2023 English Exam

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MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 1

 English Exam Instructions
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● You will have 120 minutes (2 hours) to complete 75 multiple choice questions. You
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MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 2
 Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions. After reading each passage,
choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the
passage.

Questions 1-4 are based on the following passage.

You have probably seen news stories about athletes who died of heat stroke, or hikers who
died of exposure to cold. Such deaths occur because the chemical reactions upon which
the body depends can only take place within a narrow range of body temperature, from just
below to just above 37°C (98.6°F). When body temperature rises well above or drops well
below normal, certain proteins (enzymes) that facilitate chemical reactions lose their
normal structure and their ability to function and the chemical reactions of metabolism
cannot proceed.

That said, the body can respond effectively to short-term exposure to heat or cold. One of
the body’s responses to heat is, of course, sweating. As sweat evaporates from skin, it
removes some thermal energy from the body, cooling it. Adequate water (from the
extracellular fluid in the body) is necessary to produce sweat, so adequate fluid intake is
essential to balance that loss during the sweat response. Not surprisingly, the sweat
response is much less effective in a humid environment because the air is already saturated
with water. Thus, the sweat on the skin’s surface is not able to evaporate, and internal body
temperature can get dangerously high.

The body can also respond effectively to short-term exposure to cold. One response to cold
is shivering, which is random muscle movement that generates heat. Another response is
increased breakdown of stored energy to generate heat. When that energy reserve is
depleted, however, and the core temperature begins to drop significantly, red blood cells
will lose their ability to give up oxygen, denying the brain of this critical component of ATP
production. This lack of oxygen can cause confusion, lethargy, and eventually loss of
consciousness and death. The body responds to cold by reducing blood circulation to the
extremities, the hands and feet, in order to prevent blood from cooling there and so that the
body’s core can stay warm. Even when core body temperature remains stable, however,
tissues exposed to severe cold, especially the fingers and toes, can develop frostbite when
blood flow to the extremities has been much reduced. This form of tissue damage can be
permanent and lead to gangrene, requiring amputation of the affected region.

Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology textbook

Question 1
In the context of this passage, what does facilitate mean?
(a) Reducing the occurrence of something
(b) Making something possible
(c) Moving back and forth
(d) Emphasizing something

Question 2
Imagine that a person is outside in very cold conditions. Using the information you have
read in the passage, how might their body respond to the cold?
(a) By increasing the blood to her hands and feet
(b) By becoming lethargic to conserve heat

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 3

 (c) By breaking down stored energy
(d) By significantly increasing blood oxygen levels

Question 3
Why might it be dangerous for someone hiking in hot weather to run out of water?
(a) Because the sweat is unable to evaporate from the skin, so must be washed off with
water
(b) Because not drinking fluids in hot weather can cause tissue damage
(c) Because the body’s enzymes require enough water to produce chemical reactions
for normal metabolic functions
(d) Because without drinking water, fluid lost through sweating cannot be replaced

Question 4
According to the passage, what is a consequence of reduced blood flow to hands and feet?
(a) Tissue damage
(b) Red blood cells lose their ability to carry oxygen
(c) Shivering
(d) Loss of consciousness and death

Questions 5–8 are based on the following passage.

Animals vary in form and function. From a sea sponge to a worm to a goat, an organism
has a distinct body plan that limits its size and shape. Animals’ bodies are also designed to
interact with their environments, whether in the deep sea, a rainforest canopy, or the desert.
Therefore, a large amount of information about the structure of an organism's body
(anatomy) and the function of its cells, tissues and organs (physiology) can be learned by
studying that organism's environment.
Animal body plans follow set patterns related to symmetry. They are asymmetrical, radial,
or bilateral in form. Asymmetrical animals are animals with no pattern or symmetry; an
example of an asymmetrical animal is a sea sponge. Radial symmetry describes when an
animal has an up-and-down orientation: any plane cut along its longitudinal axis through the
organism produces equal halves, but not a definite right or left side. This is found mostly in
aquatic animals, especially organisms that attach themselves to a base, like a rock or a
boat, and extract their food from the surrounding water as it flows around the organism. An
example of bilateral symmetry is a goat. The goat also has an upper and lower component
to it, but a plane cut from front to back separates the animal into definite right and left sides.
Additional terms used when describing positions in the body are anterior (front), posterior
(rear), dorsal (toward the back), and ventral (toward the stomach). Bilateral symmetry is
found in both land-based and aquatic animals; it enables a high level of mobility.

Animals with bilateral symmetry that live in water tend to have a fusiform shape: this is a
tubular shaped body that is tapered at both ends. This shape decreases the drag on the
body as it moves through water and allows the animal to swim at high speeds. Certain types
of sharks can swim at fifty kilometers per hour and some dolphins at 32 to 40 kilometers per
hour. Land animals frequently travel faster, although the tortoise and snail are significantly
slower than cheetahs. Another difference in the adaptations of aquatic and land-dwelling
organisms is that aquatic organisms are constrained in shape by the forces of drag in the
water since water has higher viscosity than air. On the other hand, land-dwelling organisms
are constrained mainly by gravity, and drag is relatively unimportant. For example, most
adaptations in birds are for gravity not for drag.
Source: OpenStax Biology textbook

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Question 5
The symmetry found in animals that move swiftly is:
(a) Radial
(b) Bilateral
(c) Sequential
(d) Asymmetrical

Question 6
Although most animals are bilaterally symmetrical, a few exhibit radial symmetry. What is
an advantage of radial symmetry?
(a) It allows the animal to gather food from all sides.
(b) It confuses predators.
(c) It allows the animal to undergo rapid, purposeful movement in any direction.
(d) It lets an animal use its dorsal surface to sense its environment.

Question 7
What does constrained mean in the context of this passage?
(a) Enhanced
(b) Stopped
(c) Forced
(d) Limited

Question 8
Why have aquatic and land-dwelling animals adapted differently?
(a) Because they have different symmetry patterns
(b) Because they face different forces in their environments
(c) Because land animals are much faster than aquatic animals
(d) Because land animals are bilateral and aquatic animals are asymmetrical

Questions 9–12 are based on the following passage.

Human species were migratory from the beginning, moving as small populations of
gatherers and hunters within eastern and southern Africa. By following game and the
availability of seasonal vegetation from place to place, these small groups of nomads
learned about their landscape, interacted with each other, and met their subsistence needs.
Their daily needs came through interaction with a changing environment. With the
emergence of Homo erectus around 1.89 million years BP (before the present), hominins
expanded their territories and began to exhibit increasing control over their environment
and an ability to adapt, evidenced by the development of new subsistence systems,
including cultivation, pastoralism, and agriculture, and an upsurge in migration within Africa
and, eventually, into Asia and Europe. This expansion into new geographical regions was
a hallmark of the later human species.

There are several theories on possible migratory sequences within and beyond the African
continent. One possibility is that by 1.75 million years ago, Homo ergaster had begun
migrating out of Africa, moving northward into Eurasia. Another theory argues that an earlier
hominin species, either australopithecine or an early as-yet-unknown species of the genus
Homo, migrated out of Africa around 2 million years ago, eventually evolving into the
population of Dmanisi hominins who were settled in eastern Europe by 1.85 million years
ago, possibly representing another link between H. erectus and H. ergaster. Although
settlement dates are currently being retested and reexamined for precision (Matsu’ura et al.

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2020), it is known that between 1.3 and 1.6 million years ago, H. erectus settled on Java,
an island that is now part of Indonesia. They likely traveled there by a land route, as seas
were lower during the Pleistocene Ice Age (approximately 2.588 million–11,700 years ago),
allowing for more passage through interior coastal routes.

Regardless of the specific time frame and migration pattern, it is well established that
there was gene flow between various hominin populations, which indicates that there were
migration and exchange. With the migration of these early hominin populations, cultural
practices and improvements in toolmaking spread as well. Wherever humans traveled, they
carried with them their traditions, intermingling and reproducing both physically and
culturally.

Source: OpenStax Anthropology textbook

Question 9
Based on the information in the passage, what is the best definition of migration?
(a) The growth of the human species
(b) The exchange of genes and cultural practices
(c) The movement of people from one place to another with intentions of settling,
permanently or temporarily, at a new location
(d) The movement of people out of the African continent to Europe and Asia

Question 10
According to the passage, how has migration contributed to human evolution?
(a) Migration resulted in both physical sharing, through the mixing of genes, and cultural
sharing from various hominin populations
(b) Homo ergaster and Homo erectus are the two main genus species that combined to
create the modern human
(c) The migration into Asia and Europe resulted in the evolution of the modern human
species
(d) Migration resulted in the development of new agricultural systems and the ability to
control their environments

Question 11
What word could be used to replace exhibit in this passage?
(a) Produce
(b) Display
(c) Use
(d) Consider

Question 12
What does the phrase ‘it is well established’ mean in the context of this passage?
(a) The knowledge has been existence for a long time
(b) The knowledge has only very recently been discovered
(c) The knowledge can only be found in textbooks
(d) The knowledge is good quality

Questions 13–16 are based on the following passage.

There are two main kinds of historical sources, primary and secondary. A primary source
is a gateway to the past because it is an object or document that comes directly from the
time period to which it refers. Primary sources might be government documents, menus

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from restaurants, diaries, letters, musical instruments, photographs, portraits drawn from
life, songs, and so on. If a historian is looking at Ancient Egypt, a statue of a pharaoh is a
primary source for that time period, as are hieroglyphs that tell of the pharaoh’s reign.
Primary sources, when we have them, are considered more valuable than other sources
because they are as close in time as we can get to the events being studied. Think, for
example, of a court trial: The ideal is to have the trial quickly so that witness testimony is
fresher and therefore more reliable. With the passage of time, people can forget, they might
subconsciously add or take away parts of a memory, and they may be influenced to interpret
events differently.

A secondary source is one written or created after the fact. A twentieth-century biography
of an Egyptian pharaoh is a secondary source, as are a map drawn in the 1960s to identify
the battle sites of World War II (1939–1945) and a museum curator’s blog post about the
artistic achievements of the Ming Dynasty (1368–1644). These types of scholarly sources
are critical for the evolution of historical knowledge and are often the place students begin
to form an understanding of past events. Secondary sources are useful for setting context
and placing a topic in relationship to others of the same era. They also provide access to
scholarly research based on primary sources for students whose access might be limited
by language or geography. Good research requires both types of sources and some
attention to historiography, which is the study of how other historians have already
interpreted and written about the past.

Source: OpenStax World History textbook

Question 13
What is the definition of a secondary source?
(a) A document, object, or other source material from the time period under study
(b) A map or court trial from the time period under study
(c) A document from someone who studies the time period under study
(d) A document, object, or other source material written or created after the time period
under study

Question 14
What is the best summary of this passage?
(a) Primary and secondary sources are types of historical sources. Primary sources are
more valuable than secondary sources because they are close in time to the events
being studied.
(b) There are two types of historical sources, primary and secondary sources. While
primary sources are typically considered more valuable, both types of sources are
needed for studying, researching and understanding historical events.
(c) Studying, researching and understanding historical events requires us to use primary
and secondary sources.
(d) Historical research and study is complex, and we should aim to use primary sources
as much as possible as they are more reliable and help us understand historical
events without influence of other sources.

Question 15
In English vocabulary, the phrase a gateway to the past is an example of what?
(a) A simile
(b) A description
(c) A proverb
(d) A metaphor

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Question 16
What does reliable mean in the context of this passage?
(a) Able to be trusted
(b) Good quality
(c) Informative
(d) Uncertain

Questions 17-20 are based on the following passage.

The term stress as it relates to the human condition first emerged in scientific literature in
the 1930s, but it did not enter the popular vernacular until the 1970s (Lyon, 2012). Today,
we often use the term loosely in describing a variety of unpleasant feeling states; for
example, we often say we are stressed out when we feel frustrated, angry, conflicted,
overwhelmed, or fatigued. Despite the widespread use of the term, stress is a fairly vague
concept that is difficult to define with precision.

Researchers have had a difficult time agreeing on an acceptable definition of stress. Some
have conceptualized stress as a demanding or threatening event or situation (e.g., a high-
stress job, overcrowding, and long commutes to work). Such conceptualizations are known
as stimulus-based definitions because they characterize stress as a stimulus that causes
certain reactions. Stimulus-based definitions of stress are problematic, however, because
they fail to recognize that people differ in how they view and react to challenging life events
and situations. For example, a conscientious student who has studied diligently all semester
would likely experience less stress during final exams week than would a less responsible,
unprepared student.

Others have conceptualized stress in ways that emphasize the physiological responses
that occur when faced with demanding or threatening situations (e.g., increased arousal).
These conceptualizations are referred to as response-based definitions because they
describe stress as a response to environmental conditions. For example, the
endocrinologist Hans Selye, a famous stress researcher, once defined stress as the
“response of the body to any demand, whether it is caused by, or results in, pleasant or
unpleasant conditions” (Selye, 1976, p. 74). Selye’s definition of stress is response-based
in that it conceptualizes stress chiefly in terms of the body’s physiological reaction to any
demand that is placed on it. Neither stimulus- based nor response-based definitions provide
a complete definition of stress. Many of the physiological reactions that occur when faced
with demanding situations (e.g., accelerated heart rate) can also occur in response to things
that most people would not consider to be genuinely stressful, such as receiving
unanticipated good news: an unexpected promotion or raise.

Source: OpenStax Psychology textbook

Question 17
What does “emphasize” mean in the context of the passage?
(a) describe
(b) downplay
(c) stress
(d) characterize

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Question 18
According to this passage, how do researchers conceptualize stress?
(a) They have not been able to conceptualize it
(b) At first, they conceptualized it as stimulus-based, but then they realized that this
definition was not correct
(c) Most of them think that both stimulus-based and response-based definitions are correct
(d) They disagree on the best way to conceptualize it

Question 19
According to this passage, why is Selye’s definition of stress problematic?
(a) Because it only relies on endocrinological factors
(b) Because it does not consider the body’s physiological reaction
(c) Because it fails to explain physiological reactions that people do not view as stressful
(d) Because it focuses on the body and not on the mind

Question 20
What does “acceptable definition” mean in this passage?
(a) A definition that would be accepted by all researchers
(b) A definition that most researchers would find satisfactory
(c) A definition that cannot be challenged
(d) A definition that is necessarily true

Questions 21-24 are based on the following passage.

Maintaining homeostasis requires that the body continuously monitor its internal conditions.
From body temperature to blood pressure to levels of certain nutrients, each physiological
condition has a particular set point. A set point is the physiological value around which the
normal range fluctuates. A normal range is the restricted set of values that is optimally
healthful and stable. For example, the set point for normal human body temperature is
approximately 37°C (98.6°F) Physiological parameters, such as body temperature and
blood pressure, tend to fluctuate within a normal range a few degrees above and below that
point. Control centers in the brain and other parts of the body monitor and react to deviations
from homeostasis using negative feedback. Negative feedback is a mechanism that
reverses a deviation from the set point.

A negative feedback system has three basic components. A sensor, also referred to as a
receptor, is a component of a feedback system that monitors a physiological value. This
value is reported to the control center. The control center is the component in a feedback
system that compares the value to the normal range. If the value deviates too much from
the set point, then the control center activates an effector. An effector is the component in
a feedback system that causes a change to reverse the situation and return the value to the
normal range…

In order to set the system in motion, a stimulus must drive a physiological parameter beyond
its normal range (that is, beyond homeostasis). This stimulus is “heard” by a specific sensor.
For example, in the control of blood glucose, specific endocrine cells in the pancreas detect
excess glucose (the stimulus) in the bloodstream. These pancreatic beta cells respond to
the increased level of blood glucose by releasing the hormone insulin into the bloodstream.
The insulin signals skeletal muscle fibers, fat cells (adipocytes), and liver cells to take up
the excess glucose, removing it from the bloodstream. As glucose concentration in the
bloodstream drops, the decrease in concentration—the actual negative feedback—is

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detected by pancreatic alpha cells, and insulin release stops. This prevents blood sugar
levels from continuing to drop below the normal range.

Humans have a similar temperature regulation feedback system that works by promoting
either heat loss or heat gain. When the brain’s temperature regulation center receives data
from the sensors indicating that the body’s temperature exceeds its normal range, it
stimulates a cluster of brain cells referred to as the “heat-loss center.” This stimulation has
three major effects:
1) Blood vessels in the skin begin to dilate allowing more blood from the body core to
flow to the surface of the skin allowing the heat to radiate into the environment.
2) As blood flow to the skin increases, sweat glands are activated to increase their
output. As the sweat evaporates from the skin surface into the surrounding air, it takes
heat with it.
3) The depth of respiration increases, and a person may breathe through an open mouth
instead of through the nasal passageways. This further increases heat loss from the
lungs.

In contrast, activation of the brain’s heat-gain center by exposure to cold reduces blood flow
to the skin, and blood returning from the limbs is diverted into a network of deep veins. This
arrangement traps heat closer to the body core and restricts heat loss. If heat loss is severe,
the brain triggers an increase in random signals to skeletal muscles, causing them to
contract and producing shivering…
Source: OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology textbook

Question 21
Which of the following happens when a stimulus causes blood pressure to move away from
its set point?
(a) The sensor returns blood pressure to normal levels.
(b) The effector determines that blood sugar levels are abnormal.
(c) The control center signals the effector to cause a decrease in blood pressure.
(d) The control center receives data from the sensor and compares data with normal values.

Question 22
Which two examples does the author give details about to illustrate the relationship between
negative feedback and homeostasis?
(a) blood sugar and blood pH
(b) temperature and blood pH
(c) blood sugar and temperature
(d) Thyroid regulation and temperature

Question 23
What does “fluctuates” mean in the context of this reading passage?
(a) endangers
(b) decreases
(c) removes from
(d) changes back and forth

Question 24
What does the author of this passage assume the reader already knew before reading?
(a) the meaning of “homeostasis”
(b) which cells in the pancreas produce hormones
(c) the normal ranges for physiological parameters

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(d) the relationship between the sensor, control center, and effector

Questions 25-28 are based on the following passage.

By the turn of the century, as the world debated the United Nations Millennium Declaration
and Development Goals, Africa was identified as the “21st Century’s development
challenge”. Fourteen years later, as we enter the final stages of negotiations around the
global post-2015 development agenda, we must all acknowledge that we have come a long
way. At the turn of the millennium, Africans too debated its present and future, and how to
take the continent out of what became known as the two dead decades for development in
the continent. Thus, we transformed the Organization of African Unity (OAU) into the African
Union and adopted the New Partnership for African Development (NEPAD). Again, we have
come a long way.

Thus, since 2000, we saw accelerated progress on MDG indicators such as enrolment in
primary schools; access to primary education for boys and girls; women’s empowerment
and on nutrition and reversing the spread of HIV and AIDS. Some notable progress has
also been made on child and maternal health. After nearly two decades of stagnation,
investment in critical infrastructure development has picked up, and there is renewed focus
on improving revenue collection and management, and stemming illicit capital flows from
the continent. Whereas it was generally believed at the turn of the century that the ICT
revolution will bypass Africa, we are a very good case study on how technology can be used
to leapfrog development. African higher education enrolment has increased by over 30
percent. The continent has recorded sustained growth of over 5 percent since 2000 and
with a number of countries amongst the fastest growing in the world. The vast majority of
African people live in countries that are now democratic, peaceful and with improved
governance.

At the same time, many challenges remain, especially in translating economic growth into
decent jobs opportunities and eradication of poverty, silencing the guns in all parts of the
continent, increasing access to basic services, empowering Africa’s women and young
people and addressing income, gender and spatial inequalities. The progress on the MDGs
is also not uniform across goals, targets and among countries and groups. As Africa
celebrated its 50th anniversary since the founding of the OAU in 1963, it embarked on a
consultative process to develop a vision for the next 50 years, Agenda 2063. Agenda 2063
is long term roadmap towards a continent that is peaceful, integrated, people-centered and
prosperous, with milestones and strategies to achieve this vision in the shortest possible
time. The post 2015 development agenda is a critical milestone towards the realization of
Agenda 2063, and provides a good opportunity for Africa to complete the unfinished
business of the MDGs.

Source: African Union’s Common African Position on the SDGs

Question 25
According to the passage, what is a challenge Africa must overcome?
(a) inadequate ICT
(b) social inequalities
(c) not enough maternal health care
(d) poor investment in infrastructure

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Question 26
Why did the AU launch Agenda 2063?
(a) to plan Africa’s response to the SDGs
(b) to revise an early agenda
(c) to develop a long-term vision for the continent
(d) to overcome the failure of the MDGs

Question 27
What conclusion can readers draw about the perspective of the author this passage?
(a) The author is African.
(b) The author is concerned primarily with education.
(c) The author is pessimistic about Africa’s progress towards the SDGs.
(d) The author believes ICT is the most powerful force for progress in Africa.

Question 28
What is the purpose of the second paragraph?
(a) to contrast the third paragraph
(b) to show Africa’s successes since the launch of the MDGs
(c) to give examples of “unfinished business” Africa must complete
(d) to explain the importance of ICT and education for Africa’s development

Questions 29-31 are based on the following passage.

Many medical sociologists contend that illnesses have both a biological and an experiential
component and that these components exist independently of each other. Our culture, not
our biology, dictates which illnesses are stigmatized and which are not, which are
considered disabilities and which are not, and which are deemed contestable (meaning
some medical professionals may find the existence of this ailment questionable) as opposed
to definitive (illnesses that are unquestionably recognized in the medical profession)
(Conrad and Barker 2010).

For instance, sociologist Erving Goffman (1963) described how social stigmas hinder
individuals from fully integrating into society. In essence, Goffman (1963) suggests we might
view illness as a stigma that can push others to view the ill in an undesirable manner. The
stigmatization of illness often has the greatest effect on the patient and the kind of care they
receive. Many contend that our society and even our healthcare institutions discriminate
against certain diseases—like mental disorders, AIDS, sexually transmitted diseases, and
skin disorders (Sartorius 2007). Facilities for these diseases may be sub-par; they may be
segregated from other healthcare areas or relegated to a poorer environment. The stigma
may keep people from seeking help for their illness, making it worse than it needs to be.

Contested illnesses are those that are questioned or questionable by some medical
professionals. Disorders like fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome may be either true
illnesses or only in the patients’ heads, depending on the opinion of the medical
professional. This dynamic can affect how a patient seeks treatment and what kind of
treatment they receive.

Source: OpenStax Sociology textbook

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Question 29
According to this passage, why do many medical sociologists contend that illnesses have
both a biological and an experiential component?
(a) Because illnesses are not always recognized by the medical profession
(b) Because our culture dictates how illnesses are viewed in society
(c) Because most illnesses are disconnected from biology
(d) Because sociologists question the medical profession

Question 30
According to this passage, what does the “stigmatization of illness” mean?
(a) We are always strongly discriminated when we are ill
(b) People with certain diseases are at high risk of discrimination
(c) Sick people do not receive help from others
(d) Medical professionals who question some illnesses stigmatize their patients

Question 31
What does “hinder” mean in the context of this passage?
(a) Challenge
(b) Inhibit
(c) Encourage
(d) Scare

Questions 32-34 are based on the following passage.

Whether scientific research is basic science or applied science, scientists must share their
findings for other researchers to expand and build upon their discoveries. Communication
and collaboration within and between sub disciplines of science are key to the advancement
of knowledge in science. For this reason, an important aspect of a scientist’s work is
disseminating results and communicating with peers. Scientists can share results by
presenting them at a scientific meeting or conference, but this approach can reach only the
limited few who are present. Instead, most scientists present their results in peer-reviewed
articles that are published in scientific journals. Peer-reviewed articles are scientific papers
that are reviewed, usually anonymously by a scientist’s colleagues, or peers. These
colleagues are qualified individuals, often experts in the same research area, who judge
whether or not the scientist’s work is suitable for publication. The process of peer review
helps to ensure that the research described in a scientific paper or grant proposal is original,
significant, logical, and thorough. Grant proposals, which are requests for research funding,
are also subject to peer review. Scientists publish their work so other scientists can
reproduce their experiments under similar or different conditions to expand on the findings.
The experimental results must be consistent with the findings of other scientists.

There are many journals and the popular press that do not use a peer-review system. A
large number of online open- access journals, journals with articles available without cost,
are now available many of which use rigorous peer-review systems, but some of which do
not. Results of any studies published in these forums without peer review are not reliable
and should not form the basis for other scientific work. In one exception, journals may allow
a researcher to cite a personal communication from another researcher about unpublished
results with the cited author’s permission.

Source: OpenStax Concepts of Biology textbook

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Question 32
According to this passage, why do scientists publish articles in peer-reviewed journals?
(a) In order to share their findings with the public
(b) In order to ensure that the findings they publish can be reproduced experimentally
(c) In order to share findings that have been evaluated by other researchers
(d) In order to promote their work

Question 33
What does “consistent” mean in the context of this passage?
(a) Improvable
(b) Compatible
(c) In contradiction
(d) Useful

Question 34
According to this passage, can scientists sometimes rely on studies that have not been
peer-reviewed?
(a) No, because only peer-reviewed articles are scientifically valid
(b) Yes, because there are many journals that do not use a peer-reviewed system
(c) No, because journals that do not use a peer-reviewed system are of poor quality
(d) Yes, exceptionally, when they cite other researchers who have not yet published their
results

Directions: Questions 35-75 are not linked to a passage. Choose the best answer for
each question.

Question 35
Which sentence contains an error of sentence structure?

(a) Marie waited.

(b) Marie waited, but the bus did not arrive.
(c) Marie waited, the bus arrived a few minutes later.
(d) Wishing she had arrived earlier, Marie waited for the bus.

Question 36
Which sentence is correct (has no sentence structure errors)?

(a) The students know chemistry very well.

(b) The students very well know chemistry.
(c) The students know very well chemistry.
(d) Very well the students know chemistry.

Question 37
Which of the following are examples of connectives?

(a) Lightly, heavily, slowly

(b) She, he, it
(c) And, but, so
(d) Very, more, less

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 14

Question 38
Which of the following are examples of adverbs?

(a) Daily, rarely, never

(b) However, though, therefore
(c) Yet, still, already
(d) Run, walk, swim

Question 39
Which of the following are examples of quantifiers?

(a) They, them, ours

(b) Hour, minute, second
(c) Beautiful, colorful, helpful
(d) Some, many, few

Question 40
Which sentence is grammatically correct?

(a) She were only a little girl

(b) She was only a little girl
(c) She would of only been a little girl
(d) She have been only a little girl

Question 41
Which sentence is grammatically correct?

(a) They been fighting a lot

(b) You gone the wrong way
(c) I have done the washing up
(d) I has made a mistake

Question 42
Which sentence does not use commas correctly?

(a) In earthquake-prone areas, people take part in earthquake drills

(b) You must bring a pen, pencil and calculator into the exam
(c) As a medical student, you must be very organized
(d) My sister who is called Marie, goes to university in Europe

Question 43
Which word is missing from this sentence:
It is 11 PM and we haven’t eaten dinner _____

(a) Already
(b) Yet
(c) Still
(d) Just

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 15

Question 44
Which word is missing from this sentence:
It is snowing outside, ____ we must wear warm clothes.

(a) So
(b) However
(c) And
(d) But

Question 45
Which answer choice combines the two sentences below in a way that is a) grammatically
correct and b) does not change the meaning?
My mother is a doctor.
She works at the local hospital.

(a) My mother is a doctor and she is works at the local hospital

(b) At the local hospital my mother is a doctor working
(c) My mother is a doctor at the local hospital
(d) My mother is at the local hospital working as doctor

Question 46
Choose the best adjective to complete the sentence:
The student’s ______ efforts resulted in top marks in the exam.

(a) Strong
(b) Beautiful
(c) Fast
(d) Dedicated

Question 47
Which answer choice is the correct option to complete this sentence:
Please can you tell me when______ leaving?

(a) is the plane

(b) does the plane
(c) the plane is
(d) the plane

Question 48
Which answer choice is the correct option to complete this sentence:
The children hurt ________ playing football in the park.

(a) theirselves
(b) themselves
(c) themself
(d) their selves

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 16

Question 49
Which adjective is the best option to complete this sentence:
I love fries and pizza. It’s my _______ meal.

(a) best
(b) tasteful
(c) nicest
(d) favorite

Question 50
Which answer choice is the best option to complete this sentence:
There are _______ people who are religious.

(a) many
(b) most
(c) more
(d) much

Question 51
Which answer choice is the best option to complete this sentence:
I need _______ cup.

(a) other
(b) another
(c) others
(d) an other

Question 52
Is this sentence correct?
My favorite food is mizuzu fried plantains are so tasty.

(a) Yes, it is correct.

(b) No; change to: My favorite food is mizuzu. Fried plantains are so tasty.
(c) No; change to: My favorite food is mizuzu, fried plantains are so tasty.
(d) No; change to: My favorite food is mizuzu fried, plantains are so tasty.

Question 53
Is this sentence correct?
Since health is a human right, medical care should be free.

(a) Yes, it is correct.

(b) No; change to: Since health a human right. Medical care should be free.
(c). No; change to: Since health is a human right medical care should be free.
(d) No; change to: Because, health is a human right medical care should be free.

Question 54
Which answer choice combines the two sentences below in a way that a) is grammatically
correct and b) does not change the meaning?
Burundi is a country in eastern Africa.
Bujumbura is the capital of Burundi.

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 17

(a) Burundi is a country in eastern Africa, Bujumbura is its capital.
(b) The capital of Burundi, a country in eastern Africa, is Bujumbura.
(c) Burundi is a country in eastern Africa, hence the capital is Bujumbura.
(d) Though Burundi is a country in eastern Africa, Bujumbura is the capital.

Question 55
Which answer choice combines the two sentences below in a way that a) is grammatically
correct and b) does not change the meaning?
Delphine is with her friends.
They are at church.

(a) Delphine and her friends is at church.

(b) Delphine is at church her friends are also at church.
(c) Delphine and her friends are at church.
(d) Delphine goes to church together her friends.

Question 56
Which sentence is correct (has no article or noun errors)?

(a) Meat is a source of calories.

(b) Meat is source of calories.
(c) A meat is source of calories.
(d) The meat is source of the calories.

Question 57
Which sentence is correct (has no article or noun errors)?

(a) Doctors should ask for advices if they need more information about medicines to
prescribe.
(b) Doctors should ask for advice if they need more information about medicines to
prescribe.
(c) Doctors should ask for the advice if they need more informations about medicines to
prescribe.
(d) Doctors should ask for the advices if they need more information about medicines to
prescribe.

Question 58
Is this sentence correct? Should the writer add any words to this sentence?
Crafting __1__ clear thesis statement is important __2__essay writing.

(a) The sentence is correct. Do not add any words.

(b) No, it is incorrect. Add “a” in 1
(c) No, it is incorrect. Add “the” in 1
(d) No, it is incorrect. Add “a” in 1 and “for” in 2.

Question 59
Is this sentence correct? Should the writer add any words to this sentence?
Eating a balanced diet of fruits and__1__ vegetables will slow down weight gain.

(a) The sentence is correct. Do not add any words.

(b) No, it is incorrect. Add “a” in 1

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 18

(c) No, it is incorrect. Add “the” in 1
(d) No, it is incorrect. Add “an” in 1

Question 60
Is this sentence correct?
More progress needs to be made on promoting gender equity.

(a) Yes, it is correct.

(b) No; change to: More progress need to be made on promoting gender equity.
(c) No; change to: Gender equity is an issue that needs more progresses.
(d) No; change to: More progress need to be made promoting gender equity.

Question 61
What can you conclude about South Africa by reading the sentence below?
Although South Africa has eleven official languages including English and Afrikaans,
French is not an official language.
(a) There are no French speakers in South Africa.
(b) There are eleven official languages in South Africa.
(c) South Africa has weak cultural ties with other countries.
(d) South Africa has a strong government.

Question 62
What can you conclude about the speaker of this sentence?
Can I take the book, please?

(a) He or she is asking about a specific book. The listener and the speaker both know about
this specific book.
(b) He or she will accept any book.
(c) He or she will only accept the book that belongs to the listener.
(d) He or she is doing homework.

Question 63
Is this sentence correct?
Some parents may like phone calls __1__ than text messages for
__2__communication.

(a) Yes, it is correct

(b) No; add “more” in 1
(c) No; add “the” in 2
(d) No; add “a” in 2

Question 64
What can you conclude after reading this information?
Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.
Earth is a planet in the solar system.

(a) Earth is smaller than Jupiter.

(b) Jupiter is smaller than other planets in the universe.
(c) Earth is less habitable than Jupiter.
(d) There is not enough information to draw a conclusion.

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 19

Question 65
Is this sentence correct?
Some of the bananas was eaten.

(a) Yes, the sentence is correct.

(b) No; change “was” to “were”
(c) No; delete “was”
(d) No; delete “of the”

Question 66
Is this sentence correct?
Students are interest in learning new subjects.

(a) Yes, it is correct.

(b) No, change “interest” to “interests”
(c) No, change “interest” to “interesting”
(d) No, change “interest” to “interested”

Question 67
Is this sentence correct?
Failure to prepare is preparation to fail.

(a) Yes, it is correct.

(b) No; change to: Failure to prepare is preparation to fail.
(c) No; change to: Failures to prepare is preparation to fail.
(d) No; change to: Failure prepares preparations to fail.

Question 68
What can you conclude about the speaker from the following sentence?
I would fix the situation if I could.

(a) He/she may want to help but cannot help.

(b) He/she does not want to help but can help.
(c) He/she may want to help and can help.
(d) There is not enough information to draw a conclusion.

Question 69
Which word does not express a contrast?

(a) and
(b) rather
(c) whereas
(d) but

Question 70
Which answer choice is the best option to complete this sentence:
You must ___________ if you want to be successful.

(a) do hard works

(b) hardfully work
(c) work hard
MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 20
(d) do work hard

Question 71
Where should comma(s) be inserted into this sentence?
My best friend Anne lives in Boston.

(a) The sentence does not need commas

(b) One comma after Anne
(c) One comma after friend and another comma after Anne
(d) One comma after friend and another comma after lives

Question 72
What can you conclude about the training from the sentence below?
The family has finished training.

(a) You know exactly when the training ended.

(b) The training is ongoing.
(c) The family is not currently training.
(d) There is not enough information to draw a conclusion.

Question 73
What can you conclude by reading the sentence below?
John is drinking tea.

(a) Drinking tea is an activity John is doing right now.

(b) John enjoys tea.
(c) Drinking tea is one of John’s usual activities.
(d) There is not enough information to draw a conclusion.

Question 74
What can you conclude after reading this information?
Diamond is the hardest mineral.
Calcite is a mineral.

(a) Calcite is softer than diamond.

(b) Diamond is softer than Calcite.
(c) Calcite is less valuable than diamond.
(d) There is not enough information to draw a conclusion.

Question 75
Which sentence is correct (has no verb errors)?

(a) I thought we have an effective plan.

(b) I thought we had an effective plan.
(c) I would think we will have an effective plan.
(d) I will think we will have an effective plan.

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 21

This is the end of the English section of the exam. If you
finish before 120 minutes, you may check your work or
wait quietly until the time is called.

MBBS/MGHD English Exam 2023 | 22