21/03/2023 Code-B

Aakash
OBYJU'S
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,
Ph.011-47623456

MM:720 FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1 Time:200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Physical World, Units&Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Botany: The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology: Animal Kingdom

General lInstructions:
) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
& only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
Gi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered
unattempted questions will be given no marks.
ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken theappropriate circle.
iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each enty.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The unit of temperature in SI system is 3. Time period of a simple pendulum is given

) °F by T=2/where measurements of
(2))°C and g have 2% and 3% errors respectively.
(3) K The maximum percentage error in time
(4) None of these period of the pendulum is
(1) 5%

2. Velocity v is given by v =at + b, wheret is (2 2%

time. The dimensions of a and b respectively
(3) 7%
are

4) LT,LTT (4)%
(2) [LTLTTH
4. Two physical quantities A and B have
() LT LT different dimensions, then which of the
4) LT1 LTH following operations is valid?
(1) A +B
(2) A-B

0)sin()
(4) A xB
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-T01
5. A particle is said to have non-zero 9. Acceleration-time graph of a body is given
acceleration The
(1) Only if its direction of velocity changes
corresponding velocity-time graph of the
body should be
(2) Only if its magnitude of velocity
changes
(3) Either its direction of velocity or
magnitude of velocity or both changes
(4) Neither direction nor magnitude of
velocity changes

5. A car was moving with 5 m/s towards east

and after some time it is
moving with 5 m/s
towards north, the change in its velocity is
(1) 5/2 m/s towards north-east (1) V
(2) 5 m/s towards north-east
(3) 5 m/s towards north-west
(4) 5/2 m/s towards north-west
7. A
>t
body is moving x-axis and its position is
on
related with time t as t = axé +Bx, where a
and B are positive constants, the retardation
of the body is
(1) av (2)
(2) 2av
(3) a
2
(4) 2av
>t
8. Two identical balls A and B are thrown from
thetop ofa tower. Ball A is thrown upwards
with speed v and ball B is thrown
downwards with speed v, then
(1) Speed of ball A will be more than ball B (3) V
at the ground
(2) Speed of ball B will be more than ball A
at the ground
(3) Both balls A and B strike the ground
With same speed
(4) Speed of ball A may be greater or less
than speed of ball B at the ground

(4) V

>t

2
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1

10. A train is moving towards west and a car is 15. Following figure shows three paths of
along north, both with same speed. The projectile. The correct order of initial
direction of the velocity of train with respect horizontal velocity components is
to the passenger sitting in the car is
(1) North-east ******************

(2) North-west
(3) South-east
(4) South-west
X
(1) 1>2>3
11. Ifa body is moving in a circle of radius rwith
a constant speed v, its angular and (2) 1<2<3
tangential accelerations respectively are (3) 1 2 3
() (4) 1 3 >2

(2)r 16. When a projectile is thrown with speed vat

(3) ,zero an angle has range 100 m on the surface
of the Earth, then for the same v and e the
(4) Zero, zero of range on the surface of moon will
value
be (gm)
12.
An aeroplane flying horizontally 980m (1) 100 m
above ground level at 80 m/s releases a
packet. How far on ground will the packet (2) 200 m
strike? (3) 600 m
(1) 400/2 (4) 300 m
(2) 800/2 m
(3) 800 m 17.
If A B, then which of the following is
(4) 980 m
incorrect?

13. The greatest height to which a boy can throw

a ball is H, then the
A-B
greatest horizontal
distance to which he can throw it, will be
(1) H
(2) A+B=A+ B
(3) 2H 2A -2B
(4)
4
18. Which of the following is a more precise
instrument?
14. A projectile is projected from ground from
(1) Meter scale having smallest division 1
point A with speed 10 m/s at an angle of 30°
mm
with horizontal and it strikes the ground at
point B. The magnitude of change in velocity (2) Vernier callipers in which 20 vernier
at points A and B is Scale division coinciding with 19 main
scale division (1 MSD = 1 mm)
(1) 10 m/s
(3) Screw gauge with 0.5 mm smallest
(2) 20 m/s
division on linear scale and 50
(3) 5 m/s divisions on circular Scale
(4) 15 m/s (4) Vernier callipers with least count 0.02
mm

19. A bomb is dropped from a fighter jet which

moving horizontally with constant speed.
gnore the effect of air resistance, the bomb
(1) Falls on the Earth behind the fighter jet
(2) Falls on the Earth ahead the fighter jet
(3) Falls on the Earth exactly below the
fighter jet
(4) Conuinues to flies with the fighter jet
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1
20. The position-time graph of a particle moving 24. The
on a straight line is as shown. The section of
correct velocity-time (v-t) graph
corresponding to the given acceleration-time
the graph which corresponds to positive (a-0 graph is (initial velocity is zero)
acceleration is

OF
E
ro*soworo***
A
(1) V
time
(1)
(2) AB
OA
7
(3) BC
(4) DE (2) V

21. Speed of a projectile at the point of

projection is V2 times the speed at its
maximum height, the angle of projection of (3)V
the projectile is
(1) 30°
(2) 45
(3) 60 (4) V
(4) tan(V2)

22. For a man walking with speed 32 km/h

rain appears to fall vertically downward. 25 The total number of insignificant zeroes in
the measurement of a quantity x = 0.003270
When he starts running with
5/2 km /h rain appears to fall on him at an IS

angle of 45° with vertical. The speed of rain (1)2

W.r.t ground (in km/h) is (2) 3
(1) 22 (3) 4
(2) 26 (4)1
(3) 26
26.The percentage error in the
(4) 27 a, b and c are 0.3%,
measurement
1% and 0.9%
of
respectively. The maximum percentage error
23. A system of units has 10 kg, 10 cm and 10 s in the calculation of quantity z a will
as the units of mass, length and time be
respectively. Then the value of 10 N in this
(1) 3%
system will be
(2) 1.2%
(1) 1000 units
(3) 1%
(2) 1 units
(4) 2.9%
(3) 10 units
(4) 100 units
27. If velocity (V), mass (M) and time (T) are
taken as fundamental quantities then
dimensional formula of Young's modulus is
(1) MV?T
(2) [MVT
(3) [MV'
(4) [MV-
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)TO1

28. A particle is revolving on a circle of radiusr 32. The position-time graph of a particle moving
with constant tangential acceleration. After along a straight line is given in following
one complete revolution, if speed of the graph. The average speed of the particle
particle becomes double of the initial speed between time t= 0 to t= 8 s is
v, then net acceleration of the particle when x(m)
it just complete one revolution is
12-
(1) 256
(2) V256 +9
4TT

(8) 265T2 +9

(4) 2 6 5
4Tr (1) 3 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
29. A particle is projected from ground with (3) 6 m/s
initial velocity 18y3 m/s as shown in figure. (4) O m/s
The time taken by particle in moving from P
to Q is (take g =10 ms 33. A drunkard is walking straight such that he
Y
takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps
backwards and continues with same
repeated pattern. If each step is 1 m long
********
and takes 1 s in each step, then after what
duration of time he will fall in a pit at a
distance 6 m from starting point?
50
(1) 8s

(1) 1.8 s
(2) 16 s

(2) 3.6 s (3) 12s

(3) 5.4 s
(4) 24s

(4) 7.2s
34. The order of magnitude of 192 is
(1) C
30. The phenomenon of scattering of light by a
change in wavelength is called (2) 1
(1) Chadwick scattering (3) 2

(2) Ramanujan scattering (4) 3

(3) Newton's scattering
(4) Raman scattering 35. A shell is fired att=0 s from a gun having
barrel at an angle of 45° with horizontal. If
speed of shell is 60 m/s at t = 0, then the
31. If linear momentum of a particle varies with radius of curvature of the trajectory of the
distance x from origin as P = RAyT Then shell aftert =3/2s is (take g = 10 m/s)
dimensions of i s (A and B are dimensional (1) 60 m
(2) 90 m
constants)
(3) 180 m
4) MLT (4) 200 m
(2) [M L3/2 TH
(3) [M L/2 TH
(4) [ML-1/2T

SECTION-B

5
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1

36. A particle moves a distance x in time t 41. A particle is moving in x-Y plane such that its
according to the equation t =
The position co-ordinates are varying w.r.. üme
t+1) as x = 5sin121T t and y = 121cos5 T t

acceleration of the particle is proportional to (where x and y are in metre and t is in

second). The speed of the particle at t = 1 s
a (velocity
(2) (velocity (1) 605/2rm/s
(2) 121 rm/s
(3 (distance)3 (3) 605 T m/s
(4) (distance)
(4) 121/2T m/s

37. A ball is dropped from a high tower at t =0. 42. Speed of a swimmer in still water is 14.14
After 10 s another ball is thrown in km/h. River water is flowing due east with
downward direction from the same point with speed 10 km/h. The swimmer on south bank
speed v. If these two balls meet at t = 15 s. of 1 km wide river wishes to cross the river
Then the value of v is (take g = 10 m/s*) via shortest path. Then the angle at which
(1) 50 m/s he/she should make strokes w.r.t east
direction and the corresponding tüme taken
(2) 100 m/s
to cross the river is
(3) 200 m/s (1) 45, 1h
(4) 225 m/s (2) 45°,0.1 h
3) 135, v2h
38. A particle is moving on a circle of radius 2 m.
(4) 135°, 0.1 h
Its speed (v) varies with time t as v = at
where a is a constant. The ratio of radial
acceleration to tangential acceleration of the 43. The position vector of a particle moving in x
particle att= 2 s is plane IS given by
(1)
(2) 8
7 2i+(3t 6) Then the
equation of trajectory of the particle is
(3) 2a
(4) 4 (4)y- +1)
39. If resultant of two unit vectors a and b is ()y=j(1=
v3 in magnitude, then the
difference of these unit vectors is
magnitude of
y=z(}-)
(4 y= 3æ - 6z2
(1) Zero
(2) 1
44. A particle is moving in x-y plane such that its
(3) 3 linear momentum is varying w.r.t ime as
(4) v2 = B sinut i +cosut iwhere
40. Two quantities are measured a s A = 1.0 mnt B and w are constants. Then which of the
0.2 m and B = 2.0 m t 0.2 m. The correct following is correct?
value of VAB should be reported as (1) Force is parallel to linear momentum
(1) 1.4 m# 0.2 m (2) Force is perpendicularlinear to
momentum
(2) 1.4 mt 0.1 m
(3) 1.41 m 0.15 m (3) Force is antiparallel to linear
momentum
(4) 1.4 m t0.4 m
(4) Force is at 60° with linear momentum

6
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

48. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm with 10O

45 If two vectors A =itaj+bk and divisions on circular scale. In measurement
of thickness of a wire, there are 3-divisions
B 5 i +15j +25k are parallel to each on linear scale and 25 divisions on circular
other, then the values of a and b respectively Scale coinciding with reference line. If
are nothing is put between the studs then 20
(1) 5,5 division on circular scale is coinciding with
reference line such that zero of linear scale
(2) 3,15
is visible, then thickness of wire is
(3) 15,5
(1) 3.05 mm
(4) 3,5
(2) 3.30 mm
(3) 3.25 mm
46. A particle moves with an initial velocity vo
(4) 3.0 mm
along a straight line with a retardation av (
a is a positive constant and v is velocity at
any time ) then 49. A car starts from rest accelerates on a
(1) The particle will come to rest after a straight path with constant acceleration a for
some time, after which it decelerates at
time
constant value b and comes to rest. Total
(2) The velocity of the particle will become time elapsed is t, then average velocity of

after a time
a
the car is
(3) The total distance covered by the (1) abt
a+b
particle before coming to rest is
(2) 2abt
(4) Velocity versus time graph will be +b)

Tinearly decreasing. (3)bt

2(a +b)

47. A man running on a horizontal road at 3 m/s (4)

(a+b)
(along +ve x direction) finds that rain is
falling vertically. He increases his speed to 6
m/s and finds that rain drops make angle 30° 50. The equaion of trajectory of a projectile is
with vertical. Velocity of rain w.r.t. road is (+ve bx, then its angle of
given by cy =
ax
yis along vertically upward) projection is

4 (3 +V3) mls (1) tan(a)

(2) tan ()
(3+3/3i)ms
(0 (V3i-3i) ms tan()
(4) (3i-3/3j) ms tan(6)

CHEMISTRRY

SECTION-A

51. Angular nodes present in 4s and 2p orbitals 52. The angular momentum of electron in d-
respectively are orbital is
(1) Zero
(1) 1,0
(2) 3,0 (2)
(3) 0,1
(4) 2,3

(4)
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

53. Maximum possible number of spectral lines 59. Match List I with List I.
obtained in Lyman series when an electron List
in H-atom sample de-excites from third a. List II
Alkali metal
excited state to ground state is . nsnp
) 3 . Alkaline earth ( ) nst
(2)6 metal
(3)4 Transition
metal
(n-1)a
(4) 8 10ns1-2
d. Pnictogens (iv)ns2
54. The number of revolution of electrons Choose the correct option.
per
second in n orbit of H-atom is (k (1) a(i). biv), c(i), d(ii)
constant) (2) ai), biv), c(i), d()
(1) (3) ai), b(ii), c(oiv), d(i)
(2) k (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(i)
(3)
60. When light of frequency (V) falls on a

(4) particular metal surface then the correct

n graph of kinetic energy (KE) of ejected
electrons versus v is given by
55. The number of signiñcant figures in 50 pens (1)
S KE
(1) Infinite
(2)2
(3) Zero (2)
(4) 1 KE
56. The lowest value of negative electron gain
enthalpy among the following is associated (3)
with
(1) Lithium
KE
(2) Sodium
(3) Potassium
(4) Caesium
4)
57. 50 ml of 1 N NaOH is mixed with 150 ml of 2 KE
N Ca(OH)2. The molarity of OH ions in the
resulting solution will be [Consider complete
dissociation of NaOH and Ca(OH)2]
(1) 2.5 M
(2) 1.75 M
61. Total number of electrons in 2 mol of
(3) 1.25 M
sulphide ion is
(4) 1.50 M
() 3.6 x 1024
(2) 3.6 x 1023
58. Among the following which has maximum
number of molecules? (3) 2.16 x 1025
(1) 49 g ofHaPO
4)2.16x 1023
(2) 45 g of CgH120g
(3) 28 g N2 62. 68 g sample of a compound containing
(4) 36 g H20 carbon and oxygen only. contains 47.05%6
oxygen by mass. The empirical formula of
the compound is
(1) Co
(2) Co
(3) C302
(4) C5O2

8
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO 1

63. One kilogram of electrons represents 68. Which of the following has the highest
mole of electrons. (me = mass of one second ionisation enthalpy?
electron in kg) (1) Li
(1) N (2) Na
me
(3) Al
(2) me NA (4) Be
(3)
m, NA
69. Electromagnetic radiation with minimum
(4)
wavelength is
(1) IR
64. Given below are the two statements: (2) Radio waves
Statement-l: Chromium and copper both
(3) X-rays
have exceptonal electronic configuration.
Statement-l1: Total number of d electrons in (4) -rays
copper and chromium are 10 and 5
respectively. 70. IUPAC name of the element having Z= 108
In the light of above statements, choose the is
most appropriate answer from the options
(1) Unnilhexium
given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement lI are (2) Unniloctium
correct (3) Ununtrium
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (4) Ununoctium
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement ll is 71. The wave number for the shortest
incorrect wavelength transition in the Paschen series
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement I of atomic hydrogen is (RH Rydberg
is correct constant)
(1) RH
65. 20 ml of O2 and 50 ml of H2 are taken in a (2) R
vessel and sparked till the reaction is 9
completed to form H2O(). Assuming (3) 7R
temperature and pressure constant, the 144
reducton in volume of gases after reaction
S
(4)RH
(1) 50 ml
(2) 60 ml 2 I fan electron, a-particle, neutron and proton
(3) 70 ml have same de Broglie wavelength, then
kinetic energy will be minimum for
(4) 10 ml
(1) Electron
(2) Neutron
66. An element E has following three isotopes
100E:80%,99E:16%, 101E:4%. (3) a-particle
The average atomic mass of element E is (4) Proton
approximately
(1) 97.9 73. Choose the incorrect order with respect to
(2) 96.8 the given physical property.
(3) 98.8 (1) Na> Na (Size)
(4) 99.9 (2) N>C (Electronegativity)
(3) Ga> Al (Metallic nature)
6. The number of neutrons in Fe4" ion is (4) Ne> Ar (lonization Enthalpy)
(Mass
number of Fe is 56)
(1) 26 74. Radius of 2nd orbit will be minimum for
(2) 56
(1) He
(3) 32
(4) 30 (2) Be3
(3) H
(4) Li2
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

75. Maximum atomic radius among the following 81. The number of orbitals in a 'l' subshell is
isof given by
Be
(1) 20 +1
(1)
(2) +1
(2) Mg
(3) B (3) 2(2 +1)
(4) Al (4) 2+2

76. For which set of n and C, electrons will have 82. Mole fraction of NaOH in its aqueous
lowest energy among the following in the solution having molality 2 is

multielectron atom? (1) 0.015

(1) n=3,=1 (2) 0.035

(2) n=2, =1 (3) 0.028
(3) n= 4, = 0 (4) 0.045

(4) n 2,l=0
83. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
77. The energy of electron in an orbit of H-atom (1) P
where two standing waves are present isS Ga
(2)
(1) -13.6 eV
(3) Be
(2) -1.7 eV
(4) Ge
(3)-1.51eV
(4)-3.4 ev 84. Which of the following series of transitions in
the spectrum does not fall in infra red
78. Mass of Mg required to produce 11.2 of H2 region?
gas at STP on reaction with dilute HCl will (1) Paschen series
be (2) Brackett series
(1) 6g (3) Pfund series
(2) 18 g (4) Lyman seriesS

(3) 12 g
(4) 24 g 85. All of the following are the representative
elements, except
79. The period which consists of Lanthanoids is (1) Indiumn
(1) 3 (2) Scandium

(2) 4 (3) Strontium

(3) 5 (4) Antimony

(4) 6

80. The correct expression for Heisenberg'sS

uncertainy principle is

(1) Ax x Av 2 d
(2) Ax x Ap 2

(3) Ax xAv 2
(4) Ax x Ap 2

SECTION-B
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

86. The number of photons emitted in one 92.. lonization enthalpy of atomic hydrogen is
second by a 10 watt bulb, which emits 1.31 x 10° J mol, The energy of electron in
monochromatic light of wavelength 662 nm, the ground state of hydrogen atom is
S
(1) 2.18 x10-18
(h 6.62 x 10-34Js)
(2)-2.18 x 10-18 J
(1) 6.28x 1018
(3) 6.55 x 105 J
(2) 3.33x 1019
(4)-6.55 x 10- J
(3) 5.21 x 1018
(4) 7.25 x 1017
93. In which mode of expression, the
concentration of a solution does not depend
87. C is isoelectronic withn on temperature?

(1) (1) Normality

(2) Ar (2) Molarity
(3) Volume strength
(3) Br
(4) Mole fraction
(4) S
94. The oxidation state and covalency of Al in
88. Among the following ionic size is maximum AICI(H20)s1" respectively are
for
(1) +6 and 3
(1) s2
(2) +6 and 6
(2) C (3) +3 and3
(3) K (4) +3 and6
(4) Ca2
95. Total number of atoms present in 11.2 ml of
CO2 (g) at STP is
89. Which of the following observatons can be
justified by wave nature of light? (1) 1.5 NA
(1) Photoelectric effect (2) 1.5x10- NA
(2) Variation of heat capacity ofsolids assa
function of temperature
(3) 1.5 x 10 NA
radiation (4) 150 NA
(3) Black body
(4) Interference of light
96. In an organic compound containing carbon,

90. Two electrons in the same orbital are hydrogen and oxygen, the percentage of
carbon and hydrogen in it are 40%% and
distinguished by 6.67% respectively. lts molecular formula
(1) Principal quantum number may be
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (1) C2HsOH
(3) Magnetic quantum number (2) CHaCHO
(4) Spin quantum number (3) CoH120s
(4) C12H22011
91. Atomic of Mg is 24 amu, it means that
mass

an atom of Mg is 24 times heavier than

(C-12) 97. The energy absorbed by each molecule of
(1) Mass of one carbon atom
B2 is 2.2 x 10-8 Jand bond energy per
(2)( mass of one carbon atom (C molecule of B2 is 2 x 101 J. The kinetic
12) energy of the bromine atom will be
(3) Mass of one mole carbon atom (C-12)
(1) 1x 1018 j
(4) ( t h e mass of one carbon atom (2) 2 x 1019 j
(C-12) (3) 2 x 10-20J
(4) 1x 10-19 J
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

98. The most acidic oxide among the

S
following 100. Mass of
CaCOg required to react
with 100 mL of 0.5 M completely
(1) SO2 H2SO4 i
(1) 10 g
(2) Al203
(3) Cl207
(2) 5g
(3) 15 g
(4) NO
(4) 25 g

99. Which of the following

maximum number of
species has the
unpaired electrons?
(1) Ni2
(2) Cr3
(3) Fe3
(4) Co2

BOTANY

SECTION-A
101. Key is an
important taxonomical aid used 104.
for A of plants and animals based on
ldentify the following statements as true (T)
or false (F) and select the correct
option.
B in a pair known as C. () Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated
Find A, B and C. outside the body in cell free
system.
i) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are
(1) A-Naming, B-Keys, C-Couplet not living thing but
surely living reactions.
(2) A-ldentification, B-Contrasting
characters, C-Couplet
(3) A-Classification, B-Similarities, C-Keys a)TF
(4) A-Taxonomy, B-Dissimilarities, C-Lead 2FT
3FF
102. (A) They
Ocean.
can occur at great depths in the TT
(1) (1)
(B) The stored food is very similar to
amylopectn and glycogen in structure. (2) (2)
Above statementsare true for all, except (3) (3)
(1) Polysiphonia (4) (4)
(2) Dictyota
(3) Gracilaria 105. Hovw many of the
given statements are
(4) Gelidium incorrect?
(a) The three domain system divides the
Kingdom Monera into two domains.
103. Select the odd one out w.r.t. (b) Plants and fungi are similar in their cell
zoological
parks. wall composition.
(1) Wild animals are kept in zoos (c) All prokaryotic organisms were grouped
(2) It is an in-situ conservation strategy of together under Kingdom Protista.
(d) Bacteria are the sole members of the
animals
Kingdom Monera.
(3) Animals are kept in protective (e) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells
environment under human care known and they cannot survive without
(4) National Zoological Park is located in oxygen.
Delhi (1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1

106. Which of the following statements is 113. Read the following statements and identify
correct? the organism for which these statements
(1) Gymnosperms are both homosporous hold true.
and heterOsporous a. They are very good indicators of water
(2) Monoecious gametophytes are free pollution.
b. They are unicellular lacking flagella
living in pteridophytes
except in reproductive stage.
(3) Stems are usually unbranched in both
(1) Amoeba
Cycas and Cedrus
(2) Plasmodium
(4) Haploid endosperm is a feature of
pteridophytes (3) Euglena
(4) Diatoms

107. Find the mismatched pair.

(1) Acetobacter aceti- Vinegar production 114. Find the mismatched pair.
(2) Bacilus vulgaris- Ammonification Algae Feature
(3) Nitrosomonas - N2 fixation

(1) Chlorophyceae Main pigments are

chlorophyll a and d
(4) Lactobacillus - Curd production

ain pigments are

108. Dioecious liverwort is (2) Phaeophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae chlorophyll a and c
(1) Funaria Cell wall contains
(2) Marchantia cellulose, pectin
(3) Rhodophyceae and polysulphate
(3) Polytrichum
esters
(4) Riccia
Cell wall contains
Chlorophyceae cellulose and
109. The parasitic fungus found on mustard (4)
pectose
leaves is
(1) Phytophthora (1) (1)
(2) Albugo candida
(2) (2)
(3) Alternaria (3) (3)
(4) Puccinia (4)
4)

given statements and select the 115. Sexual spores are produced exogenously
110. Read the
correct option. in
A. Sphagnum has great water absorbing Alternaria and Trichoderma
(1)
capacity. (2) Puccinia and Ustilago
acidic marshes
B. Sphagnum often grows in
and can be used as fuel. (3) Penicillium and Aspergillus
statements A and B are correct (4) Neurospora and Phytophthora
(1) Both
B are incorrect
(2) Both statements A and
116. Slime moulds show similarity with plants and
(3) Only statement A is
correct
animals as
(4) Only statement B is
correct
(1) They have cell wall composed of
peptidoglycan and do not reproduce

111. Which one is incorrectly matched? asexually

(1) Ascomycetes- Penicillium
(2) They don't have cell wall at any stage
(2) Basidiomycetes-Agaricus of life and show heterotrophic mode of
(3) Zygomycetes-Albugo candida nutrition
(3) They have cellulosic cell wall in their
(4) Phycomycetes- Rhizopus is
spores and main body plasmodium
without cell wall

12. In bryophytes zygote undergoes A and

(4) They have cell wall composed of chitin
in spores and main body lacks cell wal
develops into B

(1) A Meiosis, B =
Haploid sporophyte wrong for both virus
and
117. Find the statement

(2) A = Meiosis, B =
Diploid sporophyte viroids
(3) A Mitosis, B =
Haploid embryo (1) Both are non-infectious

(4) A= Mitosis, B =
Diploid embryo (2) Both have genetic material
(3) Both are obligate parasites
Both are smaller than bacteria
(4)

13
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1

118. Toxins released by which of the following 125. In which of the

organisms may even kill other marine
following numbers and codes
are assigned to all the observable
animals such as fishes? characters and all possible characters are
(1) Euglena compared by computers by giving equal
(2) Desmids importance?
(3) Gonyaulax (1) Phylogenetic classification
(4) Amoeba (2) Numerical taxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
119. Which of the
following provide index to thee (4) Cytotaxonomy
plant species found in a particular area?
(1) Manuals 126. Gemmae
(2) Catalogue (a) Are green
(3) Flora (b) Are unicellular
(c) Are asexual buds
(4) Monograph
(d) Develop on sporophyte
How many of the above
given features are
120. Diplontic life cycle is seen in all of the Correct?
following, except (1) 3
(1) Cycas (2) 2
(2) Rose (3) 1
(3) Polysiphonia (4) 4
(4) Fucus
127. Match the following columns and
121. Which of the
select the
following is not related to correct option.
prions'? Column
(1) Kuru disease ww.vwet Column
(2) CFJ disease Algae Vascular
(3) BSE or Mad Cow disease amphibians
(4) Potato spindle tuber disease b.Bryophytes n Mostly external
fertilisation
122. Which among the
CPteridophytes )nclude liverworts
of gymnosperm?
following is not a feature "and mosses
Ovules without
(1) Presence of naked seeds
(2) Have vascular tissues
d.Gymnosperms ovary
(1) a(i). bi), cqiü), d(iv)
(3) Show anemophily
(2) ai), bi), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Presence of vessels 3) ai), bii), ci), d(iv)
(4) ai), b0), c(iv), d(ii)
123. Floridean starch is the stored food in
(1) Ectocarpus 128. Read the
(2) Eudorina following statements, identify them
as true
(T) o false (F) and select the
(3) Fucus Correct option.
(4) Porphyra (A) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores
are present in Pinus.
(B) Heterospory is required for seed
124. Embryo sac
represents female gametophyte (C) Gametophyte in ferns has two habit.
in
protonema stage and leafy stage. stages,
(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Liverworts
AB)(C)
(3) Horsetails
(4) Dicots (2)FTE
3)TF
4)TFF
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
FTS for
NEET-2023_Phase-1 (B)-TO1

129. In Ascomycetes,
ascospores are produced 133. Mark the statement
in fruiting bodies i.e.
ascocarp. These
depicting the living
nature of viruses.
ascospores are
(1) Haploid and produced by meiosis (1) They have ability to get crystallized
(2) They lack protoplast
(2) Diploid and produced by mitosis
(3) They can take over biosynthetic
(3) Haploid and produced by fission
machinery of the host cell to multiply
(4) Diploid and produced by meiosis
(4) Have high specific gravity and genetic
material
130. In fungi, sporangiospores are
(1) Produced inside sporangia and are 134. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. defining features.
non motile
(1) Cellular organisation
(2) Produced inside sporangia and are
(2) Consciousness
sexual motile spores
(3) Metabolism
(3) Nonmotile and exogenously produced
(4) Motile and exogenously produced (4) Reproduction

135. Read the following statements and select

131. Find the odd w.r.t.
one Mycoplasma the correct option.
(1) They are pleomorphic and can change Assertion (A): Archaebacteria can survive
shape in extreme conditions.
(2) They are resistant to penicillin Reason (R): Archaebacteria have a different
cell wall structure from other bacteria.
(3) Their cell wall is composed of
(1) (A) is true and (R) is false
peptidoglycan
(4) They are (2) (A) is false and (R) is true
heterotrophic and are
pathogenic in plants and animals (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
132. Which among the following isa
correct explanation of (A)
heterotrophic and parasitic plant?
(1) Venus flytrap
(2) Cuscuta
(3) Nepenthes
(4) Bladderwort

SECTION-B

136. Which of the given is incorrectly matched? 137. A is the branch of science which deals
(1) Planaria - Budding with diversity of organisms and the
(2) E. coli - Fission B relationship amongst them
(3) Fungi - Fragmentation Fill in the blanks by choosing correct option
(4) Hydra - Budding for A and B.
(1) A-Taxonomy, B- Reproductive
(2) A-Systematics, B- Evolutionary
(3) A-Classification, B- Evolutionary
(4) A- Identification, B- Evolutionary
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1

144. The peculiar feature which distinguishes

138. Panthera leo and Canis familiaris are
E.coli from Claviceps is that the latter
(1) Placed in same Kingdom and same

genus
(1) Has polysaccharide in cell wall
Placed in different orders and different (2) Produces meiotic haploid spores
(2)
families (3) Is heterotrophic in nature
(3) Placed in same Kingdom and different (4) Has 70S ribosomes
families
(4) Placed in different Kingdom and
different orders 145. The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy
is seen in members of

139. In living organisms, growth is

(1) Phycomycetes
(1) Extrinsic
(2) Basidiomycetes
(2) Intrinsic (3) Ascomycetes
(3) Reversible (4) Deuteromycetes
(4) Temporary
146. In pea plant, egg apparatus is

140. Two plants A and B can be conclusively said (1) 7-celled

to belong to the same species if they (2) 3-celled
(1) Have same number of nuclei in the cell (3) 8-nucleated
(2) Have more than 90% similar genes 4) 8-celled
(3) Can reproduce freely with each other
and form seeds 147. Which of the following is correct statement
(4) Are morphologically similar for largest cell of female gametophyte in
angiosperms?
141. Match the column with column lI and (1) t bears two haploid nuclei
I select
the correct option. (2) It is located at chalazal end
Column Column II (3) It is involved in syngamy
a. Methanogens () Photoautotrophic (4) It bears filiform apparatus
b. Halophiles Ci) Suts of
ruminants 148. Find the incorrect match.
c.
Thermoacidophiles (ii) Heterotrophic (1) Psilotum-Psilopsida
d. Cyanobacteria (iv) Hot water
springs
(2) Selaginella- Sphenopsida
(1) ai), bi), c(i), d(iv) 3) Equisetum-Sphenopsida
(2) ai), bi), civ), dÙi) (4) Adiantum -

Pteropsida
(3) aii), bti), c(i), doiv)
149. Read the
(4) aii), b(i), c(iv), d(i) following statements are select the
correct option.
Assertion (A): Mosses are of
142. Cellular
eukaryotic organism having stiff ecological importance. great
cellulosic plates on outer surface of cell Reason (R): Mosses
wall
the first
along with lichens are
organisms to colonise rocks.
(1) Diatom (1) Assertion is correct but reason is
(2) Dinoflagellate incorrect
(3) Protozoan (2) Assertion is incorrect but
reason is
(4) Euglenoid correct
(3) Both assertion (A) and reason
correct but (R) (R) are
143. All of the IS not
of
following form the basis for division explanation of (A) correct
Kingdom Fungi into various classes, (4) Both assertion (A) and reason
except (R) are
(1) Morphology of correct and (R) is correct
mycelium (A) explanation of
(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Mode of spore formation 150. Fusion of two
(4) Fruiting bodies gametes which
and similar in size is are
flagellated
seen in
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Eudorina
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Volvox
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-l(B)-TO1

zooLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Which of the following is associated with the 157. Select the flightless bird from the following.
members of phylum Aschelminthes? (1) Neophron
(1) Monoecious (2) Aptenodytes
(2) Parapodia (3) Psittacula
(3) Pseudocoelom (4) Columba
(4) Metamerism
158. Select the incorrect statement.
152. ldentily a cartilaginous fish, which kills its (1) In Platyhelminthes, body cavity is
enemies with an electric shock from the absent
electric organ. Notochord is an ectodermally derived
(2)
(1) Pristis rod-like structure
(2) Catla (3) Choanocytes line the spongocoel
(3) Pterophyllum (4) All chordates are triploblastic
(4) Torpedo
159. Bony fishes and cartilaginous fishes are
153. Metameric segmentation is seen in similar in possessing
members of all of the given phyla, except (1) Air bladder
(1) Annelida (2) Placoid scales
(2) Arthropoda (3) Cycloid scales
(3) Hemichordata (4) Two-chambered heart
(4) Chordata

160. The larva of which animal undergoes

154. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia? metamorphosis in fresh water and then
returns to the ocean?
(1) Metagenesis
(2) Gastrovascular cavity (1) Petromyzon
(3) Diploblastic (2) Branchiostoma
(4) Cnidoblast (3) Ascidia
4) Salpa
155. Ch0ose the odd one w.r.t. class
Osteichthyes. 161. Complete the analogy and choose the
correct option.
(1) Hippocampus
(2) Carcharodon Poikilothermous Chelone
Homeothermous
(3) Labeo
(1) Aptenodytes
(4) Exocoetus
(2) Alligator
(3) Bufo
156. How many of the following are economically
(4) Clarias
beneficial insects?
Bombyx, Anopheles, Laccifer, Limulus, 162.
Wuchereria Digestive system is complete but circulatory
and respiratory system are absent in
(1) Three phylum
(2) Four (1) Platyhelminthes
(3) Five (2) Aschelminthes
(4) Two (3) Annelida
4) Arthropoda

17
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

the incorrect feature w.r.t. 169. Choose the animal in which the alimentary
163. Select
canal, urinary and reproductive tracts do not
ctenop res.
open into cloaca,
(1) Tissue level of body organisation
(2) Fertlization is external (1) lchthyophis
(2) Bulo
(3) Ciliated comb plates primarily help in
feeding (3) Elephas
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and (4) Salamandra
Intracellular

170. Which of the following characters is

164. Select an oviparous mammal. possessed by reptiles without exception?
(1) Two pairs of limbs
(1) Balaenoptera
(2) Ornithorhynchus (2) Three chambered heart

(3) Delphinus (3) Presence of vertebral column

(4) Equus (4) Shed their scales as skin cast

165. Match column I with column ll and select the 171. An important characteristic feature that is
correct option. shared between Balanoglossus and
Column l Pteropus is
Column
(1) Presence of air sacs
(aDentalium ) i g n regeneration
(a) Dentaium capacity (2) Sexes are separate
(3) Dorsal solid nerve cord
(b), Pheretima (i)Radula (4) Presence of notochord
inLongitudinal and
(c) Nereis
circular muscles
172. Choose the odd member w.r.t. monoecious
(d) Planaria iv)Parapodia animals.
(1) aci), bv), ci), dÙ) (1) Pheretima
(2) a), biv), cçii), dfi) (2) Hirudinaria
(3) aii), b(i), c(i), d(iv) (3) Nereis
(4) aii), b(iü), coiv). d() (4) Taenia

166. All of the following possess radial syImmetry 173. In echinoderms, digestive System is
in adult stages, except complete with mouth on side and
(1) Coelenterates anus on the side.
(2) Ctenophores Select the correct option that fills the blanks,
(3) Echinoderms respectively.
(1) Upper; lower
(4) Molluscs
(2) Ventral; dorsal
(3) Dorsal; upper
167. The platyhelminth that absorbs nutrients
from the host directly through its body (4) Dorsal; ventral
surface is
(1) Tapeworm 174. Pseudocoelom is seen in
(2) Liver fluke (1) Fasciola
(3) Blood fluke (2) Ancylostoma
(4) Hookworm (3) Taenia
(4) Hirudinaria
168. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option. 175. Select the mismatch w.r.t. animals and their
Statement A Members of subphyla
Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often
respective phylum.
referred to as protochordates. (1) Portuguese man of war- Cnidaria
Statement B: Ascidia is a urochordate. (2) Brittle star- Echinodermata
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Tapeworm - Platyhelminthes

(2) Only statement A is incorrect (4) Hookworm - Mollusca

(3) Both statements A and B are correct

(4) Only statement B is incorrect
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-TO1

181. Cnidoblasts are not used for

below
176. How many of the features listed
are
correct w.r.t. phylum Porifera? (1) Anchorage
() Internal cavities are lined with food (2) Capture of prey
filtering flagellated cells
(3) Digestion of food
i) Body is made up of meshwork of cells (4) Defense
(ini) Mostly asymmetrical
(iv) Water vascular system
(1) Zero 182. Select the correct statement.
(2) One (1) Notochord is replaced by bony
vertebral column in all adult vertebrates
(3) Two
In cephalochordates, notochord is
(4) Three (2)
persistent throughout their life
chordates are vertebrates
177. Calcareous spicules are present in the (3) All
Urochordata, notochord extends
members of phylum (4) In
from head to tail region
(1) Annelida
(2) Porifera
183. Animals having radial symmetry represents
(3) Arthropoda
that
(4) Cnidaria
(1) Any plane passing through the
centre

of the body does not divide the

178. All of the following are exclusive features of organism into equal halves
birds, except (2) Any plane passing through the central
(1) Pneumatic long bones axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves
(2) Presence of feathers
(3) Air sacs connected to lungs to (3) The body can be divided into identical
left and right halves in only one
supplement respiration
horizontal plane
(4) Presence of crop and gizzard
(4) The body can be divided into two
identical halves in only one
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. non-poisonous longitudinal plane
reptiles
(1) Crocodilus
184, The phylum in which triploblasty originated
(2) Vipera for the first time is
(3) Testudo (1) Ctenophora
(4) Calotes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
180. Which of the following is a feature of the
(4) Platyhelminthes
phylum represented by animal given
below?
185. All of the following are exclusively marine,
except
(1) Doliolum
(2) Antedon
(3) Pleurobrachia
(4) Clarias

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Organ system level of body
organisation
(3) Direct development
(4) Bioluminescence

SECTION-B
FTS for NEET-2023_Phase-1(B)-T01

186. Choose the option in which, the genus 191. Select the fresh water animal.
name, its two characters and class are not
(1) Spongilla
correctly matched.
(2) Ctenoplana
Genus name Two characters Class
(3) Ophiura
(1) Myxine Ectoparasite, Cyclostomata (4) Saccoglossus
circular mouth
Poikilothermous, 192. Select the organism which has the following
(2) Carcharodon operculum Chondrichthyes
absent characteristics.
) The male bears a brood pouch where
Sexes are female lays egg
separate, skin () Tail is pre-hensile
(3) Clarias Osteichthyes
with cycloid (ii) Presence of long snout
Scales (iv) Bony endoskeleton
Presence of two (1) Hippocampus
of legs, (2) Catla
(4)Ichthyophis tympanum
4 chthyophispairs Amphibia (3) Scoliodon
present (4) Pristis
(1) (1)
(2) (2) 193. The incorrect feature about feather like gills
(3) (3) in the second largest animal phylum is
(4) (4) (1) Present in space between the hump
and the mante
187. Choose the set of animals that belong to the (2) Have respiratory and excretory
same class. functions

(1) Pterophyllum and Carcharodon (3) Increases the area available for gas
(2) Ichthyophis and Pristis exchange
(4) Play role in digestion
(3) Myxine and Petromyzon
(4) Corvus and Pteropus
194. The mesoderm is present as Scattered
pouches in between the ectoderm and
188. Assertion (A): A closed circulatory system is endoderm in the body cavity, in
present in annelids. (1) Aedes
Reason (R): In annelids, the blood is
circulated through a series of closed vessels (2) Aplysia
of varying diameters. (3) Ancylostoma
In the light of above statements, choose the (4) Antedon
correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
195. Many living members of class A are
correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not ectoparasites on some other B.
Correct explanation of (A) Choose the option which fills the blanks

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false correctly.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is
true B
A

(1) Cyclostomata Fishes

animal which has no
189. Select the triploblastic
excretory system. (2) Chondrichthyes Amphibians
(1) Lancelet
(3) Amphibia Fishes
(2) Lamprey
(4) Reptlia Osteichthyes
(3) Sea urchin

(4) Magur (1) (1)

(2) (2)
190. The former is a sessile and cylindrical form
(3) (3)
whereas the latter is umbrella-shaped and
The (4) (4)
free-swimming form of coelenterates.'
former and the latter respectively, are

(1) Polyp; medusa

(2) Medusa; Polyp

(3) Aurelia; Adamsia
(4) Sexually reproducing: asexually
reproducing
FTS for NEET-2023 Phase-1(B)-TO1
cells are
the scientific name 199. Specialised cells called flame
196. Which of the following is present in members of the phylum that also
of Lion?
possess
(1) Camelus forms
(1) Hooks and suckers in parasitic
(2) Panthera tigris in all
(2) Regeneration capacity
(3) Panthera leo
(3) Direct development
(4) Elephas and circular muscles for
(4) Longitudinal
locomotion

197. Select the incorrect match.

and
(1) Pterophyllum Angel fish system is ventral, solid
-

200. Central nervous

double in
(2) Testudo Turtle
-

(3) Sepia -Cuttlefish (1) Periplaneta

Brittle star (2) Petromyzon
(4) Ophiura
-

(3) Pristis

198. The common feature between butterfly, (4) Psittacula

prawn,king crab and mosquito is

(1) They are mostly viviparous
terrestrial
(2) They all are

(3) Tracheal respiration

(4) Chitinous exoskeleton