.0 0.1 0.520 2.60 6.5

3 1 2.0 0.2 0.025 0.49 4.9

2 2.0 0.2 0.098 0.98 4.9
3 2.0 0.2 0.220 1.47 4.9
4 2.0 0.2 0.392 1.96 4.9
kg = kilograms
m = meters
s = seconds

Page 21 (Form A)
Question numbers 15 to 19 are related to this Passage III.
15. Mass is added to the cart by the addition of a wooden block that rests on top of it. When
the force is increased to 4.0 Newton, the block falls off as the cart begins to accelerate. Why
does it fall off when the force is increased to this level?
A. The force accelerating the cart becomes large enough so that the force of friction
holding the block on is overcome.
B. The force of friction holding the block in place becomes large enough to overcome
the force accelerating the cart.
C. The mass of the cart becomes too large, and the load must be reduced for the cart to
accelerate.
D. The acceleration becomes non-uniform with this force.

16. If Trial 3 were redone with a force of 4.0 Newton, then compared to that found in Trial 3,
the average acceleration would be:
A. initially lower and decreasing.
B. initially lower and constant.
C. initially higher and constant.
D. initially higher but decreasing.

17. Another experiment showed the velocities for a trial to be 1.0 m/s, 2.5 m/s, 4.5 m/s, and
7.0 m/s when measured in the same way. What trend occurred in the average acceleration?
A. It was constant.
B. It decreased by 1.0 m/s2 each interval.
C. It increased by 5.0 m/s2 each interval.
D. It increased by 6.0 m/s2 each interval.

18. If the 3 trials could be run simultaneously on parallel setups, in what order, from first to
last, would the carts get to Point B?
A. Trial 1, Trial 2, Trial 3.
B. Trial 1, Trial 3, Trial 2.
C. Trial 2, Trial 3, Trial 1.
D. Trial 3, Trial 2, Trial 1.
19. If data had been collected for a fifth data point in Trial 3, what would the velocity have
been?
A. 1.96 m/s
B. 2.21 m/s
C. 2.45 m/s
D. 4.9 m/s

Page 22 (Form A)
 Passage IV
The radio waves which carry information in a standard broadcast are an example of
electromagnetic radiation. These waves are a disturbance, not of a material medium, but of
electric and magnetic fields. When the wave is linearly polarized, the electric field points in
a direction perpendicular to the propagation of the wave, although its magnitude varies, of
course, in space and time. The magnetic field points in a direction perpendicular to the wave
propagation and to the electric field, and the two fields propagate in phase.

The electromagnetic radiation is generated by an antenna, which is a wire or metal rod which
points perpendicular to the direction of the intended wave propagation. An alternating
current is generated in the antenna, whose frequency is the same as that of the radiation to be
produced. The electric field of the resulting electromagnetic radiation points along the same
axis as the current.

The electric field of the electromagnetic radiation encounters electron on the receiving
antenna, which is another wire or metal rod. The electric field creates a current mission and
reception is to have the length of the antenna be one quarter of the wavelength of the
electromagnetic wave.

For the following questions, consider a situation in which a transmitting antenna points
vertically, and the receiving antenna is directly to the north. The speed of light is 3 x 108m/s.

Question numbers 20 to 25 are related to this Passage IV.

20. For a point between the two antennas, what is the direction of the electric field vector for
the radiation?
A. North/south.
B. East/west.
C. North/south or east/west.
D. Up/down.

21. For a point between the two antennas, what is the direction of the magnetic field vector
for the radiation?
A. North/south.
B. East/west
C. North/south or east/west
D. Up/down.

22. If the alternating current in the transmitting antenna has a frequency of 107 Hz, what

Page 23 (Form A)
would be a reasonable length for an efficient antenna, according to the
A. 7.5 m
B. 30 m
C. 60 m
D. 120 m

23. Which of the following best describes the energy flow?

A. Electrical to electromagnetic to electrical.
B. Electromagnetic to electrical to electromagnetic.
C. Mechanical to electromagnetic to mechanical.
D. Kinetic to electromagnetic to kinetic.

24. What would be the best orientation of the receiving antenna?

A. North/south, that is, pointing toward the transmitting antenna.
B. Vertical.
C. East/west.
D. Any orientation would suffice.

25. In the third paragraph, how does the electric field create a current of the receiving
antenna?
A. The electric field changes the resistance of the antenna.
B. The electric field exerts a force on the electrons.
C. The electric field boosts the electrons to higher energy orbitals in the atoms.
D. The electric field polarizes the electrons.

END OF SCIENCE 1 TEST

STOP!

Page 24 (Form A)